Microbiology-Parasitology

B 1. Which of the following organisms is a pathogenic amoeba?

a. Entamoeba nana
b. Entamoeba histolytica
c. Giardia lamblia
d. Naegleria fowleri

A 2. Diamond’s medium is used to culture which of the following parasites?

a. Entamoeba hitolytica
b. Trypanosoma cruzi
c. Naegleria fowleri
d. Leishmania braziliense

C 3. Oxyuriasis is an infection caused by:

a. Necator americanus
b. Schistosoma haematobium
c. Enterobius vermicularis
d. Trichuris trichiura

B 4. The mode of transmission of this parasite is skin penetration.

1. Leishmania donovani
2. Strongyloides stercoralis
3. Necator americanus
4. Capillaria philippinensis

a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 3 and 4
d. 1 and 4

B 5. Onchomelania quadrasi carries which of the following parasite?

a. Diphylobotrium latum
b. Schistosoma japonicum
c. Schistosoma mansoni
d. Clonorchis sinensis

B 6. This fluke has wavy and saccular intestinal caecum and watermelon seed shape
appearance of the adult worm.

a. Echinostoma ilocanum
 b. Paragonimus westermani
c. Clonorchis sinensis
d. Faciolopsis buski

C 7. Which of the following parasites live in subcutaneous tissue?

1. Mansonella ozzardi
2. Wuchereria bancrofti
3. Dracunculus medinensis
4. Onchocerca volvulus

a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 3 and 4
d. 1 and 4

B 8. Bentonite flocculation test is used to diagnose infections caused by:

a. Schistosoma japonicum
b. Trichinella spiralis
c. Entamoeba histolytica
d. Ascaris lumbricoides

C 9. This parasite can autoinfect resulting to persistence of infection for decades:

a. Enterobius vermicularis
b. Dirofilaria sp.
c. Strongyloides stercoralis
d. Angiostrongylus cantonensis

D 10. Its egg has Chinese lantern appearance as seen in tissue biopsy of the intestine:

a. Clonorchis sinensis
b. Hookworm sp.
c. Diphyllidium caninum
d. Strongyloides stercoralis

A 11. Harada-mori culture technique is used to identify:

a. Hookworm sp.
b. Trypanosoma cruzi
c. Toxocara cati
d. Onchocerca volvulus

B 12. In stool examination, Strongyloides stercoralis is seen in fresh stool as:

 a. Egg
b. Rhabditifirm larvae
c. Filariform larvae
d. Adult worm

D 13. Cystic stage of Trichomonas vaginalis is described as:

a. Has undulating memebrane

b. Lemon shaped or nipple shaped
c. Has jerking motility
d. None of these

D 14. In examination of the blood smear, this parasite is frequently mistaken from
Plasmodium sp.:

a. Trypanosoma sp.
b. Leishmania sp.
c. Isospora sp.
d. Babesia sp.

C 15. Calcofluor white is used to stain:

a. Bacterial cell nucleus

b. Viruses
c. Fungal cell wall
d. Bacterial cell wall

B 16. It is used for staining smears of Mycobacteria:

a. India ink
b. Auramine O and Rhodamine
c. Toluidie Blue O
d. Gram stain

C 17. Modified Voges-Proscauer test is used to identify:

a. Fungi
b. Viruses
c. Staphylococcus aureus
d. Mycobacteria sp.

C 18. In semiquantitative method of reporting AFB, 2 to 3 organisms observed per oil

immersion field is graded as:

a. 1+
b. 2+
 c. 3+
d. 4+

B 19. It is used to assess the quality of sputum samples for microscopic examination:

a. Runyon’s classification
b. Barlett’s classification
c. American Thoracic Society
d. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention classification

B 20. It is also known as laminar flow biological safety cabinet:

a. Class I cabinet
b. Class II cabinet
c. Class III cabinet
d. Class IV cabinet

C 21. It is used to measure the activity of the antibiotic in patient’s own serum against the
pathogen:

a. Broth dilution test

b. Kirby-Bauer disk diffusion
c. Schlichter test
d. Antibiogram

B 22. It is used to test the synergistic effect of two antimicrobial agents. It is performed
using microtiter trays:

a. Serum bactericidal test

b. Checkerboard titration method
c. Killing curve method
d. Beta lactamase test

C 23. Which of the following viral tissue culture is prepared from diploid cell line of human
fibroblasts?

a. Monkey kidney cell

b. WI-38
c. Hep-2
d. HeLa

B 24. How many percent of cell monolayer exhibits cytophatic effect if it is graded as +2?

a. 25%
b. 50%
c. 75%
 d. 100%

C 25. Which of the following are proteinaceous molecules that lack both DNA and RNA
and is associated with diseases of the gray matter of brain such as kuru and mad cow
disease?

a. Retoviruses
b. Viriods
c. Prions
d. Rhabdoviruses

B 26. Which of the following is a negative staining technique?

a. Gram stain
b. Nigrosin/ India Ink
c. Methylene Blue
d. Victoria Blue

B 27. Which of the following Pseudomonas sp. exhibits fluorescence in ultraviolet light?

1. Pseudomonas mallei
2. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
3. Pseudomonas putida
4. Pseudomonas pseudomallei

a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 3 and 4
d. 1 and 4

B 28. Which of the following is used as decolorizer in modified acid fast staining technique?

a. HCl
b. 2 % H2SO4
c. 95 % ethyl alcohol
d. KOH

B 29. It is used to eliminate carrier state of Neisseria meningitidis?

a. Penicillin
b. Rifampin
c. Chloramphenicol
d. Ampicillin

B 30. Which of the following viruses replicates in the cytoplasm of the cell?
 a. Parvovirus
b. Poxvirus
c. Herpes virus
d. Adenovirus

C 31. Which of the following is associated with sixth disease or roseola infantum?

a. Parvovirus B19
b. HHV 1
c. HHV6
d. Poxvirus

B 32. Which of the following fungi shows bright yellow fluorescence in Wood’s lamp?

a. Trichophyton mentagrophytes
b. Microsporum audouinii
c. Trichophyton schoenleini
d. Epidermophyton floccosum

B 33. The positive color produced in the ONPG reaction is:

a. Yellow
b. Blue
c. Red
d. Violet

A 34. What is the procedure for manual pasteurization of milk products?

a. It is done through the Batch method, milk products are subjected to a

temperature of 63°C for 30 minutes.
b. It is done through Flash method, milk products are subjected to a temperature of
100°C for 30 minutes for 3 consecutive days
c. It is done through the Batch method, milk products are subjected to a
temperature of 72°C for 15 seconds
d. It is done through the Flash method, milk products are subjected to a
temperature of 63°C for 30 minutes.

D 35. Glasswares are sterilized by dry heat. How is this performed?

a. Glasswares are subjected to a temperature of 100°C for 20 minutes

b. Glasswares are subjected to a temperature of 170°C for 9 hours
c. Glasswares are subjected to a temperature of 80°C for 30 minutes
d. Glasswares are subjected to a temperature of 170°C for 2 hours

B 36. Method used for phenotypic identification of bacteria:

 a. pcr
b. bacterial morphology and colonial characteristics
c. nucleic acid sequence based amplification
d. transcription-mediated amplification

D 37. Method used for phenotypic identification of viruses:

a. pcr
b. nucleic acid sequence based amplification
c. transcription-mediated amplification
d. viral structure seen on electron microscope

B 38. Who developed the differential staining widely used for the primary identification of
bacteria, the Gram’s stain?

a. Hansel Gram
b. Hans Christian Gram
c. Antoine Gram
d. Nicholas Gram

B 39. The TSI results showed an alkaline butt and slant. Which of these organisms may give
the same result?

a. Escherichia coli
b. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
c. Citrobacter freundii
d. Proteus mirabilis

A 40. A multistix was dipped in a patient’s urine. The absorbent pad designated for nitrite
test turned pink. What organism, if present in the urine, may have caused the color
change in the absorbent pad?

a. Escherichia coli
b. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
c. Treponema pallidum
d. Streptococcus pyogenes

A 41. Acetate test is based on the principle:

a. the organism’s ability to utilize carbon

b. the organism’s ability to ferment sugar
c. the organism’s ability to utilize oxygen
d. the organism’s ability to utilize hydrogen

B 42. A blood parasite was noted to create enlarged erythrocytes with friations along its
borders. The identity of the parasite is most likely
 a. Cryptosporidium spp.
b. Plasmodium ovale
c. Isospora belli
d. Plasmodium vivax

D 43. Mansonella sp. is best characterized by:

a. A sheathed tail with prominent terminal nuclei

b. A sheathed tail with no prominent nuclei
c. Absence of both sheath and tail
d. No sheath with prominent terminal nuclei

D 44. Which of these trematodes is not a hermaphrodite?

a. Strongyloides stercoralis
b. Ascaris Lumbricoides
c. Paragonimus westermanii
d. Schistosoma japonicum

C 45. Which of these trematodes is not a hermaphrodite?

a. Necator americanus
b. Entamoeba histolytica
c. Schistosoma japonicum
d. Fasciolopsis buski

C 46. What is the common name of the parasite whose ova are hyaline and flattened on one
side?

a. Thread worm
b. Whipworm
c. Pinworm
d. Giant Intestinal Roundworm

A 47. Which of the following blood flukes possesses a lateral knob on its ovum?

a. Schistosoma japonicum
b. Schistosoma haematobium
c. Schistosoma mansoni
d. Schistosoma mekongi

D 48. Which of the following antimicrobial agents act by inhibiting protein systhesis?

a. Vancomycin
b. Rifampin
 c. Penicillin
d. Tobramycin

B 49. It is the antibiotic choice for gonorrhea infection:

a. Penicillin
b. Ceftriaxone
c. Ampicillin
d. Chloramphenicol

B 50. Which of the following fungi has aseptate mycelium?

a. Trichophyton sp.
b. Rhizopus sp.
c. Candida sp.
d. Histoplasma sp.