Sri Chaitanya Educational Institutions, India.

,
 A.P  T.S  KARNATAKA  TAMILNADU  MAHARASTRA  DELHI  RANCHI
A right Choice for the Real Aspirant
Central Office – Bangalore, Karnataka
Sec: Incoming Jr. MEDICON(Reg) Date:29-04-2023
Time:09.00 A.M to 12.00 P.M NEET WEEKEND Max.Marks:720
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Important Instructions:
I. As per latest NEET 2021 Exam Pattern, Each subject comprises of two sections SECTION-A &
SECTION-B
II. SECTION-A will consist of 35 MCQs and SECTION-B will have 15 MCQs, out of these 15
Questions, candidates can choose to attempt any 10 Questions.
III. Correct option marked will be given (4) marks and Incorrect option marked will be (-1) mark.
Unattempted/Unanswered Questions will be given no marks.
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BOTANY Max Marks: 180
SECTION-A
This section contains 35 multiple choice questions.
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and –1 in all other cases.
1. Plant cell differs from animal cell by
1) presence of vacuoles
2) Presence of cell wall and chloroplast
3) Absence of cell wall
4) Absence of chloroplast
2. Many bacteria have small circular DNA outside the genomic DNA. These smaller
DNA are called
1) Phasmids 2) Plastids 3) Plasmids 4) Prophage
3. Several ribosomes may attach to a single mRNA and form a chain called
1) Polysome 2) Polyribosome 3) Phagosome 4) Both 1 and 2
4. Cell organelle present in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells is
1) Ribosomes 2) E.R 3) Mitochondria 4) Nucleus
5. Centrioles and centrosomes occur in the cells of
1) highr plants 2) Animals
3) Bacteria and cyanobacteria 4) both 2 and 3
6. Organelle involved in modification and routing of newly synthesized proteins
to their destination is
1) Chloroplast 2) Lysosome 3) Mitochondrion 4) Golgi complex
7. Depending on the position, membrane proteins can be classified as
1) Saturated and unsaturated
2) Hydrophilic and hydrophobic
3) Integral and peripheral
4) Acidic, basic and neutral
8. Match the columns I and II and choose the correct combination from the options
given
Column I Column II
a Cristae 1 Flat membraneous sacs in stroma
b Cisternae 2 Infolding in matrix
c Thylakoids 3 Disc shaped sacs in golgi apparatus
d Pili 4 Small bristle like fibres
e Fimbriae 5 Elongated tubular structure
1) a-2, b-3, c-1, d-5, e-4 2) a-3, b-1, c-2, d-4, e-5
3) a-2, b-3 , c-1, d-4,e-5 3) a-1, b-3, c-2, d-5, e-4
9. A plant cell has
1) A large central vacuole and rigid cell wall
2) A centriole for cell division
3) A centrosome inactive in non-dividing cells
4) absence of cell membrane
10. Match the columns
Column I Column II
a Endoplasmic reticulum i Cellular respiration
b Ribosome ii Osmoregulation and excretion
c Mitochondrion iii Synthesis of lipids
d Contractile vacuole Iv Synthesis of proteins
1) a-i,b-ii, c-iv, d-iii 2) a-iii, b-iv, c-i d-ii
3) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv 4) a-ii, b-I, c-iii, d-iv
11. Match the columns
Column I Column II
a Metacentric i At the top/ terminal
b Submetachentric ii Close to its end
c Acrocentric iii At the middle
d Telocentric Iv Slightly away from middle
1) a-i,b-ii, c-ii, d-iii 2) a-ii, b-iv, c-i d-iii
3) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i 4) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii

Page: 2
12. Organelle important in spindle formation during nuclear division is
1) Centriole 2) Golgi body 3) Chloroplast 4) Mitochondrion
13. Which is not a constituent of cell membranes?
1) Glycolipids 2) Phospholipids 3) Cholesterol 4) Proline
14. Axoneme with 9+2 microtubular arrangement occurs in
1) Cilia 2) Flagella 3) Both 1 and 2 4) Centriole
15. Important site for formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids is
1) Lysosome 2) plastid
3) Golgi apparatus 4) Vacuole
16. The term “glycocalyx’ is used for
1) A layer present between cell wall and membrane of bacteria
2) Cell wall of bacteria
3) Outer layer in fungi
4) A layer surroundings the cell wall of bacteria
17. Which of the following is devoid of deoxyribonucleic acid?
1) Nucleus and chloroplast 2) Mitochondria and chloroplast
3) Lysosome and dictyosome 4) Nucleus and mitochondria
18. Chromatophores take part in
1) Growth 2) Movement 3) Respiration 4) Photosynthesis
19. Which one of the following cell organelles is enclosed by a single membrane
1) Mitochondria 2) chloroplasts 3) Lysosomes 4) Nuclei
20. Which option is correct about lysosomes?
1) Called power house of the cell
2) Contain digestive enzyme
3) Formation of glycoprotein and glycolipid
4) All the above
21. An elaborate network of filamenous proteinaceous structures present in
the cytoplasm which helps to maintain the cell shape is referred to as
1) Thylakoid 2) Endoplasmic reticulum
3) Plqasmalemma 4) Cytoskeleton
22. A major site for synthesis of lipds is
1) Nucleoplasm 2) RER 3) SER 4) Symplast

Page: 3
23. Pigment-containing membranous extensions in some cyanobacteria are
1) Chromatophores 2) Heterocysts
3) Basal bodies 4) Pneumatophores
24. The motile bacteria are able to move by
1) Fimbriae 2) Flagella 3) Cilia 4) Pili
25. Microtubules are constituents of
1) Cilia, Flagella and Peroxisomes
2) Cilia, Flagella and Centriole
3) Centriole, Spindle fibres and Chromatin
4) Centrosome, Microfilaments and Centriole
26. Which of the following are not membrane-bound?
1) Mesosomes 2) Vacuoles 3) Ribosomes 4) Lysosomes
27. The structures that help some bacteria to attach to rocks and or host tissues are
1) Holdfast 2) Rhizoids 3) Fimbriae 4) Mesosomes
28. Within nucleus, DNA is organized along with proteins into highly coiled threads called
1) Nuclear lamina 2) Chromosome 3) Chromatid 4) Chromatin fibre
29. Which of the following cell organelles is responsible for extracting energy from
carbohydrates to form ATP
1) Ribosome 2) Chloroplast 3) Mitochondrion 4) Lysosome
30. The structures that are formed by stacking of organized flattened membranous sacs in the
chloroplasts are
1) Grana 2) Stroma lamellae 3) Stroma 4) Cristae
31. Recognize the figure and find out the correct matching

1) a-serine, b-glycine, c-alanine

2) a-glycine, b-serine, c-alanine
3) a-glycine, b-alanine c-serine
4) a-alanine, b-serine, c-glycine

Page: 4
32. Recognize the figure and find out the correct statement

1) This compound is a nucleoside called adenosine

2) This compound is a nucleoside called adenylic acid
3) This compound is a nucleotide called adenosine
4) This compound is a nucleotide called adenylic acid

33. is general formula of amino acid. Here R stands for

1) An amino acid 2) carboxylic group 3) A variable group 4) A hydroxyl group
34. Which one is glucose?
1) C6 H 6O3 2) C6 H12O5 3) C6 H12O6 4) C6 H10O6
35. Which is not a pyrimidine?
1) Guanine 2) Thymine 3) Uracil 4) Cytosine

SECTION-B
This section contains 15 questions. Attempt any TEN questions out of 15.
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and –1 in all other cases.

36. Triglyceride consist of

1) Three fatty acids + two glycerols 2) Three fatty acids + one glycerol
3) One fatty acid + one glycerol 4) One fatty acid + three clycerols
37. Most abundant component of cell is
1) Protein 2) water 3) Cellulose 4) Lipid
38. Phosphorus is a constituent of
1) Carbohydrates 2) Protein 3) Fat 4) Nucleotide

Page: 5
39. The true macromolecule(s) of the cell is/are
1) Polysaccharides 2) Polypeptides
3) Polynucleotides 4) All the above
40. Peptide bond is formed when the
1) Carboxyl group of one amino acid reacts with the carboxyl group of the next amino
acid
2) Amino group of one amino acid reacts with the amino group of the next amino acids
3) Carboxyl group of one amino acids reacts with amino group of the next amino acids
4) Amino group of one amino acid react with carboxyl group of the next amino acid
41. Adenine is a type of
1) Amino acid 2) Nucleoside 3) Nitrogen base 4) Nucleotide
42. When a simple structure form a more complex structure, for example, acetic acid
becomes cholesterol is called
1) Anabolic pathway 2) Catabolic pathway
3) Biosynthetic pathway 4) Both 1 and 3
43. Energy current of the cell is
1) AMP 2) ADP 3) ATP 4) all of these
44. The sugar present in milk is
1) Fructose 2) Glucose 3) Lactose 4) Sucrose
45. Starch is polymer of
1) Glucose 2) Fructose 3) Maltose 4) Sucrose
46. In a protein, amino acids are linked by
1) Peptide bonds 2) glycosidic bonds
3) Hydrogen bonds 4) all of the above
47. Enzymes are basically made of
1) DNA 2) Proteins 3) Fats 4) Vitamins
48. Ribozyme is
1) RNA with enzyme activity 2) RNA without sugar
3) RNA without phosphate 4) RNA with extra phosphate
49. Chief energy food of cell is
1) Nucleotides 2) Proteins 3) Carbohydrates 4) Vacuoles
50. In animals the glucose is stored in the form of
1) Starch 2) Insulin 3) Glycogen 4) Sucrose

Page: 6
ZOOLOGY Max Marks: 180
SECTION-A
This section contains 35 multiple choice questions.
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and –1 in all other cases.
51. Arrangement of body parts in a geometrical design is called
1) Coelom 2) Symmetry 3) Polymorphism 4) Bioluminescence
52. Molluscs show
1) Tissue grade 2) Organ grade 3) Cellular grade 4) Organ system grade
53. Blastopore develops into anus in
1) protostomes 2) deuterostomes
3) schizocoelomates 4) pseudocoelomates
54. Segmentation is the characteristic of
1) Mollusca 2) Echinodermata 3) Chordata 4) Hemichordata
55. Open circulatory system is present in
1) Annelida 2) Arthropoda 3) Fishes 4) Vertebrata
56. Serial repetition of at least some organs with segmentation of body is called
1) Metagenesis 2) Metamorphosis 3) Metamerism 4) Metastasis
57. Tissues are grouped together to form organs in
1) Porifera 2) Cnidaria 3) Ctenophora 4) Platyhelminthes
58. The lowest level of organization in the kingdom Animalia is
1) Tissue level 2) Cellular level
3) Organ system level 4) Organ level
59. Arrange the levels of organization in correct sequence with increasing
complexity
1) Organ system → Organ → Tissue Cellular
2) Organ → Tissue → Organ system → Cellular
3) Cellular → Tissue → Organ →Organ system
4) Tissue → Cellular → Organ →Organ system
60. Statement-A: All the members of Animalia are multicellular.
Statement-B: All the members of Animalia exhibit the same pattern of organization.
1) Statements A & B are correct
2) Statements A & B are incorrect
3) Statement A is correct and statement B is incorrect
4) Statement A is incorrect and statement B is correct
Page: 7
61. Bilateral symmetry is shown by
1) Annelids 2) Coelenterates 3) Poriferans 4) Protozoans
62. Metamerism is shown by
1) Arthropoda and Mollusca 2) Porifera and Chordata
3) Annelida and Arthropoda 4) Platyhelminthes and Aschelminthes
63. Incomplete digestive system is seen in
1) Annelida 2) Arthropoda 3) Mollusca 4) Platyhelminthes
64. Which of the following phylum belongs to protostomia?
1) Arthropoda 2) Porifera 3) Echinodermata 4) Hemichordata
65. The level of organization in coelenterates is
1) Cellular 2) Organ 3) Tissue 4) Organ system
66. The deuterostomian phylum from the following is
1) Annelida 2) Arthropoda 3) Mollusca 4) Chordata
67. Which of the following does not show radial symmetry?
1) Annelida 2) Cnidaria 3) Ctenophora 4) Echinodermata
68. Find out the incorrect statement
1) Tissues are directly bathed in open circulation.
2) Blood is circulated through a series of vessels in closed circulation
3) Organ systems in different groups of animals exhibit different complexities.
4) Echinoderms and chordates belong to two different kingdoms.
69. What kind of symmetry is exhibited by the animal given below?

1) Radial 2) Asymmetrical 3) Bilateral 4) Biradial

70. A complete digestive system with two openings, mouth and anus, is absent in
1) Annelida 2) Arthropoda 3) Platyhelminthes 4) Aschelminthes
71. Which of the following is a basic feature of all the organisms of Animalia?
1) Multicellular structure 2) Sensory and neuromotor system
3) Terrestrial habitat 4) Locomotion

Page: 8
72. The open type of circulatory system lacks
1) heart 2) blood 3) vessels 4) All the above
73. Read the following statements
a) Larval echinoderms show bilateral symmetry
b) Adult cnidarians exhibit radial symmetry
c) Majority of sponges does not show symmetry
d) Majority of cnidarians show bilateral symmetry
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
1) a, b, c are incorrect 2) b, c, d are correct
3) a, b, c are correct 4) a, c, d are correct
74. In Echinodermata
1) both larvae and adults are radially symmetrical
2) both larvae and adults are bilaterally symmetrical
3) larvae are radially symmetrical whereas adults are bilaterally symmetrical
4) larvae are bilaterally symmetrical whereas adults are radially symmetrical
75. The cells are arranged as loose aggregates in
1) Lobsters 2) Earthworms 3) Sponges 4) Flatworms
76. Metamerism is absent in
1) Annelids 2) Platyhelminthes 3) Arthropods 4) Chordates
77. Body can be divided into identical halves in many planes, passing through central
axis in
1) an arthropod 2) a fish 3) a coelenterate 4) a mollusc
78. In protostomes, the blastopore develop into
1) Archenteron 2) Cloaca 3) Anus 4) Mouth
79. Diploblastic and triploblastic are the terms that describe
1) The number of heads during development

2) The number of cell types during development

3) The number of germinal layers during development

4) The number of blastopores during development

80. The mesoderm is present as scattered pouches between ectoderm and endoderm in
1) Acoelom 2) Pseudocoelom 3) Schizocoelom 4) Enterocoelom

Page: 9
81. What is ‘A’, in the given picture?

1) Ectoderm 2) Mesoderm 3) Endoderm 4) Mesoglea

82. Body cavity is absent in
1) Echinodermata 2) Hemichordata 3) Platyhelminthes 4) Chordata
83. Identify the correct option from the given picture.

1) ‘a’ is acoelomate 2) ‘b’ is coelomate

3) ‘c’ is pseudocoelomate 4) ‘a’ is coelomate
84. Coelenterates does not have
1) Mesoglea 2) Radial symmetry
3) Tissues 4) Mesoderm
85. Which of the following phylum is neither diploblastic nor triploblastic?
1) Porifera 2) Ctenophora 3) Platyhelminthes 4) Arthropoda
SECTION-B
This section contains 15 questions. Attempt any TEN questions out of 15.
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and –1 in all other cases.

86. Members of Aschelminthes show

1) Pseudocoelom 2) Eucoelom 3) Acoelom 4) Enterocoelom
87. Members of Platyhelminthes are
1) Diploblastic acoelomates 2) Triploblastic pseudocoelomates
3) Triploblastic acoelomates 4) Diploblastic coelomates
88. Which of the following phylum has mesoderm and metamerism?
1) Annelida 2) Aschelminthes 3) Coelenterata 4) Platyhelminthes

Page: 10
89. Correct order of germinal layers from outer to inner in a triploblastic organism
1) Ectoderm → Mesoderm → Endoderm
2) Mesoderm→ Ectoderm → Endoderm
3) Endoderm→ Ectoderm → Mesoderm
4) Ectoderm→ Endoderm → Mesoderm
90. Animalia is a
1) Phylum 2) Grade 3) Kingdom 4) Class
91. Most of the sponges are
1) asymmetrical 2) Radially symmetrical
3) Bilaterally symmetrical 4) Spherically symmetrical
92. What is the symmetry shown by the picture given below?

1) Radial 2) Spherical 3) Bilateral 4) Biradial

93. Find out the incorrect match
1) Triploblastic - organ level 2) Diploblastic - cellular level
3) Diploblastic - Tissue level 4) Triploblastic - organ system level
94. Organ level is exhibited by the members of
1) Porifera 2) Cnidaria 3) Ctenophora 4) Platyhelminthes
95. Organ system level is absent in
1) Annelida 2) Coelenterata 3) Hemichordata 4) Chordata
96. The body cavity, which is lined by mesoderm is called
1) Blastocoel 2) Archenteron 3) Coelom 4) Gastrocoel
97. Triploblastic animal differs from diploblastic animal by having
1) ectoderm 2) mesoderm 3) endoderm 4) all of these
98. Notochord is a rod like structure formed on the____side during embryonic development
1) Dorsal 2) Ventral 3) Lateral 4) Oral

Page: 11
99. Which of the following is true?
A) An undifferentiated mesoglea is present in the members of Platyhelminthes
B) Mesoderm is present between ectoderm and endoderm in the members of Ctenophora
C) Mesoderm is absent between ectoderm and endoderm in the members of Cnidaria
D) Mesoglea is absent between ectoderm and endoderm in the members of Annelida
1) A and B 2) C and D 3) A and C 4) B and D
100. Match the List – I with List – II
List – I List – II
a) Cell aggregates i) Annelids
b) Tissue level ii) Flat worms
c) Organ level iii) Sea walnuts
d) Organ system level iv) Sponges
a b c d a b c d
1) iv iii i ii 2) i ii iii iv
3) I ii iv iii 4) iv iii ii i

PHYSICS Max Marks: 180

SECTION-A
This section contains 35 multiple choice questions.
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and –1 in all other cases.

101. A vector is not changed if

1) It is divided by a scalar 2) it is multiplied by a scalar
3) It is slide parallel to itself 4) none
102. Choose the correct statements.
a) The product of a scalar and a vector is a vector quantity.
b) Two vectors of different magnitudes can be combined to give a zero resultant.
c) Three vectors of different magnitudes may be combined to give a zero resultant.
d) All the above are wrong statements.
1) a& b are correct 2) a & c are correct
3) a & d are correct 4) b & c correct
103. The maximum value of resultant of two vectors and is

1) P + Q 2) P – Q 3) 4)

Page: 12
104. The resultant of two forces, each P, acting at an angle  is
1) 2) c) 4)

105. Two forces, each equal to , act at right angles. Their effect may be neutralized by a third

force acting along their bisector in the opposite direction with a magnitude of
1) P 2) 3) 4)

106. The vector sum of the forces of 10 N and 6 N can be

1) 2 N 2) 8 N 3) 18 N 4) 20 N
107. The resultant of two vectors of magnitudes 2A and A acting at an angle  is .

The correct value of is

1) 30° 2) 45° 3) 60° 4) 90°

108. The algebraic sum of modulus of two vectors acting at a point is 20N. The resultant of
these vectors is perpendicular to the smaller vector and has a magnitude of 10N. If the
smaller vector is of magnitude B, then the value of B is
1) 5N 2) 20N 3) 7.5N 4) none of these
109. A vector makes an angle of 10° and makes an angle of 100° with x-axis. The

magnitudes of these vectors are 6m and 8m. The resultant of these vectors is
1) 10m 2) 14m 3) 2m 4) none of these
110. The resultant of two vectors makes angle 30° and 60° with them and has magnitude of 40
units. The magnitudes of the two vectors are
1) 20 units, 20 units 2) 20 units, 28 units
3) 20 units, units 4) 20 units, 60 units

111. A vector makes 30° and makes 120° angle with the x-axis. The magnitudes of these

vectors are 3 units and 4 units respectively. The magnitude of resultant vector is
1) 3 unit 2) 4 unit 3) 5 unit 4) 1 unit
112. The maximum resultant of two vectors is 26 units and minimum resultant is 16 units,
then the magnitudes of two vectors are:
1) 21, 5 2) 13, 13 3) 20, 6 4) None of these

Page: 13
113. Two forces of magnitudes 3N and 4N are acted on a body. The ratio of magnitude of
minimum and maximum resultant forces on the body is:
1) 3/4 2) 4/3 3) 1/7 4) None of these
114. If the resultant of the two forces has a magnitude smaller than the magnitude of larger
force, the two forces must be
1) Different both in magnitude and direction
2) Mutually perpendicular to one another
3) Possess extremely small magnitude
4) Point in opposite directions
115. Forces and act on a point mass in two mutually perpendicular directions. The

resultant force on the point mass will be

1) 2) 3) 4)

116. Assertion: Vector addition is commutative.

Reason:

1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the
Assertion.
2) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of the
Assertion.
3) Assertion is true, but the Reason is false. 4) Assertion is false, but the reason is true.
117. When a two vectors and are added, the magnitude of the resultant vector is always

1) Greater than (a + b) 2) less than or equal to (a + b)

3) Less than (a + b) 4) equal to (a + b)
118. The vector sum of two forces P and Q is minimum when the angle  between their
positive directions, is
1) 2) 3) 4) 

119. Two vectors and are such that and . Which of the
following is correct?
1) is parallel to 2) is anti-parallel to
3) Is perpendicular to 4) and are equal in magnitude

Page: 14
120. Two forces, each of magnitude F have a resultant of the same magnitude F. The angle
between the two forces is
1) 45° 2)120° 3)150° 4)60°
121. Which one of the following is a null vector?
1) Net displacement of a particle moving once around a circle
2) Velocity of a body projected vertically up, when the body is at the highest point
3) Both (1) and (2)
4) None of these
122. The resultant of two vectors and is . If the vector is reversed, then the resultant

becomes , and then choose the correct option.

1) R2 + S2 = 2(P2 – Q2) 2) R2 + S2 = 2(P2 + Q2)

3) R2 + S2 = (P2 – Q2) 4) R2 – S2 = (P2 + Q2)
123. ABCD is a parallelogram, and , , and are the position vectors of vertices A, B, C and

D of a parallelogram. The correct option is

1) 2)

3) 4) none of these

124. For the resultant of the two vectors to be maximum what must be the angle between then
1) 0° 2) 60° 3) 90° 4) 180°
125. A particle is simultaneously acted by two forces equal to 4 N and 3 N. The net force on
the particle is
1) 7 N 2) 5 N 3) 1 N 4) Between 1 N and 7 N

126. Two vectors and lie in a plane, another vector C lies outside this plane, then the

resultant of these three vectors i.e.,

1) Can be zero 2) cannot be zero

3) Lies in the plane containing 4) Lies in the plane containing

127. If the angle between and is

1) 60° 2) 0° 3) 120° 4) 90°

Page: 15
128. Fig. shows ABCDEF as a regular hexagon. What is the value of?

E D

F C
O

A B

1) 2) 3) 4)

129. The magnitude of vector and are respectively 12, 5 and 13 units and

then the angle between and is

1) 0 2)  3) /2 4) /4
130. Magnitude of vector which comes on addition of two vectors and 3 +4 is

1) 2) 3) 4)

131. The value of the sum of two vectors and with as the angle between them is
1) 2)

3) 4)

132. The resultant of and is perpendicular to . What is the angle between and

1) 2) 3) 4)

133. Which of the following is a null vector

A) Velocity vector of a body moving in a circle with a uniform speed
B) Velocity vector of a body moving in a straight line with a uniform speed.
C) Position vector of the origin of the rectangular co–ordinate system
D) displacement vector of a stationary object
1) both A&B 2) both B& C 3) A, B&C 4) both C&D
134. If is a unit vector in the direction of the vector , then

1) 2) 3) 4) none of these

Page: 16
135. A child takes 8 steps towards east and 6 steps towards north. If each step is equal to 1 cm,
then the magnitude of displacement is
1) 10 m 2) 0.1 m 3) 10 m 4) None of these
SECTION-B
This section contains 15 questions. Attempt any TEN questions out of 15.
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and –1 in all other cases.

136. In the diagram a weight W = 10N is acting vertically downwards, then the components of
weight parallel (w11) and perpendicular (W) to the incline respectively are

W 30° W


30° W=10

1) 2) 5N,5 3) 5N, 5N 4) 0N, 10N

137. Figure shows a force F = 8N which makes an angle of 45° with the horizontal. Then the
horizontal and vertical components of the force respectively are

Fv


F

45°
FH

1) 2) 4N, 4N 3) 4) 4N, 4 N

138. If three forces , and are acted on a body, then

the direction of resultant force on the body is:

1) along x–axis 2) along y–axis
3) along z–axis 4) in indeterminate form
139. Work done by a force on a body is , where is the displacement of body.

Given that under a force N a body is displaced from position vector

m to the position vector m. The work done by this

force is
1) –8J 2) –4J 3) –2J 4) zero
Page: 17
140. The vectors and are

1) mutually perpendicular 2) parallel to each other

3) cannot say 4) none of these
141. The unit vector perpendicular to both and is

1) 2)

3) 4)

142. The vectors and are

1) mutually perpendicular 2) parallel to each other

3) cannot say 4) none of these
143. Consider two vectors and . The magnitude of the scalar product

of these vectors is
1) 20 b)23 3) 4) 26

144. Consider a vector . Another vector that is perpendicular to is

1) 2) 6 3) 7 4) 3

145. Two vectors and are at right angles to each other, when

1) 2) 3) 4)

146. If and V2 is finite, then

1) V1 is parallel to V2 2)

3) V1 and V2 are mutually perpendicular 4)

147. A force Newton is applied over a particle which displaces it from its

 
origin to the point rˆ  2iˆ  ˆj metres. The work done on the particle is

1) - 7 joules 2) +13 joules 3) +7 joules 4) + 11 joules

148. The angle between the vectors and is

1) 30° 2) 45° 3) 60° 4) 90°

Page: 18
149. A particle moves with a velocity under the influence of a constant force

The . instantaneous power applied to the particle is

1) 35 J/s 2) 45 J/s 3) 25 J/s 4) 195 J/s

150. If then angle between and is

1) 0° 2) 30° 3) 45° 4) 60°

CHEMISTRY Max Marks: 180

SECTION-A
This section contains 35 multiple choice questions.
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and –1 in all other cases.

151. Which of the following compounds obey the law of multiple proportions?
1) H 2O, H 2O2 , NH 3 2) ClO2 , ClO3 and HClO
3) FeO, Fe2O3 and Fe3O4 4) None of the above
152. Isotones have same number of
1) Protons 2) neutrons
3) isotopic number 4) electrons
153. Gram molecular volume of oxygen at STP is
1) 2.24L 2) 22.4L 3) 11.2L 4) 1.12L
154. Mass of single iron atom is
1) 58.5 g 2) 58.5 amu 3) 58.5kg 4) 58.5mg
155. An example of homogenous mixture is
1) Mixture of soil and water 2) mixture of salt and sand grains
3) sugar solution 4) none of the above
156. Law of the constant proportions is not applicable to
1) NaCl 2) Fe0.98O 3) NH 3 4) N 2O5
157. An element, has the following isotopic composition

200 199 202

X : 90% X : 8.0% X : 2.0%
The weighted average atomic mass of the naturally occurring element is closed to

1) 200U 2) 210U 3) 202U 4) 400U

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158. An ion with mass number 37 posses one unit of negative charge, if ion contains 11.7%
more neutrons than electrons. Then find the atomic number of ion.
1) 40 2) 18 3) 10 4) 35.5
159. Atoms with same isotopic number are called
1) Isodiaphers 2) Isotones 3) Isomers 4) Isotopes
160. Chemical species with same electrons are called?
1) Isoelectronic 2) Isotones 3) Isosteres 4) Allotropes
161. Chemical species with same electrons and atoms are called?
1) Isoelectronic 2) Isotones 3) Isosteres 4) Allotropes
162. Mass of proton is ______ times more than mass of electron
1) 1837 2) 4000 3) 5000 4) 8000
27
163. How many electrons are there is the nucleus of Al ?
1) 0 2) 1 3) 2 4) 3
164. n gram of a substance X reacts with gram of substance Y to form gram of

substance R and q gram of substance S . This reaction can be represented as follows

X Y  R  S
The relation which can be established in the amounts of the reactants and the products
will be
1) n  m  p  q 2) n  m  p  q 3) n  m 4) p  q
165. 1 kg = ____ng
1) 1012 2) 1012 3) 1014 4) 108
166. One gram of electrons has ______number of electrons?
1) 1.1  1027 2) 1.1  1030 3) 1.1  10 23 4) 6  10 23
167. The mass of 1 mole of electrons is
1) 9.1  10 28 g 2) 1.008 mg 3) 0.55 mg 4) 9.1  1027 g
168. Carbon and oxygen combine to form two oxides, carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide in
which the ratio of the masses of carbon and oxygen is respectively 12:16 and 1:32 These
figures illustrate the
1) Law of multiple proportions 2) law of constant proportions
3) Avagadro’s law 4) law of conservation of mass

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169. What is the mass percentage of oxygen in CO2 (Atomic mass of Carbon and oxygen are
12 amu and 16 amu respectively)
1) 72.72 2) 30 3) 40 4) 50
170. The mass of nitrogen per gram hydrogen in the compound hydrazine is exactly one and
half times the mass of nitrogen in the compound ammonia. The fact illustrates the
1) Law of conservation of mass 2) Multiple valency of nitrogen
3) Law of multiple proportions 4) Law of definite proportions
171. Number of silver atoms in 10.8g of Silver is,
1) NA 2) 0.1NA 3) 10NA 4) 2 NA
172. The number of significant digits in 1559.00 is ____
1) 6 2) 5 3) 3 4) 4
173. The volume of a box (10 m wide, 4.5m long and 2.3 m high) upto 3 significant digits in
m3 is ____
1) 104 2) 103.5 3) 103 4) 100
174. The mass of a single atom of a particular isotope is called which of the following?
1) Its atomic number 2) Its gram atomic weight
3) Its atomic mass 4) Its relative atomic mass
175. Molecular mass of caffeine (C8H10N4O2) (atomic masses :C=12 amu H=1amu N=14 amu
O=16 amu) is.
1) 194 2) 200 3) 205 4) 180
176. Number of atoms of oxygen present in 10.6 g of will be

1) 6.02  10 23 2) 12.04  1022 3) 1.806  10 23 4) 31.80  10 28

177. The standard adopted for the determination of atomic weight of elements is based on
1) H 1 2) C12 3) O16 4) S 32
178. The solid like conducting state of gases with free electrons is called
1) Sol state 2) Gel state 3) Plasma state 4) All of these
179. Mass percentage of phosphorous in  NH 4 2 HPO4 . (atomic mass of N, H, P and ‘O’ are

14amu, 1amu, 31amu and 16amu respectively)

1) 23.4 2) 40 3) 30 4) 45
180. Number of water molecules in 1L of water is (density = 1g/mL ).
1) 18 2) 18000 3) N A 4) 55.55 N A

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181. Which property of an element is always a whole number?
1) Atomic volume 2) Atomic weight
3) Atomic number 4) Equivalent weight
182. The mass of 112 of CH 4 gas a STP is

1) 0.16 g 2) 0.8 g 3) 0.08 g 4) 1.6 g

183. 1 L oxygen gas at STP will weigh
1) 1.43g 2) 2.24 g 3) 11.2 g 4) 22.4 g
184. In which of the following numbers all zeros are significant?
1) 0.500 2) 30.000 3) 0.00030 4) 0.0050
185. A signature written with carbon pencil weighs 1 mg. what is the number of carbon atoms
present in the signature? (Atomic mass of C = 12 amu)
1) 6.02  10 20 2) 0.502  10 20 3) 5.02  1023 4) 5.02  10 20

SECTION-B
This section contains 15 questions. Attempt any TEN questions out of 15.
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and –1 in all other cases.

186. The value of amu is?

1) 1.57  1024 kg 2) 1.66  1024 kg 3) 1.99  10 23 kg 4) 1.66  1027 kg
187. 19.7 kg of gold was recovered from a smuggler. How many atoms of gold were
recovered (Atomic mass of Au = 197 amu)?
1) 100 2) 6.02  10 23 3) 6.02  10 24 4) 6.02  10 25
188. Number of atoms of He in 100 u of He (atomic weight of He is 4) are
1) 25 2) 100 3) 50 4) 100  6  10 23
189. A metal nitride, M 3 N 2 contains 28% of nitrogen. The atomic mass of metal, is

1) 24 2) 54 3) 9 4) 87.62
190. 4.6  1022 atoms of an element weigh 13.8 g. The atomic weight of element is
1) 290 2) 180 3) 34.4 4) 10.4
191. 12.044  1023 atoms of oxygen contains _______
1) 1 mole of oxygen atoms 2) 2 moles of oxygen atoms
3) 3 moles of oxygen atoms 4) 4 moles of oxygen atoms

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192. One mole of sucrose contains how many grams of sucrose  C12 H 22O11  ? (Atomic mass

of C, H and O are 12 amu, 1 amu, and 16 amu respectively)

1) 342g 2) 400g 3) 300g 4) 250g
193. Which one of the following pairs of gases contains the same number of molecules
1) 16 g of O2 and 14 g of N 2 2) 32 g of O2 and 22 g of CO2
3) 28 g of N 2 and 22 g of CO2 4) 32 g of O2 and 32 g of N 2
194. Identify the element whose 2 gram atoms weigh 8g.
1) Hydrogen 2) Helium 3) Oxygen 4) Sulphur
195. Which of the following exists in mono-atomic form?
1) He 2) Ne 3) Ar 4) All
196. The gram atomic weight of oxygen is
1) 16 amu 2) 16 g 3) 32 amu 4) 32 g
197. The formula mass of an ionic compound is called
1) One gram ion 2) Simple formula
3) Empirical formula 4) Molecular formula
198. A measured temperature on Fahrenheit scale is 2000 F . What will this reading be on
Celsius scale?
1) 400 C 2) 32.7 0 C 3) 93.30 C 4) 300 C
199. What is the mass percent of oxygen in hydrogen peroxide  H 2O2  . (Atomic mass of H &

O are 1 amu and 16 amu respectively)

1) 94% 2) 20% 3) 10% 4) 15%
200. 16 g of oxygen has same number of molecules as in
1) 16 g of CO 2) 28 g of N 2 3) 14 g of N 2 4) 1.0 g of H 2

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