Zeal Education Society’s

ZEAL POLYTECHNIC, PUNE

NARHE │PUNE -41 │ INDIA

DEPARTMENT OF GENERAL SCIENCE & HUMANITIES

FIRST YEAR (FY)

SCHEME: I SEMESTER: II
NAME OF SUBJECT: APPLIED SCIENCE
SUBJECT CODE: 22202

UNIT WISE MULTIPLE CHOICE

QUESTIONS BANK
 ZEAL EDUCATION SOCIETY‟S

ZEAL POLYTECHNIC,PUNE
NARHE │PUNE -41 │ INDIA
DEPARTMENT OF GENERAL SCIENCE & HUMANITIES

Question Bank for Multiple Choice Questions

Program: Diploma in Mechanical/Civil engineering Program Code:- ME/CE

Scheme:- I Semester:- 2
Course:- Applied Science Physics Course Code:- 22202

01 – Properties of Matter and NDT Marks:- 14

Content of Chapter:-
1.1 Deforming Force and Restoring Force, Elasticity, Plasticity, Rigidity
1.2 Stress and Strain and their types, elastic limit and Hooke‟s law, Types of moduli of Elasticity.
1.3 Stress – Strain diagram, Poisson‟s Ratio, Factors affecting Elasticity.
1.4 Fluid Friction, Pressure, Pressure – Depth Relation, Pascal‟s Law, Archimedes‟ Principle
1.5 Viscosity, Velocity gradient, Newton‟s law Viscosity.
1.6 Free fall of spherical body through viscous medium and Stoke‟s Law, derivation of coefficient of viscosity
„η‟ by Stoke‟s method, effect of temperature and adulteration on viscosity of liquids.
Non-destructive testing (NDT), Various NDT testing methods used, Criteria for the selection of NDT method,
Merits and demerits of NDT.

1. The force which is responsible for changing dimensions of the body is known as
(A) Internal force (B) Deforming force
(C) Restoring force (D) Regaining force.
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - The force changes the shape (form) of the body, hence deforming force.

2. Change in dimensions in case of plastic body is

(A)Temporary (B) Permanent
(C) Negligible (D) None of these
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - Plastic body cannot regain its shape or size after removal of deforming force. The
deformation remains forever.

3. Change in dimensions in case of elastic body is,

(A) Temporary (B) Permanent
(C) Negligible (D) None of these
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - Elastic body regains its shape and size right after the deforming force is removed.

4. If force applied on elastic body is within elastic limit and if applied force is removed then the
body,
(A) Regains its original shape & size (B) Changes its shape & size
(C) Opposes Changes its shape & size (D) Does not Regains its original shape & size
Answer: - Option A

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Explanation: - Elastic body regains its shape and size right after the deforming force is removed.

5. In case of elastic body, body regains its original dimensions on removal of external applied force,
the applied force is,
(A) Within elastic limit (B) More than elastic limit
(C) Too large (D) Equal to deforming force
Answer: - Option A
Explanation:- If the force is more than elastic limit, the deformation is permanent.

6. In an elastic body if external force is beyond elastic limits then there will be,
(A) Permanent retention (B) More opposition
(C) Permanent deformation (D) Less opposition
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - The elastic body can regain its shape after removal of deforming force up to certain limit if
the deforming force called elastic limit. For the stress beyond that the deformation remains permanent.

7. Which of the following is perfectly elastic body?

(A) Foam (B) Sponge
(C) Chalk (D) Quartz
Answer: - Option D
Explanation: - Quartz regains its shape and size completely after removal of deforming force.

8. The property on account of which body regains its original dimensions after removal of
deforming
(A) Elasticity (B) Plasticity
(C) Rigidity (D) Ductility
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - The property on account of which body regains its original dimensions after removal of
deforming force is known as Elasticity.

9. The property on account of which body does not regain its original dimensions after removal of
deforming force is known as,
(A) Elasticity (B) Plasticity
(C) Rigidity (D) Ductility
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - The property on account of which body does not regain its original dimensions after removal
of deforming force is known as Plasticity.

10. The property on account of which body does not change its original dimensions even if large
amount of force is applied on it is known as,
(A) Elasticity (B) Plasticity
(C) Rigidity (D) Ductility
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - The property on account of which body does not changes its original dimensions even if
large amount of force is applied on it is known as Rigidity.
11. Shear strain is defined as
(A) Force per unit area
(B) Area per unit force
(C) Lateral displacement x distance from fixed layer
(D) Lateral displacement of layer / its distance from fixed layer
Answer: - Option D
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Explanation: - Shear strain is defined as, Lateral displacement of layer / its distance from fixed layer

12. All metals are _____in nature.

(A) Elastic (B) Plastic
(C) Rigid (D) Ductile
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - They elongate or compress on application of stress and regain the original shape after
removal of it, in their elastic limit.

13. Clay, putty and chalk are examples of

(A) Elastic body (B) Plastic body
(C) Rigid body (D) None of these
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - These bodies cannot regain their and shapes or sizes after removal of deforming force. The
deformation remains forever

14. Stone is
(A) Elastic body (B) Plastic body
(C) Rigid body (D) None of these
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - The shape and size of the stone does not change on application of deforming force.

15. Stress is defined as,

(A) Internal restoring force per unit area (B) Area per unit internal restoring force
(C) Product of internal restoring force & area (D) none of these
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - Stress is defined as internal restoring force per unit area

16. The maximum stress the system is capable of withstanding is known as

(A) Breaking stress (B) Ultimate Stress
(C) Working Stress (D) Tensile stress
Answer: - Option
Explanation: - The maximum stress the system is capable of withstanding is known as ultimate stress.

17. The unit of Poission’s Ratio is .

(A) N/m 2 (B) m2/N
(C) Nm 2 (D) No unit
Answer: - Option D
Explanation: - The Poisson‟s ratio is unit less quantity.

18. Cable of Lift elevator is the example of .

(A) Longitudinal Stress (C) Volume Stress
(B) Lateral stress (D) Shearing Stress
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - The stress acting along the length.

19. Longitudinal strain is defined as

(A) F/A (B) A/F
(C) dl/L (D) L/dl
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - It is the change in length (dl) per unit original length (L).
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20. Bulk Modulus of elasticity is given by,
(A) K=dv/V *dp (B) K= dv / (V*dp)
(C) K=dp*dv* V (D) K= (dp*V) / dv
Answer: - Option D
Explanation: - Bulk Modulus = = =

21. The portion in stress strain diagram which shows permanent elongation in the wire is called as
(A) Yield (B) Elastic limit
(C) Set (D) Breaking point
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - The elongation remains permanent, hence called set.

22. Strain increases without increase in stress just like wire flows, this is called as
(A) Yielding (B) Elastic limit
(C) Set (D) Breaking point
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - Strain increases without increase in stress just like wire flows, this is called as yielding.

23. Actual practical stress on the system is called as

(A) Breaking Stress (B) Ultimate Stress
(C) Working Stress (D) Tensile Stress
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - Actual practical stress on the system is called as working stress.

24. If two different wires of steel & aluminum of same dimensions are taken then
(A) Elasticity of both wires will be same (B) Elasticity of both wires will be different
(C) Elasticity depends on what dimension it has (D) none of above
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - Elasticity differs with material.

25. The extension produced in a wire due to a load is 3mm.The extension in a wire of same material
and length but half the radius will be
(A) 10mm (B) 12mm
(C) 14mm (D) 16mm
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - If the radius gets half cross sectional area would get 1/4th of the original. The cross
sectional area of the wire and the elongation of the wire are inversely proportional to each other. Hence the
elongation gets 4 times of the original.

26. Four wires of same metal and same diameter are stretched by same load. Length of each wire is
given below .Which of them will elongate least?
(A) L=1m (B) L=1.5m
(C) L=2m (D) L=2.5m
Answer: - Option D
Explanation: - elongation in the wire is directly proportional to the length of the wire.

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27. Calculate Poisson’s ratio if metal wire of length 3m & diameter 0.3mm is stretched by 2mm &
lateral contraction is 1.5 x 10-4 mm.
(A) 0.25 (B) 0.5
(C) 0.75 (D) 1
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - Poisson‟s ratio = = = x = 0.75

28. A metal bar has a maximum stress is 9 x 108 N/m2. If area of bar is 0.02 m2, find maximum force
that bar can withstand.
(A) 0.18 x 109 N/m2 (B) 0.18 x 106 N/m2
(C) 0.18 x 10 N/m
7 2 (D) 0.18 x 108 N/m2
Answer: - Option D
Explanation: - Force = Stress x Area = 9 x 108 x 0.02 = 0.18 x 108

29. The SI unit of stress is,

(A) N/m2 (B) m2/N
(C) Nm2 (D) J/m2
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - Stress = . Hence, unit is N/m2

30. The unit of strain is,

(A) N/m2 (B) No unit
(C) Nm 2 (D) J/m2
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - Strain is unit less quantity as it is ratio of two same quantities.

31. Dimensions of stress are,

(A) [L1M-1T2] (B) [L1M1T-2]
(C) [L-1M-1T2] (D) [L-1M1T2]
Answer: - Option D
Explanation: - Dimension of Stress = = = [L-1M1T2]

32. Stress is equal to,

(A) A/F (B) FxA
(C) F/A (D) F+A
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - Stress = F/A

33. Tensile stress is also called as,

(A) Lateral stress (B) Longitudinal stress
(C) Volume stress (D) Shearing Stress
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - Tensile stress is related to length of a material.

34. The stress which is related to change in length of the body is called as,
(A) Lateral stress (B) Longitudinal stress
(C) Volume stress (D) Shearing Stress
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - The stress which is related to change in length of the body is called as longitudinal stress.
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36. Which of the following is dimensionless quantity?
(A) Stress (B) Strain
(C) Pressure (D) Area
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - Strain is unit less and dimensionless quantity.

37. The stress which is related to change in volume of the body is called as,
(A) Lateral stress (B) Longitudinal stress
(C) Volume stress (D) Shearing Stress
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - The stress which is related to change in volume of the body is called as volume stress

38. The stress which is related to change in shape of the body is called as,
(A)Lateral stress (B) Longitudinal stress
(C) Volume stress (D) Shearing Stress
Answer: - Option D
Explanation: - The stress which is related to change in shape of the body is called as shearing stress.

39. Volume stress the body is equal to,

(A) Change in pressure (B) Product of force & area
(C) Area per unit force (D) Addition of force & area
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - Volume Stress = = Change in Pressure.

40. The change in dimensions per unit dimension is called as,

(A) Stress (B) Strain
(C) Modulus of electricity (D) Shearing Stress
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - The change in dimensions per unit dimension is called as strain

41. Tensile strain is defined as

(A) Change In length per unit original length (B) Change in volume per unit original volume
(C) Original volume per unit change in volume (D) Original length per unit change in length
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - Tensile strain is defined as change in length per unit original length.

42. Volume strain is defined as .

(A) Change In length per unit original length (B) Change in volume per unit original volume
(C) Original volume per unit change in volume (D) Original length per unit change in length
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - Volume strain is defined as change in volume per unit original volume

43. The stress corresponding to limiting value of load which doesn’t produce permanent
deformation is called as,
(A)Elastic limit (B) Plastic limit
(C)Breaking stress (D) Ultimate stress
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - The stress corresponding to limiting value of load which doesn‟t produce permanent
deformation is called as elastic limit

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44. Unit of Thrust in MKS system is
(A) N/m2 (B) N
(C) J (D) J/m2
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - Thrust is normal force acting on a surface. Hence, it has same unit as that of Force.

45. Pressure at any point inside liquid depends on

(A) Only Depth (B) Only Liquid density
(C) Only gravitational acceleration (D) All of the above
Answer: - Option D
Explanation: - Pressure at any point inside liquid depends on depth, liquid density and gravitational
acceleration

46. When three holes of equal diameter are drilled in a water tank at the top of tank, at the middle of
tank and at bottom of tank then the pressure will be
(A) More at top (B) More at Middle
(C) More at bottom (D) same at every Level
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - The pressure inside

47. According to Archimedes’ Principle

(A) Upthurst force = Loss of weight of body in liquid
(B) Upthurst force < Loss of weight of body in liquid
(C) Upthurst force > Loss of weight of body in liquid
(D) None of these.
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - According to Archimedes‟ principle the upthrust force acting on the body inside the liquid is
equal to the loss of weight of body in liquid.

48. An ice block of density 0.8 gm/cm3 is floating on water of density 1gm/cm3. Fraction of volume
of ice above water surface will be
(A) 0.2 (B) 0.4
(C) 0.6 (D) 0.8
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - fraction of volume of ice inside the water = = = 0.8
Hence the fraction of solid outside the water is 0.2

49. A solid floats on water. Its 60% volume is inside water. Calculate density of solid (density of
water=1000 kg/m3)
(A) 600 kg/m3 (B) 300 kg/m3
(C) 900 kg/m 3 (D) 1000 kg/m3
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - fraction of volume inside the water =
Hence, =
Hence, Density of solid is 600 Kg/m3.

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50. Stoke’s law states that Viscous Force experienced by a small metal sphere falling through
viscous fluid is directly proportional to
(A) Radius of metal sphere(r) (B) Terminal Velocity (v)
(C) Coefficient of viscosity (η) (D) All of above
Answer: - Option D
Explanation: - Stoke‟s law states that Viscous force experienced by a small metal sphere falling through
viscous fluid is proportional to radius of metal sphere, terminal velocity and coefficient of viscosity of liquid.

51. If sugar is dissolved in pure water them viscosity of net solution is

(A) Less than Pure water (B) Same as Pure Water
(C) More than pure water (D) none of these
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - Viscosity of a liquid increases with soluble impurities.

52. The unit of coefficient of viscosity is

(A) Ns m2 (B) m2/sN
(C) Ns/m2 (D) m2s/N
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - The unit of coefficient of viscosity is Ns/m2

53. An air bubble of radius 1 cm rises steadily through the solution of density 1.75 x 103 kg/m3 at
steady velocity of 0.35 m/s. Calculate coefficient of viscosity.
(A) 1.08 Ns/m2 (B) 1.18 Ns/m2
(C) 1.02Ns/m2 (D) 1.25 Ns/m2
Answer: - Option
Explanation: - The

54. Universal testing Machine is an example of

(A) Destructive Testing Technique (B) Non-Destructive testing Technique
(C) Semi Destructive Testing (D) None of these
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - The Universal testing Machine is an example of Destructive testing Technique as it may
cause damage to the material being tested.

55. After using the material using NDT technique, the material
(A) Can be used for intended purpose
(B) Can be used for intended purpose with some correction
(C) Cannot be used for intended purpose
(D) None of these
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - Because in NDT technique the material remains undamaged, hence, can be reused.

56. Using NDT

(A) Only Sample Testing is possible (B) 100% testing is possible
(C) Depends on technique used (D) none of these
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - 100% testing is possible

57. Which one of the following is not a NDT technique?

(A) Ultrasonic Testing (B) Magnetic particle testing
(C) Compression testing (D) Radiographic Testing
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Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - It damages the testing material.

58. Which one of the following is not a selection criterion for NDT technique?
(A)Codes or standard requirement (B) Specification of material to be tested
(C)Manufacturing process of material (D) Weight of material
Answer: - Option D
Explanation: - Weight of the material does not affect the NDT technique.

59. Which one of the following is limitation of NDT technique?

(A) Material can be used for intended purpose
(B) Raw material can be tested to save money & time
(C) 100% examination is possible
(D) Minimum two methods are required for complete analysis
Answer: - Option D
Explanation: - Minimum two methods are required for complete analysis

60. Which one of the following is advantage of NDT technique?

(A) Testing is possible during servicing of machine
(B) Testing charges are more
(C) Only trained & certified persons are required
(D) Minimum two methods are required for complete analysis
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - Testing is possible during servicing of machine

61. After using the material using Destructive technique, the material
(A) Can be used for intended purpose
(B) Can be used for intended purpose with some correction
(C) Cannot be used for intended purpose
(D) None of these
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - After using the material using Destructive technique, the material cannot be used for
intended purpose for it is damaged.

62. Which is non-destructive testing machine?

(A)Universal Testing Machine (B) Izod & Impact tester
(C)Torsion testing Machine (D) Radiographic Testing machine
Answer: - Option D
Explanation: - In radiographic testing machine the testing sample is not damaged physically.

63. Using any one NDT method we can either find surface flaws or inside flaw, this statement is,
(A) True (B) False
(C) Conditionally true (D) none of these
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - For complete examination of sample at least two NDT methods are required.

64. Velocity Gradient is defined as,

(A)Change in velocity/distance (B) Distance/ Change in velocity
(C) Change in velocity X distance (D) Change in velocity + distance
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - Velocity Gradient is defined as change in velocity per unit distance.
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65. Within elastic limit, stress is directly proportional to strain is known as,
(A) Boyle‟s law (B) Newton‟s law
(C) Pascal‟s (D) Hooke‟s law
Answer: - Option D
Explanation: - The law is known as Hooke‟s law.

66. Modulus of elasticity is equal to,

(A) Stress/Strain (B) strain/stress
(C) Stress X Strain (D) None of these
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - Modulus of elasticity is the ratio of stress to strain.

67. Within elastic limit, the ratio of tensile stress to tensile strain is called as,
(A) Young‟s Modulus (B) Bulk Modulus
(C) Modulus of Rigidity (D) Poission‟s ratio
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - Within elastic limit, the ratio of tensile stress to tensile strain is called as Young‟s modulus.

68. Which of the following quantity is dimensionless?

(A) Young‟s Modulus (B) Bulk Modulus
(C) Modulus of Rigidity (D) Poission‟s ratio
Answer: - Option D
Explanation: - Poission‟s ratio is the ratio of two similar quantities.

69. Within elastic limit, the ratio of Volume stress to Volume strain is called as,
(A) Young‟s Modulus (B) Bulk Modulus
(C) Modulus of Rigidity (D) None of these
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - The ratio of Volume stress to Volume strain is called as Bulk modulus.

70. Compressibility is defined as,

(A) Reciprocal of bulk modulus (B) Reciprocal of Young‟s modulus
(C) Reciprocal of Modulus of Rigidity (D) None of these
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - The compressibility is defined as the reciprocal of bulk modulus.

71. Within elastic limit, the ratio of shearing stress to shearing strain is called as,
(A) Young‟s Modulus (B) Bulk Modulus
(C) Modulus of Rigidity (D) Poission‟s ratio
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - The ratio of shearing stress to shearing strain is called as modulus of rigidity.

72. In stress strain diagram, the portion which obeys Hooke’s law is
(A) Curved line (B) Straight line
(C) Zigzag line (D) none of these

Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - In stress strain diagram, the portion which obeys Hooke‟s law is a straight line.

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73. Factor of safety is defined as,
(A) Ultimate stress / working stress (B) working stress/ Ultimate stress
(C) Breaking Stress (D) Ultimate stress/Breaking Stress
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - Factor of safety is defined as maximum (ultimate) stress per unit working stress.

74. Lateral Strain is the,

(A) ratio of change in length to original length
(B) Product of decrease in diameter to original diameter
(C) Ratio of original diameter to decrease in diameter
(D) Ratio of decrease in diameter to original diameter
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - Lateral Strain is defined as the ratio of change in length to original length.

75. Elasticity of material with increase in temperature

(A) Increases (B) Decreases
(C) Remains same (D) none of these
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - The elasticity of material is inversely proportional to temperature.

76. Adding carbon to molten steel the elasticity of steel

(A) Increases (B) Decreases
(C) Remains same (D) May increase or decrease
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - The carburizing process decreases the elasticity of the steel.

77. Because of annealing, the elasticity of the material,

(A) Increases (B) Decreases
(C) Remains same (D) none of these
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - Because of annealing, the elasticity of the material decreases.

78. Because of hammering & rolling, the elasticity of the material,

(A) Increases (B) Decreases
(C) Remains same (D) None of these
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - Because of hammering & rolling, the elasticity of the material increases.

79. Because of recurring stress on a wire,

(A) Elasticity Increases & Plasticity decreases (B) Elasticity & Plasticity decreases
(C) Elasticity & Plasticity Increases (D) Elasticity decreases & Plasticity increases
Answer: - Option D
Explanation: - Due to recurring stress on a wire its elasticity decreases and plasticity increases.

80. The elasticity of material when it is subjected to repeated stress,

(A) Increases (B) Decreases
(C) Remains same (D) May increase or decrease
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - The elasticity of material when it is subjected to repeated stress decreases.

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81. Elasticity of steel is
(A) More than rubber (B) Less then rubber
(C) More or less than rubber-depend on dimensions (D) Same as that of rubber
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - Young‟s modulus of steel is more than rubber.

82. If we take 1m long steel wire & 2m long steel wire then
(A) Elasticity of 1m will be more than 2m (B) Elasticity of 2m will be more than 1m
(C) Elasticity of 1m & 2m will be same (D) depends on diameter of wire
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - Elasticity of wire does not depend on length of the wire.

83. Four wires of same metal are stretched by same load. Dimensions of each wire is given below
.Which of them will elongate least?
(A) r=0.5mm,L=50cm (B) r=1mm,L=100cm
(C) r=1.5mm,L=150cm (D) r=2mm,L=200cm
Answer: - Option D
Explanation: - The elongation in wire is inversely proportional to the radius of the wire.

84. A wire of length 2m extends by 2mm when a force is applied to it. Calculate the stress produced
in it if Y=2 x 1011N/m2
(A) 1 x 108 N/m2 (B) 2 x 108 N/m2
(C) 3 x 10 N/m
8 2 (D) 4 x 108 N/m2
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - stress = Y x strain = 2 x 1011 x 10-3 = 2 x 108 N/m2

85. Calculate the compressibility of metal if bulk modulus of elasticity K = 2 x 1010N/m2

(A) 0.2 x 10-10 m2/N (B) 0.5 x 10-10 m2/N
(C) 0.2 x 1010 m2/N (D) 0.5 x 1010 m2/N
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - compressibility is the reciprocal of the bulk modulus.

86. Force F N is required to move a plate of area A m2 over a liquid. The force required to move plate
half the earlier area will be,
(A) F/2 (B) F
(C) 2F (D) 3F
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - The viscous force is directly proportional to area.

87. Force F N is required by a raindrop of radius r. The force experienced by a double radius rain
drop moving with same speed will be
(A) F/2 (B) F
(C) 2F (D) 3F
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - The force of friction is directly proportional to radius.

88. Wooden sleepers of large area are placed below railway tracks,
(A) To increase speed of rail (B) To control speed of rail
(C) To reduce friction (D) To avoid depressing of tracks in ground
Answer: - Option D

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Explanation: - The pressure decreases due to large area of the wooden sleepers, hence, the depression
of tracks ceases.

89. The total amount of force exerted by a liquid on surface in contact is called as,
(A) Pressure of liquid (B) Potential energy
(C) Thrust of liquid (D) none of these
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - The total amount of force exerted by a liquid on surface in contact is called as thrust of
liquid.

90. Unit of Thrust in MKS system is,

(A) N (B) N/m2
(C) J (D) J/m2
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - The thrust is similar to force.

91. Dimensions of thrust are,

(A) [L1M1T-2] (B) [L1M-1T2]
(C) [L M T ]
-1 -1 2 (D) [L-1M-1T-2]
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - Dimensions of thrust are same as that of force.

92. Dimensions of liquid pressure are,

(A) [L1M1T-2] (B) [L1M-1T2]
(C) [L-1M1T-2] (D) [L-1M-1T-2]
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - [Pressure] = = = [L-1M1T-2]

93. Dimensions of Thrust & liquid pressure are,

(A) Same (B) Different
(C) Depends on temperature (D) None of these
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - The Thrust is the “force” acting on a surface perpendicular to it. Force and Pressure are
different.

94. Pascal’s law states, when pressure at any point in enclosed liquid is changed by some amount,
then
(A) Equal amount of change in pressure is transmitted throughout liquid
(B) More amount of change in pressure is transmitted throughout liquid
(C) Less amount of change in pressure is transmitted throughout liquid
(D) None of these
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - According to Pascal‟s law when pressure at any point in enclosed liquid is changed by
some amount, then equal amount of change in pressure is transmitted throughout liquid.

95. Hydraulic brakes is an application of,

(A)Joule‟s law (B) Newton‟s law
(C) Pascal‟s law (D) Stoke‟s law
Answer: - Option
Explanation: - Hydraulic brakes are an application of Pascal‟s law.
Page 13 of 89
96. Hydraulic lift is an application of,
(A)Joule‟s law (B) Newton‟s law
(C) Pascal‟s law (D) Stoke‟s law
Answer: - Option
Explanation: - Hydraulic lift is an application of Pascal‟s law

97. According to Archimedes’ principle, object displaces a volume of fluid that,

(A) is volume of object (B) is volume of object which is inside liquid
(C) is volume of object which is outside liquid (D) Volume more than liquid
Answer: - Option
Explanation: - According to Archimedes‟ principle, every object displaces a volume of fluid equal to its
volume inside liquid.

98. What was the principle Archimedes discovered?

(A) Principle of Volume (B) Principle of Density
(C) Principle of Buoyancy (D) Principle of Gravity
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - It is called as principle of buoyancy.

99. By Archimedes’ principle,

(A) Up thrust force = loss of weight of body in liquid
(B) Up thrust force > loss of weight of body in liquid
(C) Up thrust force < loss of weight of body in liquid
(D) None of these
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - According to Archimedes‟ principle the up thrust force is exactly equal to loss of the weight
in liquid.

100. Archimedes’ principle states that, when solid insoluble body is completely or partly dipped in
liquid, it loses its weight and loss of weight of body is,
(A)Equal to weight of liquid displaced (B) More than weight of liquid displaced
(C) Less than weight of liquid displaced (D) None of these
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - Archimedes‟ principle states that, when solid insoluble body is completely or partly dipped in
liquid, it loses its weight and loss of weight of body is equal to weight of liquid displaced by that body.

101. Which one is application of Pascal’s law?

(A) Burglar alarm (B) Automatic street lights
(C) Detection of real diamond (D) Hydraulic press
Answer: - Option D
Explanation: - Hydraulic Press is the application of Pascal‟s law.

102. Which of the following correctly states how the viscosities of a liquid and a gas will change
with temperature?
(A)Viscosity increases with the increase in temperature of a liquid and decreases with the increase in
temperature of a gas
(B) Viscosity increases with the increase in temperature of a liquid and increases with the increase in
temperature of a gas
(C) Viscosity decreases with the increase in temperature of a liquid and decreases with the increase in
temperature of a gas
Page 14 of 89
(D) Viscosity decreases with the increase in temperature of a liquid and increases with the increase in
temperature of a gas
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - Viscosity decreases with the increase in temperature of a liquid and decreases with the
increase in temperature of a gas

103. The viscous force _______ the relative motion between the adjacent layers of a fluid in motion.
Which one of the flowing fits best in the sentence?
(A) Opposes (B) never affects
(C) Facilitates (D) may effect under certain conditions
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - The viscous force opposes the relative motion between the adjacent layers of a fluid in
motion.
104. Viscosity is the property of liquid on account of which liquid tries to,
(A)Help the relative motion between different layers
(B) Accelerates relative motion between two layers
(C) Stops relative motion between two layers
(D) Opposes relative motion between two layers
Answer: - Option D
Explanation: - Viscosity is the property of liquid on account of which liquid opposes relative motion
between two layers.

105. Velocity Gradient is defined as,

(A)Change in velocity/distance (B) Distance/ Change in velocity
(C) Change in velocity X distance (D) Change in velocity + distance
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - Velocity Gradient is defined as the change in velocity per unit distance.

106. What happens to the coefficient of viscosity if the temperature increases?

(A) Increases (B) Decreases
(C) Remains the same (D) Independent of temperature
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - The coefficient of viscosity decreases with increase in temperature.

107. What is the unit of coefficient of viscosity?

(A) kgsm-2 (B) kgms2
(C) Nm/s 2 (D) Ns/m2
Answer: - Option D
Explanation: - The unit of coefficient of viscosity is Ns/m2.

108. The constant velocity with which ball falls through the fluid is called as,
(A) Constant velocity (B) Terminal velocity
(C) Radial velocity (D) angular velocity
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - The constant velocity with which ball falls through the fluid is called as terminal velocity.

109. Stoke’s law states that the force experienced by a small metal sphere falling freely through the
viscous liquid with terminal velocity is directly proportional to,
(A) Radius of metal sphere (B) Terminal velocity
(C) Coefficient of viscosity (D) All of the above
Answer: - Option D
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Explanation: - It is directly proportional to all i.e. Radius of metal sphere, Terminal velocity and Coefficient
of viscosity.

110. As adulteration of soluble substance in liquid increases then viscosity of net solution,
(A) Increases (B) Decreases
(C) Remains same (D) None of these
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - Viscosity of the liquid increases with soluble impurity.

111. If sugar is dissolved in pure water then viscosity of net solution is,
(A) less than pure water (B) More than pure water
(C) Remains same as pure water (D) None of these
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - Viscosity of the liquid increases with soluble impurity

112. Thrust of a hydraulic Ram of diameter 20cm is 2N. Thrust exerted by ram of diameter 30cm will
be,
(A) 1.5N (B) 3N
(C) 4.5N (D) 6N
Answer: - Option
Explanation: - The

113. Liquid pressure at a depth of 5 m is 1 x 105 N/m2.Pressure at a depth of 15 m will be,

(A) 0.5 x 105 N/m2 (B) 3 x 105 N/m2
(C) 0.3 x 10 N/m
5 2 (D) 2 x 105 N/m2
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - The pressure inside the liquid is directly proportional to the depth.

114. A water tank of height 20 m is half filled. The approximate pressure at bottom is,
(A) 102 N/m2 (B) 103 N/m2
(C) 104 N/m2 (D) 105 N/m2
Answer: - Option D
Explanation: - D = density of water = 1000 kg/m3
g = 10 m/s2 (approximately)
h = 10 m
P = D x g x h = 1000 x 10 x 10 = 105 N/m2

115. A water tank of height 12m is filled one third. The approximate pressure at bottom is,
(A) 4 x 102 N/m2 (B) 4 x 103 N/m2
(C) 4 x 104 N/m2 (D) 12 x 104 N/m2
Answer: - Option
Explanation: - D = density of water = 1000 kg/m3
g = 10 m/s2 (approximately)
h=4m
P = D x g x h = 1000 x 10 x 4 = 4 x 104 N/m2

116. The weight of a person in air is 70 kg, but in water it may be 50kg. Loss of weight is due to,
(A) Viscous force (B) Up thrust force
(C) Surface tension (D) Atmospheric force
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - The up thrust force in a liquid is responsible for the loss of the weight of the body.
Page 16 of 89
 ZEAL EDUCATION SOCIETY‟S

ZEAL POLYTECHNIC,PUNE
NARHE │PUNE -41 │ INDIA
DEPARTMENT OF GENERAL SCIENCE & HUMANITIES

02 – Types of Motion Marks:- 10

Content of Chapter:-
2.1 Displacement, velocity, acceleration and retardation, equations of motion, equations of motion under
gravity
2.2 Angular displacement, angular velocity, angular acceleration, three equations of angular motion
2.3 Momentum, impulse, impulsive force, Newton's laws of motion and their applications.
2.4 Work, power and energy, potential energy, kinetic energy, work - energy principle.
Projectile motion, trajectory, angle of projection, time of flight and range of projectile with formulae.

01. Speed is a ---------- Quantity & velocity is a --------- Quantity

(A) Vector,Scalar (B) Scalar,Vector
(C) Scalar,Scalar (D) Vector,Vector
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - Speed doesn‟t depend upon direction. Velocity depends upon it.

02. Negative Acceleration is called as

(A) Slow acceleration (B) Retardation
(C) Retardation (D) Gravitational Acceleration
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - It is the process of slowing down (retardation).

03. Acceleration is given by

(A) Time/Change in velocity (B) Change in velocityXtime
(C) Change in velocity/time (D) Change in velocity + time
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - Acceleration = Change in velocity/time

04. Using usual symbols, third equation of motion is

(A) v2=u2+2as (B) u2=v2+as
(C) v =u +1/2as
2 2 2 (D) v2=u2+2as2
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - Equation in option A is correct one.

05. Which of the following is not an equation of motion of body moving vertically upward against
gravity?
(A) v=u-gt (B) s=ut-1/2gt2
(C) s=ut+1/2gt2 (D) v2=u2-2gs
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - In upward direction acceleration is negative. In Equation they used positive sign for g.

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06. A ball is released from a height & falling freely down is an example of
(A) Uniform displacement (B) Uniform Velocity
(C) Uniform Acceleration (D) reatardation
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - The velocity of the ball consistently increases in equal steps per second.

07. If a car starts from rest & accelerated for 10 seconds at the time of 0.5m/s2, its final velocity will
be
(A) 0.05m/s (B) 5m/s
(C) 50m/s (D)1.5m/s
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - v = u + at
v = 0 + 0.5x10 = 5 m/s

08. 54 km/hr is equal to

(A) 15 m/s (B) 30m/s
(C) 45m/s (D) 60m/s
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - 54 km/hr = 54 x (5/18) m/s = 15 m/s

09. A car moving with constant speed of 72km/hr, total distance covered in 10 sec will be
(A) 720m (B) 7.2m
(C) 100m (D) 200m
Answer: - Option D
Explanation: - 72 km/hr = 72 x (5/18) m/s = 20 m/s
s = vt = 20 x 10 = 200 m

10. If a ball is released freely from a certain height, the approximate distance covered by it in 1 sec
will be,
(A)15 m (B) 10m
(C) 5m (D) 1m
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - In free fall,
v = gt = 9.81x1 = 9.81 m = 10 m

11. A ball is released from terrace of building 80m.The time it will take to reach ground will be
(A) 1 sec (B) 2 sec
(C) 3 sec (D) 4 sec
Answer: - Option D
Explanation: - h = 80; a = 10 m/s2 (approx)
t2 = 2h/g = 2x80/10 = 16
t=4s

12. An object comes to rest from a velocity of 20m/s in a distance of 10 m. Acceleration will be
(A) 10m/s2 (B) 30m/s2
(C) -20m/s 2 (D) -30m/s2
Answer: - Option
Explanation: - v = 0 m/s; u = 20 m/s; s = 10m
a = (v2-u2)/2s = (0 – 400) / 2x10
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 a = -400/20 = - 20 m/s2

13. A body is said to be in motion, if it -------- its position w.r.t -------with passage of------
(A) keeps, surrounding, time (B) does not change, place .time
(C) changes, surroundings, time (D) None of these
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - A body is said to be in motion, if it changes its position w.r.t surrounding with passage of
time.

14. The rate of change of velocity w.r.t time in a given direction is called as
(A) Acceleration (B) Displacement
(C) Speed (D) Velocity

Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - The rate of change of velocity w.r.t time in a given direction is called as acceleration.

15. The second equation of motion(kinematics) is given by

(A)s=ut+at2 (B) s=ut+1/2at
(C)s=ut+1/2at2 (D) s=ut+2at2
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - Equation in option C is correct one.

16. The car starting from rest gains a velocity of 54km/hr in 15 sec, total distance covered in 10 sec
will be
(A) 5.4m (B) 50m
(C) 540m (D) 100m
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - v = 54 km/hr = 54 x (5/18) m/s = 15 m/s
t = 15 s; u = 0 m/s
a = v-u/t = (15-0)/15 = 1 m/s2
s = ut + 0.5at2
s = 0 + (0.5 x 1 x 100) = 50 m

17. A ball is thrown vertically up. It falls back to ground (same spot) after 2 sec. The maximum
height reached by it will be
(A) 1m (B) 5m
(C) 10m (D) 15m
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - Time taken to reach max height, t = 1 sec; g = 10 m/s2 approx.
h = 0.5gt2 = 0.5 x 10 x 1 = 5 m

18. A ball is thrown vertically upward with initial velocity 20m/s. The maximum height attained by
ball will be
(A) 10m (B) 30m
(C) 20m (D) 40m
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - u = 20 m/s; v = 0 m/s
s = (u2- v2)/2g = (400-0)/2x10
s = 400/20 = 20 m

Page 19 of 89
19. Every body at rest has a tendency to remain in rest & a body in motion has a tendency to remain
in motion is known as,
(A) Law of inertia (B) Newton‟s second law of motion
(C) Newton‟s third law of motion (D) retardation
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - It is the law of inertia.

20. Every body at rest has a tendency to remain in rest & a body in motion has a tendency to remain
in motion unless & until it is acted upon by external force is known as,
(A) Inertia (B) Momentum
(C) Impulse (D) Reaction
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - Definition of inertia

21. Velocity is given by,

(A) Displacement X time (B) Displacement +time
(C) Displacement/time (D) Time/Displacement
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - Formula of velocity.

22. Using usual symbols, first equation of motion is

(A)a=v+ut (B) a=u+vt
(C) u=v+at (D) v=u+at
Answer: - Option D
Explanation: - Option D is the correct first equation of motion.

23. Which of the following is not an equation of motion of body falling due to gravity
(A) v=u+gt (B) s=ut+1/2gt2
(C) v=u-gt (D) v2=u2+2gs
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - During free fall acceleration is positive. g in option c is negative.

24. If a body covers equal displacement in equal interval of time, then it is said to be in,
(A) Uniform displacement (B) Uniform velocity
(C) Uniform acceleration (D) Retardation
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - Definition of uniform displacement.

25. If change in velocity is constant in equal interval of time, then it is said to be in,
(A) Uniform displacement (B) Uniform velocity
(C) Uniform acceleration (D) Retardation
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - If velocity changes in equal steps per second, body is said to be in uniform acceleration.

26. A ball is thrown up is best example of

(A) Uniform displacement (B) Uniform velocity
(C) Uniform acceleration (D) Retardation
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - Its velocity will decrease (change) in equal steps every second.

Page 20 of 89
27. If a ball is released freely from a certain height, the approximate distance covered by it in 2 sec
will be,
(A) 15 m (B) 10m
(C) 25m (D) 20m
Answer: - Option D
Explanation: - t = 2 s; a = g= 10m/s2
h = 0.5gt2 = 0.5 x 10 x 4 = 20 m

28. A ball is thrown vertically up. It falls back to ground (same spot) after 4 sec. The maximum
height reached by it will be
(A) 20m (B) 30m
(C) 10m (D) 15m
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - Time taken to reach max height, t = 2 sec; g = 10 m/s2 approx.
h = 0.5gt2 = 0.5 x 10 x 4 = 20 m

29. The car has initial velocity if 5m/ sec, it is accelerated for 10 sec at a rate of 4 m/s 2. Its final
velocity will be
(A)200m/s (B) 205m/s
(C) 45m/s (D) 25m/s
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - u = 5m/s; a = 4 m/s2; t = 10s
v = u + at = 5 + 4x10 = 45 m/s

30. The car starting from rest gains a velocity of 54km/hr in 15 sec, total distance covered in 10 sec
will be
(A) 5.4m (B) 50m
(C) 540m (D) 100m
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - v = 54 km/hr = 54 x (5/18) m/s = 15 m/s
t = 15 s; u = 0 m/s
a = v-u/t = (15-0)/15 = 1 m/s2
s = ut + 0.5at2
s = 0 + (0.5 x 1 x 100) = 50 m

31. A ball is thrown vertically up. It falls back to ground (same spot) after 1 sec. The maximum
height reached by it will be
(A) 1m (B) 5m
(C) 10m (D) 15m
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - Time taken to reach max height, t = 0.5 sec; g = 10 m/s2 approx.
h = 0.5gt2 = 0.5 x 10 x 0.25 = 1.25 m = 1 m

32. A train crosses a tunnel in 10 sec. At the entrance of the tunnel, velocity is 20m/s and at exit its
velocity is 10m/s. The length of tunnel will be,
(A) 50m (B) 100m
(C) 150m (D) 200m
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - u = 20m/s; v = 10 m/s t = 10s
a = (v-u)/t = 10-20/10 = -1 m/s2
s = ut + 0.5at2 = 20x10 + 0.5x(-1)x100
Page 21 of 89
 s = 200 – 50 = 150 m

33. A car is moving with the velocity of 20m/s. Driver suddenly applies breaks and the car stops in 2
meter distance. Calculate the acceleration.
(A) 100m/s2 (B) -100m/s2
(C) 200m/s2 (D) -200m/s2
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - u = 20m/s; v = 0 m/s, s = 2
a = (v2-u2)/2s = (0-400) / 2x2 = -400/4
a = -100m/s2.

34. A ball is thrown vertically upward reaches ground in 4 sec. Determine the total distance covered
(A) 10m (B) 20m
(C) 30m (D) 40m
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - Time taken to reach max height, t = 2 sec; g = 10 m/s2 approx.
h = 0.5gt2 = 0.5 x 10 x 4 = 20 m

35. A car is moving with initial velocity 20m/s then suddenly brakes are applied & it is brought to
rest with retardation of 10 m/s2 .The distance covered by car will be,
(A)10m (B) 30m
(C) 20m (D) 40m
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - u = 20m/s; v = 0 m/s, a = -10m/s2
s = (v2-u2)/2a = (0-400) / 2x10 = -400/20
a = 20m.

36. If motion of body takes place along the circumference of circle, then it is called as,
(A) Linear motion (B) Angular motion
(C) Gravitational motion (D) Projectile motion
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - Motion along circumference of a circle is said to be circular or angular motion.

37. Angle subtended by radius vector when a particle is in circular motion moving from one
positioner to other is called as,
(A) Angular Displacement (B) displacement
(C) Angular velocity (D) Angular acceleration
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - Angle subtended by radius vector when a particle is in circular motion moving from one
positioner to other is called as angular displacement.

38. SI unit of angular displacement is,

(A) Radian (B) Steradian
(C) Degree (D) None of these
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - SI unit of angular displacement is radian

39. Unit of angular velocity is,

(A)s/radian (B) radian/s
(C) Radian-s (D) Degree/radian
Answer: - Option B
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Explanation: - Unit of angular velocity is rad/s

40. The rate of change of angular displacement w.r.t time is called as,
(A) Velocity (B) Angular displacement
(C) Angular velocity (D) Angular acceleration
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - Definition: The rate of change of angular displacement w.r.t time is called as angular
velocity.

41. The rate of change of angular velocity w.r.t time is called as,
(A) Acceleration (B) Angular displacement
(C) Angular velocity (D) Angular acceleration
Answer: - Option D
Explanation: - The rate of change of angular velocity w.r.t time is called as angular acceleration.

42. The relation between angular velocity (w) & linear velocity (v) is given by,
(A) r=vw (B) v=rw
(C) w=vr (D) v=r+w
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - It is the correct relation between v and w

43. Which of the following is not an equation of circular motion?

(A) w=w0+αt (B) ɵ=w0+1/2αt2
(C) w=(w0)2+2αɵ (D) w2=( w0)2+2αɵ

Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - Option B is not the equation of angular (circular) motion.

44. The relation between angular acceleration (∝) & linear acceleration (a) is given by,
(A) a=rα (B) r=aα
(C) α=ar (D) a=r+α
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - It is the correct relation between a and ∝

45. In equation w=w0+αt,α stands for

(A) Linear velocity (B) Angular displacement
(C) Angular velocity (D) Angular acceleration
Answer: - Option D
Explanation: - alpha stands for angular acceleration.

46. One revolution=---- rad

(A) π/3 (B) π/2
(C) π (D) 2π
Answer: - Option D
Explanation: - One revolution = 2 π rad

47. If a particle execute circular motion then the angular displacement is equal to,
(A) π/2 radian (B) 3π/2radian
(C) π radian (D) 2π radian
Answer: - Option D
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Explanation: - One revolution = 2 π rad

48. 1 r.p.s is equivalent to ….

(A) 1/60 rpm (B) 60rpm
(C) 1/3600rpm (D) 3600rpm
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - rps = revolutions per second; rpm = revolutions per minute

49. π radian is equal to..

(A) 600 (B) 1200
(C) 1800 (D) 3600
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - π radian is equal 1800

50. A flywheel is rotating at 120 rpm. Its angular velocity will be

(A) 2π radian /sec (B) 4π radian/sec
(C) π/2 radian /sec (D) π/4 radian/sec
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - Angular velocity = 120 rpm = 2 rps
1 revolution = 2 π
Hence Angular velocity = 2 x 2π = 4π rad/s

51. The second hand of the clock is 5cm long. The linear speed of ant sitting on tip will be,
(A)π/2 cm/s (B) π/4 cm/s
(C)π/6 cm/s (D) 2π cm/s

Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - r = 5 cm
w = 1/60 rps =2π/60 rad/s
v = rw = 5 x 2π/60 = π/6 cm/s

52. The frequency of rotation of Fan changes from 2 rev/s to 4 rev/s in 2 sec. Its angular
acceleration will be,
(A) 2π radian /sec2 (B) 4π radian/sec2
(C) π/2 radian /sec2 (D) π radian/sec2
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - w0 = 2 rps = 4π rad/s; w = 4 rps = 8π rad/s; t =2s
∝ = w - w0 / t = 8π - 4π / 2 = 2π radian /sec2

53. A flywheel is rotating at 1800 rpm .It is brought to rest in 60 revolutions .its uniform retardation
will be
(A) 5π radian /sec2 (B) 10 πradian/sec2
(C) 15 πradian /sec 2 (D) 20 πradian/sec2
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - w0 = 1800 rpm = 30 rps = 60π radian /sec
w = 0 rad/s; θ = 60 revolutions = 120π rad
∝ = (w2 – w02) / 2θ = (0 - 3600 π2) / 2 x 120π
∝ = - 3600 π2/ 240π = - 15π rad/sec2
Retardation = 15π rad/sec2

Page 24 of 89
54. A flywheel starting from rest attains a speed of 1200 rpm in 1min. Its angular acceleration will
be,
(A) π/3 radian/sec2 (B) 2π/3radian/sec2
(C) 2πradian /sec2 (D) πradian/sec2
Answer: - Option
Explanation: - w0 = 0 rad/sec
w = 1200 rpm = 20 rps = 40π rad/s
t = 1 min = 60 s
∝ = w-w0 / t = (40π – 0) / 60 = 40π/60
∝ = 2π/3 rad/sec2

55. An electric fan rotating at 600 rpm accelerates to 1500 rpm in 5 minutes. Calculate its angular
acceleration.
(A) 0.1π radian/sec2 (B) 0.3π radian/sec2
(C) 0.6π radian/sec2 (D) 0.9π radian/sec2
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - w0 = 600 rpm = 10 rps = 20π rad/sec
w = 1500 rpm = 25 rps = 50π rad/s
t = 5 min = 300 s
∝ = w-w0 / t = (50π – 20π) / 300 = 30π/300
∝ = 0.1π rad/sec2

56. A motor cycle with 90 cm wheel diameter has angular velocity of 50 rad/s. Its linear velocity will
be,
(A) 30 m/s (B) 45 m/s
(C) 22.5 m/s (D) 90 m/s
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - r = 45 x 10-2 m; w = 50 rad/s
v = rw = 45 x 10-2 x 50 = 22.5 m/s

57. Angular acceleration of a cycle is 4 radian/sec2, where its wheel diameter is 60 cm. Its linear
acceleration will be,
(A) 2.4m/s2 (B) 1.2m/s2
(C) 3.6m/s 2 (D) 4.8m/s2
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - r = 30 x 10-2 m; ∝ = 4 rad/sec2
a = r∝ = 30 x 10-2 x 4 = 1.2 m/s2

58. Periodic time of angular motion is 3 sec. Its frequency will be

(A) 2/3Hz (B) 6Hz
(C) 3Hz (D) 1/3Hz
Answer: - Option D
Explanation: - frequency = 1 / T = 1/3 Hz.

59. Frequency of rotation of fan is 4 Hz. Its periodic time will be,
(A) 4sec (B) 0.25 sec
(C) 1/2sec (D) 2 sec
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - T = 1 / frequency = ¼ = 0.25 s.

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60. A scooter with 30cm wheel diameter has angular velocity of 40rad/s. Its linear velocity will be,
(A) 30m/s (B) 6m/s
(C) 60m/s (D) 12m/s
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - r = 15 x 10-2 m; w = 40 rad/s
v = rw = 15 x 10-2 x 40 6 m/s

61. Quantity of motion possessed by moving body is called as,

(A) Impulse (B) Impulsive force
(C) Momentum (D) Quantum
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - Quantity of motion possessed by moving body is called as momentum.

62. Impulse is defined as change in

(A) Mass (B) Velocity
(C) Momentum (D) Acceleration
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - Impulse is basically the change in momentum.

63. As per the law of conservation of momentum, total momentum before collision is ______ the
total momentum after collision.
(A) Is more than (B) Is less than
(C) Is equal to (D) Greater than or equal to
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - As per the law of conservation of momentum, total momentum before collision is equal to
the total momentum after collision.

64. SI unit of momentum is,

(A) ms/kg (B) kgm/s
(C) kgs/m (D) kg m/s2
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - SI unit of momentum is kgm/s.

65. The force which acts for a short time & produce considerable change in momentum of body is ,
(A) Impulse (B) Impulsive force
(C) Momentum (D) Quantum
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - The force which acts for a short time & produce considerable change in momentum of body
is called as impulsive force.

66. Unit of Impulsive force is,

(A) N (B) Ns
(C) N/s (D) kgm/s
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - It‟s basically a force.

67. Every body continues its state of rest or of uniform motion, unless its acted upon by external
force is known as,
(A) Newton‟s 1st law of motion (B) Newton‟s 2nd law of motion
(C) Newton‟s 3rd law of motion (D) None of these
Answer: - Option A
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Explanation: - It is the statement of 1st law of motion.

68. For every action there is equal & opposite reaction is known as,
(A) Newton‟s 1st law of motion (B) Newton‟s 2nd law of motion
(C) Newton‟s 3rd law of motion (D) None of these
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - It is the statement of 3rd law of motion.

69. Newton’s second law of motion states that rate of change of momentum of a body is
proportional to ______ & takes place in direction of ______
(A) Velocity, Force (B) Force, velocity
(C) Displacement, velocity (D) applied force, force
Answer: - Option D
Explanation: - It is the statement of 2nd law of motion.

70. As per law of conservation of momentum when there is no force then total momentum of
system
(A)Before impact=After impact (B) Before impact<After impact
(C) Before impact>After impact (D) None of these
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - As per law of conservation of momentum when there is no force then total momentum of
system is same before and after the impact.

71. Identify the application of Newton’s 1st law of motion.

(A)Swimming (B) Use of seat belt in car
(C) Jumping (D) Rocket fire
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - We use seat belts to prevent forward motion due to inertia after application of breaks.

72. Which of the following is not an application of Newton’s 1st law of motion?
(A) Pushing a car (B) Use of seat belt in aeroplane
(C) Motion of simple pendulum (D) Technique used in drop coin game
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - Motion of simple pendulum resembles to simple harmonic, periodic motion.

73. Which of the following is not an application of Newton’s 1st law of motion.
(A) Removal of flower from tree by shaking tree (B) Use of seat belt in car
(C) Wanging of bottom of handle on hard surface to tighten hammer (D) Rocket fire
Answer: - Option D
Explanation: - It is an application of rocket fire.

74. Which of the following is an application of Newton’s 2nd law of motion.

(A) To & Fro motion of pendulum (B) jumping on earth
(C) while catching ball cricketer swing hands back (D) Birds fly
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - While catching the ball cricketer swings hands back in order to increase the time of impact
and reduce the force.

75. Which of the following is not an application of Newton’s 3rd law of motion.
(A) Recoil of gun (B) Firing Rocket
(C) Rotation of lawn spray sprinkler (D) Removing ketchup from bottle by shaking
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Answer: - Option D
Explanation: - It is an application of 1st law of motion.

76. As per law of conservation of momentum,

(A) m1m2=v1v2 (B) m1v2=v1m2
(C) m1v1=m2v2 (D) m1v1+m2v2=0
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - As per law of conservation of momentum when there is no force then total momentum of
system is same before and after the impact

77. A two wheeler vehicle of mass 150 kg has a velocity of 6m/s. The momentum of vehicle will be,
(A) 125kgm/s (B) 900kgm/s
(C) 90kgm/s (D) 250kgm/s
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - m = 150 kg; v = 6 m/s
p = mv = 150 x 6 = 900 kgm/s

78. The momentum of a train weighing 300000 Kg moving with a speed 90km/hr will be,
(A) 10.5X106 kgm/s (B) 25X106 kgm/s
(C) 2.5X106 kgm/s (D) 7.5X106 kgm/s
Answer: - Option D
Explanation: - m = 300000 kg; v = = 90 x 5/18 = 25 m/s
p = mv = 300000 x 25 = 7500000 kgm/s = 7.5X106 kgm/s

79. If a body of mass 50 kg changes its velocity of 5m/s to 35m/s, impulse acting on body will be,
(A)1500 kgm/s (B) 2000 kgm/s
(C) 200 kgm/s (D) 150 kgm/s
Answer: - Option D
Explanation: - m = 50 kg; u = 5 m/s; v = 35 m/s
Impulse = m(v-u) = 50(35-5) = 50 x 30 = 1500 kgm/s

80. A ball of mass 200gm rolls with a velocity of 10m/s. It is hit with a bat in direction of motion.
The velocity changes to 20m/s. If the bat is in contact with the ball for 0.02 sec, the impulsive force
on it will be,
(A)10N (B) 100N
(C) 200N (D) 20N
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - m = 200 g = 0.2 kg; u = 10 m/s; v = 20 m/s; t = 0.02s
Impulsive force = m(v-u)/t = 0.2(20-10)/0.02 = 2/0.02
Impulsive force = 100 N

81. A bullet of mass 0.1 kg is fired with a velocity of 500 m/s horizontally in wooden block of mass
5 kg, resting on a horizontal surface. If bullet remains in block, the velocity of block after impact will
be,
(A) 5 m/s (B) 11 m/s
(C) 20 m/s (D) 25 m/s
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - m1 = 0.1kg; u1 = 500 m/s; u2 = 0 m/s
m1u1 + m2u2 = (m1+m2) v
(0.1 x 500) + (5 x 0) = (0.1+5)v
55 = 5.1 v
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 v = 55/5.1 = 10.78 = 11 m/s

82. A bullet of mass 50gm is fired with a velocity of 800m/s from a gun of mass 5kg.The velocity
with which gun will recoil is,
(A) 4m/s (B) 6m/s
(C) 8m/s (D) 10m/s
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - m1 = 0.05kg; u1 = 0 m/s; v1 = 800 m/s; m2 = 5 kg; u2 = 0; v2 =?
m1u1 + m2u2 = m1v1+m2v2
0 = 0.05 x 800 + 5 v1
v1 = -0.01 x 800 = -8 m/s

83. A bullet of mass 100gm is fired with a velocity of 400m/s from a gun which produces recoil
velocity 4m/s, the mass of gun is,
(A) 2.5 kg (B) 1 kg
(C) 11 kg (D) 10 kg
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - m1 = 100 g = 0.1 kg; u1 = 0 m/s; v1 = 400 m/s
u2 = 0 m/s; v2 = - 4 m/s; m2 =?
m1u1 + m2u2 = m1v1+m2v2
0 = 0.1 x 400 - 4 m1
m1 = 0.01 x 100 = 1 kg

84. Work is given by relation,

(A)W=force / displacement (B) Force=work / Displacement
(C) W=Force + Displacement (D) Work=Force X Displacement
Answer: - Option D
Explanation: - Work formula.

85. According to the law of conservation of energy, the total energy of system in various
forms______
(A) Increases (B) Decreases
(C) Remains same (D) None of these
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - Total energy of the universe remains same (constant). It does not increase or decrease.

86. The capacity of doing work is called as,

(A) Power (B) Energy
(C) Force (D) Displacement
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - The capacity of doing work is called as energy – Definition.

87. In case of motion of hand roller, the work done is given by,
(A) W=force/displacement (B) Work=component of force in direction of motion X Displacement
(C) W=Displacement/force (D) Work=Force X Displacement
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - Correct formula of workdone.

88. Power is defined as______

(A) Time per work done (B) Amount of work done
(C) Rate of work done w.r.t time (D) Work done per unit mass
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Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - Rate of doing work is called Power.

89. The water stored in a dam is an example of ______

(A) Kinetic energy (B) Potential Energy
(C) Surface energy (D) Liquid energy
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - The water stored in a dam is an example of potential energy.

90. Work is a _____quantity, power is a _____ quantity.

(A) Scalar, scalar (B) scalar, vector
(C) Vector, vector (D) Vector, scalar
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - work and power both are scalar quantities.

91. SI unit of work done is,

(A) newton (B) dyne
(C) watt (D) joule
Answer: - Option D
Explanation: - SI unit of work done is joule

92. SI unit of work Power is,

(A) newton (B) dyne
(C) watt (D) joule
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - SI unit of power is watt (W).

93.1watt is given by,

(A) 1J/1s (B) 1JX1s
(C) 1s/1J (D) None of these
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - P = W/t
94. The unit of work & energy are,
(A) joule, joule (B) joule, watt
(C) watt, joule (D) joule, newton
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - Work and Energy both have same unit. i.e. joule.

95. Potential energy is stored form of energy & given by,

(A) P.E=mg/h (B) P.E=mgh
(C) P.E=h/mg (D) P.E=m/gh
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - The formula of potential energy.

96. Kinetic energy is stored form of energy & given by,

(A) K.E=2mv2 (B) K.E=1/2mv2
(C) K.E=mv 2 (D) K.E=1/2mv
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - The formula of kinetic energy.

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97. Work energy principle states that work done by a system of forces acting on body between any
two points is equal to,
(A) Change in P.E (B) Additions of K.E
(C) Change in K.E (D) Additions of P.E
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - According to work-energy principle, the work done by or on a body between any two points
is the change in K. E.
98. Work done=Change in K.E is ______
(A) Gravitational law (B) Watts equation
(C) Newton‟s 1st law of motion (D) Work-energy principle
Answer: - Option D
Explanation: - This is called as work-energy principle.

99. Power is given by relation,

(A) Power=Force X velocity (B) Power=Force/velocity
(C) Power=velocity/force (D) None of these
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - Power = force x velocity, when the force acting on the body is constant.

100. Efficiency of pump is given by,

(A) Efficiency=input power/Output power (B) Efficiency=Output power/Input power
(C) Efficiency=input power X Output power (D) Efficiency=input power+Output power
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - Correct formula of efficiency.

101.Tank of volume 1m3 occupies

(A) 760kg of water (B) 1250kg of water
(C) 1000 kg of water (D) 1gm of water
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - Density of water = 1000 kg/m3.

102. For water 1 Liter is equal to,

(A) 1kg (B) 0.85kg
(C) 1.25kg (D) None of these
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - 1liter water = 1 kg of water.

103. Force of 10N applied on body produces displacement of 10 m, The work done will be ____
(A) 1J (B) 100J
(C) 20J (D) 200J
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - W = F x S = 10 x 10 = 100 J

104.1000 liters of water is pumped to a height of 50 m. The work done by pump will be,
(A) 9.8 X 105J (B) 2 X 105J
(C) 4.9 X 10 J
5 (D) 20 X 105J
Answer: - Option
Explanation: - P E = mgh = 1000 x 9.8 x 50 = 450000 J = 4.9 X 105 J

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105. A man pulls a hand roller on a cricket pitch with a force of 200N inclined at an angle of 60 to
horizontal. The work done in pulling roller over a pitch of 20 m long will be,
(A) 500J (B) 100J
(C) 200J (D) 2000J
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - W = F S cos θ = 200 x 20 x cos 60 = 400 x 0.5 = 200 J

106. A rocket motor exerts a thrust of 2MN at a speed of 250m/s. Power developed in it will be,
(A) 100MW (B) 500MW
(C) 1000MW (D) 1500MW

Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - P = F x v = 2 MN x 250 = 500 MW

107. A lift of weight 500N is being raised with uniform velocity 2m/s. Power involved in it will be
(A) 1KW (B) 10KW
(C) 100KW (D) 200KW
Answer: - Option
Explanation: - P = F x v = 500 x 2 = 1000 W = 1 KW

108. A water pump rated 400 W, has an efficiency of 75%. If it is employed to raise water how much
work can it do in an hour?
(A) 1.08 MJ (B) 108 MJ
(C) 10.8 MJ (D) 108 J
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - t = 1 hour = 3600 s; Input P = 400 watt; Efficiency = 75/100 = 0.75
= Efficiency
Output P = Efficiency x Input P = 0.75 x 400 = 300 watt
Work done in an hour (3600 s)
W = Pt = 300 x 3600 = 1080000 J = 1.08 MJ

109. A vehicle of mass 100kg is moving with a speed of 36km/hr. Its kinetic energy will be,
(A) 5000J (B) 7000J
(C) 8000J (D) 2000J
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - m = 100 kg; v = 36 km/hr = 36 x 5/18 = 10 m/s
K E = ½ mv2 = ½ 100 x 100 = 5000 J

110. A train of mass 200000 kg is running at a speed of 54km/hr. Train is brought to rest in100m.
Resistive force of train will be,
(A) 1X105N (B) 2.25X105N
(C) 5X10 N
5 (D) 10X105N
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - m = 200000 kg; u = 54 km/hr = 54 x 5/18 = 15 m/s; v = 0 m/s; s = 100 mS
F = ma = m x [v2-u2/2s] = 200000 x [(0-225)/(2x100)] = -225000 = - 2.25X105N

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111. A force of 24 N is used in lift an object over a height of 3m. Potential energy gained by object
is,
(A) 8J (B) 12J
(C) 72J (D) 92J
Answer: - Option
Explanation: - P E = mgh = Fh = 24 x 3 = 72 J

112. Projectile motion is defined as an object thrown in air making angle ___ with horizontal.
(A) more than 900 (B) more than 00 & less than 900
(C) less than 0 0 (D) 1800
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - Projectile is defined as an object thrown in air making angle more than 00 & less than 900.
with horizontal.

113. Which of the following is not an example of projectile motion?

(A) Football kicked in air (B) Cricket ball as batsman hit six
(C) Javelin throw (D) Motion of carom coin

Answer: - Option D
Explanation: - It performs linear motion.

114. A stone is thrown by making an angle of 900 with horizontal, the path of stone is
(A)Circular (B) Elliptical
(C) Linear (D) Parabolic
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - The object will move vertically upwards.

115. A ball is dropped from moving train .The path of the ball observed by the man on ground is
(A) Circular (B) Zigzag
(C) Straight but Slanted (D) Parabolic
Answer: - Option D
Explanation: - The path will be parabolic.

116. A ball is dropped by a person from moving train .The path of the ball observed by the man from
train is
(A)Circular (B) Zigzag
(C) Straight but Slanted (D) Parabolic
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - The path will be straight.

117. Motion of a projectile is

(A) One dimensional (B) Two dimensional
(C) Three dimensional (D) Four dimensional
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - The object moves in two dimensions.

118. A stone is projected making an angle of 900 with horizontal, the path of stone is
(A) Circular (B) Elliptical
(C) Linear (D) Parabolic
Answer: - Option
Explanation: -
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119. A stone is released from window by a person from moving train .The path of the stone
observed by the man on ground is_____
(A)Circular (B) Elliptical
(C) Straight (D) Parabolic
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - The object will move vertically upwards

120. At the top of trajectory of a projectile, the direction of its velocity & acceleration are,
(A) parallel to each other (B) Perpendicular to each other
(C) Inclined to each other at 450 (D) Inclined to each other at 600
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - The velocity is forward and the acceleration is vertically downward.

121. Trajectory is defined as ______ traced by an object in projectile motion.

(A) Angle (B) horizontal line
(C) Height (D) path
Answer: - Option D
Explanation: - Trajectory is defined as the path traced by an object in projectile motion.

122. Angle of projection in projectile motion is given by,

(A) ɵ=tan(4H/R) (B) ɵ=tan-1(4H/R)
(C) ɵ=tan(R/4H) (D) ɵ=tan-1(R/4H)
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - The correct formula is given by, ɵ=tan-1(4H/R)

123. Total horizontal distance covered by projectile is called

(A) Trajectory (B) Height of projectile
(C) Range of projectile (D) Time of flight
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - Total horizontal distance covered by projectile is called range of the projectile.

124. Maximum vertical distance covered by a projectile from ground level is called height of
projectile & is given by _____
(A) H=v2sinɵ/2g (B) H=v2sin2ɵ/2g
(C) H=vsinɵ/2g (D) H=vsinɵ/g
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - The correct formula is given in option B

125. Range of projectile is given by,

(A) R=v2sinɵ/2g (B) R=v2sin2ɵ/2g
(C) R=2vsinɵ/2g (D) R=v2sin2ɵ/g
Answer: - Option D
Explanation: - The correct formula is given in option D

126. Horizontal range covered by projectile is proportional to,

(A) V (B) V2
(C) g (D) sinɵ
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - R=v2sin2ɵ/g. As formula suggests the range (R) is directly proportional to v2.

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127. A player kicks a ball at an angle ɵ with the horizontal. The maximum horizontal range
corresponds to angle of
(A) 300 (B) 450
(C) 600 (D) 750
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - For ɵ = 450, sin2ɵ = 1.
Hence, v2sin2ɵ/g = v2/g i.e. maximum.

128. The horizontal range covered by a projectile is proportional to

(A) its velocity (B) square of velocity
(C) sine angle of projection (D) square of sine angle of projection
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - R=v2sin2ɵ/g. As formula suggests the range (R) is directly proportional to v2.

129. Four balls A, B, C & D are projected with same speed making angles 150, 300, 450 and 600 with
horizontal. Which ball will strike the ground at farthest point?
(A) A (B) B
(C) C (D) D
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - Range of a projectile is maximum when the angle of projection is 450.

130. Four balls A, B, C & D are projected with same speed making angles 150, 300, 450 and 600 with
horizontal. Which ball will strike the ground at same point?
(A) A & C (B) B & D
(C) No two balls will strike at same speed on ground (D) all balls will strike at same point on ground
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - sin (2x30) = sin (2x60) i.e. sin 2ɵ
sin 60 = sin 120 = 0.866 approx.

131. A cricketer player hits a six at an angle ɵ with horizontal. The maximum horizontal range
corresponds to an angle of _____
(A) 300 (B) 450
(C) 60 0 (D)750
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - The maximum horizontal range corresponds to an angle of 450.

132. A cricketer hits a pitched ball at some height from ground. The angle of projection for
maximum horizontal range must be
(A) 300 (B) 450
(C) slightly less than 450 (D) ) slightly more than450
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - The maximum horizontal range corresponds to an angle of 450.

133. A man can throw a stone 80 m away. The maximum height to which he can throw stone is,
(A) 20m (B) 40m
(C) 50m (D) 60m
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - for ɵ = 450, Rmax = v2/g= 80 m;
h = v2sin2ɵ/2g = v2/g x sin2ɵ/2 = 80 x1/4 = 20 m

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138. A ball thrown with initial velocity u at an angle ɵ with the vertical. The velocity of the ball at the
highest point will be,
(A) Zero (B) u
(C) u cosɵ (D) u sinɵ
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - The vertical component of the velocity becomes 0. The horizontal (ucosɵ) remains same.

139. A ball is thrown with velocity 80 m/s making an angle 300 with horizontal, maximum height
attained by ball is,
(A) H=95.5m (B) H=21.3m
(C) H=50.1m (D) H=81.63m
Answer: - Option D
Explanation: - h = v2sin2ɵ/2g = 6400 x (½)2 / 2x9.8 = 81.63 m

140. A ball is thrown with velocity 80 m/s making an angle 300 with horizontal range covered by ball
is,
(A)455m (B) 505m
(C) 565.571m (D) 605.5m
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - R = v2sin2ɵ/g = 6400 x 0.866 / 9.8 = 565.571 m

141. Four stones A, B, C & D are projected with same velocity making angles 350, 450 550 and 650
with horizontal. Which stone will hit ground at longest point?
(A) A (B) B
(C) C (D) D
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - The maximum horizontal range corresponds to an angle of 450

Prepared By
Verified By Re-Verified By Approved By
Mr. Sandip Wakchaure
Mr. Pritam Dhavan Mr. Pritam Dhavan Mr. Pathak S. R.
Mr. Milind Shewale
Module Coordinator Academic Coordinator FY Coordinator
Mrs. Savita Suryawanshi

Page 36 of 89
 ZEAL EDUCATION SOCIETY‟S

ZEAL POLYTECHNIC,PUNE
NARHE │PUNE -41 │ INDIA
DEPARTMENT OF GENERAL SCIENCE & HUMANITIES

03 – Photo electricity, X-ray, LASER Marks:- 11

Content of Chapter:-
3.1 Plank's hypothesis, properties of photons, photo electric effect, threshold frequency, threshold wavelength,
stopping potential, work function, characteristics photoelectric effect, Einstein's photoelectric equation.
3.2 Photoelectric cell and LDR: Principle, working and Applications.
3.3 Production of X-rays by modern Coolidge tube, properties and application.
3.4 Laser: Properties, absorption, spontaneous and stimulated emission, application of laser.
3.5 Population inversion, active medium, optical pumping, three energy level system, He - Ne Laser

01. When light of suitable frequency is incident on metallic surface, the electrons are emmited from
metal surface, this effect is
(A) Photoelectric effect (B) Thermoelctric effect
(C) Heating effect of electric current (D) Seebeck effect
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - When light of suitable frequency is incident on metallic surface, the electrons are emmited
from metal surface, this effect is Photoelectric effect.

02. According to Planck’s theory, Energy is not emitted or absorbed continuously, but in discrete
packets. These energy packets are called as
(A) Electrons (B) Protons
(C) Photons (D) Neutrons
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - According to Planck‟s theory, Energy is not emitted or absorbed continuously, but in
discrete packets. These energy packets are called as Photons

03. Light can behave

(A) like a wave (B) Like a particle
(C) both wave & particle (D) None of these
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - Light can behave both wave & particle

04. Photons are electrically

(A) Positive (B) Negative
(C) Neutral (D) None of these
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - Photons are electrically Neutral. They have no charge upon them.

05. Photons travel with a speed

(A) Positive (B) less than speed of light
(C) more than speed of light (D) equal to that of light.
Answer: - Option D
Explanation: - Photons are the particles of light. Hence have same speed as that of light.
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06. Energy of photon is given by,
(A) E=h/v (B) h=E/v
(C) E=h+v (D) E=hv
Answer: - Option D
Explanation: - Formula of energy associated to a photon having frequency „v‟.

07. Which of the following is a correct relation between v and λ?

(A) c=v+λ (B) v=cλ
(C) c=vλ (D) λ=cv
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - It‟s a formula.

08. Which of the following is a correct relation between v and c?

(A) c=v+λ (B) v=c/λ
(C) v=cλ (D) λ=cv
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - It‟s a formula.

09. The energy of photon of wavelength λ is

(A) E=hλ/c (B) E=h/cλ
(C) E=hc+λ (D) E=hc/λ
Answer: - Option D
Explanation: - Because, v = c/λ.

10. The ratio of photon energy to its frequency is,

(A) Planck‟s constant (B) Poission‟s ratio
(C) Joule‟s constant (D) Stoke‟s constant
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - E/v = h (because, E=hv)

11. The value of h is,

(A) 3.36 x 10-34 Js (B) 6.63 x 10-34 Js
(C) 6.63 x 10-27 Js (D) None of these
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - h = 6.63 x 10-34 Js

12. Photon is
(A) Indivisible entity (B) Divisible entity
(C) Electrically positive (D) Electrically negative
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - Photon is the smallest possible particle of the light.

13. Photons are,

(A) Deflected by magnetic field (B) Deflected by electric field
(C) Do not ionize (D) Ionize
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - Photons do not ionize the material medium.

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14. As per Einstein’s theory of relativity,
(A) E=m/c2 (B) E=mc2
(C) E=mc (D) E=m/c
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - It is the famous equation in relativity by Einstein - E=m/c2

15. The rest mass of photon of frequency (v) is,

(A) m=hv/c (B) m=hc/v
(C) m=hv/c 2 (D) m=hv2/c
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - E = mc2 = hv.

16.The mass of photon of wavelength (λ) is,

(A) m=hcλ (B) m=hc/λ
(C) m=λ/hc (D) m=h/λc
Answer: - Option D
Explanation: - m = hv/c2
But, v = c/λ
Hence, m=h/λc

17. The emission of Photoelectron takes place is

(A) v<v0 (B) v>v0
(C) v0>v (D) v not equal to v0
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - The emission of Photoelectron takes place for the frequencies (v) greater than threshold
frequency (v0)

18. The amount of energy required to separate the electron from atom is called as
(A)Kinetic energy (B) Potential energy
(C) Photoelectric work function (D) Light energy
Answer: - Option
Explanation: - The amount of energy required to separate the electron from atom is called as Photoelectric
work function.

19. The value of Photoelectric work function depends on,

(A)Nature of metal (B) Speed of photons
(C) Medium (D) Area of metal plate
Answer: - Option
Explanation: - The value of Photoelectric work function depends on nature of metal.

20. Threshold frequency of a metal is the _______ frequency of incident light at which
(A) minimum, emission does not take place (B) Maximum, emission not take place
(C) minimum, emission just begin (D) maximum, emission just begin
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - Threshold frequency of a metal is the minimum frequency of incident light at which emission
just begins.

21. The value of photoelectric work function & threshold frequency changes from
(A) Place to place (B) Time to time
(C) One point to other (D) Metal to metal
Answer: - Option B
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Explanation: - The value of photoelectric work function & threshold frequency changes from metal to metal

22. The negative potential given to cell at which photoelectric current becomes zero is
(A) Photopotential (B) Stopping potential
(C) Light potential (D) zero potential
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - The negative potential given to cell at which photoelectric current becomes zero is stopping
potential.

23. Photoelectric current is directly proportional to

(A) Speed of photon (B) Energy of photon
(C) Frequency of light (D) Intensity of incident light
Answer: - Option D
Explanation: - Photoelectric current is directly proportional to intensity of light.

24. The velocity of photoelectron is directly proportional to

(A) Speed of photon (B) Temperature of metal
(C) Frequency of light (D) Intensity of incident light
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - The velocity of photoelectron is directly proportional to frequency of light

25. What is the effect of intensity on the stopping potential?

(A) As intensity increases, stopping potential increases linearly
(B) As intensity increases, stopping potential decreases linearly
(C) As intensity decreases, stopping potential increases exponentially
(D) No effect
Answer: - Option D
Explanation: - Stopping potential does not depend upon the intensity of light. It depends upon frequency of
light.

26. During Einstein’s Photoelectric Experiment, what changes are observed when the frequency of
the incident radiation is increased?
(A)The value of stopping potential increases (B) No effect
(C) The value of saturation current increases (D) The value of stopping potential decreases
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - Stopping potential depends upon frequency of light.

27. Which of the following is not a characteristic of photoelectric effect?

(A) The process is instantaneous (B) Emission takes place only if v>v0
(C) Rate of emission directly prop.To temp(T) (D) photoelectric current directly prop to intensity
of light
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - Emission starts when incident frequency (v) is more than threshold frequency (v0).

28. Einstein’s photoelectric equation is given by,

(A) 1/2mv2=h(v-v0) (B) 1/2mv2=2h(v-v0)
(C) 1/2mv2=h(v0-v) (D) 1/2mv2=h/(v-v0)
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - Equation in option A is correct.

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29. Out of the following which is correct Einstein’s photoelectric equation?
(A) 1/2mv2=h(v-v0) (B) 1/2mv2=2h(v-v0)
(C) 1/2mv =h(v0-v)
2 (D) 1/2mv2=h/(v-v0)
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - Equation in option A is correct.

30. The maximum K.E of photoelectrons depends on

(A)Intensity & Frequency both (B) Stopping potential
(C) Frequency of light (D) Intensity of incident light
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - It depends upon frequency of light.

31. In Einstein’s photoelectric equation1/2mv2=h(v-v0) if v<v0 then,

(A) emission just begins (B) emission takes place
(C) No emission (D) rate of emission is high
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - In such case emission does not take place.

32. In Einstein’s photoelectric equation1/2mv2=h(v-v0) if v=v0 then,

(A) Emission just begins (B) emission just begins
(C) No emission (D) rate of emission is high
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - When incident frequency (v) is equal to threshold frequency (v0) emission just begins.

33. In Einstein’s photoelectric equation1/2mv2=h(v-v0) if v>v0 then

(A) emission just begins (B) emission takes place
(C) No emission (D) rate of emission is high
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - In this case emission takes place with ease.

34. Unit of momentum is

(A) kg-s/m (B) kg-cm/s
(C) kg-m/s (D) kg-m/s
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - Potion C is correct.

35. Which of the following is not application of photocell

(A) Burgular alarm (B) Lux meter
(C) Automatic street light controller (D) Cancer cure
Answer: - Option D
Explanation: - For cancer cure we use X-rays.

36. The type of light used in burglar alarm is,

(A) IR light (B) X rays
(C) UV rays (D) Visible light
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - Infrared light is used in burglar alarm.

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37. The principle of LDR is
(A) resistance decreases as intensity of light increases
(B) resistance increases as intensity of light increases
(C) resistance increases as frequency of light increases
(D) Number of photoelectrons increases with intensity
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - Resistance of LDR decreases with increasing intensity of light.

38. Which of the following is not application of LDR?

(A) Security alarm (B) smoke detector
(C) dental surgery (D) street light control
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - LDRs are not used in dental surgeries.

39. The energy of photoelectron is 2.4 eV. Its frequency will be,
(A) 2.4 x 1014 Hz (B) 5.79 x 1014 Hz
(C) 8 x 10 Hz
14 (D) 8 x 1014 Hz
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - 1eV =1. 6 x 10-19 J
Hence, 2.4eV = 2.4 x 1. 6 x 10-19 J = 3.84 x 10-19 J
E = hv
v = E/h = 3.84 x 10-19 / 6.63 x 10-34
v = 0.579 x 1015
v = 5.79 x 1014 Hz

40. The photoelectric work function of a metal is 6 x 10-19 J. Its threshold frequency will be,
(A) 2 x 1014 Hz (B) 6 x 1014 Hz
(C) 9 x 10 Hz
14 (D) 12 x 1014 Hz
Answer: - Option
Explanation: -

41. Calculate threshold frequency of metal, if the work function of metal is 6eV.
(A) 14.4 x 1014 Hz (B) 14.4 x 1014 Hz
(C) 32.2 x 10 Hz
14 (D) 32.2x 1015 Hz
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - work function = 6eV = 6 x 1.6 x 10-19 J = 9.6 x 10-19 J
v0 = work function / h = 9.6 x 10-19 / 6.63 x 10-34
v0 = 1.44 x 1015 Hz
v0 = 14.4 x 1014 Hz

42. Threshold frequency of metal is 1.2 x 1015 Hz. Its threshold wavelength is
(A) 6 x 10-7 m (B) 6 x 107 m
(C) 2.5 x 107 m (D) 2.5 x 10-7 m
Answer: - Option D
Explanation: - c = v0λ0
λ0 = c / v0
λ0 = 3 x 108 / 1.2 x 1015
λ0 = 2.5 x 10-7 m

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43. Threshold wavelength of metal is 3800Au. Its photoelectric work function is
(A) 5.2 x 10-19 J (B) 12 x 10-19 J
(C) 7.2 x 10 J
-19 (D) 9.5 x 10-19 J
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - λ0 = 3800 x 10-10 m
Work function = hv0 = hc / v0
work function = 6.63 x 10-34 x 3 x 108 / 3800 x 10-10
work function = 0.00523 x 10-16
work function = 5.23 x 10-19 J

44. The photoelectric work function of a metal is 2 x 10-19 J. Its threshold frequency will be,
(A) 3 x 1012 Hz (B) 3 x 1013 Hz
(C) 3 x 1014 Hz (D) 3 x 1015 Hz
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - work function = 2 x 10-19 J
v0 = work function / h = 2 x 10-19 / 6.63 x 10-34
v0 = 0.301 x 1015 Hz
v0 = 3.01 x 1014 Hz

45. The energy of photon is 6 x 10-19 J. Its wavelength is

(A) 3.3x 10-9 m (B) 3.3x 10-8 m
(C) 3.3x 10-6 m (D) 3.3x 10-7 m
Answer: - Option
Explanation: - E = 6 x 10-19 J
E = hv
E = hc/λ
λ = hc/E = 6.63 x 10-34 x 3 x 108 / 6 x 10-19
λ = 3.31 x 10-7 m

46. When fast moving electrons are suddenly stopped then ___ are produced
(A) Laser (B) Current
(C) X-rays (D) None of these
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - X-rays are produced when fast moving electrons are suddenly stopped.

47. In Coolidge X-ray tube, electrons are produced due to process known as …….
(A) Photoelectric emission (B) Thermionic emission
(C) Ultrasonic emission (D) Hydraulic emission
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - Thermionic emission is the emission of electrons from a heated metal (cathode). This
principle was first used in the Coolidge tube and then later in the modern day x-ray tubes.

48. In the process of X-ray production, the intensity of X-rays can be controlled by ……
(A) Adjusting filament current (B) Adjusting P.D. between cathode and anode
(C) Adjusting angle of target (D) Adjusting cooling rate
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - The intensity of X-rays can be controlled by adjusting filament current as filament is
producing the free electrons.

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49. In the process of X-ray production, the penetration of X-rays (hard X-rays or soft X-rays) can be
controlled by ……
(A) Adjusting filament current (B) Adjusting P.D. between cathode and anode
(C) Adjusting angle of target (D) Adjusting cooling rate
Answer: - Option
Explanation: - In the process of X-ray production, the penetration of X-rays (hard X-rays or soft X-rays)
can be controlled by adjusting P.D. between cathode and anode.

50. Which of the following is not a property of X-ray?

(A) Have high penetrating power (B) Produce photoelectric effect
(C) Affect photographic plates (D) Get deflected by magnetic or electric fields
Answer: - Option D
Explanation: - X-rays are electrically neutral. Hence, cannot be deflected by magnetic or electric fields.

51. X-rays travel with the speed of light. X-rays produces ionization in the gases……
(A) True, True (B) True, False
(C) False, True (D) False, False
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - X-rays have same speed as that of light. They do not ionize the gases.

52. Which of the following is not an application of X-Ray?

(A) To detect crack in body of aero plane (B) to detect smuggling gold at airport
(C) Used as sensor in automation industry (D) to detect crack in bridge
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - X-rays are not used as a sensor in automation industry.

53. Which of the following is not an application of X-Ray?

(A) To detect crack in body (B) To treat tumors
(C) Used in eye surgery (D) To treat cancer
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - X-rays cannot be used in eye surgery.

54. Calculate operating voltage of X ray tube which emits X-rays of wavelength 0.25Au.
(A)25kV (B) 30.6kV
(C) 35.7kV (D) 49.6kV
Answer: - Option D
Explanation: - λ = 0.25Au = 0.25 x 10-10 m
eV = hc / λ
V = hc / eλ
V= 6.63 x 10-34 x 3 x 108 / 1.6 x 10-19 x 0.25 x 10-10
V = 49.72 x 103 V
V = 49.72 x K V

55. Which of the following is a unique property of laser?

(A) Directional (B) Single wavelength
(C) Coherence (D) All of them.
Answer: - Option D
Explanation: - All are the properties of a LASER.

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56. Which of the following is not a property of laser?
(A) Directional (B) Monochromatic
(C) Coherence (D) high penetrating power
Answer: - Option D
Explanation: - LASERs are not highly penetrating.

57. LASER stands for,

(A) Light amplification by stimulated emission of radiation
(B) Light above stimulated emission of radiation
(C) Light amplification by stimulated electron refraction
(D) Light amplification by spontaneous emission of radiation
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: -Option A is correct.

58. In the process of spontaneous emission, atom makes transition from

(A) ground state to excited state (B) Excited state to ground state
(C) low energy level to high energy level (D) None of these

Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - In the process of spontaneous emission, atom makes transition from excited state to ground
state.

59. In the process of stimulated emission, atom makes transition from

(A) ground state to excited state (B) Excited state to ground state
(C) low energy level to high energy level (D) None of these
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - In the process of stimulated emission, atom makes transition from higher energy level
(excited state) to lower energy level (ground level).

60. In the process of stimulated absorption, atom makes transition from

(A) ground state to excited state (B) Excited state to ground state
(C) low energy level to high energy level (D) None of these
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - During absorption the atom transits from low energy level to higher energy level.

61. What is the need to achieve population inversion?

(A) To excite most of the atoms (B) To bring most of the atoms to ground state
(C) To achieve stable condition (D) To reduce the time of production of laser
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - In order to excite most of the atoms one needs to achieve population inversion.

62. The relationship between N1 and N2 for stimulated emission to be dominant is

(A) N1 = N2 (B) N1 > N2
(C) N2 > N1 (D) No such relationship
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - N2 (number of atoms in the exited state) must more than N1 (number of atoms in ground
state)

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63. During pumping, the atoms are excited to
(A) Higher Exited States (B) Lower Energy states
(C) Meta Stable states (D) Not Excited
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - During pumping, the atoms are excited to higher excited state.

64. In computer printers ___ laser is used.

(A) He–Ne gas (B) ruby
(C) semiconductor (D) CO2
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - In computer printers semiconductor LASERs are used.

65. An atom remains in excited state for 10-8 seconds & comes to ground state immediately. This
state is known as
(A) Short excited state (B) Temporary excited state
(C) Metastable state (D) ordinary excited state
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - When an atom remains in excited state for 10-8 seconds & comes to ground state
immediately, this state is known as temporary excited state.

66. Which of the following is not application of LASER?

(A) Engraving & embossing (B) Cutting & drilling metals
(C) Chemical analysis (D) Computer printer
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - LASERs are not used for chemical analysis.

67. Making population of higher energy state more than ground state is
(A) Population hiker (B) Population inversion
(C) Crowd maker (D) None of these
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - The process is called as population inversion.

68. Proper Lasing action can be produced using

(A) one level laser system (B) two level laser system
(C) three level laser system (D) None of these
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - Proper Lasing action can be produced using three level laser system.

69. Appropriate Lasing action can be produced using,

(A) one level laser system (B) two level laser system
(C) three level laser system (D) None of these
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - Appropriate Lasing action can be produced using two level laser system.

70. He-Ne laser is a type of

(A) Solid laser (B) Liquid laser
(C) Gas laser (D) None of these
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - He-Ne laser is a gas laser as it contains gases (Helium and Neon).

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71. Which pumping method is used in He-Ne laser?
(A) Optical Pumping (B) Electrical Excitation
(C) Chemical Pumping (D) Direct Conversion
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - In He-Ne LASER atoms are pumped by electrical excitation.

72. Which characteristic of LASER allows it to be used in holography?

(A) Coherency (B) Directionality
(C) Intensity (D) Monochromaticity
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - Coherency is the important characteristic of LASER used in holography.

73. The relaxation time for metastable state is

(A) 10 year (B) 1year
(C) 100 to 10000 sec (D) 10-6 to 10-3 sec
Answer: - Option D
Explanation: - An atom can remain in metastable state for around 10-6 to 10-3 seconds.

Prepared By
Verified By Re-Verified By Approved By
Mr. Sandip Wakchaure
Mr. Pritam Dhavan Mr. Pritam Dhavan Mr. Pathak S. R.
Mr. Milind Shewale
Module Coordinator Academic Coordinator FY Coordinator
Mrs. Savita Suryawanshi

Page 47 of 89
 ZEAL EDUCATION SOCIETY‟S

ZEAL POLYTECHNIC,PUNE
NARHE │PUNE -41 │ INDIA
DEPARTMENT OF GENERAL SCIENCE & HUMANITIES

04 – Metallurgy Marks:-12
Content of Chapter:-
4.1 - Metallurgy, mineral, ore, gangue, flux, slag.
4.2 - Types of furnace: Muffle furnace, Blast furnace.
4.3 - Extraction process of Hematite, copper pyrite ores: crushing, concentration and refining.
4.4 - Properties of iron and copper: Hardness, tensile strength, toughness, malleability, ductility,
refractoriness, fatigue resistance, specific gravity, specific heat, brazing, castability, stiffness.
4.5 - Preparation of alloys (Fusion and compression method)
4.6 - Ferrous alloys: Low carbon, medium carbon,
high carbon steels
4.7 - Non-ferrous alloy: Brass, Bronze
4.8 - Cement: Types; Biocement and Portland cement
constituents, setting and hardening, applications
4.9 - Lime: classification, constituents, setting and hardening, applications.
4.10- Refractory material: Types, properties.

Q.1. The property which enables metals to be drawn into wire is known as…….
A. Malleability B. Elastic deformation
C. Ductility D. Plastic deformation
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - Ductility is the ability of a metal to receive permanent deformation without fracturing. Metals
that can be formed or pressed into another shape without fracturing are ductile.

Q.2. Slow plastic deformation of metals under a constant stress is known as…..
A. Fatigue B. Gradual deformation
C. Proof deformation D. Creep
Answer: - Option D
Explanation: - Creep is the tendency of a solid material to move slowly or deform permanently under the
influence of persistent mechanical stresses. It can occur as a result of long-term exposure to high levels of
stress that are still below the yield strength of the material. Creep is more severe in materials that are
subjected to heat for long periods and generally increases as they near their melting point.

Q.3. Which is closest to the purest form of the iron?

A. Caste iron B. Pig iron
C. Wrought iron D. Steel
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - Wrought iron is a soft, ductile, fibrous variety that is produced from a semifused mass of
relatively pure iron globules partially surrounded by slag. It usually contains less than 0.1
percent carbon and 1 or 2 percent slag.

Q.4. The product from blast furnace is called

A. Caste iron B. Pig iron
C. Wrought iron D. Steel

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Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - Pig iron, also known as crude iron, is an intermediate product of the iron industry in the
production of steel which is obtained by smelting iron ore in a blast furnace. Pig iron has a very
high carbon content, typically 3.8–4.7% along with silica and other constituents of dross, which makes it
very brittle and not useful directly as a material except for limited applications.

Q.5. Ore of iron is

A. Haematite B. Bauxite
C. Chalcopyrite D. Halite
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - Hematite naturally occurs in black to steel or silver-gray, brown to reddish-brown or red
colors. It is mined as an important ore of iron. It is electrically conductive. Hematite varieties include kidney
ore, martite (pseudomorphs after magnetite), iron rose and specularite (specular hematite). While these
forms vary, they all have a rust-red streak. Hematite is not only harder than pure iron, but also much
more brittle. Magnetite is a polymorph of hematite with the same chemical formula, but with a spinel
structure like magnetite.

Q.6. Process in which some minerals are converted to oxide by heating in air temperature below
their melting point is called
A. Roasting B. Bessemerization
C. Smelting D. Concentration
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - Roasting is a process of heating a sulfide ore to a high temperature in the presence of air. It
is a step in the processing of certain ores. More specifically, roasting is often a metallurgical process
involving gas–solid reactions at elevated temperatures with the goal of purifying the metal component.
Often before roasting, the ore has already been partially purified, e.g. by froth flotation. The concentrate is
mixed with other materials to facilitate the process. The technology is useful but is also a serious source
of air pollution.

Q.7. Metallic compounds that occur naturally are called

A. Metal oxide B. Ores
C. Minerals D. None of these
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - A mineral is a naturally occurring inorganic element or compound having an orderly internal
structure and characteristic chemical composition, crystal form, and physical properties. Common minerals
include quartz, feldspar, mica, amphibole, olivine, and calcite.

Q.8. In the alumino-thermite process Al acts as

A. An oxidizing agent B. A flux
C. Solder D. A reducing agent
Answer: - Option D
Explanation: - A substance which loses electrons to other substances in a redox reaction and gets
oxidized to the higher valency state is called a reducing agent.
A reducing agent is one of the reactants of an oxidation-reduction reaction which reduces the other reactant
by giving out electrons to the reactant. If the reducing agent does not pass electrons to other substance in a
reaction, then the reduction process cannot occur.

Q.9. Hematite ore is concentrated by

A. Gravity separation method B. Forth floatation
C. Amalgamation D. Hand picking

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Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - Gravity separation is an industrial method of separating two components, either a
suspension, or dry granular mixture where separating the components with gravity is sufficiently practical:
i.e. the components of the mixture have different specific weight. Gravity separation is used in a wide
variety of industries, and can be most simply differentiated by the characteristics of the mixture to be
separated.

Q.10. The material mixed before ore is subjected for smelting in the extraction of iron is
A. Coke and silica B. Coke and limestone
C. Limestone and silica D. Coke, limestone and silica
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - Metallurgical coke, along with iron ore and limestone, is layered into a blast furnace to
convert the iron ore to metallic iron. Coke, which is mostly carbon, reacts with the blast air to produce
carbon monoxide, which, in turn, reacts with the iron oxide to produce carbon dioxide and metallic iron.

Q.11. An alloy which does not contain copper is

A. Bronze B. Magnalium
C. Brass D. Bell metal
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - Magnalium alloy of aluminum and about 5% magnesium. Although weak and soft in the
elemental state, magnesium alloys with aluminum, manganese, zinc, tin, zirconium, and cerium to produce
alloys useful in engineering materials. The strength and hardness of aluminum increases when it is alloyed
with such substances as magnesium, manganese, nickel, chromium, zinc, iron, copper, and silicon.

Q.12. Blister copper is

A. Pure copper B. Ore of copper
C. Alloy of copper D. Impure copper
Answer: - Option D
Explanation: - The slightly impure copper had impurities, mostly sulphur dioxide which bubbled up through
the copper as it solidified. That gave a blistered surface and the results of the smelting were called blister
copper. It had to be worked to release all the gas.

Q.13. In the electrolytic refining of copper, Ag and Au are found

A. On anode B. In electrolyte solution
C. In anode mud D. In cathode mud
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - Anode mud is a type of residue collected when metal is purified by the process of
electrolysis. During that process impurities or metal which is not desired dissolve and get deposited on the
bottom of the beaker whereas a desired product that is pure metal ions move towards cathode depositing
on the outer surface. These impurities at bottom are known as anode mud.

Q.14. High purity of copper metal is obtained by

A. Carbon reduction B. Hydrogen reduction
C. Electrolytic reduction D. Thermite reduction
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - The electrolytic reduction is a type of electrolysis in which electric current is pass through an
ionic substance producing chemical reaction at the electrodes and a decomposition of the materials.

Q.15. Silica is added to roasted copper ore during extraction in order to remove
A. Cuprous sulphide B. Ferrous sulphide
C. Ferrous oxide D. Cuprous oxide
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Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - Silica is added as a flux in a reverberatory furnace, in the extraction of copper for copper
pyrites.

Q.16. The most abundant element on earth crust is

A. Hydrogen B. Oxygen
C. Silicon D. Carbon
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - Oxygen, which composes about 49.5% of the total mass of the Earth‟s crust, waters and
atmosphere, according to the textbook “Modern Chemistry.” Silicon is second at 28%. Aluminum is a
distant third, at only 8%. Compounds of silicon and oxygen make up 87% of the materials in the Earth‟s
crust.

Q.17. Naturally occurring substance from which a metal can be profitably extracted are called
A. Mineral B. Ore
C. Gangue D. Salt
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - A naturally occurring solid material from which a metal or valuable mineral can be extracted
profitably.

Q.18. Silicon is main constituent of

A. Alloys B. Rocks
C. Animal D. Vegetables
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - Silicon is the most abundant element in the earth crust. It is found in rocks.

Q.19. Which of ore is metalloid

A. As B. Ce
C. Th D. Mg
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - Between the metals and nonmetals is a group of elements known as either
the semimetals or the metalloids, which are elements that have properties intermediate between those of
the metals and nonmetals. Most metalloids have a shiny, metallic appearance but are brittle, unexceptional
electrical conductors and display nonmetallic chemical properties. Metalloids have semiconductor
properties and form amphoteric oxides.

Q.20. A mineral is called an ore if

A. Metal present in mineral is precious B. Metal can be extracted from it
C. Metal can be extracted profitably from it D. Metal cannot be extracted from it
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - Ores are natural forms of minerals that have a high concentration of a certain element.

Q.21. Which of the following does not contain Mg

A. Magnetite B. Asbestos
C. Magnesite D. Camallite
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - Magnetite is a mineral and one of the main iron ores, with the chemical formula Fe3O4. It is
one of the oxides of iron, and is ferrimagnetic; it is attracted to a magnet and can be magnetized to become
a permanent magnet itself. It is the most magnetic of all the naturally occurring minerals on Earth.

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Q.22. Composition of Azurite mineral is
A. CuCO3.CuO B. Cu(HCO3)2.Cu(OH)2
C. 2CuCO3.Cu(OH)2 D. CuCO3.2Cu(OH)2
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - Azurite is a copper carbonate hydroxide mineral with a chemical composition of
Cu3(CO3)2(OH)2. It is best known for its characteristic deep blue to violet-blue color.

Q.23. The salt which is least likely to be found in mineral is

A. Chloride B. Sulphate
C. Sulphide D. Nitrate
Answer: - Option D
Explanation: - The salt which is least likely to be found in mineral is nitrate. Nitrate is used mainly in
inorganic fertilizers.

Q.24. Metal which is extracted from all the three dolomite magnesite and camallite is
A. Na B. K
C. Mg D. Ca
Answer: - Option D
Explanation: - Calcium metal extracted fom three dolomite, magnesite and camallite.

Q.25. Metallurgy is the process of

A. Concentrating the ore B. Roasting the ore
C. Extracting the metal from the ore D. Adding carbon to the ore in blast furnace
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - Metallurgy, art and science of extracting metals from their ores and modifying the metals for
use. It also concerns the chemical, physical, and atomic properties and structures of metals and the
principles whereby metals are combined to form alloys.

Q.26. The highest quantity present in atmosphere is of

A. Oxygen B. Hydrogen
C. Nitrogen D. Ozone
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - Among all the gases present in the atmosphere, nitrogen constitutes the highest amount.
The percentage of nitrogen present in the atmosphere is 78%. After the nitrogen, the second highest
percentage concentration in air is for oxygen which constitutes almost 21% of the total gases.

Q.27. What is believed to be the second most common element in the universe
A. Helium B. Hydrogen
C. Nitrogen D. Silicon
Answer: - Option D
Explanation: - Silicon is second most common element in the universe.

Q.28. Which of the following mineral is not an ore of aluminium

A. Bauxite B. Gypsum
C. Cryolite D. Corundum
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - Gypsum is a soft sulfate mineral composed of calcium sulfate dihydrate, with the chemical
formula CaSO4·2H2O.[3] It is widely mined and is used as a fertilizer and as the main constituent in many
forms of plaster, blackboard/sidewalk chalk and drywall.

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Q.29. An example of halide ore is
A. Galena B. Bauxite
C. Cinnabar D. Cryolite
Answer: - Option D
Explanation: - Cryolite is a halide ore. Halide ores are Metallic halides which are very few in nautre.

Q.30. Which of the following is not an ore

A. Bauxite B. Malachite
C. Zinc blend D. Pig iron
Answer: - Option D
Explanation: - Pig iron is the product of smelting iron ore with a high-carbon fuel and reductant such as
coke, usually with limestone as a flux. Pig iron, also known as crude iron, is an intermediate product of the
iron industry in the production of steel which is obtained by smelting iron ore in a blast furnace. When the
metal had cooled and hardened, the smaller ingots (the "pigs") were simply broken from the runner (the
"sow"), hence the name "pig iron".

Q.31. Which of the following metal is not found in free state

A. Na B. Au
C. Ag D. Pb
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: -There are Some of the metals that are very reactive metals as they react through the oxygen
even at the temperature of room and therefore, they are not ever found within a free state in nature.

Q.32. Which of the following ore is used for industrial extraction of aluminium in India
A. Corondum B. Kaolin
C. Cryolite D. Bauxite
Answer: - Option D
Explanation: - Bauxite is the most common aluminium ore and Hall – Heroult process is the major
industrial process for extraction of aluminium from its oxide alumina.

Q.33. Bauxite is an oxide ore of

A. Barium B. Boron
C. Bismuth D. Aluminium
Answer: - Option D
Explanation: - Bauxite is the most common aluminium ore and Hall – Heroult process is the major
industrial process for extraction of aluminium from its oxide alumina.

Q.34. Siderite is an ore of

A. Cu B. Al
C. Au D. Fe
Answer: - Option D
Explanation: - Siderite is a mineral composed of iron(II) carbonate (FeCO3). It takes its name from the
Greek word σίδηρος sideros, "iron". It is a valuable iron mineral, since it is 48% iron and contains no sulfur
or phosphorus.

Q.35. Which of the following is a carbonate ore

A. Pyrolusite B. Malachite
C. Diaspore D. Cassiterite
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - Malachite is a copper carbonate hydroxide mineral, with the formula Cu2CO3(OH)2. This
opaque, green-banded mineral crystallizes in the monoclinic crystal system, and most often
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forms botryoidal, fibrous, or stalagmitic masses, in fractures and deep, underground spaces, where the
water table and hydrothermal fluids provide the means for chemical precipitation. Individual crystals are
rare, but occur as slender to acicular prisms. Pseudomorphs after more tabular or blocky azurite crystals
also occur.[4]

Q.36. An important oxide ore of iron is

A. Haematite B. Siderite
C. Pyrite D. Malachite
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - Haematite, is a common iron oxide compound with the formula, Fe2O3 and is widely found
in rocks and soils. Hematite crystals belong to the rhombohedral lattice system which is designated
the alpha polymorph of Fe
2O3. It has the same crystal structure as corundum (Al2O3) and ilmenite (FeTiO3). With this it forms a
complete solid solution at temperatures above 950 °C (1,740 °F). Hematite naturally occurs in black to
steel or silver-gray, brown to reddish-brown, or red colors. It is mined as an important ore of iron. It is
electrically conductive.[

Q.37. Formula of Magnetite is

A. Fe2O3 B. FeS2
C. FeCO3 D. Fe3O4
Answer: - Option D
Explanation: - Magnetite is a mineral and one of the main iron ores, with the chemical formula Fe3O4. It is
one of the oxides of iron, and is ferrimagnetic; it is attracted to a magnet and can be magnetized to become
a permanent magnet itself. It is the most magnetic of all the naturally occurring minerals on Earth.

Q.38. Which of the following is ferrous alloy

A. Invar B. Solder
C. Magnalium D. Type metal
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - Invar, alloy of iron that expands very little when heated; it contains 64 percent iron and 36
percent nickel. ... The trademark name was selected by the alloy's inventor, the Swiss physicist Charles-
Édouard Guillaume, to express the invariability of its dimensions when heat is applied.

Q.39. Which of the following ores does not represent the ore of iron
A. Haematite B. Magnetite
C. Cassiterite D. Limonite
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - Cassiterite (SnO2) is the most important tin ore and it is typically found in veins closely
associated with granite, in granite pegmatites and in greisen. Cassiterite is a tin oxide mineral (SnO2) and
the principal source for tin metal (79.6% Sn). The color is shining black, brownish-black (Fig. 1.34), reddish
brown, gray, red, white, and rarely colorless.

Q.40. Metallic compound that occur naturally are called

A. Metal oxides B. Minerals
C. Ores D. None of these
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - Ore is natural rock or sediment that contains one or more valuable minerals, typically
containing metals, that can be mined, treated and sold at a profit.

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Q.41. The process of converting an ore into its oxide is called as
A. Smelting B. Roasting
C. Refining D. Bessemerisation
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - In metallurgy, refining consists of purifying an impure metal. It is to be distinguished from
other processes such as smelting and calcining in that those two involve a chemical change to the raw
material, whereas in refining, the final material is usually identical chemically to the original one, only it is
purer.

Q.42. In magnetic separation, magnets are used to separate

A. Ore and gangue B. Metal and mineral
C. Metal and gangue D. Iron and steel
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - Magnetic separation is the process of separating components of mixtures by using a
magnet to attract magnetic materials. The process that is used for magnetic separation separates non-
magnetic materials from those that are magnetic. Due to the magnets, magnetic particles are being drifted
by the movement of the drums.

Q.43. The removal of impurities associated with the ore is called as

A. Reduction of the ore B. Floatation of the ore
C. Concentration of the ore D. Roasting of the ore
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - The concentration of ore is a method of eliminating gangue particles or other impurities.
Ore-dressing and benefaction are the alternative names for the term concentration of ore.The concentration
of ore is the first step of metal extraction.

Q.44. The rocky impurities associated with ore are called as

A. Alloy B. Flux
C. Slag D. Matrix
Answer: - Option D
Explanation: - The rocky impurities associated with the ores is called gangue or matrix. Gangue or matrix
include impurities like sand , rocky , clay materials etc. which is found with the ore mined from the earth's
crust.
To extract pure ore gangue is removed and the process is called as concentration of the ore.

Q.45. The method used for separating ore and gangue by preferential wetting with oil and water is
A. Froath floatation B. Gravity separation
C. Chemical method D. Magnetic separation
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - Froth flotation is an important concentration process that selectively separates hydrophobic
valuable minerals from hydrophilic waste gangue.The minerals and metals (i.e., hydrophobic particles)
attach to the air bubbles, which rise to the surface. The remaining material from the ore does not rise to the
surface.

Q .46. The method used for separate magnetic ore from nonmagnetic gangue is
A. Chemical method B. Magnetic separation
C. Roasting D. Calcination
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - Magnetic separation is the process of separating components of mixtures by using magnet
to attract magnetic materials. The process that is used for magnetic separation detaches non-magnetic
material with those that are magnetic.
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Q.47. Froth floatation method is applied for
A. Oxide ores B. Sulphide ores
C. Aluminium ores D. Zinc ores
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - Ores that can be concentrated by froth flotation method are sulphide ores. Examples are
PbS (sulphide galena) and ZnS (zinc blende).

Q.48. Froth floatation method is uses

A. Pine oil B. Alcohol
C.Acid D. Alkali
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - The sulphide ore particles are wetted preferentially by oil and gangue particles by water. In
this process, finely powdered ore is mixed with either pine oil or eucalyptus oil. So, pine oil is used in froth
floatation methods to purify sulfide ores to remove the dirt leaving behind the cleaned ores.

Q.49. The compound of metal found with earthy impurity is called

A. Ores B. Mineral
C .Gangue D. Slag
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - An ore is the mineral from which the metal can be extracted profitably and conveniently.
The impurity associated with the minerals is called Gangue or matrix.

Q.50. Brass is alloy of …..

A. Copper and Tin B. Cooper and Zinc
C .Copper and Lead D. Copper and Nickel
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - Brass is an alloy of copper and zinc, in proportions which can be varied to achieve varying
mechanical, electrical, and chemical properties. It is a substitutional alloy: atoms of the two constituents
may replace each other within the same crystal structure.

Q.51. Bronze is alloy of …..

A. Copper, Lead and Tin B. Cooper and Tin
C .Copper and Zinc D. Zinc, Nickel and Tin
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - Bronze is an alloy consisting primarily of copper, commonly with about 12–12.5% tin and
often with the addition of other metals (such as aluminum, manganese, nickel or zinc) and sometimes non-
metals or metalloids such as arsenic, phosphorus or silicon.

Q.52. The hardness is the property of material due to which it

A. Can be rolled or hammered into thin B. Can be drawn into wire
C .Breaks with little permanent distortion D. Can cut another metal
Answer: - Option D
Explanation: - Hardness is defined as a material's ability to resist permanent indentation (that is plastic
deformation). Typically, the harder the material, the better it resists wear or deformation. The term
hardness, thus, also refers to local surface stiffness of a material or its resistance to scratching, abrasion,
or cutting.

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Q.53. Pig iron is extracted from….
A. Haematite B. Magnetite
C .Siderite D. Felspar
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - Pig iron is the product of smelting iron ore (also ilmenite) with a high-carbon fuel and
reductant such as coke, usually with limestone as a flux. Pig iron is produced by smelting or iron ore in
blast furnaces or by smelting ilmenite in electric furnaces.

Q.54. The coal in the charge of a blast furnace

A. Supplies heat to reduce ore and melt the iron
B. Acts as an iron bearing mineral
C .Control the grade of pig iron
D. Forms a slag by combining with impurities
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - Blast furnace ironmaking makes use of coke as the major source for both energy and
reduction of iron oxides. In the blast furnace process, coke has multifunctions and plays an important role
as reductant, burden support, and fuel.

Q.55. Copper is extracted from …

A. Malachite B. Haematite
C .Copper pyrite D. Dolomite
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - Copper pyrite is an important ore of copper. It is known commonly as chalcopyrite. Pyrite or
iron pyrite is a sulphide ore of iron and has the chemical formula FeS. Copper pyrite is copper iron sulphide
and its chemical formula is given as CuFeS2.

Q.56. In the extraction of copper from copper pyrite , iron is removed as

A. FeSO4 B. FeSiO3
C .Fe3O4 D. Fe2O3
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - This slag is removed in the process of extraction. In the extraction of copper from copper
pyrites, iron will be removed as FeSiO3 which is the slag.

Q.57. Froth floatation is used for concentration of the ore of

A. Fe B. Al
C .Cu D. Au
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - Froth flotation is a surface chemistry based separation process which is extensively used in
the processing of mineral ore deposits as a method of separating the desired mineral component from their
associated gangue material.

Q.58. In the extraction of copper, metal is formed in the Bessemer converter due to the reaction
A. Cu2S + Cu2O and 6Cu + SO2 B. Cu2S and 2Cu + S
C .Fe + Cu2O and 6Cu + FeO D. 2Cu2O and 4Cu + O2
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - The sulphide ore of copper is heated in the air until a part is converted to oxide and then further
heating in the absence of air to let the oxide react with unchanged sulphide. Self-reduction of CuS to Cu can be
carried out in either Bessemer converter or Pierce-Smith converter.

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Q.59. Molten matte is a mixer of
A. Cu2S + FeS B. Fe2S + CuS
C .Cu2S + FeS D. FeO + Cu2O
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - Copper pyrites on smelting with coke and sand mainly contain a black mixture of Cu2S and
a little FeS. This black mixture is known as ''Matte''.

Q.60. In the purification of cooper (refining of copper ), anode is

A. Pure copper B. Impure copper
C .Pure carbon D. None of these
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - The method used for refining of copper metal is electrolytic refining. During electrolytic
refining of copper, the anode is the positive electrode and is made from impure copper blocks. The
electrolyte is a mixture of copper sulphate and sulphuric acid.

Q.61. Slag is a product form when

A. Gangue reacts with flux B. Flux reacts with ore
C .Gangue reacts with ore D. Flux reacts with mineral
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - Gangue means the impurities present in the ore. The next term is flux. During the process
of removing the impurities present in the ore some of the impurities or the gangue cannot be easily
removed. ... The substances which are formed when gangue and flux combine are known as slag.

Q.62. The ability of metals to cut by cutting metals

A. Machinability B. Weldability
C .Tensile strength D. Toughness
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - Machinability is the ease with which a metal can be cut (machined) permitting the removal
of the material with a satisfactory finish at low cost.

Q.63. The ability of metals to resist deformation in response to an applied force is

A. Castability B. Refractoriness
C .Stiffness D. Machinability
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - Stiffness is the extent to which an object resists deformation in response to an applied
force. The complementary concept is flexibility or pliability: the more flexible an object is, the less stiff it is.

Q.64. Weakening of metal due to repeatedly applied load is

A. Stiffness B. Specific heat
C .Density D. Fatigue
Answer: - Option D
Explanation: - In general, fatigue can be defined as the weakening of steel materials or accumulation of
damage at a localized region caused by cyclic loading or repeatedly applied loads.

Q.65. Ferrous alloy contain

A. Copper as major elements B. Iron as major element
C .Iron as alloying element D. None of these
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - Ferrous alloys or metals are metals that consist mostly of iron (Fe). Steel is an iron-based
alloy containing typically less than 1% carbon, where iron frequently contains 2% or more carbon. Ferrous

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alloy properties can be improved by heat treating and, in the case of steels, by working (i.e. rolling or
forging).

Q.66. Woods metal and solder are prepared by

A. Fusion method B. Compression method
C .Smelting D. Oxidation
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - In which molten metal is allowed to solidify under pressure in order to close porosity and
form a sound par

Q.67. Plain carbon steel is classified on the basis of aeroplanes

A. Brass B. Bronze
C .Duralumin D. Woods metal
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - Duralumin alloys are relatively soft, ductile, and workable in the normal state; they may be
rolled, forged, extruded, or drawn into a variety of shapes and products. Their light weight and consequent
high strength per unit weight compared with steel suit them for aircraft construction. Duralumin strong, hard,
lightweight alloy of aluminum, widely used in aircraft construction.

Q.68. Bronze is a
A. Ferrous alloy B. Tin alloy
C . Copper alloy D. Zinc alloy
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - Bronze is an alloy consisting primarily of copper, commonly with about 12–12.5% tin and
often with the addition of other metals (such as aluminum, manganese, nickel or zinc) and sometimes non-
metals or metalloids such as arsenic, phosphorus or silicon

Q.69. …. alloy is used for making parts of aeroplanes

A. Brass B. Bronze
C .Duralumin D. Woods metal
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - Duralumin alloys are relatively soft, ductile, and workable in the normal state; they may be
rolled, forged, extruded, or drawn into a variety of shapes and products. Their light weight and consequent
high strength per unit weight compared with steel suit them for aircraft construction.Duralumin strong, hard,
lightweight alloy of aluminum, widely used in aircraft construction.

Q.70. Wood metal is a

A. Tough alloy B. Hard alloy
C .Fusible alloy D. all of these
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - Wood's metal is a fusible alloy that is half bismuth plus lead, tin, and cadmium; melts at
about 160 degrees Fahrenheit.

Q.71. Tinmanns solder is an alloy of

A. Pb + Zn B. Pb + Ni
C .Pb + Cu D. Pb + Sn.
Answer: - Option D
Explanation: - Tinmans solder has a composition of 40% tin, 60% lead. With a relatively low melting
temperature, it is ideal for use in large solder joint work. Possessing a trapezoidal shape for high quality
soldering in professional settings only.

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Q.72…….steel is used for railway engineering
A. Low carbon steel B. Medium carbon
C .High carbon steel D. All of these

Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - Medium-carbon steels are similar to low-carbon steels except that they contain carbon from
0.30% to 0.60% and manganese from 0.60% to 1.65%.These steels are mainly used for making shafts,
axles, gears, crankshafts, couplings, and forgings.

Q.73. An ore like zinc blend is concentrated by……………..

A. Froath floatation B. Magnetic separation
C .Leaching D. Washing with water

Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - Zinc blende is concentrated by the froth floatation process . It is further used for the
concentration of the low grade sulphide ores like galena, lead sulphide, copper pyrites.

Q.74. Leaching is the process of………..

A. Reduction B. Concentration
C .Refining D. Oxidation

Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - Leaching is the loss or extraction of certain materials from a carrier into a liquid (usually, but
not always a solvent). and may refer to: Leaching (agriculture), the loss of water-soluble plant nutrients
from the soil; or applying a small amount of excess irrigation to avoid soil salinity.

Q.75. Which of the following is slag?

A. CaO B. CaCO3
C .CaSiO3 D. SiO2

Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - CaSiO3 is a basic slag. Its crystal structure is monoclinic. The hydrolysis of Thomas slag
gives hydroxyapatite and calcium hydroxide. Calcium carbonate is also known as calcite, lime, chalk,
limestone, marble, pearl, etc.

Q.76. Roasting is done in case of following

A. Oxidde ores B. Silicate ores
C .Sulphide ores D. Carbonate ores

Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - Roasting is a process of heating a sulfide ore to a high temperature in the presence of air. It
is a step in the processing of certain ores. More specifically, roasting is often a metallurgical process
involving gas–solid reactions at elevated temperatures with the goal of purifying the metal component(s).

Q.77. Leaching is the process of………..

A. Reduction B. Concentration
C .Refining D. Oxidation

Answer: - Option B

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Explanation: - Leaching is the loss or extraction of certain materials from a carrier into a liquid (usually, but
not always a solvent). and may refer to: Leaching (agriculture), the loss of water-soluble plant nutrients
from the soil; or applying a small amount of excess irrigation to avoid soil salinity.

Q.78. Hard rigid mass gradually changes into compact rock like mass is known as
A. Setting B. Hardening
C .Clinkering D. Cementing

Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - Hardening is the process by which something becomes harder or is made harder.
Hardening may refer to: Hardening (metallurgy), a process used to increase the hardness of a metal.

Q.79. When cement is mixed with water, it forms hard rigid mass due to initial gel formation is
known as……
A. Setting B. Hardening
C. Cementing and hardening D. Clinkering

Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - When water is mixed with cement, a smooth paste is produced that remains plastic for a
short time. As the reaction between water and cement continues, the plasticity of the cement paste is lost.
... This early period in the hardening of cement is known as 'Setting of Cement'.

Q.80. Solder is used for soldering the articles of tin is

A. Plumbers solder B. Tinman‟s solder
C. wood‟s metal D. duralumin

Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - Tinmans solder has a composition of 40% tin, 60% lead. With a relatively low melting
temperature, it is ideal for use in large solder joint work. Possessing a trapezoidal shape for high quality
soldering in professional settings only.

Q.81. The calcium silicate formed in the blast furnace is called……

A. Slag B. flux
C. mineral D. metal

Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - Slag is the collection of compounds that are removed. In many smelting processes, oxides
are introduced to control the slag chemistry, assisting in the removal of impurities and protecting the
furnace refractory lining from excessive wear. In this case, the slag is termed synthetic.

Q.82. Select the proper reaction from the following

A. Slag + gangue flux B. flux + gangue slag
C. flux + slag gangue D. gangue + matrix slag

Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - During the process of removing the impurities present in the ore some of the impurities or
the gangue cannot be easily removed.The substances which are formed when gangue and flux combine
are known as slag.

Q.83. The property of metal to be drawn into thin wire is known as…….
A. malleability B. castability
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C. ductility D. hardness

Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - Ductility is the ability of a material to be drawn or plastically deformed without fracture. It is
therefore an indication of how 'soft' or malleable the material is. The ductility of steels varies depending on
the types and levels of alloying elements present.

Q.84. The setting time required for dicalcium silicate is

A. 1 day B. 7 days
C. 28 days D. 40 days

Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - Setting time is defined as a specified time required for concrete or mortar to change from
liquid state to plastic state and plastic state to solid state so that surface becomes sufficiently rigid to
withstand a definite amount of pressure.

Q.85. The setting time required for tricalcium aluminoferrite is

A. 1 day B. 7 days
C. 28 days D. 40 days

Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - Setting time is defined as a specified time required for concrete or mortar to change from
liquid state to plastic state and plastic state to solid state so that surface becomes sufficiently rigid to
withstand a definite amount of pressure.

Q.86. The setting time required for tricalcium aluminate is

A. 2 days B. 1 day
C. 7 days D. 28 days

Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - Setting time is defined as a specified time required for concrete or mortar to change from
liquid state to plastic state and plastic state to solid state so that surface becomes sufficiently rigid to
withstand a definite amount of pressure.

Q.87. Calcination is a process of heating concentrated ore…

A. in the presence of air B. in the absence of air
C. in the presence of water D. in the absence of water

Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - Calcination refers to heating (thermal treatment of) a solid chemical compound (e.g.
carbonate ores) to high temperatures in absence or limited supply air below melting point or oxygen (O 2),
generally for the purpose of removing impurities or volatile substances and/or to incur thermal
decomposition.

Q.88. The concentrated ore heated in presence of excess of air is called…..

A. roasting B. calcination
C. hydrolysis D. hydration

Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - Roasting is a process of heating a sulfide ore to a high temperature in the presence of air. It
is a step in the processing of certain ores.
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Q.89. In the extraction from haematite ore silica is used as
A. slag B. flux
C. mineral D. matrix

Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - Flux is a chemical purifying agent, flowing agent or cleaning agent. Most commonly, it is
used in metal joining and metallurgy. Some examples of flux include: Ammonium chloride. Zinc chloride.

Q.90. During electrolytic refining of copper, impure metal act as……….

A. electrolyte B. cathode
C. anode D. electrodes

Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - Impure metal consist number of impurities therefore the metal is more active and present at
top of the electrochemical series. With the help of this impure anode copper cathode can be easily electro
refined.

Q.91. Select reaction at cathode during electrorefining of copper

A. Cu Cu2+ + 2e- B. Cu2+ + 2e- Cu
C. Cu + SO4
2+ 2- CuSO 4 D. CuSO4 Cu2+ + SO42-

Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - In electrorefining of copper, Cu acts as cathode. At cathode there is occur reduction
reaction i.e Cu2+ ions gain electrons to form Cu atom.

Q.92. Which of the following is generally used for making cutting tools?
A. low carbon steel B. high carbon steel
C. medium carbon steel D. stainless steel

Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - Because of its extreme hardness and resistance to wear, high carbon steel is often used for
things like cutting tools that retain their sharp edge, and masonry nails that can be driven into concrete
blocks or bricks without bending.

Q.93. When the porosity of refractory material increases…………….

A. Thermal conductivity remains unaffected B. Thermal conductivity increases
C. Thermal conductivity decreases D. all of the above

Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - The thermal conductivity of different materials is often very different. At normal temperature,
the thermal conductivity of various refractory bricks can be from a few percent to several tens which is
nearly a thousand times lowest than the highest value.

Q.94. When the porosity of refractory material increases…………….

A. Thermal conductivity remains unaffected B. Thermal conductivity increases
C. Thermal conductivity decreases D. all of the above

Answer: - Option C

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Explanation: - The greater the level of porosity in a material, the less dense it is and the poorer a thermal
conductor it is. Both of these phenomena are explained by the holes in the bulk material being filled with
air.

Q.95. The sudden change in operating temperature in refractory causes……..

A. increase in porosity B. increase in load bearing strength
C. Thermal spalling D. all of the above

Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - Thermal spalling is the process by which surface material cracks and breaks off due to
variation of temperature. It is shown that in theory the rise in pore pressure due to the presence of water as
gaseous steam or as compressed liquid is insufficient to cause thermal spalling in sedimentary rock.

Q.96. Load bearing strength of refractory should be………..

A. high B. low
C. stable D. high and low depending on temperature

Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - Refractory materials include dense shaped refractory products, refractory bricks and they
primarily have a load-bearing and insulating function.

Q.97. A porous refractory

A. decrease the resistance to abrasion and corrosion B. increase the resistance to abrasion and
corrosion
C. has no effect on refractory material D. increase the life of refractory material

Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - A refractory material or refractory is a material that is resistant to decomposition by heat,
pressure, or chemical attack, and retains strength and form at high temperatures.

Q.98. A good refractory should have

A. high porosity B. low porosity
C. medium porosity D. porosity

Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - Porosity is the percentage relationship between the volume of the pore space and the total
volume of the refractory sample.

Q.99. The softening temperature of material used in refractory should be…..

A. lowering than operating temperature B. similar than operating temperature
C. greater than operating temperature D. None of the above

Answer: - Option C
Explanation: Refractory materials that keep their chemical and physical strength at temperatures above
500 °C are of high importance for metallurgical and other industrial processes.

Q.100. The shape of refractory material should

A. expand at high temperature B. contract at high temperature
C. remains stable at high temperature D. deform at high temperature

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Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - Refractory shapes include precast cement and fused or sintered refractory products that are
formed prior to installation in furnaces, boilers, or other high temperature equipment.

Prepared By Verified Re-Verified By Approved By

Mrs.Bhagat V.B. By Mr. Pritam Mr. Pathak S.
Mrs.Deshmukh Mr. Pathak S. R. Dhavan FY R. FY
D.S. Module Academic Coordinator
Coordinator Coordinat
or

Page 65 of 89
 ZEAL EDUCATION SOCIETY‟S

ZEAL POLYTECHNIC,PUNE
NARHE │PUNE -41 │ INDIA
DEPARTMENT OF GENERAL SCIENCE & HUMANITIES

05 – WATER TREATMENT Marks:-11

Content of Chapter:-
5.1- Hardness; Classification,
5.2-Hard water in boilers. prevention: Boiler corrosion, caustic embrittlement, priming and foaming, scales and
sludges
5.3- Water softening: lime soda process (hot lime soda and cold lime soda process), zeolite process, ion
exchange process.
5.4- Potable water treatment: Sedimentation, coagulation, filtration and sterilization.
5.5- Waste water treatment: sewage treatment, BOD and COD of sewage treatment, Reverse Osmosis,
recycling of waste water.

Q.1. Hardness of water does not

A. Make it fit for drinking. B. Make it fit for cooking
C. Make it unfit for washing D. Make it unfit for drinking.
Answer: - Option D
Explanation: - Hard water is high in dissolved minerals, largely calcium and magnesium.

Q.2. Permanent hard water may be softened by passing it through

A. Sodium bicarbonate B. Sodium hexametaphosphate
C. Sodium silicate D. Sodium phosphate
Answer: - Option D
Explanation: - Permanent hard water may be softened by passing it through sodium hexametaphosphate

Q.3. Zeolite used in zeolite softening process for the treatment of hard water gets exhausted after
certain time of usage but can be regenerated by flushing it with
A. 10% Magnesium chloride solution B. 10% Sodium chloride solution
C. 10% Magnesium sulfate solution D. 10% Calcium chloride solution
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - Zeolite can be regenerated by using 10% Sodium chloride (brine solution) solution.

Q.4. Temporary hardness of water is caused by the presence of

A. Carbonates of sodium and potassium B. Bicarbonates of calcium and magnesium
C. Chlorides of calcium and magnesium D. Sulfates of calcium and magnesium
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - Temporary hardness of water is caused by the presence of bicarbonates of calcium
[Ca(HCO3)2 ] and magnesium Mg(HCO3)2] .

Q.5. The metallic constituents of hard water are

A. Calcium, magnesium and iron B. Magnesium, tin and iron
C. Iron, tin and calcium D. Magnesium, calcium and tin
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - Calcium, magnesium and iron are the metallic constituents of hard water.

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Q.6. Secondary treatment uses __________ to consume wastes.
A. Chemicals B. Micro-organisms
C. Filtration D. None of these
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - Secondary treatment uses microorganisms to consume waste.

Q.7. Permanent hardness of water is caused by the presence of

A. Phosphates of sodium and potassium B. Chlorides and sulfates of calcium and magnesium
C. Carbonates of sodium and potassium D. Bicarbonates of calcium and magnesium
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - Permanent hardness of water is caused by the presence of chlorides and sulfates of
calcium and magnesium i.e. CaSO4, CaCl2, MgCl2, and MgSO4

Q.8. Which of the following is NOT a property of hard water?

A. It lathers easily with soap solution B. It is not good for steam generation
C. It causes scale formation in kettles D. It has nice taste
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - Hard water does not form good lather with soap solution.

Q.9. According to BIS the maximum permissible limit of dissolved solids in drinking water is
A. 500 mg/l B. 1500 mg/l
C. 1000 mg/l D. 2000 mg/l
Answer: - Option D
Explanation: - According to BIS the maximum permissible limit of dissolved solids in drinking water is
2000mg/l.

Q.10. At a water treatment plant, one of the stages involves passing water through a bed of sand
and gravel. This stage of treatment is called as
A. Sedimentation B. Sterilization
C. Filtration D. Coagulation
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - At a water treatment plant, one of the stages involves passing water through a bed of sand
and gravel. This stage of treatment is called as filtration.

Q.11. What is the molecular formula of lime?

A. Al(OH)3 B. CaCO3
C. Mg(OH)2 D.Ca(OH)2
Answer: - Option D
Explanation: - The molecular formula of lime is Ca(OH)2.

Q.12. One of the treatments of water for domestic use is to allow the water into large tanks where a
flocculent (like alum) helps small particles to settle on the bottom. This method is known as
A. Coagulation B. Sterilization
C. Filtration D. Sedimentation
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - Coagulation is the chemical water treatment process used to remove solids from water,
where a flocculent (like alum) helps small particles to settle on the bottom.

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Q.13. Which of the following chemical is sometime added in the process of coagulation and
flocculation?
A. Aluminum oxide B. Aluminum Sulfate
C. Calcium chloride D. None of these
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - Chemicals used for coagulation are aluminum sulfate, ferric sulfate or sodium aluminate.

Q.14. Zeolite softening process removes

A. Dissolved gases in permanent hard water B. Both temporary and permanent hardness of water
C. Only permanent hardness of water D. Only temporary hardness of water
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - Zeolite softening process removes both temporary and permanent hardness of water.

Q.15. A Chemical which can act as coagulant and also softens the hard water is,
A. Alum B. Sodium aluminate
C. Soda D. Lime
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - Chemicals used for coagulation are aluminum sulfate, ferric sulfate or sodium aluminate.

Q.16.The basis of reverse osmosis is

A. Osmotic pressure is equal to hydrostatic pressure B. Osmotic pressure does not exist
C. Osmotic pressure is greater than hydrostatic pressure D. Hydrostatic pressure is greater than
osmotic pressure
Answer: - Option D
Explanation: - The main principle of reverse osmosis is hydrostatic pressure must be greater than osmotic
pressure.

Q.17.What is the function of coagulant?

A. It helps in increasing the solubility B. It helps in formation of fine precipitate
C. It helps in increasing the boiling point D. It helps in formation of coarse precipitate
Answer: - Option D
Explanation: - Coagulants are used to remove a wide variety of hazardous materials from water, ranging
from organic matter and pathogens, to inorganics and toxic materials. Thus coagulant helps in formation of
coarse precipitate.

Q.18. Ca (HCO3)2 in water on vigorous boiling forms

A. CO2 and H2O B. CaO and CO2
C. CaCO3, CO2 and water D. CaCO3 and CO2
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - Ca (HCO3)2 in water on vigorous boiling forms CaCO3, CO2 and water

Q.19. The ultimate source of water is

A. Underground and surface B. Rain and snow
C. Rivers and lakes D. Dew and forest
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - The ultimate source of water is rain and snow.

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Q.20. Water containing Ca (HCO3)2 and MgCl2
A. Temporary and Permanent hard B. Soft water
C. Permanent hard only D. Temporary hard only
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - Ca (HCO3)2 salt forms temporary hardness in water and MgCl2 forms permanent hardness
in water.

Q.21. The purest form of naturally occurring water is

A. Pond water B. River water
C. Well water D. Rain water
Answer: - Option D
Explanation: - The purest form of naturally occurring water is rain water.

Q.22. Addition of small doses of chlorine gas into filtered water is known as
A. Sedimentation B. Chlorination
C. Filtration D. Coagulation
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - Addition of small doses of chlorine gas into filtered water is known as chlorination.

Q.23. BOD stands for

A. Biological oxygen depletion B. Biochemical oxygen demand
C. British oxygen demand D. British oxygen depletion
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - BOD stands for biochemical oxygen demand.

Q.24.When temporary hard water is boiled, one of the substances formed is

A. Calcium bicarbonate B. Calcium sulfate
C. Hydrogen chloride D. Carbon dioxide
Answer: - Option D
Explanation: - Temporary hard water contains Ca(HCO3)2 after boiling temporary hard water Ca(HCO3)2
salt converts into CaCO3, CO2 and water.

Q.25. The phenomenon during which the boiler material becomes brittle due to accumulation of
caustic substances is known as
A. Priming B. Corrosion
C. Caustic embrittlement D. Foaming
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - The phenomenon during which the boiler material becomes brittle due to accumulation of
caustic substances is known as Caustic embrittlement.

Q.26. Foaming is caused by the formation of

A. Oils and alkalis B. Alcohols
C. Acids D. Ketones
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - Foaming is the production of persistent foam or bubbles in boilers, which do not break
easily. Foaming is due to presence of substances like oils (which greatly reduce the surface tension of
water).

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Q.27. Which of the following ion get released from the cation exchange column?
A. H+ B. K+
C. Ca+2 D. Na+
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - Ion gets released from the cation exchange column are H+, SO4- -, Cl- etc

Q.28. Which of the following ion get released from the anion exchange column?
A. SO4-2 B. CO3-2
C. OH- D. Cl-
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - Ion gets released from the anion exchange column are OH-.

Q.29. Ion-free water coming out from the exchanger is known as

A. Disinfected water B. Demineralized water
C. Coagulated water D. Potable water
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - Ion-free water coming out from the exchanger is known as demineralized water.

Q.30. Sedimentation is a physical process used to remove

A. Suspended particles B. Colloidal particles
C. Microorganisms D. All of these
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - Sedimentation is a physical process used to remove suspended particles.

Q.31. The exhausted cation exchange column is regenerated by passing a solution of

A. Dil. HCl B. Conc. NaOH
C. Dil. NaCl D. Dil.NaOH
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - The exhausted cation exchange column is regenerated by passing a solution of
Dil. HCl.

Q.32.Semi-permeable membrane is selective membrane which does not permit the passage of
dissolved ________ particles.
A. Anhydrous B. Saturated
C. Solvent D. Solute
Answer: - Option D
Explanation: - Semi-permeable membrane is selective membrane which does not permit the passage of
dissolved solute particles.

Q.33.What are the disadvantage of using high alkaline water?

A. It may lead to electrolysis B. It may lead to indigestion
C. It may lead to infections D. It may lead to caustic embrittlement
Answer: - Option D
Explanation: - If we use high alkaline water in boiler then it may lead to caustic embrittlement.

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Q.34. The external treatment of water does not include
A. Ion-exchange process B. Lime-soda process
C. Zeolites D. Sequestration
Answer: - Option D
Explanation: -. Ion-exchange process, Lime-soda process, Zeolites process are external treatment
methods. While Colloidal Conditioning, Carbonate Conditioning, Phosphate Conditioning, Calgon
Conditioning, Sequestration are internal treatment methods.

Q.35.Equivalent weight of CaCO3

A. 100 B. 50
C. 125 D. 75
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - Equivalent weight of CaCO3 is 50.
.
Q.36.What is calgon?
A. Calcium hexa meta sulphate B. Potassium hexa meta sulphate
C. Sodium hexa meta phosphate D. Magnesium hexa meta phosphate
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - Calgon is sodium hexa meta phosphate. Na2[Na4(PO3)6] or (NaPO3)6 which reacts with
calcium ionsforming a highly soluble calciumhexametaphosphate complex and thus preventsthe formation
of scale.

Q.37.Potable water treatment does not involve

A. Demineralization B. Coagulation
C. Sedimentation D. Disinfection
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - Potable water treatment involves coagulation, sedimentation and disinfection methods.

Q.38. Fluoride is also added to water, which helps to prevent

A. Fever B. Tooth decay
C. Sickness D. Infections
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - Fluoride is also added to water, which helps to prevent tooth decay. Fluoride helps
strengthen the mineral structure of developing teeth.

Q.39. The exhausted anion exchangers can be regenerated by working with

A. Water B. Alkali solution
C. Alcohol solution D. Acid solution
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - The exhausted anion exchangers can be regenerated by working with alkali solution
(NaOH).

Q.40. The chemical formula of zeolite is

A. FeSO4.7H2O B. Al2 (SO4)3.18 H2O
C. Na2Al2O D. Na2O.Al2O3.xSiO2.yH2O
Answer: - Option D
Explanation: - Chemical formula of zeolite is Na2O.Al2O3.xSiO2.yH2O.

Q.41. Hard water against EDTA belongs to the type

A. Complexometric B. Precipitation
C. Redox D. Neutralization
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Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - Hard water against EDTA belongs to the complexometric. Complexometric titration is one
of the best ways of measuring total water hardness.

Q.42.The role of buffer solution

A. To note the end point B. To maintain the required pH
C. Helps reaction during titration D. To neutralize the acidic hard water sample
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - Buffer solution resists a change in pH upon dilution or upon the addition of small amounts of
acid/alkali to them. Thus the main role of buffer solution is to maintain the required pH.

Q.43.The maximum desirable limit Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) of lead in the drinking water is
A. 0.05 mg/l B. 0.1 mg/l
C. 1.0 mg/l D. 0.09 mg/l
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - The maximum desirable limit Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) of lead in the drinking water
is 0.05mg/l.

Q.44. The chemical used in sterilization of water

A. Bleaching powder B. Sodium hypochlorite
C. Chlorine D. All of these
Answer: - Option D
Explanation: - Chemicals used in sterilization of water are bleaching powder, sodium hypochlorite and
chlorine.

Q.45. Water which does not produce lather with soap is

A. Hard water B. Distilled water
C. Mineral water D. Soft water
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - Hard water mainly contains calcium and magnesium ions. It gives an insoluble curd with
soap rather than lather.

Q.46. Permanent hardness is the hardness that cannot be removed by

A. Coagulation B. Boiling
C. Adding lime D. All of these
Answer: - Option D
Explanation: - Permanent hardness is the hardness that cannot be removed by boiling, coagulation, or
adding lime.

Q.47. Which of the following is not used in colloidal conditioning?

A. Agar-agar B. Kerosene
C. Vinegar D. Tannin
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - Scale formation can be avoided by the addition of colloidal conditioning agents like
kerosene, glue, agar – agar ,tannin and gelatin.

Q.48.In zeolite process, the exchange of ___________ takes place.

A. Anions B. No ions exchange
C. Cations D. Both cations and anions

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Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - In zeolite process , the exchange of cations takes place.

Q.49. Soaps are _____________ based soapy detergents.

A. Acid B. Water
C. Kerosene D. Oil
Answer: - Option D
Explanation: - Soaps are oil based soapy detergents. Soaps for cleansing are obtained by treating
vegetable or animal oils and fats with a strongly alkaline solution.

Q.50.The saponification of a fat or oil is done using _______________ solution for hot process
A. NaCl B. NaOH
C. HCl D. KOH
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - Soaps are oil based soapy detergents. Soaps for cleansing are obtained by treating
vegetable or animal oils and fats with a strongly alkaline solution like NaOH. NaOH gives hard soaps.

Q.51. The saponification of a fat or oil is done using _______________ solution for cold process.
A. NaCl B. NaOH
C. HCl D. KOH
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - The saponification of a fat or oil is done using KOH solution for cold process. When
potassium hydroxide (KOH) is used, a soft soap is formed. It cannot be used in hard water.

Q.52. Which of the following is a typical soap molecule?

A. Sodium stearate B. Calcium stearate
C. Potassium permanganate D. Sodium bicarbonate
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - Sodium stearate (a white solid) is the most common type of soap. Sodium stearate
(C17H33COONa) is formed as the soap.

Q.53. Reverse osmosis is a water purification technique that uses

A. Lime soda B. Resins
C .Coagulant D. Semipermeable membrane
Answer: - Option D
Explanation: - Reverse osmosis involves the application of pressure (usually greater than the osmotic
pressure) on one side of the solution where a semipermeable membrane is placed in between the
solutions.

Q.54. The stearate ion has a ________ carbons long hydrocarbon chain.
A. 19 B.23
C .17 D. 21
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - Sodium stearate (a white solid) is the most common type of soap. Sodium stearate
(C17H33COONa) is formed as the soap. The stearate ion has a 17 carbons long hydrocarbon chain.

Q.55. Colloidal impurities in water are removed by,

A. Sterilization B. Coagulation & Sedimentation
C . Distillation of water D. Sedimentation

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Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - Colloidal impurities in water are removed by, Coagulation and sedimentation. Very fine
suspended and colloidal impurities are removed from water by a process called Coagulation &
Sedimentation.

Q.56_____ is the amount of oxygen required to oxidize only organic matter in sewage.
A. BOD B. COD
C .DO D. Turbidity
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - BOD is defined as the amount of oxygen demanded by microorganisms to decompose
biodegradable organic matter present in wastewater under anaerobic conditions.

Q.57. When soap is added to hard water, a white precipitate of ------is formed.
A. Flux B. Scale
C .Scum D. Sludge
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - When soap is added to hard water, a white precipitate of scum is formed.

Q.58.Screening is the process of removing from water

A. Suspended particles B. Floating materials
C . Hardness D. Scale and sludge
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - Screening method is used to remove floating material from water.

Q.59.The process of reverse osmosis is also known as

A. Hyper-osmosis B. Double-osmosis
C . Hyper-filtration D. Double-filtration
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - The process of reverse osmosis is also known as hyper filtration.

Q.60. Coagulant like alum is added to water to remove

A . Colloidal impurities B. Floating materials
C . Biological impurities D. All of these
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - Colloidal impurities can be removed from water by adding coagulant like alum.

Q.61.The chemical composition of Alum is

A . Al3 (SO4)2.18H2O B. Al2 (SO4)3.18H2O
C . Al2 (SO4)2.18H2O D. Al4 (SO4)3.18H2O
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - The chemical composition of Alum is Al2 (SO4)3.18H2O

Q.62. Sterilization of water can be done by

A . Using UV rays B. Chlorination
C . Aeration D. All of these
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - The chemical composition of Alum is Al2 (SO4)3.18H2O

Q.63. Which gas is released when alum is added to water?

A . Al(OH)3 B. CO2
C . Ca(OH)3 D. CaSO4
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Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - Carbon dioxide gas is released when alum is added to water, which is corrosive to metals.

Q.64. The maximum desirable limit (BIS) of total hardness (as CaCO3) in drinking water is
A . 600 ppm B. 300 ppm
C . 500 ppm D. 1000 ppm
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - The desirable limit for hardness in drinking water is 300 mg/1 as CaCO3.

Q.65. Hardness of water is accurately determined by titration against

A . Standard AgNO3 B. Standard EDTA
C . Standard H2SO4 D. Standard KMnO4
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - Hardness of water is accurately determined by titration against standard EDTA.

Q.66.Colour of Calcium-EBT complex is

A . Wine red B. Blue
C . Green D. Yellow
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - In its deprotonated form, Eriochrome Black T i.e.(EBT) is blue. It turns wine red when it
forms a complex with calcium, magnesium, or other metal ions. EBT is blue in a buffered solution at pH 10

Q.67. Colour of calcium -EDTA complex is

A . Green B. Colorless
C . Blue D. Yellow
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - Colour of calcium -EDTA complex is colourless.

Q.68 Colour of indicator Erichrome black T is

A . Green B. Colorless
C . Blue D. Yellow
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - Colour of indicator Erichrome black T is blue.

Q.69.MgCO3 dissolve in water on boiling is converted to precipitate of

A . MgO B. Mg(OH)2
C . MgOH D. Mg(HCO)2
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - MgCO3 dissolve in water on boiling is converted to precipitate of Mg(OH)2.

Q.70. Scale formation in boiler causes the problem of

A . Overheating of boiler B. Bursting of boiler
C . Wastage of heat D. All of these
Answer: - Option D
Explanation: - Scale formation in boiler causes overheating, bursting of boiler and wastage of heat.

Q.71. Antifoaming reagent used in boiler to avoid foaming is

A . Alcohol B. Cod liver oil
C . Castor oil D. Olive oil
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - Castor oil is used as antifoaming reagent in boiler to avoid foaming.
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Q.72. Priming is the
A . Formation of wet, steam B. Choking up of flow of water in boiler
C . Formation of foam in boiler D. Formation of precipitates in boiler
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - Priming is the carryover of varying amounts of droplets of water in the steam (foam and
mist), which lowers the energy efficiency of the steam

Q.73. Formula of soda

A . Na2CO3 B. KCl
C . Na2CO2 D. CaCO3
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - Formula of soda is Na2CO3.

Q.74. The hard adhering precipitate formed in the boiler is termed as ______
A . Scale B. Caustic embrittlement
C . Sludge D. Foam
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: - The hard adhering precipitate formed in the boiler is termed as scale.

Q.75. The Unit of Hardness of water is expressed as ________

A . moles/lit B. gm/lit
C . kg D. ppm
Answer: - Option D
Explanation: - Unit of Hardness of water is expressed as ppm or mg/lit

Q.76. During "COD test" of sewage, organic matter is oxidized by _________

A . NaCl B. HCl
C . CaCO3 D. K2Cr2O4 (potassium dichromate)
Answer: - Option D
Explanation: - During "COD test" of sewage, organic matter is oxidized by K2Cr2O4.

Q.77. The process of addition of small amount of chlorine gas into the filtered water is known as _
A . Filtration B. Coagulation
C . Sedimentation D. Sterilization
Answer: - Option D
Explanation: - The process of addition of small amount of chlorine gas into the filtered water is known as
sterilization.

Q.78. During B.O.D. determination test ,the time required for sample of water to be kept incubated is
A. 2 days B. 1 days
C. 5 days D. 10 days
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - During B.O.D. determination test ,the time required for sample of water to be kept incubated
is 5 days.

Q.79.The acceptable pH range for drinking water is

A. 10.5-11.0 B. 7.00
C. 6-7.5 D. 13.00-14.00
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: - The acceptable pH range for drinking water is 6-7.5.

Page 76 of 89
Q.80. In COD test, the amount of oxidizable pollutants are determined as a measure of required
amount of ________
A. Nitrogen B. Oxygen
C. Sulphur D. Hydrogen
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - In COD test, the amount of oxidizable pollutants are determined as a measure of required
amount of oxygen.

Q.81. Brackish water contains dissolved _________.

A. CaCl2 B. NaCl (sodium chloride)
C. CaCO3 D. HCl
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - Brackish water means salty water from sea and it contains NaCl salt.

Q.82 Which of the given process is used to obtain Distilled water or De-ionized water?
A. Zeolite process B. Phosphate conditioning
C. Lime-soda process D. Ion-exchange process
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - Ion-exchange process is used to obtain distilled water or deionized water.

Q.83. The sterilization of Swimming pool water can be done by using _________
A. KMnO4 B. UV rays
C. Bleaching powder D. Cl2 gas
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - The sterilization of Swimming pool water can be done by using UV rays. Ultraviolet light of
wavelength 253.7 nanometers is used for disinfection of bacteria, viruses, molds, algae, and other
microorganisms.

Q.84.According to BIS, the maximum permissible limit of dissolved solids in drinking water is
______
A. 1000 mg/lit B. 2000 mg/lit
C. 200 mg/lit D. 500 mg/lit
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - According to BIS, the maximum permissible limit of dissolved solids in drinking water is
2000 mg/lit.

Q.85. In the ion exchange process, exhausted cation ex-changer are regenerated by using ________
A. Salts B. Acids
C. Brine solution D. bases
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: - In the ion exchange process, exhausted cation ex-changer are regenerated by using acids
Conc.H2SO4.

Q.86.The process of removing hardness causing salts from water is called as _______ of water.
A. Filtering B. Soaping
C. Settling D. Softening
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: The process of removing hardness causing salts from water is called as softening of water.

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Q.87.Hardness of water is expressed in terms of equivalent of_____
A. MgCl2 B. CaCO3
C. MgCO3 D. CaCl2
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: Hardness of water is expressed in terms of equivalent of CaCO3.

Prepared By Verified By Re-Verified By Approved By

Mrs.Bhagat V.B. Mr. Pathak S. R. Mr. Pritam Dhavan Mr. Pathak S. R.
Mrs.Deshmukh D.S. Module Coordinator FY Academic FY Coordinator
Coordinator

Page 78 of 89
 ZEAL EDUCATION SOCIETY‟S

ZEAL POLYTECHNIC,PUNE
NARHE │PUNE -41 │ INDIA
DEPARTMENT OF GENERAL SCIENCE & HUMANITIES

06– FUELS AND COMBUSTION Marks:-12

Content of Chapter:-
6.1-Fuel: Calorific value and ignition temperature, classification.
6.2- Solid fuels: Coal, Classification and composition, proximate analysis, Ultimate analysis, Bomb
calorimeter, Carbonization of coke by Otto Hofmann’s oven.
6.3- Liquid fuels: Fractional distillation of crude petroleum, boiling range, composition, properties.
Knocking, cracking, octane number and cetane number.
6.4- Gaseous fuels: Biogas, LPG, and CNG. Combustion equation of gaseous fuels, mass and volume of air
required for complete combustion.

Q.1. Oxygen bomb method is used to determine

A. S B. N
C. O D. H
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: Oxygen bomb calorimeters determine the calorific value of materials by measuring the heat
of combustion. Determination of Sulfur in Organic Compounds by Use of Oxygen Bomb

Q.2. Eschka method is used to determine

A. S B. N
C. O D. H
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: The Eschka method is used to determine the sulfur present in fuel.

Q.3. Anline point of high speed Fuel is

A. 70 °C B. 30 °C
C. 50 °C D. None of these
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: Anline point of high speed Fuel is 70 °C.

Q.4. Bio-gas is produced by

A. Aerobic Fermentation B. Anerobic Fermentation
C. Both A & B D. None of these
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: Biogas, containing energy-rich methane, is produced by microbial decomposition of organic
material under anaerobic conditions.

Q.5. Percentage of methane in CNG is.

A. 80-90% B. 60-65%
C. 50-60% D. 40-50%
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: Percentage of methane in CNG is 80-90% .

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Q.6. CNG Contain large proportion of
A. Methane B. Propane
C. Ethane D. Butane
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: CNG Contain large proportion of methane. CNG is odorless, tasteless and non-toxic, and is
made up of 93.05% methane, nitrogen, carbon dioxide, propane and traces of ethane.

Q.7. Cetane Number is

A. Iso-octane + n-Heptane B. n-hexadecane+ α-Methyl Naphthalene
C. Methane + Isobutane D. None of These
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: Cetane rating, also known as cetane number is a measurement of the quality or performance
of diesel fuel. It is the % volume of Cetane (n-hexadecane, Cetane Number = 100) in alpha methyl
naphthalene (Cetane Number = 0), that provides the specified ignition delay at the identical compression
ratio to that of the fuel sample.

Q.8. Octane Number is

A. Iso-octane + n-Heptane B. n-hexadecane+ α-Methyl Naphthalene
C. Methane + Isobutane D. None of These
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: Octane number of iso-octane is 100 and that of n-heptane is 0 and both are the standard
reference fuels used in calculation of octane numbers of other fuels.

Q.9 .Fuel with high Octane No

A. Produces Knocking B. Doesn‟t Produce Knocking
C. Both A & B D. None of These
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: Octane number is the percentage of isooctane in the mixture of isooctane and n-heptane.
Octane number is for gasoline (petrol) fuel. A gasoline fuel with octane number of 80 means 80 % of
isooctane number and 20 % of n -heptane , i.e., branched - chain alkane is more , so knocking is less .

Q.10. Octane Number of regular petrol is

A. 74 B. 100
C. 0 D. All of these
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: Octane Number of regular petrol is 74.

Q.11. An Aviation petrol has Octane No

A. 0 B. 100
C. Above 100 D. In between 0-100
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: An Aviation petrol has Octane No above 100.

Q.12. The compound with Octane No 100 is

A. n-heptane B. 2,2,4 trimethyl pentane
C. Iso-octane D. Both B & C
Answer: - Option D
Explanation: 2, 2,4-Trimethylpentane, also known as isooctane or iso-octane, is an organic compound
with the formula (CH3)3CCH2CH(CH3)2. It is one of several isomers of octane (C8H18). This particular
isomer is the standard 100 point on the octane rating scale
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Q.13. The Compound with Octane No 0 is
A. n-heptane B. 2,2,4 trimethyl pentane
C. Iso-octane D. Both B & C
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: The standard liquids used for the octane number tests are n-heptane, which has very poor
knock resistance, and is thus assigned a value of 0, and isooctane (2,2,4-trimethylpentane), which exhibits
excellent knock resistance, and is thus assigned a value of 100.

Q.14. To determine Ignition quality of diesel fuel we used

A. Octane No B. Cetane No
C. Iso-octane D. Both B & C
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: Cetane rating, also known as cetane number is a measurement of the quality or performance
of diesel fuel.

Q.15. Octane Number of

A. It is used to determine knocking B. It is used to determine knocking ability &
ability & Quality of Petrol Quality of Diesel
C. Iso-octane D. Both A and B
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: Octane Number is used to determine knocking ability & Quality of Petrol.

Q.16. Knocking occurs when

A. Fuel burns suddenly With B. Fuels burns slowly
explosive nature
C. Fuels burns incompletely D. Fuels burns with controlled Rate
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: Knocking conditions take place when the end gas spontaneously ignites i.e. when fuel burns
suddenly with explosive nature.

Q.17.Which of the following is used as Anti-knocking agent?

A. Tetra Ethyl Lead (TEL) B. Ethylene dichloride
C. Both B & C D. None of These
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: T.E.L (Tetra Ethyl Lead) which is called an organic lead. It is used as an anti-knock agent in
gasoline and jet fuels.

Q.18. The Compound with Cetane No 100 is

A. 1-methyl Naphthalene B. n-hexadecane
C. Isooctane D. n-heptane
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: Standard hydrocarbons used are n-hexadecane (cetane), with cetane number 100.

Q.19. Heavy oil is used

A. As a Lubricant B. In Ointment, Candles, Shoe polishes
C. As a lubricant in Medicine& Cosmetics D. All of these
Answer: - Option D
Explanation: Heavy oil is used as lubricant, as a lubricant in medicine & cosmetics and also used in
ointment, candles, shoe polishes

Page 81 of 89
Q.20. Which fraction is used in dry cleaning?
A. Asphalt B. Petroleum ether
C. Naptha D. Gasoline
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: Naphtha is used for dry cleaning. It is also called as solvent spirit.

Q.21. Oil Field are mostly situated

A. Near coastal area B. Near salty sand
C. Near Himalayan area D. None of these
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: Oil Field are mostly situated near coastal area.

Q.22. Calorific Value of Natural Gas

A. 14000 Kcal/m3 B. 10000Kcal/m3
C. 2500Kcal/kg D. 5000Kcal/kg
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: Calorific Value of Natural Gas 14000 Kcal/m3

Q.23. Instrument used to determine Calorific Value

A. Bomb Calorimeter B. Nephelometer
C. PH Meter D. Conductivity Meter
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: Bomb Calorimeter used in various applications such as calculating the calorific value of foods
and fuels.

Q.24. Bomb Calorimeter is used to determine

A. Ignition Temp B. Calorific Value
C. Melting Point of Fuel D. Boiling Point of Fuel
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: Bomb Calorimeter used in various applications such as calculating the calorific value of foods
and fuels.

Q.25. Effect of Carbon in Coal is

A. It Increases the Calorific B. It decreases the Calorific Value of Coal
Value of Coal
C. It has no effect on Calorific D. All of These
Value
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: Coal is an important source of energy & the carbon increases calorific value of coal.

Q.26. Effect of amount of O and H on quality of Coal is

A. It Increases the Calorific B. It decreases the Calorific Value of Coal
Value of Coal
C. It has no effect on Calorific D. All of These
Value
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: Amount of O and H decreases the calorific value of coal.

Page 82 of 89
Q.27. Which constituents in coal is more toxic?
A. Carbon B. Oxygen
C. Nitrogen D. Sulphur
Answer: - Option D
Explanation: The excess sulfur content of coal structure is harmful for the environment and human health.
It also causes air pollution.

Q.28. Combustion rate is increased by

A. Increasing rate of Oxygen B. decreasing rate of Oxygen supply
supply
C. By Pulverizing the coal D. Both A&C
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: Combustion rate is increased by increasing rate of oxygen supply.

Q.29. Pulverized Coal increases calorific Value because

A. It increase free surface area B It decrease free surface area of coal
of coal
C. It increase mass of coal D. It increase mass of coal
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: Pulverized Coal increases calorific Value because it increase free surface area of coal.

Q.30. Kjeldahl’s flask is used for determination of

A. Carbon B. Oxygen
C. Nitrogen D. Sulphur
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: Kjeldahl‟s flask is used for determination of nitrogen content in coal.

Q.31.Juncker’s gas Calorimeter used to determine Calorific Value of

A. Solid and liquid Fuel B Gaseous And liquid Fuel which get
vaporize easily
C. Solid D. None of These
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: Juncker‟s gas Calorimeter used to determine Calorific Value of gaseous and liquid Fuel
which get vaporize easily.

Q.32. Boy’s gas Calorimeter used to determine Calorific Value of

A. Solid and liquid Fuel B Gaseous And liquid Fuel which get
vaporize easily
C. Solid D. None of These
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: Juncker‟s gas calorimeter and Boy‟s gas calorimeter used to determine calorific value of
gaseous and liquid fuel which get vaporize easily.

Q.33. In Bomb Calorimeter Fuel used is

A. Benzoic acid B. Naphthalene
C. Both A & B D. None of these
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: In Bomb calorimeter fuel used is Benzoic acid or naphthalene.

Page 83 of 89
Q.34. Bomb Calorimeter used to determine Calorific value of
A. Solid and Liquid Fuel B. Solid and gaseous fuels
C. Liquid and gaseous fuel D. All of These
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: Bomb Calorimeter used to determine Calorific value of solid and liquid fuel.

Q.35. Advantage of gaseous fuel over solid and liquid fuel is

A. High Calorific Value B. High Ignition temp
C. Low thermal efficiency D. All of These
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: High Calorific Value is advantage of gaseous fuel over solid and liquid fuel.

Q.36. Advantage of Solid fuel over gaseous and liquid fuel is

A. Easy to store, less risk of explosion B. High Ignition temp
C. High calorific value D. Ash content is low
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: Easy to store, less risk of explosion is advantage of solid fuel over gaseous and liquid fuel.

Q.37.Advantage of Solid fuel over gaseous and liquid fuel is

A. Moderate Ignition temp B. Low Thermal efficiency
C. High calorific value D. Ash content is low
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: Moderate Ignition temp is advantage of solid fuel over gaseous and liquid fuel.

Q.38.Good fuel should have

A. Low noncombustible matter B. High Ignition temp
C. Low Calorific value D. High Velocity of Combustion
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: Good fuel should have low noncombustible matter.

Q.39. Good fuel should have

A. Moderate ignition Temp B. High Calorific value
C. Low moisture Content D. All of these
Answer: - Option D
Explanation: Good fuel should have low noncombustible matter, moderate ignition temperature, high
calorific value and low moisture content.

Q.40. 1Kcal equal to

A.3.968 B.Th.U B. 2.2 CHU
C.1000cal D. all of these
Answer: - Option D
Explanation: 1 Kcal= 3.968B.Th.U= 2.2 CHU= 1000Cal

Q.41. 1 B.Th.U. Equal to

A. 252 cal B. 0.252 kcal
C. 3.968 Kcal D. 3968 cal
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: 1 B.Th.U. Equal to 252 Cal

Page 84 of 89
Q.42. 1 centigrade heat unit (C.H.U.) is the quantity of heat required to raise temp of
A. 1 gm of water to 1 0C B. 1 Kg of water to 1 0C
C. 1 Pound of water to 1 F
0 D. 1 Pound of water to 1 0C
Answer: - Option D
Explanation: 1 centigrade heat unit (C.H.U.) is the quantity of heat required to raise temp of 1 Pound of
water to 1 0C.

Q.43. 1 British thermal unit (B.Th.U.) is amount of heat required to raise the temperature
A. 1 gm of water to 1 0C B. 1 Kg of water to 1 0C
C. 1 Pound of water to 1 F
0 D. 1 Pound of water to 1 0C
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: 1 British thermal unit (B.Th.U.) is amount of heat required to raise the temperature 1 Pound
of water to 1 0F.

Q.44.Another use of Bomb calorimeter is to determine percentage of

A. C B. N
C. S D. H
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: Another use of Bomb calorimeter is to determine percentage of sulphur.

Q.45. CaCl2 used in Ultimate analysis for

A. Determination of C B. Determination of N
C. Determination of S D. Determination of H
Answer: - Option D
Explanation: The gaseous products of combustion are passed through two bulbs. One containing weighed
amount of anhydrous Calcium chloride which absorbs water other containing weighed amount of potassium
hydroxide which absorbs carbon dioxide.

Q.46. KOH used in Ultimate analysis for

A. Determination of C B. Determination of N
C. Determination of S D. Determination of H
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: The gaseous products of combustion are passed through two bulbs. One containing weighed
amount of anhydrous Calcium chloride which absorbs water other containing weighed amount of potassium
hydroxide which absorbs carbon dioxide.

Q.47.Reaction of Fuels with O2 is

A. Combustion B. Displacement
C. Dissociation D. None of These
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: Reaction of Fuels with O2 is combustion reaction.

Q.48. Combustion means reaction with

A.O2 B. N2
C.H2 D. All of these
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: Reaction of Fuels with O2 is combustion reaction.

Page 85 of 89
Q.49. Example of Natural fuel is
A. Charcoal B. LPG
C. Diesel D. Wood
Answer: - Option D
Explanation: Wood is the example of natural fuel.

Q.50. Which of the following is not a natural Fuels?

A. Wood B. petroleum Oil
C. Coal D. Coke
Answer: - Option D
Explanation: Wood, petroleum oil and coal are the examples of natural fuels.

Q.51. Natural fuels is also called as

A. Primary Fuels B. Secondary fuels
C. Artificial fuels D. None of these
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: Natural fuels are also called as primary fuel.

Q.52. Which of the following is artificial fuels?

A. Coke B. Charcoal
C. Petrol D. All of these
Answer: - Option D
Explanation: Coke, Charcoal and petrol are artificial fuels or secondary fuels.

Q.53. Example of artificial fuel is

A. Diesel B. LPG
C. Producer Gas D. All of these
Answer: - Option D
Explanation: Diesel, LPG and Producer Gas are examples of artificial fuels.

Q.54. Artificial fuel is also called as

A. Primary B. Secondary
C. Natural D. Both A&C
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: Artificial fuel is also called as secondary fuel.

Q.55.Depending on their occurrence fuel is classified as

A. Natural and artificial B. Solid, liquid, Gas
C. Both D. None of these
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: Depending on their occurrence fuel is classified as natural and artificial.

Q.56.A minimum temperature at which combustion of fuel takes place is

A. Melting point B. Boiling point
C. Calorific value D. Ignition temperature
Answer: - Option D
Explanation: Ignition temperature means a minimum temperature at which combustion of fuel takes place.

Page 86 of 89
Q.57. CGS Unit of calorific value of solid fuel is
A. Cal/gm B. Kcal/kg
C. Joules/kg D. Kcal/m3
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: CGS Unit of calorific value of solid fuel is Cal/gm.

Q.58. CGS Unit of calorific value of liquid fuel is

A. Cal/lit B. Kcal/m3
C. Joules/m3 D. Joules /kg
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: CGS Unit of calorific value of liquid fuel is Cal/lit

Q.59. MKS Unit of calorific value of solid fuel is

A. Cal/gm B. Kcal/kg
C. Joules/kg D. Kcal/m3
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: MKS Unit of calorific value of solid fuel is Kcal/kg.

Q.60. MKS Unit of calorific value of liquid fuel is

A. Cal/lit B. Kcal/m3
C. Joules/m 3 D. Joules/kg
Answer: - Option B
Explanation: MKS Unit of calorific value of liquid fuel is Kcal/m3 .

Q.61. SI Unit of calorific value of fuel is

A. Cal/lit B. Kcal/m3
C. Joules/m3 D. Joules /kg
Answer: - Option D
Explanation: SI Unit of calorific value of fuel is Joules /kg.

Q.62. The process of transformation of vegetable matter into coal is called as

A. Coalification B. Combustion
C. Calorific vale D. None of these.
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: The process of transformation of vegetable matter into coal is called as coalification.

Q.63. In which form of coal highest percentage of Carbon is present

A. Peat B. Lignite
C. Bituminous D. Anthracite
Answer: - Option D
Explanation: Percentage of Carbon in coal increases in the order of Peat<Lignite<Bituminous<Anthracite

Q.64. Which form of coal has lowest percentage of Carbon is present?

A. Peat B. Lignite
C. Bituminous D. Anthracite
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: Percentage of Carbon in coal increases in the order of Peat<Lignite<Bituminous<Anthracite

Page 87 of 89
Q.65. Which type of Coal will lead to more pollution?
A. Peat B. Lignite
C. Bituminous D. Anthracite
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: Peat is poor coal. Percentage of carbon in peat coal is very low. So peat coal will lead to
more pollution after combustion.

Q.66. Match the following

Name of Coal Percentage of Carbon
A) Peat 1) 90-95%
B) Lignite 2) 60-70%
C) Bituminous 3) 75-80%
D) Anthracite 4) 50-60%

A. A-4,B-2,C-3,D-1 B. A-3,B-1,C-2,D-4
C. A-2,B-3,C-1,D-4 D. A-3,B-2,C-1,D-4
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: Percentage of Carbon in coal increases in the order of Peat<Lignite<Bituminous<Anthracite

Q.67. Match the following

Name of Coal Calorific Value
A) Peat 1) 8700
B) Lignite 2) 8000
C) Bituminous 3) 6300
D) Anthracite 4) 5400

A. A-4,B-3,C-2,D-1 B. A-3,B-1,C-2,D-4
C. A-2,B-3,C-1,D-4 D. A-3,B-2,C-1,D-4
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: Calorific value of coal increases in the order of Peat<Lignite<Bituminous<Anthracite

Q.68. Which fuel is used in power plants & steam rising fuel (Boiler fuel)?
A. Peat B. Lignite
C. Bituminous D. Anthracite
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: Bituminous is used in power plants & steam rising fuel (Boiler fuel).

Q.69.Most widely used coal in the world

A. Peat B. Lignite
C. Bituminous D. Anthracite
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: Bituminous is most widely used coal in the world.

Q.70. Which Coal is used as domestic Fuel?

A. Peat B. Lignite
C. Bituminous D. Anthracite
Answer: - Option C
Explanation: Bituminous Coal is used as domestic Fuel.

Page 88 of 89
Q.71. Superior quality of coal is
A. Peat B. Lignite
C. Bituminous D. Anthracite
Answer: - Option D
Explanation: Anthracite is a superior quality of coal.

Q.72. Coal used in metallurgical industries is

A. Peat B. Lignite
C. Bituminous D. Anthracite
Answer: - Option D
Explanation: Anthracite Coal is used in metallurgical industries.

Q.73.The Compound with Cetane No 0 is

A. 1-methyl Naphthalene B. n-hexadecane
C. Isooctane D. n-heptane
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: The Compound with Cetane No 0 is 1-methyl Naphthalene

Q.74. Calorific Value is ….

A. Amount of heat produced by complete combustion of unit Wt or Vol of fuel.
B. Amount of heat absorbed by complete combustion of unit Wt or Vol of fuel.
C. Amount of heat produced by dissociation of unit Wt or Vol of fuel.
D. None of these
Answer: - Option A
Explanation: Calorific Value is amount of heat produced by complete combustion of unit Wt or Vol of fuel.

Q.75.The molecular mass of oxygen is.......

A. 12 B. 14
C. 16 D. 32
Answer: - Option D
Explanation: The molecular mass of oxygen (O2) is 32. (16+16=32, where atomic mass of oxygen is 16.)

Prepared By Verified By Re-Verified By Approved By

Mrs.Bhagat V.B. Mr. Pathak S. R. Mr. Pritam Dhavan Mr. Pathak S. R.
Mrs.Deshmukh D.S. Module Coordinator FY Academic FY Coordinator
Coordinator

Page 89 of 89