PT-02-AINMTS-2024

Questions

1. A car moves around a turn of constant curvature between A and B (curve AB=100 metre) with a steady
speed of 72 km/h. If an accelerometer were mounted in the car, the magnitude of acceleration it would
record between A and B is

(a) Zero
(b) 3.14 m/s2
(c) 31.4 m/s2
(d) 6.28 m/s2

2. A body rotates about a fixed axis with an angular acceleration of 3 rad s-2. The angle rotated by it during
the time when its angular velocity increases from 10 rad/s to 20 rad/s (in radian) is
(a) 50
(b) 100
(c) 150
(d) 200

3. A particle of mass m is moving in a circular path of constant radius r such that its centripetal acceleration
ac is varying with time t as, ac = k2 rt2 , The power delivered to the particle by the forces acting on it is
(a) 2πmk2 r2 t
(b) mk2 r2 t
4 2 5
(c) mk 3r t
(d) Zero

4. If momentum of an object is increased by 10%, then its kinetic energy will increase by
(a) 20%
(b) 21%
(c) 40%
(d) 19%

5. A bullet weighing 50 gm leaves the gun with a velocity of 30 m/s. If the recoil speed imparted to the gun
is 1 m/s, the mass of the gun is:
(a) 15 kg
(b) 30 kg
(c) 1.5 kg
(d) 20 kg
6. A uniform circular disc of radius a is taken. A circular portion of radius b has been removed from it as
shown in the figure. If the centre of hole is at a distance c from the centre of the disc, the distance x2 of
the centre of mass of the remaining part from the initial centre of mass O is given by

πb2
(a) (a2 −c2 )
2

2
cb
(b) (a2 −b2 )
πc2
(c) (a −b 2 )
2

ca2
(d) (c −b 2 )
2

7. A body of mass m1 moving with uniform velocity of 40 m/s collides with another mass m2 at rest and
m
then the two together begin to move with uniform velocity of 30 m/s. The ratio of their masses m1 is
2
(a) 0.75
(b) 1.33
(c) 3.0
(d) 4.0

8. Two rings of same radius (r) and mass (m) are placed such that their centers are at a common point and
their planes are perpendicular to each other. The moment of inertia of the system about an axis passing
through the centre and perpendicular to plane of one of the ring is:
(a) 12 mr2
(b) mr2
(c) 32 mr2
(d) 2mr2

−−
9. A body of mass m starts moving from rest along x-axis so that its velocity varies as v = a√S where a is
a positive constant and S is the distance covered by the body. The total work done by all the forces acting
on the body in the first t seconds after the start of the motion is:
(a) 8ma4t2
(b) 14 ma4t2
(c) 4ma4t2
(d) 1
8
ma4t2

10. How much work must be done by a force on 50 kg body in order to accelerate it in the direction of force
from rest to 20 ms−1 in 10 s?
(a) 103 J
(b) 104 J
(c) 2 × 103 J
(d) 4 × 104 J
11. A disc of mass M and radius R is rolling with angular speed ω on a horizontal plane as shown in figure.
The magnitude of angular momentum of the disc about the origin O is

1
(a) 2 M R 2 ω
(b) M R 2 ω
3
(c) 2 M R 2 ω
(d) 3 M R 2 ω

12.
A plank of mass M is placed on a smooth inclined plane and a ring of mass 2m is then placed on the
plank. Assuming sufficient friction to be present between the ring and the plank, the frictional force on
ring when the plank and ring are released from rest is

(a) zero
(b) horizontal
(c) up the incline
(d) down the incline
13. From a uniform circular disc of radius R and mass 9 M, a small disc of radius R is removed as shown in
3
the figure. The moment of inertia of the remaining disc about an axis perpendicular to the plane of the
disc and passing through centre of disc is :

(a) 37
9
M R2
(b) 4MR 2
(c) 40
9
M R2
(d) 10M R 2

14. A spherical cavity is made in a lead sphere of radius R, such that its surface touches the outside surface
of the lead sphere and passes through the centre. The shift in the centre of mass of the lead sphere due to
the hollow sphere is

R
(a) 7
R
(b) 14
R
(c) 2
(d) R

15. Four particles of masses 1 kg, 2 kg, 3 kg and 4 kg are placed at the vertices P, Q, R and S (respectively)
of a square whose side is 1 m. The position of centre of mass of the particle is (consider the origin to be
at P and the side PQ to be along x-axis and square lying in x-y plane).
(a) (0.5 m, 0.7 m)
(b) (0.5 m, 0.5 m)
(c) (0.7 m, 0.7 m)
(d) (0.7 m, 0.5 m)
16. A cyclist rides along the circumference of a circular horizontal track of radius R. The coefficient of
friction μ = μ 0 [1 − r
R
] where μo is a constant, and r is the distance from the center of the circle. The
maximum possible velocity of the cyclist is
−−−−−
(a) √μ 0 gR
−−−−−
(b) √μ 0 gR /2
−−−−−−−−
(c) √(μ 0 gR)/2
−−−−
(d) √μ 0 R/g

17. A particle is moving in a circular path of radius 1 m such that its speed is varying with time as v = 2t
→ →
m/s, here t is in sec. Given a is the net acceleration and v is the velocity of the particle.
1 ∘
(a) At t = √2 s, angle between velocity and acceleration is 45 .
→ → –
(b) At t = √12 s, a . v = 2√2
→ →
(c) At t = 1 s, a . v < 0
√2
(d) → →
a . v magnitude is independent of radial acceleration

18. The coefficient of friction between the block and plank is μ and its value is such that block becomes
stationary with respect to plank before it reaches the other end. Then (Initially m has velocity vo and M
is at rest.)

(a) The work done by friction on the block is negative

(b) The work done by friction on the plank is positive
(c) The net work done by friction is negative
(d) Net work done by the friction is zero

19. A bomb at rest explodes into large number of tiny fragments. Then:
(a) the total momentum of all the fragments is zero
(b) the total momentum of all the fragments increases
(c) the total K.E. of all the fragment remain zero
(d) the total K.E. of all the fragment is more than zero

20. A ring (R), a disc (D), a solid sphere (S) and a hollow sphere with thin walls (H), all having the same
mass but different radii, start together from rest at the top of an inclined plane and roll down without
slipping. Then
(a) all of them will reach the bottom of the incline together
(b) the body with the maximum radius will reach the bottom first
(c) they will reach the bottom in the order S, D, H and R
(d) all of them will have the same kinetic energy at the bottom of the incline

21. 2Na + 2H2O → 2NaOH + H2

40 g NaOH is formed on reaction of 46 g of impure sodium sample with sufficient amount of water.
What is the percentage purity of the sample? Given Atomic mass of Na = 23g, O = 16g, H = 1g
(a) 50%
(b) 100%
(c) 25%
(d) 12.5%
22. The mass of a C12 atom is 'a' gm. and that of a He4 atom is 'b' gm . If the international atomic mass
6 2
scale has defined the mass of a 2He4 atom as exactly 4.0, what would be the atomic mass of Li which is
6.941 on the present scale?
3a
(a) b
× 6.941
a
(b) 3b
× 6.941
a
(c) b
× 6.941
3b
(d) a
× 6.941

23. How many kilograms of pure H2 S O4 could be obtained from 1 kg of Iron pyrites (F eS2 )according to
the following reactions?
4F eS2 + 11O2 → 2F e2 O3 + 8S O2
2S O2 + O2 → 2S O3
S O 3 + H2 O → H2 S O 4
(a) 16. 3 kg
(b) 163 kg
(c) 1. 63 kg
(d) 0.163 kg

24.

where B, E and H given in excess

starting with 10 moles of A. Moles of G formed are
(a) 6.4
(b) 3.5
(c) 9.6
(d) 4.6

25. In the reaction

2F eC l3 + H2 S → 2F eC l2 + 2HCl + S
(a) FeCl3 acts as an oxidising agent
(b) Both H2S and FeCl3 are oxidised
(c) FeCl3 is oxidised while H2S is reduced

(d) None of these

26. Which of the following represents a redox reaction?

(a) NaOH + HCl → NaCl + H2 O
(b) BaCl2 + H2 SO4 → BaSO4 + 2HCl
(c) CuSO4 + 2H2 O → Cu(OH)2 + H2 SO4
(d) Zn + 2HCl → ZnCl2 + H2
27. Dissolving 120 g of urea (mol. wt. 60) in 1000 g of water gave a solution of density 1.15 g/mL. The
molarity of the solution is
(a) 1.78 M
(b) 3.5 M
(c) 2.05 M
(d) 3.0 M

28. In acidic medium dichromate ion oxidizes stannous ion as:

xS n2+ + yC r2 O2− +
7 + zH → aS n
4+
+ bC r3+ + cH2 O
(a) the value of x + y + z is 18
(b) a : b is 3 : 2
(c) the value of z – c is 7
(d) All of these

29. In the reaction, 3CuO + 2N H3 → N2 + 3H2 O + 3Cu,the change of NH3 to N2 involves

(a) loss of 6 electrons per mol of N2
(b) loss of 3 electrons per mol of N2
(c) gain of 6 electrons per mol of N2
(d) gain of 3 electrons per mol of N2

30. Which of the following equations depict the oxidizing nature of H2O2?
(a) 2MnO4– + 6H+ + 5H2O2 → 2Mn2+ + 8H2O + 5O2
(b) HOCl + H2O2 → H3O+ + Cl– + O2
(c) PbS + 4H2O2 → PbSO4 + 4H2O
(d) I2 + H2O2 + 2OH– → 2I– + 2H2O + O2

31. For the redox reaction

2−
MnO− +
4 + C 2 O 4 + H → Mn
2+
+ CO2 + H2 O
The correct coefficients of the reactants for the balanced reaction are
2−
(a) MnO− 4 → 2; C2 O 4 → 5; H → 16
+
2−
(b) MnO− 4 → 16; C2 O 4 → 5; H → 2
+
2−
(c) MnO− 4 → 5; C2 O 4 → 16; H → 2
+
2−
(d) MnO− 4 → 2; C2 O 4 → 16; H → 5
+

32. The equivalent weight of MnSO4 is half of its molecular weight, when it converts to
(a) Mn2O3
(b) MnO2
(c) MnO− 4
(d) MnO2−4

33. The reaction, 3ClO− (aq) → ClO− −

3 (aq) + 2Cl (aq) is an example of
(a) oxidation reaction
(b) reduction reaction
(c) disproportionation reaction
(d) decomposition reaction
34. 0.14 gm of an acid required 14 ml of 0.1 N NaOH for complete neutralization. The equivalent mass of
the acid is:
(a) 63
(b) 56
(c) 45
(d) 100

35. The conversion of oxygen to ozone occurs to the extent of 15% only. The mass of ozone that can be
prepared from 67.2 L of oxygen at 1 atm and 273 K will be
(a) 14.4 gm
(b) 96 gm
(c) 640 gm
(d) 64 gm

36. Match the List – I of compounds with their ratio of atoms by mass given in List – II and choose the
correct combination.

(a) P − 4, Q − 3, R − 2, S − 1
(b) P − 1, Q − 2, R − 3, S − 4
(c) P − 3, Q − 1, R − 4, S − 2
(d) P − 2, Q − 1, R − 4, S − 3

37. For the following reaction:

2Al + 6HCl → 2AlC l3 + 3H2
36.5% by weight HCl reacts with Al to give aluminium chloride and H2 gas. Select the CORRECT
option(s): (Density of HCl solution = 1.5 g/ml)
(a) Volume of HCl solution required for the formation of 6 g of H2 will be 400 ml.
(b) For 200 g of HCl solution exactly 18 g of Al is required for the reaction.
(c) 600 g HCl solution reacts with Al to give 4 g of H2.
According to balanced chemical equation, 1 mole of Al reacts with 3 moles of HCl to give 1 mole of
(d) AlCl and 3/2 moles of H gas.
3 2

38. Which of the following is(are) redox reaction(s)?

(a) BaO2 + H2 S O4 → BaS O4 + H2 O2
(b) 2BaO + O2 → 2BaO2
(c) 2KClO3 → 2KCl + 3O2
(d) S O2 + 2H2 S → 2H2 O + 3S
39. For the reaction:
H3 P O4 + Ca(OH)2 → CaHP O4 + 2H2 O
1 mole 1 mole
Then which of the following statements is/are correct? (Given P = 31g, Ca = 40g, O = 16g, H = 1g)
(a) The equivalent weight of H3PO4 is 49
(b) The resulting solution is neutralized by 1 mole of KOH
(c) 1 mole of H3PO4 is completely neutralized by 1.5 mole of Ca(OH)2
(d) 1 mole of H3PO4 is completely neutralized by 1 mole of Ca(OH)2

40. When the MnO2 reacts with HCI the chlorine gas is evolved according to the equation MnO2 + 4HCl →
MnCl2 + Cl2 + 2H2O. Which are correct regarding this equation?
(a) n factor of HCl is 0.5
(b) Equivalent mass of HCl will be equal to molecular mass of HCl
(c) Equivalent mass of MnO2 is half of its molecular mass
(d) It is redox reaction

41. Arrange the steps of catalytic action of an enzyme in order and choose the right option
(A) The enzyme releases the products of the reaction and the enzyme is free to bind to another substrate
(B) The active site of enzyme is in close proximity of the substrate and breaks the chemical bonds of the
substrate
(C) The binding of substrate induces the enzyme to alter its shape fitting more tightly around the
substrate
(D) The substrate binds to the active site of the enzyme fitting into the active site
(a) D, C, B, A
(b) C, B, A, D
(c) D, B, A, C
(d) B, A, D, C

42. Refer the given reactions.

(i) Adenine + X → Adenosine, (ii) Adenosine + Y → Adenylic acid
What does X and Y represent here?
(a) X – Phosphate group, Y – Sugar molecule
(b) X – Sugar molecule, Y – Phosphate group
(c) X – Sugar molecule, Y – Nitrogenous base
(d) X – Nitrogenous base, Y – Sugar molecule

43. Which of the following is the least likely to be involved in stabilizing the three-dimensional folding of
most proteins?
(a) Electrostatic interaction
(b) Hydrophobic interaction
(c) Ester bonds
(d) Hydrogen bonds

44. Which of the following statements are correct for polysaccharides?

I. The polysaccharides are found as a part of the acid insoluble pellet
II. These are long chains of sugars
III. They are threads containing different monosaccharides as building blocks
IV. Cellulose is a polymeric polysaccharide consisting of only one type of monosaccharide i.e., fructose
(a) All are correct
(b) All are correct except IV
(c) III and IV
(d) Only IV is correct
45. Choose the correct statement:
(a) Growth in plants is not restricted to specialized regions of active cell division
Plant tissues are classified into two main groups, namely, meristematic and permanent tissues based
(b)
on the plane in which the division takes place
Root apical meristem occupies the sub-apical tip of a root while the shoot apical meristem occupies
(c)
the distant most region of the stem axis
(d) All are correct

46. Grittiness of fruit in pears is due to:

(a) presence of silica
(b) presence of stone cells/sclereids
(c) presence of raphides
(d) formation of cystoliths

47. Calyptrogen occurs at the very tip of :

(a) Root
(b) Shoot
(c) Leaves
(d) Floral buds

48. Dedifferentiation is best seen during origin of:

(a) Interfascicular cambium
(b) Cambium ring in dicot roots
(c) Accessory cambium rings
(d) All of the above

49. Fill in the blanks and select the correct option.

(a) Growth in plants is largely restricted to specialised regions of active cell division called (i).
(b) The meristems which occur at the tips of roots and shoots and produce (ii) tissue are called (iii).
(c) During formation of leaves and elongation of stem some cells left behind from shoot apical
meristem, constitute the (iv).
(d) The meristem which occurs between mature tissues is known as (v).
(a) (i) - meristems; (iii) - lateral meristem
(b) (ii) - secondary; (iv) – leaf primordium
(c) (iii) - apical meristems; (iv) - axillary bud
(d) (iv) - cauline buds; (v) secondary meristems

50. How many shoot apical meristematic zones are expected in a twig of a plant possessing 9 branches, 39
leaves?
(a) 9
(b) 39
(c) 10
(d) 8

51. Anatomical setup of lungs in thorax is such that any change in volume of thoracic cavity will result
(a) in increase in pulmonary volume
(b) in decrease in pulmonary volume
(c) in similar change in pulmonary volume
(d) in no effect
52. Match column-I with column-II and choose the correct option

Column I Column II
(a) Earthworm (i) Network of tubes
(b) Aquatic arthropods (ii) Lungs
(c) Molluscs (iii) Gills
(d) Terrestrial organisms (iv) Moist cuticle
(e) Insects

(a) (a)-(i); (b)-(ii); (c)-(iii); (d)-(iv); (e)-(iii)

(b) (a)-(iv); (b)-(iii); (c)-(iii); (d)-(ii); (e)-(i)
(c) (a)-(iv); (b)-(ii); (c)-(i); (d)-(iii); (e)-(iii)
(d) (a)-(iv); (b)-(ii); (c)-(iii); (d)-(i); (e)-(iii)

53. Which one of the following has the smallest diameter?

(a) Right primary bronchus
(b) Left primary bronchus
(c) Trachea
(d) Respiratory bronchiole

54. Two friends are eating together on a dining table. One of them suddenly starts coughing while
swallowing some food. This coughing would have been due to improper movement of
(a) Tongue
(b) Epiglottis
(c) Diaphragm
(d) Neck

55. Whether a child died after normal birth or died before birth can be confirmed by measuring
(a) tidal volume of air
(b) residual volume of air
(c) the weight of the child
(d) the dead space air

56. Arrange the following in the order of increasing volume.

(1) Tidal volume
(2) Residual volume
(3) Inspiratory reserve volume
(4) Vital capacity
(a) (1)<(2)<(3)<(4)
(b) (1)<(3)<(2)<(4)
(c) (1)<(4)<(3)<(2)
(d) (1)<(4)<(2)<(3)

57. Which of the following statements is true about lungs?

(a) Lungs are spongy but not elastic
(b) Lungs are spongy and lobed
(c) Lungs are lobed but not spongy
(d) Lungs do not have any particular shape
58. The partial pressures (in mmHg) of oxygen (O2) and carbon dioxide (CO2) at alveoli (the site of
diffusion) are:
(a) pO2 = 95 and pCO2 = 40
(b) pO2 = 159 and pCO2 = 0.3
(c) pO2 = 104 and pCO2 = 40
(d) pO2 = 40 and pCO2 = 45

59. Meristematic tissues have

(a) Large prominent nuclei
(b) Intercellular spaces
(c) Thin and elastic wall
(d) No Vacuoles

60. Consider the following statements. The correct statements are

(a) Macromolecules are involved in building up of plant body
(b) Microelement potassium is involved in turgor movement
(c) Microelements become toxic if they are in excess
(d) Macromolecules form the different constituents of protoplasm
 Answer Key

1. B 2. A 3. B 4. B 5. C 6. B
7. C 8. C 9. D 10. B 11. C 12. A
13. B 14. B 15. A 16. B 17. A,B,D 18. A,B,C
19. A,D 20. C,D 21. A 22. B 23. C 24. C
25. A 26. D 27. C 28. D 29. A 30. C
31. A 32. B 33. C 34. D 35. A 36. D
37. A,B,D 38. B,C,D 39. A,B,C 40. A,C,D 41. A 42. B
43. C 44. B 45. C 46. B 47. A 48. D
49. C 50. C 51. C 52. B 53. D 54. B
55. B 56. A 57. B 58. 59. A,C,D 60. A,C,D
 Solutions

1. (B)
Since we know that ℓ = rθ
⇒ 100 = r ( π4 )

400
⇒r= π
m

v2
Since a = r

2
(20)
⇒a= = π m/s2
( 400
π
)

∵ (v = 72 km/h = 20 m/s)

⇒ a = 3.14 m/s2

2. (A)
Given, α = 3 rad/s2 , ω1 = 10 rad/s, ω2 = 20 rad/s
2 2
ω22 −ω21 (20) −(10)
Angle, θ = 2α
= 2×3
= 50 rad

3. (B)
Here the tangential acceleration also exits which requires power.
2 2
Given that aC = k2 rt2 and aC = vr ∴ vr = k2 rt2
or v2 = k2 r2 t2 or v = krt
Tangential acceleration a = dv dt
= kr
Now force F = m × a = mkr
So power P = F × v = mkr × krt = mk2 r2 t

4. (B)
Increase in KE = [(200+10)×10]/100 = 2100 /100 = 21%
5. (C)

Given:

M1 = 50g

M2 = ?

u1 = 0

u2 = 0

v2 = -1 m/s

v1 = 30 m/s

From the law of conservation of momentum,

M1u1 + M2u2 = M1v1 + M2v2

0 + 0 = 50 x 30 - M2 x 1

M2 = 1500g = 1.5kg

6. (B)
Centre of mass of whole system was at point O. Hence,

x2 (area of remaining portion) = c (area of removed disc)

cb2
∴ x2 (πa2 − πb2 ) = c (πb2 ) ⇒ x2 =
a2 −b2

7. (C)

Initial momentum of the system = m1 × 40 + m2 × 0

Final momentum of the system = (m1 + m2 ) × 30
By the law of conservation of momentum
m1 × 40 + m2 × 0 = (m1 + m2 ) × 30
m
40m1 = 30m1 + 30m2 ⇒ 10m1 = 30m2 ⇒ m1 = 3 2
8. (C)

I1 = mr2

I2 = moment of inertia about one of the diameters

1
= 2
mr2

∴ I = I1 + I2
3
= 2
mr2

9. (D)

v = a√ s = ds
dt

2√s = at

a2 t2
s= 4

d2s a2
Acceleration, A = = 2
dt2

F = mA
a2
F =m× 2

ma2 a2 t2 1
Work= 2
× 4
= 8
ma 4 t 2
10. (B)
Method-1
As, equation of motion is

v = u + at ⇒ 20 = 0 + a × 10

20 = a × 10 ⇒ a = 2m/s2
1
Now, distance s = ut + 2
at 2
1
⇒s=0+ 2
× 2 × 10 × 10

or s = 100 m

W = F . s = mas = 50 × 2 × 100 = 104 J

Method-2

W = ΔKE
1
= 2
m (v 2 − u2 )

= 1
2
× 50 ((20)2 − 02 )

= 104 J

11. (C)
See fig.

From figure, vCM = ωR

Lo = Iω + M vCM R
1
= ( M R 2 ) ω + M (ωR) R
2
3
= M R2 ω
2
12. (A)
For Plank, Mg sin θ + f = M a1…(1)

For Sphere, mgsin θ − f = ma2…(2)

Where a2−Rα=a1 …(3)

Since, fR = ( 25 mR 2 ) α …(4)

Solving equations (1),(2),(3)and (4), we get f = 0

13. (B)

(Assuming center of the uncut disc is O)

Mass of disc = Volume x Density

9M = A × T × ρ (Area × thickness × density)

9M = πR 2 × t × ρ. . . . (i)

For the disc which is cut off

2
M ′ = π( R3 ) × t × ρ. . . (ii)

(i) Divided by (ii)

9M
′ = 9 ⇒ M′ = M
M

Moment of inertia of complete disc about an axis passes through O.

1
I1 = 2
(9M) × R2

Moment of inertia of cut off disc about an axis passes through O.

2 2
I2 = 1
2
M × ( R3 ) + M × ( 2R
3
)

1 MR2 4MR2
= 2 9
+ 9

So, moment of inertia of remaining disc = I1 − I2

9MR2 MR2 4MR2
= 2
− 18
− 9

= ( 81−1−8
18
) M R2

= 4MR 2
14. (B)
Let ρ the density of lead
Then, M = 43 πR 3 ρ = mass of total sphere
3
m1 = 4
3
π( R2 ) ρ = mass of removed part = M
8
M 7M
m2 = M − 8 = 8 = mass of remaining sphere

Choosing the centre of big sphere as the origin

M(0)−(M/8).(R/2) R
XCOM = M−(M/8)
= − 14

R
i.e., centre of mass of hollow sphere would be at a distance of 14
on left of O.

R
i.e., shift centre of mass = 14
15. (A)
x1 y1 x2 y2 x3 y3 x4 y4
P (0, 0) , Q (1, 0) , R (1, 1) , S (0, 1)

m1 = 1kg, m2 = 2kg

m3 = 3kg, m4 = 4kg

m1 x 1 +m2 x 2 +m3 x 3 +m4 x 4

xCOM = m1 +m2 +m3 +m4

1(0)+2(1)+3(1)+4(0)
= 1+2+3+4
= 0.5m

m1 y1 +m2 y2 +m3 y3 +m4 y4

yCOM = m1 +m2 +m3 +m4

1(0)+2(0)+3(1)+4(1)
= 10
= 0.7m
16. (B)
mv 2
μmg = r

μ0 (1 − r
R
) mg = mv 2
r

⇒ v2 = μ0 (r − r2
R
)g

d(r− r )
2
R
For v = vmax ; =0⇒r=
R
dr 2

Now; v2max = μ0 ( R2 − )g =
2
(R/2) μ0 Rg
R 4

√ μ0 Rg
vmax = 2

17. (A,B,D)

dv
a tangent = dt
=2
2
v2 (2t)
a centripetal = R
= R
= 4t 2
ac
tan θ = at
4t2
tan θ = 2
= 2t 2
2
tan θ = 2 × ( √12 ) = 1
tan θ = tan 45∘

Now
−− −−−−−− –
anet = √ vR + (2)2 = 2√2
2

(a.⃗ v)⃗ = v [a⃗ tangent + a⃗ centripetal]

= va⃗ tan +va⃗ cent

[a.⃗ v]⃗ = v. a⃗ tan

18. (A,B,C)
Friction on block and it’s velocity are opposite, hence work is negative.
Friction on plank and its displacement are in same direction, hence work is positive.
19. (A,D)

The initial momentum of the bomb is zero, and so after explosion, it must be zero. Some internal energy will
convert into external K.E.

20. (C,D)
In rolling without slipping, no work is done against friction.

Hence, loss in gravitational potential energy of a body is equal to its kinetic energy, i.e., the sum of linear
and rotational kinetic energies.

Also, v = ωr

Potential energy=Total kinetic energy

1
mgh = 2
mv 2 + 12 I ω2

+ 12 (mK 2 ) ( vr2 )
1 2
mgh = 2
mv 2

[1 + ]
2
1
mgh = 2
mv 2 K
r2

2gh
v2 =
1+( K2
)
r2

and acceleration is given by

g sin θ
a= K2
1+
r2

so the time is given by v = at (as initial velocity is 0)

−−−−−− −−
t=√
)
K2
2h(1+
R2
2
g sin θ

Where K = Radius of gyration

K
t is more for the objects which have more R
.

sphere has least K

R
will reach earlier then all given objects

21. (A)
According to the reaction –
2 moles of Na gives 2 moles of NaOH.
i.e., 46 g of Na will give 80 g of NaOH.
Therefore, 23 g of Na will give 40 g of NaOH
Thus, 46 g sample actually has 23 g of Na.
Percentage purity = 50%
22. (B)
a
1 amu = 12
g

∴ Mass of He atom (in amu) = b

a
× 12

Now,
b
a
× 12 in amu → 4 in new mass unit.
4a
∴ 6.941 amu = b×12
× 6.941 = a
3b
× 6.941

23. (C)

24. (C)

This is a case of a sequential reaction → More than one reaction occurs at a time

2A + B → 3C + D

↓ ↓
3
10 mole 2
x 10 = 15 moles x 60% = 9 moles

2C + E → 4F

↓ ↓

9 mole 18 mole x 40% = 7.2 moles

7H + 3F → 8G

↓ ↓
8
7.2 moles 3
x 7.2 x 50% = 9.6 moles

Moles of G formed is 9.6

25. (A)
e− + Fe3+ → Fe2+ (Reduction)

Therefore, FeCl3 acts as an oxidising agent

26. (D)
(a) is neutralization reaction, (b) and (c) are double displacement reactions with no change in oxidation
numbers of all atoms.

27. (C)
Moles of solute
Molarity = Volume of solution(L)

120
Mole of urea = 60
=2

Weight of solution = Weight of solvent + Weight of solute

= 1000 + 120 = 1120 g

1120 g 1
Volume = 1.15 g/mL
x 1000 mL/L
= 0.973 L

2.000
Molarity = 0.973
= 2.05 M

28. (D)
xS n2+ + yC r2 O2− +
7 + zH → aS n
4+ + bC r3+ + c
H2 O
Upon balancing the redox-reaction
3S n2+ + C r2 O2−
7
+ 14H + → 3S n4+ + 2C r3+ + 7H2 O

29. (A)

There is loss of 6 electrons for 1 mol of N2

30. (C)
PbS + 4H2O2 → PbSO4 + 4H2O
H2O2 gets reduced and converts to H2O.

31. (A)
The balanced redox reaction is
2−
2MnO− +
4 + 5C2 O4 + 16H → 2Mn
2+
+ 10CO2 + 8H2 O

Hence, the coefficient of reactants in the balanced reaction are 2, 5 and 16 respectively
32. (B)
Molar mass
Equivalent weight in redox system is defined as E = n−factor

Here n-factor is the net change in oxidation number per formula unit of oxidising or reducing agent. In the
present case, n-factor is 2 because equivalent weight is half of molecular weight. Also,
1
n-factor MnSO4 → 2
Mn2O3 1(+2 → +3)

MnSO4 → MnO2 2(+2 → +4)

MnSO4 → MnO4– 5(+2 → +7)

MnSO4 → MnO42– 4(+2 → +6)

Therefore, MnSO4 converts to MnO2

33. (C)
It is an example of disproportionation reaction because the same species (ClO−) is being oxidised to ClO−
3 as
well as reduced to Cl−

34. (D)
m Eq. of NaOH = 14 × 0.1
= 1.4
m Eq. of acid = mEq. of NaOH
Equivalent = Wt. Ew
∴ Ew = Equivalent = 0.14 −3
Wt.
1.4×10
= 100

35. (A)

36. (D)

Water – 1 : 8
Ammonia – 14 : 3
Carbon dioxide – 3 : 8
Sulphur dioxide – 1 : 1
37. (A,B,D)
(a) Moles of H2 formed = 62 = 3
Thus, 6 moles of HCl are required.
Mass of HCl required = 6 × 36.5 g
6×36.5
Thus, mass of HCl solution required = 36.5
× 100 = 600 g
mass
Therefore, volume of HCl solution required = density = 600
1.5
= 400 ml
(b) Mass of HCl in 200g of solution = 36.5 × 2 = 71 g
71
Therefore, moles of HCl = 36.5 =2
According to the reaction, 2 moles of HCl will react with 26 × 2 = 46 moles of Al.
Thus, mass of Al required= 46 × 27 = 18 g
(c) Mass of HCl in 600g of solution = (36.5 × 6) g
Therefore, moles of HCl = 36.5×6
36.5
=6
According to the reaction, 6 moles of HCl will give 3 moles of H2.
Thus, mass of H2 produced= 3 × 2 = 6 g
(d) The given interpretation is correct.

38. (B,C,D)

39. (A,B,C)
H3 P O4 + Ca(OH)2 → CaHP O4 + 2H2 O
n-factor for H3PO4 = 2 (since 2H+ ions are replaced)
eq. Wt. = M 2
= 98
2
= 49
resulting solution of CaHPO4 have only one replacable H+
so n factor = 1
Hence no. of eq = 1
1 mole CaHPO4 can be neutralized by 1 mole of KOH
For complete neutralization – no. Of eq. Of H3PO4 = no. of eq. of Ca(OH)2
1× 3 = 1.5 × 2
40. (A,C,D)
+4 +2
Mn O2 + 4HCl → Mn Cl2 + Cl2 + 2H2 O

(a) 4C l− → 2C l− + C l2 + 2e−

For 4HCl molecules 2e− are lost

∴ n-factor of HCl = 0.5

M M
(b) E = n−factor
= 0.5
= 2M

(c) Change in O.N. per MnO2 molecule = 2(n-factor)

∴E= M
2

41. (A)
The substrate binds to the active site of the enzyme fitting into the active site
→The binding of substrate induces the enzyme to alter its shape fitting more tightly around the substrate
→The active site of enzyme is in close proximity of the substrate and breaks the chemical bonds of the
substrate → The enzyme releases the products of the reaction and the enzyme is free to bind to another
substrate

42. (B)
Nucleoside is a compound formed by the union of a nitrogen base with a pentose sugar. It is a component of
nucleotide. Each nucleotide is composed of three smaller units; a nitrogen base, a pentose sugar and a
phosphate group.

The nucleoside combines with a phosphate group at 5’ position by an ester bond to form a nucleotide, or
nucleoside monophosphate. For example, the combination adenine ribose-phosphate and adenine-
deoxyribose-phosphate are nucleotides.

43. (C)
Hydrophobic interactions, H bonds, and electrostatic interactions are the weak ones and stabilize the tertiary
structure of proteins while ester bonds are covalent bonds and are least likely to be involved in stabilizing the
three dimensional folding of most proteins.

44. (B)
Cellulose is a polymeric polysaccharide consisting of only one type of monosaccharide, i.e., glucose.

45. (C)
Growth in plants is largely restricted to specialised regions of active cell division called meristems.
A tissue is a group of cells having a common origin and usually performing a common function. A plant is
made up of different kinds of tissues. Tissues are classified into two main groups, namely, meristematic and
permanent tissues based on whether the cells being formed are capable of dividing or not.
46. (B)
The sclereids are reduced sclerenchyma cells. They are the cells with highly thickened, lignified cellular
walls. These cells form the small bundles of tough durable layers of tissues in the plants. Due to the
numerous number of sclereids present in fruits like pear, the flesh of the fruit has a distinct grittiness.

47. (A)
Calyptrogen layer of rapidly dividing cells at the tip of a plant root, from which the root cap is formed.
Calyptrogen is a specialized internal meristematic cell derived from the root apical meristem. The
calyptrogens divide internally to produce a protective cap-like structure at the root tip called the root cap. The
root cap is also known as calyptra.

48. (D)
Dedifferentiation - A differentiated cell can regain its capacity for cell division under certain conditions.
Dedifferentiation is best seen during origin of interfascicular cambium, cambium ring in dicot roots and
accessory cambium rings.

49. (C)
Growth in plants is largely restricted to specialised regions of active cell division called meristems.
The meristems which occur at the tips of roots and shoots and produce primary tissue are called apical
meristem.
During formation of leaves and elongation of stem some cells left behind from shoot apical meristem,
constitute the axillary bud.
The meristem which occurs between mature tissues is known as intercalary meristem.

50. (C)
A twig of a plant possessing 9 branches and 39 leaves is expected to have 10 shoot apical meristematic zones.
Shoot apical meristem (SAM) is a group of dividing cells, present at the tip of stem as well as the tip of each
branches, so in the given question there are 9 branches in a twig of a plant hence 9 shoot apical meristematic
zones are likely to be present. Besides branches, a twig (main stem) itself has 1 shoot apical meristematic
zone. Hence, the total number of shoot apical meristematic zones is 10.

51. (C)
The anatomical setup of lungs in thorax is such that any change in the volume of the thoracic cavity will be
reflected in the lung (pulmonary) cavity. Such an arrangement is essential for breathing, as we cannot directly
alter the pulmonary volume.

52. (B)
Option (b) is correct.
Earthworm – Moist cuticle
Aquatic arthropods – Gills
Molluscs – Gills
Terrestrial organisms – Lungs
Insects – Network of tubes

53. (D)
Respiratory bronchioles are the final division of the bronchioles within the lung with smallest diameter. They
are a continuation of the terminal bronchioles and are approximately 0.5mm in size.

54. (B)
The pharynx serves as a common passage for food, fluids, and air. The epiglottis is a flexible flap at the
superior end of the larynx in the throat. It acts as a switch between the larynx and the oesophagus. It permits
air to enter the trachea and then into the lungs and food to pass into the gastrointestinal tract. If we talk while
eating, the food may enter the trachea due to improper movement of the epiglottis. This leads to coughing.
55. (B)
Whether a child died before birth or after normal birth is confirmed by measuring the residual volume of air.
Soon after the birth of a child, the first cry of child opens its respiratory passage due to which certain amount
of air gets stored in lungs. This volume of air is known as residual volume. After the death of child, lungs are
cut and put in water, if they float it ensures that it died after normal birth. Due to buoyancy the floating of the
lungs in water happens as they have air filled in it. If the lungs sink in water due to the lack of air in it,
indicates that the child died before birth.

56. (A)
Tidal Volume (TV): Volume of air inspired or expired during a normal respiration. It is approx. 500 mL, i.e.,
a healthy man can inspire or expire approximately 6000 to 8000 mL of air per minute.
Residual Volume (RV): Volume of air remaining in the lungs even after a forcible expiration. This averages
1100 mL to 1200 ml. By adding up a few respiratory volumes described above, one can derive various
pulmonary capacities, which can be used in clinical
diagnosis.
Inspiratory Reserve Volume (IRV): Additional volume of air, a person can inspire by a forcible inspiration.
This averages 2500 mL to 3000 ml.
Vital Capacity (VC): The maximum volume of air a person can breathe in after a forced expiration. This
includes ERV, TV and IRV (4100-4600 ml) or the maximum volume of air a person can breathe out after a
forced inspiration.

57. (B)
The lungs are soft and spongy because they are mostly air spaces surrounded by the alveolar cells and elastic
connective tissue. They are separated from each other by the mediastinum, which contains the heart. The only
point of attachment for each lung is at the hilum, or root, on the medial side.
Left lung is divisible by an oblique fissure into two lobes, left superior and left inferior. Right lung has two
fissures, horizontal and oblique. They divide the right lung into 3 lobes-right superior, right middle and right
inferior.

58. ()
Pressure contributed by an individual gas in a mixture of gases is called partial pressure and is represented as
pO2 for oxygen and pCO2 for carbon dioxide. The partial pressures (in mmHg) of oxygen (O2) and carbon
dioxide (CO2) at alveoli (the site of diffusion) are 104 and 40 respectively. In the atmosphere, pO2 is 159 mm
Hg and pCO2 is 0.3 mm Hg. In deoxygenated blood, pO2 is 40 mmHg and pCO2 is 45 mmHg. In oxygenated
blood, pO2 is 95 mmHg and pCO2 is 40 mmHg.

59. (A,C,D)
Meristematic tissue has a number of defining features, including small cells, thin cell walls, large cell nuclei,
absent vacuoles, and no intercellular spaces.

60. (A,C,D)
The minerals classified as macroelements are carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen, phosphate, sulphur,
potassium, calcium and magnesium.