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Question Booklet Sl. No.
Series CODE : EEM-3/22

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Write here Roll number and Answer Sheet No.

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Roll No. Answer Sheet No.

Duration : 3 Hours Total Marks : 300

Declaration by Invigilator : Declaration by Candidate :
I Certify that I have checked that the Roll Number and the I undertake not to employ any unfair means in this exam. I have checked the Question
Answer Sheet Number written by the Candidate on the question Booklet Number and the Answer Sheet Number and both are identical and have
paper and the OMR Sheet are correct and the Answer Sheet been correctly entered by me wherever indicated.
Number matches the Question Booklet Number exactly.

Signature of the Invigilator with Name Signature of the Candidate with Name
Read the following instructions carefully before you begin to answer the questions.
Important Instructions to Candidates
1. The Roll No. is a 7 digit No., the candidate needs to circle the Roll No. in the Answer Sheet.
2. The appropriate Circle should be shaded for Roll No. This should be done carefully because only the
shaded circles are scanned.
3. Valuation of Answer Sheet will be done on the computer. Candidate should not make any stray marks
on the Answer Sheet, tamper with or mutilate it. Otherwise it will not be evaluated.
4. Please check all the pages of the Booklet carefully. In case of any defect, please ask the Invigilator for
replacement of the Booklet.

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5. You must not tear off or remove any sheet from this Booklet. The Answer Sheet must be handed over
to the Invigilator before you leave the Examination Hall.
6. All questions are compulsory and each Question carries 2 marks.
7. The paper carries negative markings. For each wrong answer 0.50 mark will be deducted.
8. This Booklet contains 150 questions. Candidates must note that there will be 3 Sections in the
question paper :
Sections Test Components No. of Questions Page No.
A General English 1-50 5 - 10
B Elementary Mathematics 51-100 11 - 16
C General Knowledge 101-150 17 - 23
9. Use of Calculator/Palmtop/Laptop/Other Digital Instrument/Mobile/Cell Phone/Pager is not allowed.
10. Candidates found guilty of misconduct/using unfair means in the Examination Hall will be liable for appropriate penal/legal
action.
11. No Rough Work is to be done on the Answer Sheet and only single OMR Answer Sheet will be provided.
12. This booklet contains 24 pages.
13. Directions : Each question or incomplete statement is followed by four alternative suggested answers or completions.
In each case, you are required to select the one that correctly answers the question or completes the statement and blacken ( )
appropriate circle a, b, c or d by Blue / Black Ball-Point Pen provided by the board against the question concerned in the
Answer Sheet.
14. Mark your answer by shading the appropriate circle against each question. The circle should be shaded completely without
leaving any space. The correct method of shading is given below.
Wrong Method Wrong Method Wrong Method Correct Method
  

The Candidate must mark his/her response after careful consideration, as it is not possible to change the response once it
is marked.
15. There is only one correct answer to each question. You should blacken ( ) the circle of the appropriate column, viz., a, b, c or d.
If you blacken ( ) more than one circle against any one question, the answer will be treated as wrong.
16. Use the space for rough work given at the beginning of the Question Booklet only and not on the Answer Sheet.
17. You are NOT required to mark your answers in this Booklet. All answers must be indicated in the Answer Sheet only.
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Here

W rite
N ot
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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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Section – A
(General English)

Direction (Q. No. 1 to 4) : Complete the following sentences with appropriate

conjunctions from the alternatives given below them.

1. Seetha tried calling you __________ the line was busy.

(a) and (b) or (c) because (d) but

2. Aanya was very happy __________ she won the prize.

(a) until (b) but (c) then (d) when

3. The team left early ___________ we could reach the station on time.
(a) although (b) so that (c) unless (d) until

4. Abhishek sleep with windows open ___________ it’s very cold.

(a) until (b) that (c) so that (d) unless

Direction (Q. No. 5 to 7) : Fill in the blanks with appropriate prepositions from
the alternatives given below them.

5. The bus went ____________ the road.

(a) at (b) in (c) besides (d) down

6. The cars zoomed __________ the pavement.

(a) across (b) along (c) under (d) by

7. The bird dived _____________ the pond.

(a) on to (b) at (c) in (d) into

Direction (Q. No. 8 to 11) : Fill in the blanks with the right form of degrees of comparison
from the alternatives given below them.

8. Rekha’s umbrella was __________ than Nina’s.

(a) big (b) bigger (c) biggest (d) none of these

9. This book is ___________ that one.

(a) better (b) so good as
(c) more good (d) as good as

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10. Kuhu’s hair is ___________ than Leena’s.

(a) long (b) longer (c) longest (d) none of these

11. Is Sunitha ______________ person in your family ?

(a) old (b) older (c) the oldest (d) none of these

Direction (Q. No. 12 to 15) : Complete the following sentences with the correct
form of the verbs given below them.

12. Would you _____________ to eat some chocolates ?

(a) liking (b) likes (c) liked (d) like

13. Ayesha ___________ a cold since last night.

(a) has (b) have (c) was (d) having

14. Reenu and Raj ___________ going to college.

(a) was (b) have (c) has (d) were

15. The dog __________ run away.

(a) have (b) were (c) has (d) none of these

Direction (Q. No. 16 and 17) : Fill in the blanks with appropriate tense form of the
verb from the alternatives given below them.

16. Usha has ___________ her homework.

(a) finished (b) finish (c) finishing (d) finishes

17. The driver ________ the bus carefully in the rain.

(a) drive (b) driven (c) drove (d) drived

18. Fill in the blank with appropriate tense form of the verb given in the bracket
from the alternatives given below it.
Lavanya has decided that she is ___________ (move) to Lucknow.
(a) going moved (b) moves (c) moved (d) going to move

19. Identify the predicate part of the given sentence.

Mother was calling her son.
(a) mother (b) was
(c) her son (d) was calling her son
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20. Identify the subject part of the given sentence.

The birds were building a nest.
(a) The birds (b) were (c) building (d) a nest

Direction (Q. No. 21 and 22) : Identify the parts of speech of the underlined word
from the alternatives given below them.

21. Rithika ate a sandwich.

(a) Adjective (b) Pronoun (c) Adverb (d) Noun

22. Uh-oh! It looks like it is going to end.

(a) Conjunction (b) Adverb (c) Adjective (d) Interjection

Direction (Q. No. 23 to 26) : Complete the following sentences with appropriate
articles from the alternatives given below them.

23. ___________ important piece of article was found in the bin.

(a) A (b) The (c) An (d) None of these

24. We were waiting for ___________ hour.

(a) a (b) an (c) the (d) none of these

25. Atul is ________ kind.

(a) a (b) the
(c) an (d) no article required

26. ___________ children played on a swing.

(a) The (b) A (c) An (d) None of these

Direction (Q. No. 27 to 29) : Fill in the blanks with appropriate form of pronouns
from the alternatives given below them.

27. Ananya spoke to the teacher ____________.

(a) myself (b) yourself (c) herself (d) hisself

28. This book is ____________.

(a) me (b) my (c) myself (d) mine

29. ___________ is standing by the door ?

(a) Whom (b) What (c) Which (d) Who

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Direction (Q. No. 30 and 31) : Identify the form of the verbs underlined in the given
sentences from the alternatives given below them.

30. The woman asks money.

(a) Action verb (b) Transitive verb
(c) Intransitive verb (d) Auxiliary verb

31. Jeevan paints a picture.

(a) Auxiliary verb (b) Intransitive verb
(c) Action verb (d) Complementary verb

Direction (Q. No. 32 to 35) : Complete the following sentences with appropriate
modals from the alternatives given below them.

32. Jane __________ speak Gujarati.

(a) must (b) may (c) should (d) can

33. Sudhir ___________ be in class.

(a) may not (b) can not (c) must not (d) none of these

34. Ananya ________ have studied harder.

(a) can (b) may (c) should (d) must

35. We ___________ exercise daily.

(a) can (b) must (c) might (d) must not

Direction (Q. No. 36 to 38) : Choose the appropriate reported speech form of the
given sentences from the alternatives given below them.

36. ‘Where are all my papers ?’ said Harish to Ashish.

(a) Harish said, where are all my papers.
(b) Harish asked his papers.
(c) Harish asked Ashish where all his papers were.
(d) Where are all my papers ? Harish shouted.

37. Reema said, ‘We have to return home before it gets dark.’
(a) Reema said that we have to return home before it got dark.
(b) Reema said that they had to return home before it got dark.
(c) Reema said to return home.
(d) Reema asked that they had to return home.

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38. ‘Please put your ironed clothes away in the cupboard’, she said to Karan.
(a) She ordered Karan to put his clothes.
(b) She requested Karan to put his ironed clothes away in the cupboard.
(c) She pleased Karan to put his clothes.
(d) She complained Karan about putting his ironed clothes.

Direction (Q. No. 39 to 41) : Fill in the blanks with appropriate phrasal verbs from
the alternatives given below them.

39. Sulekha __________ a brilliant idea for the college cultural meet.
(a) put forward (b) put down
(c) put off (d) put aside

40. The old house is being pulled _______________.

(a) off (b) up
(c) down (d) aside

41. The program was put _____________ and might take place next month.
(a) off (b) on
(c) down (d) aside

Direction (Q. No. 42 to 45) : Identify the meaning of underlined idiomatic expressions
from the alternatives given below them.

42. Sheela’s rivals strained every nerve to trouble her.

(a) tried their best (b) appreciated her
(c) controlled her (d) boiled her nerves

43. She took exception to Gaurav’s insensitive remarks.

(a) Objected to (b) Supported
(c) Argued in favor (d) Praised to

44. Ankitha was prepared to meet them halfway.

(a) to make a compromise
(b) a subject of dispute
(c) failed to meet the expectations
(d) scolded them

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45. The man stood his ground in spite of all the opposition.
(a) Scolded others who opposed
(b) Stood firmly on the ground
(c) Maintained his stand
(d) Interfere with

Direction (Q. No. 46 to 48) : Identify the passive form of the given sentences from
the alternatives given below them.

46. Dharani eats the ice-cream.

(a) Dharani ate the ice-cream
(b) The ice-cream is eaten by Dharani
(c) The ice-cream will be eaten
(d) The eating will be done

47. The teacher checks the notebooks.

(a) Checking will be done by teacher
(b) The notebooks were checked
(c) The notebooks are checked by the teacher
(d) Notebooks were checked

48. I have finished my homework.

(a) I had completed my homework
(b) My homework got over
(c) My homework has been finished by me
(d) My homework was finished by me

Direction (Q. No. 49 and 50) : Choose the antonym of the given words from the
alternatives given below them.

49. Weary
(a) energetic (b) listless
(c) apathetic (d) lethargic

50. Vanity
(a) arrogance (b) boasting
(c) conceit (d) humility

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Section – B
(Elementary Mathematics)

51. 35 sweets are distributed among Sita and Gita in the ratio 4 : 3. The number
of sweets Sita gets is
(a) 28 (b) 21 (c) 20 (d) 15

52. The ratio of present ages of a father to that of his son is 7 : 4. Ten years hence,
the ratio would be 11 : 7. Their present ages are
(a) 56, 32 (b) 49, 28 (c) 42, 24 (d) 35, 20

53. A sum fetched a total simple interest of ` 4,016.25 at the rate of 9% p.a in
5 years. What is the sum ?
(a) ` 4,462.50 (b) ` 8,032.50 (c) ` 8,900 (d) ` 8,925

54. If H.C.F. (a, b) = 12 and a × b = 1800, then L.C.M. (a, b) =

(a) 3600 (b) 900 (c) 150 (d) 90

55. A boat can travel with a speed of 13 km/hr in still water. If the speed of the
stream is 4 km/hr, find the time taken by the boat to go 68 km downstream.
(a) 2 hrs (b) 5 hrs (c) 4 hrs (d) 3 hrs

56. A man has some hens and cows. If the number of heads be 48 and the number
of feet equals 140, then the number of hens will be
(a) 22 (b) 24 (c) 23 (d) 26

57. In a mixture of 60 litres, the ratio of milk and water is 2 : 1. If this ratio is to be
1 : 2, then the quantity of water to be further added is
(a) 20 litres (b) 30 litres (c) 40 litres (d) 60 litres

58. A person can cover a certain distance in 6 hrs travelling at a speed of 45 km/hr.
Travelling at what speed can he cover the same distance in 5 hours ?
(a) 50 km/hr (b) 60 km/hr (c) 54 km/hr (d) None of these

59. A man took loan from a bank at the rate of 12% p.a. simple interest. After
3 years, he had to pay ` 5,400 interest only for the period. The principal
amount borrowed by him was
(a) ` 2,000 (b) ` 20,000 (c) ` 15,000 (d) ` 10,000

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60. A man has ` 480 in the denominations of one rupee notes, five rupees notes and
ten rupees notes. The number of notes of each denomination is equal. What is
the total number of notes that he has ?
(a) 45 (b) 30 (c) 75 (d) 90

61. 32% of what number is 256 ?

(a) 1024 (b) 800 (c) 640 (d) 400

62. To fill a tank, 25 buckets of water is required. How many buckets of water
will be required to fill the same tank if the capacity of the bucket is reduced
to two-fifth of its present ?
(a) 10 (b) 35.5
(c) 62.5 (d) None of these

63. The value of 0.1 × 0.1 × 0.1 + 0.02 × 0.02 × 0.02 is

0.2 × 0.2 × 0.2 + 0.04 × 0.04 × 0.04

(a) 0.0125 (b) 0.125

(c) 0.25 (d) 0.5

2 4
64. and is
The ratio compounded of
3 9
(a) 9 : 2 (b) 2 : 9 (c) 27 : 8 (d) 8 : 27

65. If 20% of a = b, then b% of 20 is the same as

(a) 4% of a (b) 5% of a
(c) 20% of a (d) None of these

66. An observer 1.6 m tall is 20 3 m away from a tower. The angle of elevation
from his eye to the top of the tower is 30°. The height of the tower is
(a) 21.6 m (b) 24.72 m (c) 23.2 m (d) None of these

67. Given that 100.48 = x, 100.70 = y and xz = y2, then the value of z is close to

(a) 1.45 (b) 3.7 (c) 2.9 (d) 1.88

68. How many of the following numbers are divisible by 132 ?

264, 396, 462, 792, 968, 2178, 5184, 6336
(a) 6 (b) 5 (c) 7 (d) 4

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69. Find the greatest number that will divide 43, 91 and 183 so as to leave the
same remainder in each case.
(a) 4 (b) 7 (c) 9 (d) 13

70. The cost price of 20 articles is the same as the selling price of x articles. If the
profit is 25%, then the value of x is
(a) 15 (b) 16 (c) 18 (d) 25

71. A person crosses a 600 m long street in 5 minutes. What is his speed in km per
hour ?
(a) 3.6 (b) 7.2 (c) 8.4 (d) 10

72. The least number which should be added to 2497, so that the sum is exactly
divisible by 5, 6, 4 and 3 is
(a) 3 (b) 13 (c) 23 (d) 33

2
73. A and B together have ` 1,210. If 4 of A’s amount is equal to of B’s amount,
15 5
how much amount does B have ?
(a) ` 550 (b) ` 484 (c) ` 460 (d) ` 664

74. Two numbers are respectively 20% and 50% more than a third number. The
ratio of the two numbers is
(a) 2 : 5 (b) 3 : 5 (c) 4 : 5 (d) 6 : 7

75. ` 100 will become after 20 years at 5% p.a. C.I. amount of

(a) ` 250 (b) ` 205
(c) ` 265.50 (d) None of these

76. In the first 10 overs of a cricket game, the run rate was only 3.2. What should
be the run rate in the remaining 40 overs to reach the target of 282 runs ?
(a) 6.25 (b) 6.5 (c) 6.75 (d) 7

(469 + 174 )2 − (469 − 174 )2

77. =
469 × 174
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 295 (d) 643

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78. If a – b = 3 and a2 + b2 = 29, find the value of ab.

(a) 10 (b) 20 (c) 15 (d) 19

79. The fourth proportional to 5, 8, 15 is

(a) 18 (b) 24 (c) 19 (d) 20

4
80. The fraction in percentage form becomes
5
(a) 4% (b) 80% (c) 8% (d) 20%

81. If selling price is doubled, the profit triples. Find the profit percent.
2
(a) 66 % (b) 100%
3
1
(c) 105 % (d) 120%
3
82. Two students appeared at an examination. One of them secured 9 marks more
than the other and his marks was 56% of the sum of their marks. The marks
obtained by them are
(a) 39, 30 (b) 41, 32 (c) 42, 33 (d) 43, 34

83. A fruit seller had some apples. He sells 40% apples and still has 420 apples.
Originally, he had
(a) 588 apples (b) 672 apples
(c) 600 apples (d) 700 apples

84. The ratio of Rs. 2 to 50 paise is

(a) 1 : 4 (b) 4 : 1 (c) 2 : 50 (d) none of these

85. The compound interest on ` 30,000 at 7% per annum is ` 4,347. The period
(in years) is
1
(a) 2 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
2

86. A certain number is 4 times the sum of the digits. If 18 is added to the number,
the digits get interchanged. The number is
(a) 54 (b) 42 (c) 36 (d) 24

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87. Area of equilateral triangle of side length 1 cm is

3 1 3
(a) cm2 (b) cm2 (c) cm2 (d) none of these
4 2 2
88. The average weight of 8 persons increases by 2.5 kg when a new person comes
in place of one of them weighing 65 kg. What might be the weight of the new
person ?
(a) 76 kg (b) 76.5 kg
(c) 85 kg (d) None of these

89. Alfred buys an old scooter for ` 4,700 and spends ` 800 on its repairs. If he sells
the scooter for ` 5,800, his gain percent is
4 5
(a) 4 % (b) 5 %
7 11
(c) 10% (d) 12%

90. The greatest four digits number which is divisible by 15, 25, 40 and 75, is
(a) 9000 (b) 9800
(c) 9600 (d) 9400

91. The greatest ratio out of 2 : 3, 5 : 4, 3 : 2 and 4 : 5 is

(a) 4 : 5 (b) 3 : 2
(c) 5 : 4 (d) 2 : 3

92. A sum of money at simple interest amounts to ` 815 in 3 years and ` 854 in
4 years. The sum is
(a) ` 650 (b) ` 690
(c) ` 698 (d) ` 700

x x x
93. If x + + = + 5 , then x =
2 3 4
60
(a) (b) 4
19

12 19
(c) (d)
5 60

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rd th
2 1
94. Mr. A can do work in 18 days. In how many days does he finish of work ?
3 4
1 1
(a) 6 (b) 6
2 4
3
(c) 6 (d) 6
4

95. When 0.232323... is converted into a fraction, then the result is

1 23
(a) (b)
5 100

23 2
(c) (d)
99 9

96. Two numbers A and B are such that the sum of 5% of A and 4% of B is
two-third of the sum of 6% of A and 8% of B. Find the ratio of A : B.
(a) 2 : 3 (b) 1 : 1
(c) 3 : 4 (d) 4 : 3

97. The least number of complete years in which a sum of money put out at 20%
compound interest will be more than doubled is
(a) 3 (b) 4
(c) 5 (d) 6

98. In a shower, 5 cm of rain falls. The volume of water that falls on 1.5 hectares
of ground is
(a) 75 m3 (b) 750 m3
(c) 7500 m3 (d) 75000 m3

99. If a : b = 7 : 5, b : c = 9 : 11, find a : b : c.

(a) 63 : 14 : 55 (b) 63 : 45 : 55
(c) 14 : 14 : 15 (d) 7 : 14 : 15

100. The product of two numbers is 4107. If the H.C.F. of these numbers is 37, then
the greater number is
(a) 107 (b) 101
(c) 111 (d) 185

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Section – C
(General Knowledge)

101. Mahatma Gandhi returned to India from South Africa in the year
(a) 1913 (b) 1914
(c) 1915 (d) 1916

102. Battle of Buxar was fought in the year

(a) 1757 (b) 1760
(c) 1764 (d) 1857

103. The institution Santiniketan was established by

(a) Debendranath Tagore
(b) Satyendranath Tagore
(c) Birendranath Tagore
(d) Rabindranath Tagore

104. A quasi-federal form of government (a federal system with a strong central

government) in Indian Constitution was adopted from
(a) British Constitution
(b) American Constitution
(c) Irish Constitution
(d) Canadian Constitution

105. When the British tried to annex the small state of Kitoor (in Karnataka today),
Anti-British Resistance Movement was launched by the queen
(a) Rani Channamma
(b) Pepper Queen Channabahiradevi
(c) Rani Abbakka
(d) Rani Lakshmibai

106. The President of the Constituent Assembly after Indian independence was
(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(b) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
(c) J. L. Nehru
(d) Sardar Patel
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107. The maximum strength of Council of Ministers in a State as per Constitution

is _______ percent of Legislative Assembly.
(a) 10 (b) 12
(c) 15 (d) 18

108. Which of the following Article of the Indian Constitution provides for prohibition
of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth ?
(a) Article 15 (b) Article 16
(c) Article 17 (d) Article 18

109. The first Graphene innovation centre of the country is set up in

(a) Karnataka (b) Kerala
(c) Tamil Nadu (d) Gujarat

110. Principles of Liberty, Equality and Fraternity in Indian Constitution was

adopted from
(a) French Constitution
(b) American Constitution
(c) Irish Constitution
(d) Canadian Constitution

111. Thalinomics is related to

(a) Cost of a basket of vegetables
(b) Cost of a telephone call
(c) Cost of a marriage ceremony
(d) Cost of a plate of food

112. Olympic Games 2028 is scheduled at

(a) Los Angeles (b) South Africa
(c) Budapest (d) Shanghai

113. India’s 1000th One Day International (ODI) Cricket match was played
against
(a) West Indies (b) Sri Lanka
(c) Britain (d) Pakistan

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114. Recently this athlete who won World Games Athlete of the Year, 2021
(a) Kidambi Srikant (b) P. R. Sreejesh
(c) P. V. Sindhu (d) Chetan M.

115. Who won the ICC Women Cricketer of the year 2021 ?
(a) Meg Lanning (b) Rachael Haynes
(c) Mithali Raj (d) Smriti Mandhana

116. Player who won the 2022 Syed Modi India International Badminton was
(a) P. V. Sindhu
(b) Busanan Ongbamrungphan
(c) Carole Marine
(d) Saina Nehwal

117. __________ are mixtures of two or more metals or a metal and a non-metal and
cannot be separated into their components by physical methods.
(a) Alloys (b) Mixtures
(c) Colloids (d) Suspension

118. Vincov-19 is
(a) First indigenous vaccine against COVID-19
(b) First indigenous drug to treat COVID-19
(c) First indigenous oral vaccine against COVID-19
(d) None of the above

119. PARAM Ganga is the

(a) Submarine
(b) Space ship with solar capabalities
(c) Petascale supercomputer
(d) Anti-collision system in trains

120. Which of the following country is not the member of ASEAN ?

(a) Myanmar (b) India
(c) Indonesia (d) Philippines

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121. Thiomargarita magnifica is

(a) Bacterium that is big enough to be seen through the naked eye
(b) Virus that big enough to be seen through the naked eye
(c) Fly that small enough to be not seen through the naked eye
(d) Newly discovered coral species in India

122. The Chairman of the Drafting Committee of Constitution of India was

(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(b) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
(c) J. L. Nehru
(d) Sardar Patel

123. Rio de Janeiro Earth Summit was held in the year

(a) 1990 (b) 1991
(c) 1992 (d) 1993

124. MOSAiC mission related to

(a) Solar innovation
(b) Satellite mission
(c) Traffic controller system
(d) Climate change

125. World as International Day of the Tropics is observed every year on

(a) June 5 (b) May 5
(c) May 29 (d) June 29

126. World’s longest salt cave has been recently discovered at

(a) Egypt (b) Israel
(c) UAE (d) USA

127. IndARC is India’s first

(a) Satellite controller system
(b) Traffic controller system
(c) Underwater moored observatory
(d) Satellite observatory

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128. The famous ‘dancing girl’ copper artefact of Indus valley civilization found in
(a) Harappa (b) Mohenjodaro
(c) Lothal (d) Kalibangan

129. When money supply exceeds available goods and services, it leads to
(a) Inflation (b) Deflation
(c) Hyper deflation (d) Paraflation

130. A monolithic hill was carved patiently to build the Kailashnath Temple at
Ellora by
(a) Rashtrakuta Dynasty
(b) Chalukya Dynasty
(c) Kadamba Dynasty
(d) Karnata Dynasty

131. Which of the country is not a member of SAARC ?

(a) India (b) China
(c) Nepal (d) Bhutan

132. The Headquarters of International Labour Organisation is located at

(a) Geneva (b) New York (c) South Africa (d) Paris

133. “Clean Air Initiative (CAI)” is promoted by

(a) World Bank
(b) Asian Development Bank
(c) Exim Bank
(d) State Bank of India

134. World Trade Organisation has its Headquarters at

(a) Geneva (b) New York
(c) South Africa (d) Paris

135. eVIN stands for

(a) Electronic Vaccine Intelligence Network
(b) Electronic Voter’s system Intelligence Network
(c) Electronic Vigilance Intelligence Network
(d) None
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136. Pattadakal group of temples belonged to

(a) Rashtrakuta Dynasty
(b) Chalukya Dynasty
(c) Kadamba Dynasty
(d) Karnata Dynasty

137. An example of detritivores that break down detritus into smaller particles
(a) Earthworm (b) Rat
(c) Eagle (d) Cat

138. Producers in the ecosystem are

(a) Lake (b) Green plants
(c) Fishes (d) Birds

139. The gradual and fairly predictable change in the species composition of a given
area is called
(a) Sere
(b) Ecological Climax
(c) Ecological succession
(d) Speciation

140. The species that invade a bare area are called

(a) Pioneer species (b) Intelligent species
(c) Cruel species (d) Victorious species

141. Kavach is
(a) Submarine
(b) Space ship with solar capabalities
(c) Petascale supercomputer
(d) Anti-collision system in trains

142. An example of Ex situ conservation method is

(a) Tissue culture propagation
(b) Sanctuaries
(c) National park
(d) Project tiger

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143. Government of India has passed the Environment (Protection) Act, in the year
(a) 1976 (b) 1986
(c) 1956 (d) 1996

144. _________________ is the natural aging of a lake by nutrient enrichment of its

water.
(a) Emulcification (b) Ertification
(c) Ergotism (d) Eutrophication

145. Inflation target to be set by the Government of India, in consultation with the
Reserve Bank, once every ________________ years.
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 1

146. The second biggest Buddhist Monastery in Asia is at

(a) Dharamshala (b) Lhasa
(c) Tawang (d) Thimpu

147. The train Arunachal AC Express runs between

(a) Yupia to New Delhi Railway Station
(b) Yupia to Delhi Airport
(c) Naharlagun to Tinsukia
(d) Naharlagun to Anand Vihar Terminal, Delhi

148. The Headquarters of Project Arunank of BRO is located at

(a) Pasighat (b) Naharlagun
(c) Bomdila (d) Tawang

149. Aji Lhamu is a dance of which Tribe ?

(a) Apatani (b) Tagin
(c) Monpa (d) Galo

150. Indigenous Faith Day in Arunachal Pradesh is celebrated on which date ?

(a) 1st January (b) 1st April
(c) 1st September (d) 1st December

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