Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy.,India.

 A.P  T.S  KARNATAKA  TAMILNADU  MAHARASTRA  DELHI  RANCHI

A right Choice for the Real Aspirant
ICON Central Office - Madhapur - Hyderabad
SEC: Sr.Super60_NUCLEUS&STERLING_BT JEE-MAIN Date: 23-11-2024
Time: 09.00Am to 12.00Pm RPTM-15/19 Max. Marks: 300
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTION:
1. Immediately fill in the Admission number on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue/Black Ball Point Pen
only.
2. The candidates should not write their Admission Number anywhere (except in the specified space) on the
Test Booklet/ Answer Sheet.
3. The test is of 3 hours duration.*
4. The Test Booklet consists of 75 Questions. The maximum marks are 300.
5. There are three parts in the question paper 1,2,3 consisting of Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry
having 25 Questions in each subject and subject having two sections.
(I) Section –I contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions with only one correct option.
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempt and -1 in all other cases.
(II) Section-II contains 05 Numerical Value Type Questions.
∎ The Answer should be within 0 to 9999. If the Answer is in Decimal then round off to the Nearest Integer
value (Example i,e. If answer is above 10 and less than 10.5 round off is 10 and If answer is from 10.5 and
less than 11 round off is 11).
To cancel any attempted question bubble on the question number box.
For example: To cancel attempted Question 21. Bubble on 21 as shown belo w

.
Question Answered for Marking Question Cancelled for Marking
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempt and -1 in all other cases.
6. Use Blue / Black Point Pen only for writing particulars / marking responses on the Answer Sheet. Use of pencil is
strictly prohibited.
7. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, mobile phone any electron
device etc, except the Identity Card inside the examination hall.
8. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.
9. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the invigilator on duty in the Hall.
However, the candidate are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
10. Do not fold of make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet
Name of the Candidate (in Capital): ________________________________________________

Admission Number:
Candidate’s Signature:________________ Invigilator’s Signature: ________________
 SRI CHAITANYA IIT ACADEMY, INDIA 23-11-24_ Sr.Super60_ NUCLEUS & STERLING_BT _Jee-Main_RPTM-15/19_Q.P
23-11-2024_Sr.Super60_ NUCLEUS & STERLING_BT _ Jee-Main_RPTM-15/19_Test Syllabus
MATHEMATICS : Binomial Theorem and Statistics
COMPLETE RPTM-15 SYLLABUS (Except MAINS Deleted Topics) (20Q RPTM15+5Q CUMULATIVE)
PHYSICS : Properties of matter: Hooke’s law, Young’s modulus, Modulus of rigidity and bulk modulus in
mechanics. Surface energy and surface tension, angle of contact, drops, bubbles and capillary rise.
Viscosity (Poiseuille’s equation excluded), Stoke’s law; Terminal velocity, Experiments: Young’s
modulus - elasticity of the material Surface tension of water by capillary rise and effect of
detergents, Coefficient of Viscosity of a given viscous liquid by measuring terminal velocity of a
given spherical body.
COMPLETE RPTM-15 SYLLABUS (Except MAINS Deleted Topics) (20Q RPTM15+5Q CUMULATIVE)
CHEMISTRY : Chemical Kinetics: Rate of chemical reactions, order, molecularity , Zero order kinetics, 1st order
kinetics, Parallel path reactions following 1st order kinetics, nth order kinetics, Arrhenius equation,
Effect of temperature, Effect of catalyst, kinetics of bacteria and virus
Atomic Structure: Fundamental Particles - their characteristics; Thomson's atomic model,
Rutherford's atomic model, Plank's Quantum theory, Bohr's atomic model, Applications of Bohr's
atomic model, calculation of radius, velocity, frequency, time period and energy of electron in an
orbit, Hydrogen spectrum, Photoelectric effect, De-Broglie Equation, Heisenberg's Uncertainty
principle, Quantum mechanical model of atom, Hydrogen atom and the schrodinger equation,
Stability of completely filled and half-filled sub-shells, Spherical (or Radial) Nodes and Nodal
planes, Orbital wave functions, Probability distributions and shape of orbitals, concept of Orbitals,
Quantum numbers, Energies of orbitals and energy level diagram, Rules for filling of orbitals in an
atom, Electronic configuration of atoms
COMPLETE RPTM-15 SYLLABUS (Except MAINS Deleted Topics) (20Q RPTM15+5Q CUMULATIVE)

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MATHEMATICS Max Marks: 100
SECTION-I (SINGLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has 4 options (1), (2), (3) and (4) for its answer, out of which
ONLY ONE option can be correct.
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and –1 in all other cases.
30
 1 
1. The term independent of a in the expansion of  1  a   is
 a 1

1) 30 C20 2) 0 3) 30 C10 4) 1

2. The last 3 digits of 17 256 are

1) 481 2) 381 3) 681 4) 581
18
1 x
3. The coefficient with the greatest magnitude in the expansion of    is
2 3
18 18 18 18
C8 C5 C6 C7
1) 2) 3) 4)
21038 21335 21236 21137

 
2010
2008 2009
4. If 3  x x  a0  a1x  a2 x 2  ...  an x n , then the value of

1 1 1 1
a0  a1  a2  a3  a4  a5  a6  ..... is
2 2 2 2

1) 32010 2) 1 3) 22010 4) 0

5. Statement 1: 32n  2  8n  9 is divisible by 64, n  N

n
Statement 2: 1  x   nx  1 is divisible by x 2 , n  N
1) Both Statement 1 and statement 2 are correct
2) Only statement 2 is correct
3) Both Statement 1 and statement 2 are incorrect
4) Only statement 1 is correct

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 SRI CHAITANYA IIT ACADEMY, INDIA 23-11-24_ Sr.Super60_ NUCLEUS & STERLING_BT _Jee-Main_RPTM-15/19_Q.P
6. In a series of 2n observations, half of them equal a and remaining half equal a . If the
standard deviation of the observations is 2, then a equal to

2 1
1) 2) 2 3) 2 4)
n n
7. If  is the mean distribution  yi , fi  , then  fi  yi    
1) M .D. 2) S .D. 3) 0 4) Relative frequency
ax  b
8. The S.D. of variate x is  .The S.D, of the variate where a, b, c are constant, is
c
a a  a2 
1)   2)  3)   4) None of these
c c  c2 
 
20
9. 
Let a  bx  cx 
2 10
  Pi xi , a, b, c  N . If p1  20 and p2  210, then 2  a  b  c  is equal
i 0
to
1) 8 2) 12 3) 15 4) 6
10. Among the statements:

Statement 1:- 20232022  19992022 is divisible by 8.

n
Statement 2:- 1313  11n  13 is divisible 144 for infinitely many n  N .
1) Both Statement 1 and statement 2 are incorrect
2) Only statement 2 is correct
3) Both Statement 1 and statement 2 are correct
4) Only statement 1 is correct
11. The mean and standard deviation of 20 observations are found to be 10 and 2 respectively.
On respectively, it was found that an observation by mistake was taken 8 instead of 12.The
correct standard deviation is
1) 3.86 2) 1.8 3) 3.96 4) 1.94
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256
The number of integral terms in the expansion of  3  5 
8
12. is
 
1) 31 2) 32 3) 33 4) 34
15
 1 1 
13. The number of distinct terms in the expansion of  x   x 2  is /are (with respect to
x 2
 x 
different power of x )
1) 51 2) 61 3) 71 4) 81
14. In an experiment with 15 observation on x , the following results were available

 x2  2830,  x  170 .On observation that was 20 was found to be wrong and was
replaced by the correct value 30.Then corrected variance is
1) 78 2) 108 3) 81 4) 100
9
 1 
15. The sum of the coefficient x 2/3
and x 2/5
in the binomial expansion of  x 2/3  x 2/5  is
 2 
n, then 16n=________
1) 21 2) 42 3) 84 4) 80
16. If the median and the range of four numbers  x, y , 2 x  y , x  y , where 0  y  x  2 y, are 10
and 28 respectively, then the mean of the numbers is:
1) 12 2) 14 3) 16 4) 18
17. If both the mean and the standard deviation of 50 observations x1, x2 ....x50 are equal to 16
2 2 2
then the mean of  x1  4  ,  x2  4  ,....,  x50  4  is
1) 480 2) 400 3) 380 4) 525
10
 
 x 1 x 1 
18. The term independent of x in the expansion of    is
2 1 1
 3 
 x  x3  1 x  x 2 
1) 310 2) 4 3) 120 4) 210

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 SRI CHAITANYA IIT ACADEMY, INDIA 23-11-24_ Sr.Super60_ NUCLEUS & STERLING_BT _Jee-Main_RPTM-15/19_Q.P
50
19. The coefficient of x in the expression

1  x 1000  2 x 1  x 999  3x2 1  x 998 .....1001 x1000 is

1) 1000c50 2) 62024  82024 3) 1002c51 4) 1002c50

20. The remainder obtained when 62024  82024 is divided by 49 is

1) 21 2) 2 3) 3 4) 32
SECTION-II (NUMERICAL VALUE TYPE)
This section contains 5 Numerical Value Type Questions. The Answer should be within 0 to 9999. If the Answer is in Decimal
then round off to the Nearest Integer value (Example i,e. If answer is above 10 and less than 10.5 round off is 10 and If
answer is from 10.5 and less than 11 round off is 11).
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempt and -1 in all other cases.
 /2 n
n an
21. Let an   1  sin t  sin 2t dt , and I n  lim
n 
 n
then 2 I n  ______
0 n 1

22. Six persons A,B,C,D,E,F are to be seated at a circular Table. In how many ways can this be
done. If A should have either B or C on his immediate right and B must always have either C
or D on his immediate right.

22 x  1   2   2022 
23. If f  x   , x  R, then f   f   ....  f  is equal to
2x  2023   2023   2023 
2 2
24. The number of square matrices of order 5 with entries from the set 0,1 , such that the sum
of all the elements in each row is 1 and the sum of all the elements in each column is also 1,
is
ax 2  1 , x 1
25. The value of a and b if f  x    is differentiable at x  1 then a+b=___
2
 x  ax  b , x  1

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 SRI CHAITANYA IIT ACADEMY, INDIA 23-11-24_ Sr.Super60_ NUCLEUS & STERLING_BT _Jee-Main_RPTM-15/19_Q.P
PHYSICS Max Marks: 100
SECTION-I (SINGLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has 4 options (1), (2), (3) and (4) for its answer, out of which
ONLY ONE option can be correct.
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and –1 in all other cases.
26. Choose the correct relationship between Poissons ratio   , bulk modulus  K  and modulus

of rigidity   of the given solid object.

3K  2 6 K  2 3K  2 6 K  2
1)   2)   3)   4)  
6 K  2 3K  2 6 K  2 3K  2
27. The velocity of water in a river is 18km/hr near the surface. If the river is 10m deep, find the
shearing stress between the horizontal layers of water. The coefficient of viscosity of water =

102 poise .

1) 103 N / m 2 2) 5  103 N / m2 3) 102 N / m 2 4) 5  104 N / m 2

28. A steel wire having a radius of 2.0mm, carrying a load of 4 Kg , is hanging from a ceiling.

Given that g  9.8 m / s 2 , what will be the tensile stress that would be developed in the wire

1) 6.2  106 N / m 2 2) 5.2  106 N / m 2 3) 3.1  106 N / m 2 4) 4.8  106 N / m 2

29. Two blocks of masses m and M are connected by means of a metal wire of cross- sectional
area (A). Passing over a frictionless pulley as shown in figure. The system is then released.
If M  2m, then the stress produced in the wire is

2mg 4mg mg 3mg

1) 2) 3) 4)
3A 3A A 4A
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30. A metal block of mass m is suspended from a rigid support through a metal wire of diameter
14mm. The tensile stress developed in the wire under equilibrium state is

7  105 N / m 2 .The value of mass (m) is ________________Kg.

22
(Take, g  9.8m / s 2 and   )
7
1) 5.5Kg 2) 11Kg 3) 22Kg 4) 7Kg
31.  
An iron bar young’s modulus  1011 N / m2 ,  106 / 0 C 1m long and 103 m 2 in area is

heated from O 0C to 1000 C without being allowed to bend or expand. The compressive
force developed inside the bar is 10n N .Find the value of n.
1) 2 2) 5 3) 3 4) 4
32. In materials like aluminium and copper the correct order of magnitude of various elastic
modulii is
1) Young’s modulus < shear modulus < bulk modulus
2) Bulk modulus < shear modulus < young’s modulus
3) Shear modulus < Young’s modulus < bulk modulus
4) Bulk modulus < young’s modulus < shear modulus.

33. A uniform steel wire of length 4m and area of cross- section is 3  106 m 2 is extended by
1mm by the application of a force. If the young’s modulus of steel is 2  1011 N / m 2 , the
energy stored in the wire is
1) 0.025 J 2) 0.100 J 3) 0.050 J 4) 0.075 J

34. A metal ball of radius 2 mm and density 10.5 gm / cm3 is droped in glycerine of coefficent
of viscocity 9.8 poise and density 1.5 gm / cm3 . The terminal velocity of the ball in cm/s is
1) 4 2)64 3) 8 4) Zero
35. Pressure inside a soap bubble is greaterthan the pressure outside by an amount
(given: R=Radius of bubble, S= surface tension of bubble)
4S 4R S 2S
1) 2) 3) 4)
R S R R
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36. Given below are two statements: one is labeled as Assertion (A) and the other is labeled as
Reason (R)
Assertion (A) : A spherical body of radius  5  0.1 mm having a particular density is falling
through a liquid of constant density. The percentage error in the calculation of its terminal
velocity is 4%
Reason (R) : The terminal velocity of the spherical body falling through the liquid is
inversely proportional to its radius .
In the light of the above statements, choose the answer from the options given below
1) Both (A) and (R ) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
2) Both (A) and (R ) are correct and (R ) is the correct explanation of (A)
3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
4) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
37. Statement 1: Young’s modulus for a perfectly plastic body is zero
Statement 2 : For a perfectly plastic body restoring force is zero
1) Both statements are true
2) Both statements are false
3) Statements -1 is true and statements-2 is false
4) Statement-1 is false and statement-2 is true
38. Statement 1 : Lateral strain is directly proportional to the longitudinal strain with in the
elastic limit.
Statement 2 : Poisson’s ratio for a given material at a constant temperature is constant.
1) Both statements are true
2) Both statements are false
3) Statement -1 is true and Statement-2 is false
4) Statement -1 is false and statement -2 is true

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39. A spring of young’s modulus 2  1011 Pa is suspended vertically and subjected to a load of
5Kg and elongation is 2mm. When the load is doubled –match the following.

 g  9.8m / s2 
Section A Section B
1) Elongating force A) 4 mm
2) Stress B) Unchanged
3) Elongation C) 98 N
4) Young’s modulus D) Doubled
1) 1-D; 2-C; 3-B;4-A 2) 1-C;2-D;3-A;4-B
3) 1-A;2-B;3-C;4-D 4) 1-B;2-A;3-C;4-D
40. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R )
Assertion (A): Steel is used in the construction of building and bridges.
Reason (R ) :- Steel is more elastic and its elastic limit is high,
1) Both (A) and ( R) are correct but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
2) Both (A) and (R ) are correct and (R ) is the correct explanation of (A)
3) (A) is not correct but (R ) is correct.
4) (A) is correct but (R ) is not correct.
41. The load versus elongation graphs for four wires of same length and made of the same
material are shown in the fig. The thickest wire is represented by the line.

1) OA 2) OC 3) OD 4) OB
42. A wire of length (L) is hanging from a fixed support. The length changes to L1 and L2 when
masses 1Kg and 2Kg are suspended respectively from its free end. Then the value of L is
equal to.
L L
1) L1L2 2) 1 2 3) 2L1  L2 4) 3L1  2 L2
2
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43. Small water droplets each of radius 0.01 mm are formed in the upper atmosphere and falling
with a terminal velocity of 10 cm / s .Due to condensation, if 8 such droplets are coalesced
and formed a large drop, the new terminal velocity will be __________ cm / sec.
1) 40 2) 84 3) 34 4) 42
44. If ‘M’ is the mass of water that rises in a capillary tube of radius (r ), then mass of water
which will rise in capillary tube of radius (2r) is
M
1) M 2) 3) 4M 4) 2M
2
45. A water drop of radius 1cm is broken into 729 equal droplets .If surface tension of water is
14 dynes/cm, then the gain in surface energy upto first decimal place will be in order of
104 J .
1) 2.4 2) 3.4 3) 1.4 4) 4.4
SECTION-II (NUMERICAL VALUE TYPE)
This section contains 5 Numerical Value Type Questions. The Answer should be within 0 to 9999. If the Answer is in Decimal
then round off to the Nearest Integer value (Example i,e. If answer is above 10 and less than 10.5 round off is 10 and If
answer is from 10.5 and less than 11 round off is 11).
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempt and -1 in all other cases.
46. Moment of inertia of a body about a given axis is 1.5Kgm 2 .Initially the body is at rest. In
order to produce a rotational kinetic energy of 1200J, the angular acceleration of 20rad / s 2
must be applied about the axis for a duration of _________Sec.
47. The energy of He ion in its second excited state is (The ground state energy for the
604
hydrogen atom is -13.6 13.6eV ) is eV then find the value of ‘x’
x
48. Two sources emit light with a power of 250 W. The ratio of number of photons of visible
light emitted by each source having wavelengths 200 nm and 600 nm respectively will be
1
. Then find the value of N
N
49. In a fluorescent lamp choke ( a small transformer) 100V of reverse voltage is produced when
the choke current changes uniformly from 0.25 A to OA in a duration of 0.025 ms.The self
inductance of the choke  in mH  is estimated to be ______
50. Let us consider a system of units in which mass and angular momentum are dimensionless.

If length has dimensions of L. Then the dimension of linear momentum is L y , find the
value of y .
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CHEMISTRY Max Marks: 100
SECTION-I (SINGLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has 4 options (1), (2), (3) and (4) for its answer, out of which
ONLY ONE option can be correct.
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and –1 in all other cases.
1 d  N 2O5 
51. N 2O5 decomposes as follows: N 2O5  2 NO2  O2 . If   K1  N 2O5  ,
2 dt
d  NO2 
  K 2  N 2O5 ;
dt
d O2 
  K3  N 2O5 ;
dt
Which one of the following is correct for K1, K 2 and K3;
1
1) K1  K 2  K3 2) K1  K 2  K3 3) K1  2 K 2  K3 4) 2 K1  K 2  4 K3
2
K K
52. Consider following two competing first order reactions, P 
1 A  B; Q 
2  C  D if
,
50% of the reaction of P was completed when 96% of Q was completed, then the ratio
 K 2 / K1  will be:
1) 4.6 2) 4.06 3) 1.123 4)2.303
53. In the Haber’s process of ammonia manufactures N 2  3H 2  2 NH 3 g  .The rate of
g g

appearance of NH 3 is d
 NH 3   2  104 mol.L1Sec1. The rate of the reaction expressed in
dt
terms of N 2 and H 2 will be

Rate in terms of H 2  molL1Sec 1  Rate in terms of N 2  mol.L1Sec 1 

1) 3104 2 104
2) 3104 1104
3) 1104 3104
4) 2 104 2 104

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54. For a first order homogeneous gaseous reaction, A  2 B  C then initial pressure was Pi ,
while total pressure after time ‘t’ was Pt .The right expression for the rate constant K in
terms of Pi , Pt and t is “
2.303  2 Pi  2.303  2 Pi 
1) K  log   2) K  log  
t  3Pi  Pt  t  2 Pt  Pi 
2.303  Pi 
3) K  log   4) None of the these
t  Pi  Pt 
55. The mechanism for the reaction A  2 B  D  E; H  Ve is
Step-I: A  2 B  C  Slow 
Step-II C  D  E  fast 
The energy profile of the reaction should be

C C

E D+E
A+2B E
A+2B
D+E

1) t 2) t

C C
D+E
E E
A+2B A+2B
D+E

3) t 4) t

56. The ratio of the radius difference between 4th and 3rd orbit of H-atom and that of Li 2 ion is;
1) 1:1 2) 3:1 3) 3:4 4) 9:1
57. What transition in the hydrogen spectrum would have the same wavelength as the Balmer

transition n  4 to n  2 of He spectrum?

1) n  4 to n  2 2) n  4 to n  1
3) n  2 to n  1 4) n  3 to n  2

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58. For two Particles A and B, Curves are plotted V against de-broglie wavelengths, where V
is the potential on the particles. Which of the following relation is correct about the mass of
particles?

B
A

1) m A  mB 2) m A  mB 3) m A  mB 4) m A  mB
59. If the radius of first Bohr orbit is x unit, Then de-Broglie wavelength in the third orbit is
1) 2 x unit 2) 6 x unit 3) 9 x unit 4) 18 x unit
60. Which of the following sets of quantum number describes the electron which is removed
most easily from a potassium atom in its ground state?
1 1
1) n  3, l  1, ml  1, ms  2) n  2, l  1, ml  0, ms 
2 2
1 1
3) n  4, l  0, ml  1, ms   4) n  4, l  0, ml  0, ms  
2 2
61. According to Bohr’s theory , En  Total Energy , Kn  K inetic energy , Vn  Potential energy,
rn  Radius of n orbit, Then match the columns
th

Column-I Column-II
A) Vn / K n  ? P) 0

B) If radius of nth orbit  Enx , x  ? Q)-1

C) Orbital angular momentum in lowest energy R) -2
1
D) n
zy ; y  ? S) 1
r
1) A-P; B-S; C-Q; D-R 2) A-S; B-P; C-R; D-Q
3) A-R; B-Q; C-P; D-S 4) A-Q; B-R; C-S; D-P
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62. Consider the following
A) Threshold frequency is the maximum frequency required for ejection of electron from
the metal surface.
B) Threshold frequency is the characteristic of a metal.
C) Energy of electron in single electron system depends only on principal quantum number
D) For He ion, the energy of electron in 3P orbital is greater than that in 3S orbital
The correct statements are
1) A,B Only 2) A, B and C Only 3) B and C Only 4) A,B,C and D
63. Consider the following
A) An orbital cannot have more than two electrons and they must have opposite spins.
B) No two electrons in an atom can have same set of all the four quantum numbers as per
Pauli’s exclusion principle.
C) The orbital angular momentum of an electron in any S- orbital is zero
1 1
D) Spin quantum number can have two values  and 
2 2
The correct statements are
1) A,B,C Only 2) A,B Only 3)B,C Only 4) A,B,C,D
64. Assertion: The Arrhenius equation explains the temperature dependence of rate of a
chemical reaction
1
Reason: Plots of log k versus are linear and the energy of activation is obtained from
T
such plots
1) If assertion is true but reason is false
2) If assertion is false but reason is true
3) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
4) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not correct explanation of assertion

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65. Assertion: A catalyst provides an alternative path to the reaction in which conversion of
reactants into products takes place quickly
Reason: The catalyst forms an activated complex of lower potential energy with the
reactants by which more number of molecules are able to cross the barrier per unit time
1) If assertion is true but reason is false
2) If assertion is false but reason is true
3) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
4) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not correct explanation of assertion
66. At the point of intersection of the two curves shown, the concentration of B is given as
 A  nB 

A0 A0 nA0 n 1
1) 2) 3) 4) A0
n n 1 n 1 n 1

67. In the acid hydrolysis reaction A  H 2O  H   Products, where  H    0.1 M and H 2O is

present is large excess, the apparent rate constant is 1.5 105 s 1. r  K  A H 2O   H    K app  A

The true rate constant (third-order rate constant) of reaction is

1) 2.7 106 M 1s 1 2) 1.5 104 M 2 s 1 3) 2.7 106 M 2 s 1 4) 2.7 106 M 2 s 1
68. 99% of first order reaction was completed in 32 minutes when 99.9% of the reaction will
complete:
1) 50 min 2) 46 min 3) 48 min 4) 49 min

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69. The angular momentum of an electron in a Bohr’s orbit of He is

3.1652  10 34 kg  m 2 / sec. What is the wave number in terms of Rydberg constant (R) of
the spectral line emitted when an electron falls from this level to the first excited state.
Use h  6.626  1034 J s 

5R 3R 8R
1) 3R 2) 3) 4)
9 4 9
70. Energy required to ionize 2 mole of gaseous He ion present in its ground state is:
1) 54.4eV 2) 108.8 N AeV 3) 54.4 N AeV 4) 108.8eV
SECTION-II (NUMERICAL VALUE TYPE)
This section contains 5 Numerical Value Type Questions. The Answer should be within 0 to 9999. If the Answer is in Decimal
then round off to the Nearest Integer value (Example i,e. If answer is above 10 and less than 10.5 round off is 10 and If
answer is from 10.5 and less than 11 round off is 11).
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempt and -1 in all other cases.
71. How many of the following undergo re arrangements?

 
CH 2 C CH 3

i) ii) iii) OH



CH 2


O H 2C  C


iv) Me3C  CH 2  CH 2 v) vi) vii)

 Ph 
CH CMe2
H 2C  CH  CH 2
viii) ix) Ph

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72. In the complex with formula MCl3 .4 H 2O, the co-ordination number of the metal M is Six and
there is no molecule of hydration in it .The volume of 0.1 M AgNO3 solution needed to
precipitate the free chloride ions in 200 mL of 0.01M solution of the complex is ________ mL
73. 12.5 mL of a solution containing 6g of a dibasic acid in one liter was found to be neutralized
by 10mL of a deci normal solution of NaOH .The molar mass of the acid is _______
74. Boric acid B  OH 3 is used a mild antiseptic. The P H of a 0.0025M aqueous solution of boric
acid, when the hydrogen ion arises principally as the following reaction is _____________

B  OH 3
 
 H 2O l   B  OH  4 aq  H  aq  , K  4.0  1010
 aq   
75. The heat evolved on combustion of 1g of starch,  C6 H10O5  x in to CO2   and H 2Ol  is 4.6 Kcal
g

Heat of formation of CO2 g  and H 2O l  are -94.2 and -68.4 Kcal/mol, respectively. The

magnitude of standard enthalphy of formation of 1g starch (in Kcal)is _________________

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