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A/UPSC /2024 TEST - 15

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T.B.C.: B-APM-P-CKB Test Booklet Series

Serial No.
TEST BOOKLET
GENERAL STUDIES D
PAPER- I
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Page 1 of 36
1. Consider the following statements regarding the Gram Nyayalayas in India:
1) These have been created under the Legal Services Act, 1987.
2) Being a Civil Court, Gram Nyayalaya cannot try any criminal case.
3) The Gram Nyayalayas are guided by the principle of natural justice.
How many of the above given statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None of the above
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Gram Nyayalayas are mobile courts that have been created at the level of intermediate Panchayat.
• Statement 1 is incorrect: Gram Nyayalayas have statutory backing, and have been created under the
Gram Nyayalaya Act, 2008 (not the Legal Services Act, 1987).
• Statement 2 is incorrect: In order to provide comprehensive access to justice at grassroots level, the Act
stipulated that the Gram Nyayalayas can adjudicate both civil and criminal cases. Its jurisdiction is
limited to only those criminal and civil matters which are specified in the First and Second schedule of
the Act.
• Statement 3 is correct: The Gram Nyayalaya shall not be bound by the rules of evidence provided in the
Indian Evidence Act, 1872 but shall be guided by the principles of natural justice and subject to any rule
made by the High Court.

2. Consider the following statements with respect to the Subordinate Courts of India’s judicial system:
1) The Gram Nyayalayas are established by the state government in consultation with the respective High
courts.
2) Lok Adalats have no jurisdiction with respect to any matter relating to an offence that is non
compoundable under any law.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: Under the Gram Nyayalayas Act 2008, it is for the state government to establish
Gram Nyayalayas in consultation with respective High Courts.
• Statement 2 is correct: The permanent Lok Adalat shall have no jurisdiction in respect of any matter
relating to an offence not compoundable under any law.

3. Consider the following statements regarding Gram Nyayalayas:

1) The presiding officer of Gram Nyayalaya shall be appointed by the state government in consultation
with the High Court concerned.
2) It is mandatory to establish a Gram Nyayalaya at every gram panchayat.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a)
Explanation :
• Statement 1 is correct: Presiding officer of Gram Nyayalaya who is Nyayadhikari are appointed by state
government in consultation with high courts.
Page 2 of 36
 • Statement 2 is incorrect: As per provisions of the Act, it is mandatory to establish a Gram Nyayalaya at
every intermediate panchayat or for a group of contiguous panchayat and not in every gram panchayat.

4. Consider the following statements:

1) If any individual attacks rights and immunities of the member of the House it is termed as Breach of
privilege.
2) Any act which has a tendency to produce results against the dignity of the House is treated as a contempt
of the House.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
• Parliamentary privileges are special rights, immunities and exemptions enjoyed by the two Houses of
Parliament, their committees and their members. They are necessary in order to secure the independence
and effectiveness of their actions.
• Statement 1 is correct. When any individual or authority disregards or attacks any of the privileges, rights
and immunities, either of the member individually or of the House in its collective capacity, the offence is
termed as breach of privilege and is punishable by the House.
• Statement 2 is correct. Any act or omission which obstructs a House of Parliament, its member or its
officer in the performance of their functions or which has a tendency, directly or indirectly to produce
results against the dignity, authority and honour of the House is treated as a contempt of the House.

5. Consider the following statements:

1) The President of India is the constitutional authority responsible for notifying communities to be
considered as Scheduled Castes.
2) West Bengal has the highest number of Scheduled Castes in India as per census 2011.
3) The State government is empowered to make changes in the Scheduled Castes List based on the
recommendation of the State Backward Commission.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None of the above
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct. Article 341 of the Indian Constitution empowers the President to specify the
castes, races, or tribes which shall be deemed to be Scheduled Castes in relation to a state or union
territory through a public notification.
• Statements 2 and 3 are incorrect. Punjab has the highest Scheduled Caste population in India as per
census 2011. State governments do not have the authority to make changes to the Scheduled Castes List.
Only the Parliament can amend or alter the SC list through a law, as specified in Article 341 of the
Constitution.

6. Consider the following statements:

1) The President can specify any caste as ‘Scheduled Caste’ after consulting the governor of the state
concerned.
2) The Parliament of India by law can exclude any caste from the list of the ‘Scheduled Castes’.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
Page 3 of 36
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct. The President of India has the power to specify any caste or tribe as Scheduled
Caste or Scheduled Tribe respectively under Article 341(1). The President issues the notification for
specifying any caste as Scheduled caste after consulting the Governor of the state concerned. The
President have issued several orders specifying the SCs and STs in different states and union territories
and these have also been amended by the Parliament. The Constitution does not specify the castes or
tribes which are to be called the SCs or the STs. It leaves to the President the power to specify as to what
castes or tribes in each state and union territory are to be treated as the SCs and STs.
• Statement 2 is correct. Under Article 341(2), the Parliament of India by law can include or exclude the
above-mentioned groups from the list of the Scheduled Castes. Any inclusion or exclusion of any caste or
tribe from Presidential notification can be done only by the Parliament and not by a subsequent
Presidential notification.
7. Consider the following statements:
1) In order to claim the Leader of the Opposition (LoP) position in the Lok Sabha, a party needs to be the
largest opposition party and have at least 10% of House members.
2) In India, there is a formal practice of forming a shadow cabinet.
3) The role of the LoP includes providing checks and balances on the ruling government, ensuring debate,
and representing alternative viewpoints.
4) The functions of the LoP are defined in the Lok Sabha Rules of Procedure.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
• Statements 1 and 3 are correct. According to the regulations, to be recognized as the Leader of the
Opposition, the leader of the largest opposition party must have at least 10% of the total strength of the
Lok Sabha. The Leader of the Opposition plays a crucial role in ensuring that the government remains
accountable, facilitating debate, and presenting alternative policies and viewpoints.
• Statements 2 and 4 are incorrect. India does not have a formal practice of forming a shadow cabinet,
unlike some parliamentary systems such as the United Kingdom. The functions of the LoP are not defined
in the Lok Sabha rules of procedure. The position of LoP is a statutory post recognized by the Salaries
and Allowances of Leaders of Opposition in Parliament Act, 1977, but its specific functions are not
outlined in the Lok Sabha rules.

8. Consider the following statements about the National Education Policy 2020.
1) It is mandatory for all states to follow the policy.
2) It is based on the report of Dr K. Kasturirangan committee.
3) It aims to achieve 100% youth and adult literacy.
4) Higher Education Commission of India (HECI) will act as a single overarching umbrella body for entire
higher education, including legal education.
How many statements given above are correct?
(a) Only One
(b) Only Two
(c) Only Three
(d) All Four
Answer: (b)
Page 4 of 36
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is incorrect. The NEP only provides a broad direction and is not mandatory to follow. Tamil
Nadu for instance did not follow the three-language formula that was prescribed by the first education
policy of 1968.
• Statement 2 is correct, The Ministry of Human Resource Development formed a committee chaired by Dr
K. Kasturirangan for preparing the National Education Policy. The Committee was constituted in June
2017. The Committee submitted its report on May 31, 2019.NEP,2020 is based on the same report
submitted by K. Kasturirangan committee.
• Statement 3 is correct. NEP 2020 aims to achieve 100% youth and adult literacy.
• Statement 4 is incorrect, Higher Education Commission of India (HECI) will be set up as a single
overarching umbrella body the for entire higher education, excluding medical and legal education.

9. With reference to the National Education Policy, consider the following statements:
1) It aims for 100% Gross Enrolment Ratio in higher education including vocational education by 2035.
2) It envisages that Centre and the States will work together to increase the public investment in Education
sector to reach 6% of GDP at the earliest.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
• NEP 2020 aims to increase the Gross Enrolment Ratio in higher education including vocational education
from 26.3% (2018) to 50% by 2035.
• The Centre and the States will work together to increase the public investment in Education sector to
reach 6% of GDP at the earliest.
10. Consider the following statements with reference to National Education Policy (NEP) 2020:
1) It envisages the use of mother tongue or regional or Indian languages as the medium of instruction until
at least Grade 5, and preferably till Grade 8 and beyond.
2) It also highlights the significant cognitive advantages of multilingualism for young learners, particularly
when they were exposed to several languages from the foundational stage.
Select the correct statements using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
• Statements 1 and 2 are correct. NEP 2020 envisages the use of mother tongue or regional or Indian
languages as the medium of instruction until at least Grade 5, and preferably till Grade 8 and beyond.
• It also highlights the significant cognitive advantages of multilingualism for young learners, particularly
when they were exposed to several languages from the foundational stage.

11. The governing council of NITI aayog consists of ?

1) Chief Ministers of all states.
2) Lt. Governors of union territories.
3) Vice President
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three

Page 5 of 36
 (d) None of the above
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
• The Aayog will be a lean organization, modeled as a network of expertise, focusing on functionality,
flexibility and domain knowledge, with the following ‘structure’ and ‘mechanism’:
Members:
• Prime Minister of India (Chairperson)
• Chief Ministers(States and Union Territories with legislature)
• Lt Governors of other UTs
• Ex-Officio Members
• Vice Chairman, NITI Aayog
• Full-Time Members, NITI Aayog
• Special Invitees

12. Consider the following statements :

1) It is the Governor of the State who recognizes and declares any community of that States as a Scheduled
Tribe.
2) A community declared as a Scheduled Tribe in a State need not be so in another State.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 and 2
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is incorrect. According to Article 342 of the Constitution of India, the President (not the
Governor of the state) may, with respect to any State or Union territory, after consultation with the
Governor of the state specify the community who is deemed to be scheduled tribes in relation to that
state or Union Territory.
• Statement 2 is correct. Supreme Court of India has clarified through various judgements that a
community declared as Scheduled Tribe on one state need not to be so in another state.

13. Consider the following:

1) Composite Water Management Index
2) Sustainable Development Goals Index
3) Financial Inclusion Index
4) India Innovation Index
Which of the above Indices are released by the NITI Aayog?
(a) 1 ,2 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) All of the above
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
• Some of the indices launched by NITI Aayog are School Education Quality Index, State Health Index,
Composite Water Management Index, Sustainable Development Goals Index, India Innovation Index
and Export Competitiveness Index.
• Financial Inclusion Index is released by the Reserve Bank of India.

Page 6 of 36
14. Consider the following statements regarding Classical languages and Eighth Schedule of Indian
Constitution
1) All the Classical Languages are listed in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution.
2) Unlike classical languages, there are no fixed criteria or guidelines for any language to be considered for
inclusion in the Eighth Schedule.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
• Both the statements are correct.
About Classical languages:
• Currently there are six languages that enjoy the ‘Classical’ status in India.
• The Ministry of Culture provides the guidelines regarding Classical languages. These are,
• High antiquity of its early texts/recorded history over a period of 1500-2000 years;
• A body of ancient literature/texts, which is considered a valuable heritage by generations of speakers.
• The literary tradition is original and not borrowed from another speech community.
• The classical language and literature being distinct from modern, there may also be a discontinuity
between the classical language and its later forms or its offshoots.
• All the Classical Languages are listed in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution.

Oct 2024 news

• The Union Cabinet has approved classical language status for five new languages: Marathi, Bengali,
Assamese, Pali and Prakrit.
• India’s Classical Languages
• Prior to this decision, India had six classical languages: Tamil, Telugu, Malayalam, Kannada, Sanskrit
and Odia.
• Tamil was the first to receive classical status in 2004, followed by Sanskrit in 2005.
Current criteria for Declaring a Language as Classical
i) Antiquity:
• The language must have early texts or recorded history spanning 1500-2000 years.
ii) Literary Heritage:
• The language should have a body of ancient literature or texts considered valuable heritage by generations
of speakers.
iii) Original Literary Tradition:
• The literary tradition should be original and not borrowed from another speech community.
iv) Distinctiveness:
• The classical language and its literature should be distinct from the modern form, and there may be a
discontinuity between the classical language and its later forms or offshoots.
Languages with Classical Status:
• Tamil declared in 2004, Sanskrit declared in 2005, Kannada declared in 2008, Telugu declared in 2008,
Malayalam declared in 2013 and Odia declared in 2014.

15. With reference to “One Nation, One Election” consider the following statements:
1) It refers to the idea of holding simultaneous polls for State Assemblies and the Lok Sabha instead of
separate and continuous elections.
2) It will help in increasing accountability of the government.
3) Simultaneous elections would require amending Article 83 of the Indian Constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
Page 7 of 36
 (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b)
Explanation :
• Statements 1 and 3 are correct. One Nation, One Election refers to the idea of holding simultaneous
polls for State Assemblies and the Lok Sabha instead of separate and continuous elections.
Simultaneous elections would require amending Article 83 (relating to the duration of Houses of
Parliament) of the Indian Constitution.
• Statement 2 is incorrect. Holding simultaneous elections would reduce accountability of the
government. Regular state elections serve as feedback mechanism for the political parties.

16. The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 transferred five subjects to Concurrent List from State List.
Which of the following is/are transferred subject/s?
1) Education
2) Forests
3) Land
Choose the correct answer from below given codes:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
• The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 transferred five subjects to Concurrent List from State List, that is,
• education,
• forests,
• weights and measures,
• protection of wild animals and birds, and
• Administration of justice; constitution and organisation of all courts except the Supreme Court and the
high courts.

17. A State law made upon the subjects mentioned in the Concurrent list shall prevail over Union laws
under which of the following circumstances?
1) If law made by the State legislature reserved for the consideration of the President and received his/her
assent.
2) If the law made by the State legislature aims to give effect to the provisions of fundamental rights.
3) If the Supreme court of India directed states to make laws on the subject enumerated in the concurrent
list.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct:
• The laws made by the State legislative assembly may prevail over laws made by the Parliament if such
laws were reserved for the consideration of the President and received the president’s assent.
• However, it would still be competent for Parliament to override such State law by subsequent
legislation.
Statement 2 is incorrect:
Page 8 of 36
 • There is no such exemption given to the state legislative assembly in matters related to concurrent list. If
there is conflict over centre and state laws regarding matters enumerated in the concurrent list, then
centre law shall prevail generally.
Statement 3 is incorrect:
• There is no such exceptional condition for the state laws to prevail over union law in case of
inconsistency between them with respect to concurrent list.

18. With reference to Centre-State relations on matters enumerated in the Concurrent List, consider
the following statements:
1) In case of any dispute in jurisdiction of subjects, Concurrent List takes precedence over both the State
List and the Union list.
2) Generally, the state government executes laws on Concurrent subject even if enacted by the Centre.
3) The President can legislate on subjects in concurrent list, only if authorised by both houses of
Parliament.
How many of the above given statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) None of the above
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
• The constitution of India has divided legislative subjects into 3 categories – Union List, State List and
Concurrent List (enumerated in Schedule VII). The Concurrent List contains subjects/ matters on which
both the Centre and the states can make laws.
• Statement 1 is incorrect: In case of any dispute or overlap in jurisdiction of subjects, the Constitution
provides that Union List takes precedence over both the others, followed by the Concurrent List which
takes precedence over State List.
• Statement 2 is correct: The Constitution has provided that the Execution of a law enacted on a subject
in the Concurrent list lies with the state government ordinarily. This means even if that particular
legislation on Concurrent list subject has been enacted by the Union, it is executed by the state
government. Hence this statement is correct.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: The President is a part of the Executive. As such the Constitution does not
provide for the President/Executive to legislate on any matter, be it in Concurrent list, or Union or State
List. The President can only promulgate ordinances, that too when the Parliament is not in session (Thus
it is the Council of Ministers, not the parliament, on the directions of which President promulgate
ordinances).

19. NITI Aayog is the premier policy ‘Think Tank’ of the Government of India. In this context, consider
the following statements:
1) One of the objectives of NITI Aayog is to formulate credible plans at the village level and aggregate
these progressively at higher levels of government.
2) The regional council of NITI Aayog is headed by the union home minister.
3) The erstwhile Planning Commission was established by an executive resolution whereas NITI Aayog is
established under a Legislative Act.
How many of the above given statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None of the above
Answer: (a)
Explanation:

Page 9 of 36
 • On January 1, 2015, the NITI Aayog (National Institution for Transforming India) was established as
the successor to the planning commission. NITI Aayog is the premier policy ‘Think Tank’ of the
Government of India, providing both directional and policy inputs.
• Statement 1 is correct: The NITI Aayog will develop mechanisms to formulate credible plans to the
village level and aggregate these progressively at higher levels of government. It will ensure special
attention to the sections of society that may be at risk of not benefitting adequately from economic
progress.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Regional Council of NITI Aayog: These are formed to address specific issues
and contingencies impacting more than one state or a region. These are formed for a specified tenure.
These are convened by the Prime Minister. It comprises of the following. 1. Chief Ministers of States 2.
Lt. Governors of Union Territories in the region. 3. These are chaired by the Chairperson of the NITI
Aayog or his nominee.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: The NITI Aayog, like that of the Planning Commission, was also created by an
executive resolution of the Government of India (i.e., Union Cabinet). Hence, it is a non-constitutional
or extra-constitutional body (i.e., not created by the Constitution) and a nonstatutory body (not created
by an Act of the Parliament).

20. Which of the following are recognised as classical languages?

1) Tamil
2) Sanskrit
3) Marathi
4) Odia
5) Malayalam
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2, and 3 only
(b) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
• In 2004, the Government of India decided to create new category of languages called as “classical
languages”. In 2006, it laid down the criteria for conferring the classical language status. Six languages
are granted the classical language status so far.
• Tamil language is a member of the Dravidian language family that is spoken primarily in India. It is the
official language of the Indian state of Tamil Nadu and the union territory of Puducherry (Pondicherry).
It is also an official language in Sri Lanka and Singapore. And one of the classical languages in India
recognised in 2004 by government of India.
• Sanskrit is an ancient and classical language of India. The Vedas are dated by different scholars from
6500 B.C. to 1500 B.C. Sanskrit language must have evolved to its expressive capability prior to that. It
is presumed that the language used in Vedas was prevalent in the form of different dialects. It was to
some extent different from the present Sanskrit. Sanskrit is already having special status in India under
article 351 and Sanskrit was declared classical language in 2005.
• Odia is billed as the first language from the Indo-Aryan linguistic group and the case for making it a
classical language was also premised on the fact that it has no resemblance to Hindi, Sanskrit, Bengali
and Telugu. Odia being one of the oldest languages has been declared as classical language in 2014.
• Malayalam is a language spoken in India, predominantly in the southern state of Kerala. It is one of the
22 scheduled languages of India and was designated a classical language of India in 2013. Malayalam
has official status in Kerala and the union territories of Lakshadweep and Puducherry. It belongs to the
Tamil family of languages and is spoken by more than 35 million people, according to the 2011 census.
• Marathi is now a classical language in India, as the Union Cabinet granted it this status on October 3,
2024

Page 10 of 36
21. What is gene therapy?
(a) The process of replacing a faulty gene with a healthy one.
(b) A technique for modifying the genetic makeup of an organism.
(c) A method to treat genetic disorders by altering the expression of genes.
(d) All of the above.
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
• Gene therapy encompasses all of the above aspects: replacing faulty genes, modifying genetic makeup,
and altering gene expression to treat genetic disorders.

22. Which of the following is NOT a common vector used in gene therapy?
(a) Viruses
(b) Bacteria
(c) Liposomes
(d) Plasmids
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
• While viruses and liposomes are commonly used vectors, bacteria are not typically employed in gene
therapy due to their potential for causing infections and immune responses.

23. What is the primary challenge in delivering genes to target cells?

(a) Identifying the correct gene to replace.
(b) Overcoming the body's immune response to the therapy.
(c) Ensuring the gene is expressed correctly in the target cells.
(d) All of the above
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
• All of these factors pose significant challenges in gene therapy. Identifying the correct gene, avoiding
immune rejection, and ensuring proper gene expression are crucial for successful therapy.

24. What is CRISPR-Cas9 gene editing?

(a) A technique for precisely cutting and editing DNA sequences.
(b) A natural defense mechanism found in bacteria.
(c) A tool used to introduce new genes into cells.
(d) Both A and B.
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
• CRISPR-Cas9 is a powerful tool that harnesses a bacterial defense mechanism to precisely edit DNA
sequences, making it a valuable tool in gene therapy research.

25. What is the potential of gene therapy in treating genetic disorders?

(a) It could offer a cure for many inherited diseases.
(b) It could improve the quality of life for patients with genetic disorders.
(c) It could prevent the transmission of genetic diseases to future generations.
(d) All of the above.
Answer: (d)
Explanation:

Page 11 of 36
 • Gene therapy holds the potential to revolutionize the treatment of genetic disorders by offering cures,
improving quality of life, and potentially preventing the transmission of genetic diseases.
26. What are some of the ethical concerns surrounding gene therapy?
(a) The potential for unintended consequences.
(b) The risk of creating designer babies.
(c) The accessibility and affordability of gene therapy.
(d) All of the above.
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
• Ethical concerns surrounding gene therapy include potential unintended consequences, the risk of creating
genetically modified humans, and ensuring equitable access to this technology.
27. What is the current status of gene therapy research?
(a) Gene therapy is a well-established treatment for many genetic disorders.
(b) Gene therapy is still in the experimental stage, with limited clinical trials.
(c) Gene therapy has shown promising results in recent years, with several approved therapies.
(d) Gene therapy is no longer being researched due to safety concerns.
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
• Gene therapy research has made significant progress, with several approved therapies and ongoing
clinical trials for various genetic disorders.

28. What is the role of gene therapy in cancer treatment?

(a) Gene therapy can be used to boost the immune system's ability to fight cancer.
(b) Gene therapy can be used to introduce genes that make cancer cells more susceptible to treatment.
(c) Gene therapy can be used to deliver targeted cancer drugs directly to tumor cells.
(d) All of the above.
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
• Gene therapy has the potential to revolutionize cancer treatment by enhancing immune response,
increasing tumor cell sensitivity to therapy, and delivering targeted drugs.

29. What is the future of gene therapy?

(a) Gene therapy is likely to become a standard treatment for many genetic disorders.
(b) Gene therapy may be used to treat a wider range of diseases, including neurodegenerative disorders
and aging-related conditions.
(c) Gene therapy may be combined with other emerging technologies, such as nanotechnology, to
improve its effectiveness.
(d) All of the above.
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
• The future of gene therapy is promising, with the potential to become a standard treatment for genetic
disorders, expand to other diseases, and benefit from integration with other technologies.

30. What is the most recent breakthrough in gene therapy?

(a) The development of CRISPR-Cas9 gene editing technology.
(b) The successful treatment of a rare genetic disorder using gene therapy.
(c) The development of a gene therapy that can target multiple diseases.
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 (d) The approval of the first gene therapy for a common genetic disorder.
Answer: The answer to this will depend on the latest news and research in the field of gene therapy. Stay
updated on the latest developments to answer this accurately.

31. Consider the following statements:

1) Gene therapy can be used to treat both genetic and acquired diseases.
2) Gene therapy only targets somatic cells, not germ cells.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
• Gene therapy has the potential to treat a wide range of diseases, including inherited genetic disorders and
acquired diseases like cancer.
• However, current gene therapy techniques primarily target somatic cells, ensuring that any genetic
modifications are not passed on to future generations.

32. Consider the following statements:

1) Viral vectors are the most commonly used delivery vehicles for gene therapy.
2) Viral vectors can trigger immune responses in the body.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
• Viruses have evolved efficient mechanisms to deliver their genetic material into cells. This makes them
attractive as vectors for gene therapy.
• However, the use of viral vectors can sometimes trigger immune responses, which can limit their
effectiveness.

33. Consider the following statements:

1) Gene therapy has been successfully used to treat certain types of cancer.
2) Gene therapy can be used to enhance the body's immune response to cancer cells.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
• Gene therapy has shown promise in cancer treatment by modifying immune cells to recognize and attack
tumor cells more effectively.
• This approach, known as adoptive cell therapy, has demonstrated significant success in certain types of
cancer.

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34. Consider the following statements:
1) Gene therapy is a highly expensive treatment.
2) The cost of gene therapy is primarily due to the complex manufacturing process.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
• The development and production of gene therapies involve intricate processes, including the design of
genetic constructs, the production of viral vectors, and rigorous quality control measures.
• These factors contribute to the high cost of gene therapy treatments.

35. Consider the following statements:

I) Gene therapy can be used to treat genetic disorders caused by a single gene mutation.
II) Gene therapy is effective for all types of genetic disorders.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct, and Statement II is the correct explanation for
Statement I
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is not the correct explanation for
Statement I
(c) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect
(d) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
• Gene therapy is most effective for genetic disorders caused by a single gene mutation.
• Complex genetic disorders involving multiple genes or environmental factors may be more challenging to
treat with gene therapy.

36. Consider the following statements:

1) Embryonic stem cells are pluripotent.
2) Adult stem cells are multipotent.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
• Embryonic stem cells can differentiate into any cell type in the body, while adult stem cells are limited to
a specific range of cell types.

37. Consider the following statements:

1) Induced Pluripotent Stem Cells (iPSCs) can be generated from adult cells.
2) iPSCs have the potential to revolutionize regenerative medicine.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
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Answer: (c)
Explanation:
• iPSCs are created by reprogramming adult cells into a pluripotent state.
• They offer a promising approach for cell-based therapies and disease modeling.

38. Consider the following statements:

1) Stem cell research has ethical implications.
2) The source of embryonic stem cells raises ethical concerns.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) Both 1 and 2
(c) 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
• The use of embryonic stem cells involves ethical considerations, particularly regarding the source of these
cells and their potential impact on human development.
39. Consider the following statements:
1) Reproductive cloning aims to produce a genetically identical organism.
2) Therapeutic cloning aims to produce stem cells for research purposes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) Both 1 and 2
(c) 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
• Reproductive cloning involves creating a genetically identical copy of an organism, while therapeutic
cloning focuses on generating stem cells for medical applications.

40. Consider the following statements:

I : Dolly the sheep was the first mammal cloned from an adult cell.
II : Cloning is a highly efficient process.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct, and Statement II is the correct explanation for
Statement I
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is not the correct explanation for
Statement I
(c) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect
(d) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
• While Dolly the sheep was a significant breakthrough, cloning remains a complex process with low
success rates.
41. Consider the following statements:
1) Cloning has potential applications in agriculture.
2) Cloning can be used to produce genetically identical animals with desirable traits.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) Both 1 and 2
(c) 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
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Answer: (b)
Explanation:
• Cloning can be used to produce genetically identical animals with specific traits, such as increased milk
production or disease resistance.

42. Consider the following statements:

1) CRISPR-Cas9 is a powerful gene editing tool.
2) CRISPR-Cas9 can be used to introduce specific changes in the genome.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) Both 1 and 2
(c) 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
• CRISPR-Cas9 allows precise editing of the DNA sequence, enabling researchers to modify genes with
high accuracy.
43. Consider the following statements:
I) CRISPR-Cas9 has potential applications in treating genetic diseases.
II) CRISPR-Cas9 is currently widely used in clinical settings.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct, and Statement II is the correct explanation for
Statement I
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is not the correct explanation for
Statement I
(c) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect
(d) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct
Answer: (c) Explanation:
• While CRISPR-Cas9 holds great promise for treating genetic diseases, its clinical applications are still in
the early stages of development and subject to rigorous testing.
44. Consider the following statements:
1: Base editing is a precise form of gene editing.
2: Base editing can change one DNA base pair to another.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) Both 1 and 2
(c) 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Explanation:
• Base editing allows for targeted modification of specific DNA bases without introducing double-strand
breaks.

45. Consider the following statements:

1) RNA interference (RNAi) can be used to silence gene expression.
2) RNAi is a natural process found in cells.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) Both 1 and 2
(c) 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
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Answer: (b)
Explanation:
• RNA interference is a cellular mechanism that regulates gene expression by targeting specific mRNA
molecules for degradation.

46. In the context of Article 13(3) of the Indian Constitution, which of the following are considered
"laws" subject to judicial review for consistency with fundamental rights?
1) Ordinances issued by the President or Governors.
2) Customs and usages that have the force of law.
3) Rules and regulations made by a government authority.
4) Judicial decisions of the Supreme Court.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2, and 3 only
(c) 1, 2, 3, and 4
(d) 2 and 4 only
Answer: (b) 1, 2, and 3 only
Explanation:
• Article 13(3) defines "law" broadly to include ordinances, orders, bye-laws, rules, regulations, customs,
and usages that have the force of law within India.
• Statement 1: Ordinances issued by the President or Governors are temporary laws with legal force and
are subject to judicial review under Article 13 if they violate fundamental rights.
• Statement 2: Customs and usages that have the force of law are also included under "law" as defined by
Article 13(3). Such customs are recognized by courts and can be challenged if they conflict with
fundamental rights.
• Statement 3: Rules and regulations made by government authorities are also considered "law" as per
Article 13(3) and are subject to judicial review for compliance with fundamental rights.
• Statement 4: Judicial decisions of the Supreme Court do not fall under the definition of "law" in Article
13(3) because these decisions interpret and apply the law rather than create it. Hence, they are not
included in the list of "laws" subject to review under Article 13.
Therefore, the correct answer is B) 1, 2, and 3 only.

47. Which of the following statements correctly explains the relationship between fundamental rights
and constitutional amendments in the Indian Constitution?
(a) The Constitution allows Parliament to make laws that may override fundamental rights.
(b) Constitutional amendments automatically override any conflicting fundamental rights.
(c) Constitutional amendments made under Article 368 are not subject to Article 13, meaning they cannot
be challenged solely for violating fundamental rights.
(d) Any law that conflicts with fundamental rights will be automatically declared invalid.
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
• Constitutional amendments made under Article 368 are not subject to Article 13, meaning they cannot be
challenged solely for violating fundamental rights.
• Constitutional Amendments and Fundamental Rights: The Indian Constitution clarifies that
constitutional amendments made under Article 368 are not restricted by the provisions related to
fundamental rights. This means that constitutional amendments are not considered "laws" under Article
13 and cannot be struck down solely on the grounds of violating fundamental rights.
• Limitations: However, in the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973), the Supreme Court held that while
Parliament can amend the Constitution, it cannot alter the basic structure. Therefore, constitutional
amendments are still subject to judicial review if they violate the basic structure.

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48. Which of the following best describes the principle of "Equality Before Law" as mentioned in Article 14
of the Indian Constitution?
(a) Treating everyone identically, without any distinction.
(b) Ensuring that everyone has equal access to resources regardless of needs.
(c) The absence of any special privileges in favor of any individual, and that all are subject to the same
laws.
(d) The government's power to make discretionary decisions in certain cases.
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
• Equality Before Law in Article 14 is derived from British law and means that every individual,
regardless of status, is subject to the same laws and has no special privileges. This principle upholds
equal treatment and does not necessarily imply identical treatment, as reasonable classifications may
still apply.

49. Article 14 of the Indian Constitution incorporates the principle of "Equal Protection of the Laws".
Which of the following statements is correct regarding this principle?
1) It allows reasonable classification based on intelligible differentia.
2) It mandates absolute equality in all circumstances without any classifications.
3) It requires that laws apply equally to individuals in similar situations.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: (a) 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
• Equal Protection of the Laws is derived from American law and means treating people in similar
situations alike.
• Reasonable classification is permitted under Article 14, provided it is based on intelligible differentia (a
clear distinction) and has a rational nexus with the law's objective. Absolute equality without
classification is not mandated.

50. Which of the following is an example of reasonable classification under Article 14?
(a) Denying voting rights based on religion.
(b) Reserving certain government jobs for residents of a specific state for administrative convenience.
(c) Providing public services only to people above a certain income threshold.
(d) Denying admission to women in public colleges.
Answer: (b) Reserving certain government jobs for residents of a specific state for administrative convenience.
Explanation:
• Reasonable classification is allowed under Article 14 if it is based on intelligible differentia and serves a
legitimate purpose.
• Reserving certain positions for state residents, especially in administrative or local roles, can be justified
under reasonable classification as it aims to serve the local population effectively.
• The other options involve discrimination that cannot be reasonably justified.

51. In which landmark case did the Supreme Court of India link Article 14 with Articles 19 and 21 to
interpret that any law violating "fair, just, and reasonable" principles would be struck down?
(a) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
(b) Minerva Mills v. Union of India
(c) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
(d) Golaknath v. State of Punjab
Answer: (c) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
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Explanation:
• In Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978), the Supreme Court expanded the interpretation of Article
14 by linking it with Articles 19 (Right to Freedom) and 21 (Right to Life and Personal Liberty).
• The Court ruled that any law infringing on personal liberty must be fair, just, and reasonable,
broadening the scope of Article 14 to ensure due process and protection against arbitrary state action.

52. Which of the following is NOT a valid classification under Article 14?
(a) Reserving seats in educational institutions for economically weaker sections.
(b) Reserving job positions based on religious preference for public sector jobs.
(c) Providing maternity leave benefits specifically for women employees.
(d) Providing extra support to differently-abled persons in public spaces.
Answer: (b) Reserving job positions based on religious preference for public sector jobs.
Explanation:
• Under Article 14, reasonable classification is permitted to achieve social equality or to support
marginalized groups.
• Religious preference in public sector jobs would constitute discrimination based solely on religion,
which is not considered a reasonable classification. The other options serve specific, socially relevant
purposes and do not violate Article 14

53. Article 15 of the Indian Constitution prohibits discrimination on specific grounds. Which of the
following grounds are covered under Article 15?
1) Religion
2) Caste
3) Place of birth
4) Age
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2, and 3 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2, 3, and 4 (d) 2 and 4 only
Answer: (a) 1, 2, and 3 only
Explanation:
• Article 15 prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, and place of birth.
• Age is not included as a ground for discrimination under Article 15, though age-based distinctions may be
addressed under other articles or laws.

54. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the prohibition on discrimination by the State
in the Indian Constitution?
(a) It allows the State to make special provisions for women and children.
(b) It prohibits any form of discrimination without exceptions.
(c) It applies equally to both the public and private sectors.
(d) It does not allow affirmative action for any group.
Answer: (a) It allows the State to make special provisions for women and children.
Explanation:
• The Constitution’s prohibition on discrimination allows the State to make special provisions for women
and children, recognizing that these groups may require additional support for equity.
• This includes measures like maternity benefits or reservations for women in local bodies, which do not
violate the non-discrimination clause.
55. The Indian Constitution provides that no citizen shall be discriminated against on certain grounds in
accessing public spaces. Which of the following statements is correct regarding this?
(a) Discrimination based on residence is prohibited in public spaces.
(b) Citizens cannot be denied access to public spaces such as hotels, restaurants, and places of
entertainment based on their caste, religion, or gender.

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 (c) Private entities are exempt from this provision on non-discrimination in public spaces.
(d) Discrimination is prohibited only in government-owned establishments.
Answer: (b) Citizens cannot be denied access to public spaces such as hotels, restaurants, and places of
entertainment based on their caste, religion, or gender.
Explanation:
• The Constitution mandates that all citizens must have equal access to public spaces like hotels,
restaurants, wells, roads, and places of entertainment, without discrimination on grounds such as
caste, religion, sex, or place of birth.
• This includes privately operated public spaces, ensuring that they are accessible to all citizens.

56. A specific amendment to the Indian Constitution allows the State to provide reservations in private
educational institutions for certain groups. Which of the following groups are eligible for this
provision?
(a) Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and Other Backward Classes, excluding minority institutions
(b) Economically weaker sections, including in minority institutions
(c) All backward communities, with no exceptions for minority institutions
(d) Only Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes, excluding private institutions
Answer: (a) Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and Other Backward Classes, excluding minority
institutions
Explanation:
• An amendment to the Indian Constitution introduced a provision for reservations in private educational
institutions for Scheduled Castes (SCs), Scheduled Tribes (STs), and Other Backward Classes (OBCs).
• However, minority institutions are exempt from this reservation policy to protect their cultural and
educational autonomy.

57. Which of the following accurately describes the balance between the Indian Constitution's
prohibition of discrimination and affirmative action policies?
(a) The Constitution allows no exceptions to its prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion,
caste, or gender.
(b) The Constitution permits special provisions for socially and educationally backward classes and
marginalized groups, despite its prohibition on discrimination.
(c) The Constitution prohibits the State from implementing any form of affirmative action for
disadvantaged communities.
(d) The Constitution only allows affirmative action for economically weaker sections.
Answer: (b) The Constitution permits special provisions for socially and educationally backward classes
and marginalized groups, despite its prohibition on discrimination.
Explanation:
• Although the Constitution prohibits discrimination on grounds like caste, religion, and sex, it allows
affirmative action for socially and educationally backward classes, Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes,
women, and children.
• This helps promote equal opportunities and equity in areas like education and employment.

58. The concept of Rule of Law is foundational to democratic governance. Which of the following
principles are essential to the Rule of Law as understood in constitutional democracies?
1) Supremacy of Law
2) Equality before the Law
3) Judicial Independence
4) Concentration of Power in the Executive
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2, and 3 only (b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3, and 4
Answer: (a) 1, 2, and 3 only
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Explanation:
• The Rule of Law upholds principles like the supremacy of law (no one is above the law), equality
before the law (equal treatment for all citizens), and judicial independence (an impartial judiciary
ensures fair application of laws).
• However, concentration of power in the executive is against the Rule of Law, as the concept supports a
separation of powers to avoid authoritarian governance.

59. Which of the following statements best reflects the principle of equality before the law as a
component of the Rule of Law?
(a) Only citizens with higher social standing should face stricter legal standards.
(b) All individuals, regardless of their status or position, are subject to the same laws and legal
processes.
(c) The judiciary has the discretion to apply the law differently based on an individual’s social
background.
(d) The Rule of Law allows for certain privileges to high-ranking government officials.
Answer: (b) All individuals, regardless of their status or position, are subject to the same laws and legal
processes.
Explanation:
• Equality before the law means that everyone, regardless of their social, economic, or political status, is
subject to the same laws.
• This principle ensures that no person or group is above the law, and it is essential to maintaining fairness
and justice in a society governed by the Rule of Law

60. Which of the following best describes the principle of equality of opportunity in public employment
as provided by the Indian Constitution?
(a) The State shall provide equal opportunities only to citizens from economically weaker sections in
public employment.
(b) All citizens shall have equal opportunity in matters related to public employment, without
discrimination based on religion, race, caste, sex, descent, place of birth, or residence.
(c) Only citizens of specific castes and tribes are eligible for public employment under equal
opportunity.
(d) The Constitution mandates that the State must employ citizens based solely on regional quotas.
Answer: (b) All citizens shall have equal opportunity in matters related to public employment, without
discrimination based on religion, race, caste, sex, descent, place of birth, or residence.
Explanation:
• The Constitution provides for equality of opportunity in public employment for all citizens, prohibiting
discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, descent, place of birth, or residence.
• It ensures that employment opportunities are based on merit and fair selection processes

61. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the Indian Constitution’s stance on residence-
based restrictions in public employment?
(a) The State can impose residence-based restrictions for specific classes of employment, but this is not
a general rule for all public employment.
(b) The Constitution mandates that all public employment opportunities must have residence-based
restrictions.
(c) Public employment is limited only to citizens residing in the capital region of India.
(d) Residence-based restrictions are prohibited for all classes of public employment.
Answer: (a) The State can impose residence-based restrictions for specific classes of employment, but this
is not a general rule for all public employment.
Explanation:

Page 21 of 36
 • The Indian Constitution allows residence-based restrictions in certain specific classes of public
employment to favor local residents, especially for lower-level positions where local knowledge may be
beneficial.
• However, this is not applicable to all public employment and must be backed by legislation.

62. The Indian Constitution includes a provision for reservation in promotions for certain groups in
public employment. Which of the following groups benefit from this provision?
(a) All backward classes regardless of representation
(b) Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs) if they are not adequately represented
(c) Economically weaker sections only
(d) All citizens under a general reservation policy
Answer: (b)) Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs) if they are not adequately represented.
Explanation:
• The Constitution provides for reservation in promotions for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes if
they are not adequately represented in public employment.
• This aims to enhance representation and ensure career growth for these communities in government
services.

63. Which of the following accurately describes the Indian Constitution’s approach to affirmative action
for women and children in public employment?
(a) The State is restricted from making any special provisions for women in public employment.
(b) The Constitution allows special provisions for women and children as part of its approach to
affirmative action.
(c) The State can only make affirmative action policies for economically weaker sections, not
specifically for women or children.
(d) The Constitution mandates that all women and children receive the same employment benefits as
SCs and STs.
Answer: (b) The Constitution allows special provisions for women and children as part of its approach to
affirmative action.
Explanation:
• The Indian Constitution allows the State to make special provisions for women and children to
promote social equity and safeguard their interests.
• This includes policies like maternity benefits, workplace protections, and child welfare programs, which
support these groups in public employment and social welfare.

64. Which of the following principles is upheld by the constitutional guarantee of equality of
opportunity in matters of public employment?
(a) All government jobs must be equally available to citizens without any exceptions.
(b) Equality of opportunity must be provided to all citizens, but reservations can be made for backward
classes that are not adequately represented.
(c) The State can choose to employ citizens based on religious preferences for certain jobs.
(d) Only economically weaker sections are eligible for special consideration in public employment.
Answer: (b) Equality of opportunity must be provided to all citizens, but reservations can be made for
backward classes that are not adequately represented.
Explanation:
• The constitutional provision for equality of opportunity in public employment ensures that everyone has
a fair chance to compete for jobs, but it also allows for reservations for socially and educationally
backward classes if they are inadequately represented in government services.
65. The Constitution allows Parliament to enact laws prescribing residence-based criteria for certain
public employment opportunities. In which of the following scenarios is this restriction typically
applied?
Page 22 of 36
 (a) For senior government positions requiring specialized knowledge.
(b) For local government or administrative roles where local knowledge is beneficial.
(c) For employment in central government positions across states.
(d) For all positions within the Indian administrative services.
Answer: (b) For local government or administrative roles where local knowledge is beneficial.
Explanation:
• The Constitution allows residence-based restrictions for specific public employment roles, especially in
local government and administrative positions where local knowledge may be advantageous for
effective governance.
• This is not a blanket rule but applies to specific classes of jobs.

66. If a country is a signatory to an international environmental convention, it implies that the country
has committed to adhering to the principles and goals set forth by the convention. Which one of the
following statements best reflects the obligations of a signatory country under an international
environmental treaty?"
(a) The country must immediately implement all provisions of the treaty without any exceptions.
(b) The country has to regularly submit reports on the steps taken to implement the treaty's provisions.
(c) The country is legally bound to impose sanctions on other countries not following the treaty.
(d) The country must provide financial support to developing nations as mandated by the treaty.
Answer: (b) The country has to regularly submit reports on the steps taken to implement the treaty's
provisions.
Explanation:
• Being a signatory to an international environmental convention generally means the country agrees to
follow the principles of the treaty and take measures toward its implementation.
• A common obligation is the regular submission of reports that detail the country's progress and actions in
fulfilling the treaty's objectives.
• This helps in assessing compliance and facilitating international cooperation.

67. Consider the following pairs:

Ramsar Site State/UT
1. Bhitarkanika - Odisha
2. Nalsarovar - Rajasthan
3. Harike Wetland - Punjab
4. Sambhar Lake - Gujarat
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
(a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs
(c) Only three pairs
(d) All four pairs
Answer: (b) Only two pairs
Explanation:
1) Bhitarkanika: Located in Odisha. (Correct)
2) Nalsarovar: Located in Gujarat, not Rajasthan. (Incorrect)
3) Harike Wetland: Located in Punjab. (Correct)
4) Sambhar Lake: Located in Rajasthan, not Gujarat. (Incorrect)

68. Which of the following are part of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve?
(a) Bandipur, Mudumalai, and Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Silent Valley National Park
(b) Periyar, Parambikulam, and Chinnar Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Eravikulam National Park
Page 23 of 36
 (c) Anshi, Kudremukh, and Bhadra Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Bannerghatta National Park
(d) Nagarhole, Papikonda, and Sri Venkateswara Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Mukurthi National Park
Answer: (a) Bandipur, Mudumalai, and Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Silent Valley National Park
Explanation:
• The Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve is located in the Western Ghats and spans across the states of Tamil
Nadu, Kerala, and Karnataka.

69. Which of the following are part of the Cold Desert Biosphere Reserve?
(a) Kullu, Manali, and Great Himalayan National Parks; and Kibber Wildlife Sanctuary
(b) Pin Valley, Spiti, and Chandratal Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Leh-Ladakh National Park
(c) Turtuk, Nubra Valley, and Hemis National Park; and Rann of Kutch Wildlife Sanctuary
(d) Kinnaur, Lahaul, and Tabo Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Suraj Tal National Park
Answer: (b) Pin Valley, Spiti, and Chandratal Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Leh-Ladakh National Park
Explanation:
• The Cold Desert Biosphere Reserve is located in the Himachal Pradesh and Ladakh regions of India,
specifically in the Trans-Himalayan region.

70. Which of the following are part of the Great Nicobar Biosphere Reserve?
(a) Great Nicobar Island, Galathea Bay, and Campbell Bay; and Barren Island
(b) Great Nicobar Island, Campbell Bay, and Trellis Island; and Little Andaman Island
(c) Great Nicobar Island, Galathea Bay, and Campbell Bay; and Nicobar Islands
(d) Great Nicobar Island, Kamorta Island, and Car Nicobar Island; and Little Andaman Island
Answer: (c) Great Nicobar Island, Galathea Bay, and Campbell Bay; and Nicobar Islands
Explanation:
• The Great Nicobar Biosphere Reserve is located in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands in the Bay of
Bengal, and is one of the most ecologically important areas in India.
• It includes Great Nicobar Island, Galathea Bay, and Campbell Bay (which are located on the Great
Nicobar Island) as key areas within the reserve.
• The biosphere reserve also covers the Nicobar Islands, which are part of the archipelago.

71. Consider the following pairs:

Biosphere Reserve Location
1) Sundarbans Biosphere Reserve West Bengal
2) Kanha Biosphere Reserve Madhya Pradesh
3) Pench Biosphere Reserve Maharashtra
4) Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve Uttarakhand
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer:(c) 1, 2 and 4 only

72. In the context of Biosphere Reserves, which of the following correctly describes the areas of the core,
buffer, and transition zones?
(a) Core Zone - Area of utmost protection, where human activities are prohibited
Buffer Zone - Area where limited human activities like research and ecotourism are allowed
Transition Zone -Area where sustainable human activities like agriculture and habitation are allowed.
(b) Core Zone - Area where sustainable human activities are allowed
Buffer Zone - Area where no human activities are permitted

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 Transition Zone - Area for research and ecological restoration.
(c) Core Zone - Area for habitation and agriculture
Buffer Zone: Area for ecotourism
Transition Zone - Area where industrial activities are promoted.
(d) Core Zone - Area for conservation of biodiversity
Buffer Zone - Area for habitat restoration
Transition Zone - Area where logging and mining activities are encouraged.
Answer: (a) Core Zone: Area of utmost protection, where human activities are prohibited; Buffer Zone:
Area where limited human activities like research and ecotourism are allowed; Transition Zone: Area
where sustainable human activities like agriculture and habitation are allowed.
Explanation: In the framework of a Biosphere Reserve, the three zones are defined as follows:
1. Core Zone: This is the most protected area of a Biosphere Reserve, designated for conservation of
biodiversity and ecosystems. Human activities are strictly prohibited in this zone to ensure minimal
disturbance to the natural environment.
2. Buffer Zone: This area surrounds the core zone and allows limited human activities such as research,
education, and controlled ecotourism. These activities are regulated to avoid harming the core zone’s
biodiversity.
3. Transition Zone: This is the outermost area of the Biosphere Reserve, where sustainable human
activities like agriculture, habitation, and forestry are permitted. The focus is on promoting sustainable
development and conservation, balancing human needs with environmental protection.

73. Consider in-situ conservation and ex-situ conservation methods, respectively

(1) In-situ: National Parks, Wildlife Sanctuaries
(2) Ex-situ: Botanical Gardens, Seed Banks
Which of the above pairs correctly matched?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer(c)
Explanation:
• In-situ conservation refers to the conservation of species in their natural habitats. This method protects
the organisms in the ecosystems where they have naturally evolved, such as within National Parks,
Wildlife Sanctuaries, and Biosphere Reserves. The focus is on preserving the species in their natural
environment, including habitat protection and ecosystem management.
• Ex-situ conservation refers to the conservation of species outside their natural habitats. This involves
practices such as maintaining Botanical Gardens, Seed Banks, and Zoos, where plants and animals are
protected and bred outside their native ecosystems to ensure their survival, particularly when natural
habitats are threatened.
74. Which of the following correctly describes the relationship between sea anemone and clownfish?
(a) Mutualism, where both organisms benefit from the relationship
(b) Commensalism, where the clownfish benefits while the sea anemone remains unaffected
(c) Parasitism, where the clownfish harms the sea anemone for survival
(d) Competition, where both organisms compete for food and space
Answer: (b) Commensalism, where the clownfish benefits while the sea anemone remains unaffected
Explanation:
• The relationship between sea anemones and clownfish is an example of commensalism. In this type of
relationship:
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 • The clownfish benefits because it gets protection from predators by living among the stinging tentacles of
the sea anemone, which deters most other fish from approaching. Additionally, the clownfish often feeds
on small prey or parasites that might harm the anemone.
• The sea anemone is largely unaffected by the presence of the clownfish. It does not benefit or suffer from
the clownfish's presence. The clownfish's movements may even help in the aeration and cleaning of the
anemone's habitat, but these actions do not have a significant impact on the anemone.
75. Which of the following are the criteria for identifying a Biodiversity Hotspot, and which of these are
correctly matched with their locations?
1) The area must have at least 1,500 species of vascular plants as endemics.
2) The area must have lost at least 70% of its original natural vegetation.
3) The Western Ghats are a biodiversity hotspot.
4) The Amazon Rainforest is a biodiversity hotspot.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a)1and3only
(b)1,2,and3only
(c)2,3,and4only
(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4
Answer: (b) 1, 2, and 3 only
Explanation:
Here’s the breakdown of the statements:
1. The area must have at least 1,500 species of vascular plants as endemics.
o Correct: This is one of the key criteria for identifying a biodiversity hotspot. The area should have a
significant number of endemic species, which are species found nowhere else in the world.
2. The area must have lost at least 70% of its original natural vegetation.
o Correct: Another essential criterion for a biodiversity hotspot is that it must have lost at least 70% of
its original habitat, which indicates a high level of endangerment.
3. The Western Ghats are a biodiversity hotspot.
o Correct: The Western Ghats (in India) are recognized as one of the world's biodiversity hotspots due
to their unique and rich flora and fauna.
4. The Amazon Rainforest is a biodiversity hotspot.
o Incorrect: While the Amazon Rainforest is rich in biodiversity, it is not considered a "biodiversity
hotspot" based on the strict criteria of the hotspot concept. Although it meets the first criterion of
endemic species, it has not yet reached the required level of habitat loss (70%) for it to be officially
classified as a hotspot.
Thus, statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct.

76. Consider the following sites:

1) Kaziranga National Park
2) Sundarbans National Park
3) Keoladeo National Park
4) Western Ghats
Which of the above are recognized as UNESCO World Natural Heritage Sites?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2, 3, and 4 only
(c) 1, 3, and 4 only
(d) All of the above
Answer: (d) All of the above
Explanation:
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These sites are designated as UNESCO World Natural Heritage Sites:
1. Kaziranga National Park (Assam) – Recognized for its exceptional biodiversity and large population
of Indian rhinoceroses.
2. Sundarbans National Park (West Bengal) – Notable for being the largest tidal halophytic mangrove
forest in the world.
3. Keoladeo National Park (Rajasthan) – A bird sanctuary and significant wetland.
4. Western Ghats – Known for its biodiversity, rich ecosystems, and large numbers of endemic species.

77. Consider the following statements regarding ecological niche and habitat:
1) A habitat refers to the physical environment where an organism lives, while an ecological niche includes
the role and function of the organism within that environment.
2) An ecological niche is unique to each species, but a habitat can be shared by multiple species.
3) The concept of an ecological niche focuses solely on the physical space occupied by the species.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) All of the above
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: Habitat refers to the physical location where an organism lives, while an
ecological niche encompasses the organism's role, interactions, and position in its ecosystem.
• Statement 2 is correct: The ecological niche of a species is unique, while a habitat can be shared among
different species.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: An ecological niche involves not only the physical space but also the species'
behaviors, diet, and interactions within its ecosystem.
Thus, only statements 1 and 2 are correct.

78. Consider the following statements regarding wetlands and estuaries:

1) Wetlands are areas where water saturates the soil, while estuaries are specifically where freshwater from
rivers meets and mixes with seawater.
2) Estuaries are always a type of wetland, but not all wetlands are estuaries.
3) Wetlands can be found both inland and along coastlines, but estuaries are usually found along coastlines.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) All of the above
Answer: (d) All of the above
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: Wetlands are areas where water covers the soil, while estuaries are coastal areas
where freshwater mixes with seawater.
• Statement 2 is correct: Estuaries are a specific type of wetland, but there are many other types of
wetlands that are not estuaries.
• Statement 3 is correct: Wetlands can be found in various environments, both inland and coastal, whereas
estuaries are usually found along coastlines where freshwater and saltwater mix.

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79. Consider the following statements about warm-blooded and cold-blooded animals:
1) Warm-blooded animals can regulate their body temperature internally, while cold-blooded animals
depend on external environmental temperatures.
2) Birds and mammals are examples of warm-blooded animals, whereas reptiles and amphibians are
examples of cold-blooded animals.
3) Cold-blooded animals require more food to maintain their body temperature compared to warm-blooded
animals.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) All of the above
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: Warm-blooded animals, like mammals and birds, can internally regulate their body
temperature, while cold-blooded animals, like reptiles and amphibians, rely on their environment to adjust
their body temperature.
• Statement 2 is correct: Birds and mammals are warm-blooded, whereas reptiles, amphibians, and most
fish are cold-blooded.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: Cold-blooded animals generally require less food than warm-blooded animals
because they do not need to generate heat internally to maintain a stable body temperature.
Thus, only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
80. Consider the following statements regarding invertebrates:
1) All invertebrates are cold-blooded animals.
2) Invertebrates, unlike vertebrates, lack a backbone or spinal column.
3) Some invertebrates can regulate their body temperature like warm-blooded animals.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) All of the above
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: All invertebrates are cold-blooded, meaning they rely on their environment to
regulate their body temperature.
• Statement 2 is correct: Invertebrates do not have a backbone or spinal column, distinguishing them from
vertebrates.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: Invertebrates are unable to regulate their body temperature internally like warm-
blooded animals; they are ectothermic (cold-blooded) and depend on external temperatures.
Thus, only statements 1 and 2 are correct.

81. Consider the following statements regarding the adaptations of animals in cold environments:
1) Animals in cold regions often have shorter ears and limbs to minimize heat loss.
2) Shorter ears help in efficient heat dissipation, allowing these animals to stay cooler in cold climates.
3) These animals typically have a thicker layer of fur or fat for insulation against the cold.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) All of the above
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Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: Animals in cold climates often have shorter ears and limbs to reduce the surface
area through which heat can be lost, helping them retain warmth.
• Statement 3 is correct: Many cold-adapted animals have a thick layer of fur or fat that acts as insulation,
providing protection against low temperatures.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Shorter ears actually help reduce heat dissipation, which is beneficial in cold
climates. Long ears are better for dissipating heat in warm environments, but shorter ears help conserve
heat in cold regions.
Thus, only statements 1 and 3 are correct.

82. Consider the following statements regarding mangroves:

1) Mangroves act as natural barriers against tsunamis and storm surges by absorbing wave energy and
reducing coastal erosion.
2) Mangroves require high salinity levels to survive and do not thrive in freshwater environments.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 only (b 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) neither 1 and 2
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: Mangroves act as natural barriers, absorbing and reducing the energy of waves,
which helps protect coastlines from tsunamis, storm surges, and erosion.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: While mangroves can tolerate high salinity, they do not necessarily require it to
survive; some mangroves can grow in low-salinity environments, such as near river estuaries where
freshwater mixes with saltwater.

83. Consider the following statements about stenohaline and euryhaline organisms:
1) Stenohaline organisms can tolerate a wide range of salinity, while euryhaline organisms are restricted
to a narrow salinity range.
2) Most freshwater fish are stenohaline and cannot survive in highly saline water.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b) 2 only
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: Stenohaline organisms can only tolerate a narrow range of salinity, while
euryhaline organisms can survive in a wide range of salinity conditions.
• Statement 2 is correct: Most freshwater fish are stenohaline, meaning they cannot tolerate high salinity
levels, so they do not survive in salty environments.
84. Consider the following statements regarding an ecotone:
1) An ecotone is a transition area between two different ecosystems, such as a forest and grassland.
2) Ecotones usually have lower biodiversity compared to the adjacent ecosystems because of
environmental stress.
3) The edge effect in an ecotone refers to the higher diversity of species found in these transition zones.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of the above
Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only

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Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: An ecotone is indeed a transition area between two different ecosystems, such as
between a forest and a grassland.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Ecotones often have higher biodiversity due to the presence of species from
both adjacent ecosystems, as well as unique species adapted to the transition area.
• Statement 3 is correct: The "edge effect" refers to the increased species diversity and density often
observed in ecotones, where species from both ecosystems coexist.
Thus, only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
85. Which of the following are currently designated as Ramsar sites in India?
1) Chilika Lake
2) Keoladeo National Park
3) Loktak Lake
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) All of the above
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only
Explanation:
• Keoladeo National Park, and Loktak Lake—are currently designated as Ramsar sites in India.
• Ramsar sites are recognized for their international importance, especially for biodiversity conservation
and wetland ecosystems.

86. Which of the following are calculated as a part of Gross National Product (GNP) of India?
1. Salary sent back home by South Korean Badminton coach in India.
2. Income earned by TCS in USA
3. Transfer payments to India made by foreigner living abroad.
4. Goods produced by Indian company on territory of India.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 2 and 4 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1,3 and 4 only
Answer :(a)
Explanation:
• Gross Domestic Product (GDP) measures the aggregate/total production of final goods and services
taking place within the domestic territory of the country during a year. But it may be possible that the
foreign Gross Domestic Product (GDP) measures the aggregate/total production of final goods and
services taking place within the domestic territory of the country during a year. But it may be possible
that the foreign nationals working within India have contributed in that GDP production.
• So, now we are interested in measuring the output/earnings made by Indian residents only whether in
India or abroad which is termed as Gross National Product (GNP). GNP is that income or product which
accrues to the economic agents who are residents of the country. (i.e. income earned by the Non-Resident
Indians (NRIs) will not be part of India's GNP). To calculate GNP, we add the factor income of Indians
from abroad in GDP and subtract the contribution of foreigners in India's GDP. GNP = GDP + Net factor
income from abroad (NFIA)

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87. Providing which of the following services is among the objectives of financial inclusion?
1) A basic no-frills banking account for making and receiving payments
2) Pension system
3) Access to formal source of financing
4) Remittance, or money transfer facilities
5) Life Insurance
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 3 and 4 only
(b) 4 and 5 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The objectives of financial inclusion are to provide the following:
• A basic no-frills banking account for making and receiving payments
• Saving products (including investment and pension)
• Simple credit products and overdrafts linked with no-frills accounts
• Remittance, or money transfer facilities
• Micro insurance (life) and non-micro insurance (life and non-life)
• Micro pension

88. Which of the following statement is correct with reference to disguised unemployment?
(a) Its example includes a worker who has recently quit current job and is looking for a new job.
(b) The marginal productivity of labour in case of disguised unemployment is zero.
(c) Unemployment caused when workers are available but are unable to reach the geographical location
of the jobs.
(d) It happens when a worker decides to leave a job because it is no longer financially compelling.
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
• Disguised unemployment, also known as hidden unemployment, refers to a situation where labour that is
employed in a job is not actually utilised for the production of goods and services. In other words, such
employment does not contribute to the output of an economy and is thus akin to a form of unemployment.
The marginal productivity of labour in case of disguised unemployment is zero.
• A worker who has recently quit current job and is looking for a new job is an example of frictional
unemployment. Unemployment caused when workers are available but are unable to reach the
geographical location of the jobs is structural unemployment.
• Voluntary unemployment happens when a worker decides to leave a job because it is no longer
financially compelling.

89. Which of the following programs are part of the poverty alleviation programme in India?
1. Integrated Rural Development Programme
2. Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana
3. Annapurna Scheme
4. Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana
5. National Urban Livelihood Mission
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 5 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 3, 4 and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
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Answer: (d)
Explanation:
• Some of the Poverty Alleviation Programs of India are:
• Integrated Rural Development Programme (IRDP)
• Pradhan Mantri Awaas Yojana
• National Old Age Pension Scheme
• Annapurna Scheme
• Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA) 2005
• Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana – National Rural Livelihood Mission (DAY-NRLM)
• National Urban Livelihood Mission
• Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana
• Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana Extreme poverty in India has declined by over 12 percentage points
during 2011- 2019, a World Bank working paper has said. This is the second working paper after a recent
International Monetary Fund paper that talked about poverty reduction. However, while the former dealt
with the period before Covid, the latter focuses on the period during the pandemic.

90. Which of the following are examples of Capital Goods?

1) Iron ore
2) Electric arc Furnaces
3) Truck
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
• Capital goods are of durable character which are used in the production process. While they make
production of other commodities feasible, they themselves don’t get transformed in the production
process.
• Capital goods include buildings, machinery, equipment (like Electric Arc Furnaces), vehicles (like truck),
and tools. Capital goods are not finished goods, instead, they are used to make finished goods. Iron ore
itself get transformed in the process. It is not a Capital Good.

91. Consider the following statements:

1) GDP is the market value of all final goods and services produced within a domestic territory of a
country measured in a year.
2) In times of high inflation, nominal GDP will be lower than the Real GDP.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
• Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is the final monetary value of the goods and services produced within the
country during a specified period of time, normally a year. In simple terms, GDP is the measure of the
country's economic output in a year. In India, contributions to GDP are mainly divided into three broad
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 sectors —agriculture, industry, and services. GDP is measured over market prices and there is a base year
for the computation. The GDP growth rate measures how fast the economy is growing.
• Nominal GDP differs from real GDP as the former doesn’t include inflation, while the latter does. As a
result, nominal GDP will most often be higher than real GDP in an expanding economy with high
inflation.

92. Which among the following institutions publishes the Global financial stability report?
(a) World Bank (b) World Economic Forum
(c) Asian Development Bank (d) International Monetary Fund
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
• The Global Financial Stability Report, published by International Monetary Fund (IMF) provides an
assessment of the global financial system and markets, and addresses emerging market financing in a
global context.
• It focuses on current market conditions, highlighting systemic issues that could pose a risk to financial
stability an sustained market access by emerging market borrowers.

93. Which of the following will come under the category of secondary sector of economy?
1. Production of bread and biscuits
2. Fishing activity in coastal areas
3. Health insurance facility for covid- 19 patients
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1 and 3 only
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
• Secondary Sector is rightly called the manufacturing sector, which uses the produce of the primary sector
as its raw materials. Since manufacturing is done by the industries, this sector is also called the industrial
sector—examples are production of bread and biscuits, cakes, automobiles,
• textiles, etc. Primary sector includes all those economic activities where there is the direct use of natural
resources as agriculture, forestry, fishing, fuels, metals, minerals, etc.
• Tertiary Sector includes all economic activities where different ‘services’ are produced such as education,
banking, insurance, transportation, tourism, etc. This sector is also known as the services sector.
94. National Strategy for Financial Inclusion was prepared by which of the following institutions?
(a) Reserve Bank of India
(b) Ministry of Finance
(c) NITI Aayog
(d) National Bank For Agriculture And Rural Development (NABARD)
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
• The National Strategy for Financial Inclusion for India 2019-2024 has been prepared by RBI under the
aegis of the Financial Inclusion Advisory Committee and is based on the inputs and suggestions from
Government of India, other Financial Sector Regulators viz., Securities Exchange Board of India (SEBI),
Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) and Pension Fund Regulatory and
Development Authority of India (PFRDA).

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95. Which among the following is not a feature of Socialist society?
(a) Private Property is almost absent in a socialist society since everything is owned by the state.
(b) Goods produced are distributed among people on the basis of what people need.
(c) The market fully depends on the forces of supply and demand.
(d) Government decides what goods are to be produced in accordance with the needs of society.
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
• A socialist society answers the three questions in a totally different manner. In a socialist society the
government decides what goods are to be produced in accordance with the needs of society. It is assumed
that the government knows what is good for the people of the country and so the desires of individual
consumers are not given much importance.
• The government decides how goods are to be produced and how they should be distributed. In principle,
distribution under socialism is supposed to be based on what people need and not on what they can afford
to purchase. Unlike under capitalism, for example, a socialist nation provides free health care to all its
citizens. Strictly, a socialist society has no private property since everything is owned by the state. In
Cuba and China, for example, most of the economic activities are governed by the socialistic principles.

96. Consider the following statements with reference to the service sector in India:
1) During the last two decades, services have contributed more than manufacturing to India’s output
growth and poverty reduction.
2) The sector contributes more than fifty percent of the Gross State Value Added in all the states.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
• During the last two decades, services have contributed more than manufacturing to India’s output growth,
productivity growth, job growth, and poverty reduction. A majority of FDI inflows into India are
concentrated in the service sector. India has outperformed
• China on productivity growth rate in services. Indeed, growth in services are much faster in India than in
the US. Share of the services sector accounted for 54% of the total GVA in FY21.
• The services sector accounts for more than 50 per cent of the Gross State Value Added (GSVA) in 12 out
of the 33 states and UTs. Chandigarh stands out with a particularly high share of services in GSVA at 74
per cent while Sikkim’s share remains the lowest at 24.25 per cent. Notably, Services share in Sikkim’s
GSVA has increased from over 18 per cent in 2018-19 to over 24 per cent in 2020-21.

97. Consider the following statements about Self-Help Groups (SHGs):

1. The SHGs promote thrift in small proportions by a minimum contribution from each member.
2. Self-Employed Women’s Association (SEWA) is one of the pioneers of the SHG movement in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c)
Explanation:

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 • Self-Help Groups (henceforth SHGs) have emerged to fill the gap in the formal credit system because the
formal credit delivery mechanism has not only proven inadequate but has also not been fully integrated
into the overall rural social and community development. Since some kind of collateral is required, vast
proportion of poor rural households were automatically out of the credit network. The SHGs promote
thrift in small proportions by a minimum contribution from each member. From the pooled money, credit
is given to the needy members to be repayable in small instalments at reasonable interest rates.
• The Self-Employed Women’s Association (SEWA) is a membership-based organization created in 1972
from a combination of the labour, women, and cooperative movements, to organize self-employed
women in the informal economy and assist their collective struggle for social justice, equality, and fair
treatment.
• Self-Employed Women’s Association (SEWA), 1970 has pioneered grass roots self-employed women’s
groups, such as the SHGs, which are the foundation of SEWA’s operations in districts and villages.

98. With reference to depreciation, consider the following statements:

1. Net domestic product is always lesser than gross domestic product.
2. Depreciation does not take into account unexpected destruction of capital.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
• Net domestic product (NDP) is an annual measure of the economic output of a nation that is calculated by
subtracting depreciation from gross domestic product.
• The monetary value of an asset decreases over time due to use, wear and tear or obsolescence. This
decrease is measured as depreciation.
• Depreciation, i.e. a decrease in an asset's value, may be caused by a number of other factors as well such
as unfavorable market conditions, etc. Machinery, equipment,currency are some examples of assets that
are likely to depreciate over a specific period of time. Opposite of depreciation is appreciation which is
increase in the value of an asset over a period of time.
• Depreciation does not take into account unexpected or sudden destruction or disuse of capital as can
happen with accidents, natural calamities or other such extraneous circumstances.

99. In the context of the Indian economy, consider the following statements :
1. Currently, India is the third largest economy in the world in terms of dollar exchange rate.
2. India’s GDP at current prices increased consistently in the last decade.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
• The price of one currency in terms of the other is known as the exchange rate. Recently, as of September
2022, India became the world’s fifth largest economy in terms of exchange rate and has overtaken
Britain. The nominal GDP or GDP at Current Prices in Q1 2022-23 is estimated at ₹ 64.95 lakh crore. As
per the report, the size of the Indian economy in 'nominal' cash terms in the March quarter was $854.7
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 billion while UKs stood at $816 billion. This was on an adjusted basis, using the dollar exchange rate on
the last day of the relevant quarter.
• The National Statistical Office (NSO), Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation has released
the estimates of Gross Domestic Product (GDP) for the April-June quarter (Q1) of 2022-23, the nominal
GDP or GDP at Current Prices in Q1 2022-23 is estimated at ₹ 64.95 lakh crore.
• India’s GDP growth rate in 2012 stood at 5.5% which kept growing until 2017. But due to the course of
the unprecedented COVID-19 pandemic of 2020, India’s GDP growth rate got decreased (a decreasing
trend with a negative GDP growth rate in 2020). 3⁄4 However, the post-pandemic scenario has been
positive for the year 2021, where India’s GDP growth rate took a complete u-turn with a rise of 8.9%
(positive growth in GDP because of many sectors, specifically in the Healthcare Sector has been a major
contributing factor). Hence, India’s GDP at current prices does not increase consistently in the last
decade.
100. Which one of the following releases World Inequality Report?
(a) World Bank
(b) UNDP
(c) World Inequality Lab
(d) International Institute for Environment and Development
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
• The World Inequality Report is published by World Inequality Lab at the Paris School of Economics. It
measures income and wealth inequality systematically and transparently.
• This report is on a global scale which showcases the trend in inequality across the world, providing a
comparative perspective across countries.

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