Second Quarter Long Test in Grade 10 Science

Directions: Read each statement/question carefully. Choose and write the BIG letter of the answer before each number.

1. Which of the following principles are involved in putting up your own recording studio?
A. Heat and Thermodynamics B. Electricity and Magnetism C. Light and Optics D. Force and Motion
2. Which of the following cases WILL NOT likely to happen?
A. A N pole repels another N pole c. A N pole attracts S pole
B. A S pole repels another S pole d. A magnet will repel a piece of iron
3. Which of the following is the unit of magnetic flux?
A. Tesla B. Weber C. Newton-meter D. Ampere-meter
4. In which of the following situations will an electromagnet loss its magnetic property?
A. when there is no current passing through it C. when there is current passing through it
B. when there is no magnet connected to it D. when there is a magnet connected to it
5. Which of the following pairs is CORRECT?
A. Cables: Used for playing digital instruments
B. Condenser or dynamic microphone: Converts sound into electrical signal
C. Digital Audio Software: Gives a sound close enough to the real sound input
D. Headphone: Fast enough to record, edit, mix, store, and master a copy of the record
6. Which statements about magnets are TRUE?
I. Magnetic field always exists around magnets.
II. Every magnet, whatever its size and shape, always has North and South poles.
III. The direction of the magnetic lines of force is indicated by the S-pole of the compass needle.
IV. Magnetic field is strongest at the poles and becomes weaker as the distance from the poles increases.
A. I & II B. III & IV C. I, II & IV D. I, II, III & IV
7. What happens when the north pole of one magnet faces the south pole of another magnet?
A. attract and then fall off B. attract and stick together C. stick together and fly D. fall off and then stick together
8. Which device can be used to determine the polarity of an unmarked magnet?
A. a sprinkle of iron filings B. an improvised compass C. a gold-leaf electroscope D. a charged glass stirring rod
9. Which of the following does NOT have electromagnets?
A. flat iron B. speakers C. telegraph D. electric doorbell
10. How will you describe the magnetic field around a straight current-carrying wire?
A. The magnetic field gets stronger with increasing distance from the wire.
B. The magnetic field does not vary with the distance from the wire.
C. The magnetic field consists of straight lines parallel to the wire.
D. The magnetic field is strongest near and around the wire.
11. Which of the following laws says, “When a magnet is pushed into a coil of wire, the induced current flows in such direction to
oppose the change causing it”?
A. Han’s B. Lenz’s C. Faraday’s D. Oersted
12. How can the magnetic field strength of an electromagnet be reduced?
A. use an iron core C. decrease the number of loops in the coil
B. increase the number of loops in the coil D. when there is a magnet connected to it
13. Which statement about an electromagnetic nail is NOT TRUE?
A. The magnetic field strength is proportional to the nail’s current.
B. The magnetic field lines produced resemble that of a bar magnet.
C. The current in the electromagnetic nail demagnetizes the iron nail.
D. Steady magnetic lines of induction surround a battery-powered electromagnetic nail.
14. William is having an experiment about electromagnets. What can he do to enable him to pick up more pins?
I. Use an iron core III. Reduce the number of coils around the rod
II. Increase the voltage of battery used IV. Remove one battery
A. I only B. I and II C. I and III D. III and IV
15. How will you describe the magnetic field around a current-carrying coil?
A. The magnetic field lines are closed loops along the loops in the coil.
B. The magnetic field is strongest inside the current-carrying coil.
C. The magnetic field varies directly with the distance from the coil.
D. The magnetic field is weakest near and around the coil.
16. What will happen when the dry cell terminals of an electromagnet are reversed?
A. There will be no effect on the nature of the magnetic pole. C. The magnet will completely lose its magnetism.
B. The N and S poles of the magnet will also be reversed. D. Both ends of electromagnet will be N-poles.
17. Which of the following best explains electromagnetic induction?
A. A magnetic field produces current in a conductor. C. A conductor at rest in a magnetic field will induce current.
B. A current-carrying wire produces a magnetic field. D. A changing magnetic field can induce current in a conductor.
18. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about motors?
A. It works on direct current. C. It operates on the same principles as generators.
B. It converts Mechanical to Electrical Energy. D. It involves the interaction of magnetic field a current.
19. How does a simple electric motor work?
A. It converts electrical energy to mechanical energy.
B. It converts mechanical energy to electrical energy.
C. It creates an electrical flux into the wires and rotates the shaft.
D. It generates magnetic flux and passes it through the coil of wire.
20. Which of the following uses electromagnetic induction to operate?
A. electric circuits B. electric generator C. refrigerators D. satellites
21. Which of the following CORRECTLY explains how electromagnetic induction operates electric generators?
A. It transforms voltage to electric current.
B. It induces the voltage generated by electric motors.
C. It is used to change kinetic energy to electrical energy.
D. It creates a magnetic field that powers electric generators.

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Second Quarter Long Test in Grade 10 Science
22. What is the relationship between the number of coils in a solenoid and the emf induced in it by a change in the magnetic flux
through the solenoid?
A. The induced emf is directly proportional to the number of coils in a solenoid.
B. The induced emf is inversely proportional to the number of coils in a solenoid.
C. The induced emf is proportional to the square of the number of coils in a solenoid.
D. The induced emf is inversely proportional to the square of the number of coils in a solenoid.
23. Which of the following are the differences between an electric motor and an electric generator?
A. An electric motor can be used in fans, machines, and cars while electric generators are used in all kinds of machines.
B. Electric motors work through the concept of Fleming’s right hand rule while electric generators are based on the left-
hand rule.
C. An electric motor is a machine that converts electrical energy to mechanical energy while an electric generator
converts mechanical energy to electrical energy.
D. The working principle of an electric motor is based on the current-carrying conductor that experiences a force when it is
kept in the magnetic field while the working principle of the
24. What transformation can take place in a ceiling fan’s electric motor?
A. direct current into alternating current C. mechanical energy into electrical energy
B. alternating current into direct current D. electrical energy to mechanical energy
25. Which of the following is a disadvantage in the use of motor driven vehicles?
A. easier way of living C. reduces opportunity of utilizing human energy
B. faster growth of technology D. faster transport of people, goods and services
26. Which pair of devices have similar constructions but have opposite functions?
A. electric motor, generator B. electric motor, transformers C. generator, transformer D. turbine, electric motor
27. A coil moves away from a magnet. Consider the following factors:
I. strength of the magnet
II. number of turns in the coil
III. speed at which the magnet moves
Which can affect the electromotive force (EMF) induced in the coil?
A. I only B. II only C. III only D. I, II and III
28. Hans Christian Oersted and Michael Faraday greatly contributed to the development of electromagnetic theory. Which statement
about their principles is NOT TRUE?
A. Oersted discovered that current-carrying conductors produced magnetism.
B. Faraday proved that electricity can be produced from changing magnetism.
C. Faraday’s principle is applied primarily to the production of heat engines.
D. Oersted’s discovery leaded to the development of electromagnets.
29. Who proposed the electromagnetic wave theory of light?
A. Michael Faraday C. James Clerk Maxwell
B. Heinrich Hertz D. Hans Christian Oersted
30. A certain radio station broadcasts at a frequency of 600 kHz. What is the wavelength of the radio waves?
A. 440 m B. 460 m C. 480 m D. 500 m
31. Which of the following types of waves has the shortest wavelength?
A. radio waves B. UV rays C. microwaves D. X-ray
32. A wave with low frequency would have relatively _____________________.
A. low energy and a short wavelength C. low energy and a long wavelength
B. high energy and a short wavelength D. high energy and a long wavelength
33. Which of the following is arranged in order of increasing frequency?
A. x-rays, infrared, ultraviolet, radio waves C. radio waves, ultraviolet, infrared, x-rays
B. radio waves, infrared, ultraviolet, x-rays D. x-rays, ultraviolet, infrared, radio waves
34. What is the wavelength of an electromagnetic wave whose frequency is 3.0 x 10 9 Hz?
A. 1.0 x 10-2 m B. 1.0 x 10-1 m C. 1.0 x 101 m D. 1.0 x 102 m
35. Where on the electromagnetic spectrum is visible light found?
A. between infrared rays and UV rays C. between X-rays and UV rays
B. between X-rays and Gamma rays D. between radio waves and microwaves
36. The wavelength of the red part of the visible light is 760 nm. What is its energy?
A. 1.7 x 10-48 J B. 1.3 x 10-4 J C. 2.6 x 10-19 J D. 8.5 x 10-34 J
37. Which of the following uses radio waves to transmit information?
A. cellular phone B. dry cell C. microwave oven D. remote control
38. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. Gamma rays have longer wavelength than UV rays C. X-rays have longer wavelengths than microwaves
B. Gamma rays have shorter wavelengths than microwaves D. Radio waves have shorter wavelengths than X-ray
39. What type of rays would you expect to be used frequently at a hospital to make medical diagnoses?
A. X-rays B. microwaves C. UV rays D. gamma rays
40. What do you call a disturbance in a field that does not need material to propagate?
A. Electromagnetic Wave C. Sound wave
B Mechanical wave D. Water wave
41. Which of the following BEST describes ground wave propagation?
A. It travels in a straight line.
B. It provides continuous support in communication.
C. It transmits signals directly from the transmitter to the receiver without reflection and refraction.
D. It can be used for one-way communication from the military to submerge submarines as they penetrate to a significant
depth into seawater.
42. Which of the following is NOT in the visible light spectrum?
A. Ultraviolet light B. blue light C. violet light D. red light
43. What kind of waves do cellular telephones use to transmit and receive signals?
A. gamma rays B. microwaves C. UV rays D. infrared rays
44. What part of the EM spectrum is used in sending signals to a specific station?
A. infrared B. radio wave C. microwave D. visible light
45. How do radio waves propagate?
A. They propagate through solid media.
B. They can travel at the speed of light in a vacuum.
C. They propagate like the other electromagnetic waves.
D. They can propagate from the transmitter to the receiver.

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Second Quarter Long Test in Grade 10 Science
46. How does a radio wave produce a signal in a radio wave receiver?
A. It causes the electrons in the receiver to oscillate
B. It makes the charges in the wires produce more electricity
C. It creates a lower electric potential are that causes induced current
D. It generates higher electric potential difference that creates direct current
47. Microwaves are used for cooking as molecules in food can absorb the energy from the microwave. What molecules are
microwaves most attracted to?
A. fat molecules B. protein molecules C. sugar molecules D. water molecules
48. Which are the reasons why microwave sensors are good tools in weather forecasting?
I. Microwaves can penetrate through clouds but dispersed by water droplets
II. Microwaves have long wavelengths and low frequencies
III. Microwaves can be easily bent in the atmosphere
A. I and II only B. I and III only C. II and III only D. I, II, and III
49. Which form of EM radiation is used in night vision goggles?
A. gamma ray B. infrared C. microwave D. visible light
50. Which of the following cables can be used to transmit signals in the form of light?
A. copper wire cable B. gold wire cable C. fiber optic cable D. light-path cable
51. Money bills are printed with watermarks to avoid counterfeiting. Which region of the electromagnetic spectrum can be used to
see these watermarks?
A. infrared B. microwave C. ultraviolet D. x-ray
52. Ezequiel accidentally tripped so badly while he was on his way to school. He was sent to the nearest hospital for immediate
medical attention. Which form of electromagnetic wave is the most appropriate to be used to check fractures?
A. gamma ray B. microwave C. radio wave D. x-ray
53. To prolong the shelf life of canned goods, the canning industry ensures that all microorganisms are killed in the process of food
irradiation. Which form of electromagnetic wave is BEST used for food irradiation?
A. gamma ray B. infrared C. microwave D. ultraviolet
For items 54 – 55, refer to the box below.
I. gamma rays II. microwaves III. radio waves IV. x-rays
54. Which electromagnetic waves are classified as ionizing?
A. I and II only B. II and III only C. I and IV only D. III and IV only
55. Which electromagnetic waves are classified as non-ionizing?
A. I and II only B. I and III only C. II and III only D. II and IV only
56. Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE about radiation safety?
A. More time of exposure means more harm from radiation
B. More appropriate shielding means more harm from radiation
C. More distance from the source of radiation means less harm from radiation
D. Less distance from the source of radiation means more harm from radiation
57. How can UV rays cause skin cancer?
A. UV rays can cause mutation of skin cells that results in abnormal growth of skin allergies.
B. Exposure from UV rays will hinder the absorption of vitamins which can damage your skin cells.
C. Too low exposure UV radiation from the sun can damage the genetic material in your skin cell.
D. Too much exposure to UV radiation from the sun can damage the genetic material in your skin cells
For items 58 – 59, refer to the table below.
Student Activities

Armie Watching TV for 8-10 hours daily, sunbathing for 2 hours daily with no sunscreen, getting chest x-ray twice a year

John Paul Watching TV for 8-10 hours daily, sunbathing for 2 hours daily with sunscreen, getting chest x-ray twice a year

Danica Watching TV for 5-7 hours daily, sunbathing for 1 hour daily with sunscreen, getting chest x-ray once a year

Mariejoe Watching TV for 5-7 hours daily, sunbathing for 1 hour daily with no sunscreen, getting chest x-ray once a year

58. Who might get the least risk of getting harmful effects from electromagnetic radiation?
A. Armie B. John Paul C. Danica D. Mariejoe
59. Who might get the greatest risk of getting harmful effects from electromagnetic radiation?
A. Armie B. John Paul C. Danica D. Mariejoe
60. A ray of light strikes the surface of a plane mirror at an angle 30 0. What will be its angle of reflection?
A. 1500 B. 200 C. 300 D. 400

For numbers 61-62: The figure shows a slight incident to a plane mirror
200
61. What is the angle of incidence?
A. 200 B. 500 C. 700 D. 900
62. What is the angle formed between the incident ray and the reflected ray?
A. 200 B. 400 C. 1000 D. 1400
63. Which situation below correctly describes an example of an image formed by a plane mirror?
A. A girl’s ribbon on the right side of her head is seen on the left side of her image.
B. A boy waving his right hand is also waving his right hand in the mirror.
C. The image of the girl is larger than her actual size.
D. A bottle is seen inverted in a plane mirror.
64. Which correctly describes your image when you stand 1 m in front of a full length mirror?
A. real and 1 m behind the mirror C. virtual and 1 m behind the mirror
B. real and 2 m behind the mirror D. virtual and 2 m behind the mirror

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Second Quarter Long Test in Grade 10 Science
65. The image formed by a plane mirror is LATERALLY INVERTED. Which of the following examples best describes this?
A. When a boy moves toward the mirror, his image will move away from the mirror.
B. When a boy moves toward the mirror, his image will move at the side of the mirror.
C. When a girl raises her left hand, her image will also raise its left hand.
D. When a girl raises her left hand, her image will raise its right hand.
66. The photo shows the image of the face of the clock as seen in a plane mirror. What is the correct time?
A. 2:39 B. 3:35 C. 8:14 D. 9:22
67. What distinguishes a concave mirror and that of a convex mirror?
A. a convex mirror is curved inward C. the virtual image is larger in a convex mirror
B. a concave mirror is curved outward D. the virtual image is smaller in a convex mirror
68. Which of the following statements is/are CORRECT?
A. all real images of a concave mirror are inverted C. all real images of a concave mirror are smaller than the object
B. all real images of a concave mirror are behind the mirror D. all of the choices
69. What kind of mirror is used in automobiles and trucks to give the driver a wider and smaller image of traffic behind him?
A. concave mirror B. convex mirror C. plane mirror D. none of these
70. Which of the descriptions is TRUE of the image of a doll as seen in a convex mirror?
A. same size but inverted B. larger and upright C. smaller but inverted D. smaller and upright
71. What do you call the distance from the vertex to the principal focus in a curved mirror?
A. center of curvature B. principal axis C. focal length D. midpoint
72. Which of the following exactly describes the image formed by a convex mirror?
A. virtual, erect B. virtual, real C. real, inverted D. real, erect
73. An object, 10 cm tall is 15 cm in front of a concave mirror whose focal length is 10 cm. Where is the image of the candle located?
A. 10 cm in front of the mirror C. 20 cm at the back of the mirror
B. 15 cm at the back of the mirror D. 30 cm in front of the mirror
74. A 5.00 cm tall light bulb is placed at a distance of 40.0 cm from a concave mirror having a focal length of 10.0 cm. What is the
distance of the image from the mirror?
A. 13.1 cm B. 13.3 cm C. 13.7 cm D. 13.9 cm
75. What is the focal length of a convex mirror that produces an image that appears 15.0 cm behind the mirror when the object is
45.0 cm from the mirror?
A. -11.3 cm B. +11.3 cm C. -33.0 cm D. +33.0 cm
76. What is the other name given to a diverging lens?
A. converging lens B. convex mirror C. convex lens D. concave lens
77. Which of the following can produce an upright image that is smaller than the object?
A. concave mirror and concave lens C. convex mirror and convex lens
B. concave mirror and convex lens D. convex mirror and concave lens
78. What combination of lenses is used in a simple microscope?
A. two diverging lenses C. two diverging and two converging lenses
B. two converging lenses D. one diverging and one converging lenses
79. Which of the following statements is TRUE about the angle of incidence and the angle of reflection?
The angle of incidence __________.
A. is equal to the angle of reflection. C. is greater than the angle of reflection.
B. is less than the angle of reflection. D. have no relationship with the angle of reflection.
80. A group of parallel incident light rays strike a plane mirror. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about the reflected light rays?
A. The reflected light rays converge at a single point.
B. The reflected light rays are parallel with each other.
C. The reflected light rays lie on the same plane as the incident light rays.
D. The individual light rays strike the mirror at the same angle of incidence.
81. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about converging and diverging mirrors?
A. Converging mirrors collect reflected rays at a single point while diverging mirrors do not.
B. Converging mirrors can produce either real or virtual images while diverging mirrors can produce virtual images only.
C. The reflecting surface of a converging mirror curves inward while the reflecting surface of diverging mirror curves
outward.
D. Converging mirrors can produce upright images only while diverging mirrors can produce either upright or inverted
images.
82. A light ray incident to a concave mirror passes through the mirror’s focal point. Which of the following is TRUE about the
reflected ray?
A. It travels parallel to the principal axis. C. It travels on the same path as the incident ray.
B. It travels perpendicular to the principal axis. D. It passes through the mirror’s center of curvature.
83. When an incident light ray passes through the mirror’s center of curvature, the reflected light ray travels on the same path as the
incident light ray. Which of the following BEST explains this?
A. The light ray strikes the mirror at an angle of incidence of 0°.
B. The light ray strikes the mirror at an angle of incidence of 45°.
C. The light ray strikes the mirror at an angle of incidence of 90°.
D. The light ray strikes the mirror at an angle of incidence greater than 90°.
84. An object is placed beyond the center of curvature in front of a five-centimeter focal length concave mirror as shown in the
figure below. What will be the characteristics of the image formed?
A. Real, upright and magnified.
B. Real, inverted and diminished.
C. Virtual, upright and diminished.
D. Virtual, inverted and magnified

85. An object is kept at a distance of 40 cm from a concave mirror with a radius of curvature of 20 cm. What is the distance of the
image?
A. 13.33 cm B. 17.75 cm C. 21.33 cm D. no image formed
86. An object is placed seven centimeters in front of a five-centimeter focal length concave mirror. What will be the characteristics
of the image formed?
A. real, upright, and magnified C. C. virtual, upright, and diminished.
B. real, inverted, and magnified. D. virtual, inverted, and magnified

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Second Quarter Long Test in Grade 10 Science
87. A 4 cm piece of wood was placed 7 cm in front of a concave mirror with a focal length of 4 cm. Which of the following is TRUE
about the image formed by the mirror?
I. It is inverted.
II. It is enlarged.
III. It is a real image.
IV. It can be found beyond the center of curvature.
A. I and II only B. I and III only C. I, II, and III only D. I, II, and IV only
88. Peter has difficulty in seeing distant objects. He went to an optometrist and found out that he has myopia. What type of lens
should the optometrist give to aid his eyesight?
A. biconvex lens B. concave lens C. convex lens D. opaque lens
89. Which of the following BEST describe the difference between a converging and diverging lens?
A. Converging lens focuses light rays on a single point while light rays do not meet in a diverging lens.
B. Converging lens has a thick edge and a thin center while a diverging lens has a thin edge and thick center.
C. Converging lens creates optically distorted images while diverging lens creates rationally symmetric image.
D. Converging lenses can produce real and magnified images while diverging lenses can produce virtual and diminished
images.
90. Use ray diagramming technique to identify the type of image formed when an object is placed at a distance of 1.5 focal lengths
from a concave lens?
A. erect and real C. inverted and virtual
B. inverted and real D. upright and virtual

91. An object is placed in front of a converging lens at a distance between F and 2F. What are the characteristics of the image
formed by the lens?
A. real, inverted, demagnified C. virtual, upright, demagnified
B. real, inverted, magnified D. virtual, upright, magnified
92. A 2 cm-tall object is placed 8 cm in front of a convex lens with a focal length of 4 cm. Which of the following is TRUE about the
image formed by the lens?
I. It is a real image. III. It is upright.
II. It is a magnified. IV. It is far from 2F.
A. I and II only B. II and IV only C. I and III only D. III and IV only
93. Gilbert Jr. B. Malicdem placed an object 3 cm in front of a converging lens with a focal length of 20 cm. Which location should
Gilbert place the object in order to create a magnified and inverted image?
A. less than 20 cm C. greater than 40 cm
B. at exactly 20 cm D. greater than 20 cm but less than 40 cm
94. What is the role of the lens in a compound microscope?
A. magnify images B. reflect light rays C. redirect light rays D. form virtual images
95. A pencil is placed upright in front of a converging lens at a distance greater than 2F. What are the characteristics of the image
formed by the lens?
A. real, inverted, demagnified C. virtual, upright, demagnified
B. real, inverted, magnified D. virtual, upright, magnified
96. A diverging lens has a focal length of 10 cm. Where is the image located when an object is placed 30 cm from the lens?
A. 7.5 cm near the object C. 30 cm on the other side of the lens
B. 15 cm near the object D. 45 cm on the other side of the lens
97. What is the role of a concave mirror in a compound microscope?
A. Reflect dispersed light into the microscope
B. Reflect concentrated light into the lens system
C. Refract a dispersed light into the objective lens
D. Refract light rays and focus it on the lens system

98. The figure below shows the structure and lens arrangement of a camera. What kind of lens generally makes up a camera?
A. concave lens C. opaque Lens
B. convex lens D. spherical lens

99. What is the role of the lens in the illustration on the right side?
A. Disperse or scatter light ray into the eyepiece
B. Reflect and disperse light ray into the focuser
C. Refract and focus light ray into the eyepiece
D. Polarize light rays entering the instrument and focus it into the eyepiece

100. Binoculars are made up of several converging lenses and prisms to see distant objects. What is the importance of these lens
systems in this optical instrument?
A. To form sharper image with 1000x resolution
B. To create a finer and detailed image of the object under study
C. To produce an upright view that is correctly oriented left-to-right
D. To develop optically correct image with no aberrations and visual alterations

--------------------------------------------------------------------------- E N D O F T E S T ---------------------------------------------------------------

Prepared:

Garry D. Enriquez
Master Teacher I, Science

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Second Quarter Long Test in Grade 10 Science