24/03/2023 CODE-A

Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

INTENSIVE PROGRAM for NEET-2023

MM : 720 PST-3 Time : 3 Hrs. 20 Mins.

Physics: Physical World, Units and Measurements, Motion in a Straight Line, Motion in a Plane, Laws of
Motion, Work, Energy and Power

Chemistry: Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure, States of Matter, The s-Block Elements, The p-Block
Elements (Group-13 and 14)

Botany: Cell: The Unit of Life, Cell Cycle and Cell Division, Plant Kingdom, Mineral Nutrition

Zoology: Animal Kingdom, Structural Organization in Animals, Biomolecules

Instructions :

(i) There are two sections in each subject, i.e. Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35 questions from
Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15.

(ii) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from the total score.
Unanswered / unattempted questions will be given no marks.

(iii) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.

(iv) Mark should be dark and completely fill the circle.

(v) Dark only one circle for each entry.

(vi) Dark the circle in the space provided only.

(vii) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material
on the Answer sheet.

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PST-3_(Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2023

PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer:
SECTION-A 7. A small bob of mass ‘m’ is whirled in a vertical
1. Which of the following is an example of elastic circle with a thread of length ‘’. Column-I
collision?
contains the speed of bob at its lowest point and
(1) Collision of an asteroid with a planet column-II has the possible trajectory acquired by
(2) Collision of atoms of an ideal gas the bob. Match the columns and choose the
(3) Collision of a car and a truck correct option.
(4) Collision of a bullet with a wooden block and Column-I Column-II
getting embedded into it
2. For collision among two bodies, the maximum a. v = 5g (i) Full circular
loss in kinetic energy occurs in trajectory
(1) Elastic collision b. v = 4g (ii) Initially circular
(2) Inelastic collision and later parabolic
(3) Perfectly inelastic collision
c. v = 3g (iii) Circular trajectory
(4) Both (1) and (2) with oscillations
3. Two bodies of mass 4 kg and 6 kg are moving in
same direction at speed 6 m/s and 4 m/s d. v = 2g (iv) Straight line
respectively. If they collide elastically then their
speeds after collision will be (1) a(i), b(ii), c(ii), d(iii) (2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(1) 4 m/s and 6 m/s (2) 3.6 m/s and 5.6 m/s (3) a(ii), b(ii), c(ii), d(iii) (4) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iii)
(3) 8 m/s and 6 m/s (4) 2.4 m/s and 4.4 m/s 8. The only force acting on a block is given by
4. A 2 kg block lying on a smooth horizontal table is  4 
F = − 2  i N . If the block is moved from
displaced through 50 cm on the table. Work done  x +2
by the contact force between block and table is x = –3 m to x = 6 m then change in kinetic energy
(1) 10 J (2) 100 J of block is
(3) 100 erg (4) Zero (1) May be positive (2) Must be positive
5. If ‘S’ is gain in elastic potential energy in spring (3) Must be negative (4) Zero
and ‘G’ be the loss in gravitational potential
energy of block attached with a vertical spring 9. A small bob hangs from the roof of a vehicle
hanging from the ceiling which allowed to which is negotiating a curve of radius 5 m at a
stretched slowly, when the block of mass ‘m’ is speed of 7 m/s. The angle made by thread of bob
attached to it. Then choose the correct option. with the vertical is
(1) S = G (2) S = 2G  
(1) (2)
G G 4 6
(3) S = (4) S =
2 4 (3) tan–1(2) (4) tan–1(4)
6. A coolie moves across stairs carrying a luggage 10. When horizontal road is banked for safe turning
of 40 kg on his head. If he moves 100 m upwards at maximum permissible speed then
carrying this luggage, the work done on luggage
by normal reaction of his head, is (1) Normal reaction on the vehicle decreases

[Take g = 10 m/s2] (2) Centripetal force on the vehicle increases

(1) 40 J (2) 400 J (3) Friction on the vehicle decreases
(3) 40 kJ (4) Zero (4) All of the above

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Intensive Program for NEET-2023 PST-3_(Code-A)

11. Two blocks of mass 6 kg and 4 kg connected by 17. Number of significant figures in 2.00400 is
a string. The string connects 6 kg block with a (1) 6 (2) 4
hinge and the system rotates with an angular (3) 3 (4) 2
speed of 10 rad/s on a smooth horizontal table as
B +C 
shown in figure. The ratio of tensions in the two 18. If A = and  = , then choose the
D  + 
strings is
correct statement w.r.t. principle of homogeneity.
[Note: A, B, C, D, , , ,  are physical quantities]
B 
(1) [ A] =   = [C ] (2) [] = []
D 
(1) 11 : 17 (2) 23 : 14 (3) [B] = [C] = [AD] (4) [] = [] = []
19. While calculating density of a metal its mass was
(3) 14 : 9 (4) 9 : 10
measured as (20 ± 0.2) kg while its volume was
12. The dimensional formula for pressure gradient is measured as (4 ± 0.08) m3. Its density under
(1) [ML–1T–2] (2) [ML0T–2] permissible limit of error can be written as
(1) (80 ± 2.4) kg m–3 (2) (5 ± 0.15) kg m–3
(3) [ML2T–2] (4) [ML–2T–2]
(3) (5 ± 0.28) kg m–3 (4) (80 ± 0.28) kg m–3
13. SI unit of plane angle is 20. The force exerted by block A on B is (Refer to the
(1) Degree (2) Radian diagram) if all surfaces are smooth
(3) Minutes (4) Seconds
14. Choose the correct statement about fundamental
forces in nature.
(1) 100 N (2) 60 N
(1) Electromagnetic force is the strongest force (3) 40 N (4) 20 N
in nature
21. A book of mass 2 kg is held against a vertical
(2) Two protons kept 1 m apart will experience wall with a push of 100 N (as shown in figure).
more electrostatic repulsion than nuclear The friction coefficient between the book and wall
attraction (g = 10 m/s2)

(3) Weak nuclear force is the weakest

fundamental force in nature
(4) Both (2) and (3)
15. Arrange the following lengths in increasing order
of their magnitude.
Parallactical second (parsec), angstrom (Å),
Fermi (fm), light year (LY), Astronomical unit
(1) Must be equal to 0.2
(AU)
(2) Must be greater than or equal to 0.2
(1) fm < Å < AU < LY < parsec
(3) Must be less than 0.2
(2) parsec < LY < AU < Å < fm (4) May be less than 0.2
(3) Å < fm < AU < parsec < LY 22. Which of the following is an example of motion
(4) fm > Å > AU > LY > parsec due to the impulse imparted on the respective
objects?
16. If two resistance connected in series are
(1) Striking a billiard ball using a cue ball
measured to be 20 ± 0.2  and 30 ± 0.3  then
(2) Bouncing of a ball after striking to a rigid
maximum possible percentage error in their net surface
combination is (3) Motion of a ball at its highest point during
(1) 5% (2) 0.5% vertical motion under gravity
(3) 0.005% (4) 1% (4) Both (1) and (2)

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PST-3_(Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2023

23. A block on a rough horizontal platform is moving 26. Two forces each equal to ‘F’ act as shown in the
forward (as shown in figure). Considering the fact figure. Magnitude of their resultant is
that the platform also starts moving vertically.

F
(1) F (2)
Choose the correct option. 2
(1) If the platform is accelerating vertically 3
upwards, then friction on block must decrease (3) F (4) 3F
2
(2) If the platform is accelerating vertically
27. For two unequal vectors A and B choose the
downwards then friction on block must increase
incorrect option.
(3) Friction on block will be zero if the block stops
moving on the vertically accelerating platform (1) A + B = B + A (2) A − B = B − A
(4) All of the above (3) A + B = B + A (4) A − B = B − A
24. A uniform chain of mass ‘M’ and length ‘L’ is kept
on a rough horizontal table such that some part 28. Position of a particle varies as x = (t – 2)2. The
of it hangs off the edge. If coefficient of friction time at which velocity and acceleration become
between chain and table is 0.6, then maximum numerically equal is (x is in metre and t is in
length of hanging part of chain is second)
(1) 3 second
(2) 2 second
(3) 4 second
(4) At the beginning of the motion (i.e. at t = 0)
29. A particle moves in a circular path of radius 2 m
such that its angular velocity varies as  = 4t – 4.
2L L
(1) (2) Its tangential acceleration at t = 1 second is
5 6
(Consider all quantities to be measured in SI
L 3L system)
(3) (4)
4 8 (1) 8 m/s2
25. A smooth incline of length ‘L’ and inclination ‘’ is (2) 4 m/s2
kept inside a lift as shown. The time taken by
(3) 16 m/s2
block ‘m’ to slide down the incline if lift is moving
down with retardation ‘a’ is (4) Zero (as the particle is in uniform circular
motion)
30. A particle moving in a straight line along positive
x-axis has an acceleration along (–)ve x-axis.
Considering this, choose the correct statement.
(1) Speed of particle keeps increasing
2L 2L
(1) (2) (2) Particle comes to rest only for one moment
(g − a )sin  (g + a )sin 
(3) Speed of particle remains constant
2L 2L (4) Particle keeps moving with decreasing
(3) (4)
g sin  a sin velocity till eternity

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Intensive Program for NEET-2023 PST-3_(Code-A)

31. To cross a 100 m wide river flowing at 10 m/s in SECTION-B

minimum possible time, the swimmer should 36. The vertical wall has coefficient of friction ‘’ with
align his strokes the block of mass m held stationary against it.
(1) Parallel to the river current The maximum value of ‘F’ for which the block
does not move up is (refer to the diagram)
(2) Perpendicular to the river current
(3) At an angle of 45° from river current

−1  2 
(4) At angle of tan   from river current
5
32. Two particles ‘A’ and ‘B’ are projected at same
angles from ground. If speed of projection of ‘A’
is double that of ‘B’ then
(1) Time of flight : TA = TB mg mg
(1) (2)
 cos  sin  +  cos 
(2) Horizontal range : RA > RB
mg mg
(3) Angle of strike on ground : A > B (3) (4)
sin  −  cos   tan 
(4) All of the above
37. Two particles A and B are moving in a straight
33. “A particle is moving on a circular track with line. Their motion is represented in respective
decreasing speed”. Which of the following graphs as shown below.
statement is incorrect about it?
(1) Angle between velocity and net acceleration
is obtuse
(2) Angular acceleration is non-zero
(3) Tangential acceleration is zero
(4) Both (1) and (3) The ratio of their respective initial retardations will
be
34. A particle starts from rest and accelerates
(1) 0.4 (2) 8
according to equation a = 3t2 m/s2 (where t is
(3) 0.2 (4) 40
time in seconds). Its velocity at t = 4 is
38. A projectile is given initial velocity of

(2i + 4 j ) m/s . Which of the following represents

(1) 24 m/s (2) 6 m/s
(3) 36 m/s (4) 64 m/s
the equation of trajectory of this projectile?
35. A particle is projected at an angle from horizontal
returns to the same level. Variation of its vertical (Take, g = 10 m/s2)
velocity (vy) with time (t) is shown below. (1) 5y = 4x – 8x2 (2) 4y = 8x – 5x2
(3) 8y = 4x – 5x2 (4) 4y = 5x2 – 8x
39. Two particles are projected simultaneously as
shown in figure. They will collide mid-air after

The maximum height covered by the particle is

[g = 10 m/s2]
(1) 90 m (2) 60 m (1) 4.2 second (2) 1.1 second
(3) 45 m (4) 30 m (3) 0.5 second (4) 3 second

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PST-3_(Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2023

40. Pressure (P) exerted by a gas is given as  1

(1) 60° (2) sin−1  
‘P = Fe–, where F is force. 3
2  1
The dimension of

is (3) tan−1   (4) 30°
2
(1) [M0L–6T0] (2) [M0L–2]
46. A particle is whirled in a horizontal circle with the
(3) [M0L–4T0] (4) [ML–1T–2]
help of two threads of equal lengths ( 2m
41. Length of a rectangle is measured as 100 cm
each), using a vertical rod as shown. If the
using an instrument having 1 cm as least count,
angular speed of rotation is 2 rad s –1, then the
while its breadth is measured as 40 cm with an
instrument having least count 2 mm. Its area ratio of tensions developed in the threads is
under permissible limit of error can be expressed [g = 10 m/s2]
as
(1) (4000 ± 60) cm2 (2) (4000 ± 30) cm2
(3) (4000 ± 6) cm2 (4) (4000 ± 3) cm2

42. Component of vector i + j along i − j is equal to

i+ j i− j
(1) (2)
2 2

(3) 2i − 2 j (4) Zero (1) 7 : 3 (2) 5 : 2

(3) 4 : 9 (4) 1 : 1
43. A particle executing circular motion (started from
rest) keeps increasing its speed at 2 m/s every 47. A block of mass 2 kg slides down a fixed rough
second. If it started at t = 0 then its acceleration at ramp as shown below. If coefficient of friction is
t = 2 will be (Given: radius of circular path = 4 m) 0.25, then work done by friction from path A to B
(1) 2 m s–2 (2) 4 m s–2 is [use g = 10 m/s2]
(3) 4 2 m s−2 (4) 2 5 m s−2
44. A projectile is projected with an initial speed ‘u’ at
an angle ‘’ from horizontal. For a short path near
the highest point in its trajectory, the parabolic
path may be approximated as circular arc. Its
radius of curvature will be
u 2 sin2  u 2 sin2  (1) –40 J (2) –20 J
(1) (2)
2g g (3) –80 J (4) –10 J

u 2 cos2  48. A particle moving along x-axis under the action of

(3) (4) Infinity
g 1
a force which varies as F  . The variation of
x
45. Two masses 10 kg and 5 kg are attached by a
light string passing over a smooth fixed cylinder, power due to this force with x is equal to
as shown in the diagram. The value of angle ‘’ if 1
the masses are in equilibrium is (1)
x

1
(2) 1
x4

(3) x
3
(4) x 2

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Intensive Program for NEET-2023 PST-3_(Code-A)

49. A particle is rotated in a vertical circle using a 50. Two bodies underwent perfectly elastic collision,
light string such that it just loops the circle.
this nature of collision depends on
Choose the correct statement for this situation.
(1) Tension in the string remains same (1) Initial momentum of particles
throughout
(2) Kinetic energy of particle remains same (2) Kinetic energy of particles
throughout
(3) It is an example of uniform circular motion (3) Coefficient of restitution
(4) Mechanical energy of particle remains same
(4) Nature of material of colliding bodies
throughout

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A 54. Resonance is not shown by

51. Which of the following molecular does not have (1) CO2 (2) CO
expanded octet? (3) N2 (4) CN–
(1) PF5 (2) H2SO4 55. Polar molecule among the following is
(3) SF6 (4) HNO3
52. Given below are two statements: one is labelled
as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R). (1) (2)
Assertion (A): Bond orders of CO and NO+ are
same.
Reason (R): Isoelectronic molecules and ions
have identical bond orders.
In the light of the above statement, choose the (3) (4)
most appropriate answer from the option given
below.
56. Match List-I with List-II.
(1) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(2) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct List-I (Species) List-II (Shape)
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the a. SF6 (i) Tetrahedral
correct explanation of (A)
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not b. BrF5 (ii) Octahedral
correct explanation of (A) c. PCl+4 (iii) Square
53. Which amongst the following is incorrect pyramidal
statement?
d. SF4 (iv) See saw
(1) Qualitative measure of the stability of ionic
compound is provided by achieving octet of Choose the correct answer from the options
electrons around ionic species in gaseous given below.
state
(1) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii) (2) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
(2) Equilibrium distance between the nuclei of
(3) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i) (4) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii)
two bonded atoms in a molecule is known as
bond length 57. Potential energy for the formation of H2 molecule
(3) The van der Waals radius represents the will be minimum when internuclear distance is
overall size of the atom which includes its equal to
valence shell in a non-bonded situation (1) Atomic radius of hydrogen
(4) Covalent radius is measured approximately (2) Zero
as the radius of an atom’s core which is in
(3) Bond length
contact with the core of an adjacent atom in
bonded situation (4) Infinite

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PST-3_(Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2023

58. Which of the following species is diamagnetic 66. Volume occupied by 0.9 g of water vapour at
and has bond order equal to1? 327°C and 1 bar pressure is nearly equal to
(1) O2 (2) O 2+ (1) 15 L (2) 25 L

(3) O 2−1 (4) O22 − (3) 45 L (4) 60 L

67. A certain gas takes four times as long to effuse
59. Intramolecular hydrogen bond is present in
out as helium. Its molecular mass will be
(1) 16 u (2) 32 u
(3) 64 u (4) 128 u
(1) (2)
68. Dalton’s law of partial pressure is not valid for the
mixture of
(1) O2 and CO2 (2) NH3 and HCl

(3) (4) (3) SO2 and SO3 (4) CO and CO2

69. Select the incorrect statement.
60. Unit of van der Waal constant ‘a’ is (1) Beryllium halide is covalent in nature
(1) atm (2) atm L mol–2 (2) Beryllium chloride forms chloro bridged dimer
(3) atm L2 mol–1 (4) atm L2 mol–2 in solid state

61. The density of CH4 gas at 8.21 atm pressure at (3) Beryllium chlorides near 1200 K forms linear
100 K is monomer

(1) 4 g L–1 (2) 8 g L–1 (4) Beryllium halides are soluble in organic
solvent
(3) 16 g L–1 (4) 32 g L–1
70. Which of the following is used to slow down of
62. Real gas obeys ideal gas behaviour at
setting of cement?
(1) High temperature and low pressure
(1) CaO (2) CaSO4
(2) Low temperature and low pressure
(3) CaSO42H2O (4) Ca(OH)2
(3) High temperature and high pressure
71. Which of the following oxide is most basic in
(4) Low temperature and high pressure
nature?
63. A gaseous mixture contains 10 mol CO and
(1) BeO (2) MgO
15 mol CO2. If total pressure of mixture is 5 atm
then the partial pressure of CO2 gas is (3) BaO (4) CaO

(1) 1atm (2) 1.5 atm 72. Most soluble compound among the following is

(3) 3 atm (4) 2.5 atm (1) BaSO4 (2) CaSO4

64. An open container is heated from 27°C to 227°C. (3) MgSO4 (4) SrSO4
The fraction of air expelled out is 73. Nitrate which does not give NO2 gas on heating
is
3 2
(1) (2)
5 5 (1) NaNO3 (2) Mg(NO3)2

1 2 (3) Ca(NO3)2 (4) LiNO3

(3) (4)
2 3 74. The aqueous solution of Ca(OH)2 is known as
65. Viscosity of which liquid is maximum at a given (1) Lime water
temperature? (2) Quicklime
(1) H2O (2) C6H6 (3) Milk of lime
(3) CH3OH (4) C2H5OH (4) Milk of magnesia

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Intensive Program for NEET-2023 PST-3_(Code-A)

75. Match List-I with List-II. 84. 2B2H6 + 6NH3 ⎯⎯

→ A ⎯⎯⎯
→B Heat

List-I List-II The compound B is

(Substance) (Uses) (1) B3N3H12 (2) B3N3H6
a. Liquid sodium (i) Photoelectric cells (3) BH3NH3 (4) B3N3H3
85. Amphoteric oxide among the following is
b. Potassium (ii) Electrochemical cells
chloride (1) B2O3 (2) Ga2O3
(3) ln2O3 (4) Tl2O3
c. Lithium (iii) Fertilizers
SECTION-B
d. Caesium (iv) Coolant in fast breeder 86. CH3 − CH = C = CH − CN
nuclear reactor
Total number of sp hybridised atoms in above
(1) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv) (2) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii) molecule is
(3) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (4) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv) (1) 1 (2) 2
76. Yellow flame colour is shown by (3) 3 (4) 4
(1) Li (2) Na 87. Which of the following species has a linear shape?
(3) K (4) Rb (1) H2O (2) SO2
77. Which of the following does not form stable (3) NO2− (4) XeF2
superoxide?
88. Lowest unoccupied molecular orbital in C2 is
(1) Cs (2) Rb
(1) 2py (2) *2py
(3) K (4) Na
(3) 2pz (4) *2pz
78. Correct order of density is
89. Maximum covalent character among the
(1) Li < Na < K < Rb (2) Rb < K < Na < Li
following is in
(3) Li < K < Na < Rb (4) Na < Li < K < Rb
(1) CaI2 (2) CaF2
79. Purest form of carbon is
(3) KI (4) KF
(1) Diamond (2) Fullerene
90. If V0 is the volume at 0°C then volume of gas Vt
(3) Graphite (4) Coke at t°C is given by the expression
80. Chain length of silicone can be controlled by  273.15 + t  V0 t
(1) V0   (2)
(1) (CH4)4 Si (2) (CH3)3SiCl  273.15  273.15
(3) (CH3)2SiCl2 (4) CH3SiCl3  273.15   1+ t 
(3) V0   (4) V0  
81. Producer gas is mixture of N2 gas with  273.15 + t   273.15 
(1) CO (2) H2O 91. Statement-A: On increasing temperature,
(3) H2 (4) O2 fraction of molecules having most probable
speed decreases.
82. Maximum number of coplanar atom in diborane
is Statement-B: Most probable speed increases
with increase in the temperature.
(1) 2 (2) 4
In the light of above statement choose the correct
(3) 6 (4) 8
option.
83. Select the incorrect statement regarding Borax. (1) Statement A is correct but statement B is
(1) Borax is Na2B4O7 incorrect
(2) Contains tetranuclear unit [B4O5(OH)4]2– (2) Statement A is incorrect but statement B is
(3) Aqueous solution of borax is alkaline in correct
nature (3) Both statements A and B are correct
(4) White crystalline solid (4) Both statements A and B are incorrect

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PST-3_(Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2023

92. Reaction which is not included in Solvay’s 96. Most negative reduction potential in the alkali
process is metal is of
(1) 2NH3 + H2O + CO2 → (NH4)2CO3 (1) Li (2) Na

(2) NH4HCO3 + NaCl → NH4Cl + NaHCO3 (3) K (4) Cs

(3) NaHCO3 + NaOH → Na2CO3 + H2O 97. Which of the following species is not stable?
(1) PbI4 (2) PbF4
(4) (NH4)2CO3 + H2O + CO2 → 2NH4HCO3
(3) SnI4 (4) SnF4
93. Correct order of hydrated radii is
98. Element which does not show catenation is
(1) Be2+ > Mg2+ > Ca2+ (2) Ca2+ > Mg2+ > Be2+
(1) C (2) Si
(3) Mg2+ > Ca2+ > Be2+ (4) Mg2+ > Be2+ > Ca2+
(3) Sn (4) Pb
94. All enzymes that utilized ATP in phosphate
99. How many membered ring is present in three
transfer require which metal as cofactor?
dimensional SiO2?
(1) Li (2) Mg (1) 4 (2) 5
(3) K (4) Ca (3) 6 (4) 8
95. Minimum melting point among the following is of 100. Maximum bond enthalpy is of
(1) Li (2) Na (1) C – C (2) Si – Si
(3) K (4) Cs (3) Ge – Ge (4) Sn – Sn

BOTANY
SECTION-A a b c d
101. Nine peripheral doublets of microtubules are (1) Air bladder Frond Holdfast Midrib
found in
(1) Centriole (2) Basal body of pili (2) Air bladder Frond Midrib Holdfast
(3) Axoneme of cilia (4) Bacterial flagella (3) Air bladder Holdfast Frond Midrib
102. Arrange the following events of meiosis in correct
sequence. (4) Frond Air bladder Midrib Holdfast
(a) Synapsis
104. The complex formed by a pair of synapsed
(b) Splitting of centromere homologous chromosomes is called
(c) Movement of homologous chromosomes
towards opposite poles (1) Bivalent and has two chromatids only
(d) Crossing over (2) Bivalent and has four chromatids
Choose the correct option. (3) Monovalent and has four chromatids
(1) (d) → (a) → (c) → (b) (4) Monovalent and has two chromatids only
(2) (a) → (d) → (c) → (b)
105. Which of the following micronutrients is absorbed
(3) (a) → (d) → (b) → (c) as anion by roots of plants?
(4) (d) → (a) → (b) → (c)
(1) Chlorine (2) Copper
103. Examine the figure given below and select the
right option giving all the four parts (a, b, c, d) (3) Molybdenum (4) Zinc
correctly identified. 106. The main constituent protein of mitotic apparatus
is formed during which stage of cell division?
(1) G1 Phase (2) G2 Phase
(3) S phase (4) M-phase
107. Calcium pectate is the important component of
(1) Secondary cell wall (2) Middle lamella
(3) Glycocalyx (4) Plasmodesmata
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108. In oocytes of some vertebrates which of the 114. Centriole duplication occurs in
following stage can lasts for months or years?
(1) G2 phase (2) Prophase
(1) Diplotene (2) Pachytene
(3) S-phase (4) G1–phase
(3) Diakinesis (4) Leptotene
115. Find the option showing correct life cycle pattern
109. Find the correct statement w.r.t. mineral nutrition of respective plant.
of plants.
(1) Ectocarpus – haplontic life cycle
(1) Nickel is a beneficial element
(2) Pinus – diplontic life cycle
(2) Boron is not required for pollen germination
(3) Azolla – haplontic life cycle
(3) Manganese toxicity can cause Fe deficiency
(4) Calcium is a micronutrient (4) Fucus – haplo-diplontic life cycle

110. Endomembrane system includes 116. The fruit fly has 8 chromosomes (2n) in its cells.
What will be the number of chromosomes in G1
(1) Sphaerosome
and G2 phase of meiocyte of that fruit fly?
(2) Powerhouse of cell
G1 G2
(3) Organelle enclosed by tonoplast
(1) 8 16
(4) Cytoskeleton
(2) 16 16
111. Find the incorrect pair.
(3) 8 8
(1) Leucoplast → colourless plastids
(4) 16 8
(2) Elaioplast → proteins storing plastids
117. Prothallus is the gametophyte of
(3) Chloroplast → photophosphorylation
(1) Liverworts (2) Pteridophytes
(4) Amyloplast → starch containing plastids
112. Find the correctly matched pair w.r.t. nutrients (3) Mosses (4) Algae
and their deficiency symptoms first seen in plants 118. Which of the following option includes examples
part. of pteridophytes only?
Nutrient Deficiency symptoms (1) Fucus, Lycopodium, Sphagnum
first seen in (2) Sequoia, Equisetum, Salvinia
(1) Potassium Older parts (3) Equisetum, Salvinia, Lycopodium

(2) Calcium Older parts (4) Salvinia, Sphagnum, Funaria

(3) Nitrogen Younger parts 119. Soil is enriched with dissolved ions because of
(1) Active efflux of ions from root
(4) Magnesium Younger parts
(2) Accumulation of dead biomass
113. Assertion(A): Large number of nucleoli are
(3) Weathering and breakdown of rocks
found in cells actively carrying out protein
synthesis. (4) Leaching of minerals
Reason(R): Nucleoli are site of ribosomal protein 120. In cell membrane, carbohydrate is
synthesis.
(1) Completely absent
Find the correct option w.r.t. above statements.
(2) Found towards the cytoplasm
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
(3) Present inside the bilayer
correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the (4) Found attached to lipid and protein
correct explanation of (A) 121. Spindle formation is inhibited by
(3) Only (A) is correct (1) Kinetochore (2) Colchicine
(4) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect (3) Tubulin (4) Chromatin

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PST-3_(Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2023

122. Male sporophyte of Cycas is 128. Find the correct statement.

(1) Independent and photosynthetic (1) Secondary constriction is darkly stained
(2) Dependent on female sporophyte region of chromosome

(3) Dependent on female gametophyte (2) 2 central microtubules are present in basal
body of eukaryotic flagella
(4) Dependent on male gametophyte
(3) Plasmid is the linear, small and double
123. Sporophyte of bryophytes does not include
stranded DNA
(1) Rhizoid (2) Foot
(4) Mesosome helps in distribution of DNA to
(3) Seta (4) Capsule
daughter cells
124. Biological nitrogen fixation does not produce
129. A polysome contains all, except
(1) Hydrogen gas
(1) rRNA (2) Proteins
(2) ADP and inorganic phosphate
(3) Deoxyribonucleotide (4) mRNA
(3) Ammonia
130. Polysulphate esters are found in the cell wall of
(4) NADPH
(1) Red algae (2) Blue-green algae
125. Soil nitrogen pool does not contain
(3) Green algae (4) Brown algae
(1) NO3− (2) NO2−
131. Match the columns and select the correct option.
(3) N2 (4) Organic nitrogen
Column-I Column-II
126. A stage of mitosis is shown in given diagram.
Find the correct stage and characteristic of that a. Ureides (i) Asparagine
stage from the option below.
b. Ammonia (ii) High nitrogen to
carbon ratio

c. Amides (iii) Volatile form

d. -ketoglutaric acid (iv) Amino acceptor

(1) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i) (2) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv)
(3) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i) (4) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
(1) Metaphase – Movement of chromatids 132. Width of perinuclear space is of
towards pole (1) 10 to 50 nm (2) 1 to 2 nm
(2) Transition to – Movement of chromosomes (3) 50 to 100 nm (4) 5 to 7 nm
metaphase towards the metaphasic 133. a. Microspore develops into male gametophyte
plate by mitosis.
(3) Anaphase – Movement of chromatids b. Bryophyte bears integumented megaspo-
towards poles rangium

(4) Transition to – Splitting of centromere c. In strobili of gymnosperm, sporophylls are

metaphase arranged spirally.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
127. Fossils play important role in elucidation of
correct option.
evolutionary relationships. This forms the basis of
(1) Numerical taxonomy (1) a and c are incorrect

(2) Phylogenetic system of classification (2) Only b is incorrect

(3) Natural system of classification (3) Only a is correct

(4) Cytotaxonomy (4) a and b are incorrect

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Intensive Program for NEET-2023 PST-3_(Code-A)

134. Cell furrow formation is seen in 141. Which of the following is not essential for
(1) Animal cells during karyokinesis hydroponics?

(2) Animal cells during cytokinesis (1) Proper aeration (2) Nutrient solution

(3) Plant cells during cytokinesis (3) Matrix like soil (4) Presence of light
142. Floridean starch is not
(4) Plant cells during karyokinesis
(1) Similar to amylopectin in structure
135. Find the incorrect match.
(2) A stored food material
(1) Synaptonemal complex – Zygotene
(3) A carbohydrate
formation
(4) Found in members of Phaeophyceae
(2) Synapsis occurs in – Pachytene
143. Which of the following group of essential
(3) Appearance of chiasmata – Diplotene elements contains only micronutrients?

(4) Bivalent formation – Zygotene (1) Ca, Zn, B and Fe (2) Fe, B, Mg and Mn
(3) Mn, Mo, Zn and Cl (4) Mn, Mo, S and B
SECTION-B
144. Find the correct statement.
136. Which of the following is not a lipid soluble
(1) Interphase is also called resting phase as
pigment?
there is no metabolic activity occurring.
(1) Anthocyanin (2) Carotenoid
(2) Cell organelles duplication occurs only during
(3) Chlorophyll (4) Xanthophyll cytokinesis.
137. Number of bivalents present in a meiocyte cell (3) Number of chromosomes doubles while
with 2n = 16 during metaphase-II is amount of DNA remains same after S phase.
(1) Eight (2) Sixteen (4) Centrioles form spindle fibres that bind to
(3) Zero (4) Four centromere through proteinaceous kinetochore.
138. Which of the following statements are correct 145. Mitochondria do not
w.r.t. Marchantia? (1) Have sausage shape with diameter in range
a. It has dominant gametophytic stage of 0.2-1.0 m
consisting of protonema and leafy stage. (2) Have linear DNA
b. It can reproduce by means of fragmentation. (3) Have double membranes
c. Sex organs are present on different thalli. (4) Have enzymes of Krebs cycle in matrix
d. It bears unicellular asexual buds called 146. How many of the following statements is/are
gemmae. correct?
(1) a and c only (2) b and c only 3−
a. Boron is absorbed in the form of BO3
(3) a and b only (4) b, c and d only
b. Molybdenum helps in photolysis of water.
139. Microtubules are the constituent of
c. Anion-cation balance in plant cells can be
a. Cilia b. Centriole established by K+ and Cl–.
c. Nucleolus d. Spindle fibres (1) Zero (2) One
e. Chromatin (3) Two (4) Three
(1) a, b and d only (2) b, c and e only 147. Both RNA and ribosomes are found in
(3) c, d and e only (4) a, c and d only (1) Chloroplast and mitochondria
140. Karyokinesis occurs after (2) Vacuole and lysosome
(1) Cytokinesis (2) Telophase (3) Glyoxysome and vacuole
(3) G2 phase (4) Metaphase (4) Mitochondria and Golgi body

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PST-3_(Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2023

148. Biflagellated and non-motile male gametes are (1) Karyokinesis – Prophase
found respectively in (2) Interphase – G2
(1) Ferns and mosses (3) Mitosis – Diakinesis

(2) Mosses and liverworts (4) Meiosis – Leptotene

150. Independent free-living gametophyte is found in
(3) Mosses and angiosperms
all, except
(4) Liverwort and pteridophytes (1) Sphagnum (2) Wolffia
149. Find the incorrectly matched pair. (3) Adiantum (4) Lycopodium

ZOOLOGY
SECTION-A 157. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. Watson-
151. The muscle tissue with striations, branching and Crick model of DNA.
communication junctions at some fusion points is (1) The DNA strand turns 36° at each step of
present in ascent.
(1) Heart and lungs (2) Lungs and kidney (2) The pitch would be 3.4 Å.
(3) Heart only (4) Liver and heart (3) The backbone is formed by sugar-phosphate-
152. A specialised connective tissue with solid and sugar chain.
pliable intercellular material is not present in (4) The two strands of polynucleotides are
(1) Tip of nose antiparallel.
(2) Between adjacent bones of vertebral column 158. Choose the mismatch w.r.t. lipids.
(3) Site of production of blood cells
(1) Glycerol – Trihydroxy propane
(4) Limbs in adults
153. The cell junctions which facilitate the cells to (2) Lecithin – Phospholipid
communicate with each other, for rapid transfer (3) Palmitic acid – 20 carbon atoms
of ions, are
(1) Gap junctions (2) Adhering junctions (4) Gingelly oil – Low melting point than fat

(3) Tight junctions (4) Hemidesmosomes 159. The animals which belong to same class include
154. Gastric caecae in cockroach are present at (1) Delphinus, Pteropus, Aptenodytes
(1) The junction of midgut and hindgut (2) Betta, Pristis, Hyla
(2) The junction of foregut and midgut (3) Chameleon, Macropus, Crocodilus
(3) 10th abdominal segment (4) Exocoetus, Hippocampus, Pterophyllum
(4) The junction between crop and gizzard 160. Triploblastic animals which contain radula,
155. Select the correct option to complete the belong to phylum
analogy.
(1) Annelida (2) Mollusca
Plants : Starch :: Animals : _______
(3) Arthropoda (4) Echinodermata
(1) Cellulose (2) Inulin
161. All of the following features belong to phylum
(3) Glycogen (4) Collagen Annelida, except
156. Which of the following closely resembles the
(1) Nephridia
substrate in its molecular structure and inhibits
the activity of enzyme? (2) Metameric segmentation
(1) Additional substrate (2) Free enzyme (3) Radial symmetry
(3) Co-enzyme (4) Competitive inhibitor (4) Sexual reproduction

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Intensive Program for NEET-2023 PST-3_(Code-A)

162. Select the odd one w.r.t. phylum Chordata. 168. Select the correct set with all the secondary
(1) Flying fish (2) Devil fish metabolites only.

(3) Dogfish (4) Angelfish (1) Morphine, tyrosine

163. A student during his project classified the given (2) Cellulose, collagen
animals according to their classes. He incorrectly (3) Ricin, inulin
classified which of the following? (4) Concanavalin A, curcumin
(1) Aves – Struthio 169. Consider the given statements.
(2) Mammalia – Balaenoptera Statement-A: Presence of water canal system is
(3) Cyclostomata – Myxine a characteristic of echinoderms.
(4) Osteichthyes – Carcharodon Statement-B: The notochord is replaced by a
cartilaginous or bony vertebral column in adults
164. Assertion (A): In Urochordata, notochord is
of vertebrates.
present only in larval tail.
Select the correct option.
Reason (R): Notochord extends from head to tail
and is persistent in Doliolum. (1) Both statements A and B are correct

In the light of the above statements, select the (2) Both statements A and B are incorrect
correct option. (3) Only statement A is correct
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the (4) Only statement B is correct
correct explanation of (A) 170. The members of which of the following phylums
(2) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct exhibit bilateral symmetry and possess pseudo-
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct coelom?

(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the (1) Platyhelminthes (2) Aschelminthes
correct explanation of (A) (3) Annelida (4) Echinodermata
165. The type of epithelium covering the moist surface 171. Which of the following is not a correct point of
of buccal cavity also covers the differentiation between chordates and non-
chordates?
(1) Walls of blood vessels
(1) CNS is dorsal, solid and double in non-
(2) Inner surface of fallopian tubes
chordates
(3) Inner lining of pancreatic ducts
(2) Heart is ventral in chordates
(4) Skeletal muscles and bones
(3) Gill slits are absent in non-chordates
166. Select the odd one w.r.t. reproductive system of
(4) A post-anal tail is present in chordates
male cockroach.
172. Identify and select the tissue that exerts the
(1) Titillator (2) Anal style
greatest control over the body’s responsiveness
(3) Phallic gland (4) Spermatheca to changing conditions.
167. Consider the given features w.r.t. co-factors. (1) Epithelial tissue (2) Muscular tissue
a. Organic compound (3) Connective tissue (4) Neural tissue
b. Transiently bound to apoenzyme 173. Two bones namely radius and ulna are attached
c. Tightly bound to apoenzyme to each other in the region of pivot joint with the
help of ‘X’. ‘X’ belongs to the category of
d. Haem is an example
(1) Dense irregular tissue
How many of the above features are correct
w.r.t. prosthetic group? (2) Dense regular tissue

(1) Two (2) Four (3) Adipose tissue

(3) One (4) Three (4) Areolar tissue

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PST-3_(Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2023

174. In each segment of Periplaneta, exoskeleton has 181. The enzymes that catalyse removal of groups
hardened plates called ‘A’, dorsally these are from substrates by mechanisms other than
called ‘B’ and ventrally named ‘C’, that are joined
hydrolysis leaving double bonds belong to class
to each other by ‘D’.
(1) I (2) IV
Identify A, B, C and D and select the correct
option. (3) III (4) II
A B C D 182. Select the odd one w.r.t. heteropolymers.
(1) Sclerites Tergites Sternites Articular membrane (1) Insulin (2) Inulin
(2) Sternites Tergites Sclerites Arthrodial membrane (3) Collagen (4) Trypsin
(3) Tergites Sternites Sclerites Arthrodial membrane 183. Consider the given statements and select the
(4) Sclerites Sternites Tergites Articular membrane correct option.

175. All of the following are associated with thoracic Statement-A: The acid soluble pool represents
region of cockroach, except roughly the cytoplasmic composition.
(1) Pronotum (2) Tegmina
Statement-B: Protein is the most abundant
(3) Forewings (4) Ocelli chemical in living organisms.
176. Choose the odd one w.r.t. economically
(1) Both statements A and B are correct
beneficial insects.
(1) Apis (2) Laccifer (2) Both statements A and B are incorrect

(3) Bombyx (4) Locusta (3) Only statement A is correct

177. The common feature between Ancylostoma and (4) Only statement B is correct
Fasciola is
184. Which one of the following biomolecules is
(1) Nature of coelom
correctly characterised?
(2) Type of alimentary canal
(3) Type of body symmetry (1) Serine – Contains hydroxy methyl as

(4) Dorso-ventrally flattened body the variable group

178. Digestion is both extracellular as well as (2) Arachidonic – A saturated fatty acid with
intracellular in organisms belonging to the phylum
acid 16 carbon atoms
(1) Porifera (2) Annelida
(3) Cholesterol – Most abundant steroid in
(3) Ctenophora (4) Platyhelminthes
animal tissue whose
179. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. cyclostomes.
precursor is lactic acid
(1) All living members of the class Cyclostomata
are ectoparasites on some fishes. (4) Guanylic acid – Guanosine with a glucose
(2) In cyclostomes, circulation is of open type
185. Exoskeleton of arthropods have polysaccharide
(3) The body of cyclostomes is devoid of scales
named ‘X’. ‘X’ is a ______ polysaccharide.
and paired fins.
(4) Cyclostomes have a sucking and circular Choose the option to fill the blank correctly.
mouth. (1) Phosphorous containing
180. Notochord is persistent throughout life in all of
(2) Simple polysaccharide
the given organisms, except
(1) Branchiostoma (2) Carcharodon (3) Nitrogen containing

(3) Pterophyllum (4) Trygon (4) Sulphur containing

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Intensive Program for NEET-2023 PST-3_(Code-A)

SECTION-B 191. Reproduction takes place only by sexual means

in
186. Choose the incorrect match w.r.t. scientific
name and common name of organisms. (1) Physalia (2) Pleurobrachia

(1) Hyla – Tree frog (3) Pennatula (4) Sycon

192. Which of the following connective tissues does
(2) Clarias – Katla
not contain fibre forming cells and fibres?
(3) Calotes – Garden lizard
(1) Adipose (2) Areolar
(4) Chameleon – Tree lizard
(3) Bone (4) Blood
187. Match column-I with column-II and select the 193. Brush border cuboidal epithelium to increase
correct option. absorptive surface area is found in lining of
Column-I Column-II (1) Stomach (2) Small intestine
(3) PCT (4) Small bronchiole
a. Psittacula (i) Possesses
194. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. Periplaneta
placoid scales
americana.
b. Pteropus (ii) Has additional (1) Excretion is performed by Malpighian tubules
chambers in the and each tubule is lined by glandular and
alimentary canal flagellated cells.
(2) The fat body, nephrocytes and uricose
c. Pristis (iii) Possesses 6-15
glands also help in excretion.
pairs of gill slits
(3) The nervous system consists of a series of
d. Petromyzon (iv) Flying mammal fused, segmentally arranged ganglia.
(4) Each compound eye consists of about 2000
(1) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii) (2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
hexagonal ommatidia.
(3) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (4) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
195. On an average, female cockroach produces
188. Select the option which includes organisms that _____ oothecae, each containing _____ eggs.
exhibit pulmonary respiration. Choose the option that correctly fills the blanks
(1) Camelus, Columba, Chelone respectively.

(2) Betta, Exocoetus, Elephas (1) 14-16, 9-10 (2) 9-10, 14-16

(3) Equus, Exocoetus, Elephas (3) 12-14, 10-12 (4) 10-15, 16-20
196. Cellulose which is present in paper as well as in
(4) Scoliodon, Salamandra, Struthio
cotton fibres
189. Choose the odd one w.r.t. animals having
(1) Is not a homopolymer of glucose
internal fertilisation.
(2) Does not contain complex helices
(1) Great white shark (2) Sea horse
(3) Is a reducing sugar
(3) Viper (4) Tortoise
(4) Is present in acid soluble pool
190. Consider the following features.
197. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. the living
a. Metamerically segmented body state.
b. Dioecious (1) It is a non-equilibrium steady-state.
c. An aquatic form (2) The living state and metabolism are
synonymous.
Select the organism that exhibits the above given
(3) Living process is a constant effort to falling
features.
into equilibrium.
(1) Nereis (2) Pheretima
(4) In all living organisms, biomolecules are in a
(3) Hirudinaria (4) Wuchereria metabolic flux.
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PST-3_(Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2023

198. Complete the analogy and select the correct 200. Effect of change in temperature on enzyme
option. activity is correctly shown by which of the given
graphs?
Haem : Catalase :: ______ : Zinc
(1) Peroxidase
(2) Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (1) (2)

(3) Carboxypeptidase
(4) NADP
199. Statocyst or balancing organ is present in
(3) (4)
(1) Locust (2) Butterfly
(3) Scorpion (4) Prawn

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