AIBE 19

MINOR LAWS
QUESTION BANK
Compilation of 14 subjects Most Expected MCQs for
sure shot success in All India Bar Examination 2024

l a u r i t z B R I E F S
 AIBE 19
MINOR LAWS
QUESTION BANK
Compilation of 14 subjects Most Expected MCQs for
sure shot success in All India Bar Examination 2024

ADR including the Arbitration Act

Family Law
Public Interest Litigation
Administrative Law
Professional Ethics and Cases of
Professional Misconduct under BCI Rules
Company Law
Environmental Law
Cyber Law
Labour and Industrial Laws
Law of Tort, including the Motor Vehicle
Act and Consumer Protection Law
Law related to Taxation
Law of Contract, Specific Relief, Property
Laws, Negotiable Instrument Act
Land Acquisition Act
Intellectual Property Laws

l a u r i t z B R I E F S
 Alternative Dispute Redressal, including
Arbitration Act
1. What is the primary purpose of arbitration?
A) To enforce contracts
B) To resolve disputes outside of court
C) To increase litigation
D) To provide legal representation

2. Which method involves a neutral third party facilitating a discussion between parties to
reach an agreement?
A) Arbitration
B) Litigation
C) Mediation
D) Negotiation

3. In which dispute resolution method does the arbitrator make a binding decision?
A) Arbitration
B) Conciliation
C) Mediation
D) Negotiation

4. What does the term "inquisitorial" refer to in dispute resolution?

A) A method where the judge actively investigates the case
B) A method focusing on party autonomy
C) A non-binding negotiation process
D) A judicial review process

5. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of mediation?

A) It is voluntary
B) It involves a neutral third party
C) It results in a binding decision
D) It aims for mutual agreement

6. Under the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, who can be an arbitrator?
A) Any person with legal capacity
B) Only retired judges
C) Only lawyers
D) Only professionals in the same field as the dispute

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7. What is the primary difference between arbitration and conciliation?
A) Arbitration is more formal than conciliation
B) Conciliation involves a facilitative role without a binding decision
C) Arbitration is always faster than conciliation
D) Conciliation is only used in commercial disputes

8. Which of the following is a key advantage of arbitration?

A) It is a public process
B) It is generally quicker than litigation
C) It is always cheaper than litigation
D) It guarantees a win for one party

9. In which of the following cases is mediation most effective?

A) Family disputes
B) Criminal cases
C) Bankruptcy cases
D) Intellectual property cases

10. What role does a conciliator play?

A) To make a binding decision
B) To help parties reach a mutual agreement
C) To represent one party in a dispute
D) To act as a judge

11. Which section of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act deals with the appointment of
arbitrators?
A) Section 7
B) Section 11
C) Section 12
D) Section 14

12. What is "adversarial" dispute resolution?

A) A collaborative process
B) A method focused on opposition and conflict
C) A judicial review process
D) A mediation-based approach

13. In arbitration, what is the term for the written agreement to submit disputes to
arbitration?
A) Arbitration deed
B) Conciliation agreement

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 C) Arbitration agreement
D) Settlement agreement

14. Which of the following is an essential element of a valid arbitration agreement?

A) Written form
B) Clear terms regarding arbitration
C) Signature of witnesses
D) Filing in court

15. What is the term for the final decision made by an arbitrator?
A) Judgment
B) Ruling
C) Award
D) Settlement

16. Which of the following processes involves direct negotiation between parties?
A) Negotiation
B) Arbitration
C) Mediation
D) Litigation

17. Which principle is NOT fundamental to mediation?

A) Confidentiality
B) Coercion
C) Voluntariness
D) Neutrality

18. What is the primary legal framework governing arbitration in India?

A) Arbitration Act, 1940
B) Civil Procedure Code
C) Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996
D) Specific Relief Act

19. Which of the following is a disadvantage of arbitration?

A) It is faster than litigation
B) Limited grounds for appeal
C) It is confidential
D) It can be expensive

20. What does "separation of powers" refer to in the context of arbitration?

A) The division of legislative and executive functions

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 B) The independence of arbitrators from judicial influence
C) The enforcement of court judgments
D) The relationship between parties and counsel

21. Under the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, what is the minimum age for an
arbitrator?
A) 25 years
B) 18 years
C) 30 years
D) No minimum age

22. Which of the following is a mandatory requirement for the enforcement of an arbitral
award?
A) Registration of the award
B) Compliance with the Arbitration and Conciliation Act
C) Payment of court fees
D) Public hearing

23. What is the role of the courts in arbitration under the Arbitration and Conciliation
Act?
A) To resolve disputes
B) To assist in the appointment of arbitrators and enforcement of awards
C) To preside over arbitration hearings
D) To nullify arbitration agreements

24. Which of the following is true regarding the confidentiality of arbitration proceedings?
A) They are always public
B) They are generally confidential
C) Only some parts are confidential
D) Confidentiality is not guaranteed

25. In which type of dispute is arbitration typically preferred?

A) Personal injury cases
B) Criminal cases
C) Commercial disputes
D) Family law cases

26. What is "Med-Arb"?

A) A method for public hearings
B) A type of litigation

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 C) A hybrid process combining mediation and arbitration
D) A negotiation technique

27. Which of the following is a key feature of conciliation?

A) Binding decisions
B) Informal process
C) Public hearings
D) Judicial oversight

28. Which provision allows for the appointment of an arbitrator by the Chief Justice of the
High Court?
A) Section 8
B) Section 11
C) Section 12
D) Section 15

29. What is the purpose of "discovery" in the arbitration process?

A) To gather evidence
B) To finalize the award
C) To appoint the arbitrator
D) To negotiate terms

30. In which dispute resolution method do parties maintain full control over the outcome?
A) Negotiation
B) Arbitration
C) Mediation
D) Conciliation

31. Which of the following can be grounds for setting aside an arbitral award?
A) Dissatisfaction with the outcome
B) Irregularities in the proceedings
C) Violation of public policy
D) Delay in proceedings

32. What is a key advantage of using mediation over litigation?

A) It promotes collaboration
B) It guarantees a legal precedent
C) It is always faster
D) It results in a binding outcome

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33. Which of the following best describes "negotiation"?
A) A process where parties discuss terms to reach a mutual agreement
B) A formal court proceeding
C) A binding arbitration process
D) A type of mediation

34. What is the typical role of an arbitrator?

A) To negotiate terms
B) To represent one party
C) To make a decision based on evidence presented
D) To ensure compliance with court rules

35. What is a "compromise agreement" in the context of mediation?

A) An agreement reached by both parties during mediation
B) A court-enforced settlement
C) A document outlining litigation terms
D) An arbitration award

36. In arbitration, which document outlines the rules governing the process?
A) Code of Civil Procedure
B) Mediation Agreement
C) Arbitration Agreement
D) Settlement Agreement

37. What is the primary role of the arbitration tribunal?

A) To provide legal advice
B) To resolve disputes
C) To negotiate settlements
D) To enforce contracts

38. Which of the following is a characteristic of adversarial dispute resolution?

A) Parties oppose each other
B) Emphasis on collaboration
C) Informal process
D) Neutral facilitation

39. What does the term "binding arbitration" mean?

A) The decision must be followed by the parties
B) The decision is merely advisory
C) Parties can refuse to comply
D) The decision is non-enforceable

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40. Which of the following is NOT typically included in an arbitration agreement?
A) Scope of arbitration
B) Procedures to be followed
C) Mandatory court trial
D) Identification of the arbitrator

41. Which section of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act outlines the qualifications of an
arbitrator?
A) Section 10
B) Section 11
C) Section 12
D) Section 13

42. What is the primary advantage of using conciliation?

A) It fosters collaborative problem-solving
B) It results in a binding decision
C) It is more formal than arbitration
D) It guarantees a speedy resolution

43. Which of the following methods is most informal?

A) Arbitration
B) Litigation
C) Mediation
D) Conciliation

44. Under the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, when can a party challenge an arbitrator‟s
appointment?
A) After the award is made
B) During the arbitration proceedings
C) Before the arbitration starts
D) It cannot be challenged

45. What is the standard of proof in arbitration?

A) Beyond a reasonable doubt
B) Preponderance of evidence
C) Clear and convincing evidence
D) No standard is required

46. Which of the following statements about arbitration awards is TRUE?

A) They are always subject to appeal
B) They are generally final and binding

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 C) They can be contested in any court
D) They require public disclosure

47. In what scenario is negotiation most effective?

A) High-stakes legal disputes
B) Business partnerships
C) Criminal charges
D) Labor disputes

48. What term describes a situation where parties choose to resolve their dispute without
involving a third party?
A) Mediation
B) Self-resolution
C) Arbitration
D) Conciliation

49. What does the term "ex parte" refer to in arbitration?

A) Decision made by both parties
B) A decision made by one party without the other
C) Joint agreement
D) Arbitration with full hearings

50. Which of the following is a primary role of the mediator?

A) To impose a decision
B) To facilitate communication
C) To remain neutral
D) To advocate for one party

51. What is the outcome of successful negotiation?

A) A legally binding contract
B) A mutual agreement
C) A court ruling
D) An arbitration award

52. Which type of dispute resolution is least formal?

A) Mediation
B) Arbitration
C) Litigation
D) Conciliation

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53. Which of the following best defines "conciliation"?
A) A method where a neutral party helps parties reach an agreement
B) A legal proceeding
C) A binding decision by a judge
D) A public trial

54. What is a "pre-arbitration conference"?

A) A meeting to finalize the award
B) A meeting to set arbitration procedures
C) A negotiation session
D) A court hearing

55. Which of the following can be used to enforce an arbitration award?

A) The Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996
B) The Criminal Procedure Code
C) The Family Courts Act
D) The Code of Civil Procedure

56. Under the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, which of the following is NOT a ground for
setting aside an arbitral award?
A) Parties' dissatisfaction with the award
B) Violation of principles of natural justice
C) The award being in conflict with public policy
D) Incomplete arbitration proceedings

57. What is the primary difference between arbitration and litigation?

A) Arbitration is more expensive
B) Litigation is always quicker
C) Arbitration is less formal than litigation
D) Arbitration is only used in commercial disputes

58. Which of the following is a principle of the adversarial system?

A) Collaboration between parties
B) Opposing sides present their cases
C) Involvement of a neutral party
D) Confidentiality of proceedings

59. In mediation, what does "caucus" refer to?

A) A public hearing
B) A private meeting between the mediator and one party

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 C) The final decision
D) A joint session

60. What is a "facilitative mediator"?

A) A mediator who imposes solutions
B) A mediator who helps parties communicate effectively
C) A judge overseeing a case
D) A lawyer representing a party

61. Which of the following best describes the term "due process" in arbitration?
A) Fair treatment in the proceedings
B) Speedy resolution
C) Confidential discussions
D) Binding decisions

62. What does "arbitrability" refer to?

A) The location of arbitration
B) The suitability of a dispute for arbitration
C) The type of arbitrator chosen
D) The procedural rules followed

63. In which of the following scenarios is arbitration typically avoided?

A) Commercial contracts
B) Criminal cases
C) Employment disputes
D) International trade

64. What is the typical outcome if parties reach a settlement during mediation?
A) A written agreement
B) An arbitration award
C) A court judgment
D) A public trial

65. Which of the following is a feature of non-binding arbitration?

A) The decision is enforceable
B) The parties can choose to reject the award
C) It is conducted in a courtroom
D) It requires a judge's approval

66. Which section of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act provides for the setting aside of
arbitral awards?

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 A) Section 31
B) Section 34
C) Section 35
D) Section 36

67. What is the purpose of "discovery" in arbitration?

A) To finalize the award
B) To determine arbitrator qualifications
C) To gather relevant information and evidence
D) To negotiate terms

68. Which of the following is a key principle of negotiation?

A) Win-win outcome
B) Adversarial tactics
C) Coercion
D) Binding agreements

69. What type of disputes is mediation most suited for?

A) Family and personal disputes
B) Criminal cases
C) Regulatory matters
D) Corporate litigation

70. Which of the following terms describes a situation where an arbitrator lacks
impartiality?
A) Legitimacy
B) Bias
C) Neutrality
D) Objectivity

71. Which of the following methods allows the parties to retain control over the resolution
process?
A) Mediation
B) Litigation
C) Arbitration
D) None of the above

72. Under the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, what is the role of the "seat" of
arbitration?
A) It determines the location of the arbitrator
B) It determines the legal jurisdiction of the arbitration

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 C) It is irrelevant to the process
D) It refers to the place of hearings

73. What does "confidentiality" mean in the context of arbitration?

A) All proceedings are public
B) Information discussed in arbitration is not disclosed to outsiders
C) Awards must be publicly announced
D) Court records are always sealed

74. Which section provides for the conduct of arbitration proceedings?

A) Section 19
B) Section 23
C) Section 25
D) Section 27

75. What is the effect of an arbitral award in a dispute?

A) It is merely a recommendation
B) It is final and binding on the parties
C) It can be ignored by the parties
D) It requires court approval

76. What is the primary focus of negotiation as a dispute resolution method?

A) To reach an agreement through discussion
B) To impose solutions
C) To rely on a third party
D) To seek a legal remedy

77. In conciliation, the conciliator‟s role is to:

A) Facilitate communication and propose solutions
B) Make binding decisions
C) Represent one party
D) Act as a judge

78. Which of the following is a key disadvantage of arbitration?

A) It is private
B) It can be expensive
C) It is generally quicker than litigation
D) It allows for flexibility

79. What type of disputes are commonly referred to arbitration?

A) Personal injury claims

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 B) Family law matters
C) Commercial disputes
D) Criminal cases

80. Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding mediation?

A) It is a voluntary process
B) The mediator can impose a solution
C) It is generally less formal than arbitration
D) It aims to reach a mutually satisfactory agreement

81. Under the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, how long is the time limit for making an
arbitral award?
A) 3 months
B) 6 months
C) 12 months
D) 18 months

82. Which of the following best describes the term "party autonomy" in arbitration?
A) The court decides the procedure
B) Parties can choose their arbitrator and process
C) It refers to mandatory arbitration
D) It is limited to commercial disputes

83. Which of the following terms describes an informal agreement reached during
negotiation?
A) Arbitration award
B) Settlement
C) Ruling
D) Judgment

84. Which of the following is an example of a non-binding dispute resolution method?

A) Arbitration
B) Litigation
C) Mediation
D) Conciliation

85. What does the term "natural justice" refer to in arbitration?

A) Fairness and impartiality in the proceedings
B) Strict legal compliance
C) Informal discussions
D) Binding legal principles

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86. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding arbitrators?
A) They must be impartial and independent
B) They can be biased
C) Their decisions are not enforceable
D) They must be legal professionals

87. Which of the following methods is typically used in commercial disputes?

A) Litigation
B) Arbitration
C) Family mediation
D) Conciliation

88. What is the primary purpose of a pre-arbitration conference?

A) To finalize the award
B) To conduct hearings
C) To set arbitration procedures and timelines
D) To file court documents

89. Which of the following is NOT a requirement for a valid arbitration agreement?
A) Written form
B) Approval from the court
C) Signature of parties
D) Clear dispute resolution terms

90. What is the typical outcome of a successful conciliation process?

A) A mutual agreement between parties
B) A court ruling
C) An arbitration award
D) A settlement conference

91. Which of the following can challenge the enforceability of an arbitral award?
A) The parties to the arbitration
B) Any third party
C) The court
D) The arbitrator themselves

92. What is the purpose of "discovery" in the context of arbitration?

A) To finalize the award
B) To gather evidence and relevant information
C) To negotiate terms
D) To present closing arguments

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93. Which of the following is a key feature of the adversarial system?
A) Opposing parties present their cases
B) A mediator facilitates discussions
C) The judge actively investigates
D) Decisions are collaborative

94. What is the primary function of an arbitration clause in a contract?

A) To specify arbitration as the method for resolving disputes
B) To avoid dispute resolution
C) To require court proceedings
D) To limit damages

95. What is the significance of "substantive law" in arbitration?

A) It dictates the procedure
B) It governs the merits of the dispute
C) It refers to arbitration rules
D) It is unrelated to arbitration

96. Which section outlines the powers of arbitral tribunals?

A) Section 16
B) Section 14
C) Section 18
D) Section 22

97. In which scenario would arbitration be preferred over litigation?

A) When seeking public recognition
B) When a quick resolution is not necessary
C) When confidentiality is desired
D) When legal precedents are crucial

98. What does the term "binding" refer to in arbitration agreements?

A) The outcome must be accepted by both parties
B) The decision is optional
C) Parties can disregard it
D) It requires court approval

99. Which of the following best describes "early neutral evaluation"?

A) A form of arbitration
B) An assessment by a neutral evaluator to facilitate settlement
C) A mediation technique
D) A court review process

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100. What is the primary goal of dispute resolution?
A) To achieve a fair resolution of conflicts
B) To prolong legal proceedings
C) To ensure court involvement
D) To diminish party autonomy

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 Family Law
1. What is the legal age for marriage in India for males?
A) 21 years
B) 18 years
C) 25 years
D) 20 years

2. Which law governs divorce in India for Hindus?

A) The Indian Succession Act, 1925
B) The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
C) The Special Marriage Act, 1954
D) The Indian Divorce Act, 1869

3. Under the Hindu Marriage Act, what grounds can a husband seek divorce?
A) Adultery only
B) Desertion only
C) Cruelty, adultery, and desertion
D) Only mutual consent

4. Which of the following is NOT a ground for divorce under the Indian Divorce Act,
1869?
A) Adultery
B) Desertion
C) Conversion to another religion
D) Mental illness after marriage

5. What is the maximum period for filing a petition for divorce under the Hindu Marriage
Act?
A) 6 months
B) 1 year
C) 2 years
D) No maximum period

6. Under the Guardians and Wards Act, who has the primary right to custody of a child?
A) The father
B) The mother
C) The court
D) The grandparents

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7. What does the term "alimony" refer to in family law?
A) Division of property
B) Financial support paid to a spouse after divorce
C) Legal fees for divorce
D) Custodial support for children

8. Which of the following statements is true regarding the adoption of a child in India?
A) Only married couples can adopt
B) Single individuals can also adopt
C) Adoption is illegal for non-Hindus
D) Adoption must be registered with the court

9. What is the primary legislation governing the adoption of children in India for Hindus?
A) The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
B) The Guardians and Wards Act, 1890
C) The Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, 1956
D) The Juvenile Justice Act, 2015

10. Under the Muslim Personal Law, what is the term for a husband‟s right to divorce his
wife unilaterally?
A) Khula
B) Talaq
C) Mahr
D) Nikah

11. What is the minimum age for a female to marry according to the Prohibition of Child
Marriage Act, 2006?
A) 16 years
B) 18 years
C) 21 years
D) 20 years

12. In case of separation, which parent is generally favored for custody of a child below 5
years under Hindu law?
A) The mother
B) The father
C) The grandparents
D) The court decides

13. Under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, which of the following is considered a valid
marriage?

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 A) Marriage without a ceremony
B) Marriage without consent
C) Marriage with consent
D) Marriage of a minor

14. What is "judicial separation"?

A) A legal process allowing spouses to live apart while remaining married
B) A divorce decree
C) A temporary custody order
D) An adoption process

15. Which act regulates the maintenance of wives, children, and parents?
A) The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
B) The Indian Succession Act, 1925
C) The Maintenance and Welfare of Parents and Senior Citizens Act, 2007
D) The Guardians and Wards Act, 1890

16. What is the term for the financial arrangement made between divorcing spouses for the
support of their children?
A) Maintenance
B) Alimony
C) Child support
D) Spousal support

17. Which of the following is NOT a requirement for a valid adoption under the Hindu
Adoption and Maintenance Act?
A) The adopter must be a Hindu
B) The child must be legally available for adoption
C) The child must be biologically related to the adopter
D) The consent of the child (if over a certain age)

18. Under the Hindu Marriage Act, what is the maximum number of wives a Hindu male
can have?
A) 2
B) 1 (monogamy is the rule)
C) 4
D) No limit

19. What is the principle of "equal rights" in family law?

A) Only fathers have rights
B) Both parents have equal rights over children

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 C) Mothers have exclusive rights
D) Children have no rights

20. In case of a dispute over child custody, what is the primary consideration of the court?
A) The income of the parents
B) The parent's preferences
C) The welfare of the child
D) The parent's education level

21. Which law provides for maintenance to wives, children, and parents in India?
A) The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
B) The Indian Divorce Act, 1869
C) The Maintenance and Welfare of Parents and Senior Citizens Act, 2007
D) The Muslim Personal Law

22. Which of the following is true regarding the grounds for divorce in the Special
Marriage Act?
A) They differ from those in Hindu law
B) They include irretrievable breakdown of marriage
C) They require mutual consent only
D) They are based on religious grounds

23. In a divorce proceeding, which of the following is NOT considered a factor for awarding
alimony?
A) The duration of the marriage
B) The financial status of both parties
C) The gender of the spouse
D) The contributions of each spouse

24. Which of the following statements is true regarding the right to maintenance for a
divorced wife?
A) She is entitled to maintenance until she remarries
B) She loses her right to maintenance immediately after divorce
C) It is only applicable to Hindu women
D) It is subject to the husband’s consent

25. What is the role of a guardian ad litem in family law?

A) To represent the parents in court
B) To represent the interests of a minor child in legal proceedings
C) To decide custody matters
D) To impose financial support

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26. Which act governs the property rights of women in India?
A) The Hindu Succession Act, 1956
B) The Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 2005
C) The Indian Succession Act, 1925
D) The Transfer of Property Act, 1882

27. What is the minimum age for a male to marry according to the Prohibition of Child
Marriage Act, 2006?
A) 18 years
B) 21 years
C) 20 years
D) 25 years

28. Which of the following statements is true regarding a "separation agreement"?

A) It outlines the terms of separation between spouses
B) It is legally binding
C) It guarantees custody rights
D) It is not enforceable in court

29. Under which law can a couple file for mutual divorce?
A) The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
B) The Special Marriage Act, 1954
C) Both A and B
D) The Muslim Personal Law

30. What is the primary purpose of the Domestic Violence Act, 2005?
A) To regulate marriage
B) To govern divorce proceedings
C) To protect women from domestic violence
D) To allocate property rights

31. Which of the following is a valid ground for annulment of marriage?

A) Irretrievable breakdown
B) Adultery
C) Fraud or misrepresentation
D) Separation

32. Under the Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, what is the status of an adopted
child?
A) The child is not legally recognized
B) The child has the same rights as a biological child

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 C) The child loses all rights to inheritance
D) The child's status remains ambiguous

33. Which of the following is NOT a recognized form of marriage under Indian law?
A) Trial marriage
B) Traditional marriage
C) Registered marriage
D) Religious marriage

34. What is the effect of a divorce decree?

A) It legally dissolves the marriage
B) It allows for separation without ending the marriage
C) It requires a new marriage license
D) It has no legal effect

35. In a divorce proceeding, which of the following is NOT considered?

A) Financial status of each party
B) Religion of the parties
C) Duration of marriage
D) Conduct of the parties

36. Which section of the Hindu Marriage Act deals with the punishment for bigamy?
A) Section 5
B) Section 494
C) Section 11
D) Section 20

37. Which of the following is a valid ground for judicial separation?

A) Desertion
B) Cruelty
C) Child custody
D) Financial disputes

38. Under which law are children born to a Muslim father and a non-Muslim mother
considered legitimate?
A) The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
B) Muslim Personal Law
C) The Special Marriage Act, 1954
D) The Indian Succession Act, 1925

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39. What is the primary objective of the Maintenance and Welfare of Parents and Senior
Citizens Act, 2007?
A) To regulate property disputes
B) To settle divorce matters
C) To ensure financial support for parents and senior citizens
D) To manage child custody

40. Which act provides for the registration of marriages in India?

A) The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
B) The Special Marriage Act, 1954
C) Both A and B
D) The Indian Succession Act, 1925

41. Under the Hindu Succession Act, what happens to a woman's property after her
marriage?
A) It is automatically transferred to her husband
B) She loses ownership
C) She retains ownership and control
D) It becomes joint property

42. What is "Mahr" in Muslim marriage?

A) A type of divorce
B) A gift from the husband to the wife
C) A dowry payment
D) A wedding ceremony

43. Which of the following laws applies to the adoption of children by non-Hindus?
A) The Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, 1956
B) The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015
C) The Special Marriage Act, 1954
D) The Guardians and Wards Act, 1890

44. Which of the following is NOT a type of custody?

A) Sole custody
B) Joint custody
C) Alternate custody
D) Legal custody

45. Under which condition can a wife file for maintenance after divorce?
A) Only if she has children
B) Even if she is financially independent

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 C) Only if the husband is wealthy
D) Only if there is a court order

46. What is the main function of the Family Court?

A) To handle criminal cases
B) To resolve family disputes amicably
C) To impose fines
D) To conduct divorce trials only

47. What is the time limit for filing an appeal against an order of maintenance?
A) 30 days
B) 60 days
C) 90 days
D) 120 days

48. Which of the following is NOT a requirement for a valid marriage?

A) Mutual dislike
B) Free consent
C) Legal age
D) Mental capacity

49. What does "Visitation Rights" refer to?

A) The right of a non-custodial parent to visit the child
B) The custodial parent's right to deny visits
C) The right of the court to visit the family
D) The right of grandparents to visit

50. Which law governs the maintenance of children in India?

A) The Indian Succession Act, 1925
B) The Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, 1956
C) The Guardians and Wards Act, 1890
D) The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955

51. Which of the following is a requirement for a valid adoption under the Hindu Adoption
and Maintenance Act?
A) The child must be related to the adopter
B) The adopter must be a Hindu
C) The adoption must be public
D) The child must consent

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52. What is the maximum age limit for a female child to be adopted under the Hindu
Adoption and Maintenance Act?
A) 18 years
B) 21 years
C) 15 years
D) No limit

53. Which of the following conditions must be fulfilled for a wife to claim maintenance?
A) She must not work
B) She must have children
C) She must not be living in adultery
D) She must have filed for divorce

54. Which of the following is a ground for annulment of marriage under the Hindu
Marriage Act?
A) Separation
B) Adultery
C) Lack of consent
D) Irretrievable breakdown

55. Under the Special Marriage Act, 1954, what is required for a marriage to be registered?
A) Only religious rites
B) A notice of intended marriage
C) Approval from parents
D) Court intervention

56. What is the primary purpose of the Domestic Violence Act, 2005?
A) To regulate divorce
B) To define property rights
C) To protect women from domestic violence
D) To settle inheritance disputes

57. Which of the following is NOT a ground for divorce under the Special Marriage Act?
A) Mutual consent
B) Adultery
C) Incompatibility
D) Cruelty

58. Under the Hindu Marriage Act, who has the right to file for divorce?
A) Only the husband
B) Both husband and wife

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 C) Only the wife
D) Only the family members

59. Which of the following is an essential requirement for a valid marriage?

A) Approval of the parents
B) Free consent of both parties
C) Registration
D) Witnesses

60. What is the main focus of the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act?
A) Adoption processes
B) Protection and rehabilitation of children in need
C) Marriage of minors
D) Custody disputes

61. What is "khula" in Muslim personal law?

A) A wife‟s right to initiate divorce
B) A type of alimony
C) A custody agreement
D) A marriage contract

62. Which of the following statements is true regarding property rights of women after
marriage?
A) They lose all rights to property
B) They retain their property rights
C) They can only inherit property from their husbands
D) Property is automatically transferred to their husbands

63. Under the Hindu Succession Act, what rights do daughters have in ancestral property?
A) None
B) Limited rights
C) Equal rights as sons
D) Only rights after the father’s death

64. What is the significance of a "marriage certificate"?

A) It is not legally binding
B) It serves as proof of marriage
C) It can be ignored by courts
D) It is only required for Hindus

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65. Which of the following is NOT a ground for seeking maintenance?
A) Refusal to live together
B) Adultery
C) Illness
D) Inability to support oneself

66. Which law regulates the marriage of inter-caste couples?

A) The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
B) The Special Marriage Act, 1954
C) The Indian Succession Act, 1925
D) The Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006

67. Which of the following is NOT a requirement for divorce by mutual consent?
A) Living separately for a period of time
B) Both parties agreeing to the divorce
C) No financial disputes
D) No possibility of reconciliation

68. What does the term "parental rights" refer to in family law?
A) Rights of grandparents
B) Rights of parents to make decisions for their children
C) Rights of the state over children
D) Rights of the court to intervene

69. What is the procedure for obtaining a divorce in India?

A) A single court appearance
B) An informal agreement between spouses
C) Filing a petition in court
D) No legal procedure required

70. Which of the following is NOT a form of custody?

A) Joint custody
B) Alternate custody
C) Sole custody
D) Legal custody

71. What is the effect of an annulment of marriage?

A) It dissolves the marriage like a divorce
B) It declares the marriage null and void
C) It allows for separation only
D) It does not affect children

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72. Which of the following is a ground for dissolution of a Muslim marriage?
A) Cruelty
B) Failure to pay Mahr
C) Adultery
D) Mutual consent

73. What does "talaq-e-bid'ah" refer to in Muslim law?

A) Instantaneous divorce
B) Divorce after reconciliation
C) Mutual divorce
D) Divorce initiated by the wife

74. Which act regulates the maintenance rights of Muslim women?

A) The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
B) The Special Marriage Act, 1954
C) The Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Divorce) Act, 1986
D) The Domestic Violence Act, 2005

75. What is the primary focus of the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act,
2015?
A) Protection and care for juvenile offenders and children in need
B) Regulation of marriages
C) Custody disputes
D) Financial support for children

76. Under the Special Marriage Act, which condition is NOT required for a valid marriage?
A) Consent of both parties
B) Approval from parents
C) Legal age
D) Registration of the marriage

77. Which section of the Hindu Marriage Act deals with the restitution of conjugal rights?
A) Section 9
B) Section 10
C) Section 11
D) Section 12

78. What is the primary purpose of the Family Courts Act, 1984?
A) To resolve family disputes in a time-bound manner
B) To regulate adoption processes

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 C) To enforce maintenance orders
D) To handle custody issues

79. Which of the following can be a reason for a wife to claim maintenance?
A) She is unable to maintain herself
B) She is living with her parents
C) She has a job
D) She is divorced

80. Under the Guardians and Wards Act, who can be appointed as a guardian?
A) Any adult person
B) Only relatives
C) A fit and proper person
D) The child's friends

81. What is the time limit for filing an application for maintenance?
A) 6 months
B) 1 year
C) No specific limit
D) 3 years

82. Which of the following is NOT a requirement for legal adoption under the Juvenile
Justice Act?
A) Age of the adoptive parents
B) Consent of the child
C) Biological relation to the child
D) Approval from the child welfare committee

83. Which of the following acts protects the rights of elderly parents in India?
A) The Hindu Succession Act, 1956
B) The Maintenance and Welfare of Parents and Senior Citizens Act, 2007
C) The Domestic Violence Act, 2005
D) The Indian Succession Act, 1925

84. What is the meaning of "spousal support"?

A) Financial support paid to a spouse during or after divorce
B) Support provided by parents
C) Government financial aid
D) Child support payments

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85. Which of the following statements is true regarding prenuptial agreements?
A) They are illegal in India
B) They can outline property rights and support arrangements
C) They are only enforceable in some states
D) They are unnecessary if married in a temple

86. Under the Hindu Marriage Act, what is the minimum age for a girl to marry?
A) 16 years
B) 18 years
C) 21 years
D) 20 years

87. What does the term "mutual consent" imply in divorce proceedings?
A) Only one party agrees
B) Both parties agree to the divorce terms
C) It is a court-imposed decision
D) It is not legally recognized

88. Which of the following can be grounds for annulment of marriage under the Special
Marriage Act?
A) Irretrievable breakdown
B) Unsoundness of mind
C) Adultery
D) Separation

89. What does "custodial interference" mean?

A) The court taking custody of children
B) One parent preventing the other from seeing the child
C) A type of legal custody
D) Temporary custody arrangements

90. Under Muslim law, which of the following is true about polygamy?
A) A man can have up to four wives
B) It is illegal
C) Only one wife is allowed
D) It is mandatory

91. What is the principle of "equitable distribution" in family law?

A) Equal sharing of property
B) Fair distribution based on contributions

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 C) Automatic division of assets
D) Favoring one spouse over the other

92. Which of the following is a primary concern of the Domestic Violence Act, 2005?
A) To protect women from domestic abuse
B) To regulate divorce proceedings
C) To allocate property rights
D) To handle custody disputes

93. What is the legal standing of children born out of wedlock under Indian law?
A) They are considered legitimate and have rights
B) They are considered illegitimate and have no rights
C) They only have rights if acknowledged by the father
D) Their status is ambiguous

94. Which of the following statements is true regarding custody orders?

A) They are permanent
B) They can be modified based on circumstances
C) They are non-enforceable
D) They favor fathers over mothers

95. What is the primary consideration for awarding custody of children?

A) The financial status of parents
B) The preferences of the parents
C) The welfare of the child
D) The age of the parents

96. Under the Hindu Marriage Act, what is the consequence of a bigamous marriage?
A) It is valid if registered
B) It has no legal consequences
C) It is null and void
D) It can be legalized later

97. Which law governs inter-religious marriages in India?

A) The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
B) The Special Marriage Act, 1954
C) The Indian Succession Act, 1925
D) The Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006

98. What is the purpose of a marriage contract?

A) To outline the rights and responsibilities of each spouse

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 B) To legally bind the marriage
C) To restrict financial dealings
D) To determine custody arrangements

99. Which of the following can file for annulment of marriage?

A) Only the husband
B) Both parties
C) Only the wife
D) Parents of either party

100. What is "visitation rights"?

A) The right of a custodial parent
B) The right to deny access to a child
C) The right of a non-custodial parent to visit their child
D) The right of grandparents to visit

101. What is the effect of a legal separation?

A) It dissolves the marriage
B) It allows spouses to live separately while remaining married
C) It ends financial obligations
D) It has no legal standing

102. Which of the following is NOT a requirement for a valid Hindu marriage?
A) Legal age
B) Registration
C) Free consent
D) Mental capacity

103. Which act allows a woman to claim maintenance after divorce?

A) The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
B) The Indian Succession Act, 1925
C) The Muslim Personal Law
D) The Special Marriage Act, 1954

104. What is the minimum age for adoption under the Juvenile Justice Act?
A) 16 years
B) 18 years
C) No minimum age; it depends on the child
D) 21 years

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105. What is the concept of "child custody"?
A) The legal right to make decisions for a child
B) The right to visit a child
C) Both A and B
D) None of the above

106. Under the Hindu Succession Act, which of the following relatives is NOT entitled
to inherit property?
A) Son
B) Daughter
C) Cousin
D) Spouse

107. In the context of divorce, what is "alimony"?

A) Financial support provided by one spouse to another
B) Child support
C) A legal fee
D) A type of property settlement

108. What is "dower" in Muslim marriage?

A) A type of dowry
B) A wedding ceremony
C) A mandatory payment from husband to wife
D) A financial gift

109. Which law governs adoption by Hindus?

A) The Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, 1956
B) The Juvenile Justice Act, 2015
C) The Guardians and Wards Act, 1890
D) The Indian Succession Act, 1925

110. Under the Domestic Violence Act, 2005, who can file a complaint?
A) Only married women
B) Any woman who is a victim of domestic violence
C) Only women with children
D) Any family member

111. What is the age of majority in India for marriage purposes?

A) 18 years
B) 21 years

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 C) 25 years
D) 16 years

112. Which of the following can be considered grounds for divorce in India?
A) Mutual consent
B) Mental cruelty
C) Financial disputes
D) All of the above

113. What is the role of the Family Court?

A) To resolve family disputes
B) To enforce child support
C) To manage criminal cases
D) To handle property disputes

114. Which of the following is NOT a type of maintenance?

A) Temporary maintenance
B) Permanent maintenance
C) Emotional maintenance
D) Interim maintenance

115. What does "alimony pendente lite" refer to?

A) Permanent alimony
B) Alimony during the pendency of the divorce
C) Alimony after divorce
D) None of the above

116. Under which law can a married woman claim maintenance?

A) The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
B) The Maintenance of Women Act, 1980
C) The Indian Succession Act, 1925
D) The Guardians and Wards Act, 1890

117. Which of the following can be a ground for seeking divorce?

A) Adultery
B) Financial difficulties
C) Disagreements in preferences
D) Differences in culture

118. What does "legal custody" entail?

A) The right to visit a child

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 B) The right to make decisions regarding a child's welfare
C) The physical possession of a child
D) None of the above

119. Which of the following can be a ground for judicial separation?

A) Mutual consent
B) Non-fulfillment of duties
C) Desertion
D) Financial disputes

120. What is "mutual consent divorce"?

A) Divorce granted without any agreement
B) Divorce based on mutual agreement of both parties
C) Divorce based on a court decision
D) Divorce that is automatic

121. Under the Hindu Marriage Act, what is the minimum age for a male to marry?
A) 18 years
B) 21 years
C) 25 years
D) 20 years

122. What does "joint custody" mean?

A) Only one parent has custody
B) Both parents share custody and decision-making for the child
C) The court decides custody
D) None of the above

123. What is the focus of the Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006?
A) To regulate marriage age
B) To prevent child marriages
C) To manage dowry issues
D) To promote education for children

124. What is the purpose of a guardianship order?

A) To transfer property rights
B) To determine who can make decisions for a child
C) To assign visitation rights
D) To resolve divorce matters

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125. Which of the following statements about child support is true?
A) It is optional
B) It is mandatory for the non-custodial parent
C) It is only required until the child turns 18
D) It can be waived

126. Which of the following can claim maintenance under the Domestic Violence Act?
A) Only married women
B) Women in live-in relationships
C) Only women with children
D) All family members

127. What does "equitable distribution" mean in the context of divorce?

A) Fair division of marital property
B) Equal division of all assets
C) Division based on the primary income earner
D) None of the above

128. Which of the following laws regulates the rights of adopted children?
A) The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
B) The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015
C) The Indian Succession Act, 1925
D) The Guardians and Wards Act, 1890

129. Under the Hindu Succession Act, which of the following relatives has the first
right to inherit?
A) Brothers
B) Sisters
C) Children
D) Cousins

130. What is the definition of "spousal maintenance"?

A) Financial support paid to a spouse during or after divorce
B) Support from parents
C) Child support payments
D) Temporary financial aid

131. Which of the following can be grounds for seeking custody?

A) Welfare of the child
B) Financial status of the parents

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 C) Location of the parents
D) All of the above

132. Under which act can a wife claim maintenance after divorce?
A) The Indian Succession Act, 1925
B) The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
C) The Maintenance and Welfare of Parents and Senior Citizens Act, 2007
D) The Muslim Personal Law

133. What is "paternity testing"?

A) A method to prove a child's parentage
B) A scientific test to establish biological fatherhood
C) A legal procedure to grant custody
D) A type of DNA testing for divorce

134. What does "legal separation" mean?

A) A divorce
B) A court-approved arrangement where spouses live apart but remain married
C) An informal agreement
D) None of the above

135. What is the effect of a legal separation on marital status?

A) It dissolves the marriage
B) The marriage remains intact
C) It requires a second marriage license
D) It ends all marital obligations

136. What is the role of a mediator in family law disputes?

A) To facilitate negotiation between parties
B) To make binding decisions
C) To represent one party
D) To conduct hearings

137. Which of the following is a valid reason for child custody modification?
A) Change in job
B) Change in circumstances affecting the child's welfare
C) Parent's personal preferences
D) None of the above

138. Under which act is polygamy permitted?

A) The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955

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 B) Muslim Personal Law
C) The Special Marriage Act, 1954
D) The Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006

139. What is the main focus of the Maintenance and Welfare of Parents and Senior
Citizens Act, 2007?
A) Child custody rights
B) Spousal support
C) Financial support for parents and senior citizens
D) Marriage registration

140. Which of the following acts governs child adoption?

A) The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015
B) The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
C) The Special Marriage Act, 1954
D) The Guardians and Wards Act, 1890

141. What is the concept of "parental rights"?

A) The legal rights of parents to make decisions for their children
B) Rights of grandparents
C) Rights regarding property inheritance
D) Rights for child support

142. Which of the following is NOT a factor considered in custody decisions?

A) The child's age
B) The income of the parents
C) The child's wishes
D) The stability of the home environment

143. Which of the following can be grounds for judicial separation under the Hindu
Marriage Act?
A) Infidelity
B) Cruelty
C) Financial issues
D) All of the above

144. What is "parens patriae"?

A) The right to inherit
B) The state‟s duty to protect children
C) The marriage law
D) The divorce process

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145. What does "visitation" refer to in family law?
A) The right to physically possess the child
B) The right to make decisions for the child
C) The scheduled time a non-custodial parent spends with the child
D) None of the above

146. Which of the following is a requirement for a valid Hindu marriage?

A) Free consent of both parties
B) Financial stability
C) Approval from relatives
D) Registration

147. Which act provides for the protection of women from domestic violence?
A) The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
B) The Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005
C) The Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961
D) The Special Marriage Act, 1954

148. What is the significance of "Mahr" in Muslim marriage?

A) A wedding gift from wife to husband
B) A mandatory payment from husband to wife
C) A type of dowry
D) A legal contract

149. What is the primary purpose of the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of
Children) Act, 2015?
A) To regulate marriage
B) To provide care and protection for children in need
C) To enforce child support
D) To manage custody disputes

150. What does "custodial parent" refer to?

A) The parent who pays child support
B) The parent with whom the child lives
C) The parent with visitation rights
D) None of the above

151. What is the effect of a divorce decree?

A) It nullifies the marriage
B) It legally ends the marital relationship

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 C) It transfers property rights
D) It mandates child support

152. Which law governs the dissolution of Muslim marriages?

A) The Dissolution of Muslim Marriages Act, 1939
B) The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
C) The Special Marriage Act, 1954
D) The Indian Divorce Act, 1869

153. What is the main focus of the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act,
2005?
A) To protect women from violence in the domestic sphere
B) To manage property disputes
C) To regulate marriages
D) To enforce child support

154. Which of the following is NOT a requirement for a valid marriage under the
Special Marriage Act, 1954?
A) Religious affiliation
B) Free consent of parties
C) Mental capacity of parties
D) Registration of marriage

155. What does "paternal rights" refer to?

A) Legal rights of a father regarding his children
B) Rights of the mother
C) Property rights of children
D) Rights of grandparents

156. Under which law can a person seek a divorce on the ground of "desertion"?
A) The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
B) The Special Marriage Act, 1954
C) The Muslim Personal Law
D) The Indian Divorce Act, 1869

157. What does "guardian ad litem" mean?

A) A permanent guardian
B) A type of legal custodian
C) A guardian appointed by the court to represent a child
D) A non-custodial parent

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158. In which case can a father seek custody of his children?
A) If he has a stable job
B) If the mother is unfit
C) Based on the best interests of the child
D) All of the above

159. What is the maximum age for a child to be considered for adoption under the
Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act?
A) 18 years
B) 21 years
C) 18 years or under
D) 16 years

160. What is the term used for a child who is legally adopted?
A) Adopted child
B) Natural child
C) Foster child
D) Stepchild

161. Which of the following rights does a child have under the law?
A) Right to education
B) Right to be heard in custody proceedings
C) Both A and B
D) None of the above

162. What is "dissolution of marriage"?

A) Separation of property
B) Legal annulment of marriage
C) The formal end of a marriage
D) A type of legal custody

163. What does "visitation rights" refer to?

A) Rights of the custodial parent
B) Rights of a non-custodial parent to see their child
C) Rights of the child
D) None of the above

164. Under the Hindu Marriage Act, what is the prescribed age for a female to
marry?
A) 18 years
B) 18 years

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 C) 21 years
D) 25 years

165. What is the primary function of a family law mediator?

A) To make decisions for the parties
B) To facilitate communication between disputing parties
C) To enforce the law
D) To represent one party in court

166. Which of the following can be a ground for child custody disputes?
A) Best interests of the child
B) Financial stability of parents
C) Age of parents
D) All of the above

167. What does the term "non-custodial parent" refer to?

A) The parent with whom the child lives
B) The parent responsible for making decisions
C) The parent who does not have physical custody of the child
D) None of the above

168. What is the legal age for marriage under the Prohibition of Child Marriage Act,
2006, for girls?
A) 16 years
B) 18 years
C) 21 years
D) 25 years

169. Which of the following is a requirement for a valid adoption?

A) Consent of biological parents
B) Financial capability
C) Age of adoptee
D) Location of residence

170. What does "equitable distribution" mean in family law?

A) Equal division of all assets
B) Fair division of marital property based on contribution
C) Only property division
D) Division based on income

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171. What is the primary purpose of the Guardians and Wards Act, 1890?
A) To regulate the guardianship of minors
B) To manage property disputes
C) To enforce child support
D) To govern marriage

172. Which of the following is NOT a type of maintenance?

A) Temporary maintenance
B) Emotional maintenance
C) Permanent maintenance
D) Interim maintenance

173. What is "child neglect"?

A) A form of domestic violence
B) Failure to provide for a child's basic needs
C) Abandonment of a child
D) None of the above

174. What does "spousal support" refer to?

A) Financial assistance for children
B) Support provided by parents
C) Financial assistance paid to a spouse after separation
D) None of the above

175. Under which act can a child seek legal representation?

A) The Child Labour Act
B) The Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act
C) The Juvenile Justice Act
D) The Hindu Marriage Act

176. What is the role of a family law attorney?

A) To represent clients in family court
B) To provide legal advice on family law matters
C) To conduct mediations
D) To enforce child support

177. What does "sole custody" mean?

A) One parent has complete custody rights
B) Joint custody arrangement
C) Shared decision-making
D) None of the above

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178. Which of the following is a valid reason for denying custody?
A) Financial status
B) Child abuse or neglect
C) Parental disagreements
D) None of the above

179. What does "marital property" refer to?

A) Property owned by one spouse
B) Property acquired before marriage
C) Property acquired during the marriage
D) None of the above

180. Under the Hindu Marriage Act, which of the following is NOT a ground for
divorce?
A) Adultery
B) Financial stability
C) Cruelty
D) Desertion

181. What is the purpose of a prenuptial agreement?

A) To enforce child support
B) To outline asset division in the event of divorce
C) To manage custody disputes
D) To prevent domestic violence

182. Which of the following can be a basis for seeking annulment of marriage?
A) Impotence
B) Fraud
C) Both A and B
D) None of the above

183. What is "contempt of court" in family law?

A) Failure to comply with court orders
B) Disrespecting the court
C) Witness tampering
D) None of the above

184. Which act prohibits child marriage in India?

A) The Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006
B) The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955

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 C) Both A and B
D) The Special Marriage Act, 1954

185. What is the significance of "marriage registration"?

A) To provide legal recognition of the marriage
B) To fulfill religious obligations
C) To enforce child support
D) To manage property disputes

186. Which of the following statements is true about spousal maintenance?

A) It is automatically granted in all divorces
B) It may be awarded based on the needs of the receiving spouse
C) It is a one-time payment
D) It is only for women

187. In a divorce proceeding, which factor is typically considered by courts in

dividing assets?
A) The length of the marriage
B) The age of the spouses
C) The religion of the spouses
D) None of the above

188. What is the purpose of a postnuptial agreement?

A) To define custody arrangements
B) To outline financial arrangements after marriage
C) To facilitate divorce
D) To enforce child support

189. Which of the following is an essential condition for adoption under the Hindu
Adoption and Maintenance Act, 1956?
A) The child must be a boy
B) The adoptive parents must be Hindu
C) The child must be related to the adoptive parents
D) The child must be under 16

190. What does "alimony" refer to?

A) A child support payment
B) A payment made to a spouse for living expenses
C) Financial support provided by one spouse to another after separation
D) None of the above

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191. What is the meaning of "separation agreement"?
A) A document terminating a marriage
B) An agreement between couples to end a marriage
C) A contract outlining the terms of a couple‟s separation
D) A legal document for child adoption

192. Which of the following is NOT a factor in determining child custody?

A) The child’s best interests
B) The parents' financial status
C) The stability of the home environment
D) The wishes of the child

193. What is the role of a family court?

A) To handle disputes related to family law
B) To oversee criminal cases
C) To manage property disputes
D) None of the above

194. Which act protects the rights of women from domestic violence?
A) The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
B) The Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005
C) The Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961
D) The Special Marriage Act, 1954

195. What is the significance of "joint custody"?

A) It allows both parents to make decisions for the child
B) It ensures equal parenting time
C) Both A and B
D) None of the above

196. Under which circumstances can a marriage be annulled?

A) Fraud or misrepresentation
B) Lack of capacity to consent
C) Financial issues
D) Both A and B

197. What is "maintenance pendente lite"?

A) Maintenance awarded after the divorce
B) Temporary maintenance awarded during divorce proceedings
C) Permanent maintenance
D) Child support payments

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198. Which of the following can be a reason for seeking a restraining order in family
law?
A) Domestic violence
B) Property disputes
C) Child custody issues
D) Financial disagreements

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 Public Interest Litigation
1. What does "Public Interest Litigation" (PIL) refer to?
A) Litigation involving personal disputes
B) Litigation filed for the protection of public interest
C) Corporate lawsuits
D) None of the above

2. Which Article of the Indian Constitution is most commonly associated with PIL?
A) Article 21
B) Article 32
C) Article 14
D) Article 19

3. Who can file a Public Interest Litigation?

A) Only individuals
B) Any person or organization acting in the public interest
C) Only lawyers
D) Government officials only

4. What is the primary purpose of PIL?

A) To settle personal disputes
B) To seek justice for the marginalized and the underprivileged
C) To support corporate interests
D) None of the above

5. Which landmark case recognized the concept of PIL in India?

A) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
B) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
C) Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan
D) Minerva Mills v. Union of India

6. What type of issues can be raised through PIL?

A) Personal grievances
B) Social issues affecting large sections of society
C) Financial disputes
D) Criminal cases against individuals

7. Which court has the jurisdiction to hear PILs in India?

A) District Court

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 B) High Court
C) Supreme Court
D) Both B and C

8. What is the significance of the case "S.P. Gupta v. Union of India"?

A) It dealt with criminal law
B) It laid down guidelines for PIL
C) It focused on personal injury
D) None of the above

9. Which of the following is NOT a ground for filing a PIL?

A) Violation of fundamental rights
B) Personal grievances
C) Environmental concerns
D) Public health issues

10. What does the term "locus standi" refer to in the context of PIL?
A) The location of the court
B) The right to bring a lawsuit
C) The evidence presented
D) None of the above

11. Which of the following is a limitation of PIL?

A) It can be filed by any person
B) It should not be filed for personal benefits
C) It can address any legal issue
D) None of the above

12. In which case did the Supreme Court emphasize that PIL should not be used for
personal benefits?
A) Ashok Kumar v. Union of India
B) K.K. Verma v. Union of India
C) S.P. Gupta v. Union of India
D) Minerva Mills v. Union of India

13. What is the primary aim of PIL?

A) To provide financial compensation
B) To ensure legal representation
C) To promote social justice
D) To protect corporate interests

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14. Which one of the following can be a petitioner in a PIL?
A) An aggrieved individual
B) A lawyer
C) A non-governmental organization (NGO)
D) All of the above

15. What is the role of the court when dealing with PILs?
A) To dismiss all petitions
B) To examine the merits of the case
C) To award damages
D) To provide legal aid

16. Which one of the following is a typical feature of PIL?

A) Solely focused on the petitioner
B) Focused on the public at large
C) Limited to civil disputes
D) None of the above

17. What does the term "judicial activism" refer to in the context of PIL?
A) Courts taking an active role in protecting rights
B) Courts strictly adhering to legal texts
C) Courts avoiding involvement in social issues
D) None of the above

18. In which landmark PIL case did the Supreme Court of India rule on the right to a clean
environment?
A) M.C. Mehta v. Union of India
B) Indian Council for Enviro-Legal Action v. Union of India
C) Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan
D) K. K. Verma v. Union of India

19. Which of the following statements is true regarding the dismissal of a PIL?
A) It can be dismissed if it is deemed frivolous
B) It cannot be dismissed for any reason
C) It can only be dismissed by a High Court
D) None of the above

20. What is the outcome if a PIL is successful?

A) It leads to financial compensation for the petitioner
B) It may result in a judgment or order addressing the issue raised

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 C) It leads to criminal prosecution
D) None of the above

21. Which fundamental right is often invoked in PILs?

A) Right to property
B) Right to freedom of speech
C) Right to life and personal liberty
D) Right to religion

22. Which type of organizations often file PILs?

A) For-profit organizations
B) Non-governmental organizations (NGOs)
C) Corporate entities
D) None of the above

23. What is the role of the amicus curiae in a PIL?

A) To assist the court by providing expertise
B) To represent the petitioner
C) To provide legal aid to the defendant
D) None of the above

24. Which of the following is NOT a typical subject matter of PILs?

A) Environmental protection
B) Personal civil disputes
C) Human rights violations
D) Public health issues

25. What is the primary reason for the liberalization of standing in PIL cases?
A) To benefit corporate interests
B) To limit the number of petitions
C) To enhance access to justice for marginalized groups
D) None of the above

26. What was the significance of the case "Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan"?
A) It dealt with criminal law
B) It established guidelines for preventing sexual harassment at the workplace
C) It focused on environmental issues
D) None of the above

27. Which of the following is a consequence of misusing PIL?

A) Increased public awareness

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 B) Enhanced access to justice
C) Burdening the judicial system
D) None of the above

28. What is the effect of a court ruling in a PIL on the public?

A) It has the potential to create a precedent
B) It only affects the petitioner
C) It can be ignored by lower courts
D) None of the above

29. In which case did the Supreme Court rule that the right to privacy is a fundamental
right?
A) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
B) K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India
C) Shreya Singhal v. Union of India
D) None of the above

30. What is the function of the National Green Tribunal (NGT) in relation to PIL?
A) To settle personal disputes
B) To address environmental issues
C) To enforce criminal law
D) None of the above

31. What does the term "public interest" mean in the context of PIL?
A) The welfare of the general public
B) The interests of a few individuals
C) Corporate benefits
D) None of the above

32. Which of the following is a disadvantage of PIL?

A) It raises awareness about social issues
B) It may lead to unnecessary litigation
C) It promotes justice
D) None of the above

33. What type of relief can be sought through a PIL?

A) Monetary compensation
B) Injunctions or directions
C) Criminal penalties
D) None of the above

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34. Which body has the power to issue directions to protect the environment under PIL?
A) The Supreme Court
B) The District Court
C) The Executive
D) None of the above

35. In which case was the right to food recognized as a fundamental right?
A) People's Union for Civil Liberties v. Union of India
B) K.K. Verma v. Union of India
C) S.P. Gupta v. Union of India
D) Minerva Mills v. Union of India

36. What is the role of the Supreme Court in PIL cases?

A) To only entertain criminal cases
B) To ensure justice is served in matters affecting public interest
C) To manage administrative functions
D) None of the above

37. Which of the following rights can be protected through PIL?

A) Right to work
B) Right to education
C) Right to bear arms
D) None of the above

38. What does the term "frivolous PIL" refer to?

A) A PIL with no merit
B) A PIL that serves public interest
C) A PIL filed for personal gain or without a genuine cause
D) None of the above

39. Which landmark case dealt with the rights of children in the context of PIL?
A) K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India
B) Bandhua Mukti Morcha v. Union of India
C) S.P. Gupta v. Union of India
D) None of the above

40. What is the function of a PIL in environmental issues?

A) To address and protect the environment for the public
B) To promote industrial development
C) To enforce property rights
D) None of the above

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41. Which of the following can the Supreme Court issue in a PIL case?
A) Only advisory opinions
B) Writs such as mandamus, prohibition, or certiorari
C) Only monetary compensation
D) None of the above

42. What is the purpose of a "writ petition" in the context of PIL?

A) To seek a legal remedy for public interest issues
B) To file a personal grievance
C) To settle financial disputes
D) None of the above

43. Which Article empowers the Supreme Court to issue writs?

A) Article 14
B) Article 21
C) Article 32
D) Article 226

44. What is the effect of a public interest judgment?

A) It affects only the petitioner
B) It sets a precedent for similar future cases
C) It can be ignored by lower courts
D) None of the above

45. In which case did the Supreme Court rule that the right to health is a fundamental
right?
A) Paschim Banga Khet Mazdoor Samity v. State of West Bengal
B) K.K. Verma v. Union of India
C) S.P. Gupta v. Union of India
D) Minerva Mills v. Union of India

46. What is the significance of the case "S. R. Bommai v. Union of India"?
A) It dealt with corporate law
B) It discussed federalism and the powers of the states
C) It focused on criminal law
D) None of the above

47. Which of the following is a characteristic of a PIL?

A) It addresses issues affecting a large number of people
B) It only pertains to individual rights

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 C) It focuses on financial gains
D) None of the above

48. What is the impact of PIL on social reforms?

A) It hampers the legal system
B) It promotes social change and awareness
C) It restricts personal freedoms
D) None of the above

49. Which of the following is an essential requirement for filing a PIL?

A) It must be filed only by lawyers
B) It must demonstrate public interest
C) It must be about financial issues
D) None of the above

50. What does "standing" in the context of PIL mean?

A) The legal right to initiate a lawsuit
B) The location of the court
C) The type of relief sought
D) None of the above

51. In which landmark PIL case did the Supreme Court emphasize the need for women's
rights?
A) K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India
B) Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan
C) S.P. Gupta v. Union of India
D) None of the above

52. Which of the following issues can be raised in a PIL related to education?
A) Teacher-student disputes
B) Right to free and compulsory education
C) School fees
D) None of the above

53. What is the function of a High Court in PIL matters?

A) To hear PILs at the state level
B) To only hear criminal cases
C) To manage administrative functions
D) None of the above

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54. What type of relief can be granted by the court in a PIL case?
A) Only monetary compensation
B) Orders or directions for public interest issues
C) Personal damages
D) None of the above

55. Which of the following is a common form of public interest litigation?

A) Environmental protection petitions
B) Personal civil disputes
C) Corporate lawsuits
D) None of the above

56. Which of the following can be the subject of a PIL?

A) Personal grievances
B) Private property disputes
C) Human rights violations
D) None of the above

57. What is the relevance of the case "K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India"?
A) It dealt with environmental law
B) It recognized the right to privacy as a fundamental right
C) It focused on corporate rights
D) None of the above

58. What does the term "amicus curiae" mean?

A) A party to the case
B) A friend of the court
C) A judge
D) None of the above

59. Which of the following acts as a check on the misuse of PIL?

A) Courts have the power to dismiss frivolous PILs
B) The government has full control over PILs
C) Only High Courts can hear PILs
D) None of the above

60. What does "social justice" mean in the context of PIL?

A) Justice for corporations
B) Justice that addresses societal inequalities
C) Legal justice only
D) None of the above

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61. Which of the following is a guiding principle for PILs?
A) It should only benefit the petitioner
B) It should be in the interest of society
C) It should focus on financial gain
D) None of the above

62. What can be a consequence of filing a frivolous PIL?

A) It promotes social justice
B) It may lead to penalties or fines
C) It encourages genuine claims
D) None of the above

63. What is the primary function of the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC)
concerning PIL?
A) To adjudicate family disputes
B) To protect human rights violations
C) To manage corporate affairs
D) None of the above

64. Which of the following issues can be raised in a PIL regarding women‟s rights?
A) Domestic violence and harassment
B) Property disputes
C) Personal grievances
D) None of the above

65. What is the implication of a successful PIL?

A) It may lead to systemic changes and reforms
B) It only affects the individual petitioner
C) It can be ignored by other courts
D) None of the above

66. Which court case ruled that the right to education is a fundamental right?
A) S.P. Gupta v. Union of India
B) Unni Krishnan v. State of Andhra Pradesh
C) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
D) None of the above

67. Which of the following is a valid reason for filing a PIL?

A) Personal disputes
B) Addressing public grievances

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 C) Corporate disputes
D) None of the above

68. What does "judicial review" entail in the context of PIL?

A) Reviewing personal grievances
B) Examining the constitutionality of laws and actions
C) Only looking at criminal cases
D) None of the above

69. What is the significance of the case "Indira Sawhney v. Union of India"?
A) It addressed the issue of reservations in education and employment
B) It focused on environmental law
C) It dealt with personal disputes
D) None of the above

70. What is the impact of PIL on social reforms?

A) It hampers the legal system
B) It promotes social change and awareness
C) It restricts personal freedoms
D) None of the above

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 Administrative Law
1. What is Administrative Law primarily concerned with?
A) Criminal matters
B) The relationship between government and individuals
C) Corporate disputes
D) International treaties

2. Which of the following is NOT a source of Administrative Law?

A) Statutes
B) Judicial decisions
C) Personal opinions of officials
D) Administrative regulations

3. What is the primary function of administrative agencies?

A) To create laws
B) To enforce laws
C) To implement and administer regulations
D) To adjudicate disputes

4. Which doctrine restricts courts from reviewing the actions of administrative agencies?
A) Separation of powers
B) Doctrine of exhaustion of remedies
C) Doctrine of precedence
D) None of the above

5. Which principle ensures that individuals have the right to be heard before adverse
decisions are made?
A) Audi alteram partem
B) Nulla poena sine lege
C) Actus reus
D) Res judicata

6. What does "delegated legislation" refer to?

A) Laws made by the judiciary
B) Laws made by an administrative body under authority from Parliament
C) International treaties
D) Common law

7. Which of the following can be a ground for judicial review of administrative action?
A) Procedural irregularity
B) Lack of jurisdiction
C) Unreasonableness
D) All of the above

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8. Which statute governs the procedure for judicial review in India?
A) Indian Penal Code
B) The Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985
C) The Civil Procedure Code
D) The Evidence Act

9. What is the primary purpose of the Right to Information Act, 2005?

A) To promote transparency in governance
B) To enhance security measures
C) To facilitate criminal investigations
D) To regulate businesses

10. Which of the following is an example of an administrative agency?

A) The Supreme Court
B) The Central Board of Excise and Customs
C) The Parliament
D) The President

11. What is "judicial activism" in the context of Administrative Law?

A) Strict adherence to existing laws
B) Non-interference in administrative matters
C) Courts taking an active role in policy-making and reviewing administrative
actions
D) None of the above

12. Which of the following principles is NOT applicable in administrative proceedings?

A) The principle of double jeopardy
B) The principle of natural justice
C) The principle of proportionality
D) The principle of reasonableness

13. What is the "doctrine of ultra vires"?

A) The power of courts to review administrative decisions
B) The authority of administrative agencies
C) Actions taken by an authority beyond its legal power
D) None of the above

14. What type of power do administrative agencies exercise?

A) Legislative power only
B) Executive and quasi-judicial powers
C) Judicial power only
D) None of the above

15. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of administrative law?

A) Flexibility
B) Complexity

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 C) Specialization
D) Substantive focus

16. What does "ex post facto" mean in administrative law?

A) After the fact
B) Before the fact
C) At the same time
D) None of the above

17. Which of the following is a valid ground for seeking judicial review?
A) Mere dissatisfaction with the decision
B) Breach of natural justice
C) Public opinion
D) Political pressure

18. Which of the following best describes "discretionary powers" of administrative

agencies?
A) Powers that are strictly regulated by law
B) Powers to make choices within certain legal bounds
C) Powers that cannot be challenged
D) Powers only granted by the legislature

19. What does the term "substantive due process" refer to?
A) The procedures followed in legal proceedings
B) The fundamental rights that the government cannot infringe upon
C) The processes of judicial review
D) None of the above

20. Which Act establishes the framework for administrative adjudication in India?
A) The Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985
B) The Arbitration and Conciliation Act
C) The Consumer Protection Act
D) The Right to Information Act

21. Which of the following is an example of a "writ"?

A) Injunction
B) Mandamus
C) Habeas corpus
D) All of the above

22. What is the "principle of proportionality"?

A) It ensures equality before the law
B) It requires that the punishment fits the crime
C) It mandates strict liability
D) None of the above

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23. Which of the following agencies is responsible for enforcing environmental laws in
India?
A) The Central Bureau of Investigation
B) The Central Pollution Control Board
C) The Enforcement Directorate
D) The Income Tax Department

24. What does "audi alteram partem" mean?

A) Hear the other side
B) Let it be done
C) The law is the law
D) None of the above

25. Which of the following is NOT a type of administrative action?

A) Rulemaking
B) Adjudication
C) Legislation
D) Enforcement

26. Which of the following concepts is essential in administrative law to ensure fairness?
A) Judicial discretion
B) Legislative supremacy
C) Natural justice
D) Administrative efficiency

27. What is the "right to be heard" in administrative law?

A) A privilege granted to judges
B) A constitutional right
C) A principle of natural justice
D) None of the above

28. What does "judicial review" entail in administrative law?

A) Reviewing decisions of the legislature
B) Examining the legality of administrative actions
C) Reviewing financial reports
D) None of the above

29. Which of the following best defines "administrative discretion"?

A) The freedom to make choices within the limits of the law
B) The inability to make choices
C) Mandatory legal obligations
D) None of the above

30. In which of the following situations can judicial review be invoked?

A) When the decision is unpopular
B) When the decision is irrational or arbitrary

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 C) When the decision is delayed
D) None of the above

31. What is the primary purpose of the National Green Tribunal (NGT)?
A) To handle civil disputes
B) To resolve environmental issues
C) To manage corporate affairs
D) None of the above

32. Which of the following is an example of a regulatory agency?

A) The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI)
B) The Supreme Court
C) The Indian Parliament
D) The Ministry of Finance

33. What does "ultra vires" mean in administrative law?

A) Within the powers
B) Beyond the powers
C) Outside the authority granted by law
D) None of the above

34. Which of the following can be a basis for challenging the validity of delegated
legislation?
A) It is too complex
B) It is not popular
C) It exceeds the authority granted by the enabling statute
D) None of the above

35. What is "remedy" in the context of administrative law?

A) A punishment for misconduct
B) A legal solution to a grievance
C) A legislative proposal
D) None of the above

36. Which of the following is a feature of administrative tribunals?

A) They follow strict civil procedure rules
B) They offer a more informal and expedited process
C) They can only hear criminal cases
D) None of the above

37. What is the significance of the case "Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India"?
A) It dealt with environmental law
B) It expanded the scope of Article 21
C) It focused on corporate rights
D) None of the above

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38. Which of the following best describes the term "public interest litigation"?
A) Litigation filed by the government
B) Litigation filed for the benefit of the public

39. What does the term "standing" refer to in administrative law?

A) The physical presence in court
B) The right of an individual to bring a lawsuit
C) The duration of a trial
D) None of the above

40. Which body typically handles appeals in administrative law?

A) The Supreme Court
B) The High Court
C) Administrative Tribunals
D) The legislature

41. Which concept requires administrative decisions to be made based on evidence?

A) Res judicata
B) Fairness
C) Locus standi
D) Parens patriae

42. What is meant by "natural justice"?

A) The legal principles ensuring fair decision-making
B) The rights of the government
C) The application of common law
D) None of the above

43. Which of the following is a function of the judiciary concerning administrative

actions?
A) To create new laws
B) To ensure compliance with constitutional provisions
C) To manage public services
D) None of the above

44. What type of law primarily governs administrative procedures?

A) Criminal law
B) Contract law
C) Administrative law
D) Family law

45. Which of the following is an example of a quasi-judicial body?

A) National Company Law Tribunal
B) District Court
C) The Supreme Court
D) The High Court

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46. What does "merit review" in administrative law entail?
A) Examining the correctness of legal procedure only
B) Evaluating the substance and reasonableness of a decision
C) Ensuring decisions are made within a specific timeframe
D) None of the above

47. What is the primary concern of the Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005?
A) Protecting corporate secrets
B) Enhancing transparency and accountability in governance
C) Regulating trade
D) Ensuring national security

48. Which of the following is an essential feature of a fair hearing in administrative law?
A) Representation by legal counsel is not necessary
B) The opportunity to present evidence and arguments
C) The presence of a jury
D) None of the above

49. Which of the following actions by an administrative authority may be considered as

exceeding its powers?
A) Making policies
B) Issuing guidelines
C) Enforcing regulations that were not authorized by law
D) Conducting investigations

50. Which of the following terms refers to the cancellation of an administrative action?
A) Remand
B) Review
C) Quashing
D) Dismissal

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 Professional Ethics
1. What is the primary objective of legal ethics?
A) To increase profits
B) To ensure justice and fairness
C) To promote competition
D) To enhance reputation

2. The Bar Council of India (BCI) regulates the conduct of lawyers under which of the
following rules?
A) BCI Rules
B) Indian Contract Act
C) Indian Penal Code
D) Limitation Act

3. Confidentiality in the lawyer-client relationship means:

A) Information disclosed by the client must be kept secret
B) Information can be shared with others for advice
C) All communications are public
D) Confidentiality can be waived at any time

4. Which of the following is NOT a ground for professional misconduct?

A) Fraud
B) Negligence
C) Unintentional mistakes
D) Misrepresentation

5. The principle of 'conflict of interest' requires a lawyer to:

A) Favor their personal interests
B) Avoid representing conflicting parties
C) Seek the highest fee possible
D) Prioritize client interests over the law

6. Lawyers are expected to maintain which of the following standards of conduct?

A) Casual
B) Variable
C) High
D) Low

7. What is the maximum penalty for a lawyer found guilty of professional misconduct
by the Bar Council?
A) Disbarment
B) Suspension for 1 month
C) A fine of ₹10,000
D) Community service

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8. A lawyer should disclose to the court if they are:
A) In a rush
B) Representing multiple clients in the same matter
C) Seeking a raise
D) Changing law firms

9. Which of the following actions constitutes a violation of the duty of loyalty?

A) Discussing a case with colleagues
B) Seeking advice from a mentor
C) Representing two clients with opposing interests
D) Referring clients to other attorneys

10. The concept of „pro bono‟ refers to:

A) Legal services provided for free
B) High-fee legal services
C) Services provided only to wealthy clients
D) Services offered at a discount

11. Lawyers must avoid which of the following to maintain public confidence?
A) Open communication
B) Deceitful conduct
C) Professional development
D) Client representation

12. The term „ethical dilemma‟ refers to:

A) A simple choice
B) A situation where conflicting ethical principles arise
C) A decision made in haste
D) A clear violation of rules

13. Which of the following is an ethical obligation of a lawyer?

A) To prioritize personal gain
B) To represent clients competently
C) To ignore client instructions
D) To work only for wealthy clients

14. Which document outlines the professional conduct expected from lawyers in India?
A) BCI Rules of Professional Conduct
B) Indian Penal Code
C) Code of Civil Procedure
D) Criminal Procedure Code

15. Lawyers are required to maintain client confidentiality unless:

A) The client requests otherwise
B) The lawyer is in a hurry

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 C) Disclosure is required by law
D) The client has not paid their fees

16. What should a lawyer do if they discover evidence of a client's fraud?

A) Ignore it
B) Withdraw from representation
C) Continue to represent the client
D) Inform the public

17. Which of the following is a primary duty of a lawyer?

A) To win every case
B) To act in the best interests of their clients
C) To minimize expenses
D) To avoid court appearances

18. Which of the following is considered unethical billing practice?

A) Charging fees for time not worked
B) Providing a written fee agreement
C) Offering discounts for early payment
D) Charging a flat fee for services

19. Lawyers must keep their clients informed about:

A) Their personal lives
B) The progress of their cases
C) The lawyer’s financial status
D) Other clients' cases

20. Which principle governs a lawyer's representation of a client?

A) Duty of care
B) Duty of loyalty
C) Duty of diligence
D) Duty of confidentiality

21. Which of the following is a potential conflict of interest for a lawyer?

A) Representing two clients in related matters
B) Collaborating with other lawyers
C) Attending a legal seminar
D) Engaging in community service

22. Lawyers must avoid making false statements about:

A) Their qualifications
B) Their office hours
C) Their case load
D) Their fees

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23. A lawyer's communication with a former client is protected by:
A) Attorney-client privilege
B) Confidentiality obligations
C) Professional courtesy
D) State bar regulations

24. Which of the following actions is considered a breach of fiduciary duty?

A) Advising a client to settle
B) Diverting client funds for personal use
C) Accepting a case
D) Discussing a case with colleagues

25. Lawyers are required to disclose their fees in:

A) Verbal agreements only
B) Written contracts
C) Informal conversations
D) Invoices

26. Which of the following is NOT a duty of a lawyer?

A) Acting with integrity
B) Misleading the court
C) Advising clients on legal matters
D) Maintaining client confidentiality

27. Lawyers are prohibited from representing clients when:

A) They have a full caseload
B) There is a conflict of interest
C) The client is unable to pay
D) The client has a poor reputation

28. The concept of „due diligence‟ requires a lawyer to:

A) Take shortcuts in legal research
B) Conduct thorough investigation and preparation
C) Rely solely on client instructions
D) Charge higher fees for research

29. Which of the following is a professional misconduct?

A) Competently representing clients
B) Providing legal advice
C) Failing to respond to client communications
D) Attending continuing education seminars

30. Which of the following is a correct statement about lawyer advertising?

A) All forms of advertising are prohibited
B) Advertising must not be misleading or deceptive

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 C) Lawyers can advertise without restrictions
D) Only print advertising is allowed

31. Which of the following is a situation that may lead to disbarment?

A) Engaging in criminal activity related to practice
B) Failing to meet with clients regularly
C) Lacking a formal office
D) Taking on too many cases

32. Professional misconduct can result in penalties imposed by:

A) Clients only
B) Bar Council
C) Government agencies
D) Colleagues

33. The primary responsibility of lawyers in ensuring professional ethics lies with:
A) Themselves
B) Their clients
C) The Bar Council
D) The courts

34. Lawyers have a duty to represent clients even if:

A) They disagree with the client's position
B) The client is not paying
C) The case is uninteresting
D) They find the case morally objectionable

35. What is the significance of the Model Rules of Professional Conduct?

A) They are optional guidelines
B) They provide ethical standards for lawyers
C) They are only for corporate lawyers
D) They are state-specific rules only

36. Which of the following statements is correct regarding lawyer-client privilege?

A) It can be waived at any time by the lawyer
B) It does not apply to communication about crimes
C) It protects communications made in confidence
D) It is not recognized in civil cases

37. Which of the following actions could be considered a conflict of interest for a lawyer?
A) Representing clients with opposing interests
B) Consulting with colleagues
C) Attending networking events
D) Referring clients to specialists

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38. Which of the following would be a breach of confidentiality?
A) Discussing a case in a general manner
B) Revealing a client's secrets without consent
C) Writing a legal article
D) Sharing information with the Bar Council

39. The duty of care requires a lawyer to:

A) Provide competent representation
B) Follow client instructions without question
C) Charge the lowest fees possible
D) Avoid working with difficult clients

40. Which of the following is an example of professional misconduct?

A) Providing legal advice
B) Falsifying evidence
C) Referring a case to another lawyer
D) Attending a legal seminar

41. The ethical obligation to represent clients zealously is limited by:

A) Personal beliefs
B) The law and professional rules
C) Client’s demands
D) Financial considerations

42. A lawyer can ethically refuse to represent a client if:

A) The client's case is based on illegal activity
B) The client has a bad reputation
C) The lawyer is busy
D) The client cannot pay upfront

43. In which situation may a lawyer reveal confidential information?

A) To prevent a future crime
B) To seek help from a colleague
C) To advertise their services
D) To inform the public

44. A law firm‟s code of ethics should include guidelines for:

A) Personal conduct only
B) Professional conduct and client relations
C) Marketing strategies
D) Financial management

45. Which of the following is NOT a duty owed by a lawyer to their clients?
A) Loyalty
B) Competence

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 C) Favoritism
D) Communication

46. Lawyers must report misconduct by another lawyer to:

A) Their clients
B) The appropriate authority
C) The media
D) Colleagues only

47. Which of the following actions is considered ethical in lawyer advertising?

A) Guaranteeing case outcomes
B) Providing clear and truthful information
C) Using misleading testimonials
D) Making aggressive solicitations

48. When a lawyer receives a fee from a client, the lawyer should:
A) Provide a written agreement detailing the services
B) Spend the fee as quickly as possible
C) Keep it confidential
D) Avoid any discussions about it

49. A lawyer who engages in dishonest behavior may face penalties such as:
A) Disbarment
B) A warning
C) A fine only
D) Community service

50. Which of the following is true regarding client trust accounts?

A) They must be maintained separately from the lawyer's funds
B) Lawyers can withdraw funds at any time
C) They are optional for lawyers
D) Clients can access them freely

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 Company Law
1. What is a characteristic of a company?
A) Perpetual succession
B) Separate legal entity
C) Limited liability
D) Unlimited liability

2. Under which section is the company required to hold an Annual General Meeting
(AGM)?
A) Section 96
B) Section 97
C) Section 94
D) Section 91

3. What is the role of the Company Secretary in a company?

A) Legal advisor
B) Financial auditor
C) Compliance officer
D) Marketing manager

4. What is a „debenture‟?
A) A type of equity
B) A certificate of deposit
C) A document acknowledging a loan
D) A memorandum of association

5. Which section allows a company to reduce its share capital?

A) Section 60
B) Section 62
C) Section 66
D) Section 72

6. Which of the following is true about a company limited by shares?

A) Members have unlimited liability
B) Members' liability is limited to the unpaid amount on shares
C) Members cannot transfer shares
D) Only public companies can be limited by shares

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7. What is the primary objective of corporate governance?
A) Maximizing profits
B) Ensuring transparency and accountability
C) Increasing shareholder wealth
D) Reducing taxes

8. Which body has the authority to approve a company‟s financial statements?

A) Ministry of Corporate Affairs
B) Board of Directors
C) Shareholders
D) Registrar of Companies

9. Which of the following is a type of resolution passed by shareholders?

A) Ordinary resolution
B) Special resolution
C) All of the above
D) None of the above

10. Under the Companies Act, 2013, how many directors must be independent in a listed
company?
A) At least 1
B) At least 2
C) At least 1/3rd of the total number of directors
D) No requirement

11. What does „buy-back of shares‟ refer to?

A) When a company purchases its own shares
B) Issuing new shares
C) Selling shares in the market
D) Transferring shares to a third party

12. What is the objective of the „Insider Trading Regulation‟?

A) To protect shareholders
B) To increase share prices
C) To prevent unfair advantages
D) To regulate company mergers

13. Which of the following documents must be submitted for registration of a company?
A) Memorandum of Association
B) Articles of Association

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 C) Both A and B
D) None of the above

14. What is the minimum capital required to start a public company?

A) ₹2 lakh
B) ₹5 lakh
C) ₹10 lakh
D) ₹20 lakh

15. What is the primary function of a registered office of a company?

A) To serve as the official address for communication
B) To store financial records
C) To hold annual meetings
D) To provide a workplace for employees

16. Under which section can a company issue shares at a discount?

A) Section 54
B) Section 53
C) Section 56
D) Section 60

17. Which of the following best describes „corporate veil‟?

A) The financial assets of a company
B) The separation between the company and its shareholders
C) The legal obligations of the company
D) The liabilities of the directors

18. Which of the following is not an advantage of a corporation?

A) Limited liability
B) Perpetual existence
C) Higher taxes
D) Easier access to capital

19. What is the legal status of a company after it is incorporated?

A) It becomes a partnership
B) It becomes a separate legal entity
C) It operates as a sole proprietorship
D) It becomes a trust

20. Which body is responsible for regulating companies in India?

A) Ministry of Finance

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 B) Ministry of Corporate Affairs
C) Reserve Bank of India
D) Securities and Exchange Board of India

21. What is the term for a company‟s promise to pay back borrowed money?
A) Debt obligation
B) Equity stake
C) Share capital
D) Retained earnings

22. Which of the following is a key responsibility of directors?

A) Making profits for themselves
B) Acting in the best interest of the company
C) Avoiding all risks
D) Paying dividends

23. What does „due diligence‟ refer to in a corporate context?

A) The investigation of a potential investment
B) The filing of annual returns
C) The payment of taxes
D) The issuance of shares

24. Which section deals with the filing of annual returns?

A) Section 92
B) Section 94
C) Section 95
D) Section 96

25. What is the effect of „insolvency‟ on a company?

A) It is dissolved automatically
B) It continues business as usual
C) It may lead to liquidation
D) It gets tax exemption

26. What is a shareholder's right in a company?

A) To manage day-to-day operations
B) To change company name
C) To attend meetings and vote
D) To operate a subsidiary

27. Which document outlines the rights and responsibilities of shareholders?

A) Shareholders' Agreement
B) Memorandum of Association

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 C) Articles of Association
D) Certificate of Incorporation

28. What is meant by „capital restructuring‟?

A) Changing the company name
B) Altering the company's capital structure
C) Merging with another company
D) Liquidating the assets

29. What is the minimum number of members required to form a private company?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 7

30. What is the primary purpose of the Companies Act, 2013?

A) To regulate taxation
B) To govern the formation and functioning of companies
C) To manage employment laws
D) To oversee financial markets

31. Which of the following is a type of voluntary winding up?

A) Winding up by tribunal
B) Winding up due to insolvency
C) Winding up by members
D) Winding up due to disqualification

32. Which document must be filed to change the name of a company?

A) Memorandum of Association
B) Articles of Association
C) Form INC-1
D) Form MGT-14

33. Which of the following can be a ground for winding up a company by tribunal?
A) Failure to hold an AGM
B) Just and equitable grounds
C) Not paying dividends
D) Change in management

34. Which term refers to the unauthorized use of another company's name?
A) Misrepresentation
B) Passing off
C) Trade secret violation
D) Trademark infringement

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35. In the context of company law, what does „liquidation‟ mean?
A) The process of obtaining loans
B) The process of issuing shares
C) The process of winding up a company‟s affairs
D) The process of appointing directors

36. Which of the following is true regarding the Articles of Association?

A) It is filed after incorporation
B) It governs the internal management of the company
C) It must be filed with the Registrar
D) It is optional for private companies

37. What does „corporate social responsibility‟ (CSR) involve?

A) Maximizing profits
B) Paying less tax
C) Contributing to societal goals
D) Avoiding regulations

38. Which of the following is not a form of business organization?

A) Sole proprietorship
B) Corporate trust
C) Partnership
D) Corporation

39. What is the minimum number of directors required in a public company?

A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 7

40. What is the minimum number of directors required for a public company in India?
A) One
B) Three
C) Five
D) Seven

41. The concept of „limited liability‟ primarily protects:

A) Shareholders
B) Creditors
C) Shareholders' personal assets
D) Company executives

42. Which document must be filed with the Registrar of Companies to incorporate a
company?
A) Memorandum of Association
B) Articles of Association

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 C) Shareholder Agreement
D) Partnership Deed

43. The Board of Directors is responsible for:

A) Day-to-day operations
B) Policy making and strategic decisions
C) Marketing strategies
D) Employee management

44. Which of the following is a feature of a private company?

A) Can issue shares to the public
B) Restricts the transfer of shares
C) Requires a minimum of seven members
D) Must have a minimum paid-up capital of ₹5 crore

45. The doctrine of „separate legal entity‟ was established in which landmark case?
A) Salomon v. Salomon & Co. Ltd.
B) Foss v. Harbottle
C) Salomon v. Salomon
D) Donoghue v. Stevenson

46. A company can be dissolved by:

A) Board resolution only
B) Liquidation
C) Shareholder agreement
D) A merger

47. Which of the following is NOT a ground for winding up a company?

A) Insolvency
B) Failure to pay debts
C) Poor management
D) Special resolution

48. Under the Companies Act, which of the following is considered a related party
transaction?
A) A company selling goods to its director
B) A company hiring a consultant
C) A company making a public offer
D) A company entering into a contract with a third party

49. A company‟s share capital can be altered by:

A) Special resolution only
B) Both ordinary and special resolutions
C) Board resolution
D) Written consent from all shareholders

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50. The process of issuing new shares is known as:
A) Restructuring
B) Redemption
C) Issuance
D) Capitalization

51. Which of the following is NOT required for a valid board meeting?
A) Notice of the meeting
B) Approval from all shareholders
C) Quorum
D) Agenda

52. Under the Companies Act, who has the authority to appoint auditors?
A) Shareholders
B) Board of Directors
C) Company Secretary
D) Registrar of Companies

53. The „business judgment rule‟ protects directors from liability when:
A) They act negligently
B) They make decisions for personal gain
C) They act in good faith and in the company‟s best interest
D) They do not consult shareholders

54. Which document defines the relationship between the shareholders and the company?
A) Memorandum of Association
B) Articles of Association
C) Shareholders’ Agreement
D) Board Resolution

55. What is the primary purpose of a company‟s memorandum of association?

A) To outline the company’s financial structure
B) To list the company’s shareholders
C) To state the company‟s objectives and powers
D) To provide a code of conduct

56. A company can issue preference shares with a:

A) Fixed rate of dividend
B) Variable rate of dividend
C) No dividend
D) Only equity participation

57. The principle of „ultra vires‟ refers to:

A) Powers exceeding the company’s authority
B) Actions beyond the scope of the memorandum

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 C) Shareholder rights
D) Director responsibilities

58. Which section of the Companies Act deals with the alteration of articles?
A) Section 14
B) Section 31
C) Section 61
D) Section 74

59. What is the liability of a director for fraudulent activities?

A) Limited to the amount of investment
B) Subject to company’s approval
C) Unlimited personal liability
D) None

60. Which of the following is a method of corporate restructuring?

A) New product launch
B) Merger and acquisition
C) Market expansion
D) Hiring new employees

61. Under the Companies Act, a private company must have at least how many members?
A) Two
B) Two (minimum) and fifty (maximum)
C) Three
D) Seven

62. The „Annual General Meeting‟ (AGM) must be held within how many months from
the end of the financial year?
A) Six months
B) Three months
C) Nine months
D) Twelve months

63. Which of the following is a legal consequence of insolvency for a company?

A) Increased credit
B) Enhanced reputation
C) Liquidation or winding up
D) Bonus for directors

64. The authority to issue bonus shares lies with:

A) Shareholders only
B) Board of Directors only
C) Board of Directors with shareholders‟ approval
D) Government

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65. Which of the following statements about debentures is FALSE?
A) Debentures are a form of debt capital
B) Debenture holders are owners of the company
C) Debentures can be secured or unsecured
D) Interest on debentures is paid before dividends

66. A company is said to be „listed‟ when:

A) It is registered with the Registrar of Companies
B) Its shares are traded on a stock exchange
C) It has a minimum number of shareholders
D) It has a paid-up capital of ₹1 crore

67. The provisions for winding up by the tribunal are laid down in which section of the
Companies Act?
A) Section 279
B) Section 271
C) Section 300
D) Section 397

68. The „share premium account‟ is used for:

A) Paying dividends
B) Issuing fully paid shares at a premium
C) Writing off losses
D) Paying for liabilities

69. A company can be classified as a „small company‟ if its paid-up share capital does not
exceed:
A) ₹1 crore
B) ₹2 crore
C) ₹4 crore
D) ₹10 crore

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 Environmental Law
1. What is the primary purpose of environmental law?
A) To promote economic growth
B) To protect the environment
C) To regulate trade
D) To enhance national security

2. Which international agreement focuses on climate change?

A) The Paris Agreement
B) The Kyoto Protocol
C) The Montreal Protocol
D) The Rio Declaration

3. What does the term „sustainable development‟ refer to?

A) Economic development without limits
B) Development focused solely on environmental concerns
C) Development that meets present needs without compromising future generations
D) Rapid industrialization

4. Which of the following is a major source of air pollution?

A) Plastic waste
B) Emissions from vehicles
C) Agricultural runoff
D) Industrial waste

5. What is the main function of the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) in the United
States?
A) To manage wildlife conservation
B) To enforce environmental regulations
C) To promote renewable energy
D) To oversee industrial production

6. Which act governs the management of hazardous waste in the U.S.?

A) Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA)
B) Clean Water Act
C) Clean Air Act
D) National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA)

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7. What does the Clean Air Act regulate?
A) Water quality
B) Waste disposal
C) Air pollution
D) Soil contamination

8. Which of the following is a principle of environmental justice?

A) Environmental degradation is necessary for development
B) Wealthy communities are entitled to more resources
C) All communities deserve equal protection from environmental hazards
D) Environmental laws should only apply to industrial areas

9. What is a „carbon footprint‟?

A) The amount of carbon in the soil
B) The total greenhouse gas emissions produced directly or indirectly by an individual
or organization
C) The weight of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
D) The carbon content of fossil fuels

10. Which agency is responsible for enforcing the Endangered Species Act?
A) National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA)
B) U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service
C) Department of the Interior
D) Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)

11. What is the purpose of the National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA)?
A) To regulate industrial emissions
B) To require federal agencies to assess the environmental effects of their proposed
actions
C) To manage endangered species
D) To enforce clean water standards

12. What is the primary concern of the Convention on Biological Diversity?

A) The conservation of biodiversity
B) Pollution control
C) Climate change mitigation
D) Sustainable development

13. What is the “precautionary principle” in environmental law?

A) Actions should only be taken if there is complete certainty of safety
B) Lack of scientific certainty should not delay measures to prevent environmental

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 harm
C) Economic growth should take precedence over environmental concerns
D) Environmental regulations should be minimized

14. Which of the following is an example of a renewable energy source?

A) Coal
B) Natural gas
C) Nuclear power
D) Solar energy

15. What does „biodegradable‟ mean?

A) Cannot be broken down by natural processes
B) Capable of being decomposed by bacteria or other living organisms
C) Is harmful to the environment
D) Contains harmful chemicals

16. Which international organization is primarily focused on environmental issues?

A) World Trade Organization (WTO)
B) International Monetary Fund (IMF)
C) United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
D) World Health Organization (WHO)

17. What is the primary goal of the Clean Water Act?

A) To regulate hazardous waste
B) To protect air quality
C) To restore and maintain the integrity of the nation's waters
D) To promote renewable energy sources

18. What is a significant outcome of the Kyoto Protocol?

A) Established a global biodiversity treaty
B) Set binding targets for greenhouse gas emissions reductions
C) Provided funding for environmental projects
D) Created a framework for sustainable development

19. Which type of pollution is primarily associated with plastic waste?

A) Air pollution
B) Marine pollution
C) Soil pollution
D) Noise pollution

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20. What does „EIA‟ stand for in environmental assessments?
A) Environmental Impact Assessment
B) Energy Industry Act
C) Environmental Information Agency
D) Ecological Integrity Analysis

21. Which law requires federal agencies to prepare environmental assessments or

environmental impact statements?
A) Clean Air Act
B) National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA)
C) Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA)
D) Endangered Species Act

22. What is the purpose of the Montreal Protocol?

A) To promote biodiversity
B) To phase out substances that deplete the ozone layer
C) To combat climate change
D) To regulate air quality

23. Which of the following is NOT a greenhouse gas?

A) Carbon dioxide
B) Methane
C) Nitrogen
D) Water vapor

24. What is the focus of the Paris Agreement?

A) Reducing water pollution
B) Combating climate change
C) Conserving biodiversity
D) Managing waste disposal

25. Which of the following is a consequence of deforestation?

A) Increased biodiversity
B) Improved air quality
C) Habitat loss for wildlife
D) Enhanced carbon sequestration

26. What is an „environmental audit‟?

A) A review of financial statements
B) A systematic evaluation of a company's environmental performance

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 C) A report on pollution levels
D) An assessment of community health

27. What is the term for the gradual increase in Earth's average temperature due to human
activities?
A) Global warming
B) Climate change
C) Ozone depletion
D) Acid rain

28. What is the primary purpose of biodiversity conservation?

A) To enhance agricultural production
B) To protect ecosystems and maintain ecological balance
C) To promote tourism
D) To regulate industrial emissions

29. Which of the following practices contributes to soil degradation?

A) Crop rotation
B) Organic farming
C) Overgrazing
D) Reforestation

30. What does „environmental stewardship‟ refer to?

A) Exploiting natural resources
B) Responsible use and protection of the environment
C) Limiting access to natural resources
D) Ignoring environmental concerns

31. What is the purpose of pollution control laws?

A) To promote industrial growth
B) To reduce and manage pollutants in the environment
C) To regulate trade
D) To restrict land use

32. Which term describes the ability of ecosystems to recover from disturbances?
A) Resistance
B) Resilience
C) Sustainability
D) Adaptation

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33. What is the primary source of water pollution in urban areas?
A) Agricultural runoff
B) Industrial emissions
C) Sewage and wastewater
D) Deforestation

34. Which of the following is a non-renewable resource?

A) Oil
B) Wind
C) Solar energy
D) Geothermal energy

35. What is the main focus of international environmental law?

A) National security
B) Addressing transboundary environmental issues
C) Economic development
D) Trade regulations

36. Which of the following best describes an ecological footprint?

A) The area of land required for farming
B) The environmental impact of an individual or population
C) The size of a protected area
D) The amount of waste generated

37. What is a significant effect of acid rain?

A) Damage to aquatic ecosystems
B) Increased soil fertility
C) Improved air quality
D) Enhanced plant growth

38. Which term refers to the loss of species in a specific habitat?

A) Extinction
B) Pollution
C) Deforestation
D) Overfishing

39. What is a major goal of the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change
(UNFCCC)?
A) To promote economic growth
B) To reduce greenhouse gas emissions globally
C) To increase industrial productivity

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40. Which of the following pollutants is most commonly associated with groundwater
contamination?
A) Sulfur dioxide
B) Nitrates
C) Carbon monoxide
D) Ozone

41. What is the primary purpose of the Endangered Species Act?

A) To regulate emissions
B) To protect threatened and endangered species
C) To promote hunting
D) To manage national parks

42. Which principle states that those who produce pollution should bear the costs of
managing it?
A) Sustainable development
B) Biodiversity conservation
C) Polluter pays principle
D) Environmental justice

43. What does the term „ecological footprint‟ measure?

A) The area required for agriculture
B) The impact of urbanization
C) The environmental impact of human activities
D) The size of a protected area

44. What is the purpose of the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of
Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES)?
A) To protect marine environments
B) To regulate international trade of endangered species
C) To promote biodiversity in agriculture
D) To mitigate climate change

45. Which of the following is a greenhouse gas that contributes to climate change?
A) Oxygen
B) Methane
C) Helium
D) Argon

46. What is the main focus of the Basel Convention?

A) Conservation of wildlife

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 B) Control of hazardous waste movement
C) Regulation of air pollution
D) Protection of marine environments

47. What does „bioremediation‟ refer to?

A) The disposal of hazardous waste
B) The creation of wildlife reserves
C) The use of living organisms to remove pollutants
D) The recycling of plastic

48. Which act provides a framework for the regulation of pesticides in the U.S.?
A) Clean Air Act
B) Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act (FIFRA)
C) Resource Conservation and Recovery Act
D) Clean Water Act

49. What is a significant effect of climate change on global ecosystems?

A) Increased biodiversity
B) Altered species distribution
C) Improved soil fertility
D) Enhanced crop yields

50. What does the term „sustainability‟ imply in environmental context?

A) Meeting the needs of the present without compromising future generations
B) Focusing solely on economic growth
C) Using resources without any limits
D) Prioritizing industrial development

51. Which treaty aims to combat desertification?

A) The Paris Agreement
B) The United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD)
C) The Ramsar Convention
D) The Convention on Biological Diversity

52. What is the term for substances that are harmful to human health and the
environment?
A) Biodegradable materials
B) Renewable resources
C) Hazardous substances
D) Sustainable practices

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53. What does „environmental impact statement‟ (EIS) involve?
A) A financial report on pollution control
B) An analysis of the potential environmental effects of a proposed project
C) A summary of legislative changes
D) An assessment of economic impacts

54. Which of the following actions can reduce greenhouse gas emissions?
A) Increasing fossil fuel consumption
B) Enhancing energy efficiency
C) Expanding deforestation
D) Promoting coal mining

55. What is a significant goal of the Global Environment Facility (GEF)?

A) Promoting fossil fuels
B) Providing funding for environmental projects
C) Regulating trade
D) Enhancing military capacity

56. What is „environmental degradation‟?

A) The improvement of natural resources
B) The restoration of ecosystems
C) The deterioration of the environment through depletion of resources
D) The increase of biodiversity

57. Which law protects wetlands in the United States?

A) Clean Air Act
B) Clean Water Act
C) Endangered Species Act
D) Resource Conservation and Recovery Act

58. Which concept refers to the responsibility of companies to ensure their operations do
not harm the environment?
A) Corporate social responsibility
B) Profit maximization
C) Shareholder primacy
D) Regulatory compliance

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 Cyber Law
1. What is the primary objective of cyber law?
A) To promote internet usage
B) To regulate online activities and protect users
C) To enhance internet speed
D) To control software development

2. Which legislation governs electronic contracts in India?

A) Information Technology Act, 2000
B) Indian Contract Act, 1872
C) Copyright Act, 1957
D) Patent Act, 1970

3. What does the term „cybercrime‟ refer to?

A) Any crime in the physical world
B) Crime related to personal disputes
C) Criminal activities carried out through electronic means
D) Crime related to corporate fraud

4. Which section of the IT Act deals with hacking?

A) Section 66A
B) Section 66
C) Section 67
D) Section 69

5. What is the penalty for sending offensive messages through communication service
under the IT Act?
A) Imprisonment for one year
B) Imprisonment for up to three years
C) Fine of ₹50,000
D) Imprisonment for life

6. Which of the following is a form of cybercrime?

A) Robbery
B) Arson
C) Phishing
D) Assault

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7. Which organization is responsible for addressing cybersecurity issues in India?
A) Ministry of Home Affairs
B) Indian Computer Emergency Response Team (CERT-In)
C) Reserve Bank of India
D) Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology

8. What does „data breach‟ mean?

A) Data storage problem
B) Data encryption failure
C) Unauthorized access to confidential data
D) Data corruption

9. Which of the following acts protects intellectual property rights in cyberspace?

A) Information Technology Act
B) Indian Penal Code
C) Copyright Act
D) Trade Marks Act

10. What is the role of the Digital Signature Act?

A) To promote social media
B) To provide legal recognition to digital signatures
C) To regulate email communications
D) To enhance data storage

11. What does the term „malware‟ refer to?

A) Software that enhances performance
B) Software that protects against threats
C) Malicious software designed to harm systems
D) Software for data recovery

12. Which of the following is NOT a type of cybercrime?

A) Identity theft
B) Online fraud
C) Speeding
D) Cyberbullying

13. What does the term „phishing‟ mean?

A) An act of stealing physical items
B) A legal process in cyberspace
C) Attempting to acquire sensitive information by deception
D) A method of data recovery

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14. Which of the following is a preventive measure against cyber threats?
A) Using strong passwords
B) Ignoring software updates
C) Sharing personal information freely
D) Disabling firewalls

15. What is the maximum penalty for cyber terrorism under the IT Act?
A) Life imprisonment
B) Imprisonment for five years
C) Imprisonment for life
D) Imprisonment for three years

16. Which section of the IT Act deals with the punishment for publishing or transmitting
obscene material?
A) Section 67
B) Section 66
C) Section 66A
D) Section 68

17. What does the term „encryption‟ refer to?

A) Data deletion
B) The process of converting information into a code
C) Data sharing
D) Data recovery

18. Which of the following is a key component of cybersecurity?

A) Increased internet speed
B) Protecting networks from unauthorized access
C) Enhancing user experience
D) Reducing operational costs

19. What is the primary purpose of the IT Act, 2000?

A) To regulate telecommunications
B) To provide legal recognition for electronic transactions
C) To enhance online shopping
D) To promote software development

20. What is „spyware‟?

A) Software that speeds up the system
B) Malicious software that collects user information

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 C) Software that protects privacy
D) Software for data backup

21. Which of the following is a feature of digital signatures?

A) It ensures the authenticity of the signatory
B) It is a handwritten signature
C) It can be forged easily
D) It requires a physical presence

22. What is the purpose of the Cyber Appellate Tribunal?

A) To regulate internet speed
B) To hear appeals against the orders of Adjudicating Officers
C) To enforce intellectual property rights
D) To provide cybersecurity training

23. Which of the following best describes „online defamation‟?

A) Complaining about a product online
B) Making false statements that harm someone's reputation online
C) Providing feedback on services
D) Expressing personal opinions

24. What does the term „VPN‟ stand for?

A) Virtual Private Network
B) Virtual Public Network
C) Verified Private Network
D) Variable Private Network

25. Which act primarily governs the use of electronic records and digital signatures in
India?
A) Indian Evidence Act
B) Information Technology Act
C) IT Act, 2000
D) Copyright Act

26. What does „ethical hacking‟ involve?

A) Hacking into systems for personal gain
B) Breaking into systems without permission
C) Hacking conducted to identify security vulnerabilities
D) Hacking for malicious purposes

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27. What is the purpose of „two-factor authentication‟?
A) To increase internet speed
B) To enhance security by requiring two forms of verification
C) To reduce data storage
D) To simplify login procedures

28. Which of the following is an example of a strong password?

A) 123456
B) password
C) L3@rnC0d3!
D) qwerty

29. What is „cyberbullying‟?

A) Bullying in physical spaces
B) Harassment using electronic communication
C) A form of online marketing
D) A technique for software development

30. Which of the following is NOT considered sensitive personal data?

A) Financial information
B) Favorite color
C) Health information
D) Biometric data

31. What is the primary focus of the Personal Data Protection Bill in India?
A) To protect personal data of individuals
B) To promote e-commerce
C) To regulate social media
D) To enhance digital marketing

32. Which of the following best describes „data localization‟?

A) Storing data in the cloud
B) Storing data within a specific country‟s borders
C) Sharing data internationally
D) Deleting unnecessary data

33. What is a common consequence of data breaches?

A) Loss of consumer trust
B) Increased profits
C) Enhanced security measures
D) Improved customer service

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34. Which of the following is an example of a denial-of-service attack?
A) Overloading a server with traffic to make it unavailable
B) Hacking into a database
C) Sending phishing emails
D) Installing malware on a computer

35. What is the main purpose of the Computer Fraud and Abuse Act (CFAA) in the U.S.?
A) To promote computer literacy
B) To prevent and punish cybercrimes
C) To regulate software sales
D) To enforce data privacy

36. Which of the following terms refers to unsolicited email?

A) Spam
B) Malware
C) Phishing
D) Ransomware

37. What is a digital footprint?

A) A physical mark on a digital device
B) A measurement of storage capacity
C) The trail of data left by online activities
D) A method of data encryption

38. Which of the following best describes „ransomware‟?

A) Software that speeds up computer performance
B) Malicious software that demands payment to restore access
C) Software for data recovery
D) Antivirus software

39. What is the purpose of the Cyber Crime Reporting Portal in India?
A) To enable citizens to report cyber crimes
B) To promote online businesses
C) To register software licenses
D) To manage internet service providers

40. Which of the following best describes „identity theft‟?

A) Using someone else’s social media account
B) Stealing someone‟s personal information for fraud
C) Buying a stolen product
D) Misusing public funds

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41. What is the primary legal framework for privacy in the digital space in the European
Union?
A) General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR)
B) Data Protection Act
C) Cybersecurity Directive
D) E-commerce Directive

42. Which of the following is NOT a component of cybersecurity?

A) Risk management
B) Network security
C) Marketing strategy
D) Incident response

43. What is the purpose of the Indian Cyber Security Policy?

A) To regulate internet service providers
B) To enhance the country‟s cybersecurity infrastructure
C) To promote e-commerce
D) To enforce data privacy laws

44. What does the term „data mining‟ refer to?

A) Destroying data
B) Analyzing large datasets to discover patterns
C) Storing data in the cloud
D) Encrypting sensitive information

45. What is the penalty for sending child pornography under the IT Act?
A) Imprisonment for five to seven years
B) Fine only
C) Imprisonment for one year
D) Community service

46. Which of the following is an example of cyber harassment?

A) Sending threatening emails repeatedly
B) Writing a negative review online
C) Reporting fake news
D) Unfollowing someone on social media

47. Which section of the IT Act deals with the interception of messages?
A) Section 66A
B) Section 69

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 C) Section 67
D) Section 66

48. What is the primary goal of the National Cyber Security Strategy?
A) To protect national cyber interests
B) To promote e-governance
C) To enhance online retail
D) To control social media

49. Which of the following actions is permissible under the IT Act?

A) Hacking into government websites
B) Distributing malware
C) Reporting a cybercrime to authorities
D) Spreading false information

50. What is the main aim of the Computer Emergency Response Team (CERT)?
A) To provide training on cybersecurity
B) To respond to cybersecurity incidents and mitigate threats
C) To regulate internet service providers
D) To promote internet literacy

51. Which of the following defines „cyberstalking‟?

A) The act of hacking into someone’s device
B) Repeatedly harassing someone through electronic means
C) Sharing someone's personal information online
D) Conducting research on an individual

52. What does „open source software‟ mean?

A) Software with source code that anyone can inspect, modify, and enhance
B) Software that is free of charge
C) Software that requires a license
D) Software designed for security purposes

53. Which of the following best describes „ransomware attacks‟?

A) Attacks that exploit vulnerabilities in software
B) Attacks targeting physical infrastructure
C) Attacks that encrypt data and demand payment for decryption
D) Attacks that disrupt service temporarily

54. What is the primary function of firewalls in cybersecurity?

A) To increase internet speed

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 B) To monitor and control incoming and outgoing network traffic
C) To create backups of data
D) To enhance software performance

55. Which international agreement aims to combat cybercrime?

A) Budapest Convention on Cybercrime
B) Paris Agreement
C) UN Cybercrime Treaty
D) Geneva Convention

56. What is the primary risk associated with using public Wi-Fi networks?
A) Increased internet speed
B) Increased vulnerability to hacking
C) Higher connection fees
D) Reduced data storage

57. Which of the following is an example of cyber espionage?

A) Selling fake products online
B) Hacking into a personal email for revenge
C) Stealing confidential corporate data
D) Spreading false information

58. What does the term „botnet‟ refer to?

A) A type of computer virus
B) A network of infected computers controlled by a single entity
C) A software for data recovery
D) A legal term in cyber law

59. Which of the following is a consequence of non-compliance with the GDPR?

A) Mandatory training
B) Significant fines and penalties
C) Increased public relations activities
D) Reduced corporate taxes

60. What does „social engineering‟ refer to in cybersecurity?

A) A form of software development
B) Manipulating individuals to gain confidential information
C) Designing secure networks
D) Legal regulations regarding software

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61. What is the purpose of a digital certificate?
A) To increase internet speed
B) To store personal data
C) To verify the authenticity of a person or organization online
D) To protect against malware

62. Which of the following describes the term „phishing‟?

A) Sending legitimate emails
B) Attempting to acquire sensitive information through deceptive emails
C) Protecting data using encryption
D) Collecting information through surveys

63. What is the role of the National Cyber Security Coordinator in India?
A) To enforce copyright laws
B) To oversee and coordinate cybersecurity initiatives
C) To regulate software development
D) To promote internet use

64. What is „data privacy‟?

A) The ability to delete data
B) The right to control personal information
C) The process of data encryption
D) The management of public information

65. Which of the following laws governs cybercrime in the United States?
A) Computer Fraud and Abuse Act
B) Digital Millennium Copyright Act
C) Telecommunications Act
D) Privacy Act

66. What does the term „DDoS attack‟ mean?

A) Distributed Denial of Service attack
B) Data Denial of Service attack
C) Direct Denial of Service attack
D) Digital Denial of Service attack

67. Which of the following is an example of a cyber threat?

A) Regular software updates
B) Malware infections
C) Strong passwords
D) Data encryption

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68. What is the objective of the Cyber Security Policy of a country?
A) To enhance internet access
B) To protect information systems and critical infrastructure
C) To promote e-commerce
D) To control online content

69. Which of the following is a method used to protect data?

A) Encryption
B) Public Wi-Fi
C) Social media
D) Phishing

70. What does the 'Right to be Forgotten' signify in Indian law?

A) The right to keep all personal data public
B) The right to request the deletion of personal data from online platforms
C) The right to unlimited access to all data
D) The right to modify legal documents

71. Which Indian case is significant for discussing the Right to be Forgotten?
A) K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India
B) Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan
C) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
D) Minerva Mills v. Union of India

72. In which year did the Supreme Court of India recognize the Right to Privacy, which is
linked to the Right to be Forgotten?
A) 2010
B) 2017
C) 2018
D) 2019

73. Under which legal framework in India is the Right to be Forgotten primarily
addressed?
A) Information Technology Act, 2000
B) Indian Penal Code, 1860
C) Personal Data Protection Bill
D) Right to Information Act, 2005

74. What does the Personal Data Protection Bill propose regarding the Right to be
Forgotten?
A) It allows individuals to request deletion of their data under certain conditions

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 B) It mandates the retention of all personal data indefinitely
C) It prohibits data deletion requests
D) It requires automatic data sharing with third parties

75. Which of the following factors must be considered when determining a Right to be
Forgotten request in India?
A) The amount of data stored
B) The necessity of the data for the public interest
C) The popularity of the individual
D) The type of platform storing the data

76. How does the Right to be Forgotten relate to the right to privacy?
A) They are unrelated concepts
B) The Right to be Forgotten is an extension of the right to privacy
C) The right to privacy only applies offline
D) They both aim to restrict government access to data

77. Which authority is expected to oversee data protection and the Right to be Forgotten in
India?
A) Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
B) Data Protection Authority of India
C) Reserve Bank of India
D) Supreme Court of India

78. What is the current status of the Right to be Forgotten in India as of 2024?
A) It has been fully implemented and recognized
B) It is still under discussion and is not legally enforceable
C) It is prohibited by law
D) It has been rejected by the Supreme Court

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 Labour Law & Industrial Relations
1. Which law primarily governs the payment of wages to workers in India?
A) Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
B) Payment of Wages Act, 1936
C) Minimum Wages Act, 1948
D) Employees’ Provident Fund Act, 1952

2. What is the purpose of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947?

A) To regulate wages
B) To resolve industrial disputes and promote harmony between employers and
employees
C) To establish minimum wages
D) To provide social security

3. Under which Act are establishments required to provide certain benefits to women
workers?
A) Maternity Benefit Act, 1961
B) Equal Remuneration Act, 1976
C) Workmen’s Compensation Act, 1923
D) Employees’ State Insurance Act, 1948

4. What is the minimum age for employment in hazardous occupations as per Indian law?
A) 12 years
B) 18 years
C) 16 years
D) 21 years

5. Which of the following is a key feature of the Employees‟ Provident Funds and
Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952?
A) Provides for gratuity payment
B) Mandates retirement savings for employees
C) Regulates work hours
D) Covers only government employees

6. What is the main objective of the Equal Remuneration Act, 1976?

A) To ensure job security
B) To provide equal pay for equal work, irrespective of gender
C) To regulate working hours
D) To provide maternity benefits

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7. Under the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946, what is required from
employers?
A) To define conditions of employment and issue standing orders
B) To provide health benefits
C) To ensure job training
D) To conduct regular audits

8. Which authority is responsible for implementing and monitoring compliance with the
Factories Act, 1948?
A) Ministry of Labour and Employment
B) State Governments
C) Chief Inspector of Factories
D) Trade Unions

9. What is the maximum limit for gratuity under the Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972, for
employees in India?
A) ₹5 lakhs
B) ₹20 lakhs
C) ₹10 lakhs
D) ₹15 lakhs

10. Which of the following is NOT a fundamental right related to labour in India?
A) Right to equality
B) Right to work
C) Right to collective bargaining
D) Right to form unions

11. Which law governs the dismissal of workers in Indian factories?

A) Minimum Wages Act, 1948
B) Employees’ State Insurance Act, 1948
C) Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
D) Payment of Wages Act, 1936

12. What is the primary function of Trade Unions in India?

A) To negotiate with government
B) To represent workers' interests and negotiate with employers
C) To regulate wages
D) To provide training to employees

13. Which act regulates the working conditions of women in factories?

A) Maternity Benefit Act, 1961

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 B) Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972
C) Factories Act, 1948
D) Employees’ Provident Funds Act, 1952

14. Under the Industrial Disputes Act, what is the definition of a 'workman'?
A) Any individual engaged in managerial positions
B) Any person employed in a factory or industry for wages
C) A self-employed individual
D) An employee who earns above a certain salary

15. Which of the following is a mandatory benefit provided under the Maternity Benefit
Act, 1961?
A) One month of leave
B) Paid maternity leave for up to 26 weeks
C) Childcare facilities
D) Flexible working hours

16. What is the primary focus of the Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986?
A) Regulating wages for children
B) Prohibiting employment of children in hazardous industries
C) Providing education for children
D) Ensuring children work only part-time

17. Which organization is primarily responsible for implementing the Employees‟ State
Insurance Act, 1948?
A) Employees‟ State Insurance Corporation (ESIC)
B) Ministry of Labour and Employment
C) Trade Union Councils
D) State Governments

18. What is the minimum wage determined by the Minimum Wages Act, 1948 based on?
A) Cost of living index
B) Type of work and industry
C) Employee's experience
D) Company profits

19. Which provision allows workers to seek remedies for wrongful dismissal?
A) Payment of Wages Act
B) Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
C) Factories Act
D) Maternity Benefit Act

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20. What is the purpose of the Workmen‟s Compensation Act, 1923?
A) To provide maternity benefits
B) To provide compensation to workers for injuries sustained during employment
C) To regulate minimum wages
D) To govern trade union activities

21. Which of the following rights is NOT protected under the Trade Union Act, 1926?
A) Right to form unions
B) Right to negotiate wages
C) Right to compulsory membership
D) Right to strike

22. The concept of 'unfair labor practices' is defined under which Indian law?
A) Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
B) Trade Unions Act, 1926
C) Payment of Wages Act, 1936
D) Minimum Wages Act, 1948

23. Which of the following is a key feature of the Employees' Provident Funds and
Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952?
A) Mandatory retirement age
B) Employee contributions to provident fund
C) Employee training programs
D) Health insurance coverage

24. What is the role of the Central Labour Commission in India?

A) To represent employers in disputes
B) To regulate wages for all sectors
C) To oversee and recommend labor policies
D) To mediate between workers and management

25. Which act protects the rights of workers employed in mines?

A) Industrial Disputes Act
B) Factories Act
C) Mines Act, 1952
D) Payment of Wages Act

26. Which of the following is a requirement for a valid strike under Indian law?
A) Prior notice to employers
B) Conducted by registered trade unions

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 C) Participation of at least 50% of workers
D) No involvement of management

27. Which of the following acts ensures social security for workers in India?
A) Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
B) Employees‟ State Insurance Act, 1948
C) Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972
D) Minimum Wages Act, 1948

28. What is the maximum number of hours a worker can be required to work in a week as
per the Factories Act, 1948?
A) 40 hours
B) 48 hours
C) 60 hours
D) 72 hours

29. Which law prohibits discrimination against women in employment?

A) Maternity Benefit Act
B) Equal Remuneration Act, 1976
C) Child Labour Act
D) Minimum Wages Act

30. What is the penalty for non-compliance with the Minimum Wages Act, 1948?
A) Fine and/or imprisonment
B) Only a warning
C) Immediate closure of the business
D) Monetary compensation to workers

31. Which law governs the working conditions of contract laborers?

A) Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act, 1970
B) Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
C) Payment of Wages Act, 1936
D) Employees’ State Insurance Act, 1948

32. What is the role of the Labour Court in India?

A) To handle civil cases
B) To resolve industrial disputes and adjudicate labor issues
C) To oversee trade union registrations
D) To manage government labor policies

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33. What is a primary objective of the National Labour Commission in India?
A) To enforce labor laws
B) To recommend reforms in labor laws
C) To conduct strikes
D) To manage employment exchanges

34. Under the Factories Act, 1948, which of the following is NOT a mandatory provision?
A) Health and safety measures
B) Workers' participation in management
C) Employment of young persons
D) Welfare measures

35. Which law governs the working hours for women in factories?
A) Maternity Benefit Act
B) Factories Act, 1948
C) Minimum Wages Act
D) Equal Remuneration Act

36. What is the minimum notice period for termination of service as per the Industrial
Disputes Act, 1947?
A) 15 days
B) 30 days
C) 60 days
D) 90 days

37. Under which Act can a worker file a claim for compensation due to occupational
disease?
A) Maternity Benefit Act
B) Workmen‟s Compensation Act, 1923
C) Industrial Disputes Act
D) Employees’ State Insurance Act

38. What is the role of the Chief Labour Commissioner in India?

A) To oversee labor welfare and enforcement of labor laws
B) To negotiate wages
C) To represent employers in disputes
D) To manage trade unions

39. Which of the following acts provides for the registration of trade unions?
A) Trade Unions Act, 1926
B) Industrial Disputes Act, 1947

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 C) Employees’ State Insurance Act, 1948
D) Payment of Wages Act, 1936

40. Which document outlines the rights and obligations of employees and employers in a
workplace?
A) Employment Agreement
B) Standing Orders
C) Company Policy Manual
D) Employee Handbook

41. Which of the following is a key feature of the Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972?
A) It applies only to government employees
B) It mandates gratuity payment upon termination of service after a certain period
C) It prohibits deductions from wages
D) It is applicable only to workers with fixed-term contracts

42. What is the main function of the Industrial Relations Commission in India?
A) To handle individual labor disputes
B) To promote industrial harmony and settle disputes
C) To regulate wages
D) To oversee trade union activities

43. Which of the following is considered an unfair labor practice?

A) Discriminating against a worker for union activities
B) Allowing overtime work
C) Providing health benefits
D) Ensuring safety measures

44. What is the penalty for employing children in hazardous occupations as per the Child
Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986?
A) Fine only
B) Fine and/or imprisonment
C) Community service
D) Warning

45. Which of the following acts requires factories to maintain safety measures for workers?
A) Employees’ State Insurance Act
B) Maternity Benefit Act
C) Factories Act, 1948
D) Minimum Wages Act

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46. Which document is essential for forming a trade union in India?
A) Memorandum of Association
B) Constitution of the Union
C) Employment Agreement
D) Collective Bargaining Agreement

47. What is the primary aim of the Labour Welfare Fund Act?
A) To reduce working hours
B) To provide social security and welfare benefits to workers
C) To regulate wages
D) To establish trade unions

48. Which law mandates the establishment of a Grievance Redressal Mechanism in

workplaces?
A) Payment of Wages Act
B) Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
C) Maternity Benefit Act
D) Employees’ State Insurance Act

49. What is the primary focus of the National Food Security Act, 2013, in the context of
labor?
A) To ensure employment for all
B) To provide food security to workers and their families
C) To regulate wages
D) To enhance industrial productivity

50. Which of the following acts governs the conditions of employment for seafarers?
A) Merchant Shipping Act, 1958
B) Factories Act
C) Payment of Wages Act
D) Minimum Wages Act

51. What is the maximum penalty for repeated violations of labor laws under the Code on
Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions, 2020?
A) Fine only
B) Suspension of operations
C) Fine and/or imprisonment
D) Community service

52. Which law is aimed at providing social security to unorganized sector workers?
A) The Unorganised Workers‟ Social Security Act, 2008

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 B) Payment of Wages Act
C) Industrial Disputes Act
D) Maternity Benefit Act

53. What is the significance of the 'no work, no pay' principle in labor law?
A) It applies to absences without leave
B) It guarantees pay for all employees
C) It applies only to government employees
D) It allows deductions for overtime

54. Under which act is the establishment of a bipartite forum for resolving disputes
mandated?
A) Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
B) Trade Unions Act
C) Factories Act
D) Employees’ State Insurance Act

55. Which provision addresses the employment of adolescents in factories?

A) Minimum Wages Act
B) Factories Act, 1948
C) Maternity Benefit Act
D) Equal Remuneration Act

56. Which of the following is a key feature of the Social Security Code, 2020?
A) Introduction of maternity benefits
B) Consolidation of various social security laws
C) Regulation of employment contracts
D) Increase in minimum wages

57. Which act governs the employment conditions of workers in the agricultural sector?
A) The Agricultural Produce Market Committee Act
B) Industrial Disputes Act
C) Minimum Wages Act
D) Factories Act

58. What is the primary objective of the Gratuity Act?

A) To regulate salaries
B) To provide medical benefits
C) To ensure payment of gratuity to employees upon termination
D) To set working hours

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59. Which of the following is an essential characteristic of a valid strike?
A) Government approval
B) Proper notice to the employer
C) Majority worker participation
D) Trade union registration

60. What is the penalty for an employer who fails to pay the minimum wages?
A) Warning
B) Suspension of operations
C) Fine and/or imprisonment
D) Community service

61. Which law regulates the conditions of work for contract labor?
A) Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act, 1970
B) Industrial Disputes Act
C) Factories Act
D) Maternity Benefit Act

62. What is the purpose of the Employee's Compensation Act, 1923?

A) To provide compensation for workplace injuries
B) To regulate employment contracts
C) To establish trade unions
D) To enforce safety measures

63. What is the maximum number of hours a worker can be required to work in a day
according to the Factories Act, 1948?
A) 10 hours
B) 12 hours
C) 9 hours
D) 8 hours

64. Which law mandates the establishment of a Minimum Wages Advisory Board?
A) Minimum Wages Act, 1948
B) Industrial Disputes Act
C) Payment of Wages Act
D) Factories Act

65. Which of the following laws deals with the issues of termination of employment?
A) Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
B) Employees’ State Insurance Act

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 C) Minimum Wages Act
D) Payment of Wages Act

66. What is the significance of the National Policy on Skill Development?

A) To regulate wages
B) To enhance the skill sets of workers and improve employment opportunities
C) To ensure job security
D) To reduce working hours

67. Which law provides for the regulation of the employment of children and adolescents in
hazardous occupations?
A) The Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986
B) Minimum Wages Act
C) Maternity Benefit Act
D) Industrial Disputes Act

68. What is the primary objective of the Equal Remuneration Act, 1976?
A) To ensure equal pay for equal work regardless of gender
B) To provide maternity benefits
C) To regulate working hours
D) To establish trade unions

69. Which law governs the regulation of wages for workers in the unorganized sector?
A) Industrial Disputes Act
B) Minimum Wages Act, 1948
C) Payment of Wages Act
D) Employees’ State Insurance Act

70. What is the role of the Central Government in labor regulation?

A) To oversee individual labor disputes
B) To formulate national labor policies and regulations
C) To manage trade unions
D) To negotiate wages

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 Law of Tort, including the Motor Vehicle
Act and Consumer Protection Law
1. What is the primary purpose of tort law?
A) To punish wrongdoers
B) To provide compensation for harm caused
C) To regulate contracts
D) To enforce criminal laws

2. Which of the following is an essential element of a tort?

A) Breach of contract
B) Criminal intent
C) Wrongful act causing damage
D) Government approval

3. In tort law, what does 'negligence' refer to?

A) Intentional harm
B) Failure to exercise reasonable care
C) Strict liability
D) Vicarious liability

4. Which of the following is an example of strict liability?

A) Car accidents
B) Harm caused by a wild animal
C) Breach of duty in a contract
D) Trespass to land

5. Under the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988, what is the maximum fine for driving without a
valid license?
A) ₹500
B) ₹1,000
C) ₹5,000
D) ₹10,000

6. Which tort involves the unauthorized use of someone else's property?

A) Trespass
B) Negligence
C) Nuisance
D) Defamation

7. In the context of tort law, what is 'duty of care'?

A) The obligation to act in good faith
B) The responsibility to uphold contracts

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 C) The obligation to avoid causing harm to others
D) The requirement to report crimes

8. Which of the following defenses can be used against a claim of negligence?

A) Contributory negligence
B) Voluntary assumption of risk
C) Defamation
D) Intentional infliction of emotional distress

9. What is the purpose of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019?

A) To regulate trade practices
B) To provide compensation for torts
C) To protect consumer rights and interests
D) To enforce contract laws

10. Which of the following is not a ground for filing a consumer complaint?
A) Defective goods
B) Inconvenient store location
C) Unsatisfactory services
D) Excessive pricing

11. In tort law, which term describes interference with a person‟s use and enjoyment of
their property?
A) Trespass
B) Nuisance
C) Defamation
D) Battery

12. Which section of the Motor Vehicles Act relates to liability of the owner of the vehicle?
A) Section 140
B) Section 138
C) Section 166
D) Section 120

13. Under the Consumer Protection Act, who can file a complaint?
A) Only the consumer
B) Consumer and any recognized consumer organization
C) Only the manufacturer
D) Government officials

14. What is 'vicarious liability'?

A) Liability for one’s own actions
B) Liability that arises from a breach of contract
C) Liability imposed on one party for the negligent acts of another
D) Liability that is non-transferable

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15. Which of the following is a type of special damage in tort law?
A) Pain and suffering
B) Loss of reputation
C) Medical expenses
D) Emotional distress

16. Under the Motor Vehicles Act, what is the penalty for driving under the influence of
alcohol?
A) ₹1,000
B) ₹10,000 and/or imprisonment
C) ₹5,000
D) Suspension of license only

17. What type of tort is defamation?

A) Intentional tort
B) Negligent tort
C) Strict liability tort
D) Economic tort

18. In the context of torts, what is the „reasonable person standard‟?

A) A legal standard for all crimes
B) A standard used to determine negligence
C) A standard for evaluating contracts
D) A method for assessing damages

19. Which of the following is a remedy available for tortious acts?

A) Specific performance
B) Punitive damages only
C) Compensatory damages
D) Injunctions only

20. What does the term 'contributory negligence' mean?

A) When the plaintiff is partially at fault for their injury
B) When the defendant has no liability
C) A complete defense to tort claims
D) A type of intentional tort

21. Which of the following can be an example of nuisance?

A) A verbal argument
B) Loud music from a neighbor's house
C) A personal insult
D) A minor traffic violation

22. What is the purpose of the Motor Vehicle (Amendment) Act, 2019?
A) To increase the speed limits
B) To enhance penalties for traffic violations

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 C) To improve road safety measures
D) To simplify vehicle registration

23. Which of the following is an essential element of defamation?

A) An intention to harm
B) False statement published to a third party
C) Emotional distress
D) Financial loss

24. Under the Consumer Protection Act, which body is responsible for addressing
complaints?
A) The Supreme Court
B) District Consumer Disputes Redressal Forum
C) High Court
D) The Ministry of Consumer Affairs

25. Which of the following torts does not require proof of negligence?
A) Defamation
B) Trespass
C) Strict liability
D) Nuisance

26. What is the primary difference between tort and crime?

A) Tort is a public wrong; crime is a private wrong
B) Tort is a private wrong; crime is a public wrong
C) Tort is always punishable; crime is not
D) There is no difference

27. In the context of tort law, what is 'battery'?

A) Unauthorized entry into land
B) Unlawful physical contact
C) Emotional distress
D) Defamation

28. What is 'misrepresentation' in tort law?

A) A criminal offense
B) A false statement made to induce another party
C) A breach of contract
D) A type of negligence

29. Under the Motor Vehicles Act, which offense results in immediate suspension of the
driving license?
A) Driving without a seatbelt
B) Drunken driving
C) Driving with a flat tire
D) Driving without a helmet

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30. What is the 'no-fault' liability under the Motor Vehicles Act?
A) Liability only in case of negligence
B) Automatic liability to pay compensation regardless of fault
C) Liability that cannot be waived
D) Liability based on the insurance policy

31. Which of the following is an essential requirement to establish negligence?

A) Proving intent
B) Duty of care, breach, causation, and damage
C) Proving malice
D) Proving economic loss only

32. Which section of the Consumer Protection Act provides for the establishment of a
Central Consumer Protection Authority?
A) Section 30
B) Section 10
C) Section 15
D) Section 20

33. What type of damages can be claimed for defamation?

A) Punitive damages only
B) General damages only
C) Both general and special damages
D) None

34. Which of the following defenses is available in a defamation case?

A) Truth
B) Opinion
C) Fair comment
D) All of the above

35. Which of the following is not a characteristic of the tort of negligence?

A) A duty of care exists
B) Intent to cause harm is required
C) There is a breach of duty
D) Damage results from the breach

36. What does the term 'public nuisance' refer to?

A) An act that affects the general public
B) An act that affects private property
C) An act that is socially acceptable
D) An act that is not harmful

37. Under the Motor Vehicles Act, what is the penalty for driving without insurance?
A) ₹1,000
B) ₹2,000

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 C) ₹4,000
D) ₹5,000

38. Which of the following is a remedy for trespass?

A) Monetary compensation only
B) Injunction
C) Punitive damages only
D) None

39. Which section of the Motor Vehicles Act addresses the compensation for hit-and-run
cases?
A) Section 161
B) Section 140
C) Section 166
D) Section 165

40. Which of the following best describes 'occupier's liability'?

A) Liability for employees
B) Liability of a property owner to visitors
C) Liability for breach of contract
D) Liability for criminal acts

41. What is the purpose of punitive damages in tort law?

A) To compensate the victim
B) To recover economic loss
C) To punish the wrongdoer and deter future misconduct
D) To resolve contract disputes

42. In which of the following scenarios might 'ex turpi causa' apply?
A) A car accident
B) A claimant seeking damages for injury sustained while committing a crime
C) Defamation claims
D) Nuisance claims

43. Which of the following is a common defense in negligence claims?

A) Contributory negligence
B) Assumption of risk
C) Strict liability
D) None

44. What does the term 'economic tort' refer to?

A) Torts that cause physical harm
B) Torts that arise from contracts
C) Torts that cause financial loss
D) Torts that affect public interest

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45. Which act regulates the compensation payable to victims of motor vehicle accidents?
A) Indian Penal Code
B) Contract Act
C) Motor Vehicles Act
D) Consumer Protection Act

46. What is the standard of proof required in tort cases?

A) Preponderance of evidence
B) Beyond a reasonable doubt
C) Clear and convincing evidence
D) None

47. In tort law, which type of damages is meant to compensate for future loss?
A) General damages
B) Future loss damages
C) Special damages
D) Punitive damages

48. Which of the following is an example of 'breach of duty'?

A) Failing to warn someone of a danger
B) Driving carefully
C) Not taking necessary precautions
D) Following all safety regulations

49. What is 'intentional infliction of emotional distress'?

A) A criminal offense
B) A tort that involves extreme conduct causing severe emotional distress
C) A contract breach
D) None

50. Which of the following is true regarding strict liability?

A) Requires proof of negligence
B) Only applies to intentional torts
C) Liability is imposed regardless of fault
D) Only applies to criminal law

51. What does 'trespass ab initio' mean?

A) Trespass that is continuous
B) A trespass that starts as lawful but becomes unlawful
C) Trespass without intent
D) Trespass that is minor

52. Under the Consumer Protection Act, who can file a complaint against unfair trade
practices?
A) Only consumers
B) Any consumer or recognized organization

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 C) Manufacturers only
D) Government only

53. What does 'res ipsa loquitur' mean in tort law?

A) The thing speaks for itself
B) The burden of proof shifts to the defendant
C) Intent must be proven
D) None

54. Which of the following torts requires proof of malice?

A) Negligence
B) Defamation
C) Nuisance
D) Trespass

55. Under the Motor Vehicles Act, what is the penalty for driving without a seatbelt?
A) ₹1,000
B) ₹500
C) ₹2,000
D) No penalty

56. Which of the following can constitute a breach of duty?

A) Intentional harm
B) Failing to act as a reasonable person would
C) Contract violations
D) None

57. What does 'concurrent liability' refer to in tort law?

A) Liability that exists alongside other liabilities
B) Liability that can only arise from negligence
C) Liability that is waived
D) None

58. Which of the following is an example of a tort of negligence?

A) Fraud
B) Defamation
C) Car accident caused by reckless driving
D) Nuisance

59. What is 'punitive damages'?

A) Damages awarded to punish the defendant
B) Damages for emotional distress
C) Damages for property loss
D) None

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60. Under the Consumer Protection Act, which authority hears appeals against the
decisions of the District Forum?
A) National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission
B) State Commission
C) Supreme Court
D) High Court

61. What does 'nuisance per se' refer to?

A) A nuisance that is lawful
B) An act that is inherently harmful
C) A temporary nuisance
D) None

62. What is the maximum compensation limit under the Motor Vehicles Act for a victim of
a road accident?
A) ₹1 lakh
B) ₹5 lakh
C) ₹10 lakh
D) Unlimited

63. Which of the following is not a requirement for establishing a tort?

A) Proof of intent to harm
B) Wrongful act
C) Damage
D) Causation

64. What does 'vicarious liability' imply in the context of employment?

A) Employees are liable for their own actions
B) Employers are never liable
C) Employers can be held liable for their employees' actions within the scope of
employment
D) None

65. Which of the following defenses can be used in defamation cases?

A) Provocation
B) Negligence
C) Justification (truth)
D) None

66. What is the standard of care expected from professionals?

A) Higher than that of an average person
B) The same as that of an average person
C) Lower than that of an average person
D) None

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67. Under the Consumer Protection Act, what is the time limit to file a complaint?
A) Two years from the date of cause of action
B) One year
C) Five years
D) No limit

68. Which of the following is not considered a tort?

A) Breach of contract
B) Negligence
C) Trespass
D) Nuisance

69. What does 'unlawful act' mean in the context of tort law?
A) An act that is legal
B) An act that violates a legal duty
C) An act performed with intent
D) None

70. Which of the following is a defense to negligence?

A) Malice
B) Comparative negligence
C) None
D) Intentional tort

71. Under the Motor Vehicles Act, what does Section 166 deal with?
A) Motor vehicle registration
B) Claims for compensation in case of an accident
C) Traffic violations
D) Driving tests

72. What is the doctrine of 'necessity' in tort law?

A) Justification for taking property
B) Justification for actions taken in emergencies
C) A type of trespass
D) None

73. Which of the following is a characteristic of a tort?

A) Must be a civil wrong
B) Must involve intent
C) Must involve criminal liability
D) None

74. In tort law, which of the following is true about liability?

A) It can arise from negligence or intentional acts
B) It can only arise from intentional acts

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 C) It cannot arise from omissions
D) None

75. Which of the following torts involves physical harm?

A) Battery
B) Defamation
C) Nuisance
D) All of the above

76. What is the main aim of compensatory damages?

A) To restore the injured party to their original position
B) To punish the wrongdoer
C) To deter future wrong

77. Which of the following is a requirement to establish a claim for defamation?

A) The statement must be true
B) The statement must be false and published
C) The statement must cause emotional distress
D) The statement must be made in good faith

78. What is the primary function of the Consumer Disputes Redressal Forum?
A) To regulate business practices
B) To resolve consumer complaints
C) To oversee manufacturing standards
D) To enforce contract laws

79. Which of the following can be claimed under the Consumer Protection Act for defective
goods?
A) Punitive damages
B) Replacement or refund
C) Emotional distress compensation
D) None

80. Which tort is committed when one person intentionally causes harm to another's
reputation?
A) Nuisance
B) Defamation
C) Trespass
D) Battery

81. In tort law, which of the following is considered an intentional tort?

A) Negligence
B) Assault
C) Breach of contract
D) All of the above

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82. What does 'malpractice' refer to in the context of tort law?
A) Any kind of accident
B) Professional negligence
C) Intentional harm by a professional
D) None

83. Which of the following defenses is available in a negligence claim?

A) Assumption of risk
B) Strict liability
C) Contributory negligence
D) Both A and C

84. What is the purpose of the Consumer Protection Act?

A) To protect manufacturers
B) To protect consumers from unfair trade practices
C) To regulate contracts
D) To impose penalties on businesses

85. Which of the following is true about the Motor Vehicle Act, 1988?
A) It regulates road traffic and motor vehicle safety
B) It only applies to commercial vehicles
C) It does not provide for compensation claims
D) It only applies to government vehicles

86. Under the Consumer Protection Act, what constitutes an unfair trade practice?
A) Providing false information about a product
B) Deceptive advertising
C) Offering discounts
D) Providing quality service

87. What is the concept of 'duty of care' in tort law?

A) The obligation to act in a way that does not harm others
B) The obligation to fulfill contracts
C) The obligation to follow regulations
D) None

88. In tort law, which term refers to the illegal use of another's property?
A) Trespass
B) Nuisance
C) Defamation
D) None

89. What does 'emotional distress' refer to in tort claims?

A) Physical injuries only
B) Psychological harm caused by another's actions

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 C) Loss of income
D) None

90. Under the Motor Vehicles Act, what is the penalty for not wearing a helmet?
A) ₹500
B) ₹1,000
C) ₹2,000
D) No penalty

91. What is the maximum limit for compensation in consumer disputes?

A) ₹1 lakh
B) ₹1 crore
C) No limit
D) ₹10 lakh

92. Which of the following is a type of economic tort?

A) Battery
B) Inducing breach of contract
C) Nuisance
D) Defamation

93. What is the legal principle of 'res ipsa loquitur'?

A) The burden of proof lies with the plaintiff
B) The facts speak for themselves, suggesting negligence
C) Intent must be proven
D) None

94. Which of the following is a characteristic of strict liability?

A) No need to prove fault
B) Requires proof of negligence
C) Applies only to property damage
D) None

95. What does 'contributory negligence' mean?

A) The plaintiff is entirely at fault
B) The plaintiff's own negligence contributed to the harm
C) The defendant is entirely at fault
D) None

96. What is the purpose of punitive damages?

A) To compensate the victim only
B) To punish the defendant and deter others
C) To reimburse legal fees
D) None

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97. Under the Motor Vehicles Act, who is liable for damages caused by a minor driving a
vehicle?
A) The minor only
B) The vehicle owner only
C) Both the minor and the owner
D) No one

98. What is the time limit for filing a consumer complaint under the Consumer Protection
Act?
A) One year
B) Three years
C) Two years
D) No limit

99. Which of the following actions can result in punitive damages?

A) Negligence
B) Breach of contract
C) Intentional infliction of harm
D) All of the above

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 Taxation Law
1. What is the main purpose of taxation?
A) To penalize citizens
B) To generate revenue for government expenditure
C) To regulate business
D) None

2. Which of the following is a direct tax?

A) Income Tax
B) Sales Tax
C) Value Added Tax (VAT)
D) Service Tax

3. What is the highest tax slab rate for individual taxpayers in India as per the current tax
regime?
A) 30%
B) 25%
C) 40%
D) 15%

4. What does GST stand for?

A) General Sales Tax
B) Government Service Tax
C) Goods and Services Tax
D) Global Sales Tax

5. Which body is responsible for the administration of direct taxes in India?

A) Income Tax Department
B) Goods and Services Tax Council
C) Ministry of Finance
D) Reserve Bank of India

6. Which of the following is a feature of Goods and Services Tax (GST)?

A) It is a tax on income
B) It is a destination-based tax
C) It is applicable only on goods
D) It is a tax levied by the Central Government only

7. What is the threshold limit for GST registration for service providers?
A) ₹10 lakhs
B) ₹15 lakhs
C) ₹20 lakhs
D) ₹25 lakhs

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8. Which of the following is not a type of indirect tax?
A) Excise Duty
B) Sales Tax
C) Income Tax
D) Customs Duty

9. What is the rate of TDS (Tax Deducted at Source) on salary payments?

A) 10%
B) As per income tax slab
C) 20%
D) 30%

10. Under which section of the Income Tax Act is the concept of 'Allowable Deductions'
mentioned?
A) Section 80
B) Section 80C
C) Section 10
D) Section 12

11. What does 'HUF' stand for in taxation?

A) High Utility Fund
B) Household Unified Fund
C) Hindu Undivided Family
D) None

12. Which of the following is not an exempt income under the Income Tax Act?
A) Agricultural income
B) Dividend from Indian companies
C) Salary from foreign countries
D) Interest on PPF

13. What is the due date for filing income tax returns for individuals in India?
A) 31st March
B) 31st July
C) 30th September
D) 30th June

14. Which of the following expenses is not deductible under the Income Tax Act?
A) Business expenses
B) Medical insurance premiums
C) Personal expenses
D) Donations to charities

15. What is the tax treatment for long-term capital gains on listed securities as per the
current tax laws?
A) 10% if gains exceed ₹1 lakh

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 B) 20%
C) 30%
D) Exempt

16. Which of the following is true about advance tax?

A) It is paid only by corporate taxpayers
B) It is not applicable for salaried individuals
C) It is paid in installments throughout the financial year
D) None

17. What is the penalty for late filing of income tax returns?
A) 5% of total tax due
B) 10% of total tax due
C) ₹5,000 if filed after due date
D) No penalty

18. What is the maximum amount one can claim under Section 80C for deductions?
A) ₹50,000
B) ₹1,00,000
C) ₹1,50,000
D) ₹2,00,000

19. Which of the following is a capital asset as per Income Tax Act?
A) Stock in trade
B) Consumables
C) Property held for investment
D) None

20. What is the primary objective of the Taxation Laws (Amendment) Act?
A) To impose new taxes
B) To simplify tax laws
C) To amend existing tax provisions
D) None

21. Which of the following is a condition for claiming input tax credit under GST?
A) The goods must be used for personal consumption
B) The invoice must be in the name of the registered taxpayer
C) The goods must be purchased at a discount
D) None

22. Which of the following taxes is levied on the sale of goods and services?
A) GST
B) Income Tax
C) Property Tax
D) Wealth Tax

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23. What is the time limit for availing input tax credit under GST?
A) 6 months
B) 1 year
C) 2 years
D) No time limit

24. Which section of the Income Tax Act deals with 'Tax on Income' for individuals?
A) Section 139
B) Section 115
C) Section 2
D) Section 4

25. Under GST, what does 'supply' encompass?

A) Only sale of goods
B) Sale, transfer, barter, exchange, license, rental, lease, or disposal
C) Only services
D) None

26. What is the GST rate for most goods and services?
A) 5%
B) 18%
C) 12%
D) 28%

27. Which of the following is a characteristic of wealth tax?

A) It is levied on income
B) It is a direct tax
C) It is applicable to individuals and HUFs on their net wealth
D) None

28. What is the maximum exemption limit for gratuity for employees?
A) ₹5,00,000
B) ₹10,00,000
C) ₹20,00,000
D) No exemption

29. Under the Income Tax Act, what constitutes 'Income from Other Sources'?
A) Salary
B) Interest earned on savings account
C) Business income
D) Capital gains

30. Which of the following is not a characteristic of the GST system?

A) Multi-stage tax
B) Input tax credit

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 C) Only applicable to goods
D) Destination-based tax

31. Which of the following taxes is applicable on imports?

A) VAT
B) Service Tax
C) Customs Duty
D) Income Tax

32. What does 'assesse' refer to in tax law?

A) A person liable to pay tax
B) A government officer
C) A tax consultant
D) None

33. Which of the following can be claimed as a deduction under Section 80D?
A) Tuition fees
B) Health insurance premium
C) House rent
D) None

34. What is the penalty for tax evasion in India?

A) ₹10,000
B) Up to 300% of the tax due
C) Imprisonment only
D) None

35. What is the significance of the 'Tax Residency Certificate'?

A) To prove income
B) To avoid double taxation
C) To identify taxpayers
D) None

36. Which of the following is a criteria for residential status in India?

A) Citizenship
B) Age
C) Duration of stay
D) Income level

37. What is the tax implication for long-term capital gains on assets held for more than
three years?
A) Fully taxable
B) Taxed at a lower rate
C) Exempt from tax
D) None

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38. What is 'Value Added Tax' (VAT)?
A) A tax on income
B) A consumption tax on the value added at each stage of production
C) A direct tax
D) None

39. Which authority is responsible for resolving disputes under GST?

A) High Court
B) Appellate Tribunal
C) Income Tax Appellate Tribunal
D) District Forum

40. What is the principle of 'substance over form' in taxation?

A) Tax liability is determined by actual economic reality rather than legal form
B) Tax laws are applied strictly according to the form
C) Tax exemptions are based on the type of business
D) None

41. What does 'GST-invoice' refer to?

A) An ordinary invoice
B) A document evidencing the supply of goods and services under GST
C) A tax return document
D) None

42. What is 'Input Tax Credit' (ITC)?

A) A tax rebate
B) A direct cash subsidy
C) The credit available for the taxes paid on purchases
D) None

43. Which of the following acts governs taxation in India?

A) Indian Penal Code
B) Contract Act
C) Income Tax Act
D) Goods and Services Tax Act

44. What does 'Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement' (DTAA) refer to?
A) Tax exemption on all income
B) An agreement between two countries to avoid taxing the same income twice
C) Tax relief for corporate entities
D) None

45. What is the effective date of GST implementation in India?

A) 1st April 2017
B) 1st July 2017

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 C) 1st January 2018
D) 1st October 2016

46. Under GST, what is the tax rate for luxury goods?
A) Up to 28%
B) 5%
C) 12%
D) 18%

47. What is the purpose of a tax audit?

A) To evaluate the performance of employees
B) To verify the correctness of financial statements and compliance with tax laws
C) To determine company profits
D) None

48. Which of the following is not an offence under the Income Tax Act?
A) Tax evasion
B) False statement in tax return
C) Non-filing of tax returns
D) Failure to comply with tax audits

49. Which of the following can be considered 'agricultural income'?

A) Income from the sale of dairy products
B) Income from farming activities
C) Income from non-agricultural activities
D) None

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 Land Acquisition Act
1. What is the primary purpose of the Land Acquisition Act, 2013?
A) To acquire land for agricultural purposes
B) To acquire land for public purposes with fair compensation
C) To regulate land leasing
D) None

2. Which of the following is a public purpose as defined under the Land Acquisition Act?
A) Private housing development
B) Infrastructure projects such as roads and railways
C) Land for personal farming
D) None

3. What is the threshold limit for the amount of compensation for land acquired under the
Act?
A) Market value only
B) Market value plus a solatium of 100%
C) No compensation
D) Minimum compensation

4. Which authority is responsible for the acquisition of land under the Land Acquisition
Act?
A) State Government
B) Competent Authority appointed by the State Government
C) Central Government
D) Local Municipal Corporation

5. What does 'solatium' refer to in the context of land acquisition?

A) A tax on land
B) An additional compensation for loss of land
C) An interest rate on compensation
D) None

6. Under the Act, which of the following is not a criterion for determining compensation?
A) Market value of the land
B) Damage to property
C) Personal sentiments of the owner
D) Loss of earnings

7. What is the time limit for the government to complete the acquisition process after the
notification?
A) 1 year
B) 2 years

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 C) 3 years
D) No limit

8. Which section of the Land Acquisition Act deals with the method of determining the
market value of the land?
A) Section 10
B) Section 12
C) Section 26
D) Section 31

9. What does the term 'notification' refer to in the Land Acquisition Act?
A) The formal declaration of intent to acquire land
B) The announcement of compensation rates
C) The order to vacate the land
D) None

10. What is the significance of Section 24 of the Land Acquisition Act, 2013?
A) It states that if acquisition proceedings are not completed in five years, the land
reverts to the owner
B) It allows for unlimited acquisition of land
C) It governs the payment of compensation
D) None

11. Who can challenge the acquisition of land under the Land Acquisition Act?
A) Only landowners
B) Any citizen
C) Affected parties including tenants
D) None

12. Which of the following is true about the consent of landowners for acquisition?
A) Consent is not required for any acquisition
B) Consent is required for private companies
C) Consent is required only for government projects
D) None

13. What is meant by 'eminent domain' in land acquisition?

A) The right of citizens to acquire land
B) The power of the state to take private property for public use
C) The transfer of land ownership
D) None

14. Which of the following categories of land is exempt from acquisition under the Land
Acquisition Act?
A) Agricultural land in rural areas
B) Land in urban areas

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 C) Government land
D) None

15. What is the role of the Land Acquisition Rehabilitation and Resettlement Authority?
A) To acquire land for public projects
B) To ensure rehabilitation and compensation of displaced persons
C) To oversee all land transactions
D) None

16. Under the Act, what is the minimum compensation for agricultural land?
A) 1.5 times the market value
B) Equal to market value
C) 0.5 times the market value
D) None

17. Which of the following is not a ground for the government to acquire land?
A) Infrastructure development
B) Urban planning
C) Private real estate development
D) Public housing schemes

18. What is the process called when land is acquired for infrastructure development?
A) Compulsory acquisition
B) Voluntary sale
C) Lease agreement
D) None

19. What happens to the land after compensation has been paid?
A) The owner retains rights
B) The government takes possession
C) The owner can refuse
D) None

20. Which of the following is true regarding the Land Acquisition Act, 2013?
A) It allows acquisition without compensation
B) It enhances the rights of landowners and ensures fair compensation
C) It has no provisions for rehabilitation
D) None

21. What is the function of a 'Collector' under the Land Acquisition Act?
A) To determine land value
B) To approve acquisition projects
C) To assess compensation and manage acquisition proceedings
D) None

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22. Which section outlines the procedure for hearing objections regarding land acquisition?
A) Section 5
B) Section 25
C) Section 15
D) Section 12

23. What is the compensation for land acquired under the urgency provision?
A) 2 times the market value
B) 1.5 times the market value
C) Market value only
D) None

24. Under the Land Acquisition Act, what is the 'date of acquisition'?
A) The date when the government takes possession of the land
B) The date of the notification
C) The date of compensation payment
D) None

25. What is the effect of a 'stay order' from a court on land acquisition?
A) It speeds up the process
B) It halts the acquisition process
C) It allows partial acquisition
D) None

26. Which of the following is a legal remedy for landowners under the Land Acquisition
Act?
A) File for eviction
B) Appeal against compensation awarded
C) Ignore the acquisition
D) None

27. How does the Land Acquisition Act ensure transparency?

A) By allowing secret negotiations
B) By requiring public notifications and hearings
C) By limiting information access
D) None

28. What type of land can the government acquire under the Land Acquisition Act?
A) Only vacant land
B) Any land irrespective of use
C) Only government land
D) None

29. What is the time frame for a landowner to file an objection to the acquisition?
A) 30 days
B) 60 days

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 C) 90 days
D) None

30. What is the significance of the 2014 amendment to the Land Acquisition Act?
A) It introduced stricter guidelines for acquisition and increased compensation
B) It removed the consent clause
C) It abolished the rehabilitation provisions
D) None

31. Which of the following authorities can grant permission for acquisition of land?
A) State Government
B) Central Government
C) Local Municipal Corporation
D) None

32. What does 'public purpose' exclude according to the Act?

A) Housing projects
B) Private companies' projects
C) Educational institutions
D) None

33. What must be done before land is acquired under the Act?
A) Public consultation
B) Notification and assessment of the land
C) Only a government decision
D) None

34. Which of the following is an essential document in the land acquisition process?
A) Sale agreement
B) Tenancy agreement
C) Notification of acquisition
D) None

35. What are the rights of a landowner under the Land Acquisition Act?
A) No rights
B) Right to compensation and rehabilitation
C) Right to refuse acquisition
D) None

36. What role does the National Rehabilitation and Resettlement Policy play?
A) It sets tax rates
B) It governs the rehabilitation of displaced persons
C) It deals with urban planning
D) None

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37. Which of the following is not covered by the Land Acquisition Act?
A) Land for roads
B) Land for personal residential projects
C) Land for schools
D) None

38. What is a 'compensation award'?

A) The estimated value of land
B) A tax on acquired land
C) The formal determination of compensation payable to landowners

39. Which section of the Land Acquisition Act requires the government to pay for the
acquisition process?
A) Section 9
B) Section 11
C) Section 14
D) Section 16

40. What is 'rehabilitation' in the context of the Land Acquisition Act?

A) Providing support and housing to displaced persons
B) Financial compensation only
C) Land exchange
D) None

41. Which of the following authorities must approve the land acquisition process?
A) Local Council
B) State Government
C) Landowner
D) None

42. What is the key feature of 'fast-track acquisition'?

A) Quick possession and compensation processes
B) Extended negotiation period
C) No compensation required
D) None

43. Under the Land Acquisition Act, who decides the amount of compensation?
A) The landowner
B) The government based on market value
C) The local council
D) None

44. What is meant by 'land for public purposes'?

A) Land used for commercial purposes
B) Land used for residential purposes

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 C) Land required for public projects like schools and hospitals
D) None

45. Which of the following is not a valid ground for acquisition under the Land Acquisition
Act?
A) Public infrastructure projects
B) Private real estate developments for profit
C) Government housing schemes
D) Environmental projects

46. How does the Act ensure that the land acquisition process is not arbitrary?
A) By allowing any government official to acquire land
B) By requiring a legal procedure and public notifications
C) By limiting the time for objections
D) None

47. What role does the Ministry of Rural Development play under the Land Acquisition
Act?
A) Overseeing rehabilitation and resettlement programs
B) Conducting land surveys
C) Issuing compensation
D) None

48. What is the importance of public hearings in the land acquisition process?
A) To speed up the process
B) To ensure government decisions are final
C) To allow stakeholders to voice their concerns
D) None

49. What can be the consequence of failing to pay compensation after land acquisition?
A) The government can still take possession
B) No consequence
C) The acquisition may be declared null and void
D) None

50. Which of the following best describes the concept of 'fair compensation'?
A) The minimum amount the government can pay
B) Compensation reflecting the true value of the land, including emotional and social
costs
C) A fixed rate set by the government
D) None

51. Which of the following is a key responsibility of the State Government under the Land
Acquisition Act?
A) To provide compensation to affected landowners
B) To decide land prices unilaterally

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 C) To lease acquired land to private entities
D) None

52. What does the term 'agricultural land' refer to under the Land Acquisition Act?
A) Any land used for residential purposes
B) Land used for the purpose of agriculture
C) Government-owned land
D) Land not developed for any use

53. What is the role of the 'Land Acquisition Collector'?

A) To sell acquired land
B) To oversee the acquisition process and assess compensation
C) To negotiate land prices
D) None

54. What happens if the land acquired is not used for the specified public purpose?
A) The government can continue using it for any purpose
B) The land is returned to the previous owner
C) The owner can seek legal remedy for non-utilization
D) None

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 Intellectual Property Laws
1. Which law primarily governs copyrights in India?
A) Patent Act, 1970
B) Copyright Act, 1957
C) Trade Marks Act, 1999
D) Geographical Indications of Goods Act, 1999

2. What type of intellectual property does a trademark protect?

A) Brand names and logos
B) Literary works
C) Inventions
D) Industrial designs

3. What is the maximum term of protection for a patent under Indian law?
A) 10 years
B) 20 years
C) 50 years
D) Lifetime

4. Which of the following is not a form of intellectual property?

A) Copyright
B) Patent
C) Real estate
D) Trade secrets

5. Which of the following is covered under the Indian Designs Act, 2000?
A) Literary works
B) Ornamental or aesthetic designs
C) Computer programs
D) Inventions

6. What is the objective of a geographical indication (GI)?

A) To identify goods originating from a specific location
B) To protect scientific discoveries
C) To register a company
D) To protect trade secrets

7. What does the term "public domain" mean in copyright law?

A) Intellectual property owned by the government
B) Works whose copyright has expired or was never claimed
C) Patented inventions
D) Trademarks used in commerce

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8. Which of the following is an example of a geographical indication (GI) in India?
A) Basmati Rice
B) Darjeeling Tea
C) Kanchipuram Silk
D) All of the above

9. Under the Trade Marks Act, 1999, what is the validity period of a registered
trademark?
A) 5 years
B) 10 years, renewable indefinitely
C) 20 years
D) 25 years

10. Which international agreement deals with the protection of intellectual property
worldwide?
A) Hague Convention
B) TRIPS Agreement
C) Berne Convention
D) Paris Convention

11. Which organization is responsible for managing patents in India?

A) Ministry of Home Affairs
B) Indian Patent Office
C) Reserve Bank of India
D) Securities and Exchange Board of India

12. Which form of IP protects the "expression of an idea" rather than the idea itself?
A) Patent
B) Copyright
C) Trademark
D) Industrial design

13. Which of the following is not patentable under the Indian Patent Act?
A) A new machine
B) A mathematical formula
C) A novel chemical process
D) A pharmaceutical composition

14. What does a patent grant the owner?

A) Ownership of an idea
B) Exclusive right to make, use, sell, or distribute the invention
C) The ability to protect literary works
D) The right to register a trademark

15. The term 'Intellectual Property' refers to:

A) Creations of the mind, such as inventions, literary works, and symbols

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 B) Real estate
C) Tangible property like machinery
D) Physical assets

16. Under the Copyright Act, 1957, how long does copyright protection last for literary
works?
A) Life of the author plus 60 years
B) 10 years
C) 20 years
D) Indefinitely

17. What is the function of the World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO)?
A) Regulate international trade
B) Promote the protection of intellectual property worldwide
C) Enforce patent laws
D) Register trademarks globally

18. Which of the following is true regarding trade secrets?

A) They are protected without registration
B) They are publicly registered
C) They must be disclosed to the public
D) They have a limited protection period

19. What is the penalty for trademark infringement under Indian law?
A) Fine only
B) Fine or imprisonment, or both
C) Imprisonment only
D) No penalties

20. The Paris Convention is related to:

A) Protection of industrial property
B) Maritime law
C) Copyright issues
D) Taxation laws

21. Which section of the Indian Copyright Act protects moral rights of the author?
A) Section 13
B) Section 25
C) Section 57
D) Section 78

22. Which of the following is considered a "patentable invention" under Indian law?
A) A new and useful process
B) A natural law
C) Mathematical equations
D) Mere discoveries

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23. Which of the following can be registered as a trademark in India?
A) Sound
B) Smell
C) Colour combinations
D) All of the above

24. Which international agreement specifically protects performers, producers of

phonograms, and broadcasting organizations?
A) TRIPS Agreement
B) Rome Convention
C) Paris Convention
D) Berne Convention

25. What is the duration of protection for a registered design in India?

A) 5 years, renewable for another 5 years
B) 10 years, non-renewable
C) 10 years, renewable for another 5 years
D) 20 years

26. Which of the following is not covered by the Copyright Act, 1957?
A) Inventions
B) Artistic works
C) Literary works
D) Cinematographic films

27. In which year did India become a member of the TRIPS Agreement?
A) 1990
B) 1993
C) 1995
D) 2000

28. Which intellectual property law governs patents in India?

A) Patents Act, 1970
B) Copyright Act, 1957
C) Trade Marks Act, 1999
D) Designs Act, 2000

29. Which of the following is a requirement for patentability?

A) Novelty, inventive step, and industrial application
B) Public availability
C) Literary nature
D) Market success

30. Which of the following inventions is eligible for patent protection?

A) Mathematical formula
B) A new pharmaceutical drug

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 C) Scientific principle
D) Law of nature

31. What is the protection term for a copyright in cinematographic works under Indian
law?
A) 20 years
B) 50 years
C) 60 years from the date of publication
D) 70 years

32. What kind of protection does a patent provide?

A) Protection of an idea
B) Protection of an invention
C) Protection of literary works
D) Protection of brand names

33. Under Indian law, trademarks can protect which of the following?
A) Goods and services
B) Real estate
C) Government programs
D) Public projects

34. Which Act regulates the protection of semiconductor integrated circuits in India?
A) Semiconductor Integrated Circuits Layout-Design Act, 2000
B) Indian Patents Act, 1970
C) Trade Marks Act, 1999
D) Copyright Act, 1957

35. Which of the following can not be registered as a trademark?

A) A company’s name
B) Deceptively similar marks
C) A logo
D) A tagline

36. Who is the competent authority to register copyrights in India?

A) Ministry of Commerce
B) Copyright Office of India
C) Intellectual Property Appellate Board
D) None

37. What is the period of protection for industrial designs under Indian law?
A) 5 years, non-renewable
B) 10 years, non-renewable
C) 10 years, renewable for 5 years
D) 20 years

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38. Which of the following agreements is concerned with the protection of copyright
internationally?
A) Berne Convention
B) Paris Convention
C) Hague Agreement
D) Madrid Protocol

39. Which of the following is true for patent applications under the Patent Cooperation
Treaty (PCT)?
A) It allows filing a single international patent application
B) It automatically grants a patent in multiple countries

40. Under the Indian Patents Act, what does 'novelty' refer to?
A) An improvement on an existing invention
B) An invention that has not been previously disclosed to the public
C) An invention known only to the inventor
D) An invention with high commercial value

41. Which Act governs the protection of trademarks in India?

A) Patent Act, 1970
B) Trade Marks Act, 1999
C) Copyright Act, 1957
D) Design Act, 2000

42. The Madrid Protocol deals with the international registration of what?
A) Patents
B) Trademarks
C) Copyrights
D) Industrial designs

43. Which Indian body is responsible for resolving disputes related to intellectual property
rights?
A) Intellectual Property Appellate Board (IPAB)
B) Supreme Court
C) Consumer Protection Commission
D) Central Administrative Tribunal

44. Which of the following is true about compulsory licensing under Indian Patent Law?
A) It allows inventors to use the work of others freely
B) It allows the government to authorize a third party to use a patent without the
consent of the patent holder
C) It applies only to trademarks
D) None

45. What does a trade secret protect?

A) Publicly known information

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 B) Confidential business information that gives a competitive edge
C) Literary works
D) Trademarked products

46. Which of the following can be copyrighted?

A) A scientific invention
B) A book
C) A brand name
D) A business process

47. What does the term "industrial property" typically refer to in intellectual property
law?
A) Patents, trademarks, and industrial designs
B) Copyrights and trade secrets
C) Real estate
D) Mineral rights

48. Which section of the Trade Marks Act, 1999 defines "well-known trademarks"?
A) Section 2
B) Section 2(zg)
C) Section 9
D) Section 11

49. In which case did the Supreme Court of India define the limits of copyright over the
Internet?
A) The Indian Express Case
B) MacMillan Publishers Case
C) Yahoo Inc. v. Akash Arora
D) Super Cassettes Industries Ltd. v. Myspace Inc.

50. What is the main function of the Intellectual Property Appellate Board (IPAB) in
India?
A) Granting patents and trademarks
B) Adjudicating appeals related to intellectual property rights
C) Issuing copyrights
D) Conducting examinations of patent applications

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 Law of Contract, Specific Relief,
Property Laws and Negotiable
Instrument Act
1. A valid contract requires:
A) Consideration only
B) Offer, acceptance, and consideration
C) Written form only
D) Oral agreement

2. Which of the following is not essential for a valid contract?

A) Written agreement
B) Competency of parties
C) Free consent
D) Lawful object

3. The Indian Contract Act was enacted in which year?

A) 1872
B) 1956
C) 1961
D) 1882

4. An offer can be revoked at any time before:

A) The formation of contract
B) Acceptance is communicated
C) Acceptance is made
D) Performance of the contract

5. A minor's agreement is:

A) Voidable
B) Void ab initio
C) Valid
D) Enforceable

6. Which of the following sections defines "void agreements"?

A) Section 10
B) Section 2(g)
C) Section 15
D) Section 25

7. An agreement without consideration is:

A) Voidable
B) Enforceable
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 C) Void
D) Valid

8. Who is competent to contract under the Indian Contract Act?

A) Any person
B) Person of sound mind, of age of majority, and not disqualified by law
C) Minors
D) Person of unsound mind

9. Which section of the Indian Contract Act deals with contingent contracts?
A) Section 31
B) Section 30
C) Section 29
D) Section 32

10. An agreement in restraint of trade is:

A) Void
B) Valid
C) Voidable
D) Enforceable

11. Specific performance of a contract can be ordered in cases where:

A) Damages are sufficient
B) Damages are not an adequate remedy
C) The contract is voidable
D) The contract involves personal services

12. Which section of the Specific Relief Act deals with the granting of specific performance?
A) Section 10
B) Section 20
C) Section 22
D) Section 25

13. Specific performance of a contract cannot be granted in cases of:

A) Personal service contracts
B) Sale of goods
C) Sale of immovable property
D) Lease agreements

14. Temporary injunctions under the Specific Relief Act are covered in which section?
A) Section 34
B) Section 36
C) Section 28
D) Section 40

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15. A decree of specific performance of contract may be enforced by:
A) Criminal complaint
B) Execution through a civil court
C) Arbitration
D) Mediation

16. Which Act governs the transfer of immovable property in India?

A) The Transfer of Property Act, 1882
B) The Indian Contract Act, 1872
C) The Registration Act, 1908
D) The Specific Relief Act, 1963

17. Which section of the Transfer of Property Act defines "sale"?

A) Section 54
B) Section 45
C) Section 48
D) Section 51

18. A transfer of property can only be made by:

A) An individual
B) A company
C) A competent person, not a minor or unsound mind
D) A trustee

19. Which of the following is not an essential element of a valid transfer under the Transfer
of Property Act?
A) The property must be a public property
B) The transferor must be competent
C) The transferee must be ascertainable
D) The property must be transferable

20. Which section of the Transfer of Property Act deals with mortgages?
A) Section 58
B) Section 63
C) Section 70
D) Section 80

21. A negotiable instrument is:

A) An agreement in writing
B) A written document transferable by endorsement or delivery
C) A contract only
D) An oral contract

22. Which of the following is not a type of negotiable instrument under the Negotiable
Instruments Act?
A) Promissory note

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 B) Bill of exchange
C) A contract of sale
D) Cheque

23. Dishonor of a negotiable instrument means:

A) Refusal to issue the instrument
B) Non-acceptance or non-payment by the drawee
C) Revocation of the instrument
D) None of the above

24. Which section of the Negotiable Instruments Act defines a 'promissory note'?
A) Section 4
B) Section 6
C) Section 12
D) Section 16

25. The limitation period for filing a suit for dishonor of a cheque is:
A) 1 month
B) 3 months
C) 30 days from the date of receipt of notice
D) 6 months

26. The Indian Contract Act is divided into:

A) Two parts
B) Three parts
C) Four parts
D) None of the above

27. A breach of contract occurs when:

A) One party fails to perform its obligations under the contract
B) Both parties perform the contract
C) The contract is void
D) None of the above

28. In case of anticipatory breach of contract, the aggrieved party can:

A) Sue for damages immediately
B) Wait for the actual breach to occur
C) Sue only after the breach occurs
D) Both A and B

29. Which of the following is not considered a 'contingent contract'?

A) A contract dependent on an uncertain event
B) A contract dependent on a certain event
C) A contract dependent on a future event
D) A contract conditional upon a future event

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30. A contract becomes voidable when:
A) The contract is fulfilled
B) One party is induced by coercion or undue influence
C) It is illegal
D) It is impossible to perform

31. Which of the following cannot be the subject of a specific performance decree?
A) Sale of immovable property
B) Performance of personal qualifications
C) Lease of property
D) Execution of an agreement

32. Which section of the Specific Relief Act provides for perpetual injunctions?
A) Section 31
B) Section 38
C) Section 28
D) Section 12

33. Rescission of a contract is dealt with under which section?

A) Section 10
B) Section 27
C) Section 37
D) Section 41

34. The remedy of specific performance is generally considered:

A) Equitable
B) Legal
C) Penal
D) None of the above

35. Transfer of Property Act came into force on:

A) 1st July, 1882
B) 1st January, 1872
C) 1st August, 1883
D) 1st September, 1882

36. Which of the following is a lease as per Transfer of Property Act?

A) Permanent transfer
B) Transfer for a specific period of time
C) Sale of property
D) Exchange of property

37. A mortgagee has a right to sell the mortgaged property without court intervention
under which type of mortgage?
A) Mortgage by conditional sale
B) Simple mortgage

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 C) Anomalous mortgage
D) Usufructuary mortgage

38. Which section of the Negotiable Instruments Act deals with dishonor of cheque for
insufficiency of funds?
A) Section 100
B) Section 85
C) Section 138
D) Section 25

39. **A cheque is valid for a period of:**Here is the continuation of Law of Contract, Specific
Relief, Property Laws, Negotiable Instrument Act MCQs, starting from question 39 under
Negotiable Instruments Act:

39. A cheque is valid for a period of:

A) 12 months
B) 9 months
C) 3 months
D) 6 months

40. Who can cross a cheque?

A) Drawer, holder, or banker
B) Only the drawer
C) Only the holder
D) Only the banker

41. The payment of a negotiable instrument can be demanded by whom?

A) The maker
B) The holder in due course
C) The payee
D) The indorser

42. Under the Negotiable Instruments Act, 'noting' refers to:

A) Giving notice of dishonor
B) Recording the fact of dishonor by a notary public
C) Payment of the instrument
D) Presentment of the instrument

43. A 'bill of exchange' must be accepted by the drawee within how many days of
presentment?
A) 10 days
B) 5 days
C) 48 hours
D) 7 days

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44. An 'accommodation party' is a person who:
A) Signs a negotiable instrument without receiving value
B) Is the maker of the instrument
C) Is the holder of the instrument
D) Draws a cheque

45. Which of the following can be a negotiable instrument under the Negotiable
Instruments Act?
A) Letter of credit
B) Promissory note
C) Contract of guarantee
D) Mortgage deed

46. Dishonor of a bill of exchange occurs when:

A) The drawee refuses to accept or pay
B) The drawer refuses to issue the instrument
C) The payee transfers the bill
D) The bill is stamped

47. Section 131 of the Negotiable Instruments Act provides protection to which party in
case of a crossed cheque?
A) The holder in due course
B) The collecting banker
C) The payee
D) The drawer

48. Who can endorse a negotiable instrument?

A) Only the payee
B) The payee or holder in due course
C) Only the drawer
D) Only the indorsee

49. An 'inchoate instrument' refers to a negotiable instrument that is:

A) Fully executed
B) Expired
C) Incomplete in some respect
D) Fully discharged

50. The presumption of consideration under a negotiable instrument arises under which
section?
A) Section 118
B) Section 45
C) Section 85
D) Section 55

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51. The term 'quasi-contract' refers to situations where:
A) There is no formal contract, but the law imposes obligations as if there was a
contract
B) The contract is void
C) The contract is written
D) The contract is conditional

52. A contract involving a mistake of fact is:

A) Voidable
B) Void
C) Enforceable
D) Valid

53. Which section of the Indian Contract Act deals with agreements entered under a
mistake?
A) Section 20
B) Section 19
C) Section 22
D) Section 17

54. An agreement made without free consent is:

A) Valid
B) Void
C) Voidable
D) Unenforceable

55. A promise made without any intention of performing it is referred to as:

A) Misrepresentation
B) Fraud
C) Mistake
D) Undue influence

56. The doctrine of 'privity of contract' means that:

A) Only parties to a contract can enforce it
B) Any third party can enforce the contract
C) All interested parties can claim benefits under the contract
D) The contract must be notarized

57. The legal rule that contracts made for illegal purposes are unenforceable is related to:
A) Lawful object
B) Free consent
C) Consideration
D) Competency of parties

58. In a contract of sale, who bears the risk if the goods are damaged after the contract is
formed but before delivery?

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 A) The buyer
B) The seller
C) The carrier
D) The consignor

59. A 'gratuitous promise' made without consideration is:

A) Voidable
B) Void
C) Valid
D) Enforceable

60. A contract discharged by performance means:

A) The obligations of the contract have been completed
B) The contract is canceled
C) The contract is void
D) The contract is impossible to perform

61. Which of the following contracts are void?

A) Contracts without free consent
B) Contracts with minors
C) Contracts based on illegal consideration
D) Contracts based on future uncertain events

62. When one party makes an offer to another party, it is known as:
A) Proposal
B) Acceptance
C) Contract
D) Agreement

63. In case of breach of contract, the primary remedy available to the aggrieved party is:
A) Damages
B) Specific performance
C) Rescission of contract
D) Injunction

64. An agreement without free consent is voidable under which section of the Indian
Contract Act?
A) Section 10
B) Section 17
C) Section 19
D) Section 22

65. The consideration in a contract must be:

A) Always monetary
B) Lawful

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 C) In written form
D) Signed by both parties

66. Injunction is granted to:

A) Prevent a person from doing an act
B) Compel a person to perform an act
C) Perform a contract
D) Compensate for damages

67. The 'doctrine of mutuality' under Specific Relief Act means that:
A) Both parties must sign the agreement
B) Both parties must be bound equally by the contract
C) The contract must be enforceable only by one party
D) The contract can be oral

68. Which of the following cannot be enforced under specific performance?

A) Sale of immovable property
B) Lease of property
C) Personal service contracts
D) Construction contracts

69. Which section of the Specific Relief Act deals with the rescission of contracts?
A) Section 20
B) Section 24
C) Section 27
D) Section 30

70. Temporary injunctions under the Specific Relief Act are granted under which section?
A) Section 36
B) Section 41
C) Section 50
D) Section 12

71. The Transfer of Property Act, 1882, primarily deals with the transfer of:
A) Movable property
B) Immovable property
C) Shares
D) Partnership interests

72. Which section of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, deals with the transfer of
actionable claims?
A) Section 130
B) Section 105
C) Section 52
D) Section 91

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73. A gift under the Transfer of Property Act can be revoked if:
A) The donor changes their mind
B) The donor and donee agree to the revocation
C) The donee fails to comply with the terms
D) None of the above

74. Which of the following is NOT considered immovable property under the Transfer of
Property Act?
A) Standing timber
B) Buildings
C) Land
D) Rights of way

75. Which section of the Transfer of Property Act defines 'mortgage'?

A) Section 58
B) Section 59
C) Section 60
D) Section 65

76. A negotiable instrument can be transferred by:

A) Delivery or endorsement
B) Oral communication
C) Sale only
D) Exchange of goods

77. Which of the following is an example of a negotiable instrument?

A) Cheque
B) Bank statement
C) Loan agreement
D) Mortgage deed

78. A promissory note is defined under which section of the Negotiable Instruments Act?
A) Section 4
B) Section 6
C) Section 8
D) Section 12

79. When a cheque is dishonored, the drawee bank must return it to the:
A) Endorser
B) Holder in due course
C) Drawer
D) Payee

80. Which of the following is true about the liability of the drawer in case of dishonor of a
cheque?
A) The drawer is liable to pay damages to the holder

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 B) The bank is liable to pay the damages
C) The drawee is exempt from liability
D) None of the above

81. Which type of agreement is unenforceable under Indian Contract Act due to
vagueness?
A) Uncertain agreements
B) Agreements with a time condition
C) Contracts for sale of goods
D) Contracts for employment

82. An agreement in restraint of legal proceedings is:

A) Valid
B) Void
C) Voidable
D) Enforceable

83. Which section of the Indian Contract Act defines a voidable contract?
A) Section 2(i)
B) Section 2(e)
C) Section 2(g)
D) Section 2(h)

84. Which of the following is NOT a type of breach of contract?

A) Minor breach
B) Anticipatory breach
C) Material breach
D) Implied breach

85. A contract for sale of goods falls under which Act in India?
A) Indian Contract Act
B) Sale of Goods Act, 1930
C) Specific Relief Act
D) Consumer Protection Act

86. A decree of specific performance is granted when:

A) The contract is fulfilled
B) Damages are not an adequate remedy
C) Damages are sufficient
D) The contract is void

87. Rescission of contracts can be ordered under which section?

A) Section 27
B) Section 12
C) Section 35
D) Section 39

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88. A perpetual injunction can be granted to:
A) Compel a party to perform an act
B) Award damages for breach of contract
C) Prevent a party from doing an act
D) Recover specific property

89. Which section of the Specific Relief Act deals with preventive relief?
A) Section 10
B) Section 36
C) Section 21
D) Section 42

90. The remedy of rectification of an instrument is granted under which section?

A) Section 27
B) Section 30
C) Section 26
D) Section 31

91. Which section of the Transfer of Property Act deals with exchange of property?
A) Section 118
B) Section 105
C) Section 130
D) Section 132

92. A lease under the Transfer of Property Act can be created for a maximum period of:
A) 99 years
B) 50 years
C) 10 years
D) 25 years

93. An easement is a right to:

A) Possess property
B) Lease property
C) Use someone else‟s property for a specific purpose
D) Transfer property

94. Which of the following is an example of a 'future interest' in property?

A) Mortgage
B) Remainder
C) Leasehold
D) License

95. Under the Transfer of Property Act, immovable property includes:

A) Land and things attached to the earth
B) Goods

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 C) Money
D) Contracts

96. Which section of the Negotiable Instruments Act deals with 'Noting' and 'Protesting'?
A) Section 70
B) Section 90
C) Section 99
D) Section 102

97. Which of the following is NOT a negotiable instrument?

A) Promissory note
B) Lease agreement
C) Cheque
D) Bill of exchange

98. A post-dated cheque is valid:

A) Until the expiry date
B) Until the date mentioned on the cheque
C) For 1 year
D) For 3 months

99. If a cheque is dishonored due to insufficient funds, the holder can file a complaint under
which section of the Negotiable Instruments Act?
A) Section 138
B) Section 125
C) Section 85
D) Section 90

100. Which of the following is true about a bearer cheque?

A) It is payable to the person holding it
B) It requires identification of the payee
C) It can only be encashed at the issuing bank
D) It is non-transferable

101. Which of the following is NOT an essential element of a valid contract?

A) Free consent
B) Lawful consideration
C) Written form
D) Competency of parties

102. A minor‟s agreement is:

A) Void ab initio
B) Voidable at the minor’s option
C) Valid but unenforceable
D) Enforceable in special circumstances

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103. A contract is discharged by novation when:
A) The contract is performed
B) One party withdraws
C) A new contract replaces the old one
D) The contract becomes impossible to perform

104. Which section of the Indian Contract Act deals with contingent contracts?
A) Section 31
B) Section 45
C) Section 25
D) Section 30

105. A wager is considered void because:

A) It involves future events
B) It lacks lawful consideration
C) It is made for entertainment purposes
D) It involves skill

106. Under the Specific Relief Act, specific performance will not be granted when:
A) Compensation is an adequate remedy
B) The contract involves immovable property
C) The contract is for personal services
D) The contract is for construction

107. An injunction can be defined as:

A) A form of compensation
B) A court order restraining a party from doing something
C) The performance of a contractual obligation
D) A declaration of legal rights

108. Which of the following is a remedy provided under the Specific Relief Act?
A) Award of damages
B) Declaration of rights
C) Restitution of benefits
D) Criminal sanctions

109. The limitation period for filing a suit for specific performance of a contract is
governed by:
A) Limitation Act
B) Specific Relief Act
C) Contract Act
D) Civil Procedure Code

110. Which of the following contracts cannot be specifically enforced?

A) Contracts for immovable property
B) Contracts of a personal nature

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 C) Contracts for sale of goods
D) Contracts for construction

111. Transfer of property by an unauthorized person who subsequently acquires

interest in the property is covered under which section of the Transfer of Property Act?
A) Section 43
B) Section 41
C) Section 46
D) Section 50

112. The doctrine of part performance is contained in which section of the Transfer of
Property Act?
A) Section 53A
B) Section 63
C) Section 108
D) Section 78

113. An interest in property created in favor of an unborn person is covered under:

A) Doctrine of relativity
B) Section 13 of the Transfer of Property Act
C) Doctrine of lis pendens
D) Easements

114. Under the Transfer of Property Act, a charge is defined as:

A) A security interest on property that does not transfer ownership
B) An outright transfer of property
C) A lease agreement
D) A sale deed

115. Which of the following is NOT a mode of transfer under the Transfer of
Property Act?
A) Sale
B) Bailment
C) Mortgage
D) Lease

116. Which of the following is NOT a negotiable instrument under the Negotiable
Instruments Act, 1881?
A) Bill of exchange
B) Share certificate
C) Cheque
D) Promissory note

117. A 'crossed cheque' is payable only through:

A) A bank account
B) The drawer

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 C) The post office
D) The bearer

118. Which section of the Negotiable Instruments Act deals with penalties for
dishonor of cheques?
A) Section 120
B) Section 138
C) Section 118
D) Section 89

119. In case of dishonor of cheque, the complainant must issue a notice to the drawer
within how many days of dishonor?
A) 30 days
B) 15 days
C) 45 days
D) 60 days

120. A promissory note must contain:

A) An unconditional promise to pay
B) A condition to be fulfilled
C) An offer for services
D) A requirement for performance

121. The term 'liquidated damages' refers to:

A) Damages agreed upon by the parties in advance
B) Damages determined by the court
C) Nominal damages
D) Punitive damages

122. Which of the following contracts is voidable?

A) A contract induced by fraud
B) A contract for sale of immovable property
C) A contract made with a minor
D) A contract made for an illegal purpose

123. A contract is frustrated when:

A) One party breaches the contract
B) It becomes impossible to perform
C) The contract is unenforceable
D) One party withdraws

124. An offer can be revoked:

A) Anytime before acceptance
B) After acceptance
C) Only with the consent of the offeree
D) After performance of the contract

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125. Which of the following is NOT a form of discharge of contract?
A) Novation
B) Violation
C) Performance
D) Breach

126. The remedy of rectification of instruments is provided under which section of the
Specific Relief Act?
A) Section 26
B) Section 22
C) Section 38
D) Section 12

127. Specific performance is NOT available for:

A) Contracts for immovable property
B) Contracts involving personal skill
C) Contracts for sale of goods
D) Contracts for the conveyance of property

128. Declaratory decrees are granted under which section of the Specific Relief Act?
A) Section 34
B) Section 36
C) Section 40
D) Section 50

129. Preventive relief is generally sought in the form of:

A) Specific performance
B) Injunction
C) Rectification
D) Rescission

130. Which of the following is NOT a type of injunction?

A) Temporary
B) Punitive
C) Perpetual
D) Mandatory

131. A lease of immovable property is defined under which section of the Transfer of
Property Act?
A) Section 105
B) Section 118
C) Section 130
D) Section 145

132. Under the Transfer of Property Act, the transfer of property from a living
person to another is called:

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 A) Bequest
B) Conveyance
C) Codicil
D) Testamentary disposition

133. The right of redemption in case of mortgages is provided under which section?
A) Section 60
B) Section 45
C) Section 22
D) Section 105

134. Which of the following is NOT immovable property under the Transfer of
Property Act?
A) Buildings
B) Growing crops
C) Land
D) Rights of way

135. The rule against perpetuity under the Transfer of Property Act states that
property cannot be transferred beyond:
A) A life in being plus 18 years
B) 99 years
C) A life in being plus 21 years
D) 25 years

136. Under the Negotiable Instruments Act, a cheque is said to be dishonored when:
A) It is returned unpaid by the bank
B) The payee refuses to accept it
C) It is not delivered on time
D) The drawer revokes it

137. A bill of exchange is an example of:

A) A negotiable instrument
B) A conditional agreement
C) A contract of guarantee
D) A promissory note

138. The term 'holder in due course' refers to:

A) A person who has obtained a negotiable instrument in good faith and for
consideration
B) The original drawer of the instrument
C) Any party that comes into possession of the instrument
D) A party that endorses the instrument

139. A cheque is considered stale if it is presented after how many months of its date
of issuance?

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 A) 3 months
B) 6 months
C) 1 month
D) 12 months

140. Which section of the Negotiable Instruments Act provides that promissory notes,
bills of exchange, and cheques are negotiable instruments?
A) Section 1
B) Section 13
C) Section 4
D) Section 10

141. What is a post-dated cheque?

A) A cheque that is undated
B) A cheque bearing a date later than the date of issue
C) A cheque issued after a bill of exchange
D) A cheque that is dishonoured

142. A negotiable instrument payable to order can be transferred by:

A) Oral transfer
B) Endorsement and delivery
C) Assignment
D) Verbal agreement

143. A promissory note is defined as an instrument in writing that contains:

A) A conditional promise to pay
B) An unconditional promise to pay
C) An order to pay
D) A demand for performance

144. Under the Negotiable Instruments Act, an instrument is payable on demand

when:
A) A fixed date for payment is given
B) No specific time for payment is mentioned
C) It is dishonored
D) The drawer is willing to pay

145. A dishonored bill of exchange can result in:

A) Criminal prosecution
B) Civil liability for the amount
C) Automatic cancellation of the debt
D) Refusal of future transaction.

146. Which of the following is NOT required in a negotiable instrument?

A) Writing
B) Signature of the drawer

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 C) Seal of the drawer
D) Promise or order to pay

147. The liability of the drawer of a dishonored cheque under Section 138 of the
Negotiable Instruments Act arises only if:
A) The cheque was presented on time
B) A notice of dishonor is served within 30 days
C) The cheque was endorsed
D) The drawer admits the dishonour

148. Endorsement of a negotiable instrument means:

A) Destroying the instrument
B) Signing the instrument to transfer ownership
C) Presenting the instrument for payment
D) Rewriting the instrument

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