1.2.

6 Check Your Understanding – Network Components

Answers

1. Which of the following is the name for all computers

connected to a network that participate directly in network
communication?
 servers
 intermediary devices
 hosts
 media
Explanation: Hosts are all computers connected to a network that
participate directly in network communication.
2. When data is encoded as pulses of light, which media is
being used to transmit the data?
 wireless
 Fiber-optic cable
 copper cable
Explanation: Fiber-optic cable is the media is being used to transmit the
data when data is encoded as pulses of light.
3. Which two devices are intermediary devices? (Choose
two)
 hosts
 routers
 servers
 switches
Explanation: Routers and switches are intermediary devices.

1.3.3 Check Your Understanding – Network

Representations and Topologies

1. Which connection physically connects the end device to

the network?
 Port
 NIC
 Interface
Explanation: A NIC is a specialized port on a networking device that
connects to individual networks.
2. Which connections are specialized ports on a networking
device that connect to individual networks?
 Port
  NIC
 Interface
Explanation: An interface physically connects the end device to the
network.
3. Which type of network topology lets you see which end
devices are connected to which intermediary devices and
what media is being used?
 Physical topology
 Logical topology
Explanation: The logical topology lets you see which end devices are
connected to which intermediary devices and what media is being used.
4. Which type of network topology lets you see the actual
location of intermediary devices and cable installation?
 Physical topology
 Logical topology
Explanation: The physical topology lets you see the actual location of
intermediary devices and cable installation.

1.4.5 Check Your Understanding – Common Types of

Networks
1. Which network infrastructure provides access to users
and end devices in a small geographical area, which is
typically a network in a department in an enterprise, a
home, or small business?
 Extranet
 Intranet
 LAN
 WAN
Explanation: A LAN provides access to users and end devices in a small
geographical area.
2. Which network infrastructure might an organization use
to provide secure and safe access to individuals who work
for a different organization but require access to the
organization’s data?
 Extranet
 Intranet
 LAN
 WAN
Explanation: An extranet provides secure and safe access to individuals
who work for a different organization but require access to the organization’s
data.
3. Which network infrastructure provides access to other
networks over a large geographical area, which is often
owned and managed by a telecommunications service
provider?
 Extranet
 Intranet
 LAN
 WAN
Explanation: A WAN provides access to other networks over a large
geographical area.

1.6.6 Check Your Understanding – Reliable Networks

1. When designers follow accepted standards and protocols,
which of the four basic characteristics of network
architecture is achieved?
 fault tolerance
 Scalability
 QoS
 Security
Explanation: Scalability happens when designers follow accepted
standards and protocols.
2. Confidentiality, integrity, and availability are
requirements of which of the four basic characteristics of
network architecture?
 fault tolerance
 Scalability
 QoS
 Security
Explanation: Confidentiality, integrity, and availability are requirements of
security.
3. With which type of policy, a router can manage the flow of
data and voice traffic, giving priority to voice
communications if the network experiences congestion?
 fault tolerance
 Scalability
 QoS
 Security
Explanation: QoS means that a router will manage the flow of data and
voice traffic, giving priority to voice communications.
4. Having multiple paths to a destination is known as
redundancy. This is an example of which characteristic of
network architecture?
 fault tolerance
 Scalability
 QoS
 Security
Explanation: Redundancy is an example a fault-tolerant network
architecture.
1.7.10 Check Your Understanding – Network
Trends Answers
1. Which feature is a good conferencing tool to use with
others who are located elsewhere in your city, or even in
another country?
 BYOD
 Video communications
 Cloud computing
Explanation: Video communications is a good conferencing tool to use with
others who are located elsewhere in your city, or even in another country.
2. Which feature describes using personal tools to access
information and communicate across a business or campus
network?
 BYOD
 Video communications
 Cloud computing
Explanation: BYOD feature describes using personal tools to access
information and communicate across a business or campus network.
3. Which feature contains options such as Public, Private,
Custom and Hybrid?
 BYOD
 Video communications
 Cloud computing
Explanation: Cloud computing contains options such as Public, Private,
Custom and Hybrid.
4. Which feature is being used when connecting a device to
the network using an electrical outlet?
 Smart home technology
 Powerline
 Wireless broadband
Explanation: Powerline is being used when connecting a device to the
network using an electrical outlet.
5. Which feature uses the same cellular technology as a
smart phone?
 Smart home technology
 Powerline
 Wireless broadband
Explanation: Wireless broadband uses the same cellular technology as a
smart phone.
1.8.3 Check Your Understanding – Network Security
1. Which attack slows down or crashes equipment and
programs?
 Firewall
 Virus, worm, or Trojan horse
 Zero-day or Zero-hour
 Virtual Private Network (VPN)
 Denial of Service (DoS)
Explanation: A DoS attack slows down or crashes equipment and
programs.
2. Which option creates a secure connection for remote
workers?
 Firewall
 Virus, worm, or Trojan horse
 Zero-day or Zero-hour
 Virtual Private Network (VPN)
 Denial of Service (DoS)
Explanation: A VPN creates a secure connection for remote workers.
3. Which option blocks unauthorized access to your network?
 Firewall
 Virus, worm, or Trojan horse
 Zero-day or Zero-hour
 Virtual Private Network (VPN)
 Denial of Service (DoS)
Explanation: A firewall blocks unauthorized access to your network.
4. Which option describes a network attack that occurs on
the first day that a vulnerability becomes known?
 Firewall
 Virus, worm, or Trojan horse
 Zero-day or Zero-hour
 Virtual Private Network (VPN)
 Denial of Service (DoS)
Explanation: A zero-day or zero-hour attack occurs on the first day that a
vulnerability becomes known.
5. Which option describes malicious code running on user
devices?
 Firewall
 Virus, worm, or Trojan horse
 Zero-day or Zero-hour
 Virtual Private Network (VPN)
 Denial of Service (DoS)
Explanation: A virus, worm, or Trojan horse is malicious code running on
user devices.
2.1.6 Check Your Understanding – Cisco IOS
Access Answers
1. Which access method would be most appropriate if you
were in the equipment room with a new switch that needs to
be configured?
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 Console
 Telnet/SSH
 Aux
Explanation: Because a new switch would not have any initial
configurations, it could only be configured through the console port.
2. Which access method would be most appropriate if your
manager gave you a special cable and told you to use it to
configure the switch?
 Console
 Telnet/SSH
 Aux
Explanation: Connecting a computer to a Cisco device through the console
port requires a special console cable.
3. Which access method would be the most appropriate in-
band access to the IOS over a network connection?
 Console
 Telnet/SSH
 Aux
Explanation: Both Telnet and SSH are in-band access methods that
require an active network connection to the device.
4. Which access method would be the most appropriate if
you call your manager to tell him you cannot access your
router in another city over the internet and he provides you
with the information to access the router through a
telephone connection?
 Console
 Telnet/SSH
 Aux
Explanation: The AUX port on a Cisco device provided out-of-band
connections over a telephone line.

2.2.8 Check Your Understanding – IOS

Navigation Answers
1. Which IOS mode allows access to all commands and
features?
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 global configuration mode
 interface subconfiguration mode
 line console subconfiguration mode
 privileged EXEC mode
 user EXEC mode
Explanation: The privileged EXEC mode allows access to all commands.
Higher level commands like global configuration mode and subconfiguration
modes can only be reached from the privileged EXEC mode.
2. Which IOS mode are you in if the Switch(config)# prompt
is displayed?
 global configuration mode
 interface subconfiguration mode
 line console subconfiguration mode
 privileged EXEC mode
 user EXEC mode
Explanation: Global configuration mode is identified by the (config)#
prompt.
3. Which IOS mode are you in if the Switch> prompt is
displayed?
 global configuration mode
 interface subconfiguration mode
 line console subconfiguration mode
 privileged EXEC mode
 user EXEC mode
Explanation: The > prompt after the device name identifies user EXEC
mode.
4. Which two commands would return you to the privileged
EXEC prompt regardless of the configuration mode you are
in? (Choose two.)
 CTRL+Z
 disable
 enable
 end
 exit
Explanation: To return from any prompt, all the way down to privileged
EXEC mode, type the end command or by pressing the CTRL+Z keys
simultaneously on the keyboard.
2.4.8 Check Your Understanding – Basic Device
Configuration Answers
1. What is the command to assign the name “Sw-Floor-2” to
a switch?
 hostname Sw-Floor-2
 host name Sw-Floor-2
 name Sw-Floor-2
Explanation: The global configuration command to set the host name on a
Cisco device is hostname. So, in this example the full command is
Switch(config)# hostname Sw-Floor-2.
2. How is the privileged EXEC mode access secured on a
switch?
 enable class
 secret class
 enable secret class
 service password-encryption
Explanation: Securing access to the EXEC mode on a Cisco switch is
accomplished with the enable secret command followed by the password. In
this example the command is Switch(config)# enable secret class.
3. Which command enables password authentication for user
EXEC mode access on a switch?
 enable secret
 login
 secret
 service password-encryption
Explanation: User EXEC mode access through the console port is enabled
with the login command entered in line mode. For example: Switch(config-
line)# login.
4. Which command encrypts all plaintext passwords access
on a switch?
 enable secret
 login
 secret
 service password-encryption
Explanation: The service password-encryption command entered in global
configuration mode will encrypt all plaintext passwords.
5. Which is the command to configure a banner to be
displayed when connecting to a switch?
 banner $ Keep out $
 banner motd $ Keep out $
 display $ Keep out $
  login banner $ Keep out $
Explanation: The command to set a banner stating “Keep out” that will be
displayed when connection to a Cisco switch is Switch(config)# banner motd $
Keep out $

2.6.3 Check Your Understanding – Ports and

Addresses Answers
1. What is the structure of an IPv4 address called?
 dotted-binary format
 dotted-decimal format
 dotted-hexadecimal format
Explanation: IPv4 addresses are written in dotted-decimal format. For
example: 192.168.1.1.
2. How is an IPv4 address represented?
 four binary numbers between 0 and 1 separated by colons.
 four decimal numbers between 0 and 255 separated
by periods.
 thirty-two hexadecimal numbers separated by colons.
 thirty-two hexadecimal numbers separated by periods.
Explanation: IPv4 addresses are written as four groups of decimal
numbers separated by periods. For example: 192.168.1.1.
3. What type of interface has no physical port associated
with it?
 console
 Ethernet
 serial
 switch virtual interface (SVI)
Explanation: Switch virtual interfaces (SVIs) are virtual and have no
physical port. Layer 2 switches use SVIs for remote management.

3.1.12 Check Your Understanding – The Rules

Answers
1. What is the process of converting information into the
proper form for transmission?
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 Formatting
 Encoding
 Encapsulation
Explanation: One of the first steps to sending a message is encoding.
During the encoding process, information is converted from its original form
into an acceptable form for transmission.
2. Which step of the communication process is concerned
with properly identifying the address of the sender and
receiver?
 Formatting
 Encoding
 Encapsulation
Explanation: Messages sent over a computer network must be in the
correct format for them to be delivered and processed. Part of the formatting
process is properly identifying the source of the message and its destination.
3. Which three are components of message timing? (Choose
three.)
 Flow control
 Sequence numbers
 Access method
 Retransmit time
 Response timeout
Explanation: Flow control is the managing of the rate of transmission.
Response timeout is how long to wait for responses. Access methods
determine when someone can send a message. These are the three
components of message timing.
4. Which delivery method is used to transmit information to
one or more end devices, but not all devices on the network?
 Unicast
 Multicast
 Broadcast
Explanation: Multicast messages are addressed for transmission to one or
more end devices on a network. Broadcast messages are addressed for
transmission to all devices on the network. Unicast messages are addressed
for transmission to one device on the network.

3.2.4 Check Your Understanding – Protocols

Answers
1. BGP and OSPF are examples of which type of protocol?
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network communication
network security
routing
 service discovery
Explanation: BGP and OSPF are routing protocols. They enable routers to
exchange route information to reach remote networks.
2. Which two protocols are service discovery protocols?
(Choose two.)
 DNS
  TCP
 SSH
 DHCP
Explanation: Service discovery protocols, such as DNS and DHCP enable
automatic detection of service. DHCP is used to discover services for
automatic IP address allocation and DNS for name-to-IP address resolution
services.
3. What is the purpose of the sequencing function in
network communication?
 to uniquely label transmitted segments of data for
proper reassembly by the receiver
 to determine if data is corrupted during transmission
 to ensure data flows at an efficient rate between sender and
receiver
 to guarantee delivery of data
Explanation: Sequencing uniquely identifies or labels each transmitted
segment with a sequence number that is used by the receiver to reassemble
the segments in the proper order.
4. This protocol is responsible for guaranteeing the reliable
delivery of information.
 TCP
 IP
 HTTP
 Ethernet
Explanation: Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) manages the
conversation between end devices and guarantees the reliable delivery of
information.
3.3.6 Check Your Understanding – Protocol
Suites Answers
1. UDP and TCP belong to which layer of the TCP/IP protocol?
 application
 transport
 internet
 network access
Explanation: TCP and UDP are both transport layer protocols.
2. Which two protocols belong in the TCP/IP model
application layer?
 EIGRP
 DNS
 OSPF
 ICMP
 DHCP
Explanation: DHCP and DNS are both application layer protocols.
3. Which protocol operates at the network access layer of
the TCP/IP model?
 HTTP
 IP
 DNS
 Ethernet
Explanation: Ethernet is a network access layer protocol.
4. Which of the following are protocols that provide
feedback from the destination host to the source host
regarding errors in packet delivery? (Choose two.)
 IPv4
 TCP
 ICMPv4
 IPv6
 UDP
 ICMPv6
Explanation: ICMPv4 and ICMPv6 provide feedback when errors occur.
5. A device receives a data link frame with data and
processes and removes the Ethernet information. What
information would be the next to be processed by the
receiving device?
 HTTP at the application layer
 HTML at the application layer
 IP at the internet layer
 UDP at the internet layer
 TCP at the transport layer
Explanation: Data is de-encapsulated so the next layer to receive the data
would be the internet layer.
6. Which services are provided by the internet layer of the
TCP/IP protocol suite? (Choose three.)
 File Transfer
 Address Resolution
 Routing Protocols
 Messaging
 Ethernet
 Internet Protocol
Explanation: IP (Internet Protocol), ICMP (Messaging), and Routing
Protocols are services provided at the Internet Layer.

3.4.5 Check Your Understanding – Standards

Organizations Answers
1. True or false. Standards organizations are usually vendor-
neutral.
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 True
 False
Explanation: The correct answer is True. Most standards organizations are
vendor-neutral, non-profit organizations that develop and promote open
standards.
2. This standards organization is concerned with the Request
for Comments (RFC) documents that specify new protocols
and update existing ones.
 Internet Society (ISOC)
 Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF)
 Internet Architecture Board (IAB)
 Internet Research Task Force (IRTF)
Explanation: The IETF develops and maintains the specifications for new
protocols and updates to existing protocols through published documents
called Request for Comments (RFCs).
3. This standards organization is responsible for IP address
allocation and domain name management.
 Internet Society (ISOC)
 Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF)
 Internet Architecture Board (IAB)
 Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA)
Explanation: IANA is responsible for overseeing and managing IP address
allocation, domain name management, and protocol identifiers for ICANN.
4. What types of standards are developed by the Electronics
Industries Alliance (EIA)?
 electric wiring and connectors
 radio equipment and cell towers
 video compression and broadband communications
 Voice over IP (VoIP) and satellite communications
Explanation: The Electronics Industries Alliance (EIA) develops standards
related to electrical wiring, connectors, and network equipment racks.

3.6.6 Check Your Understanding – Data

Encapsulation Answers
1. What is the process of dividing a large data stream into
smaller pieces prior to transmission?
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 sequencing
 duplexing
 multiplexing
  segmentation
Explanation: Segmentation is the process of dividing a large data stream
into smaller pieces which are then transmitted to the receiver.
2. What is the PDU associated with the transport layer?
 segment
 packet
 bits
 frame
Explanation: The transport layer PDU is known as a segment.
3. Which protocol stack layer encapsulates data into frames?
 data link
 transport
 network
 application
Explanation: The data link layer encapsulates data into a frame.
4. What is the name of the process of adding protocol
information to data as it moves down the protocol stack?
 de-encapsulation
 sequencing
 segmentation
 encapsulation
Explanation: As data moves down the protocol stack, protocol data is added
to the original data. This process is known as encapsulation.

3.7.11 Check Your Understanding – Data Access

Answers

1. True or false? Frames exchanged between devices in

different IP networks must be forwarded to a default
gateway.
 True
 False
Explanation: The correct answer is True. When two devices are on
different IP networks, frames cannot be sent directly to the receiver since it is
on a different logical network. The frames must first be forwarded to a default
gateway (router).
2. True or false? The right-most part of an IP address is used
to identify the network that a device belongs to.
 True
 False
Explanation: The correct answer is False. It is the left-most portion of an IP
address that identifies the network. The right-most portion is used to identify
the specific device or interface.
3. What is used to determine the network portion of an IPv4
address?
 subnet mask
 MAC address
 right-most part of the IP address
 left-most part of the MAC address
Explanation: It is the subnet mask used in IPv4 that is used to determine
the network portion of an IPv4 address.
4. Which of the following statements are true regarding
network layer and data link layer addresses? (Choose three.)
 Data link layer addresses are logical and network layer addresses
are physical.
 Network layer addresses are expressed as 12 hexadecimal digits
and data link layer addresses are decimal.
 Network layer addresses are logical and data link
addresses are expressed as 12 hexadecimal digits.
 Data link layer addresses are physical and network
layer addresses are logical.
 Network layer addresses are either 32 or 128 bits in
length.
 Data link layer addresses are 32 bits in length.
Explanation: MAC addresses are physical addresses and 48 bits or 12 hex
digits in length. IPv4 addresses and IPv6 addresses are logical. IPv4
addresses are 32 bits and IPv6 addresses are 128 bits.
5. What is the order of the two addresses in the data link
frame?
 source MAC, destination MAC
 destination MAC, source IP
 destination IP, source IP
 destination MAC, source MAC
 source IP, destination IP
Explanation: The data link frame addressing consists of a destination and
source MAC address in that order.
6. True or False? Data Link addresses are physical so they
never change in the data link frame from source to
destination.
 True
 False
Explanation: The correct answer is False. Data link addresses change
within the data link frame when the receiving device is not on the same
network.
4.1.3 Check Your Understanding – Purpose of
the Physical Layer Answers
1. True or false? The physical layer is only concerned with
wired network connections.
 true
 false
Explanation: The correct answer is False. The physical layer provides the
means to transport bits over the network whether the network is wired or
wireless.
2. True or false? When a frame is encoded by the physical
layer, all bits are sent over the media at the same time.
 true
 false
Explanation: The correct answer is False. When encoded, the bits making
up a frame are transmitted over the media one at a time.
3. The physical layer of the receiving device passes bits up
to which higher level layer?
 application
 presentation
 network
 data link
Explanation: The physical layer receives frames from the data-link layer
and converts it to bits for transmission. On the sending device the physical
layer passes the transmitted bits up to the data link layer as a complete frame.
4. What PDU is received by the physical layer for encoding
and transmission?
 frame
 segment
 packet
Explanation: The physical layer receives frames from the data link layer for
encoding and transmission.

4.2.7 Check Your Understanding – Physical

Layer Characteristics Answers
1. Which media uses patterns of microwaves to represent
bits?
 copper
 wireless
 fiber-optic
Explanation: In wireless networks data is represented by patterns of
microwave transmissions.
2. Which media uses patterns of light to represent bits?
 copper
 wireless
 fiber-optic
Explanation: Fiber-optic cables use patterns of light to represent bits.
3. Which media uses electrical pulses to represent bits?
 copper
 wireless
 fiber-optic
Explanation: Electrical pulses are used to represent bits on networks using
copper cable media.
4. Which of these is the name for the capacity of a medium
to carry data?
 bandwidth
 throughput
 goodput
Explanation: Bandwidth is the capacity of a network medium to carry data.
5. Which of these is a measure of the transfer of bits across
the media?
 bandwidth
 throughput
 goodput
Explanation: The transfer of bits across the network media over a period of
time is known as throughput.

4.3.6 Check Your Understanding – Copper

Cabling Answers
1. Which of the following attaches antennas to wireless
devices? It can also be bundled with fiber-optic cabling for
two-way data transmission.
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 UTP
 STP
 coaxial
Explanation: Coaxial cable, which is used for cable TV and internet
service, is also used to attach antennas to wireless devices.
2. Which of the following counters EMI and RFI by using
shielding techniques and special connectors?
 UTP
  STP
 coaxial
Explanation: Shielded twisted pair cable (STP) incorporates shielding and
special connectors to prevent signal interference from other wires, EMI, and
RFI.
3. Which of the following is the most common network
media?
 UTP
 STP
 coaxial
Explanation: Unshielded twisted pair cable (UTP) is the most common type
of wired network media.
4. Which of the following terminates with BNC, N type and F
type connectors?
 UTP
 STP
 coaxial
Explanation: Coaxial cable, which is used for cable TV and internet service
and to attach antennas to wireless devices, uses several types of connectors
to include BNC, N type, and F type connectors.

4.5.7 Check Your Understanding – Fiber-Optic

Cabling Answers
1. Which of the following fiber-optic cable types can help
data travel approximately 500 meters?
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 multimode
 single-mode
Explanation: Multimode fiber has a shorter distance limitation than single-
mode fiber. Commonly used on LANs with a distance of a few hundred meters
but can be up to 2 km.
2. Which of the following fiber-optic cable types use light
emitting diodes (LEDs) as a data light source transmitter?
 multimode
 single-mode
Explanation: Multimode fiber used LEDs as the light source.
3. Which of the following fiber-optic cable types use lasers in
a single stream as a data light source transmitter?
 multimode
 single-mode
Explanation: Single-mode fiber uses laser technology as the light source.
4. Which of the following fiber-optic cable types is used to
connect long-distance telephony and cable TV applications?
 multimode
 single-mode
Explanation: Single-mode fiber is commonly used for long haul TV and
telephony applications.
5. Which of the following fiber-optic cable types can travel
approximately 100 km?
 multimode
 single-mode
Explanation: Single-mode fiber is used for long haul applications up to 100
km.
6. Which of the following fiber-optic cable types is used
within a campus network?
 multimode
 single-mode
Explanation: Multimode fiber has a shorter distance limitation than single
mode fiber. Commonly used on LANs within a campus network.

4.6.4 Check Your Understanding – Wireless

Media Answers
1. True or false. Wireless is not well suited for enterprise
networks.
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 true
 false
Explanation: The correct answer is False. Wireless provides the greatest
mobility of all media and is gaining popularity in enterprise networks.
2. True or false. Wireless LANs operate in full-duplex
allowing all devices to send or receive data at the same time
so the number of users does not impact performance.
 true
 false
Explanation: The correct answer is False. WLANs operate in half-duplex,
which means only one device can send or receive at a time. This can impact
network performance if there are many users accessing the WLAN at the
same time.
3. Which of the following wireless standards is best suited
for industrial and IoT environments?
 Zigbee
 WiMAX
 Wi-Fi
  Bluetooth
Explanation: Zigbee is intended for applications that require short-range,
low data-rates, and long battery life, making it well suited for industrial and IoT
applications.
4. Which of the following wireless standards is used for
Personal Area Networks (PANs) and allows devices to
communicate over distances of 1 to 100 meters?
 Zigbee
 WiMAX
 Wi-Fi
 Bluetooth
Explanation: This wireless standard is used for Personal Area Networks
(PANs) and allows devices to communicate over distances of 1 to 100 meters.

5.1.4 Check Your Understanding – Binary

Number System Answers
1. Which is the binary equivalent to the 192.168.11.10 IP
address?
 11000000.11000000.00001011.00001010
 11000000.10101000.00001011.00001010
 11000000.10101000.00001010.00001011
 11000000.10101000.00001011.00010010
Explanation: 192.168.11.10 is equivalent to
11000000.10101000.00001011.00001010
2. Which of the following is the binary equivalent to the
172.16.31.30 IP address?
 11000000.00010000.00011111.00011110
 10101000.00010000.00011111.00011110
 10101100.00010000.00011110.00011110
 10101100.00010000.00011111.00011110
Explanation: 172.16.31.30 is equivalent to
10101100.00010000.00011111.000111110

5.2.5 Check Your Understanding – Hexadecimal

Number System Answers
1. Which is the hexadecimal equivalent of 202?
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 B10
 BA
 C10
 CA
Explanation: The hexadecimal equivalent of 202 is CA.
2. Which is the hexadecimal equivalent of 254?
 EA
 ED
 FA
 FE
Explanation: The hexadecimal equivalent of 254 is FE.
3. Which is the decimal equivalent of A9?
 168
 169
 170
 171
Explanation: The decimal equivalent of A9 is 169.
4. Which of the following is the decimal equivalent of 7D?
 124
 125
 126
 127
Explanation: The decimal equivalent of 7D is 125.

6.1.5 Check Your Understanding – Purpose of

the Data Link Layer Answers
1. What is another name for the OSI data link layer?
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 Layer 1
 Layer 2
Layer 3

Layer 6

Explanation: The data link layer is Layer 2 of the OSI model.
2. The IEEE 802 LAN/MAN data link layer consists of which
two sublayers? (Choose two.)
 Network Control Protocol
 Logical Link Control
 Media Access Control
 Link Control Protocol
Explanation: The data link layer consists of two sublayers. These are
Logical Link Control (LLC) and Media Access Control (MAC)
3. What is the responsibility of the MAC sublayer?
 Adds Layer 3 addresses to the frame
 Communicates with the network layer (Layer 3)
 Provides the method to get the frame on and off the
media
 Transmits the bits on the media
Explanation: The MAC sublayer of the data link layer is responsible for
getting frames on and off the media.
4. What Layer 2 function does a router perform? (Choose
three.)
 Accepts a frame from a medium
 De-encapsulates the frame
 Refers to its Layer 3 routing table for a matching destination
network
 Re-encapsulates the packet into a new frame
Explanation: Routers perform four functions at Layer 2. They accept a
frame from the media, de-encapsulate the packet from a frame, re-
encapsulate the packet into a new frame, and forwards the new frame
appropriate to the medium of that segment of the physical network.
5. The media access control method used depends on which
two criteria?
 Layer 3 IP protocol
 Media sharing
 Topology
 Transport layer protocol
 Type of data
Explanation: The two criteria for determining the media access control
method used are the type of media sharing involved and the topology.
6. Which organization defines standards for the network
access layer (i.e., the OSI physical and data link layers)?
 Cisco
 IANA
 IEEE
 IETF
Explanation: The IEEE defines standards for the TCP/IP network access
layer, which are the OSI physical and data link layers.

6.2.9 Check Your Understanding – Topologies

Answers
1. Which topology displays networking device layer IP
addresses?
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 aerial topology
 IP address topology
 logical topology
 physical topology
Explanation: The logical topology shows the IP addresses assigned to
device interfaces.
2. What kind of network would use point-to-point, hub and
spoke, or mesh topologies?
 PAN
 LAN
 WLAN
 WAN
Explanation: Wide Area Networks (WANs) come in many topologies, to
include point-to-point, hub-and-spoke, and mesh.
3. Which LAN topology is a hybrid topology?
 bus
 extended star
 ring
 star
Explanation: The extended star topology is considered a hybrid topology
because it combines multiple star topologies.
4. Which duplex communication method is used in WLANs?
 full-duplex
 half-duplex
 simplex
Explanation: Wireless LANs (WLANs) only support half-duplex because
only one device can access the media at a time.
5. Which media access control method is used in legacy
Ethernet LANs?
 carrier sense multiple access/collision annoyance
 carrier sense multiple access/collision avoidance
 carrier sense multiple access/collision destruction
 carrier sense multiple access/collision detection
Explanation: Carrier sense multiple access /collision detection (CSMA/CD)
is the media access control method used in legacy Ethernet LANs.

6.3.5 Check Your Understanding – Data Link

Frame Answers
1. What does the data link layer add to a Layer 3 packet to
create a frame? (Choose two.)
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 flags
 sequence number
 header
 trailer
Explanation: The data link layer adds a header which contains the source
and destination Layer 2 address and a trailer that contains a frame check
sequence (FCS).
2. What is the function of the last field in a data link layer
frame?
 To determine whether the frame experienced
transmission errors
 To identify special flow control services such as quality of service
(QoS)
 To identify the beginning and end limits of the frame
 To identify the Layer 3 protocol in the data field
Explanation: The last field in the data link frame is the frame check
sequence (FCS) which is used to determine if the frame has experienced
transmission errors.
3. Which lists the Layer 2 and Layer 3 address fields in the
correct order?
 destination NIC address, source NIC address, source
IP address, destination IP address
 source NIC address, destination NIC address, source IP address,
destination IP address
 destination NIC address, source NIC address, destination IP
address, source IP address
 source NIC address, destination NIC address, destination IP
address, source IP address
Explanation: The correct order of Layer 2 and Layer 3 address fields is:
destination NIC address, source NIC address, source IP address, destination
IP address
4. Which of the following are data link layer protocols?
(Choose three)
 802.11
 Ethernet
 IP
 PPP
 UDP
Explanation: 802.11, Ethernet, and PPP are Layer 2 protocols. IP is Layer
3 and UDP is Layer 4.

7.1.5 Check Your Understanding – Ethernet

Switching Answers
1. Which part of an Ethernet Frame uses a pad to increase
the frame field to at least 64 bytes?
 EtherType
 Preamble
 Start of Frame Delimiter
 Data field
Explanation: All frames must be at least 64 bytes long. Additional bits
called a “pad” are used to increase the size of small frames to the minimum
size.
2. Which part of an Ethernet frame detects errors in the
frame?
 Preamble
 Start of Frame Delimiter
 Frame Check Sequence
Explanation: The FCS field uses a CRC to detect errors in a frame.
3. Which part of an Ethernet Frame describes the higher-
layer protocol that is encapsulated?
 EtherType
 Preamble
 Start of Frame Delimiter
 Frame Check Sequence
Explanation: The EtherType field identifies the upper layer protocol that is
encapsulated in the Ethernet Frame.
4. Which part of an Ethernet Frame notifies the receiver to
get ready for a new frame?
 Start of Frame Delimiter
 Frame Check Sequence
 Preamble
 Data field
Explanation: The first few bytes of the preamble inform the receiver of a
new frame.
5. Which data link sublayer controls the network interface
through software drivers?
 MAC
 LLC
Explanation: The LLC sublayer is responsible for controlling the network
interface card through software drivers
6. Which data link sublayer works with the upper layers to
add application information for delivery of data to higher
level protocols?
 MAC
 LLC
Explanation: The LLC works with upper layers to support higher level
protocols.
7. What is a function of the MAC sublayer? (Choose three.)
 controls access to the media
 checks for errors in received bits
  uses CSMA/CD or CSMA/CA to support Ethernet
technology
 communicates between software at the upper layers and the device
hardware at the lower layers
 allows multiple Layer 3 protocols to use the same network interface
and media
Explanation: The MAC sublayer checks for bit errors, supports Ethernet
technologies, and controls access to the media.

7.4.6 Check Your Understanding – Switch

Speeds and Forwarding Methods Answers
1. What are two methods for switching data between ports
on a switch? (Choose two.)
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 cut-off switching
 cut-through switching
 store-and-forward switching
 store-and-supply switching
 store-and-restore switching
Explanation: The two methods for switching data between ports on a
switch are cut-through switching and store-and-forward switching.
2. Which switching method can be implemented using fast-
forward switching or fragment-free switching?
 cut-off switching
 cut-through switching
 store-and-forward switching
 store-and-restore switching
Explanation: Cut-through switching is implemented using either fast-
forward switching or fragment-free switching.
3. Which two types of memory buffering techniques are used
by switches? (Choose two.)
 long-term memory buffering
 port-based memory buffering
 shared memory buffering
 short-term memory buffering
Explanation: Switches use two memory buffering techniques: Port-based
memory buffering and shared memory buffering.
4. What feature automatically negotiates the best speed and
duplex setting between interconnecting devices?
 auto-MDIX
 autobots
 autonegotiation
  autotune
Explanation: Autonegotiation is a technology that automatically negotiates
the speed and duplex between two connected devices.

8.1.7 Check Your Understanding – IP

Characteristics Answers
1. Which OSI layer sends segments to be encapsulated in an
IPv4 or IPv6 packet?
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 data link layer
 network layer
 transport layer
 session layer
Explanation: Transport layer PDUs, called segments, are encapsulated at
the network layer by IPv4 and IPv6 into packets.
2. Which layer is responsible for taking an IP packet and
preparing it for transmission over the communications
medium?
 physical layer
 network layer
 data link layer
 transport layer
Explanation: The data link layer receives IP packets from the network layer
and encapsulates them for transmission over the medium.
3. What is the term for splitting up an IP packet when
forwarding it from one medium to another medium with a
smaller MTU?
 encapsulation
 fragmentation
 segmentation
 serialization
Explanation: Fragmentation is the process of splitting up IP packets to
travel over a medium with a smaller MTU.
4. Which delivery method does not guarantee that the
packet will be delivered fully without errors?
 connectionless
 best effort
 media independent
Explanation: Best effort delivery does not guarantee packets will be
delivered to the destination.
8.2.4 Check Your Understanding – IPv4 Packet
Answers
1. What are the two most commonly referenced fields in an
IPv4 packet header that indicate where the packet is coming
from and where it is going? (Choose two.)
 destination IP address
 protocol
 Time to Live
 source IP address
 Differentiated Services (DS)
Explanation: The IP header fields that identify where the packet originated
and where it is going are Source IP Address and Destination IP Address.
2. Which statement is correct about IPv4 packet header
fields?
 The source and destination IPv4 addresses remain
the same while travelling from source to
destination.
 The Time to Live field is used to determine the priority of each
packet.
 The Total Length and Header Checksum fields are used to reorder
a fragmented packet.
 The Version field identifies the next level protocol.
Explanation: The source and destination IP addresses in the IP packet do
not change in route from source to destination.
3. Which field is used to detect corruption in the IPv4
header?
 Header Checksum
 Time to Live
 Protocol
 Differentiated Services (DS)
Explanation: The Header Checksum field in an IPv4 header is used to
detect corrupt packets.
4. Which field includes common values such as ICMP (1), TCP
(6), and UDP (17)?
 Header Checksum
 Time to Live
 Protocol
 Differentiated Services (DS)
Explanation: The protocol field identifies the upper layer protocol that is
carried inside the IP packet. Common protocols are TCP, UDP, and ICMP.
8.3.6 Check Your Understanding – IPv6 Packet
Answers
1. Which three options are major issues associated with
IPv4? (Choose three.)
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 IP address depletion
 increased network complexity and Internet routing
table expansion
 always on connections
 lack of end-to-end connectivity
 global and political boundaries
 too many IPv4 addresses available
Explanation: IPv4 was standardized in the 1980s and has several
technological limitations, such as lack of end-to-end connectivity and a
depleted address space.
2. Which two options are improvements provided by IPv6 as
compared to IPv4? (Choose two.)
 header supports additional fields for complex packets
 increased the IP address space
 standardizes the use of NAT
 supports class-based networks
 uses a simpler header to provide improved packet
handling
Explanation: There are several technical improvements made to IPv6, two
of which are a vastly larger IP address pool and a simplified protocol header.
3. Which is true of the IPv6 header?
 it consists of 20 octets.
 it consists of 40 octets.
 it contains 8 header fields.
 it contains 12 header fields.
Explanation: The IPv6 header is a fixed length of 40 octets and contains 8
header fields.
4. Which is true of the IPv6 packet header?
 The Hop Limit field replaces the IPv4 Time to Live
field.
 The Source and Destination IPv6 addresses change while travelling
from source to destination.
 The Time to Live field replaces the DiffServ field.
 The Version field identifies the next header.
Explanation: Several fields in the IPv6 header replaced fields in the IPv4
header. For example, the Hop Limit field replaced the IPv4 header Time to
Live field.
8.4.5 Check Your Understanding – How a Host
Routes Answers
1. Which statement about host forwarding decisions is true?
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 A host cannot ping itself.
 A remote destination host is on the same local network as the
sending host.
 Local hosts can reach each other without the need of
a router.
 Routing is enabled on switches to discover the best path to a
destination.
Explanation: A router is not needed to forward packets between local hosts
on the network.
2. Which default gateway statement is true?
 A default gateway is required to send packets to other hosts on the
local network.
 The default gateway address is the IP address of a switch on a
remote network.
 The default gateway address is the IP address of the
router on the local network.
 Traffic can only be forwarded outside the local network if there is no
default gateway.
Explanation: The default gateway is the IP address of a router on the local
network.
3. Which two commands could be entered on a Windows host
to view its IPv4 and IPv6 routing table? (Choose two.)
 netroute -l
 netstat -r
 print route
 route print
 print net
Explanation: The commands netstat -r and route print will display the routing
table of a Windows host.

8.5.7 Check Your Understanding – Introduction

to Routing Answers
1. What is the command used on a Cisco IOS router to view
the routing table?
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 netstart -r
 route print
  show ip route
 show routing table
Explanation: The show ip route command is used to view the routing table
on a Cisco router.
2. What does a code of “O” indicate next to a route in the
routing table?
 a directly connected route
 a route with an administrative distance of 0
 a gateway of last resort
 a route learned dynamically from OSPF
Explanation: Codes at the beginning of each routing table entry are used
to identify the type of route or how the route was learned. A code of “O”
indicates the route was learned from OSPF.
3. This type of route is also known as a gateway of last
resort.
 static route
 remote route
 default route
 directly connected route
Explanation: A default route is also known as a gateway of last resort.
4. Which is a characteristic of static routes?
 They are manually configured.
 They are advertised to directly connected neighbors.
 They are appropriate when there are many redundant links.
 They automatically adjust to a change in network topology.
Explanation: Static routes are manually configured and do not adjust to
changes in the network topology and are not advertised to neighboring
routers.
5. True or False? A router can be configured with a
combination of both static routes and a dynamic routing
protocol.
 True
 False
Explanation: The correct answer is True. Routers can be configured with
static routes and with a dynamic routing protocol.

9.1.4 Check Your Understanding – MAC and IP

Answers

1. What destination MAC address would be included in a

frame sent from a source device to a destination device on
the same local network?
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 A broadcast MAC address of FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF.
 The MAC address of the destination device.
 The MAC address of the local router interface.
Explanation: When sending a frame to another device on the same local
network, the device sending the frame will use the MAC address of the
destination device.
2. What destination MAC address would be included in a
frame sent from a source device to a destination device on a
remote local network?
 A broadcast MAC address of FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF.
 The MAC address of the destination device.
 The MAC address of the local router interface.
Explanation: When sending a frame to another device on a remote
network, the device sending the frame will use the MAC address of the local
router interface, which is the default gateway.
3. What two protocols are used to determine the MAC
address of a known destination device IP address (IPv4 and
IPv6)?
 DHCP
 ARP
 DNS
 ND
Explanation: Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) is used to determine the
device MAC address of a known destination device IPv4 address. Neighbor
Discovery (ND) is used to determine the MAC address of a known destination
device IPv6 address.

9.2.10 Check Your Understanding – ARP

Answers
1. What two functions are provided by ARP? (Choose two.)
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 Maintains a table of IPv4 address to domain names
 Maintains a table of IPv4 to MAC address mappings
 Maintains a table of IPv6 to MAC address mappings
 Resolves IPv4 addresses to domain names
 Resolves IPv4 addresses to MAC addresses
 Resolves IPv6 addresses to MAC addresses
Explanation: ARP has two primary functions: maintain a table of IPv4 to
MAC address mappings and determine the MAC addresses of known IPv4
addresses.
2. Where is the ARP table stored on a device?
 ROM
 flash
NVRAM
RAM
Explanation: The ARP table is cached temporarily in RAM.
3. Which statement is true about ARP?
 An ARP cache cannot be manually deleted.
 ARP entries are cached permanently.
 ARP entries are cached temporarily.
Explanation: The ARP table is cached temporarily in RAM.
4. Which command could be used on a Cisco router to view
its ARP table?
 arp -a
 arp -d
 show arp table
 show ip arp
Explanation: The command show ip arp is used on Cisco routers to view
the ARP table.
5. What is an attack using ARP?
 ARP broadcasts
 ARP hopping attacks
 ARP poisoning
 ARP starvation
Explanation: Two security issues with ARP Requests are that ARP
messages are sent as broadcasts and can be spoofed.

9.3.5 Check Your Understanding – Neighbor

Discovery Answers
1. Which two ICMPv6 messages are used in SLAAC?
 Neighbor Advertisement
 Neighbor Solicitation
 Router Advertisement
 Router Solicitation
Explanation: The two ICMPv6 messages used in SLAAC are the router
solicitation and the router advertisement.
2. Which two ICMPv6 messages are used in to determine the
MAC address of a known IPv6 address?
 Neighbor Advertisement
 Neighbor Solicitation
 Router Advertisement
 Router Solicitation
Explanation: The two ICMPv6 messages used in determining the MAC
address of a known IPv6 address are the neighbor solicitation and the
neighbor advertisement.
3. To what type of address are ICMPv6 neighbor solicitation
messages sent?
 unicast
 multicast
 broadcast
Explanation: ICMPv6 neighbor solicitation messages are sent as a
multicast.

11.1.8 Check Your Understanding – IPv4

Address Structure Answers
1. Host-A has the IPv4 address and subnet mask 10.5.4.100
255.255.255.0. What is the network address of Host-A?
 10.0.0.0
 10.5.0.0
 10.5.4.0
 10.5.4.100
Explanation: The network address for 10.5.4.100 with a subnet mask of
255.255.255.0 is 10.5.4.0.
2. Host-A has the IPv4 address and subnet mask
172.16.4.100 255.255.0.0. What is the network address of
Host-A?
 172.0.0.0
 172.16.0.0
 172.16.4.0
 172.16.4.100
Explanation: The network address for 172.16.4.100 with a subnet mask of
255.255.0.0 is 172.16.0.0.
3. Host-A has the IPv4 address and subnet mask 10.5.4.100
255.255.255.0. Which of the following IPv4 addresses would
be on the same network as Host-A? (Choose all that apply)
 10.5.4.1
 10.5.0.1
 10.5.4.99
 10.0.0.98
 10.5.100.4
Explanation: Host A is on network 10.5.4.0. Therefore, devices with the
IPv4 addresses 10.5.4.1 and 10.5.4.99 are on the same network.
4. Host-A has the IPv4 address and subnet mask
172.16.4.100 255.255.0.0. Which of the following IPv4
addresses would be on the same network as Host-A?
(Choose all that apply)
 172.16.4.99
 172.16.0.1
 172.17.4.99
 172.17.4.1
 172.18.4.1
Explanation: Host A is on network 172.16.0.0. Therefore, devices with the
IPv4 addresses 172.16.4.99 and 172.16.0.1 are on the same network.
5. Host-A has the IPv4 address and subnet mask
192.168.1.50 255.255.255.0. Which of the following IPv4
addresses would be on the same network as Host-A?
(Choose all that apply)
 192.168.0.1
 192.168.0.100
 192.168.1.1
 192.168.1.100
 192.168.2.1
Explanation: Host A is on network 192.168.1.0. Therefore, devices with the
IPv4 addresses 192.168.1.1 and 192.168.1.100 are on the same network.

11.3.8 Check Your Understanding – Types of

IPv4 Addresses Answers
1. Which two statements are correct about private IPv4
addresses? (Choose two.)
 Private IPv4 addresses are assigned to devices
within an organization’s intranet (internal network).
 Internet routers will typically forward any packet with a destination
address that is a private IPv4 address.
 172.99.1.1 is a private IPv4 address.
 Any organization (home, school, office, company)
can use the 10.0.0.0/8 address.
Explanation: Private IPv4 addresses are assigned to devices within an
organization’s intranet (internal network) and any organization (home, school,
office, company) can use the 10.0.0.0/8 address.
2. Which two statements are correct about public IPv4
addresses? (Choose two.)
 Public IPv4 addresses are allowed to be assigned to devices within
an organization’s intranet (internal network).
 To access a device over the internet, the destination
IPv4 address must be a public address.
 192.168.1.10 is a public IPv4 address.
  Public IPv4 address exhaustion is a reason why
there are private IPv4 addresses and why
organizations are transitioning to IPv6.
Explanation: To access a device over the internet, the destination IPv4
address must be a public address. Public IPv4 address exhaustion is a reason
why there are private IPv4 address and why organizations are transitioning to
IPv6.
3. Which organization or group of organizations receives IP
addresses from IANA and is responsible for allocating these
addresses to ISPs and some organizations?
 IETF
 IEEE
 RIRs
 Tier 1 ISPs
Explanation: RIRs receive IP addresses from IANA and are responsible for
allocating these addresses to ISPs and some other organizations.

11.4.4 Check Your Understanding – Network

Segmentation Answers
1. Which devices will not forward an IPv4 broadcast packet
by default?
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 Ethernet switch
 router
Windows PC

None of the above. All devices forward IPv4 broadcast packets by

default.
Explanation: Routers will not forward an IPv4 broadcast packet by default.
2. Which two situations are the result of excessive broadcast
traffic? (Choose two)
 slow network operations
 slow device operations
 when devices on all adjacent networks are affected
 when the router has to forward an excessive number of packets
Explanation: Slow network operations and slow device operations are the
result of excessive broadcast traffic.

12.1.3 Check Your Understanding – IPv4 Issues

Answers
1. What is the most important motivating factor for moving
to IPv6?
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 better performance with IPv6
 IPv6 addresses that are easier to work with
 better security with IPv6
 depletion of IPv4 addresses
Explanation: The main driver or most important factor for IPv6 is the
depletion of the IPv4 address space.
2. True or False: 4 out of 5 RIRs no longer have enough IPv4
addresses to allocate to customers on a regular basis.
 True
 False
Explanation: The correct answer is True. Four of the five RIRs, ARIN,
APNIC, LACNIC, and RIPENCC have exhausted their IPv4 address pools.
Only AfriNIC has remaining IPv4 address space to allocate to customers.
3. Which of the following techniques use native IPv6
connectivity?
 dual stack
 tunneling
 translation
 all of the above
Explanation: Only dual stack uses native IPv6 connectivity.

12.3.8 Check Your Understanding – IPv6

Address Types Answers
1. What is the recommended prefix length for most IPv6
subnets?
 /32
 /48
 /64
 /128
Explanation: Most IPv6 subnets will have a prefix length of /64.
2. Which part of a GUA is assigned by the ISP?
 Global Routing Prefix
 Global Routing Prefix and Subnet ID
 Prefix
 RIR Prefix
Explanation: The global routing prefix is the part of a GUA that is assigned
by an ISP.
3. Which type of IPv6 unicast address is not routable
between networks?
 unique local address
 GUA
  embedded IPv4 address
 LLA
Explanation: Link-local IPv6 addresses are for link only communication
and are not routable.
4. True or False: The Subnet ID field in an GUA must borrow
bits from the interface ID.
 True
 False
Explanation: The correct answer is False. GUAs do not use a bit from the
interface ID to create subnets.
5. What type of IPv6 address begins with fe80?
 GUA
 LLA
 multicast address
 None. An IPv6 address must begin with 2001
Explanation: Link-local IPv6 addresses start with the prefix fe80.

12.5.8 Check Your Understanding – Dynamic

Addressing for IPv6 GUAs Answers
1. True or False. RA messages are sent to all IPv6 routers by
hosts requesting addressing information.
 True
 False
Explanation: The correct answer is False. Router Advertisement (RA)
messages are sent to all IPv6 nodes. If Method 1 (SLAAC only) is used, the
RA includes network prefix, prefix-length, and default-gateway information.
2. Which dynamic addressing method for GUAs is the one
where devices rely solely on the contents of the RA message
for their addressing information?
 Method 1: SLAAC
 Method 2: SLAAC and Stateless DHCPv6
 Method 3: Stateful DHCPv6
Explanation: SLAAC is a method where devices create their own GUA
without the services of DHCPv6. Using SLAAC, devices rely on the local
router ICMPv6 RA messages to obtain the necessary information.
3. Which dynamic addressing method for GUAs is the one
where devices rely solely on a DHCPv6 server for their
addressing information?
 Method 1: SLAAC
 Method 2: SLAAC and Stateless DHCPv6
 Method 3: Stateful DHCPv6
Explanation: Stateful DHCPv6 is a method where devices automatically
receive their addressing information including a GUA, prefix length, and the
addresses of DNS servers from a stateful DHCPv6 server.
4. Which dynamic addressing method for GUAs is the one
where devices get their IPv6 configuration in a RA message
and request DNS information from a DHCPv6 server?
 Method 1: SLAAC
 Method 2: SLAAC and Stateless DHCPv6
 Method 3: Stateful DHCPv6
Explanation: SLAAC and stateless DHCPv6 is a method where devices
use SLAAC for the GUA and default gateway address. The devices then use a
stateless DHCPv6 server for DNS servers and other addressing information.
5. What are the two methods a device can use to generate
its own IPv6 interface ID?
 SLAAC
 stateless DHCPv6
 stateful DHCPv6
 EUI-64
 randomly generated
Explanation: When the RA message is either SLAAC or SLAAC with
stateless DHCPv6, the client must generate its own interface ID using the
EUI-64 process or a randomly generated 64-bit number.

12.8.5 Check Your Understanding – Subnet an

IPv6 Network Answers
1. True or False? IPv6 was designed with subnetting in mind.
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 True
 False
Explanation: The correct answer is True. IPv6 has a separate subnet ID
field in the network prefix portion of the address that can be used to create
subnets.
2. Which field in an IPv6 GUA is used for subnetting?
 Prefix
 Network
 Global Routing Prefix
 Subnet ID
 Interface ID
Explanation: The Subnet ID field, which is between the Global Routing
Prefix field and the Interface ID field, is used for subnetting.
3. Given a /48 Global Routing Prefix and a /64 prefix, what is
the subnet portion of the following address:
2001:db8:cafe:1111:2222:3333:4444:5555
 café
 1111
 2222
 3333
 4444
Explanation: The subnet portion of the address is the 16 bits between
the /48 and /64 prefixes, which are 2222.
4. Given a /32 Global Routing Prefix and a /64 prefix, how
many bits would be allocated for the Subnet ID?
 8
 16
 32
 48
 64
Explanation: The subnet portion of the address consists of the 32 bits
between the /32 and /64 prefixes.

13.1.6 Check Your Understanding – ICMP

Messages Answers
1. Which two types of ICMP messages are common to both
ICMPv4 and ICMPv6? (Choose two.)
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 Destination or Service Unreachable
 Hostname resolution
 IP configuration
 Source Unreachable
 Time exceeded
Explanation: ICMP messages common to both ICMPv4 and ICMPv6
include host confirmation, destination or service unreachable, and time
exceeded.
2. Which type of ICMPv6 message would a host send to
acquire an IPv6 configuration when booting up?
 Neighbor Advertisement (NA) message
 Neighbor Solicitation (NS) message
 Router Advertisement (RA) message
 Router Solicitation (RS) message
Explanation: An IPv6-enabled host booting up would send an ICMPv6
router solicitation message. An IPv6-enabled router would respond with a
router advertisement message.
14.1.7 Check Your Understanding –
Transportation of Data Answers
1. Which layer is responsible for establishing a temporary
communication session between the source and destination
host applications?
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 application layer
 data link layer
 network layer
 physical layer
 transport layer
Explanation: The transport layer is responsible for establishing a
temporary communication session between the source and destination host
applications.
2. Which three are transport layer responsibilities? (Choose
three.)
 conversation multiplexing
 identifying frames
 identifying routing information
 segmenting data and reassembling segments
 tracking individual conversations
Explanation: The transport layer is responsible for conversation
multiplexing, segmenting data and reassembling segments, and tracking
individual conversations.
3. Which transport layer protocol statement is true?
 TCP has fewer fields than UDP.
 TCP is faster than UDP.
 UDP is a best-effort delivery protocol.
 UDP provides reliability.
Explanation: UDP is a best-effort delivery protocol while TCP is a reliable
transport protocol.
4. Which transport layer protocol would be used for VoIP
applications?
 Session Information Protocol (SIP)
 Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)
 User Datagram Protocol (UDP)
 VoIP Transfer Protocol
Explanation: UDP would be used by time sensitive VoIP applications.
14.2.5 Check Your Understanding – TCP
Overview Answers
1. Which transport layer protocol ensures reliable same-
order delivery?
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 ICMP
 IP
 TCP
 UDP
Explanation: The TCP transport layer protocol ensures reliable same-order
delivery.
2. Which TCP header statement is true?
 It consists of 4 fields in an 8-byte header.
 It consists of 8 fields in a 10-byte header.
 It consists of 10 fields in a 20-byte header.
 It consists of 20 fields in a 40-byte header.
Explanation: The TCP header consists of 10 fields in a 20-byte header.
3. Which two applications would use the TCP transport layer
protocol? (Choose two.)
 FTP
 HTTP
 ICMP
 TFTP
 VoIP
Explanation: FTP and HTTP require the use of the TCP transport layer
protocol.

14.3.5 Check Your Understanding – UDP

Overview Answers
1. Which of the following is a stateless best-effort delivery
transport layer protocol?
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 ICMP
 IP
 TCP
 UDP
Explanation: UDP is a stateless best-effort delivery transport layer
protocol.
2. Which UDP header statement is true?
 It consists of 4 fields in an 8-byte header.
 It consists of 8 fields in a 10-byte header.

It consists of 10 fields in a 20-byte header.

It consists of 20 fields in a 40-byte header.

Explanation: The UDP header consists of four fields in an 8-byte header.
3. Which two applications would use the UDP transport layer
protocol? (Choose two.)
 FTP
 HTTP
 ICMP
 TFTP
 VoIP
Explanation: TFTP and VoIP require the use of the UDP transport layer
protocol.
4. Which two fields are the same in a TCP and UDP header?
(Choose two.)
 Control bits
 Destination port number
 Sequence number
 Source port number
 Well-known port number
Explanation: Both TCP and UDP headers include a source and destination
port number fields.

14.4.5 Check Your Understanding – Port

Numbers Answers
1. Assume a host with IP address 10.1.1.10 wants to request
web services from a server at 10.1.1.254. Which of the
following would display the correct socket pair?
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 1099:10.1.1.10, 80:10.1.1.254
 10.1.1.10:80, 10.1.1.254:1099
 10.1.1.10:1099, 10.1.1.254:80
 80:10.1.1.10, 1099:10.1.1.254
Explanation: The socket pair for a host with IP address 10.1.1.10
requesting web services from a server at 10.1.1.254 would be 10.1.1.10:1099,
10.1.1.254:80.
2. Which port group includes port numbers for FTP, HTTP,
and TFTP applications?
 dynamic ports
 private ports
 registered ports
 well-known ports
Explanation: FTP, HTTP, and TFTP applications port numbers are defined
in the well-known port numbers group.
3. Which Windows command would display the protocols in
use, the local address and port numbers, the foreign address
and port numbers, and the connection state?
 ipconfig /all
 ping
 netstat
 traceroute
Explanation: The netstat Windows command would display protocols in
use, the local address and port numbers, the foreign address and port
numbers, and the connection state.

14.5.6 Check Your Understanding – TCP

Communication Process Answers
1. Which of the following would be valid source and
destination ports for a host connecting to an email server?
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 Source: 25, Destination: 49152
 Source: 80, Destination: 49152
 Source: 49152, Destination: 25
 Source: 49152, Destination: 80
Explanation: The destination port is the well-known port for Simple Mail
Transport Protocol, which is 25. This is the port that the mail server will be
listening on. The source port is dynamically selected by the requesting client
and can be 49152.
2. Which control bit flags are used during the three-way
handshake?
 ACK and FIN
 FIN and RESET
 RESET and SYN
 SYN and ACK
Explanation: The three-way handshake consists of a three message
exchanges with the following control bit flags: SYN, SYN ACK, and ACK.
3. How many exchanges are needed to end both sessions
between two hosts?
 one exchange
 two exchanges
 three exchanges
 four exchanges
 five exchanges
Explanation: There are four exchanges to end both sessions between two
hosts. (1) Host A sends a FIN. (2) Host B sends an ACK. (3) Host B sends a
FIN. (4) Host A sends an ACK.

14.6.8 Check Your Understanding – Reliability

and Flow Control Answers
1. What field is used by the destination host to reassemble
segments into the original order?
 Control Bits
 Destination Port
 Sequence Number
 Source Port
 Window Size
Explanation: The sequence number field is used by the destination host to
reassemble segments into the original order.
2. What field is used to provide flow control?
 Control Bits
 Destination Port
 Sequence Number
 Source Port
 Window Size
Explanation: The Window Size field is used to provide flow control.
3. What happens when a sending host senses there is
congestion?
 The receiving host increases the number of bytes it sends before
receiving an acknowledgment from the sending host.
 The receiving host reduces the number of bytes it sends before
receiving an acknowledgment from the sending host.
 The sending host increases the number of bytes it sends before
receiving an acknowledgment from the destination host.
 The sending host reduces the number of bytes it
sends before receiving an acknowledgment from the
destination host.
Explanation: When a sending host senses congestion, it reduces the
number of bytes it sends before receiving an acknowledgment from the
destination host.

14.7.5 Check Your Understanding – UDP

Communication Answers
1. Why is UDP desirable for protocols that make a simple
request and reply transactions?
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 Flow Control
 Low overhead
 Reliability
 Same-order delivery
Explanation: UDP is desirable for protocols that make simple request and
reply transactions because of its low overhead.
2. Which UDP datagram reassembly statement is true?
 UDP does not reassemble the data.
 UDP reassembles the data in the order that it was
received.
 UDP reassembles the data using control bits.
 UDP reassembles the data using sequence numbers.
Explanation: UDP reassembles the data in the order that it was received.
3. Which of the following would be valid source and
destination ports for a host connecting to a DNS server?
 Source: 53, Destination: 49152
 Source: 1812, Destination: 49152
 Source: 49152, Destination: 53
 Source: 49152, Destination: 1812
Explanation: The correct valid source and destination ports for a host
requesting DNS service is Source: 49152, Destination: 53.

15.1.4 Check Your Understanding – Application,

Session, Presentation Answers
1. This layer of the OSI model is concerned with the
protocols that exchange data between programs running on
hosts.
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 application
 transport
 network
 physical
Explanation: The application layer of the OSI model is the layer that is
closest to the end user. It provides an interface between application protocols
exchanging data between hosts.
2. MKV, GIF, and JPG standards are associated with which
OSI layer?
 application
 presentation
 session
 transport
Explanation: The presentation layer is concerned with formatting and
presenting data in a format that is compatible with the destination device.
Examples of presentation layer standards are MKV, GIF, JPG, MOV, and
PNG.
3. These three OSI layers define the same functions as the
TCP/IP model application layer.
 application
 presentation
 session
 transport
 network
 data link
Explanation: The upper three OSI layers; application, presentation, and
session, define the application layer functions of the TCP/IP model.
4. Which two are protocols that belong in the OSI application
layer?
 PNG
 DNS
 SMTP
 QuickTime
Explanation: The application layer of the OSI model provides an interface
between applications protocols exchanging data between hosts. Protocols at
the application layer include DNS, HTTP, SMTP, FTP, and IMAP.
5. This is a function of the OSI session layer.
 compress and decompress data
 provide an interface between applications
 format data for the application layer
 exchange of information to initiate dialog between
peers
Explanation: The session layer of the OSI model creates and maintains the
dialogs, or sessions, between two communicating hosts.

15.2.5 Check Your Understanding – Peer-to-Peer

Answers
1. True or false? The peer-to-peer networking model requires
the implementation of a dedicated server for data access.
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 True
 False
Explanation: The correct answer is False. In the peer-to-peer model,
clients can share resources without using a dedicated server.
2. True or false? In a peer-to-peer network environment
every peer can function as both a client and a server.
 True
 False
Explanation: The correct answer is True. A peer-to-peer network does not
require a dedicated server because each peer can function as both a client
and as a server.
3. Which peer-to-peer application allows users to share
pieces of many files with each other at the same time?
 Hybrid
 Gnutella
 BitTorrent
Explanation: BitTorrent clients use a torrent file to locate other clients that
are sharing pieces of needed files. In this way, many files can be shared
between clients at the same time.
4. Which of the following is a feature of the Gnutella
protocol?
 Users can share whole files with other users.
 Users can share pieces of files with other users.
 Users can access an index server to get the location of resources
shared by other users.
Explanation: Gnutella is a peer-to-peer protocol that allows users to share
whole files with other users.

15.3.5 Check Your Understanding – Web and

Email Protocols Answers
1. This message type is used when uploading data files to a
web server.
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 GET
 POST
 PUT
Explanation: HTTP uses the POST message to upload data files to a web
server. The GET message is used by clients to request data and the PUT
message is used to upload content such as images.
2. This protocol is used by a web browser to establish a
connection to a web server.
 HTTP
 SSL
 IMAP
 SMTP
Explanation: Web browsers connect to web servers over HTTP. IMAP and
SMTP are email protocols. SSL is an encryption protocol used with HTTPS.
3. This protocol is used by a client to send email to a mail
server.
 POP
 SMTP
 IMAP
 HTTP
Explanation: Email clients connect to SMTP servers over port 25 to send
email. POP and IMAP are used by clients to receive email. HTTP is used
between web browsers and web servers.
4. Which is a feature of IMAP?
 It uploads email messages to a server.
 It listens passively on port 110 for client requests.
 It downloads a copy of email messages leaving the
original on the server.
Explanation: IMAP is a protocol for clients to retrieve copies of email
messages from an IMAP server. The original messages remain on the server
until manually deleted.
5. True or false? HTTP is a secure protocol.
 True
 False
Explanation: The correct answer is False. HTTP sends information in
plaintext and is not considered secure. If security is desired, HTTP Secure
(HTTPS) should be used.

15.4.9 Check Your Understanding – IP

Addressing Services Answers
1. Which of the following DNS record types is used to resolve
IPv6 addresses?
 A
 NS
 AAAA
 MX
Explanation: DNS AAAA records are used to resolve names to IPv6
addresses.
2. True or false? A DNS server that receives a request for a
name resolution that is not within its DNS zone will send a
failure message to the requesting client.
 True
 False
Explanation: The correct answer is False. When a DNS server receives a
name resolution request for a name not within its zone, the serve will forward
the request to another DNS server.
3. Which of the following is displayed by the nslookup
utility?
 the configured default DNS server
 the IP address of the end device
 all cached DNS entries
Explanation: By issuing the nslookup command, the default DNS server
that is configured is displayed.
4. Which of the following DNS resource record types resolves
authoritative name servers?
 NS
 A
 MX
 AAAA
Explanation: NS records resolve authoritative name servers. DNS A
records resolve IPv4 addresses. AAAA records resolve IPv6 addresses, and
MX records resolve mail exchange servers.

15.5.3 Check Your Understanding – File Sharing

Services Answers
1. How many connections are required by FTP between client
and server?
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 1
 2
 3
 4
Explanation: FTP requires two connections between the client and the
server. One connection is over port 21 for client commands and server replies.
The other connection is over port 20 for data transfer.
2. True or false? FTP data transfers take place from client to
server (push) and from server to client (pull).
 True
 False
Explanation: The correct answer is True. Data transfer over FTP can take
place in either direction, uploads from client to server, or downloads from
server to client.
3. Which of these ports are used by FTP? (Choose two.)
 20
 21
 25

110

Explanation: Ports 20 and 21 are used by FTP.
4. True or false? Resource sharing over SMB is only
supported on Microsoft operating systems.
 True
 False
Explanation: The correct answer is False. Resource sharing over SMB is
also supported by Apple Macintosh. Linux and Unix operating systems use a
version of SMB called SAMBA.

16.1.4 Check Your Understanding – Security

Threats and Vulnerabilities Answers
1. What kind of threat is described when a threat actor
sends you a virus that can reformat your hard drive?
 data loss or manipulation
 disruption of service
 identify theft
 information theft
Explanation: Sending a virus that will format the hard drive of a computer
is an example of data loss or manipulation threat.
2. What kind of threat is described when a threat actor
makes illegal online purchases using stolen credit
information?
 data loss or manipulation
 disruption of service
 identify theft
 information theft
Explanation: Using stolen credit or identity information to make illegal
online purchases is an example of identity theft.
3. What kind of threat is described when a threat actor
prevents legal users from accessing data services?
 data loss or manipulation
 disruption of service
 identify theft
 information theft
Explanation: Disruption of service attacks occur when legitimate users are
prevented from accessing data and services.
4. What kind of threat is described when a threat actor
steals scientific research data?
 data loss or manipulation
 disruption of service
  identify theft
 information theft
Explanation: Stealing research data or proprietary information is an
example of information theft.
5. What kind of threat is described when a threat actor
overloads a network to deny other users network access?
 data loss or manipulation
 disruption of service
 identify theft
 information theft
Explanation: Disruption of service attacks occur when legitimate users are
prevented from accessing data and services or the network.
6. What kind of threat is described when a threat actor
alters data records?
 data loss or manipulation
 disruption of service
 identify theft
 information theft
Explanation: Altering data records is an example of data loss or
manipulation.
7. What kind of threat is described when a threat actor is
stealing the user database of a company?
 data loss or manipulation
 disruption of service
 identify theft
 information theft
Explanation: Stealing data records or proprietary information is an example
of information theft.
8. What kind of threat is described when a threat actor
impersonates another person to obtain credit information
about that person?
 data loss or manipulation
 disruption of service
 identify theft
 information theft
Explanation: Using identity information to impersonate someone to obtain
credit is an example of identity theft.

16.2.5 Check Your Understanding – Network

Attacks Answers
1. Angela, an IT staff member at ACME Inc., notices that
communication with the company’s web server is very slow.
After investigating, she determines that the cause of the
slow response is a computer on the internet sending a very
large number of malformed web requests to ACME’S web
server. What type of attack is described in this scenario?
 access attack
 denial of service (DoS) attack
 malware attack
 reconnaissance attack
Explanation: A denial of service (DoS) attack, if successful, prevents
authorized users from accessing system resources.
2. George needed to share a video with a co-worker.
Because of the large size of the video file, he decided to run
a simple FTP server on his workstation to serve the video file
to his co-worker. To make things easier, George created an
account with the simple password of “file” and provided it to
his co-worker on Friday. Without the proper security
measures or a strong password, the IT staff was not
surprised to learn on Monday that George’s workstation had
been compromised and was trying to upload work related
documents to the internet. What type of attack is described
in this scenario?
 access attack
 denial of service (DoS) attack
 malware attack
 reconnaissance attack
Explanation: An access attack, if successful, exploits known vulnerabilities.
These attacks can allow a threat actor to gain access to resources they have
no rights to access.
3. Jeremiah was browsing the internet from his personal
computer when a random website offered a free program to
clean his system. After the executable was downloaded and
running, the operating system crashed. Crucial operating
system related files had been corrupted and Jeremiah’s
computer required a full disk format and operating system
re-installation. What type of attack is described in this
scenario?
 access attack
 denial of service (DoS) attack
 malware attack
 reconnaissance attack
Explanation: Malware attacks include viruses, worms, and Trojan horses.
These types of attacks can result in crashed systems and deleted or corrupted
files.
4. Arianna found a flash drive lying on the pavement of a
mall parking lot. She asked around but could not find the
owner. She decided to keep it and plugged it into her laptop,
only to find a photo folder. Feeling curious, Arianna opened
a few photos before formatting the flash drive for her own
use. Afterwards, Arianna noticed that her laptop camera was
active. What type of attack is described in this scenario?
 access attack
 denial of service (DoS) attack
 malware attack
 reconnaissance attack
Explanation: Malware attacks include viruses, worms, and Trojan horses.
These types of attacks can allow a threat actor to take control of an infected
system.
5. A computer is used as a print server for ACME Inc. The IT
staff failed to apply security updates to this computer for
over 60 days. Now the print server is operating slowly, and
sending a high number of malicious packets to its NIC. What
type of attack is described in this scenario?
 access attack
 denial of service (DoS) attack
 malware attack
 reconnaissance attack
Explanation: A denial of service (DoS) attack, if successful, prevents
authorized users from accessing system resources.
6. Sharon, an IT intern at ACME Inc., noticed some strange
packets while revising the security logs generated by the
firewall. A handful of IP addresses on the internet were
sending malformed packets to several different IP
addresses, at several different random port numbers inside
ACME Inc. What type of attack is described in this scenario?
 access attack
 denial of service (DoS) attack
 malware attack
 reconnaissance attack
Explanation: In a reconnaissance attack, the threat actor can probe a
system to find what ports are open, and what services are running.

16.3.8 Check Your Understanding – Network

Attack Mitigation Answers
1. Which device controls traffic between two or more
networks to help prevent unauthorized access?
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 AAA Server
 firewall
 ESA/WSA
 IPS
Explanation: A firewall is a dedicated device that helps prevent
unauthorized access by not allowing external traffic to initiate connections to
internal hosts.
2. Which device is used by other network devices to
authenticate and authorize management access?
 AAA Server
 firewall
 ESA/WSA
 IPS
Explanation: AAA servers perform authentication, authorization and
accounting services on behalf of other devices to manage access to
resources.
3. Which backup policy consideration is concerned with
using strong passwords to protect the backups and for
restoring data?
 frequency
 storage
 security
 validation
Explanation: Backup validation is concerned with using strong passwords
to protect backups and for restoring data.
4. This zone is used to house servers that should be
accessible to outside users.
 inside
 outside
 internet
 DMZ
Explanation: The DMZ, or demilitarized zone, is used for servers that need
to be accessible to external users.
5. Which is appropriate for providing endpoint security?
 a AAA server
 antivirus software
 a server-based firewall
 an ESA/WSA
Explanation: Antivirus software running on an endpoint or host is part of a
comprehensive endpoint security solution.
17.1.6 Check Your Understanding – Devices in a
Small Network Answers
1. Which statement correctly relates to a small network?
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 Small networks are complex.
 Small networks require an IT department to maintain.
 The majority of businesses are small.
Explanation: The majority of businesses are small.
2. Which factor must be considered when selecting network
devices?
 color
 console connections
 cost
 elasticity
Explanation: Factors to be considered include cost, speed and types of
ports/interfaces, expandability, and operating system features and services.
3. What is necessary to plan and use when implementing a
network?
 device names
 IP addressing scheme
 MAC addressing scheme
 printer location
Explanation: When implementing a network, planning and using an IP
addressing scheme is necessary.
4. What is required to maintain a high degree of reliability
and eliminate single points of failure?
 accessibility
 expandability
 integrity
 redundancy
Explanation: Redundancy is required to maintain a high degree of
reliability and eliminate single points of failure.
5. What is required to classify traffic according to priority?
 IP addressing scheme
 quality of service (QoS)
 routing
 switching
Explanation: QoS is required to classify traffic according to priority.
17.2.4 Check Your Understanding – Small
Network Applications and Protocols Answers

1. What are two forms of software programs or processes

that provide access to the network? (Choose two.)
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 antivirus software
 application layer services
 gaming software
 network applications
 productivity software
 virtual machine software
Explanation: Application layer services and network applications are two
forms of software programs that provide access to the network.
2. Which two network protocols are used to establish a
remote access network connection to a device? (Choose
two.)
 File Transfer Protocol (FTP)
 Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP).
 Remote Connect (RC)
 Secure Shell (SSH)
 Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP)
 Telnet
Explanation: SSH and Telnet are two network protocols that are used to
establish a remote access network connection to a device.

17.3.4 Check Your Understanding – Scale to

Larger Networks Answers
1. Which elements are required to scale to a larger network?
(Choose two.)
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 budget
 device configurations
 increased bandwidth
 network documentation
 windows hosts
Explanation: Elements to scale to a larger network include budget, device
inventory, network documentation, and traffic analysis.
2. Which software installed on key hosts can reveal the
types of network traffic flowing through the network?
  Linux
 MacOS
 SSH
 Windows
 Wireshark
Explanation: Wireshark can reveal the types of network traffic flowing
through the network.
3. What Windows 10 tool is useful to determine which
applications are using network services on a host?
 Control panel
 Data Usage
 File Manager
 Windows Defender Firewall
 Windows Explorer
Explanation: The Windows 10 Data Usage tool is useful to determine
which applications are using network services on a host.

17.6.5 Check Your Understanding –

Troubleshooting Methodologies Answers
1. A technician is troubleshooting a network problem and
has just established a theory of probable causes. What
would be the next step in the troubleshooting process?
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 Document findings, actions, and outcomes.
 Establish a plan of action and implement the solution.
 Identify the problem.
 Test the theory to determine cause.
 Verify solution and implement preventive measures.
Explanation: The next step after “Establish a Theory of Probable Causes”
is to “Test the Theory to Determine Cause”.
2. A technician is troubleshooting a network problem. After
troubleshooting, the technician concludes that a switch
should be replaced. What should the technician do next?
 Email all users to let them know they are replacing a switch.
 Escalate the trouble ticket to the manager to
approve the change.
 Purchase a new switch and replace the defective one.
 Resolve the problem.
Explanation: The technician should escalate the problem to their manager.
3. A technician is using the debug ip icmp privileged EXEC
command to capture live router output. Which commands
would stop this debug command on a Cisco router? (Choose
two.)
 debug ip icmp off
 no debug debug ip icmp
 no debug ip icmp
 undebug all
 undebug debug ip icmp
Explanation: To disable the debug ip icmp command you can use no
debug ip icmp, undebug ip icmp, or undebug all.
4. A technician has established a remote connection to
router R1 to observe debug output. The technician enters
the debug ip icmp command then pings a remote
destination. However, no output is displayed. Which
command would the technician have to enter to display log
messages on a remote connection?
 monitor debug output
 monitor terminal
 terminal monitor
 terminal monitor debug
Explanation: The terminal monitor command displays log messages on a
remote connection.