1.

Whose satisfaction is required to extend the period of emergency when the security of
India or any part of its territory is threatened?
A. Prime Minister
B. Home Minister
C. President of India
D. Vice-President of India
2. Regarding the proclamation of emergency based on war or external aggression, which
of the following statements is incorrect?

1) All Fundamental Rights are automatically suspended.

2) The right to move a court for the enforcement of any Fundamental Right is
suspended.
3) The President may order the suspension of the enforcement of any Fundamental
Right except those under Articles 20-21.
4) Parliament may authorize the suspension of all Fundamental Rights.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A. 1, 3, and 4
B. 1, 2, and 4
C. 2, 3, and 4
D. All of these

3. Under Article 352 of the Indian Constitution, an emergency can be declared only in the
event of:
A. War, external aggression, or internal disturbance.
B. War, external aggression, or armed rebellion.
C. Failure of constitutional machinery in a state.
D. Financial instability in the country.
4. Which of the following extraordinary powers does the Indian Constitution provide to
the Centre to address an emergency arising from war, external aggression, or armed
rebellion?

1) The Centre can modify provisions related to the distribution of revenue between the
Centre and the States.
2) The Centre can issue directions to any state regarding the exercise of its executive
powers.
3) Parliament can legislate on any matter listed in the State List.
4) The Centre can order the reduction of salaries for state employees, including High
Court judges.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A. 1, 3, and 4
B. 1, 2, and 4
C. 1, 2, and 3
D. 2, 3, and 4
 5. Consider the following statements regarding the proclamation of emergency under
Article 352 of the Indian Constitution:
1) The emergency automatically ends after one month from its issuance unless it is
approved by a resolution of the Lok Sabha before the expiry of that period.
2) The President can proclaim an emergency only if the Council of Ministers
recommends it in writing.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
6. Consider the following statements regarding the extension of the life of legislative
bodies during an emergency under the Indian Constitution:
1) The life of the Lok Sabha can be extended by only one year at a time during an
emergency.
2) The life of a State Legislative Assembly can be extended by any length of time during
an emergency.
3) The extended life of the Lok Sabha cannot go beyond six months after the emergency
has been discontinued.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2
B. Only 2
C. 1 and 3
D. 2 and 3
7. Consider the following statements regarding the proclamation of emergency under the
Indian Constitution:
1) The proclamation of emergency must be approved by Parliament within three
months of its issuance.
2) If approved by Parliament, the emergency continues for six months.
3) The emergency shall be revoked by the President when the Lok Sabha passes a
resolution disapproving its continuance.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. Only 1
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 3
D. All of the above
8. Which one of the following statements about emergency provisions under the Indian
Constitution is NOT correct?
 A. The powers of the Union Executive extend to giving directions to the states
concerning the exercise of their powers.
B. The Union Executive can issue a provision relating to the reduction of the
salaries of employees of the State Governments.
C. Governors have no emergency powers like the President of India.
D. If the Governor of a State is satisfied that a situation has arisen whereby the
financial stability or credit of the state is threatened, he may declare Financial
Emergency in the state.
9. Consider the following statements:
1) According to the Constitution of India, a person who is eligible to vote can be
appointed as a minister in a state for up to six months, even if he/she is not a
member of the state's Legislature.
2) According to the Representation of People Act, 1951, a person convicted of a
criminal offense and sentenced to imprisonment for five years is permanently
disqualified from contesting elections, even after being released from prison.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. Only 1
B. Both 1 and 2
C. Only 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
10. Assertion (A): The Council of Ministers in India is collectively responsible to both the
Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.

Reason (R): Members of both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha are eligible to become
ministers in the Union Government.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true, but R is false.
D. A is false, but R is true.
11. Consider the following statements:
1) In the first Lok Sabha, the single largest party in the opposition was the Swatantra
Party.
2) In the Lok Sabha, a “Leader of the Opposition” was recognized for the first time in
1969.
3) In the Lok Sabha, if a party does not have a minimum of 75 members, its leader
cannot be recognized as the Leader of the Opposition.

Which of the statement(s) given above are correct?

A. 1 and 3
 B. Only 2
C. 2 and 3
D. None of these
12. Consider the following statements:

1. According to the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, the
election of the Deputy Speaker is held on a date determined by the Speaker.
2. There is a compulsory provision that the Deputy Speaker must be elected from either
the principal opposition party or the ruling party.
3. The Deputy Speaker possesses the same authority as the Speaker when presiding
over the House, and hence, appeals can be made against his rulings.
4. It is a long-standing parliamentary practice that the motion to elect the Deputy
Speaker is moved by the Speaker and seconded by the Prime Minister.

Which of the above statements are correct?

A. 1 and 3
B. 1, 2, and 3
C. 3 and 4
D. 2 and 4
13. Which of the following is/are exclusive powers of the Lok Sabha?

1. Ratification of a declaration of emergency.

2. Passing a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers.
3. Impeaching the President of India.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A. 1 and 2
B. Only 2
C. 1 and 3
D. Only 3
14. Consider the following statements:

1. The President of India has the authority to summon a session of Parliament at any
location he/she deems appropriate.
2. The Constitution of India mandates three sessions of Parliament each year, but it is
not obligatory to conduct all three sessions.
3. There is no stipulated minimum number of days that Parliament is required to meet
annually.

Which of the above statements are correct?

A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. 1 and 3
 D. 2 and 3
15. The number of nominated members in the Legislative Council is:
A. 1/3 of the total strength
B. 1/4 of the total strength
C. 1/6 of the total strength
D. None of the above
16. Regarding the composition of the Legislative Council in a state of India, which of the
following statements is/are correct?
1) In the Legislative Council, there may not be more than one-third of the members
from the total membership of the Legislative Assembly of the state.
2) The Legislative Council of a state must have at least forty members.

Select the correct answer from the options below:

A. Both 1 and 2
B. Only 2
C. Neither 1 nor 2
D. Only 1
17. Consider the following statements regarding the Legislative Assembly of a state in India:
1) The Legislative Assembly of each state shall consist of not more than 450 members,
chosen by direct election from territorial constituencies in the state.
2) A person is disqualified from being chosen as a member of the Legislative Assembly
of a state if they are less than 25 years of age.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
18. With reference to the Legislative Assembly of a State in India, consider the following
statements:
1) The Governor customarily addresses Members of the House at the commencement
of the first session of the year.
2) If a State Legislature does not have a rule on a particular matter, it follows the rules
of the Lok Sabha on that matter.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
 19. Consider the following statements:
1) The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly shall vacate his/her office if he/she ceases to
be a member of the Assembly.
2) Whenever the Legislative Assembly is dissolved, the Speaker shall vacate his/her
office immediately.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. Only 2
B. Only 1
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
20. The provisions of the Sixth Schedule do not apply to which one of the following states?
A. Assam
B. Tripura
C. Manipur
D. Mizoram
21. The provisions in the Fifth Schedule and Sixth Schedule in the Constitution of India are
made to
A. Protect the interest of Scheduled Tribes.
B. Determine the boundaries between states.
C. Determine the powers, authority, and responsibilities of Panchayats.
D. Protect the interests of all the Border States.
22. Which of the following mountain passes connects Leh in Ladakh to Srinagar in Kashmir?
A. Nathu La
B. Zoji La
C. Shipki La
D. Bomdi La
23. The island of Cyprus is located in which part of the Mediterranean Sea?
A. Western Mediterranean
B. Eastern Mediterranean
C. Central Mediterranean
D. Adriatic Sea
24. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes provided below:

List I (Countries)
A. Uzbekistan
B. Tajikistan
C. Kyrgyzstan
D. Turkmenistan

List II (Capitals)
 1. Tashkent
2. Dushanbe
3. Bishkek
4. Ashgabat

Codes

A. A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4

B. A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
C. A-1, B-2, C-4, D-2
D. A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3
25. Identify the correct North to South sequence of the following four islands of Japan:
A. Hokkaido, Honshu, Kyushu, Shikoku
B. Hokkaido, Shikoku, Honshu, Kyushu
C. Hokkaido, Honshu, Shikoku, Kyushu
D. Hokkaido, Kyushu, Honshu, Shikoku
26. Between India and East Asia, navigation time and distance can be greatly reduced by
which of the following measures?
1) Deepening the Malacca Straits between Malaysia and Indonesia.
2) Opening a new canal between the Gulf of Siam and the Andaman Sea.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
27. Consider the following statements for Assertion and Reasoning:

Assertion (A): Egypt is referred to as the gift of the Nile.

Reason (R): Egypt is an oasis in the Sahara desert.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true, but R is false.
D. A is false, but R is true.
28. Which of the following pairs of geographical features and their corresponding regions
are correctly matched?
A. Abyssinian Plateau – Arabia
B. Atlas Mountains – Northwestern Africa
C. Guiana Highlands – Southwestern Africa
D. Okavango Basin – Patagonia
29. Which one of the following is a part of the Congo Basin?
 A. Cameroon
B. Nigeria
C. South Sudan
D. Uganda
30. The Gulf of Bothnia is located between which of the following countries?
1) Finland
2) Norway
3) Sweden
4) Estonia

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 3
D. 1 and 4
31. Which of the following pairs is/are not correctly matched?
A. Titicaca Lake - Bolivia and Peru
B. Lake Urmia - Iran
C. Lake Reindeer - Russia
D. Lake Athabaska - Canada
32. Through which one of the following straits does a tunnel connect the United Kingdom
and France?
A. Davis Strait
B. Denmark Strait
C. Strait of Dover
D. Strait of Gibraltar
33. Consider the following statements regarding the Census of India:
1) The Census is held simultaneously in all places across India.
2) Census 2011 shows a decline in population for the first time in India's history.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None of the above
34. India's population growth during the 20th century can be classified into four distinct
phases. Match List I (Period) with List II (Phase) and select the correct answer using the
codes given below:
List I (Period)

A. 1901 to 1921

B. 1921 to 1951

C. 1951 to 1981

D. 1981 to 2001

List II (Phase)
1. Steady growth
2. Rapid high growth
3. Stagnant growth
4. High growth with definite signs of slowdown

Codes:

A. A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4

B. A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
C. A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
D. A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
35. Consider the following causes of urbanization:
1) High rate of migration from rural to urban areas.
2) Increasing number of educational institutions in cities.
3) High rate of industrialization.
4) High standard of living in rural areas.

Which of the following codes are correct?

A. 1, 2, and 3
B. 2, 3, and 4
C. 1, 2, and 4
D. 1, 3, and 4
36. The present demographic transition of India is indicative of:
A. High population growth potential but low actual growth.
B. High population growth potential and high actual growth.
C. Partial industrialized economy.
D. Typically increasing urbanization.
37. What percentage of the total world population resides in India, as estimated in the
2011 Census?

A. 15%
B. 17.5%
 C. 20%
D. 22.5%
38. During which decade did India record a negative population growth rate?
A. 1921-1931
B. 1911-1921
C. 1941-1951
D. 1941
39. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1) As per the 2011 Census, India's population has more than tripled since
independence.
2) The 2011 Census showed that India's population grew by 181 million people in the
previous decade.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
40. Regarding the growth projections for India in FY 2023-24, which of the following
statements is/are correct?
A. Real growth is projected at 8.2%, and nominal growth at 9.6%.
B. The Reserve Bank of India projects a growth of 7.2% for FY 2024-25.
C. Average retail inflation is expected to ease to 5.4% in 2023-24.
D. All of the above.
41. Which of the following statements is NOT true about the Critical Mineral Mission?
A. It aims for domestic production and recycling of critical minerals
B. It includes overseas acquisition of critical mineral assets.
C. It will focus on the development of DPI applications in the area of critical minerals.
D. It will support the auction of offshore blocks for mining.
42. In the context of Bihar's share in the budget, which of the following is INCORRECT?
A. Bihar has been allocated ₹59,000 crore for infrastructure projects
B. ₹26,000 crore is specifically dedicated to the state's development
C. A new 2400 MW power plant will be set up at Pirpainti at a cost of ₹21,400 crore
D. ₹11,500 crore has been allocated for the Kosi-Mechi interstate link project.
43. Which of the following is NOT one of the nine budget priorities in pursuit of 'Viksit
Bharat'?
A. Productivity and resilience in Agriculture
B. Inclusive Human Resource Development and Social Justice
C. Digital Transformation and Technology Adoption
D. Next Generation Reforms
44. What is the proposed investment under PM Awas Yojana Urban 2.0 to address the
housing needs of the urban poor and middle-class families?
A. ₹5 lakh crore
B. ₹7.5 lakh crore
C. ₹10 lakh crore
D. ₹12.5 lakh crore
45. What is the focus of the 'Pradhan Mantri Janjatiya Unnat Gram Abhiyan'?
A. Socio-economic development of tribal families in tribal-majority villages.
B. Providing skill development training to tribal youth
C. Promoting eco-tourism in tribal areas.
D. Establishing new schools and hospitals in tribal areas
46. Which of the following Cabinet Committees is NOT chaired by the Prime Minister of
India?
A. Appointments Committee
B. Economic Affairs Committee
C. Parliamentary Affairs Committee
D. Political Affairs Committee
47. Which of the following statements best reflects the concept of 'Constitutional
Morality'?
A. It refers to the strict adherence to the literal interpretation of the Constitution.
B. It emphasizes the balance between freedom and restraint, allowing citizens to
criticize constitutional authorities.
C. It is a natural sentiment that requires no cultivation.
D. It solely focuses on individual rights and ignores the responsibilities of citizens.
48. Which of the following is NOT one of the three pillars of the National e-Governance
Plan (NeGP)?
A. Connectivity
B. National Data Bank/State Data Centres
C. Common Service Centres (CSCs)
D. Digital Literacy
49. The 'Sampoornata Abhiyan' launched by NITI Aayog is a campaign to achieve saturation
of key indicators in:
A. Smart Cities
B. Aspirational Districts and Blocks
C. Union Territories
D. North Eastern States
50. Which of the following critical minerals has been removed from the list of atomic
minerals by the 2023 amendments to the MMDRA?
A. Uranium
B. Thorium
C. Lithium
D. Zirconium