PHYSICS

1 [054(E)]

Blueprint for Question Paper

NOTE : This blueprint is for the guidance of Students, Teachers, Examiners, Moderators etc. The moderators, Teachers
and experts in higher secondary of the respective subject may do essential changes keeping the objectives in mind.
• Weightage as per objective :
Higher order thinking skill Total
Objectives Knowledge Understanding Application
Analysis/Synthesis Inference/Evaluation Marks
Part-A Marks 06 15 16 13 -- 50
Part-B Marks 06 15 16 08 05 50
Total Marks 12 30 32 21 05 100
• Weightage as per type of question : PART-A
No. Type of Question No. of Questions Total Marks
1. Multiple choice questions 50 50
• Weightage as per type of question : PART-B
No. of Questions Total Marks
No. Type of Question
Without General Option With General Option (Without Option)
1. Short Answer Type (SA-I) 08 12 16
2. Short Answer Type (SA-II) 06 09 18
3. Long Answer Type (LA) 04 06 16
Total 18 27 50
• Weightage as per Chapter :
Chapterwise Weightage
PART-A PART-B Unitwise
No. Name of Chapter
Marks (Without (With General Weightage
General Option) Option)
1. Electric Charges And Fields 6 2 4
2. Electrostatic Potential And Capacitance 5 3 7 Unit-1
3. Current Electricity 3 6 9 25 Marks
4. Current Electricity 4 3 3
5. Magnetism And Matter 1 2 2
6. Electromagnetic Induction 4 3 5 Unit-2
7. Alternating Currents 2 6 9 25 Marks
8. Electromagnetic Waves 2 - -
9. Ray Optics and Optical Instruments 2 7 9
10. Wave Optics 2 5 5 Unit-3
11. Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 5 2 5 25 Marks
12. Atoms 4 5 5
13. Nuclei 5 4 6 Unit-4
14. Semiconductor Electronics : 5 2 6 25 Marks
Materials, Devices and Simple Circuits
Total Marks 50 50 75 100
Note : Chapterwise weightage may be change as per different question paper. But unitwise weightage can not be
change.
1
 Board’s Question Paper
Paper - 2 (Based on March - 2020)

Time : 1 Hour] PART - A [Total Marks : 50

Select the following questions with proper 7) Unpolarised light is incident on a plane glass
alternative and answer it : surface. What should be the angle of incidence
1) In optical fiber, the refractive index of the so that the reflected and refracted rays are
material of the core is ...... that of the cladding. perpendicular to each other ? [March - 2020]

[March - 2020] (A) 33° (B) 37° (C) 53° (D) 57°

(A) higher than (B) less than 8) Work function of ...... is the lowest.
[March - 2020]
(C) equal to (D) half
2) A magician during a show makes a glass lens (A) caesium (B) platinum
with n = 1.47 disappear in a trough of liquid. (C) nickel (D) copper
What is the refractive index of the liquid ? 9) By applying electric field of the order of ......
[March - 2020] Vm–1 to a metal, electrons can be pulled out of
(A) zero the metal. [March - 2020]
(B) (A) 105 (B) 106 (C) 108 (D) 102
(C) equal to refractive index of water 10) Value of stopping potential depends on ...... of
(D) 1.47 incident light. [March - 2020]
3) The amplitude of a wave is proportional to the (A) frequency (B) intensity
...... of the intensity of the wave. (C) momentum (D) velocity
(A) square (B) cube 11) Monochromatic light of frequency 6 1014 Hz
(C) square root (D) cube root is produced by laser. Each photon has an
4) In a Young’s double slit experiment, the width energy = ...... . [March - 2020]
of the source slit is increased then ...... . (A) 4 10–19 (B) 6 1014
[March - 2020] (C) 4 10–20 (D) 6 10–14
(A) instead of interference, diffraction appears. 12) 13.6 eV energy is required to separate a
(B) fringe pattern gets more and more sharp. hydrogen atom into a proton and an electron.
Compute the orbital radius of corresponding
(C) angular distance between fringes increased.
electron. [March - 2020]
(D) fringe pattern gets less and less sharp.
(A) 10.6 10–11 m (B) 5.3 10–11 m
5) Condition for maximum diffraction is ......
(C) 2.65 10–11 m (D) 1.33 10–11 m
13) To excite the hydrogen atom from its ground
(A) 1 (B) 0
a a state to second excited state ...... eV energy is
required. [March - 2020]
1
(C) (D) (A) 3.4 (B) 12.09
a a 2
(C) 1.51 (D) 13.6
6) Light appears to travel in a straight line,
14) According to the classical electromagnetic
because ......
theory, calculate the initial frequency of the
(A) it is not absorbed by surrounding. light emitted by the electron revolving around
(B) it is reflected by surrounding. a proton in hydrogen atom.
(C) its wavelength is very small. (A) 0.66 1015 Hz (B) 6.6 1015 Hz
(D) its velocity is very large. (C) 0.66 1017 Hz (D) 6.6 1016 Hz
8
 Board’s Question Papers 9
15) In case of head on collision, when the impact 22) ...... as a impurity, when added in Si or Ge P-
parameter is minimum, = ...... rad (where type semiconductor is obtained.[March - 2020]
= scattering angle for -particle) (A) Arsenic (B) Antimony
[March - 2020] (C) Phosphorus (D) Boron
23) The charge equivalent to 6 1018 electrons is
(A) (B) 0 (C) (D) ...... . [March - 2020]
2 4
(A) 1 C (B) – 1 C
16) Given the mass of iron nucleus as 55.85 u and
A = 56, find the nuclear density. (R0 = 1.2 fm) (C) 1 mC (D) – 1 mC
(A) 2.29 1016 kgm–3 24) The ratio of electric force and gravitational
force between a proton and an electron at a
(B) 2.92 1016 kgm–3
certain distance is ...... . [March - 2020]
(C) 4.59 10–15 kgm–3
(A) 1041 (B) 2.4 1041
(D) 2.29 1017 kgm–3
(C) 2.4 1039 (D) 3.9 1024
17) The binding energy per nucleon is almost
constant for the nuclei having atomic mass 25) Unit of surface charge density ( ) is ...... .
number ...... [March - 2020] [March - 2020]
(A) 30 < A < 170 (B) 30 < A < 240 C C C
(C) 170 < A < 230 (D) 156 < A < 192 (A) (B) (C) (D) Cm
2 3 m
m m
18) During interaction of a photon with other
particles, the law of conservation of ...... 26) Electric field due to dipole at large distance (r)
falls off as ...... . [March - 2020]
(A) energy is only obeyed.
(B) momentum is only obeyed. 1 1 1 1
(A) (B) (C) 3
(D) 4
(C) energy and momentum are obeyed. 2 r r r
r
(D) none of the above 27) Value of dielectric strength for air is ...... Vm–1.
19) In an n-type silicon, which of the following [March - 2020]
statement is true : [March - 2020]
(A) 3 104(B) 3 106
(A) Electrons are minority carriers and
(C) 6 103 (D) 4 103
pentavalent atoms are the dopants.
28) Three capacitors of 2 pF, 3 pF and 4 pF are
(B) Electrons are majority carriers and trivalent connected in parallel. What is the total
atoms are the dopants. capacitance of a network ? [March - 2020]
(C) Holes are minority carriers and pentavalent
12 13 1
atoms are the dopants. (A) 9 pF (B) pF (C) pF (D) pF
13 12 9
(D) Holes are majority carriers and trivalent
atoms are the dopants. 29) Equipotential surface through a point is ...... to
the electric field at that point. [March - 2020]
20) When a forward bias is applied to a p-n
junction, it ...... [March - 2020] (A) parallel
(B) normal
(A) raises the potential barrier.
(C) at an angle of 45°
(B) reduces the majority carrier current to zero.
(D) at an angle of 30°
(C) lowers the potential barrier.
(D) none of the above V
30) According to Ohm’s law R , as current
21) In half wave rectification, what is the output I
frequency if the input frequency is 50 Hz. flowing through a conductor increases,
[March - 2020] resistance of conductor ...... [March - 2020]
(A) 100 Hz (B) 0 (A) decreases (B) increases
(C) 50 Hz (D) 25 Hz (C) remains constant (D) nothing cab be said
 10 Std. - 12 : Physics – 'Kumar'

31) Kirchhoff’s junction rule represents ...... (C) Dipole moment of each part will be equal to
[March - 2020] m
that half of m' original dipole
(A) conservation of linear momentum. 2
moment.
(B) conservation of energy.
(D) Pole strength of each part will be equal to
(C) conservation of angular momentum.
original pole strength qm.
(D) conservation of charge. 39) A short bar magnet placed with its axis at 30°
32) Two resistors when connected in series net with a uniform external magnetic field of
resistance is 5 and when they are connected 0.25 T experiences a torque of magnitude 4.5
in parallel net resistance is 1.2 . What are 10–2 J. The magnitude of the magnetic moment
these resistors ? [March - 2020] of the magnet will be ...... J T–1.
(A) 2 , 3 (B) 1 , 4 (A) 0.18 (B) 0.36 (C) 0.54 (D) 0.72
(C) 0.6 , 0.6 (D) 1 , 0.2 40) Meissner effect is observed in ...... substances.
33) A straight wire of mass 200 g and length 1.5 m [March - 2020]
carries a current of 2 A. To suspend it in a air by
(A) ferromagnetic
a uniform horizontal magnetic field, value of
(B) paramagnetic
required magnetic field is ...... T.[March - 2020]
(C) superconducting
(A) 6.5 (B) 0.45 (C) 0.65 (D) 4.5
(D) permanent magnetic
34) SI unit of torsional constant of a spring is ......
41) Dimensional formula of mutual inductance is
Jrad Nm ...... [March - 2020]
(A) (B)
m rad
(A) M1 L2 T–2 A–2 (B) M1 L2 T–2 A–1
Jm (C) M1 L–2 T2 A2 (D) M–1 L–2 T2 A–1
(C) Nm (D)
rad 42) The magnitude of the induced emf is equal to
35) Current sensitivity of galvanometer is inversely the time rate of change of ...... .[March - 2020]
proportional to ...... . [March - 2020] (A) magnetic force (B) electric flux
(A) number of turns (B) torsional constant (C) magnetic flux (D) electric force
(C) area (D) magnetic field 43) One magnet is moved towards a coil, first
speedily and then slowly. Then amount of
36) Frequency of cyclotron is independent of ...... .
electric charge induced would be ......
[March - 2020]
(A) equal in both the cases.
(A) radius of its trajectory
(B) more in first case.
(B) charge of a particle (C) more in second case.
(C) applied magnetic field (D) zero in both the case.
(D) mass of a particle 44) A 15 F capacitor is connected to a 220 V,
37) A circular coil of a wire consisting 100 turns 50 Hz a.c. source. Value of capacitive reactance
each of radius 2 cm carries a current of 0.20 A. is ...... . [March - 2020]
The magnetic field at the centre of the coil is (A) 106 (B) 424 (C) 212 (D) 21.2
...... T. [March - 2020] 45) Unit of C is ......
(A) 2 10–4 (B) 10–4
(A) H (B) (C) (D) Faraday
(C) 3 10 –4 (D) 10–4

38) If bar magnet is divided into two equal part 46) With resistance of 3 value, inductor of
perpendicular to its length then which of the what value should be connected in series so
following is not correct ? that at 50 Hz, frequency phase difference
(A) Each part will act as independent magnet. between voltage and current become 30° ?
(B) Dipole moment of each part will be equal to (A) 0.5 H (B) 0.03 H
that of original dipole moment. (C) 0.05 H (D) 0.01 H
 Board’s Question Papers 11
47) A power transmission line feeds input power at 49) Frequency of FM radio band is from ...... .
3300 V to a step down transformer with its [March - 2020]
primary windings having 2000 turns. What (A) 88 MHz to 108 MHz
should be the number of turns in the
(B) 88 kHz to 108 kHz
secondary in order to get output power at
330 V ? [March - 2020] (C) 54 MHz to 890 MHz
(A) 400 (B) 200 (C) 33 (D) 40 (D) 54 kHz to 890 kHz
50) To destroy cancer cells ...... are used.
1
48) Dimension of is same as dimension of ...... [March - 2020]
(Where = magnetic constant, = dielectric) (A) X-rays
[March - 2020] (B) Gamma rays
(A) square of velocity (B) velocity (C) Ultraviolet rays
(C) acceleration (D) momentum (D) Infrared rays
Time : 2 Hours] PART - B [Total Marks : 50

Section - A 9) Find the minimum wavelength of X-rays

produced by 30 kV electrons.
Answer any 8 of the following given question
10) A nucleus with mass number A = 240 and
1 to 12 : (Each carries 2 marks) [16]
binding energy per nucleon = 7.6 MeV breaks
1) Derive expression for the capacitance of the into two fragments each of A = 120 with binding
parallel plate capacitor. [March - 2020] energy per nucleon = 8.5 MeV. Calculate the
2) Write a note on Mobility. [March - 2020] released energy.
11) Give reason : “If net flux associated with closed
3) The resistance of the platinum wire of a platinum
resistance thermometer at the ice point is 5 surface is zero, then net charge enclosed by that
and at steam point is 5.23 . When it is inserted surface is zero.”
in a hot bath, the resistance of the wire is 5.795 . 12) Can we take one slab of p-type semiconductor
Calculate the temperature of the bath. and physically join it to another n-type
semiconductor to get p-n junction ?
[March - 2020]
4) Derive an expression for magnetic potential Section - B

energy U m m B for a magnetic dipole kept Answer any 6 of the following given questions
13 to 21 : (Each carries 3 marks) [18]
in a uniform magnetic field. [March - 2020]
13) An electron falls through a distance of 1.5 cm in a
5) What is called self-inductance ? Derive an
uniform electric field of magnitude 2 104 NC–1.
expression for self-induced emf. [March - 2020] The direction of the field is reversed keeping its
6) A plane electromagnetic wave of frequency magnitude unchanged and a proton falls through
25 MHz travels in free space along x-direction. the same distance. Compute the time of fall in
At a particular point in space and time, each case. [March - 2020]
E 6.3 ˆj Vm 1 . What is B at this point ? 14) A 600 pF capacitor is charged by a 200 V supply.
It is then disconnected from the supply and is
[March - 2020]
connected to another uncharged 600 pF
7) Derive i + e = A + for a triangular glass prism. capacitor. How much electrostatic energy is lost
[March - 2020] in the process ? [March - 2020]
8) Summarise the photon picture of 15) Derive an expression for the magnetic field at
electromagnetic radiation (any four). any point on the axis of a circular current loop.
[March - 2020] [March - 2020]
 12 Std. - 12 : Physics – 'Kumar'

16) A horizontal power line carries a current of 90 A 23) Derive an expression for current i passing
in east to west direction. What is the magnitude through an AC circuit containing only inductor
and direction of the magnetic field due to the L. Draw a Phasor diagram and graph of and i
current 1.5 m below the line ? [March - 2020] versus t. Explain instantaneous power and the
average power. [March - 2020]
17) A light bulb is rated at 100W for a 220 V supply. Find
24) An early model for an atom considered it to
(a) the resistance of the bulb;
have a positively charged point nucleus of
(b) the peak voltage of the source; and charge Ze, surrounded by a uniform density of
(c) the rms current through the bulb. negative charge up to a radius R. The atom as a
18) Describe Young’s double slit experiment. whole is neutral. For this model, what is the
electric field at a distance r from the nucleus ?
19) In accordance with the Bohr’s model, find the
quantum number that characterises the Earth’s 25) Derive lensmaker’s formula for thin lens.
revolution around the Sun in an orbit of radius [March - 2020]
1.5 1011 m with orbital speed 3 104 ms–1. 26) The distance between the two slits in Young’s
(Mass of the Earth = 6 1024 kg)[March - 2020] experiment is 0.1 mm. The perpendicular
20) Write briefly on n-type semiconductor. distance between the slits and the screen is
1.5 m. The wavelength of the incident light is
21) Explain the barrier potential and depletion
6000 Å. Calculate the distance between third
barrier in p-n junction diode.
bright and fifth dark fringes obtained on the
Section - C screen. [March - 2020]
Answer any 4 of the following given questions 27) Explain the concept of the hole in the
from 22 to 27 : (Each carries 4 marks) [16] semiconductor. Explain with diagram, how
current flows due to electron and hole in pure
22) Determine the current in each branch of the
semiconductor.
given network.
B
5
10

A 5 C
5

10

10 10V
 Paper - 12 Kumar’s Study Target Missile-2

Time : 1 Hour] PART - A [Total Marks : 50

Select the following questions with proper (A) remains a constant because the electric field
alternative and answer it : is uniform.
(B) increases because the charge moves along the
1) The Electric flux through the surface
S electric field.
S (C) decreases because the charge moves along
S S the electric field.
+q +q +q
+q (D) decreases because the charge moves
opposite to the electric field.
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) 7) The SI unit of line integration of electric field
(A) in figure (iv) is the largest. is ......
(B) in figure (iii) is the least. Nm
(A) Vm–1 (B) C (C) NC–1 (D)
(C) in figure (ii) is same as figure (iii) but is C
smaller than figure (iv). 8) Q is the charge on the surface of metal sphere
(D) is the same for all the figures. having radius R. Then the electric potential at
R
2) The electric force acting between two point distance inside the sphere is l......
2
charges kept at a certain distance in vacuum
(A) V = 4pe0R (B) V = 4pe0(2R)
is . If the same two charges are kept at the
same distance in a medium of dielectric 1 Q 1 Q
(C) V (D) V
constant K. The electric force acting between 4 0 2R 4 0 R
them is ...... 9) The potential energy of the positive charge
brought from a point of lower potential to a
(A) (B) K (C) K2 (D) point of higher potential will ......
K
3) Value of Coulombian constant in CGS unit (A) decreases (B) increases
is ...... (C) remains constant (D) disappers
(A) 8.98 × 109 (B) 8.85 × 10–12 10) A parallel plate capacitor with air between
(C) 9 × 109 (D) 1 the plates has a capacitance of 8 pF (1 pF =
10–12 F). What will be the capacitance if the
4) Two identical spheres A and B have charges q distance between the plates is reduced by half
q and the space between them is filled with a
and respectively. If they are brought in
2 substance of dielectric constant 6 ?
contact with each other and then separated, (A) 96 pF (B) 48 pF (C) 24 pF (D) 12 pF
charge on each of them will be
11) A resistance R is to be measured using a meter
q q 3q 3q bridge. Student chooses the standard resistance S
(A) (B) (C) (D) to be 100 . He finds the null point at l1 = 2.9 cm.
2 4 2 4
He is told to attempt to improve the accuracy.
5) A point charge of 2.0 C is at the centre of a Which of the following is a useful way ?
cubic Gaussian surface 9.0 cm on edge. What is (A) He should measure l1 more accurately.
the net electric flux through the surface ? (B) He should change S to 1000 and repeat the
(A) 2.26 105 Nm2C–1 (B) 1.13 105 Nm2C–1 experiment.
(C) 3.77 104 Nm2C–1 (D) 2.0.3 105 Nm2C–1 (C) He should change S to 3 and repeat the
6) A positively charged particle is released from rest experiment.
in an uniform electric field. The electric potential (D) He should give up hope of a more accurate
energy of the charge measurement with a meter bridge.
61
 62 Std. - 12 : Physics – 'Kumar'

12) Resistance of linear conducting wire does not (A) 8 10–3 T (B) 8 10–3 T
depend on ...... (C) 2.5 10–3 T (D) 1.6 10–3 T
(A) temperature 19) The magnetic moment of a bar magnet is
(B) material of wire 5 Wb
2iˆ Am 2 and magnetic field is 10 in +ve
(C) length of wire m2
Y direction. Find out the torque acting on the
(D) shape of cross-section of wire
magnet.
13) Current density in a copper wire is 2.5 108C
(A) 2 10 iˆ Nm (B) 2 10 kˆ Nm
4 5
Am –2 . If 8A current is flowing through it
(D) 2 10 iˆ Nm
5
diameter of the wire is ...... . (C) 0 Nm
(A) 0.2 mm (B) 0.2 cm 20) A cylindrical bar magnet is rotated about its axis
(C) 0.2 m (D) 2 mm as in figure. A wire is connected from the axis
14) The number density of free electrons in a copper and is made to touch the cylindrical surface
conductor estimated in Example 3.1 is 8.5 1028 through a contact. Then
m–3. How long does an electron take to drift from Axis
one end of a wire 3.0 m long to its other end ? The
area of cross-section of the wire is 2.0 10–6 m2 A
and it is carrying a current of 3.0 A. Bar
(A) 72.2 103 s (B) 27.2 103 s magnet
(C) 72.2 s (D) 72.2 s
15) A current carrying circular loop of radius R is
placed in the x-y plane with centre at the origin. (A) a direct current flows in the ammeter A.
Half of the loop with x > 0 is now bent so that
(B) no current flows through the ammeter A.
it now lies in the y-z plane.
(C) an alternating sinusoidal current flows
(A) The magnitude of magnetic moment now
through the ammeter A with a time period
diminishes.
2
(B) The magnetic moment does not change. T
(C) The magnitude of B at (0, 0, z), z > > R (D) a time varying non-sinusoidal current flows
increases. through the ammeter A.
(D) The magnitude of B at (0, 0, z), z > > R is
21) The distance between two extreme points of two
unchanged. wings of an Aeroplane is 50 m. It is flying at a
16) Equal currents are passing through two very speed of 360 km/hr in horizontal direction. If the
long and straight parallel wires in mutually vertical component of earth’s magnetic field at
opposite directions. They will ...... that place is 2 10–4 Wb m–2, the induced emf
(A) attract each other between these two end points is .......... V.
(B) repel each other (A) 0.1 (B) 1.0 (C) 0.2 (D) 0.01
(C) lean towards each other 22) Lenz's law is based on the law of conservation
(D) neither attract nor repel each other. of ...........
17) The angular speed of the charged particle is (A) Electric charge (B) Electric current
independent of ...... (C) Momentum (D) Energy
(A) its mass (B) its linear speed 23) Two concentric circular coils, one of small
(C) charge of particle (D) magnetic field radius r1 and the other of large radius r2, such
18) A closely wound solenoid 80 cm long has 5 that r1 << r2, are placed co-axially with centres
layers of windings of 400 turns each. The coinciding. Obtain the mutual inductance of the
diameter of the solenoid is 1.8 cm. If the current arrangement.
carried is 8.0 A, estimate the magnitude of B r12 0 r12 0 r12 0 r22
inside the solenoid near its centre. (A) (B) (C) (D)
2r2 2r2 r22 2r1
 Kumar’s Study Target Missiles 63
24) To reduce the resonant frequency in an LCR
series circuit with a generator m m

(A) the generator frequency should be reduced.

(B) another capacitor should be added in parallel (C) (D)
to the first.
(C) the iron core of the inductor should be v v
removed. 30) Depth of a well is 5.5 m and refractive index of
water is 1.33, if viewed from the bottom, by
(D) dielectric in the capacitor should be
how much height would the bottom of the well
removed.
appear to be shifted up ?
25) Wattless current is possible in a circuit having
(A) 5.5 m (B) 2.75 m (C) 4.13 m (D) 1.37 m
...... .
31) Consider sunlight incident on a slit of width
(A) only R (B) R and C
104 Å. The image seen through the slit shall
(C) R and L (D) L and C
(A) be a fine sharp slit white in colour at the
26) The ratio of contributions made by the electric center.
field and magnetic field components in the
(B) a bright slit white at the center diffusing to
intensity of an EM wave is
zero intensities at the edges.
(A) c : 1 (B) c2 : 1 (C) 1 : 1 (D) c : 1 (C) a bright slit white at the center diffusing to
27) Speed of electromagnetic waves in vacuum, regions of different colours.
(A) depends on type of source. (D) only be a diffused slit white in colour.
(B) increases from g-rays to radio waves. 32) No. of waves of a certain colour light are 2000
(C) decreases from g-rays to radio waves. in 1 mm distance in air, then what will be
(D) is same for all the parts of electromagnetic wavelength of light in medium of refractive
spectrum. index 1.25 ?
28) The direction of ray of light incident on a (A) 1000 Å (B) 2000 Å (C) 3000 Å (D) 4000 Å
concave mirror is shown by PQ while directions 33) The wavelength of a photon needed to remove
in which the ray would travel after reflection is a proton from a nucleus which is bound to the
shown by four rays marked 1, 2, 3 and 4 (See nucleus with 1 MeV energy is nearly
figure). Which of the four rays correctly shows (A) 1.2 nm (B) 1.2 10–3 nm
the direction of reflected ray ? (C) 1.2 10–6 nm (D) 1.2 101 nm
1 34) If photo-electric effect is not seen with the
Q ultraviolet radiations in a given metal, photo-
2 4 electrons may be emitted with the ........
(A) infrared waves (B) radio waves
C F (C) X-rays (D) visible light
35) On what factor stopping potential depends for
photoelectric effect ?
3
P (A) Amplitude of light wave
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 (B) Frequency of incident photon
29) Chose the correct option from below for the (C) Initial phase
graph of lateral magnification (m) verses image (D) Speed of light
distance (v) of the lens.
36) Monochromatic light of frequency 6.0 1014
m m Hz is produced by a laser. The power emitted is
2.0 10–3 W. How many photons per second,
on an average, are emitted by the source ?
(A) (B) (A) 6 1014 (B) 5 1015
(C) 1.99 1016 (D) 5 1016
v v
 64 Std. - 12 : Physics – 'Kumar'

37) Taking the Bohr radius as a0 = 53 pm, the 45) What is energy released in nuclear fusion of
radius of Li++ ion in its ground state, on the four neucleon of hydrogen in the Sun ?
basis of Bohr’s model, will be about
(A) 200 MeV (B) 26.7 MeV
(A) 53 pm (B) 27 pm
(C) 18 pm (D) 13 pm (C) 0.04 MeV (D) 100 MeV

38) A set of atoms in an excited state decays. 46) The conductivity of a semiconductor increases
(A) in general to any of the states with lower with increase in temperature because
energy. (A) number density of free current carriers
(B) into a lower state only when excited by an increases.
external electric field. (B) relaxation time increases.
(C) all together simultaneously into a lower state. (C) both number density of carriers and
(D) to emit photons only when they collide. relaxation time increase.
39) The ionization energy of 10 times the ionized (D) number density of current carriers increases,
sodium atom ...... relaxation time decreases but effect of
(A) 13.6 eV (B) 13.6 11 eV decrease in relaxation time is much less
than increase in number density.
13.6
(C) eV (D) 13.6 (11)2 eV 47) By increasing the temperature, the specific
11
resistance of a conductor and a semiconductor.
40) The wavelength of spectrum line is inversely
(A) increases for both
proportional to the .........
(B) decreases for both
(A) energy difference
(C) increases, decreases
(B) velocity of electron
(C) number of electrons (D) decreases, increases

(D) none of these 48) We get ...... current through rectifier without
41) One atomic mass unit 1 u = ...... simple filter.
(A) 6.25 1018 kg (B) 9.31 10–31 kg (A) changing direct
(C) 1.66 10–27 kg (D) 931 kg (B) constant direct
42) The average radius of the nucleus is ...... the (C) alternating current
atomic mass number.
(D) A.C.
(A) proportional to
(B) inversely proportional to 49) Trivalent and pentavalent impurities are ......,
respectively in terms of electric.
(C) proportional to cuberoot of
(A) negative and positive
(D) proportional to cube of
(B) positive and negative
43) Relation of equivalence of mass and energy
(C) neutral and neutral
given by Einstein is ......
(A) E = m + c2 (B) E = m – c2 (D) positive and positive
50) Which one of the following diode is in forward
m
(C) E = mc2 (D) E bias ?
c2
(A) –3V –3V
Where E = Energy, m = Mass and c = Velocity
44) Binding energy is measurement of ...... of (B) 2V 4V
nucleus.
(C) –2V +2V
(A) unstability (B) stability
(C) binding (D) none of these (D) +2V –2V
 Kumar’s Study Target Missiles 65
Time : 2 Hours] PART - B [Total Marks : 50

Section - A each is 6.5 10–7 C ? The radii of A and B are

negligible compared to the distance of
Answer any 8 of the following given question
separation.
1 to 12 : (Each carries 2 marks) [16]
(b) What is the force of repulsion if each sphere
1) Two point charges qA = 3 C and qB = – 3 C are
is charged double the above amount, and the
located 20 cm apart in vacuum.
distance between them is halved ?
(a) What is the electric field at the midpoint O
[k = 9 109 Nm2 C–2]
of the line AB joining the two charges ?
14) Derive relation between drift velocity and
(b) If a negative test charge of magnitude
1.5 10–9 C is placed at this point, what is current density and Obtain the equation of
the force experienced by the test charge ? resistivity of metal.
2) ‘At the surface of a charged conductor 15) In the circuit, the current is to be measured.
electrostatic field must be normal to the surface What is the value of the current if the ammeter
at every point’. Explain. as shown in figure.
3) Explain current formed in solid conductor in (a) If a galvanometer with a resistance
presence of external electric field. RG = 60.00
4) Give an explanation of superconductor as (b) If a galvanometer described in (a) but
diamagnetism. converted to an ammeter by a shunt
5) A wheel with 10 metallic spokes each 0.5 m long resistance rS = 0.02 .
is rotated with a speed of 120 rev/min in a plane
(c) If an ideal ammeter with zero resistance ?
normal to the horizontal component of earth’s
A
magnetic field HE at a place. If HE = 0.4 G at the
place, what is the induced emf between the axle
and the rim of the wheel ? Note that 1 G = 10–4 T. 3.00 I1
6) Explain AC voltage applied to a resistor and
explain it with necessary graph.
3.00 V
7) What is linear magnification ? Obtain equation
16) Define an inductor. Derive equation of energy
of linear magnification for concave mirror.
1 2
8) Compare and contrast the interference and U LI stored in inductor..
2
diffraction. 17) A sine voltage of maximum value 283 V, 50 Hz is
9) The threshold frequency for a certain metal is supplied to LCR series AC circuit. In this circuit
3.3 1014 Hz. If light of frequency 8.2 1014 Hz R = 3 , L = 25.48 mH and C = 796 F when
is incident on the metal, predict the cutoff frequency of source is changed then (a) at
voltage for the photoelectric emission. resonance what will be frequency of source ?
10) Explain emission lines and absorption lines. (b) calculate impedance, current and power in
11) Briefly explain the discovery of neutrons and condition of resonance.
how can it be demonstrated ? 18) Obtain the relation between object distance and
12) Give difference between half wave and full wave image distance in terms of refractive index of
rectifiers. medium and radius of curvature for spherically
curved surface.
Section - B
19) In Young’s double-slit experiment using
Answer any 6 of the following given questions
monochromatic light of wavelength , the
13 to 21 : (Each carries 3 marks) [18]
intensity of light at a point on the screen where
13) (a) Two insulated charged copper spheres A path difference is , is K units. What is the
and B have their centres separated by a intensity of light at a point where path
distance of 50 cm. What is the mutual force
of electrostatic repulsion if the charge on difference is ?
3
 66 Std. - 12 : Physics – 'Kumar'

20) Show that wave theory cannot explain 24) Obtain an equation of current for AC voltage
fundamental characteristics of photoelectric applied to an inductor and draw a graph of
effect. V and I.
21) (a) Using the Bohr’s model calculate the speed of 25) Explain how the image is formed by thin convex
the electron in a hydrogen atom in the n = 1, 2, and
3 levels. (b) Calculate the orbital period in each of 1 1 1 1
lens and derive (n21 1)
these levels. u v R1 R2
Section - C 26) A given coin has a mass of 3.0 g. Calculate the
Answer any 4 of the following given questions nuclear energy that would be required to separate
from 22 to 27 : (Each carries 4 marks) [16] all the neutrons and protons from each other. For
simplicity assume that the coin is entirely made
22) Derive the formula for the electric potential
63
energy of system of three charges. of 29 Cu atoms (of mass 62.92960 u).
23) Determine the current in each branch of the 27) How p-n junction diode is formed ? And explain
network shown in figure. depletion layer.
B

4
I2 2 I3

I1 10V I1 I2 + I3
A C
1 I2 + I3 – I1 5V
I1 – I2 2 I3
4

D
 88 CHEMISTRY Std.-12 : Chemistry - ‘Kumar’

2 [052(E)]

Blueprint for Question Paper

NOTE : This blueprint is for the guidance of Students, Teachers, Examiners, Moderators etc. The moderators,
Teachers and experts in higher secondary of the respective subject may do essential changes keeping the
objectives in mind.
• Weightage as per objective :
Higher order thinking skill Total
Objectives Knowledge Understanding Application
Analysis/Synthesis Inference/Evaluation Marks
Part-A Marks 05 13 17 08 07 50
Part-B Marks 05 15 15 08 07 50
Total Marks 10 28 32 16 14 100
• Weightage as per type of question : PART-A
No. Type of Question No. of Questions Total Marks
1. Multiple choice questions 50 50
• Weightage as per type of question : PART-B
No. Type of Question Number of Question Total Marks
Without option With option (Without option)
1. Short Answer Type (SA-I) 08 12 16
2. Short Answer Type (SA-II) 06 09 18
3. Long Answer (LA) 04 06 16
Total 18 27 50
• Chapterwise Weightage of Marks :
Chapterwise Weightage Unitwise
PART-A PART-B Marks
No. Name of Chapter
Marks Without General With General (Without Option)
Option Option
1. Solutions 06 03 07 Unit-1
2. Electrochemistry 06 06 09 31
3. Chemical Kinetics 05 05 09
4. The d-and f-Block Elements 04 05 07 Unit-2
5. Coordination Compounds 05 06 08 20
6. Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 03 05 07
7. Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers 05 07 09
8. Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 06 06 09 Unit-3
9. Amines 06 03 06 49
10. Biomolecules 04 04 04
Total Marks 50 50 75 100

Note : Chapterwise weightage may be change as per different question paper. But unitwise weightage can not
be change.
88
 Paper-2 Board’s Question Paper
(Based on March - 2020)

Time : 1 Hour] PART - A [Total Marks : 50

Select the following questions with proper 7) The decomposition of NH3 on platinum surface
alternative and answer it : is zero order reaction. What is the rate of
1) Which of the following is an example of a solid production of N2 if K = 2.5 10–4 mol L–1 S–1 ?
solution in which the solute is a gas ? [March-2020]
[March-2020] (A) 2.5 10–4 mol L–1 S–1
(A) Amalgam of mercury with sodium (B) 8.3 10–5 mol L–1 S–1
(B) Camphor in nitrogen gas (C) 7.5 10–4 mol L–1 S–1
(C) Solution of hydrogen in palladium (D) 5 10–4 mol L–1 S–1
(D) Oxygen dissolved in water 1
8) Which of the following graph for ln k is
2) We have three aqueous solutions of NaCl T
labelled ‘A’, ‘B’ and ‘C’ with concentrations correct ? [March-2020]
0.1 M, 0.01 M and 0.01 M respectively. The
value or Van’t Hoff factor for these solutions
will be in the order ......... . [March-2020]
(A) ln k (B) ln k
(A) iC = iB = iA (B) iC > iB > iA
(C) iA = iC = iB (D) iB > iA > iC 1 1
3) An electrochemical cell can behave like an T T
electrolytic cell when ............ . [March-2020]
(A) Ecell < Eext. (B) Ecell > Eext.
(C) ln k (D) ln k
(C) Ecell = Eext. (D) Ecell = 0
4) Which is increasing order of the reducing 1 1
power of the following metals on the basis of T T
standard electrode potential ? [March-2020] 9) The role of catalyst is to change ...........
Ag+ / Ag = 0.80 V Mg2+ / Mg = –2.37 V [March-2020]
Hg2+ / Hg = 0.79 V Cr3+ / Cr = –0.74 V (A) Gibbs energy of reaction
(A) Hg < Ag < Mg < Cr (B) Cr < Mg < Ag < Hg (B) Enthalpy of reaction
(C) Mg < Cr < Hg < Ag (D) Ag < Hg < Cr < Mg (C) Equilibrium constant of the reaction
5) °m(HAc) is equal to ........ [March-2020] (D) Activation energy of the reaction
(A) °m(AcH) + °m(KAc) + °m(NaAc) 10) The mixture that forms maximum boiling
(B) °m(HCl) + °m(NaAc) – °m(NaCl) azeotrope is :
(C) °m(KCl) + °m(KAc) – °m(HCl) (A) Heptane + Octane
(D) °m(KCl) + °m(NaAc) – °m(NaCl) (B) Water + Nitric acid
6) While charging the lead storage battery : (C) Ethanol + Water
[March-2020] (D) Acetone + Carbon disulphide
(A) PbSO4 on cathode is changed to Pb. 11) Calculate Van’t Hoff factor (i) for an aqueous
(B) PbSO4 on anode is changed to Pb. solution of K3[Fe(CN)6] having a degree of
(C) PbSO4 on cathode is changed to PbO. dissociation ( ) equal to 0.778.
(D) PbSO4 on anode is changed to PbO2. (A) 4.334 (B) 3.334 (C) 0.222 (D) 2.334
94
 Board’s Question Papers 95
12) A 500g toothpaste sample has 0.2g fluoride. 20) The magnetic moment if a divalent ion in
What is the concentration of fluoride ion in aqueous solution if its atomic number is 25 :
ppm ? [March-2020]
(A) 400 (B) 1000 (C) 250 (D) 200 (A) 2.84 BM (B) 5.92 BM (C) 4.90 BM (D) 3.87 BM
13) Which of the following solution having the 21) Which of the following is amphoteric oxide ?
highest boiling point ?
Mn2O7, CrO3, Cr2O3, CrO, V2O5, V2O4
(A) 0.1 m glucose (B) 0.1 m KCl
[March-2020]
(C) 0.1 m Na2SO4 (D) 0.1 m AlCl3
(A) V2O5, Cr2O3 (B) CrO3, V2O4
14) Which of the following is correct Nernst
equation for the given electrochemical cell ? (C) Mn2O7, CrO (D) Cr2O3, Mn2O7
Al(s) | Al3+ – 22) Which of the following element having
(aq) (0.1 M) || Cl(aq) (0.1 M) | Cl2(g) (1 bar) | Pt
one electron in 5d orbital in its electronic
o 0.059 1 configuration ? [March-2020]
(A) Ecell = Ecell – log 3+ 2
6 [Al ] [Cl – ]6
(A) Pm (B) Tb (C) Nd (D) Gd
o 0.059 [Cl – ]3
(B) Ecell = Ecell – log 23) Which of the following is the most stable
3 [Al 3+ ] complex ? [March-2020]
3+
o 0.059 [Al ] (A) [Fe(H2O)6]3+ (B) [Fe(NH3)6]3+
(C) Ecell = Ecell – log – 3
3 [Cl ]
(C) [Fe(C2O4)3]3– (D) [FeCl6]3–
o 0.059
(D) Ecell = Ecell – log [Al 3+ ]2[Cl – ]6 24) Molecular formula of tetra-ammine-aqua-
6
chloridocobalt(III) chloride is ...............
15) To reduce 1 mol MnO–41 into Mn2+, how much
coulomb electricity is required ? [March-2020]
(A) 96500 C (B) 1.93 105 C (A) [Co(NH3)4 (H2O)Cl]Cl3
(C) 4.83 105 C (D) 9.65 106 C (B) [Co(NH3)4 (H2O)Cl]Cl2
16) The t = 20 s of a first order reaction is 20 s. (C) [Co(NH3 )4(H2O)]Cl3
½
How much time will it take to reduce the
1 th (D) [Co(NH3)4 (H2 O)Cl]3 Cl2
concentration of the reactant to its value ? 25) Which of the following compound has highest
16
(A) 86 (B) 81 (C) 75 (D) 90 reactivity towards SN1 reaction ? [March-2020]
17) When initial concentration of the reactant is (A) C6H5C(CH3)(C6H5)Br (B) C6H5CH2Br
doubled, the half-life period of a zero order (C) C6H5CH(C6H5)Br (D) C6H5CH(CH3)Br
reaction.....
26) Which of the following has the highest dipole
(A) remains unchanged. (B) is halved. moment ? [March-2020]
(C) is tripled. (D) is doubled.
(A) CH2 Cl2 (B) CHCl3 (C) CCl4 (D) CH3Cl
18) Which is paramagnetic from the following ?
27) The position of –Br in the compound in
Fe2+, Zn0, Hg2+, Ti+4
CH3CH = CHC(Br)(CH3)2 can be classified as...
(A) only Fe2+ (B) Zn0 and Ti+4
[March-2020]
(C) Fe22+ and Hg2+ (D) Zn0 and Hg2+
(A) Benzyl (B) Aryl (C) Vinyl (D) Allyl
19) What is hybridization and shape of metal ion
28) The IUPAC name of the major organic product
present in Wilkinson catalyst ?
of the reaction : [March-2020]
(A) sp3d, triagonal pyramid
CH3CH2CH = CH2 + HBr Peroxide
(B) sp3, tetrahedral
(C) dsp2, square planar (A) 1,2-Dibromobutane (B) 2,2-Dibromobutane
(D) d2sp3, octahedral (C) 1-Bromobutane (D) 2-Bromobutane
 96 Std.-12 : Chemistry - ‘Kumar’

29) Possible isomers of monohydric phenol having (A) N=N NH2

molecular formula C7H8O are ...........
NH2
[March-2020]
(B) N=N
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 1 (D) 2
30) The reagent (X) in the given reaction is phenol (C) N=N OH
"X"
Parabromophenol [March-2020]
273 K
(D) HO N=N OH
(A) Br2/CH3COOH (B) Br2/FeBr3
(C) Bromine water (D) Br2/CS2 38) ........... vitamin cannot be stored in a body.

31) Which of the following compound has highest [March-2020]

boiling point ? [March-2020] (A) D (B) C (C) A (D) K
(A) Butan-2-ol (B) Butan-1-ol 39) Which of the following base is not present in
DNA ? [March-2020]
(C) Pentan-1-ol (D) Propan-1-ol
(A) Uracil (B) Adenine
32) Conjugate base of which of the following acid
(C) Guanine (C) Thymine
is weak ? [March-2020]
40) Which of the following pair of protein is
(A) CH3CH2 CH(Br)COOH
globular protein ? [March-2020]
(B) CH3CH2CH(F)COOH
P-keratin, Q-Insulin, R-myosin, S-albumin
(C) CH3 CH2 CH(I)COOH
(A) P, R (B) Q, R (C) R, S (D) Q, S
(D) CH3 CH2 CH(Cl)COOH 41) Thyroxine is iodinated derivative of which
33) Sodium salt of which acid is used as food amino acid ? [March-2020]
preservative ? [March-2020] (A) Tyrosine (B) Cysteine
(A) Phthellic acid (B) Adipic acid (C) Glutamine (D) Tryptophan
(C) Formic acid (D) Benzoic acid 42) Co-ordinate number, oxidation number,
34) Which of the following compound does not number of electrons in d-orbital and number
give reaction with Hinsberg’s reagent ? of unpaired electron of central metal Co in
[Co(NH3)4CO3]ClO4 ?
[March-2020]
(A) 6, 3, 6, 0 (B) 7, 2, 7, 1
(A) Triethyl amine
(C) 6, 2, 7, 3 (D) 7, 1, 6, 4
(B) Tertiary butyl amine
43) Which of the following complex possesses
(C) N-methyl aniline
linkage isomerism ?
(D) 1-methyl cyclohexylamine (A) [Co(NH3)5(NO2)]2+ (B) [Co(H2O)5 CO]3+
35) .............. compound gives Hofmann bromamide (C) [Fe(en)2Cl2]+ (D) None of them
reaction. [March-2020]
44) Mark the correct order of decreasing acidic
(A) Ethyl cyanide (B) Ethenoic acid strength of the following compounds :
(C) Ethenamide (D) Ethenamine OH OH OH OH OH
Cu / HCl
36) The reaction ArN+2Cl– ArCl + N2 + CuCl
is named as ........... [March-2020] OCH3 NO2
(A) Sandmeyer reaction (B) Gatterman reaction NO2 OCH3
(I) (II) (III) (IV) (V)
(C) Claisen reaction (D) Carbylamine reaction
(A) V > IV > II > I > III (B) II > IV > I > III > V
37) Which of following is structural formula of
orange dye ? [March-2020] (C) IV > V > III > II > I (D) V > IV > III > II > I
 Board’s Question Papers 97
45) Phenol on heating with alcoholic KOH and 48) Which of the following order of acidic strength
Chloroform represent which reaction ? is correct for the following compounds ?
(A) Reimer-Tiemann (B) Kolbe-Schmitt COOH COOH COOH COOH
(C) Gatermann (D) Cannizaro NO 2
46) Which is Hell-Volhard-Zelinsky reaction ? (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(i) X 2 / Red phosphorus NO 2 CH 3

(A) RCH2 COOH H 2O
RCH – COOH (X = Cl, Br) (A) (ii) < (i) < (iv) < (iii) (B) (iii) < (iv) < (i) < (ii)
|
(C) (iii) < (iv) < (ii) < (i) (D) (ii) < (iv) < (i) < (iii)
X
LiAlH 4 49) Which product is not obtained by aldol
(B) RCOOH RCH2OH
condensation reaction between propanal and
+ NH3 , ethanal ?
(C) RCOOH RCONH2
H2O
(A) but-2-enal (B) 2-methylbut-2-enal
H3O+
(D) RCOOH + R'OH RCOOR' + H2 O
(C) 3-methylpent-2-enal (D) pent-2-enal
47) The carboxyl functional group (–COOH) is
50) Molality 30% w/w aqueous solution of NaOH
present in ...........
is.... [March-2020]
(A) Picric acid (B) Barbituric acid
(A) 10.71 m (B) 8.32 m (C) 7.5 m (D) 9.17 m
(C) Ascorbic acid (D) Aspirin

Time : 2 Hours] PART - B [Total Marks : 50

Section - A 11) Write the reaction equation to show the presence

of –CHO and CO group in Glucose.
Write the answer of any 8 questions from given
question number 1 to 12. (Each of 2 marks) [16] [March-2020]
1) Write two difference order of reaction and 12) Give explanation about hetrocyclic base present
molecularity. [March-2020] in structure of nucleic acid (Structure are not
2) Write reactions occurring at anode and cathode required).
in mercury cell.
Section - B
3) Draw structures of geometrical isomers of
Write the answer of any 6 questions from given
[Fe(NH3)2(CN)4]– . [March-2020]
question number 13 to 21. (Each of 3 marks) [18]
4) Write any four limitations of valence bond
theory of complex compound. [March-2020] 13) Calculate (a) molality (b) molarity and (c) mole
fraction of KI if the density of 20% (w/w)
5) What is meant by ‘Disproportionation’ of an
aqueous KI is 1.202g mL–1.
oxidation state ? Give an example.
14) Write a note on Lead-stroage cell.
6) Give Reason : TiCl3 is paramagnetic while TiCl4
is diamagnetic. 15) Derive the formula of first order reaction for,
7) Write two step-equation for the following (i) Rate constant K,
conversion : Benzene to Diphenyl [March-2020] (ii) Half life period t 1 (graph is not required).
2
8) Give difference between SN1 and SN2 (Any two [March-2020]
points).
16) Describe the preparation of potassium dichromate
9) Write chemical reaction to form Salicylic acid from iron chromite ore with equation.
from phenol.
[March-2020]
10) Write the reaction of aniline and ethenamine
17) Give reactions of aryl halides with metals.
with nitrous acid. [March-2020]
 98 Std.-12 : Chemistry - ‘Kumar’

18) Write the equation of the reaction of hydrogen solution is 520 , calculate the conductivity and
iodide with : [March-2020] molar conductivity of 0.03 mol L–1 KCl solution.
(i) 1-Propoxypropane The conductivity of 0.1 mol L–1 KCl solution is
1.29 S m–1. [March-2020]
(ii) Methoxybenzene
24) For a first order reaction, show that time required
(iii) Benzyl ethyl ether
for 99% completion is twice the time required
19) Write reduction reaction of aldehyde and ketone
for the completion of 90% of reaction.
by Wolff-Kishner reduction reaction.
25) (i) Explain that complex [Ti(H2O)6]3+ is voilet in
20) Explain bromination of aniline by electrophilic
colour, on the basis of crystal field theory.
substitution reaction.
(ii) Discuss the nature of bonding in metal
21) How will you convert 4-nitrotoluene to
carbonyls. [March-2020]
2-bromobenzoic acid ?
26) Give only chemical equation for following
Section - C reaction :
Write the answer of any 4 questions from given (i) Ethanol heating with conc. H2SO4 at 413 K
question number 22 to 27. (Each of 4 marks) [16] tempreture.
22) Two elements A and B form compounds having (ii) Phenol react with conc. HNO3.
formula AB2 and AB4. When dissolved in 20g of (iii) Preparation of anisol from phenol.
benzene (C6H6), 1g of AB2 lowers the freezing (iv) Preparatin of benzene from phenol.
point by 2.3 K whereas 1g of AB4 lowers it by
27) (i) Explain Tollen’s test for identification of
1.3 K. The molar depression constant for
aldehyde with chemical equation.
benzene is 5.1 K kg mol–1 . Calculate atomic
masses of A and B. [March-2020] (ii) Write only equation of propanone of the
following reactions.
23) Resistance of conductivity cell filled with 0.1
mol L–1 KCl solution is 100 . If the resistance of (a) Wolff-kishner reductions
the same cell when filled with 0.03 mol L–1 KCl (b) Aldol condensation [March-2020]
 Kumar’s Study Target Missiles 139

Paper-12 Kumar’s Study Target Missile-2

Time : 1 Hour] PART-A [Total Marks : 50

Select the following questions with proper 7) AgNO 3 solution can’t be stored in copper
alternative and answer it : vessels because....
1) Which of the following is not a colligative – – – –
(A) E Ag+ |Ag > E Cu 2+ | Cu (B) E Ag+ | Ag < E Cu2+ | Cu
property ?
(A) Elevation of boiling point – –
(C) E Ag+ | Ag E
Cu 2+ | Cu
(D) Ag is precious metal
(B) Freezing point
8) If hydrogen electrodes dipped in two solutions
(C) Osmotic pressure of pH = 3 and pH = 6 are connected by a salt
(D) Relative lowering in vapour pressure bridge the emf is....
2) What are the mole fractions of solute in a (A) 0.177V (B) 0.3V (C) 0.052V (D) 0.104V
4.5m aqueous solution of a substance ? 9) Which of the following is used as layer in
(A) 0.45 (B) 0.075 (C) 0.045 (D) 0.75 galvanization ?
3) For the following statements choose from the (A) Pb (B) Cr (C) Cu (D) Zn
correct order option with respect to True (T) 10) 3F of electricity are passed through molten
and False (F) statements. Al2O3, aqueous solution of CuSO4 and molten
(i) A saturated solution remains saturated at NaCl taken in three different electrolytic cells.
any temperature. The amount of Al, Cu and Na deposited at the
(ii) Osmotic pressure is an excellent method cathods will be in the ratio.
for determining the molecular mass of (A) 3 : 4 : 6 (B) 2 : 1 : 6 (C) 3 : 2 : 1 (D) 2 : 3 : 6
polymer materials. 11) What is the values of G, equilibrium constant
(iii) 35% V/V solution of ethylene glycol an K and Eocell for the spontaneous reaction ?
antifreeze. (A) +ve, <1, –ve (B) –ve, >1, +ve
(iv) When no association and dissociation in (C) –ve, <1, +ve (D) –ve, <1, –ve
solution then Van’t Hoff factor (i) is greater 12) Which compound acts as an reducing agent
than one. in Ni – Cd cell ?
(A) F T T F (B) F T F F (C) T T F T (D) T T T F (A) Ni (B) Cd (C) Ni(OH)3 (D) CdO
4) Cylinders containing which gas mixture are 13) Calculate the emf of the cell in which the
currently used by Scuba divers ? following reaction :
(A) 11.7% N2, 32.1% O2, 56.2% He Ni(s) + 2Ag+(0.003 M) Ni2+(0.260 M) + 2Ag(s)
(B) 11.7% He, 56.2% N2, 32.1% Cl2 [E°cell = 1.05 V]
(C) 11.7% He, 56.2% N2, 32.1% O2 (A) 0.92 V (B) 0.99 V (C) 0.94 V (D) 1.03 V
(D) 11.7% O2, 56.2.% He, 32.1% N2 14) An increase in the concentration of the
5) When 500g of a 25% w/w NaOH solution and reactants of a reaction leads to change in....
500g of a 15% w/w NaOH solution are mixed (A) heat of reaction (B) threshold energy
the resulting solution has a molality of ........ (C) collision frequency (D) activation energy
–1
[Molar mass of NaOH = 40g mol ] 15) The rate of reaction becomes two times for
(A) 12.74 m (B) 6.25 m (C) 8.5 m (D) 3.8 m every 10oC rise in temperature. How much will
6) pH of 0.1 M monobasic acid is found to be 2. the rate of reaction will increase, when the
Hence its osmotic pressure at given temperature temperature is increased from 10oC to 80oC ?
T K ........... (A) 256 times (B) 512 times
(A) 0.11 RT (B) 0.2 RT (C) 0.1 RT (D) 0.22 RT (C) 128 times (D) 64 times
139
 140 Std.-12 : Chemistry - ‘Kumar’

16) The rate constant of a first order reaction is 26) Which of the following complex ion possesses
1.15 10 –2 s –1 . How long will 5g of this optical isomerism ?
reactant take to reduce to 3g ?
(A) [Cu(NH3)4]2+ (B) [ZnCl4]2–
(A) 444.3 s (B) 4.443 s (C) 44.43 s (D) 0.4443 s
(C) [Cr(C2O4)3]3– (D) [Co(CN)6]3–
17) Doubling the original concentration of a
reactant halves the half-life time of the 27) Which haloalkane will react more easily with
reaction, so what will be the order of the aqueous KOH ?
reaction ? (A) 1-Bromo butane
(A) 0.5 (B) 1 (C) 0 (D) 2 (B) 2-Bromo butane
18) Which lanthanoid element would have the (C) 2-Bromo-2-methyl propane
electronic configuration [Xe]4f7 5d1 6s2 ?
(D) 2-Chloro butane
(A) Lu (B) Tb (C) Sm (D) Gd
28) CCl4 is used as a fire extinguisher because...
19) Find out why Zr (Z = 40) and Hf (Z = 72) have
the same atomic and ionic radius from the (A) its boiling point is low.
following ? (B) it is liquid.
(A) Lanthanoid contraction (C) it steam is non-flammable.
(B) Have similar chemical properties (D) it is a permanent solid.
(C) Due to same group
Na/ether
29) R– X 2,2,3,3-tetramethyl butane.
(D) Diagonal relationship
What is “R” in reaction.
20) Which alloy does not contain Ni metal ?
(A) German silver (B) Bronze (A) CH3CH2 (B) (CH3)2CH
(C) Stainless steel (D) Nichrome (C) (CH3)3C (D) (CH3)2CHCH2
21) Name a transition element which does not 30) Which of the following compounds will have
exhibit variable oxidation states. the highest boiling point ?
(A) Sc (B) Ti (C) V (D) Cr (A) Ethane (B) Butane
22) Shape of [Fe(CO)5] complex .......... (C) Pantane (D) Butan-2-ol
(A) Tetrahedral (B) Octahedral 31) Arrange the following in order of decreasing
(C) Trigonal bipyramidal acidity.
(D) Pyramidal OH OH OH OH
23) Which of the following complex ions do not
have electrons in the d-orbital of the central ; ; ;
metal atom ?
(A) [MnO4]– (B) [Co(NH3)6]3+ Cl CH3 NO2 OCH3
(I) (II) (III) (IV)
(C) [Fe(CN)6]3– (D) [Cr(H2O)6]3+
(A) II > IV > I > III (B) I > II > III > IV
24) Which of the following hybridisation is found
(C) III > I > II > IV (D) IV > III > I > II
in [MnO4]– ?
(A) sp3 (B) dsp2 (C) d3s (D) sp3d2 32) Which compound having maximum value of
pKa from following ?
25) Which of the following is the correct order of
increasing field strength of ligands to form co- (A) m-Nitrophenol (B) p-Nitrophenol
ordination compounds ? (C) Phenol (D) p-Cresol
(A) H2O < OH– < Cl– < F– < CN– 33) State the C – O – C bond angle and
(B) CN– < H2O < OH– < Cl– < F– hybridisation of oxygen in simple ether.
(C) F– < CN– < OH– < Cl– < H2O (A) 109°, sp3 (B) 111.7°, sp3
(D) Cl– < F– < OH– < H2O < CN– (C) 117°, sp2 (D) 180°, sp
 Kumar’s Study Target Missiles 141
34) Williamson synthesis is ......... (A) C2H5NH2 (B) C6H5NH2
(A) SN reaction (B) SN1 reaction (C) (C2H5)2NH (D) (C2H5)3N
(C) SN2 reaction (D) not even one 43) Which of the following is not a method for
35) Dehydration of 3°-alcohol occurs in the making amines or separating amines ?
presence of ? (A) Wurtz reaction (B) Hoffmann reaction
(A) Conc. H2SO4 (B) 50% H3PO4 (C) Curtius reaction (D) Hinsberg method
(C) 85% H3PO4 (D) 20% H3PO4
44) Why does aniline turn red when exposed to
36) How many mL of dihydrogen gas will be air ?
produced at STP when ethanol is treated with
(A) By reduction (B) By hydrogenation
6g of Mg ? (Mg = 24g / mol)
(C) By dehydration (D) By oxidation
(A) 11200 mL (B) 22400 mL
(C) 5600 mL (D) 2800 mL 45) Which of the following compounds is not
formed by Sandmeyer process ?
37) Which of the following aldehyde does not give
Fehling Test ? (A) C6H5Cl (B) C6H5Br (C) C6H5I (D) C6H5CN
(A) Acetaldehyde (B) Benzaldehyde 46) Reduction of which compound forms a
(C) Formaldehyde (D) Propionaldehyde 2o-amine ?
38) Which of the following compounds will yield (A) Nitrile (B) Isonitrile
acetoxym ? (C) Nitro (D) Amide
(A) Ethanol (B) Propanol 47) Which Vitamin deficiency causes night
(C) Ethanal (D) Propanone blindness ?
Jones (A) B2 (B) A (C) E (D) C
39) CH3(CH2)8CH2OH CH3(CH2)8COOH
reagent 48) Glucose does not process with which of the
Which of the following is Jones reagent ? following reagents ?
(A) Alkaline KMnO 4 (B) Acidic KMnO4 (A) Ammoniacal silver nitrate
(C) CrO3 – H2 SO 4 (D) K2Cr2 O7 – NaOH (B) Fehling solution
40) Which of the following is most acidic ?
(C) Phenyl hydrazine (D) Schiff’s reagent
(A) CH3COOH (B) CHCl2COOH
49) By which bond are the different amino acids
(C) CCl3COOH (D) CH3CH2COOH connected to each other in a protein molecule ?
41) Which of the following acids has the lowest
(A) -Glycosidic bond (B) Peptide bond
pKa value ?
(C) -Glycosidic bond (D) Hydrogen bond
(A) HCOOH (B) CH3COOH
50) Which of the following acids is a non-essential
(C) CH3CH2COOH (D) (CH3)2CHCOOH
amino acid ?
42) With Hinsberg’s reagent ......... the compound
does not process. (A) Valine (B) Leucine (C) Alanine (D) Lysine

Time : 2 Hours] PART-B [Total Marks : 50

Section - A 3) Silver atom has completely filled d-orbitals

(4d10 ) in its ground state. How can you say
Write the answer of any 8 questions from given that it is a transition element.
question number 1 to 12. (Each of 2 marks) [16] 4) Draw structure of chromate ion (CrO42– ) and
1) What is metallic or electronic conductivity ? dichromate ion (Cr2O72–).
It depends on what basis ? 5) Give IUPAC name :
2) The rate of the chemical reaction doubles for (1) [Cr(en)3] [CrIII(OX)3]
an increase of 10K in absolute temperature
(2) [Co(H2NCH2CH2NH3)3]2(SO4)3
from 298K. Calculate Ea.[R = 8.314 JK–1 mol–1]
 142 Std.-12 : Chemistry - ‘Kumar’

6) Give evidence that [Co(NH 3 ) 5 Cl]SO 4 and 19) Write the reactions for preparation of carboxylic
[Co(NH3)5SO4]Cl are ionisation isomers. acid from aldehyde, nitrile and Grignard
7) Give conversion (Two steps) : reagent with CO2.
Ethanol to But-1-ene 20) Explain amonolysis of alkyl halide compounds.

8) Give uses of CCl4. 21) Give conversion :

Aniline to 4-Nitro Aniline (p-Nitro Aniline)
9) Write only chemical formula (equation) of
Friedel-Crafts reactions of anisole. Section - C
10) Explain : Gatterman-Koch reaction. Write the answer of any 4 questions from given
11) Explain : Maltose is a reducing sugar. question number 22 to 27. (Each of 4 marks) [16]
12) Give information about Glycogen. 22) A solution containing 30g of non-volatile solute
exactly in 90g of water has a vapour pressure
Section - B of 2.8 kPa at 298 K. Further, 18g of water is
Write the answer of any 6 questions from given then added to the solution and the new
vapour pressure becomes 2.9 kPa at 298 K.
question number 13 to 21. (Each of 3 marks) [18]
Calculate :
13) What are Isotonic, Hypertonic and Hypotonic
solutions ? Explain. (i) Molar mass of the solute.

14) Write a note on standard hydrogen electrode. (ii) Vapour pressure of water at 298 K.

15) The first order rate constant for the 23) (1) What is saltbridge ? State the function of
saltbridge.
decomposition of ethyl iodide by the reaction
(2) Predict the products of electrolysis in each
C2H5I(g) C2H4(g) + HI(g)
of the following.
at 600K is 1.60 10 –5 s –1 . Its energy of
(a) An aqueous solution of AgNO 3 with
activation is 209 kJ/mol. Calculate the rate
platinum electrodes.
constant of the reaction at 700K.
(b) An aqueous solution of CuCl 2 with
16) Write a note on oxides and oxoanions of platinum electrodes.
transition elements. 24) Explain collision theory of chemical reactions.
17) What is retention and inversion of configuration ? 25) What is ligand ? Explain classification of ligand.
Explain with suitable example.
26) Explain Nitration and Bromination of phenol.
18) Give only chemical formula to form following 27) (a) Draw structure of Phthaldehyde and
substances from phenol. Valeraldehyde.
(a) Phenyl acetate (b) p-Bromophenol (b) Write preparation of phthalic acid to
(c) Benzoquenone phthalimide.
 206 BIOLOGY Std.-12 : Biology - ‘Kumar’

5 [056(E)]

Blueprint for Question Paper

NOTE : This blueprint is for the guidance of Students, Teachers, Examiners, Moderators etc. The moderators, Teachers
and experts in higher secondary of the respective subject may do essential changes keeping the objectives in mind.
• Weightage as per objective :
Higher order thinking skill Total
Objectives Knowledge Understanding Application
Analysis/Synthesis Inference/Evaluation Marks
Part-A Marks 05 15 15 08 07 50
Part-B Marks 05 15 15 09 06 50
Total Marks 10 30 30 17 13 100
• Weightage as per type of question : PART-A
No. Type of Questions No. of Questions Total Marks
1. Multiple choice questions 50 50
• Weightage as per type of question : PART-B
No. of Questions
No. Type of Questions Total Marks
Without Option With Option
1. Short Questions (SA-I) 08 12 16
2. Short Questions (SA-II) 06 09 18
3. Long Questions (LA) 04 06 16
Total 18 27 50
• Weightage as per Chapter :
Chapterwise Weightage Unitwise
No. Name of Chapter Part-A Part-B Weightage
Marks Without general With general (Without general
Option Option Option)
1. Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants (09) 05 04 04 Unit-1
2. Human Reproduction (09) 02 07 11 (25)
3. Reproductive Health (07) 05 02 04
4. Principles of Inheritance and Variation (09) 03 06 10 Unit-2
5. Molecular Basis of Inheritance (09) 04 05 05 (26)
6. Evolution (08) 05 03 05
7. Human Health and Disease (08) 02 06 09 Unit-3
8. Microbes in Human Welfare (07) 04 03 05 (15)
9. Biotechnology : Principles and Processes (08) 04 04 04 Unit-4
10. Biotechnology and its Applications (08) 05 03 06 (16)
11. Organisms and Populations (06) 04 02 04 Unit-5
12. Ecosystem (06) 04 02 05 (18)
13. Biodiversity and Conservation (06) 03 03 03
Total Marks 50 50 75 100
Note : Chapterwise weightage may be change as per different question paper. But unitwise weightage can not be change.
206
 212 Std.-12 : Biology - ‘Kumar’

Paper-2 Board’s Question Paper

(Based on March - 2020)

Time : 1 Hour] PART - A [Total Marks : 50

Select the following questions with proper 9) The most important cause driving animals and
alternative and answer it : plants to extinctions is.... [March-2020]
1) Cry I Ac and Cry I Ab encoded proteins ........... (A) Alien species invasions
and ........... control respectively. [March-2020] (B) Over - exploitation
(A) Lepidoptera - Coleoptera (C) Habitat loss and fragmentation
(B) Corn borer - Cotton boll worms (D) Co-extinctions
(C) Cotton boll worms - corn borer 10) In India now ......... National parks and ........
(D) Coleoptera - Lepidoptera wild life sanctuaries. [March-2020]
2) Insulin Chain A and Chain B are linked together (A) 110 - 548 (B) 90 - 448
by...... [March-2020] (C) 75 - 348 (D) 90 - 248
(A) Sulphur bond (B) Disulfide bond 11) Wind-pollinated flowers are....
(C) Peptide bond (D) Hydrogen bond (A) small, brightly coloured, producing large
3) Rosie is the.... [March-2020] number of pollen grains.
(A) Transgenic Cow (B) small, producing large number of dry pollen
(B) Transgenic Vaccine grain.
(C) Transgenic Plant (C) large, producing abundant nectar and pollen.
(D) Transgenic disease controller (D) small, producing nectar and dry pollen.
4) ......... is the region on which, the ovule is 12) Following statements are given regarding MTP.
connected to funicle. [March-2020] Choose the correct options given below :
(A) Micropylar region (B) Chalaza (i) MTPs are generally advised during first
(C) Hilum (D) Nucellus trimester.
5) Select the statement which explains best (ii) MTPs are used as a contraceptive method.
parasitism. [March-2020] (iii) MTPs are always surgical.
(A) One organism is benefited, other is not affected. (iv) MTPs require the assistance of qualified
(B) Both the organisms are benefited. medical personnel.
(C) Both the organisms are affected. (A) i and iii (B) ii and iii
(D) One organism is benefited, other is affected. (C) i and iv (D) i and ii
6) The annual net primary productivity of the 13) A national level approach to build up a
whole biosphere is approximately ......... (dry reproductively healthy society was taken up in
weight) of organic matter. [March-2020] our country in .........
(A) 190 billion tons (B) 150 billion tons (A) 1950s (B) 1960s (C) 1980s (D) 1990s
(C) 170 billion tons (D) 210 billion tons
14) Identify the name of X and Y in transfer RNA
7) The pyramid of biomass in sea is generally. loop.
[March-2020] (A) X = Variable loop,
(A) Linear (B) Inverted (C) Upright (D) Cyclic Y
Y = D loop
8) log S = log C + Z log A equation indicates ........
(B) X = Anticodon loop,
(A) Loss of biodiversity [March-2020]
Y = D loop
(B) Biodiversity
(C) X = Anticodon loop,
(C) Species area relationships X
Y = Acceptor chain
(D) Latitudinal gradient
(D) X = D loop, Y = Variable loop
212
 Board’s Question Papers 213
15) Pollen grains are well preserved as fossils (A) IUI (B) MTP (C) STI
because of the presence of... [March-2020] (D) Non infectious diseases
(A) Lignin (B) Pectin 24) Expression of only one of the parental
(C) Cellulose (D) Sporopollenin characters in the F1 and expression of both in
16) A typical angiosperm embryo sac, at maturity, the F2, can be explained by.... [March-2020]
though ......... is ......... [March-2020] (A) Law of Dominance (B) Punnett square
(A) 6 nucleate - 7 celled (B) 7 nucleate - 8 celled (C) Law of segregation (D) Multiple alleles
(C) 8 nucleate - 7 celled (D) 7 nucleate - 6 celled 25) .......... is mendelian disorder. [March-2020]
17) Some seeds such as black pepper and beet (A) Klinefelter’s syndrome
remnants nucellus persist is known as : (B) Cystic fibrosis
[March-2020] (C) Turner’s syndrome
(A) Albuminous (B) Non albuminous (D) Down’s syndrome
(C) Perisperm (D) Pericarp 26) -Thalassemia and -Thalassemia linked
18) Testicular hormones like androgens are genes are located on which chromosomes
synthesized by.... [March-2020] respectively. [March-2020]
(A) Spermatogonia (B) Leydig cells (A) on 18 and 11 (B) on 11 and 16
(C) Sertoli cells (D) Sermatozoa (C) on 16 and 11 (D) on 12 and 18
19) Which hormone is involved in induction of 27) N-Glycosidic linkage contains... [March-2020]
parturition ? [March-2020] (A) Triglyceride (B) Dipeptide
(A) Progesterone (B) Relaxin (C) Disaccharide (D) Nucleoside
(C) Oxytocin (D) Estrogen 28) 5-Methyl uracil means .......... [March-2020]
20) Match the following and choose the correct (A) Guanine (B) Uracil
option. [March-2020] (C) Thymine (D) Cytosine
Column - I Column - II 29) The Genome containing all the coding and non
coding sequence with function is termed as.....
(i) Salmonella typhi (p) Malaria
[March-2020]
(ii) Plasmodium (q) Typhoid
(A) Bacterial artificial chromosomes
(iii) Entamoeba histolytica (r) Ringworm
(B) Sequence Annotation
(iv) Epidermophyton (s) Amoebiasis
(C) Expressed sequence Tags
(A) (i - q), (ii - r), (iii - s), (iv - p)
(D) Yeast artificial chromosomes
(B) (i - r), (ii - q), (iii - p), (iv - s)
30) The bones of forelimbs have similar anatomical
(C) (i - q), (ii - p), (iii - s), (iv - r)
structure is ............ [March-2020]
(D) (i - p), (ii - q), (iii - r), (iv - s)
(A) Peripheral evolution
21) The early embryo (upto 8 blastomeres) can be
(B) Divergent evolution
transferred into the fallopian tube is knows as
(C) Convergent evolution
[March-2020]
(D) Radial evolution
(A) IUI (B) IUT (C) ZIFT (D) ICSI
31) Diagrammatic representation of the operation
22) Lactational amenorrhea means : [March-2020] of natural selection two peaks are formed. This
(A) Corpus luteum degenerates. condition shows ......... effect of [March-2020]
(B) Begins of menstruation. (A) Disruptive (B) Directional
(C) Absence of menstruation during intense (C) Stabilising (D) Distractive
Lactation. 32) The brain capacities of homoerectus was......
(D) Absence of Lactation. [March-2020]
23) Diseases like chalmydiosis, trichomoniasis and (A) 650 - 800 CC (B) 1400 CC
syphilis are known as... [March-2020]
(C) 900 CC (D) 1200 CC
 214 Std.-12 : Biology - ‘Kumar’

33) During evolution ............ evolved into first 43) Many members of the genus .......... form
amphibians. [March-2020] mycorrhiza. [March-2020]
(A) Reptiles (B) Cartilagenous fish (A) Glomus (B) Saccharomyces
(C) Bony fish (D) Lobe fins (C) Trichoderma (D) Monascus
34) In sea urchin DNA, which is double stranded, 44) Flocs means ........... [March-2020]
17% of the bases were shown to be cytosine.
(A) Masses of bacteria associated with fungal
The percentages of the three bases expected to
be present in this DNA are : filaments to from mesh like structure.
(A) G 34%, A 24.5%, T 24.5% (B) Anaerobic sludge
(B) G 17%, A 16.5%, T 32.5% (C) Activated sludge
(C) G 17%, A 33%, T 33% (D) Primary sludge
(D) G 8.5%, A 50%, T 24.5% 45) The Lady bird and Dragonflies are useful to get
35) Interferons are considered as .......... type of rid of ........... [March-2020]
barrier. [March-2020] (A) Housefly and Mosquitoes
(A) Cellular (B) Physiological (B) Aphids and Mosquitoes
(C) Physical (D) Cytokine (C) Aphids and rotifers
36) Colostrum has abundant antibodies .........
(D) Cockroach and Locust
[March-2020]
46) Fragments of DNA can be separated by a
(A) Ig M (B) Ig G (C) Ig A (D) Ig E
technique known as.... [March-2020]
37) The cancer patients are given substance called
(A) Biolistics (B) Microinjection
biological response modifiers such as ..........
(C) Selectable marker (D) Gel electrophoresis
[March-2020]
(A) -Interferon (B) -Interferon 47) ............ have the ability to transform normal
(C) -Interferon (D) -Interferon cells into cancerous cells. [March-2020]
38) Which of the following is not required in the (A) Bacteriophage (B) Retrovirus
preparation of recombinant DNA molecule ? (C) Rhinovirus (D) T.M.V.
(A) Restriction endonuclease 48) Which enzymes are responsible for breaking
(B) DNA ligase the wall of bacterial cell, plant cell and fungus
(C) DNA fragments (D) E. coli cell respectively ? [March-2020]
39) The site of production of ADA in the body is (A) Chitinase, Cellulase, Lysozyme
(A) Erythrocytes (B) Lymphocytes (B) Cellulase, Chitinase, Lysozyme
(C) Blood plasma (D) Osteocytes (C) Lysozyme, Cellulase, Chitinase
40) A protoxin is... (D) Lysozyme, Chitinase, Cellulase
(A) A primitive toxin. (B) A denatured toxin. 49) The formula of population density is.........
(C) Toxin produced by protozoa.
[March-2020]
(D) Inactive toxin.
(A) Nt + l = Nt + [(B – I) – (D + E)]
41) Toddy a traditional drink is made by fermenting
sap from ............ [March-2020] (B) Nt + l = Nt + [(B + I) – (D + E)]
(A) Palms (B) Soyabean (C) Nt + l = Nt + [(D + E) – (B + I)]
(C) Tomato (D) Bamboo shoots (D) Nt + l = Nt + [(B + I) – (D – E)]
42) Bottle fruit juices brought from market are 50) Which of the following scientist pointed out
clearer as compared to those made at home , and type of species diversity ?
because the bottled juices are clarified by the (A) Eichler
use of ........... [March-2020]
(B) R.H. Whittaker
(A) Pectinases and Proteases
(C) Linneus
(B) Proteases
(D) Benthum and Huxley
(C) Pectineases (D) Streptokinase
 Board’s Question Papers 215
Time : 2 Hours] PART - B [Total Marks : 50

Section - A 14) Explain Hardy-weinberg principle. [March-2020]

Write the answer of any 8 questions from given 15) Explain innate immunity. [March-2020]
question number 1 to 12. (Each of 2 marks) [16]
16) Explain Antibiotics. [March-2020]
1) Are pollination and fertilisation necessary in
apomixis ? Give reasons. 17) Write the uses of G.M.O. [March-2020]

2) Explain the structure of pollen grain. 18) Describe productivity as a unit of Ecosystem.
[March-2020] [March-2020]
3) Explain the types of natural birth control method.
19) Describe any three causes of Biodiversity losses.
[March-2020]
[March-2020]
4) Explain vaccination and immunisation.
[March-2020] 20) Give information about pills and implants used
5) Explain co-dominance in human with example. as contraceptive.
[March-2020] 21) Give information about production of Genetically
6) Write the biochemical characterisation of Engineered Insulin.
Transforming principle in human. [March-2020]
Section - C
7) Explain population growth. [March-2020]
Write the answer of any 4 questions from given
8) Explain the word difference : Non-medicated IUD
and Copper IUD. question number 22 to 27. (Each of 4 marks) [16]

9) Explain the three important levels of biodiversity. 22) Write a note on lymphoid organs.
[March-2020] 23) Describe pregnancy and embryonic development.
10) State the limitations of ecological pyramid.
[March-2020]
11) What for Nucleopolyhydro viruses are being used
now a days ? 24) What is point mutation ? Describe it with example.

12) S-shaped and J-shaped growth curve. [March-2020]

Section - B 25) Explain packaging of DNA Helix. [March-2020]

Write the answer of any 6 questions from given 26) Explain restriction enzymes in detail. (Fig. is not
question number 13 to 21. (Each of 3 marks) [18] necessary) [March-2020]
13) Give the important features of genetic code. 27) What is embryo ? Explain structure of monocot
[March-2020] and dicot embryo.
 254 Std.-12 : Biology - ‘Kumar’

Paper-12 Kumar’s Study Target Missile-2

Time : 1 Hour] PART - A [Total Marks : 50

Select the following questions with proper alternative and answer it :
1) Given below is the representation of the extent of global diversity of invertebrates. What groups the
four portions (a-d) represent respectively ?
a b c d
(A) Insects Crustaceans Other animal groups Molluscs c d
b
(B) Crustaceans Insects Molluscs Other animal groups a
(C) Molluscs Other animal groups Crustaceans Insects
(D) Insects Molluscs Crustaceans Other animal groups

2) Which option is correct for the given statement (A) Fragmentation (B) Leaching
X, Y and Z ? (C) Mineralization (D) Humification
X : Colombia has 1400 species of birds, New 8) Verhulst - Pearl Logistic Growth is described by
York has 105 species of birds, whereas,
the following equation :
Greenland has 56 species of birds.
Y : There is increase in biodiversity as one dt K dN
(A) rN (B) rN
moves from polar region to equator region. dN K– N dt
Z : More solar energy is available in tropics. dN K– N dN K+ N
(A) X and Z are correct and Y is wrong. (C) rN (D) rN
dt K dt K
(B) X, Y and Z are correct and Y and Z gives
9) Gause's principle of competitive exclusion states
correct explanation for X.
that....
(C) X is correct, Y and Z are wrong.
(A) competition for the same resources excludes
(D) X, Y and Z are correct and Y and Z do not
species having different food preferences.
gives correct explanation for X.
3) What is common to the following plants: (B) no two species can occupy the same niche
Nepenthes, Psilotum, Rauvolfia and Aconitum ? indefinitely for the same limiting resources.
(A) All are ornamental plants (C) larger organisms exclude smaller ones through
(B) All are phylogenic link species competition.
(C) All are prone to over exploitation (D) more abundant species will exclude the less
(D) All are exclusively present in the Eastern abundant species through competition.
Himalayas. 10) Which species of plant employs ‘sexual deceit’
4) The annual NPP of the whole biosphere is how to get pollination done by a species of bee ?
much billion tons of organic matter ? (A) Kigelia (B) Commelina
(A) 120 (B) 170 (C) 210 (D) 150 (C) Yucca (D) Mediterranean orchid
5) A person who is eating vegetable is ......... 11) In a growing population of a country,
(A) Primary productivity (B) Primary consumer
(A) pre-reproductive individuals are less than
(C) Secondary consumer (D) Tertiary consumer
the reproductive individuals.
6) Ecosystem having least primary productivity
(B) pre-reproductive individuals are more than
per square meter
the reproductive individuals.
(A) Marshy area (B) Tropical forest
(C) reproductive and pre-reproductive individuals
(C) Open ocean (D) Grass land
are equal in number.
7) Humus is degraded by some microbes and
release of inorganic nutrients, occur by the (D) reproductive individuals are less than the
process known as post-reproductive individuals.
254
 Kumar’s Study Target Missiles 255
12) Which of the following chain is not present in 21) The traditional drink “toddy” of some parts of
mature insulin ? southern India is made ..…….
(A) A – peptide (B) C – peptide (A) from sugarcane juice.
(C) B – peptide (D) D – peptide (B) by fermenting sap from palms.
13) Golden rice is enriched in (C) from fruit juices.
(A) vitamin C (B) -carotene (D) from lactic acid.
(C) vitamin A (D) Both (B) and (C) 22) Which of the following is obtained without
distillation from fermented juice ?
14) Transgenic cow, Rosie produced ........ g/L
human protein enriched milk. (A) Whisky (B) Wine

(A) 20 (B) 24 (C) 2.4 (D) 4.2 (C) Beer (D) Both (B) and (C)
23) What is obtained from Aspergillus niger fungus ?
15) What is responsible for activation of Bt-toxin ?
(A) Acetic acid (B) Butyric acid
(A) acidic pH of gut (B) alkaline pH of gut
(C) Lactic acid (D) Citric acid
(C) high temperature (D) -interferon
24) The enzyme used to remove ‘clot buster’ from
16) Green revolution has increased the food supply
blood vessels of patients is produced by .......
by ........ time.
bacterium.
(A) one (B) two (C) three (D) four
(A) Lactobacillus
17) On which gene of pBR322 is the palindromic
(B) Clostridium butylicum
sequence for Pst l found ?
(C) Acetobacter aceti
(A) Gene of tetracycline
(D) Streptococcus
(B) Tetracycline inhibiting gene
25) A transplanted kidney in patient is rejected due
(C) The gene for ampicillin to.....
(D) The gene that inhibits ampicillin (A) passive immunity response.
18) What types of enzyme are restriction (B) innate immunity response.
endonucleases ?
(C) humoral immune response.
(A) Protease (B) Amylase (D) cell-mediated immunity response.
(C) Lipase (D) Nuclease 26) Statement-P : In autoimmune disorders the
19) Which of the following statements are true and body attacks on self cells.
which are false ? Statement-Q : In rheumatic conditions the
(P) Restriction nuclease – cut DNA at specific body does not attack on self cells.
point. (A) Statement-P is true and Q is false.
(Q) Ligase – Joins DNA fragments. (B) Statement-P is false and Q is true.
(R) DNA polymerase – isolates DNA fragments. (C) Statement-P and Q both are true.
(A) P, Q, R are correct. (D) Statement-P and Q both are false.
(B) P, Q is true R is false. 27) The era to which Jurassic period belonged to was
(C) P is true, Q and R are false. (A) Protozoic (B) Paleozoic
(D) P, Q, R all three are wrong. (C) Mesozoic (D) Procambium
20) What is elution ? 28) The two key concepts of Darwinian theory of
(A) Isolation of DNA out of the nucleus Evolution are ........
(B) DNA fragmentation process (A) Natural selection and mutation
(C) Elution of DNA fragments from agarose gel (B) Divergent evolution and mutation
(D) The act of extracting the desired DNA (C) Biogenesis and natural selection
fragment from a chromosome. (D) Branching descent and natural selection
 256 Std.-12 : Biology - ‘Kumar’

29) The diagram given below represent the 36) Pick out the correct statements.
operation of natural selection on different I. Haemophilia is a sex-linked recessive
trails. Choose the correct option. disease.
Phenotypes II. Down's syndrome is due to aneuploidy.
favoured Medium-sized
No. of individuals

individuals
with phenotype

by natural
are favoured Two peaks form III. Phenylketonuria is an autosomal recessive
selection
gene disorder.
IV. Sickle-cell anaemia is an X-linked recessive
gene disorder.
(A) Stabilising (B) Disruptive (A) II and IV are correct
(C) Directional (B) I, III and IV are correct
(D) Stabilising and Directional Both (C) I, II and III are correct
30) In a population of 1000 individuals, the (D) I and IV are correct
corresponding genotype AA is 360 individuals, 37) Match the terms in column-I with their
480 Aa and the remaining 160 are aa in the description in column-II and choose the correct
population of alternative factor A, based on this option.
data how much will the edition be ? Column - I Column - II
(A) 0.4 (B) 0.5 (C) 0.6 (D) 0.7 (a) Dominance (1) Many genes govern a
31) Match the following : single character
Column - I Column - II (b) Codominance (2) In a heterozygous
organism only one
(1) Adaptive (p) Uncontrolled use of
allele expresses itself
radiation herbicides selection of
(c) Pleiotropy (3) In a heterozygous
resistance varieties
organism both alleles
(2) Convergent (q) Forelimb bones of humans express themselves fully
development and whales
(d) Polygenic (4) A single gene influences
(3) Divergent (r) Butterfly and bird wings inheritance many characters
development
A B C D A B C D
(4) Anthropogenic (s) Darwin Finch
(A) 2 3 4 1 (B) 4 1 2 3
evolution
(C) 4 3 1 2 (D) 2 1 4 3
(A) 1-q, 2-p, 3-s, 4-r (B) 1-r, 2-q, 3-p, 4-s
38) The genotypes of a husband and wife are IAIB
(C) 1-s, 2-r, 3-q, 4-p (D) 1-p, 2-s, 3-r, 4-q and IAI. Among the blood types of their children,
32) The fastest technique used in DNA finger how many different genotypes and phenotypes
printing is ......... are possible ?
(A) VNTR (B) SSCP (C) SCAR (D) AFLP (A) 3 genotypes : 3 phenotypes
33) What is the removal of intrones and joining of (B) 3 genotypes : 4 phenotypes
exons during conversion called ? (C) 4 genotypes : 3 phenotypes
(A) Inducing (B) Slicing (D) 4 genotypes : 4 phenotypes
(C) Splicing (D) Replication 39) Multiload 375 is an example of ....... type of IUD.
34) Nitrogen base + Pentose sugars + Phosphate (A) non-medicated (B) Cu releasing
group = ........ (C) hormone releasing (D) progestasert
(A) Nucleoside (B) Nucleotide 40) Which of the following is not included in barrier
(C) Polynucleoside (D) Purine methods of birth control ?
35) The gene code for phenyl alanine is ......... (A) Diaphragm (B) Lippe’s loop
(A) UAA (B) UAG (C) UGA (D) UUU (C) Cervical cap (D) Vault
 Kumar’s Study Target Missiles 257
41) ZIFT is transfer of... 46) Which part of the fruit, labelled in the given
(A) zygote into fallopian tube. figure makes it a false fruit ?
(B) embryo into uterus. (A) C Thalamus C
D
(C) mixture of sperm and ovum into fallopian (B) D Seed
tube.
(C) A Mesocarp
(D) mixture of sperm and ovum in the uterus. B
(D) B Endocarp A
42) Test tube baby programme involves...
47) Which type of carpel is observed in Michelia ?
(A) intracytoplasmic sperm injection.
(A) Multicarpellary, syncarpous
(B) gamete intra fallopian transfer.
(C) intra uterine insemination. (D) ZIFT (B) Multicarpellary, apocarpous
43) “Saheli”, an oral contraceptive for females, was (C) Bicarpellary, syncarpous
developed by.... (D) Bicarpellary, apocarpous
(A) AIIMS, Lucknow (B) AIIMS, New Delhi 48) In water hyacinth and water lily, the pollination
(C) CDRI, Lucknow (D) IICB, Kolkata is carried out by which agent ?
44) Which of the following events in not associated (A) Only insects (B) Only wind
with ovulation in human female ?
(C) Water (D) Insects or wind
(A) Decrease in oestradiol
49) In black pepper remnants of nucellus persistent
(B) Full development of Graafian follicle
is known as ........
(C) Release of secondary oocyte
(A) Perisperm (B) Endosperm
(D) LH surge
(C) Embryo (D) Plumule
45) Which of the following layers in an antral
follicle is acellular ? 50) Residual persistent Nucellus in seed is called...
(A) Granulosa (B) Theca interna (A) Coleoptile (B) Pericarp
(C) Stroma (D) Zona pellucida (C) Coleorrhiza (D) Perisperm

Time : 2 Hours] PART - B [Total Marks : 50

Section - A 7) Explain the evolutionary characteristics of Homo

erectus and Neanderthal man.
Write the answer of any 8 questions from given
8) Define a cistron. Giving examples differentiate
question number 1 to 12. (Each of 2 marks) [16]
between monocistronic and polyeistronic
1) How is over-exploitation responsible for loss of transcription unit.
biodiversity ?
9) Mention any two autosomal genetic disorder
2) Justify the pitcher plant as a producer. with their symptoms.
3) Differentiate : J-shaped growth curve and S- 10) STDs can be considered as self-invited diseases.
shaped growth curve Comment.
4) Taking examples under each category, discuss 11) Are parthenocarpy and apomixis different
upstream and downstream processing. phenomena? Discuss their benefits.
5) Draw a diagrammatic sketch of biogas plant and 12) Does self incompatibility impose any restrictions
label its various components given below : Gas on autogamy ? Give reasons and suggest the
Holder, Sludge Chamber, Digester, Dung + water method of pollination in such plants.
chamber.
6) Drugs like LSD, barbiturates, amphetamines, etc., Section - B
are used as medicines to help patients with Write the answer of any 6 questions from given
mental illness. However, excessive doses and question number 13 to 21. (Each of 3 marks) [18]
abusive usage are harmful. Enumerate the major
13) Describe the structure of a sperm.
adverse effects of such drugs in humans.
 258 Std.-12 : Biology - ‘Kumar’

14) Give salient features of the double helix structure Section - C

of DNA.
Write the answer of any 4 questions from given
15) Mention different factors which affect Hardy -
Weinberg equilibrium. question number 22 to 27. (Each of 4 marks) [16]
16) What is Elephantiasis or Filariasis, mention its 22) Describe internal structure of microsporangium
causative, symptoms and mode of transmission ? and process of microsporogenesis.
17) Explain uses of Glomus species fungi and 23) Where does fertilisation take place in human
cyanobacteria as biofertilizers. beings ? What changes occur in egg cell (ovum)
18) Explain the work of Stanley Cohen and Herbert during fertilisation ?
Bauer in the creation of the first recombinant 24) Describe inheritance of two gene.
DNA.
25) Describe Hershey - Chase experiment or How it
19) Explain analysis and separation of DNA
was proved the DNA is genetic material ?
segments by gel electrophoresis method. (Figure
not required) 26) Draw and describe the structure of antibody ?
20) Explain productivity and types. 27) Write the characteristics of cloning vectors,
21) Explain Rivet Popper Hypothesis. describe cloning sites. (Figure not required)
 MATHS
6 [050(E)]

Blueprint for Question Paper

Note : This format is for guidance to Students, Teachers, Examiners, Moderators etc. Moderators and examiners can
change format of question paper, accordance with secondary or higher secondary’s broad concepts/ aims.
• Weightage of marks according to objectives :
Knowledge Understanding Application Higher Thinking skill Total
Objective
(K) (U) (A) Synthesis/Analysis Inferential/Evaluative Marks
Part-A Marks 10 15 13 10 02 50
Part-B Marks 10 15 13 09 03 50
Total Marks 20 30 26 19 05 100
• Weightage of marks according to type of questions : PART-A
No. Type of Questions Number of Questions Total Marks
1. Objective Questions 50 50
• Weightage of marks according to type of questions : PART-B
Number of Questions
No. Type of Questions Total Marks
Without General Option With General Option
1. Short Questions (SA-I) 08 12 16
2. Short Questions (SA-II) 06 09 18
3. Long Questions (LA) 04 06 16
Total 18 27 50
• Chapterwise Weightage of Marks :
Chapterwise Weightage Unitwise
PART-A PART-B Marks
No. Name of Chapter
Marks Without General With General Without
Option Option Option
1. Relations and Functions 03 03 03 Unit-1
2. Inverse Trigonometric Functions 04 02 04 12 Marks
3. Matrices 04 03 07 Unit-2
4. Determinants 04 04 07 15 Marks
5. Continuity and Differentiability 03 05 09
6. Application of Derivatives 04 04 07
7. Integrals 08 06 06 Unit-3
8. Application of Integrals 03 04 04 45 Marks
9. Differential Equations 04 04 06
10. Vector Algebra 06 02 05 Unit-4
11. Three Dimensional Geometry 03 05 07 16 Marks
12. Linear Programming 02 03 03 Unit-5 / 5 Marks
13. Probability 02 05 07 Unit-6 / 7 Marks
Total Marks 50 50 75 100
Note : Examiner (Paper setter) can change weightage of marks chapter wise, but all chapters should be equally
justified. There should not be any change in weightage of marks per unit.
277
 Board’s Question Paper
Paper - 2 (Based on March - 2020)

Time : 1 Hour] PART - A [Total Marks : 50

Select the following questions with proper 12 2 11

(A) sin (B) cos
alternative and answer it : 3 3
1) Area bounded by curve 1 1 11
(C) cos (D) sin
1 1 3 3
y tan x ; x , and X-axis is ........
4 4 8) If a i 2j k and b i 2j 3 k then
[March - 2020]
(a b ) (a b ) = ......... [March - 2020]
log 2 log 2 log 2
(A) (B) (C) log2 (D)
2 2 (A) –2 (B) –8 (C) 8 (D) 2
2) The area of the region bounded by the curve 9) Find the area of a parallelogram whose
y = [x] and the lines x = 1 and x = 1.9 is ...... Sq. adjacent sides are given by the vectors
units. Where [·] denotes the greatest integer
a 3i 5j 2 k and b 2i j 3k .
function.
3 7 4 9 [March - 2020]
(A) (B) (C) (D)
5 10 5 10 1
2 2 (A) 507 (B) 387
x y 2
3) Area bounded by the ellipse 4 is ....
4 16 (C) 507 (D) 25
[March - 2020]
10) Let | x | |y| |x y| 1 and if measure
(A) 64 (B) 32 (C) 8 (D) of the angle between x and y is , then
64
4) The order and degree of the differential sin = ......... [March - 2020]
equation (y''')3 + (y'')4 + (y')4 + y = 7 are .......
1 3 3
respectively. [March - 2020] (A) (B) (C) (D) 1
2 2 2
(A) 4 and 1 (B) 1 and 4
11) i (k j) j (i k) k ( j i) i (i j) j (j k)
(C) 3 and 3 (D) 2 and 4
= .......... [March - 2020]
5) If y = y(x) is the solution of the differential
(A) –1 (B) 1 (C) 3 (D) –3
dy
equation + (tanx) y = sinx, 0 x , with
dx 3 12) For three vectors a , b and c , a b c 0
y(0) = 0, then y equal to : |a| 3, | b | 4, | c | 5 , then evaluate
4
1 1
(A) loge2 (B) loge2 2 (a b b c c a). [March - 2020]
4 2 2
1 (A) 100 (B) 50 (C) –25 (D) –50
(C) loge2 (D) loge2
2 2x 5 y 2 z x y z
13) If the lines and
6) Integrating factor of the differential equation k 5 1 1 2 3
y dx – (x + 2y2)dy = 0 is ...... [March - 2020] are perpendicular to each other, then value of
k is .......... [March - 2020]
1 1
(A) y (B) –y (C)
(D) (A) –7 (B) 14 (C) 7 (D) 26
y y
7) Measure of the angle between the vector 14) The angle between the lines r = (4, – 3, 2) +
a i j k and b i j k is .......... k(2, 1, 2), k R and r = (2, 0, 5) + k(6, 3, 2),
[March - 2020] k R is ..........
283
 284 Std. - 12 : Maths – 'Kumar'

514 4 5 22) f : N N N, f((m, n)) = m + n then the

(A) sin (B) cos 1 function f is ......
21 21
(A) one-one and onto.
14 5 1 19
(C) cos (D) sin (B) one-one and not onto.
19 21
15) The equation of the line L passing through (C) not one-one but onto.
A(–2, 2, 3) and perpendicular to AB is .......... (D) neither one-one nor onto.
where B = (13, –3, 13). 23) If S is defined on R by (x, y) R xy 0. Then
S is ......
x–2 y+2 z+3
(A) (A) an equivalence relation
3 13 2
x+2 y–2 z–3 (B) reflexive only
(B)
3 13 2 (C) symmetric only (D) transitive only
x+2 y –2 z–3 24) Let A = {1, 2, 3}. Then number of relations
(C)
15 –5 10 containing (1, 2) and (1, 3) which are reflexive
x –2 y+2 z+3 and symmetric but not transitive is
(D)
15 –5 10
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
16) The objective function of a linear programming
problem is .......... [March - 2020] 25) f(x) = sin–1x + tan–1x + sec–1x then range of
f(x) is ..........
(A) a function to be optimized
(B) a quadratic equation 3 3
(A) , (B) ,
4 4 4 4
(C) a constant (D) an inequality
3
17) The vertices of the feasible region determined (C) , (D) None of these
4 4
by some linear constraints are (0, 2), (1, 1),
50
(3, 3), (1, 5). Let Z = px + qy where p, q > 0. The 26) The value of tan cos –1 cos is ......
3
condition on p and q so that the maximum of
1
Z occurs at both the points (3, 3) and (1, 5) (A) – 3 (B) 3 (C) (D) –1
is ....... [March - 2020] 3
(A) p = q (B) p = 2q (C) q = 2p (D) p = 3q 27) The value of cot 2cot 1 3 is ......
4
1 a b 3
18) a 1 c = ........ (A) 3 (B) 7 (C) 9 (D)
4
b c 1
2019 2 1 5 1
(A) 1 + a2 + b 2 + c2 (B) – (1 + a2 + b 2 + c2 ) 28) cot cosec .........tan
2 3 3
(C) 1 – a2 – b 2 – c2 (D) a2 + b 2 + c2 – 1 [March - 2020]
19) If P(E) = 0.8, P(F) = 0.5 and P(E/F) = 0.4 then 17 19 17 19
P(E/F) = .......... [March - 2020] (A) (B) (C) (D)
6 6 6 6
(A) 0.80 (B) 0.32 (C) 0.64 (D) 0.98 29) For 3 × 4 matrix, elements are given by
20) The feasible region of the inequality x + y < 1 3
i
and x – y < 1 lies in ....... quadrants. aij = | –3i + 4j | then aij ..........
(A) Only I and II (B) Only I and III i 1
[March - 2020]
(C) Only II and III (D) All the these
(A) 25 (B) 43(C) (D) 63 33
21) Bag A contains 2 white, 1 black and 3 red balls 30) A is 3 × 3 matrix and det(A) = 7. If B = adj A
and bag B contains 3 black, 2 red and n white then det(AB) = .......... [March - 2020]
balls. One bag is chosen at random and 2 balls 2 5
(A) 7 (B) 7 (C) 7 (D) 73
drawn from it at random are found to be 1 red
and 1 black. If the probability that both balls 3 1
31) If A = and A2 – 5A = kI then k = ..........
6 1 2
come from Bag A is , then n is equal to .......
11 [March - 2020]
(A) 13 (B) 6 (C) 4 (D) 3 (A) 5 (B) 7 (C) –7 (D) –5
 Board’s Question Papers 285
32) Matrices X and Y are inverse of each other
( x loge x )2 log e (ex )
then ........ [March - 2020] (A) (B)
loge (ex ) ( x log e x )2
(A) XY = I, YX = –I (B) XY = YX = –I
log e e
(C) XY = YX = 0 (D) X–1Y–1 = Y–1X–1 = I loge (ex ) x
(C) (D)
( x loge x )2 ( x log x )2
2 2 2
x y z x y z x y z 39) An iron ball having 10 cm radius is covered
33) If = z2 x 2
y2 , equally with ice. Ice is melting at the rate of 50
x y y z x z cm3/min. When the thickness of ice is 5 cm,
rate of decrease in radius is .......... cm/min.
(where (x y z) x, y, z R – {0}) then = ...... 1 1 1 5
[March - 2020] (A) (B) (C) (D)
36 18 54 6
(A) 0 (B) 1
40) f (x) = tan –1 (sinx + cosx), x > 0 is always
(C) x + y + z (D) x2 + y2 + z2 increasing function in ...... interval.
2019 2020 2021
34) For = 2022 2023 2024 sum of minor and (A) (0, ) (B) 0,
2
2025 2026 2027
3
(C) 0, (D) 0,
cofactor of 2020 is ..... [March - 2020] 4 4
(A) 4040 (B) 0 (C) 2020 (D) –2020
35) –1 < x < 0, 0 < y < 1, 1 < z < 2 and [ ] is a 41) Function f(x) = | sin x |, x , 0 is :
2
greatest integer function then,
[March - 2020]
[x ] 1 [y] [z]
(A) Only an increasing
[x ] [ y ] 1 [z] ......
(B) Neither increasing nor decreasing
[x ] [ y ] [z] 1
(A) [x] (B) [y] (C) Strictly increasing
(C) [z] (D) None of these (D) Strictly decreasing
36) Let the function f be defined by 42) Local maximum value of the

cx 1, if x 3 1
f (x) f (x ) x , (x 0) is ...... [March - 2020]
dx 3, if x 3 x
1 1
If f is continuous at x = 3 then d – c = ......... (A) (B) –2 (C) 2 (D)
2 2
[March - 2020]
cos x cos3 x
3 3 2 2 43) dx .......... C.
(A) (B)
2
(C) (D) 1 cos3 x
2 3 3
37) If y = (x + 3) 2 (x + 4) 3 4
(x + 5) , then first k
where x R k Z [March - 2020]
order derivative of y with respect to x is .......... 2
[March - 2020] 3 2 3
2 1 1
(A) cos sin 2 x (B) tan cos 2 x
3 3 3 3
1 i 1 x i 1
(A) (B)
y i 1 (x 1 i) y i 1 (x 1 i) 2 1
3 2 1
3
(C) sin cos 2 x (D) sin sin 2 x
4 4
i 3 3
y i
(C) (D) y
x (x 1 i) i 2 (x 1) i 1
i 2 44) If dx px q log |1 ex | C then
2 ex 1
d y
38) If y = loge(log x); (x > 1) then ..........
dx 2 p + q = .......... [March - 2020]
[March - 2020] (A) 0 (B) 2 (C) –2 (D) 1
 286 Std. - 12 : Maths – 'Kumar'

3 2
45) ex 5x x [log 25 3x ] dx .......... C.
48) cos3 x sin 4 x dx ........ . [March - 2020]
[March - 2020] 0

3 2 1 x 3 x2 (A) – (B) 0 (C) (D) 2

(A) e x 5x x (B) e 5
6

1 x3 x2 3 2 6
(C) e 5 x (D) e x 5x 49) sin5 x cos2 x dx ........ . [March - 2020]
6
6
dx
46) .......... C. [March - 2020] 1
2x x2 (A) 1 (B) 0
1 2
(A) 2 sin–1(x – 1) (B) sin 1( x 1) 5 2 2 5
2 (C) (D)
(C) sin–1(x – 1) (D) log ( x 1) 2x x2 6 6 6 6
2
3 50) f ( x )dx .......... ; where f ( x ) max { x , x 2 }.
dx
47) .......... . [March - 2020] 0
1 x2 [March - 2020]
1
7 5 8 13 17 19
(A) (B) (C) (D) (A) (B) (C) (D)
12 6 12 12 3 6 6 6
Time : 2 Hours] PART - B [Total Marks : 50

Section - A 8) Show that each of the given three vectors is a

unit vector :
Answer any 8 of the following given question
1 to 12 : (Each carries 2 marks) [16] 1 1
2i 3j 6k , 3i 6j 2k ,
7 7
1) Show that,
1 1 1 1
sin 2x 1 x2 2sin 1
x, x 6i 2j 3k .
2 2 7
Also, show that they are mutually perpendicular
2) 2 tan–1(cos x) = tan–1(2cosec x), x 0,
2 to each other.
dy 9) Find the angle between the following pairs of
3) Find in the following :
dx lines :
sin2y + cos xy = k
r 2i 5j k (3 i 2j 6 k ) and
4) Evaluate the integrals using substitution :
2 r 7i 6k (i 2j 2 k)
1 1
– e 2 x dx
x 2x 2 10) Find the distance of a point (2, 4, –1) from
1
5) Find the area of the region bounded by the x 5 y 3 z 6
the line
1 4 9
x2 y2
ellipse = 1. 11) A dice marked 1, 2, 3 in red and 4, 5, 6 in green
16 9
6) Find the area under the given curves and given is tossed. Let A be the event, ‘the number is even,’
and B be the event, ‘the number is red’. Are A and
lines :
B independent ?
y = x4; x = 1, x = 5 and X-axis
12) In a hostel, 60% of the students read Hindi
7) For the differential equation find the general newspaper, 40% read English newspaper and
solution : 20% read both Hindi and English newspapers.
(ex + e–x) dy – (ex – e–x) dx = 0 A student is selected at random.
 Board’s Question Papers 287
(a) Find the probability that she reads neither 21) A doctor is to visit a patient. From the past
Hindi nor English newspapers. experience, it is known that the probabilities
(b) If she reads Hindi newspaper, find the that he will come by train, bus, scooter or by
probability that she reads English newspaper. other means of transport are respectively
(c) If she reads English newspaper, find the 3 1 1 2
probability that she reads Hindi newspaper. , , and . The probabilities that he will
10 5 10 5
Section - B 1 1 1
be late are , and if he comes by train,
Answer any 6 of the following given questions 4 3 12
13 to 21 : (Each carries 3 marks) [18] bus and scooter respectively, but if he comes by
13) Let A = R – {3} and B = R – {1}. Consider the other means of transport, then he will not be
function f : A B defined by, late. When he arrives, he is late. What is the
probability that he comes by train ?
x 2
f (x ) Is f one-one and onto ? Justify
x 3 Section - C
your answer.
Answer any 4 of the following given questions
14) Find the values of x, y, z if the matrix
from 22 to 27 : (Each carries 4 marks) [16]
0 2y z
A= x y z satisfy the equation A'A = I. 0 tan 2
22) If A = and I is the identity
x y z tan 2 0
15) Solve system of linear equations, using matrix
method, in matrix of order 2, show that

2x – y = –2, 3x + 4y = 3 cos sin

I + A = (I – A) sin cos .
2
(x 3)( x 4)
16) Differentiate 2
w.r.t. x.
3x 4x 5
3 7 6 8
17) Find the maximum value of 2x3 – 24x + 107 in 23) Let A = and B = . Verify that
2 5 7 9
the interval [1, 3]. Find the maximum value of
the same function in [–3, –1]. (AB)–1 = B–1 A–1.
18) If a , b , c are mutually perpendicular vectors of 24) Find all the points of discontinuity of f defined
equal magnitudes, show that the vector by f(x) = | x | – |x + 1|.
25) A window is in the form of a rectangle
a b c is equally inclined to a , b and c .
surmounted by a semicircular opening. The
19) Find the shortest distance between the lines total perimeter of the window is 10 m. Find the
whose vector equations are dimensions of the window to admit maximum
r = 1– t i t – 2 j 3 – 2t k and light through the whole opening.

r = s 1i 2s – 1 j – 2s 1 k. 3
2
20) Determine graphically the minimum value of
26) Evaluate | x sin ( x )| dx.
the objective function Z = –50x + 20y ...(1)
1
subject to the constraints :
2x – y > –5 ...(2) 27) Find the general solution of the given
3x + y > 3 ...(3) differential equation :
2x – 3y < 12 ...(4) dy
+ 2y = sin x
x > 0, y > 0 ...(5) dx
 Paper - 12 Kumar’s Study Target Missile-2

Time : 1 Hour] PART - A [Total Marks : 50

Select the following questions with proper 9) Multiplication of n matrices,

alternative and answer it :
1 1 1 2 1 3 1 n 1 378
1) On set A = {1, 2, 3, 4} relation S = {(1, 3), (4, 2), ...
0 1 0 1 0 1 0 1 0 1
(2, 4), (2, 3), (3, 1)} is .......... .
(A) reflexive (B) not symmetric then the value of n = ..........
(A) 26 (B) 27 (C) 377 (D) 373
(C) transitive (D) not a relation
10) If A and B are square matrices of same order
2) Maximum numbers of equivalance relation on
then (A–1BA)n = .........., n N.
set A = {1, 2, 3} is .......... .
(A) A–n Bn An (B) An Bn A–n
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 5
(C) A–1 Bn A (D) n(A–1 BA)
x
3) If f : N {0} N {0}, f (x) = x – 3 then 11) If A is a square matrix such that A2 = I then
3
f is ...... (A – I)3 + (A + I)3 – 7A is equal to ......
(A) one-one and no equivalence class. (A) A (B) I – A
(B) neither one-one nor equivalence class. (C) I + A (D) 3A
(C) not one-one and has equivalence class. 12) If a square matrix A is a singular matrix and
(D) one-one and has equivalence class. A T is a transpose matrix of A then the
4) If cos–1x + cos–1y + cos–1z = 3 then following statement is false.
xy + yz + zx = ...... (A) | A | | AT | (B) | AAT | | A |2
1 (C) | AT A | | AT |2 (D) | A | + | AT | = 0
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 3 (D)
3 13) If A is a 3 3 invertible matrix then which one
1 7 of the following is false ?
5) cos cos = .........
6 (A) adjA = | A | · A–1
7 5 (B) adj(adjA) = | A | · A
(A) (B) (C) (D)
6 6 3 6 (C) adj(adjA) = | A |2(adjA)–1
11 (D) adj(A–1) = (adjA)–1
6) The value of sin 4tan = ........
3 14) The equation of line passing through (–7, 8)
12 24 and (5, 2) is ..........
(A) (B)
25 25 (A) x + 2y – 9 = 0 (B) 5x – y – 27 = 0
1 (C) x – 2y + 9 = 0 (D) 5x + y – 27 = 0
(C) (D) None of these
5
sin x cos x
7) If sin–1x > cos–1x then ...... 15) If A = and A(adj A) = k I, then
cos x sin x
1 k = ........
(A) x R (B) x 0,
2
(A) 1 (B) – 1
1 (C) sin x cos x (D) –sin x cos x
(C) x ,1 (D) x 2, 1
2
d tan2 2 x tan2 x
8) If every element of a matrix is from the roots 16) cot3 x = ...... .
of the equation x2 = x, x Z, then number of
dx 1 tan2 2 x tan2 x
such 3 3 matrices is .......... . (A) tan 2 x tan x (B) tan 3x tan x
(A) 27 (B) 18 (C) 81 (D) 512 2
(C) sec x (D) sec x tan x
333
 334 Std. - 12 : Maths – 'Kumar'

d2 y
17) If x = at2, y = 2at, then = ......... cos2 x
dx 2 27) dx = .........
1 (1010)x
1 1 1 1
(A) (B) (C) (D) (A) – (B) (C) (D) 2
t2 t2 2at 3 2at 3 2
3log x
18) If f ( x ) 2022 2022 , then f '(2) = ......... 3 1
(sin x ) 2022
3 3 16 16 28) 1 1 = .........
(A) (B) (C) (D) (sin x ) 2022 (cos x ) 2022
16 16 3 3 6
19) The local maximum value of
1 (A) (B) (C) (D)
f (x) x , x 0 is .......... . 12 6 3 4
x
1 1 3
(A) 2 (B) (C) – 2 (D)
2 2 29) x 1 x dx = ..........
20) The total revenue in rupees received from the
0
sale of x units of a product is given by 112 106 116 15
R(x) = 3x2 + 36x + 5. The marginal revenue, (A) (B) (C) (D)
5 5 15 116
when x = 15 is ........... 2 4
30) sec 3x cosec 3x = ......... + c
(A) 116 (B) 96 (C) 90 (D) 126
1 1
21) The point on the curve x2 = 2y which is near- (A) 3(tan x ) 3 (B) 3(tan x ) 3
est to the point (0, 5) is .......... 1 1
(C) 3(tan x ) 3 (D) (tan x ) 3
(A) (2 2, 4) (B) (2 2, 0)
(C) (0, 0) (D) (2, 2) 31) Area of the region bounded by the curve y = cos x
between x = 0 and x = is ...... sq. unit.
22) The rate of change of the volume of the
sphere with respect to its surface area S is ...... (A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 3 (D) 1
1 S 1 S S S 32) The area of the region bounded by the curve
(A) (B) (C) 4 (D) x = cos–1y and X-axis and the lines | x | = 1 is
2 4
......... Sq. units.
3
1 (A) 2 sin 1° (B) 0
23) dx = .........
1 tan 4 x
6 (C) (D) None of these
2
(A) (B) (C) (D) 33) The area of the region bounded by the curve
2 12 4 6
dx qx 9 y = |x – 5|, X-axis and the line x = 5, x = 6 is
1
24) If p sin c, then ........... Sq. units.
9x 4x 2 9
pq = ......... (A) 1.25 (B) 0.25 (C) 0.50 (D) 0.75
1 1
(A) 4 (B) 2 (C) (D) 34) The degree of the differential equation
4 2
3
sin2x 2 2
25) dx = .......... + c dy d2 y
pcos2 x + qsin2 x 1 is .....
dx dx 2
q
(A) log |psin2x + qcos2x| 3
p (A) 4 (B)
(B) (q – p) log |pcos2x + qsin2x| 2
1 (C) undefine (D) 2
(C) log |pcos2x + qsin2x|
q p 35) If y' + y = cosx – sinx and y 0 then
1 2
(D) 2 log |pcos2x + qsin2x|
p q2 y = ........
4
log x 2 3
26) dx = .........
log x 2 log(36 12 x x2 ) 1 1 3
2
(A) (B) (C) 1 (D)
(A) 1 (B) 6 (C) 2 (D) 4 2 2 2
 Kumar’s Study Target Missiles 335
36) The integrating factor of differential equation 43) The position vectors of two points A and B are
dy
y tan x sec x 0 is ........... respectively 6 a 2 b and a 3 b . If the
dx
(A) cos x (B) sec x (C) ecos x (D) esec x point C divides AB internally in the ratio
3 : 2 then the position vector of C is .........
37) a (1, 2, 3), b (2, 1, 1). The vector is
(A) 3 a b (B) 3 a b
such that a a b and a 0 then
| | = ........ (C) a b (D) a b
3 5 44) The distance between the lines x = 1 – 4t,
(A) (B) 10 (C) 10 (D)
2 2 y = 2 + t, z = 3 + 2t and x = 1 + S, y = 4 – 2S,
38) If x z = –1 + S is ..........
y z 0, | x | |y| |z| 2 and if
16 8 16
(A) 8 (B) (C) (D)
angle between y and z is , then cosec2 + 90 5 110
cot2 = ......... x y z
45) The lines = = and
1 2 3
4 5 1 x – 1 y – 2 z – 3
(A) (B) (C) (D) 1 = = are ........
3 3 3 –2 –4 –6
39) If sum of two unit vectors is also a unit vector (A) Coincident (B) Skew
then magnitude of their difference is .......... . (C) Intersecting (D) Parallel
(A) 1 (B) 2 3 (C) 2 (D) 3 46) The image of the point (1, 6, 3) with respect to
^ ^ ^ ^ ^ ^ x y –1 z – 2
40) x 2i 3j k, y 2i j k and the line = = is .........
1 2 3
^ ^ (A) (1, 0, 7) (B) (7, 0, 1)
z i 3 k are given. If x y is orthogonal
(C) (–1, –6, –3) (D) (1, 1, 7)
47) The solution set of the constraints 2x + 3y 6,
to z , then = ......... x + 4y 4 and x 0, y 0 includes the point
(A) 2 (B) 5 (C) 0 (D) 6 .......... as corner point.
(A) (1, 0) (B) (1, 1)
41) a and b are unit vectors. If angle between
12 2 2 12
(C) , (D) ,
a and b is , then 2sin = ......... 5 5 5 5
2 48) If A and B are two events such that P(A) 0
and P(B | A) = 1, then.
(A) | a b| (B) | a b|
(A) A B (B) B A (C) B = (D) A =
1 1 49) In bag X there are 2 white and 3 black balls
(C) |a b| (D) |a b| and in bag Y there are 4 white and 2 black
2 2
balls. One bag is selected at random and one
42) The equation of the line passes through ball is drawn from it. Then what is the
(2, –3, 5) and makes equal angle with axes is probability that selected ball is white ?
.......... (k R)
8 2 7 14
1 1 1 (A) (B) (C) (D)
(A) r = (2, –3, 5) + k – ,– , 15 15 15 15
3 3 3 50) If two events A and B are such that P(A') = 0.3,
1 1 1 P(B) = 0.5 and P(A B) = 0.3, then P(B A B')
(B) r = (2, –3, 5) + k ,– ,– is ......
3 3 3
(C) r = (2, –3, 5) + k (–1, 1, 1) (A) 0.375 (B) 0.32
(D) r = (2, –3, 5) + k (1, 1, 1) (C) 0.31 (D) 0.28
 336 Std. - 12 : Maths – 'Kumar'

Time : 2 Hours] PART - B [Total Marks : 50

Section - A Section - B
Answer any 8 of the following given question Answer any 6 of the following given questions
1 to 12 : (Each carries 2 marks) [16] 13 to 21 : (Each carries 3 marks) [18]
2 13) Let L be the set of all lines in XY plane and R
1 1 x
1) Express cos in the form of tan–1x. be the relation in L defined as R = {(L1, L2) : L1
1 x2 is parallel to L2}. Show that R is an equivalence
1 relation. Find the set of all lines related to the
2) Prove that : 3 cos–1x = cos–1 (4x3 – 3x), x ,1 line y = 2x + 4.
2
Note : Accept that each line is parallel to itself.
3) If 1 x2 1 y2 a( x y ) , then prove
3 5
14) If A = , then find A 2 – 5A – 14 I.
dy 1 y2 4 2
that , | x | < 1, | y | < 1. Hence, obtain A3.
dx 1 x2
15) If (a – b cos y) (a + b cos x) = a2 – b2, then prove
5
dy a 2 b2
4) Evaluate : x + 2 dx that ,0 x .
–5
dx a b cos x 2
16) A water tank has the shape of an inverted right
5) Find the area of the region bounded by line circular cone with its axis vertical and vertex
x = 2 and parabola y2 = 8x. lowermost. Its semi-vertical angle is tan–1(0.5).
6) Find the area under the given curves and given Water is poured into it at a constant rate of 5
lines : y = x2; x = 1, x = 2 and X-axis. cubic meter per hour. Find the rate at which the
level of the water is rising at the instant when
dy
7) Solve the differential equation : ay e mx . the depth of water in the tank is 4 m.
dx
0 1 1
8) Find | a b | , if two vectors a and b are such 17) Find A–1if A = 1 0 1 and show that
1 1 0
that | a | 2, | b | 3 and a b 4. 2
A 3I
9) If a line makes angle 90°, 60° and 30° with the A–1 = .
2
positive direction of X, Y and Z-axis respectively, 18) The two adjacent sides of a parallelogram are
find its direction cosines.
2i 4j 5 k and i 2j 3k . Find the unit
10) Find the cartesian equation of the line which
passes through the point (–2, 4, –5) and parallel vector parallel to its diagonal. Also, find its area.
19) Find the distance of a point (2, 4, –1) from
x 3 y 4 z 8
to the line given by . 5x y 3 z 6
3 5 6 the line .
1 4 9
11) A dice is thrown twice and the sum of the
20) Maximise Z = – x + 2y, subject to the constraints :
numbers appearing is observed to be 6. What is
the conditional probability that the number 4 x > 3, x + y > 5, x + 2y > 6, y > 0.
has appeared at least once ? 21) Given three identical boxes I, II and III, each
2 containing two coins. In box I, both coins are
12) Three events A, B and C have probabilities , gold coins, in box II, both are silver coins and
5
1 1 1 in the box III, there is one gold and one silver
and respectively. Given that P(A C) = , coin. A person chooses a box at random and
3 2 5
1 takes out a coin. If the coin is of gold, what is
P(B C) find the values of P(C | B) and
4 the probability that the other coin in the box is
P(A' C'). also of gold ?
 Kumar’s Study Target Missiles 337

Section - C dy
24) Find , if yx + xy + xx = ab.
Answer any 4 of the following given questions dx
from 22 to 27 : (Each carries 4 marks) [16] 25) A point on the hypotenuse of a triangle is at
distance a and b from the sides of the triangle.
3 1 1 1 2 2
1 Show that the minimum length of the
22) If A 15 6 5 and B 1 3 0 2 2 3
5 2 2 0 2 1 hypotenuse is (a 3 b 3 )2 .
then find (AB)–1.
26) Evaluate : cot x tan x dx
1 0 1
23) If A = 2 1 3 , then verify that A2 + A = 27) Obtain the equation of curve passes from
0 1 1 x2 + y2
(2, 1), whose slope at point (x, y) is .
A(A + I) where I is 3 3 unit matrix. 2xy