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Question Paper-CSE

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
14 views

Question Paper-CSE

Question paper

Uploaded by

Lokesh Kumar
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
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Test Booklet Test Booklet No.

Series
Test Booklet for the Post of
A Assistant Professor Computer Engineering

Name of Applicant ............................................................ Answer Sheet No. ....................................

Applicant Roll No. : ............................................... Signature of Applicant : .................................

Date of Examination: .......................................... Signature of the Invigilator(s)


1. ..................................................

Time of Examination : ....................................... 2. ..................................................

Duration : 1 Hour] [Maximum Marks : 50


IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS
(i) The question paper is in the form of Test-Booklet containing 50 (Fifty) questions. All questions are
compulsory. Each question carries four answers marked (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which only
one is correct. Choose the correct option or the most appropriate option.
(ii) On receipt of the Test-Booklet (Question Paper), the candidate should immediately check it and
ensure that it contains all the pages, i.e., 50 questions. Discrepancy, if any, should be reported by
the candidate to the invigilator immediately after receiving the Test-Booklet.
(iii) A separate Answer-Sheet is provided with the Test-Booklet/Question Paper. On this sheet there are
50 rows containing four circles each. One row pertains to one question.
(iv) The candidate should write his/her Application number at the places provided on the cover page of
the Test-Booklet/Question Paper and on the Answer-Sheet and NOWHERE ELSE.
(v) No second Test-Booklet/Question Paper and Answer-Sheet will be given to a candidate. The
candidates are advised to be careful in handling it and writing the answer on the Answer-Sheet.
(vi) For every correct answer of the question One (1) mark will be awarded. For every unattempted
question, Zero (0) mark shall be awarded. There is no Negative Marking.
(vii) Marking shall be done only on the basis of answers responded on the Answer-Sheet.
(viii) To mark the answer on the Answer-Sheet, candidate should darken the appropriate circle in the row
of each question with Blue or Black pen.
(ix) For each question only one circle should be darkened as a mark of the answer adopted by the
candidate. If more than one circle for the question are found darkened or with one black circle any
other circle carries any mark, the question will be treated as cancelled.
(x) The candidates should not remove any paper from the Test-Booklet/Question Paper. Attempting to
remove any paper shall be liable to be punished for use of unfair means.
(xi) Rough work may be done on the blank space provided in the Test-Booklet/Question Paper only.
(xii) Mobile phones (even in Switch-off mode) and such other communication/programmable devices
are not allowed inside the examination hall.
(xiii) No candidate shall be permitted to leave the examination hall before the expiry of the time.
DO NOT OPEN THIS QUESTION BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO.
Computer Engg. 1 [P.T.O.
6 / 1
Computer Engg. 2
1. Binomial distribution is symmetrical when? 5. Consider the following matrix :

(A) P < q
2 3
A=  
(B) P > q  x y
(C) P = q If the eigenvalues of A are 4 and 8, then
(D) None of these
(A) x=4, y=10

(B) x=5, y=8


2. If all the observations in a distribution are
increased by 6, then the variance of the series (C) x=–3, y=9
will be
(D) x=– 4, y=10
(A) Increased

(B) Decreased
(C) Unchanged 6. The decimal equivalent of the binary number
(D) None of these 101.101 is

(A) 5.6249
3. The number of edges in a complete graph
(B) 5.625
with n vertices is given by :

(A) n (C) 5.5

(B) n(n – 1)/2 (D) 5.25


(C) (n – 1)(n – 2)/2
(D) 2n
7. What is the output of a D flip-flop when the
D input id 1 and the clock goes high?
4. Which of the following is an example of
tautology in propositional logic? (A) Remains unchanged
(A) P  ¬P
(B) Becomes 0
(B) P  ¬P
(C) Becomes 1
(C) P  ¬P
(D) P  ¬P (D) Depends on previous state

Computer Engg. 3 [P.T.O.


6 / 2
8. Let A = 11111010 and B = 00001010 be 12. Interrupt-driven I/O is a type of I/O transfer
two 8-bit 2’s compliment numbers. Their that relies on
product in 2’s complement is
(A) Hardware
(A) 11000100
(B) 10011100 (B) Software

(C) 10100101 (C) Either software or hardware


(D) 11010101
(D) Both software and hardware

9. Zero has two representations in :


(A) Sign magnitude 13. The main difference between a CISC and a
(B) 1’s complement RISC processor is that a RISC processor
(C) 2’s complement typically
(D) Both (A) and (B)
(A) Has fewer instruction

(B) Has fewer addressing modes and more


10. Booth’s algorithm is used for the arithmetic
registers
operation of
(A) Addition (C) Is easier to implement using hardwired
(B) Subtraction control logic

(C) Multiplication (D) All of these


(D) Division

11. During DMA transfer, the DMA controller 14. The default parameter passing mechanism
takes over the buses to manage the transfer is

(A) Directly from CPU to memory


(A) Call by value
(B) Directly from memory to CPU
(B) Call by reference
(C) Directly between the memory and
registers (C) Call by value result
(D) Directly between the I/O device and
(D) None of these
memory

Computer Engg. 4
15. The program 18. A binary tree with N internal nodes has a

main() maximum of external nodes

(A) N
{
(B) N + 1
Int i = 5;
(C) N + 2
I = (++i) / (i ++);
(D) N + 3
Printf ("%d", i);

}
19. In tree construction, which one will be
Prints
suitable and efficient data structure?
(A) 2
(A) Queue
(B) 5
(B) Linked list
(C) 1
(C) Heap
(D) 6
(D) String

16. The statement printf (“%d”, (a++)); prints 20. A binary max-heap containing n numbers,
(A) The current value of a the smallest element can be found in time

(B) The current value of a+1 (A) O(n)

(C) An error message (B) O(log n)

(D) Garbage (C) O(log(log n))

(D) O(1)

17. The average successful search time for


sequential search on ‘n’ items is 21. Which of the following must be idempotent?
(A) n (A) Commit

(B) (n – 1)/2 (B) Redo

(C) (n + 1)/2 (C) Write

(D) Log(n) + 1 (D) Read

Computer Engg. 5 [P.T.O.


6 / 3
22. The partial key is sometimes called the 25. A clustering index is defined on the fields
which are of type
(A) Discriminator
(A) Non-key and ordering
(B) Originator
(B) Non-key and non-ordering
(C) Developer (C) Key and ordering

(D) None of these (D) Key and non-ordering

26. Which of the following is true for regular


23. Given the functional dependencies sets A = (1101+1)* and B = ((1101)*1*)*
X  W; X  Y; Y  Z; Z  PQ (A) A  B
(B) B  A
Which of the following does not hold good?
(C) A = B
(A) X  Z
(D) A and B are incomparable solution
(B) W  Z

(C) X  WY 27. The problems 3-SAT and 2-SAT are


(A) Both in P
(D) None of these
(B) Both NP-Complete
(C) NP-complete and in P respectively
24. Which of the following concurrency control (D) Undecidable and NP-complete
protocols ensure both conflict serializability
and freedom from deadlock?
28. The basic limitation of a Finite State Machine
I. Two phase locking is that

II. Timestamping ordering (A) It sometimes recognizes grammars that


are not regular
(A) I only
(B) It sometimes fails to recognizes
(B) II only grammars that are regular
(C) It does not have the capability to
(C) Both I and II
remember information
(D) Neither I nor II
(D) All of the above

Computer Engg. 6
29. Can a DFSA simulate a NFSA? 33. Which of the following features can not be

(A) No captured by CFG?

(B) Yes (A) Syntax of if-then-else statements

(C) Sometimes (B) Syntax of recursive procedures

(D) Depends on NFA (C) Whether a variable is declared before


its use

(D) Matching nested parenthesis


30. Recursively enumerable languages are not
closed under

(A) Union 34. Some code optimizations are carried out on

(B) Homomorphism the intermediate code because

(C) Complementation (A) They enhance the portability of the


compiler to other target processors
(D) Concatenation
(B) Program analysis is more accurate on
intermediate code than on machine
31. Which one of the following is a top-down code
parser?
(C) The information from dataflow analysis
(A) Recursive descent parser cannot otherwise be used for
(B) Operator precedence parser optimization
(C) An LR(k) parser (D) The information from the front end
(D) An LALR(k) parser cannot otherwise be used for
optimization

32. In a compiler the module that checks every


character of the source text is called 35. The C language is

(A) The machine dependent optimizer (A) A context-free language

(B) The code checker (B) A context-sensitive language

(C) The lexical analyzer (C) A regular language

(D) The syntax analyzer (D) None of these

Computer Engg. 7 [P.T.O.


36. The maximum data rate of a channel of 39. Which layer deals with file system transfer,
3000-Hz bandwidth and SNR of 30 dB is vertical terminals implementation and
interprocess communication?
(A) 15,000 bps
(A) Application
(B) 60,000 bps (B) Presentation
(C) Session
(C) 20,000 bps
(D) Transport
(D) 3,000 bps

40. How many numbers of parity bit is required


in hamming code if message size is 8 bit?
37. In Ethernet when Manchester encoding is
(A) 2
used, the bit rate is
(B) 4
(A) Half the baud rate (C) 6
(D) 8
(B) Twice the baud rate

(C) Same as baud rate 41. Thrashing can be avoided by reducing the

(D) None of these (A) Page frames


(B) CPU throughput
(C) Page faults

38. Baud means (D) None of these

(A) The number of bits transmitted per unit


42. Preemptive scheduling is
time
(A) Less useful
(B) The number of bytes transmitted per (B) More useful in high priority process
unit time which requires immediate response
(C) More less useful in high priority
(C) The rate at which signal changes
process which do not requires
(D) None of these responses
(D) None of these

Computer Engg. 8
43. Which of the following page replacement 46. Which of the following is a good choice to
algorithms suffers from Belady’s anomaly? implement a priority queue?

(A) Optimal replacement (A) Graph

(B) LRU (B) Stack

(C) FIFO
(C) Queue
(D) Both Optimal replacement and LRU
(D) Heap

47. What is the maximum height of any


44. A system has 3 processes sharing 4
AVL-tree with 7 nodes? Assume that the
resources. If each process needs a maximum
height of a tree with a single node is 0.
of 2 units then, deadlock

(A) Can never occur (A) 2

(B) May occur (B) 3

(C) Has to occur (C) 4

(D) None of these (D) 5

45. A process executes the following code 48. Consider a B+ tree in which the maximum
for (i = 0; i < n; i++) for ( ); number of keys in a node is 5. What is the
minimum number of keys in any non-root
The total number of child processes
node?
created is
(A) 1
(A) n
(B) 2
(B) 2n–1

(C) 2 n (C) 3

(D) 2n+1 (D) 4

Computer Engg. 9 [P.T.O.


49. Big-O estimate for the factorial function, that 50. Compilers require efficient searching
is, n!, is given by strategies for which they rely on
(A) O(n!) (A) Hash table
(B) O(nn) (B) String matching
(C) O(n × n!) (C) Binary search tables
(D) O(n) (D) Binary search trees

Computer Engg. 10
ROUGH WORK

Computer Engg. 11 [P.T.O.


ROUGH WORK

Computer Engg. 12

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