CURRENT ELECTRICITY

1. What are the minimum requirements to cause the flow of current?

A. A voltage source, an ammeter, a conductor and an insulator
B. A voltage source, a switch and a resistor
C. A voltage source and a conductor
D. A voltage source, a conductor and an insulator
REE - SEPT. 2006
2. Out of the following, select the best conductor of electricity.
A. Graphite B. China clay C. Porcelain D. None of these
REE - SEPT. 2006
3. Which of the following statements is correct?
A. The resistance does not play an important role in electrical engineering.
B. The resistance of a wire does not depend upon its material.
C. The resistance of most of the material is independent of the temperature.
D. The resistance of conductor is the hindrance by which the conductor opposes the flow of
the current.
REE - SEPT. 2006
4. Resistance of a conductor increases when
A. its length increases
B. its area increases
C. both length and area increases
D. specific resistance is kept constant
REE - SEPT. 2006
5. The specific resistance ρ depends upon
A. The area of cross-section and the length of the conductor
B. The material of the conductor, its area of cross-section and length
C. The nature of the material of the conductor only
D. The area of cross-section of the conductor
6. The specific resistance ρ is defined as
A. resistance of a conductor which has a length of 1 m and cross-section of 1 m2 at 20°C
B. resistance of any conductor at 25°C
C. resistance of any conductor at 20°C
D. resistance of a conductor which has a length of 1 m and cross-section of 1 cm2 at 20°C
REE - SEPT. 2011
7. The resistance of a conductor, when its temperature is increased
A. remains constant B. increases
 C. varies D. decreases
REE - SEPT. 2014
8. It was experimentally found by James Prescott Joule that the heat produced in a current carrying
conductor is proportional to
A. the square of the current B. square of the resistance
C. the current D. inversely proportional to time
9. The value of Joule’s mechanical equivalent of heat, J is equal to
A. 4.2 calories per Joule B. 2.4 Joules per calorie
C. 4.2 Joules per calorie D.4.2 Joules
REE - APRIL 2013
10. Temperature coefficient of a conductor is defined as the
A. increase in resistance per ohm per degree centigrade
B. increase in resistance per degree centigrade
C. increase in resistance per degree absolute
D. decrease in resistance per ohm per degree centigrade
11. When current flows in a conductor, heat is produced because
A. heat α I2
B. of electronic collision
C. of interatomic collision
D. of Joule’s law
REE - SEPT. 2009
12. The heating effect of oven has undesirable side effect in
A. electric oven B. electric iron C. immersion heater D. vacuum cleaner
13. The resistance of carbon (filament in carbon-filament lamps) when its temperature is decreased
A. increases B. decreases
C. remains the same D. increases enormously
14. The curve representing Ohm’s law is
A. a parabola B. linear C. sine function D. hyperbola
REE - SEPT. 2014
15. The condition in Ohm’s law is that
A. ratio V/I should be constant
B. current should be proportional to voltage
C. the temperature should remain constant
D. the temperature should vary
16. Ohm’s law does not apply to
A. conductors
B. conductors when there is change in temperature
 C. semiconductor
D. a.c. circuit
17. Ohm’s law is applicable to
A. electric arc B. rectifying device
C. gas discharge lamps D. none of these
18. Ohm’s law can be applied with certain reservations to
A. rectifying devices B. semiconductors
C. electrolytes D. thermionic valves
19. The presence of an electric current is made known by
A. flashing B. effects produced
C. cracking D. electric shock
20. An electric current can neither be _______ nor _______.
A. felt, seen B. seen, touched
C. seen, produced any effect D. produced, felt
21. The presence of the current is only made known by the effects it produces. Three important
effects are
A. heating, electric shock and generation
B. generation, chemical and electric shock
C. heating, magnetic and electric shock
D. heating, magnetic and chemical
22. Voltage applied across a circuit, acts as
A. mass of electrons B. negative ions
C. a component of current D. a force
23. In a series circuit the current is
A. constant B. is different from the applied voltage
C. proportional to the resistance D. different in different resistors
24. In a parallel circuit the potential difference across the resistance
A. varies B. always zero
C. is sometimes constant D. is always constant
25. The resistance R1 and R2 are connected in parallel. The ratio of values of resistance values R1:R2
is 4:1. The currents in R1:R2 will be equal to
A. 1:4 B. 1:1 C. 4:1 D. 4:4
26. A resistance of 4 ohms is connected across 100 V supply. When another resistor ‘R’ ohms is
connected in parallel with 4 ohms, the total current taken from supply was found to be 50 A. The
value of resistance ‘R’ is
A. 2 ohms B. 3 ohms C. 5 ohms D. 4 ohms
27. The voltage applied across an electric press was reduced by 50%. The power consumed by the
press will be reduced by
A. 25% B. 75% C. 60% D. 50%
28. Two electric presses are connected in parallel. The resistance of the first press is 100 ohms and
that of the second is 300 ohms. The total current taken by both the presses is 4 A. The ratio of
current taken by first : second will be equal to
A. 2:3 B. 1:3 C. 3:1 D. 1.2:3
29. Three elements having conductance G1, G2 and G3 are connected in parallel. Their combined
conductance will be
𝟏
A. 𝑮𝟏 + 𝑮𝟐 + 𝑮𝟑 B. 𝑮
𝟏 + 𝑮𝟐 + 𝑮𝟑
𝑮𝟏 𝑮𝟐 + 𝑮𝟐 𝑮𝟑 + 𝑮𝟑 𝑮𝟏 𝟏
C. 𝑮𝟏 + 𝑮𝟐 + 𝑮𝟑
D. 𝟏 𝟏 𝟏
+ +
𝑮𝟏 𝑮𝟐 𝑮𝟑

30. Four resistances R1, R2, R3, R4 are connected in series against 220 V supply. The resistances
such that R1 > R2 > R3 > R4. The least power consumption will be in
A. resistor R1 B. resistor R4
C. resistor R3 D. resistor R2
31. When current flows through the heater coil it glows but supply wiring does not glow because
A. supply wiring is covered with insulation layer
B. current through supply line flows at slower speed
C. supply wires are made of superior material
D. resistance of heater coil is more than that of supply wires
32. Resistors commonly used in power circuits are
A. carbon resistors B. etched circuit resistors
C. wire wound resistors D. deposited metal resistors
33. International ohm is defined in terms of resistance of
A. a column of mercury B. a cube of carbon
C. unit length of metal wire D. a cube of copper
34. Which of the following has negative coefficient of resistance
A. wire wound resistor B. non-metals
C. thermistor D. metals
35. The current carrying capacity of the fuse material depends on
A. length B. material
C. cross-sectional area D. all of these
 MAGNETISM AND ELECTROMAGNETISM
1. A natural magnet is called
A. steel B. lodestone C. magnetism D. soft iron
2. A magnet is able to attract
A. iron, aluminum and brass B. iron, cobalt and zinc
C. iron, copper and nickel D. nickel, cobalt and steel
3. Externally, magnetic line of force travels
A. south to north B. north to south
C. negative to positive D. in both directions
4. A material commonly used for shielding or screening magnetism is
A. brass B. aluminum C. copper D. soft iron
5. The magnetism that remains in a magnet after the magnetizing force has been removed is called
A. permeability B. induction C. residual D. saturation
6. Iron becomes magnetized by induction when it is
A. heated B. suspended east and west
C. near to one end of a magnet D. treated with some chemicals
7. Magnetic lines of force are called
A. hysteresis B. current C. flux D. magnetomotive force
8. The force between two magnetic poles varies with the distance between them. The variation is
A. in direct proportion to the distance
B. in inverse proportion to the distance
C. in direct proportion to the square of the distance
D. in inverse proportion to the square of the distance
9. The magnetic potential in a magnetic circuit can be measured in terms of
A. farads B. M.M.F. C. coulombs D. none of these
10. Permeance is analogous to
A. conductance B. resistance C. reluctance D. none of these
11. The permeability of a material means
A. strength of permanent magnets
B. strength of an electromagnet
C. the magnetization left in the iron after exciting field has been removed
D. the conductivity of a material for magnetic lines of force
12. When the magnetic flux (Ф) and the area (A) under its influence are known, the magnetic flux
density (B) can be given as
Ф
A. 𝐵 = Ф𝐴 B. 𝑩 = 𝑨
𝐴
C. 𝐵 = D. 𝐵 = Ф𝐴2
Ф
13. The relative permeability µr is given by
𝑩 𝐵
A. B.
µ𝟎 𝑯 𝐻
µ0 µ0
C. D.
µ 𝐻

14. Relative permeability of a material is given by (K is susceptibility or the material)

𝑲
A. 1 + µ0 𝐾 B. 𝟏 +
µ𝟎
µ0
C. 1 + D. µ0 𝐻
𝑘
15. The relative permeability of paramagnetic substance is
A. slightly less than 1 B. equal to 1
C. slightly greater than 1 D. very much greater than 1
16. The value of permeability for the free space is
A. 4 x 10-7 Hm-1 B. 4π x 10-7 Hm-1
1
C. 4π x 107 Hm-1 D. 4 x 10-7 Hm-1
17. The magnetization in any magnetic material appears as a result of
A. electrons orbital motion B. electron spin
C. spin of the nucleus about its axis D. all of these
18. The sum of magnetic moments in unit volume of the solid is called
A.. field strength B. magnetization
C. permeability D. susceptibility
19. Which of the following materials does not have permanent magnetic dipole?
A. paramagnetic B. antiferromagnetic
C. diamagnetic D. ferromagnetic
20. Interaction between the neighboring dipoles is negligible in case of a
A. paramagnetic material B. diamagnetic material
C. antiferromagnetic material D. ferromagnetic material
21. Each ferromagnetic material has characteristic temperature above which its properties are quite
different from those below that temperature. This temperature is called
A. transition temperature B. Faraday’s temperature
C. demagnetization temperature D. Curie temperature
22. The relative permeability µr for iron
A. 5000 B. 7000 C. 3000 D. 1000
23. Which of the following material is used for making permanent magnets
A. carbon steel B. platinum cobalt C. Alnico V D. All of these
24. Which of the following has the highest value of relative permeability µr?
A. iron B. supermalloy C. Mu-metal D. 4% Si – Fe
25. Ferromagnetic materials generally behave as a
A. semiconductor B. conductor
 C. insulator D. any of A, B, or C
26. Transformer cores operating at microwave frequency ranges are generally made up of
A. ferrites B. silicon steel C. supermalloy D. alnico V
27. The magnetic materials which can be easily magnetized in both directions are known as
A. soft magnetic materials B. hard magnetic materials
C. low hysteresis loss materials D. high hysteresis loss materials
28. Eddy current loss can be minimized by
A. decreasing the resistance of magnetic medium
B. increasing the resistance of magnetic medium
C. decreasing the permeability of magnetic medium
D. none of the above
 ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION
1. The coefficient of self-inductance of a coil is defined as
A. NI/Ф B. NФ/I C. Ф/NI D. ФI/N
2. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
A. Whenever the flux linking with the coil or circuit changes the emf is produced.
B. The direction of dynamically induced emf can be determined by Fleming’s right hand rule.
C. Coefficient of coupling for tightly coupled coil is zero.
D. The coefficient of self-inductance is proportional to the square of number of turns on it.
3. Which of the following statements about inductance of a coil is true?
A. Inductance is a characteristic of coil occurring only in case of A.C.
B. Inductance appears only if the coil has an iron core.
C. Inductance is only another expression for self-induced voltage.
D. Inductance characterizes the magnetic properties of a coil which are significant for the
value of self-induced voltage generated due to current change in the coil.
4. A collapsing field around a coil
A. tends to oppose the decay of coil current
B. helps the decay of coil current
C. tends to aid current flow reversal
D. does not affect the coil current flow
5. Energy stored in an inductance is given by
A. 2𝐿𝐼2 𝑗𝑜𝑢𝑙𝑒𝑠 B. 0 𝑗𝑜𝑢𝑙𝑒
𝑁Ф 𝟏
C. 𝑗𝑜𝑢𝑙𝑒𝑠 D. 𝟐 𝑳𝑰𝟐
𝐼
REE - SEPT. 2012
6. Which of the following is a vector quantity?
A. magnetic potential B. flux density
C. magnetic field intensity D. relative permeability
7. A conductor of length L has current I passing through it, when it is placed parallel to a strong
magnetic field. The force experienced by the conductor will be
A. BLI B. zero C. B2LI D. BL2I
8. Whenever a conductor cuts magnetic flux, an emf is induced in that conductor. This statement is
due to
A. Joule’s law B. Coulomb’s law
C. Faraday’s law D. Weber and Ewing’s Law
9. The left hand rule correlates
A. self-induction, mutual induction and direction of force on a conductor
B. magnetic field, electric field and direction of force on a conductor
 C. current, induced emf and direction of force on a conductor
D. current, magnetic field and direction of force on a conductor
REE - SEPT. 2014
10. In the left hand rule, thumb always represents
A. voltage B. current
C. direction of force on conductor D. magnetic field
11. The coefficient of coupling between two air core coils depends on
A. self-inductance of the two coils only
B. mutual inductance between the two coils only
C. mutual inductance and self-inductance of the two coils
D. none of these
12. While comparing magnetic and electric circuits, the flux of magnetic circuit is compared with
which parameter of electric circuit?
A. e.m.f. B. current density
C. conductivity D. current
13. While comparing magnetic and electric circuits, the point of dissimilarity exist while considering
A. flux and current flow B. permeance and conductance
C. m.m.f and e.m.f. D. reluctance and resistance
14. The effect of the inductance of a coil on a constant direct current is that
A. it strengthens the current
B. it does not affect the constant direct current
C. it decreases the current
D. it causes a higher voltage drop
15. Good smoothing factor of a coil depends of the
A. terminal voltage B. property of the wire of the coil
C. inductance of the coil D. cross-sectional area of the wire of the coil
16. Leakage factor is
A. less than unity B. equal to unity
C. more than unity D. zero
REE - APRIL 2013
17. The law that induces emf and current always opposes the cause producing them was discovered
by
A. Lenz B. Faraday
C. Maxwell D. Ohm
18. According to Lenz’s law the direction of induced e.m.f. and hence current
A. may be found by the right hand rule
B. always opposes the cause producing it
 C. is determined by the rate of cutting flux
D. may be found by the left hand rule
19. Sparking occurs when a load is switched off because the circuit has high
A. capacitance B. inductance C. resistance D. impedance
𝑑
20. The flux linked with a coil of inductance L carrying current i is (𝐿𝑖)
𝑑𝑡
A. True B. False C. Partly true D. Partly false
21. When steel toroidal ring is magnetized by passing current through its coil, it develops no magnetic
poles
A. True B. False C. Partly true D. Partly false
22. Air gap in the iron core of inductor prevents
A. hysteresis loss B. flux change
C. transformer action D. core saturation
23. The growth of current in an inductive circuit follows
A. hyperbolic law B. Ohm’s law
C. exponential law D. linear law
24. The time constant of an inductive circuit is defined as the ratio of
A. R/L B. Rt/L C. Lt/R D. L/R
25. The time constant is the time it takes the current in an inductive circuit to rise to
A. 66% of its final steady state value
B. 70% of its final steady state value
C. 63% of its final steady state value
D. 50% of its final steady state value
26. Mutual inductance can also be defined as
𝒅Ф 𝑑𝑡
A. 𝑴 = 𝑵𝟐 B. 𝑀 = 𝑁2 𝑑𝑖
𝒅𝒕
𝑑𝑖 𝑑𝑡
C. 𝑀 = 𝑁2 𝑑𝑡 D. 𝑀 = 𝑁2 𝑑Ф
27. The mutual inductance of two coils is maximum when the coils are
A. inclined at an angle of 45 degrees
B. at right angle to each other
C. facing each other
D. touching each other
28. The value of mutual inductance in terms of self-inductance of the two coils L1 and L2 is
proportional to
𝐿1
A. 𝐿1 𝐿2 B.
𝐿2

B. √ 𝐿1 /𝐿2 D. √ 𝑳𝟏 𝑳𝟐
29. Coefficient of coupling k, a term much used in radio work can be obtained from
A.𝐾 = 𝑀√𝐿1 𝐿2 B. 𝐾 = 𝑀√𝐿1 /𝐿2
C. 𝑲 = 𝑴/√𝑳𝟏 𝑳𝟐 D. 𝐾 = 𝑀𝐿1 𝐿2
30. The coupling coefficient denotes
A. the degree of magnetic linkage
B. whether the reluctance remains constant
C. the variation of inductance between the two coils
D. whether the flux linkage is constant
31. It is difficult to magnetize steel because of its
A. low permeability B. high retentivity
B. high permeability D. high density
32. In electrical machines, laminated core are used with a view of reducing
A. eddy current loss B. copper loss
C. hysteresis loss D. windage loss
33. The area of hysteresis loop represents hysteresis loss in
A. J/m3/s B. J/cycle
C. J/s D. J/m3
34. According to Hysteresis law, hysteresis loss in a material is proportional to
A. B1.2 B. B1.6
C. B0.6 D. B3.6
35. A degaussing is the process of
A. removing gases from materials
B. removal of magnetic impurities
C. demagnetizing metallic part
D. magnetizing nonmetallic part
36. Hysteresis losses can be reduced by
A. using grain-oriented silicon sheet
B. increasing the frequency of the field
C. laminating the core
D. none of these
 ELECTROSTATICS
1. Absolute permittivity of vacuum is taken
A. 8.854 x 10-6 farad/meter
B. 8.854 x 10-12 farad/meter
C. 8.854 x 10-9 farad/meter
D. 8.854 x 1012 farad/meter
2. Relative permittivity of vacuum is
A. zero B. 8.854 x 10-6 farad/meter
C. unity D. 9 x 109 farad/meter
3. In the electric field, the potential is the work done in joules
A. to bring positive charge of one coulomb from infinity to that point
B. to bring any charge from infinity to that point
C. in moving a unit positive charge from one point to the other point
D. to bring any charge from any point to infinity
4. The unit of field intensity is
A. coulomb B. coulomb/m2
C. newtons/coulomb D. newtons/m2
5. Coulomb’s law for the force between electric charges most closely resembles with
A. Gauss theorem B. Newton’s law of gravitation
C. Law of conservation of energy D. Newton’s law of motion
6. Which of the following equation is correct?
A. ∫ Ē𝑑ĺ = 0 B. ∮ Ē𝑑ś = 𝑞
𝑞
C. ∫ Ē𝑑ś = 𝜀 D. ∫𝑺⟶𝒔 Ē𝒅ĺ = 𝟎
0

7. The field is a
A. rotational field B. irrotational field
C. conservative field D. static electric field
8. Dielectric strength of a material depends on
A. moisture content B. thickness
C. temperature D. all of these
REE - APRIL 2007
9. What will happen to an insulating medium if voltage more than the breakdown voltage is applied?
A. it will get punctured B. it will become magnetic
C. it will melt D. its molecular structure will change
10. Which medium has the highest value of dielectric strength?
A. glass B. mica
C. porcelain D. quartz
 11. The maximum value of potential gradient in a cable occurs in
A. outer sheath B. insulation
C. conductor D. uniformly all over
12. A region around a stationary electric charge has
A. electric field B. magnetic field
C. both electric and magnetic field D. neither of the two
13. Inside a hollow spherical conductor
A. electric field is constant
B. electric field is zero
C. electric field changes with distance from the center of the sphere
D. electric field is unity
14. Capacitors are said to
A. block a.c. and pass d.c. B. block d.c. and pass a.c.
C. pass a.c. and d.c. D. block a.c. and d.c.
15. Which statement influences the capacity of a capacitor?
A. area of the plates, thickness of the plates and the rate of change
B. area of the plates, dielectric and the rate of change
C. distance between the plates, dielectric and thickness of the plates
D. distance between the plates, area of the plates and dielectric
REE - APRIL 2007
16. The effect of the dielectric is to
A. increase the capacitance B. decrease the capacitance
C. reduce the working voltage D. increase the distance between the plates
17. Electrolytic capacitor is the most commonly used type but it has two disadvantages, namely
A. low insulation resistance and suitable for d.c. only
B. high insulation resistance and suitable for a.c. only
C. high capacitance and high insulation resistance
D. high capacitance and low insulation resistance
18. In a radio, a gang capacitor is a type of
A. air capacitor B. paper capacitor C. ceramic capacitor D. electrolytic capacitor
19. A sphere of one meter radius can attain a maximum potential of
A. 1000 V B. 3 million volts C. 30 kV D. 3 kV
20. The power dissipated in a pure capacitor is
A. maximum B. minimum
C. zero D. depends on the size and voltage
REE - SEPT. 2012
21. One farad is
 A. coulomb-joule B. one coulomb per volt
C. joule per volt D. one volt per coulomb
22. If a dielectric is placed in an electric field, the field strength
A. decreases B. increases
C. remains the same D. becomes zero
23. If the medium of a parallel-plate capacitor consists of mica and air, the capacitance is increased
by
A. increasing the air space
B. increasing the area of the plates
C. decreasing the area of the plates
D. increasing the thickness of mica
24. A capacitance C is charge through a resistance R. The time constant of the charging circuit is
given
1 𝐶 𝑅
A. 𝑹𝑪 B. 𝑅𝐶 C. 𝑅 D. 𝐶
25. A circuit component that opposes the change in the circuit voltage
A. capacitance B. inductance C. capacitance D. none of these
26. In a capacitor, the electric charge is stored in
A. metal plates B. dielectric
C. dielectric as well as metal plates D. neither dielectric nor metal plates
27. Internal heating of a capacitor is usually attributed to
A. leakage resistance B. electron movement
C. plate vibration D. dielectric charge
28. The ohmmeter reading for shorted capacitor is
A. infinity B. few kilo ohms C. few mega ohms D. zero
 ELECTROLYSIS AND STORAGE BATTERIES
1. Electromechanical equivalent is
A. ratio of atomic weight of an element to atomic weight of hydrogen
B. mass of the element liberated per unit quantity of hydrogen
C. ratio of atomic weight of valency
D. none of the above
2. The mass of material deposited over an electrode is
A. proportional to voltage
B. proportional to time only
C. proportional to current only
D. proportional to quantity of electricity and electrochemical equivalent
3. The mass of an ion liberated at an electrode is directly proportional to the quantity of electricity
which passes through the electrolyte. The above statement is associated with
A. Gauss’s theorem B. Laplace law
C. Weber and Ewing’s law D. laws of electrolysis
4. In electroplating, the positive electrode is called
A. cathode B. anode C. terminal D. iontrap
5. Impurities in an electrolyte can cause an internal short circuit condition called
A. depolarization B. electrolysis C. local action D. polarization
6. Distilled or approved water is used in electrolytes because it
A. prevents of slows down local action
B. speeds up electrochemical action
C. improves specific gravity
D. prevents polarization
7. The condition of a liquid electrolyte is measured in terms of its
A. current value B. specific gravity C. acid content D. voltage output
8. One factor affecting voltages of the primary cell is the
A. area of the plates B. distance between the plates
C. types of plates and electrolyte D. thickness of the plates
9. Local action in the primary cell can be rectified by
A. charging the cell
B. amalgamating the zinc electrode with mercury
C. using the cell for just few minutes
D. dry cell
10. The action of a dry cell is to change
A. chemical action to mechanical energy
 B. chemical action to electrical energy
C. electrical energy to mechanical energy
D. electrical energy to magnetic energy
11. Polarization in dry cell can be got rid of by
A. coating the electrodes of the cell B. chemical means
C. discharging the cell D. disposing the cell
12. The two main defects of primary cell are
A. polarization and sulphation B. localization and polarization
C. buckling and polarization D. sulphation and buckling
13. The average dry cell gives an approximate voltage of
A. 1.3 V B. 1.5 V C. 1.1 V D. 1.7 V
14. To obtain a high voltage of about 1.9 V from a dry cell, one would use
A. Western standard cell B. Lenclanche cell
C. Nickel cadmium cell D. Magnesium cell
15. When n cells, each of emf E volts, and internal resistance r ohms are connected in series, the
current i through an external resistance R is given by
𝐸 𝐸
A. 𝑖 = 𝑟 B. 𝑖 =
𝑅+ 𝑅+𝑛
𝑛
𝒏𝑬 𝐸
C. 𝒊 = 𝑹+𝒏𝒓 D. 𝑖 = 𝑟+𝑛𝑅
16. When n cells, each of emf E volts, and internal resistance r ohms are connected in parallel, the
strength of the current i is given by
𝑬 𝑛𝐸
A. 𝑹+ 𝒓 B. 𝑟+𝑅
𝒏
𝐸 𝐸
C. D. 𝑛
𝑛+𝑅𝑟 𝑅+
𝑟

17. Cells are connected in parallel to

A. increase the internal resistance B. decrease the current capacity
C. increase the current capacity D. increase the voltage output
18. Cells are connected in series to
A. decrease the voltage output B. increase the voltage output
C. decrease the internal resistance D. increase the current capacity
19. The function of the depolarizer in carbon zinc cell is that
A. it converts the produced hydrogen into water
B. it prevents the fast chemical action on the zinc container
C. it synthesizes the decomposed electrolyte
D. it absorbs the oxygen produced in the cell
20. Which of the following acts as depolarizer in dry cell?
A. manganese dioxide B. zinc chloride
C. ammonium chloride D. carbon powder
21. One advantage of a secondary cell is that it
A. can be recharged B. can be used for portable equipment
C. it is compact, easy to carry D. cannot be recharged
22. The composition of a secondary cell is
A. zinc, copper and dilute sulphuric acid
B. zinc, carbon and dilute sulphuric acid
C. lead, lead peroxide and dilute sulphuric acid
D. zinc, copper and dilute boric acid
23. Nickel-cadmium dry cell is becoming popular in power supplies to electronic calculators because
A. it has a standard shape B. it is dry
C. it is rechargeable D. it is easily manufactured
24. Secondary cell can produce large amounts of power for a
A. short time and can be recharged
B. long time and can be recharged
C. short time and cannot be recharged
D. long time and cannot be recharged
25. Gassing occurs in the process of
A. charging an accumulator B. charging a dry cell
C. discharging an accumulator D. discharging a dry cell
26. The condition of a secondary cell ca be determined by
A. its terminal voltage
B. the color of the electrolyte
C. the level of electrolyte
D. the terminal voltage and strength of the electrolyte
27. The lead acid accumulator should be recharged when the specific gravity of the electrolyte is
about
A. 1.15 B. 1.80 C. 1.25 D. 1.35
28. Other types of accumulators besides the lead acid type are
A. alkaline batteries only B. alkaline and solar batteries
C. alkaline and dry batteries D. nickel-cadmium batteries
29. Electrolyte of a storage battery is formed by adding
A. water to hydrochloric acid B. sulphuric acid to water
C. hydrochloric acid to water D. water to sulphuric acid
30. When the electrolyte of a storage battery is low it is usually proper to
A. add a special weak acid solution
B. top up with distilled water
C. charge the battery for a short time before adding an electrolyte
 D. drain the battery completely and fill it with fresh electrolyte
REE - SEPT. 2014
31. The ampere hour capacity of battery depends on
A. the thickness of the plates B. the area of the plates
C. the strength of the electrolytes D. the distance between the plates
32. To keep the terminals of a lead acid storage battery free from corrosion, it is advisable to
A. clean the terminals frequently B. charge the battery at frequent intervals
C. keep the electrolyte level low D. apply petroleum jelly
33. The internal resistance of a discharged battery compared with a charged one
A. is more B. is less
C. remains constant D. is negative
34. It is not desirable to leave a lead storage battery in a discharged state for a long time mainly
because
A. electrolyte will attack the container B. plates will become sulphated
C. electrolyte will become weak D. acid will evaporate
35. A partially discharged lead storage battery may be brought back to full charge by
A. adding a sulphuric acid B. adding distilled water
C. applying ac voltage across the terminals D. applying dc voltage across the terminals
36. Which of the following is a primary cell?
A. mercury oxide B. lead-acid
C. nickel-iron-alkaline D. nickel-cadmium-alkaline
37. Charging a lead-acid cell causes the electrolyte to become
A. stronger B. stable C. weaker D. water
38. Separators in storage battery cell are designed to prevent the plates
A. touching the electrolyte B. touching the container
C. shorting together D. shorting to the sediment
39. Which of the following affects the capacity of a lead-acid battery?
A. temperature B. discharge time C. specific gravity D. all of these
40. During the charging period of a lead-acid battery, the charging rate is lowered to prevent violent
gassing because
A. the gasses given off are explosive
B. evaporation of the electrolyte will weaken its effect
C. the cells will be subjected to excessive pressure
D. violent gassing tends to wash the active material from the plates
41. A fuel cell converts _______ energy into electrical energy
A. mechanical B. magnetic C. chemical D. solar
42. A cell which is used as voltage reference source for instrument calibration is
 A. solar cell B. dry cell
C. mercury-cadmium cell D. nickel-cadmium cell
43. The advantage of the iron-nickel battery over the lead-acid battery is that
A. it has a much higher efficiency
B. it needs less maintenance
C. the cell voltage of the iron-nickel battery is higher
D. it is much cheaper
44. While charging accumulators, one should
A. check the acid level with a lighted match
B. short the cells to see if they are fully charged
C. keep them in a well-ventilated space
D. connect and disconnect them with the supply on
 D.C. GENERATORS
1. The output voltage of a single loop generator is a
A. steady d.c. B. steady a.c. C. pulsating a.c. D. pulsating d.c.
2. The smooth output from the generator is obtained by
A. design of the armature winding
B. changing the form of the commutator
C. changing the field strength
D. design of the commutator
3. The generated voltage of a generator is given by the equation
𝑑𝑖 𝑑Ф
A. 𝐸 = 𝑉 − 𝐼𝑎𝑅𝑎 B. 𝑬 = 𝑽 + 𝑰𝒂𝑹𝒂 C. 𝐸 = −𝐿 𝑑𝑡 D. 𝐸 = 𝑁 𝑑𝑡
4. What effect on current flow does reversing the direction of movement of a conductor in the
magnetic field of a generator have
A. neutralizes the current flow
B. has no effect on current
C. it reverses the direction of current flow
D. has no effect on the voltage
5. In most generators the output voltage is induced by
A. rotating magnetic field past stationary coils
B. relative motion between the field and the armature coils
C. converting electrical energy into mechanical energy
D. converting chemical energy into electrical energy
6. How would you determine, from visual observation of the armature winding, whether a generator
is lap or wave wound?
A. connection to the field winding
B. connection to the commutator
C. connection to the brushes
D. the direction of the end connection
7. What classification is given to a d.c. generator that receives its field excitation current from
internal source?
A. self-excited B. controlled excitation
C. separately excited D. internally excited
8. The shunt field of a compound generator is connected across both the series field and the
armature. This connection is known as
A. short shunt B. long shunt
C. differential compound D. cumulative compound
9. For all symbols having their usual meaning, the emf generated in the lap winding is given by
 Ф𝐿𝑁 𝑃 Ф𝑍𝑁𝑎
A. 𝐸 = ( ) B. 𝐸 =
60 2 2𝑃
Ф𝒁𝑵 𝑷 Ф𝑍𝑁 𝑎
C. 𝑬 = 𝟔𝟎
(𝒂 ) D. 𝐸 = 120
(𝑃 )
10. Residual magnetism is necessary in a
A. separately excited generator B. self-excited generator
C. both of these D. none of these
11. If the number of poles in a lap wounded generator is increased by a factor of 2, the generated
emf will
A. remain the same B. increase by a factor of 2
C. decrease by a factor of 2 D. increase by a factor of 4
12. Electric dc generators have normally, an overall efficiency of the order of
A. 60-80% B. 75-85% C. 80-90% D. 85-95%
13. The armature magnetic field has effect that
A. it demagnetizes or weakens the main flux
B. it cross magnetizes, or distorts it
C. it magnetizes or strengthens the main flux
D. A and B
14. Brushes are always placed along
A. magnetic neutral axis (MNA) B. geometric neutral axis (GNA)
C. perpendicular to MNA D. perpendicular to GNA
15. Magnetic neutral axis makes an angle of _______ with the flux passing through the armature.
A. 0° B. 90° C. 45° D. 180°
16. In a dc generator, the flux is seen to be _______ at the trailing pole tips and also _______ at the
leading pole tips.
A. weakened, weakened B. weakened, crowded
C. crowded, weakened D. same, same
17. If θm is the forward lead angle in radians, Z is the total number of conductors and I is the current
in each armature pole, the demagnetizing ampere-turns/pole are given as
𝜃𝑚 𝜽𝒎
A. 𝐴𝑇𝑎 = 𝑍𝐼𝑥 180 B. 𝑨𝑻𝒂 = 𝒁𝑰𝒙 𝟐𝝅
1 2𝜃𝑚
C. 𝐴𝑇𝑎 = 𝑍𝐼(𝑃 − 3𝜋
) D. none of these
18. The function of a compensating winding is to neutralize the
A. reactance voltage generated as a consequence of commutation
B. cross magnetizing effect of armature reaction
C. demagnetizing effect of armature reaction
D. all of these
19. In the commutation process it is the
A. current which is getting reversed
B. voltage which is getting reversed
 C. both of these
D. none of these
20. In any dc generator the emf generated in the armature is maximum when
A. rate of change of flux linked is minimum
B. rate of change of flux linked is maximum
C. flux linked with conductor is maximum
D. flux linked with conductor is maximum
21. A simple method of increasing the voltage of a dc generator is
A. to decrease the air gap flux density
B. to increase the speed of rotation
C. to decrease the speed of rotation
D. to increase the length of the armature
22. The method which can be used to improve commutation process is
A. increasing the resistance of the brushes
B. reducing the number of turns in the armature coil and hence the number of segments in
the commutator
C. to neutralize the reactance voltage by producing a reverse emf in the short circuit coil
under commutation
D. all of the above
23. The function of interpole or compole is
A. to neutralize the reactance voltage and help in commutation process
B. to neutralize the cross-magnetizing effect of armature reaction
C. to neutralize the demagnetizing effect of armature reaction
D. A and B
24. Interpoles are connected in _______ with the armature and compensating windings are connected
in _______ with the armature.
A. series, series B. series, shunt C. shunt, series D. shunt, shunt
25. The function of an equalizer ring is
A. to avoid unequal distribution of current at the brushes
B. to help get sparkles commutation
C. both of these
D. none of these
26. Generators are often preferred to be run in parallel because of having the advantages of
A. greater reliability B. greater efficiency
C. meeting greater load demand D. all of these
27. Which of the following is most suitable for running in parallel operation?
A. shunt generator B. series generator
 C. compound generator D. all of these are equally suitable
28. Critical resistance of a dc generator RC
A. RC α (speed)-1 B. RC α (speed)
C. RC α (speed)2 D. RC α (speed)-2
29. Shunt generators are used where the main requirement is a constant
A. current and voltage B. current
C. voltage over a wide load range D. voltage over a narrow load range
30. Equalizer connections are required when paralleling two
A. compound generators B. series generators
C. shunt generators D. long shunt generators
31. The function of an interpole is
A. neutralize cross-field of armature reaction and obtain ideal commutation
B. increase the armature reaction and thus obtain ideal commutation
C. neutralize cross-field of the armature reaction and thus obtain under commutation
D. increase the armature reaction and thus obtain over commutation
32. Interpoles are normally connected in
A. parallel with the field B. series with the field
C. parallel with the load D. series with the load
33. In DC generators, lap winding is used for
A. low voltage, low current B. high voltage, high current
C. low voltage, high current D. high voltage, low current
34. DC generators preferred for charging automobile batteries is
A. shunt generator B. series generator
C. long shunt compound generator D. short shunt generator
35. Which of the following components of a dc generator plays vital role for providing direct current of
a dc generator?
A. dummy coils B. equalizer rings C. eye bolt D. commutator
36. In dc generator the ripples in the direct emf generated are reduced by
A. using equalizer rings
B. using commutator with large number of segments
C. using carbon brushes of superior quality
D. using carbon brushes of excellent quality
37. Which of the following generators are preferred for parallel operations?
A. series generator B. shunt generator
C. compound generator D. all of these
38. Full load efficiency of the generator will be
A. 68.5% B. 73.5% C. 80.8% D. 92.51%
39. Which loss in dc generator varies with load?
A. copper loss B. eddy current loss C. hysteresis loss D. windage loss
40. In dc generator, the cause of rapid brush wear may be
A. imperfect contact B. severe sparking
C. rough commutator surface D. any of these
41. In a shunt generator, the voltage built up is generally restricted by
A. speed limitation B. armature heating
C. saturation of iron D. brush wear
42. The armature of a dc generator is laminated to
A. reduce the bulk B. insulate the core
C. reduce eddy current loss D. provide passage for cooling air
43. Which of the following helps in reducing the effect of armature reaction in dc generator?
A. compensating windings B. interpoles
C. both A and B D. neither A nor B
44. With dc generator, which of the following regulation is preferred?
A. 1% regulation B. 50% regulation
C. infinite regulation D. 100% regulation
 D.C. MOTORS
1. What is the effect produced by the electric motor?
A. magnetic effect only
B. magnetic as well as heating effect
C. heating effect only
D. heating as well as chemical effect
2. The rotating part of a dc motor is known as
A. pole B. stator C. armature D. carbon brush
3. The function of the commutator in a dc machine is
A. to change alternating current to direct current
B. to improve commutation
C. for easy speed regulation
D. to change alternating voltage to direct voltage
4. Carbon brushes are used in electric motors to
A. brush off carbon deposits on the commutator
B. provide a path for flow of current
C. prevent overheating of armature windings
D. prevent sparking during commutation
5. Terminal voltage equation for dc motor is
A. V = Eb + IaRa B. V = Eb - IaRa C. Eb = V + IaRa D. Eb = V - IaRa
6. Condition for maximum power output for a dc motor is
1
A. Eb = V B. Eb = V/2 C. Eb = IaRa D. Eb = 2 IaRa
7. The speed of a dc motor is
A. directly proportional to back emf and inversely proportional to flux
B. inversely proportional to back emf and directly proportional to flux
C. directly proportional to emf as well as flux
D. inversely proportional to emf as well as flux
8. The highest speed attained by a dc shunt motor is
A. equal to infinity of rated flux
B. higher than no load speed at rated flux
C. equal to no load speed at rated flux
D. lower than no load speed at rated flux
9. In a dc motor, iron losses occur in
A. the yoke B. the armature C. the field D. none of these
10. The dummy coil in dc machines is used to
A. eliminate reactance voltage
 B. eliminate armature reaction
C. bring about mechanical balance of armature
D. eliminate harmonics developed in the machine
11. An external resistance is added in series with the field of a dc shunt motor. When the motor runs,
the effect of resistance is
A. to reduce the speed of the motor
B. to increase the speed of the motor
C. to reduce the armature current drawn by the motor
D. to reduce the losses
12. The speed of a dc shunt motor is required to be more than F.L. speed. This is possible by
A. increasing the armature current
B. decreasing the armature current
C. increasing the excitation current
D. reducing the field current
13. If speed of a dc shunt motor increases, the back emf
A. increases B. decreases
C. remains constant D. decreases and then increases
14. The current flowing in the armature conductors of a dc motor is
A. ac B. dc C. ac as well as dc D. transients
15. As the load is increased the speed of a dc shunt motor will
A. remain constant B. increase proportionately
C. increase slightly D. reduce slightly
16. The current drawn by the armature of a dc motor is
V E 𝑽−𝐄𝐛 Eb −V
A. R B. Rb C. 𝐑𝐚
D. Ra
a a

17. If the current in the armature of a dc series motor is reduced to 50%, the torque of the motor will
become
A. 50% of the previous value
B. 25% of the previous value
C. 150% of the previous value
D. 125% of the previous value
18. The shunt current flowing in short shunt compound-wound motor is given by
V 𝐕+𝐈𝐒 𝐑 𝐒 I S RS
A. Ish = B. 𝐈𝐬𝐡 = C. Ish = V − D. none of these
Rsh 𝐑 𝐬𝐡 Rsh

19. In dc shunt motor, if the terminal voltage is reduced to half and torque remains the same, then
A. speed will be half and armature current also will be half
B. speed will be half and armature current remains the same
C. speed will be half and armature current becomes double
 D. speed and armature current will remain the same
20. One dc motor drives another dc motor. The second dc motor when excited and driven
A. runs B. does not run as a generator
C. runs as a generator D. also runs as a motor
21. Armature torque of a dc motor is given by
P P
A. T = 0.159ФZIa ( a ) kg-m B. T = 0.1620/2Ia ( a ) N-m
𝐄𝐛 P
C. 𝐓 = 𝟎. 𝟏𝟓𝟗 𝐈
𝐍 𝐚
N-m D. T = a kg-m
22. The torque of a motor is
A. the force in N-m acting on the rotor
B. the product of tangential force on the rotor and its radius
C. the electric power in kW
D. the power given to load being driven by the motor
23. The armature current drawn by any dc motor is proportional to
A. the voltage applied to the motor B. the torque required
C. the flux required in the motor D. the speed of the motor
24. The output power of any electrical motor is always
A. the armature B. the coupling mounted on the shaft
C. the conductors D. the poles
25. The power stated on the name plate of any motor is always
A. the output power at the shaft B. the power drawn in kVA
C. the power drawn in kW D. the gross power
26. A starter is necessary to start a dc motor because
A. it starts the motor B. it limits the speed of the motor
C. it limits the back emf to a save value D. it limits the starting current to a safe value
27. The efficiency of any electrical machine/apparatus will be high, if
A. its losses are minimum B. its losses are more
C. voltage applied is constant D. the current drawn is minimum
28. The direction of rotation of a dc motor is reversed by
A. reversing armature connections B. interchanging the armature and field connection
C. adding resistance to the field circuit D. reversing supply connection
29. The armature of a dc motor is laminated
A. to reduce the hysteresis losses B. to reduce the eddy current losses
C. to reduce the inductivity of armature D. to reduce the mass of the armature
30. Which of the following is the correct statement about a series motor?
A. its field winding consists of thicker wire and less turns
B. it can run easily without a load
C. it has an almost constant speed
 D. it has a poor torque
31. Which of the following dc motors has the least drop in speed between no load and nominal load?
A. shunt motor with commutating poles
B. series motor without commutating poles
C. compound motor without commutating poles
D. series motor with commutating poles
32. The speed of a series motor at no load is
A. zero B. 3000 rpm C. 3600 rpm D. infinity
33. The speed of dc series motor decreases if the flux in the field winding
A. remains constant B. increases
C. decreases D. none of these
34. Which of the following motors is used to drive the constant speed line shafting lathes, blowers
and fans?
A. DC shunt motor B. DC series motor
C. cumulative compound motor D. differential compound motor
35. If the back emf in a dc motor is absent, then
A. motor will run at very high speed B. motor will run at very low speed
C. motor will not run at all D. motor will burn
36. The flux of motor can be controlled to achieve
A. the speeds lower than the rated speed
B. the speeds higher than the rated speed
C. the speeds at rated speed
D. none of these
37. By providing a variable resistance across the series field (diverter) in a dc series motor, speeds
above normal can be obtained because
A. armature current decreases B. flux is reduced
C. line current decreases D. none of these
38. DC series motor are best suited for traction work because
A. torque is proportional to the square of armature current and speed is inversely proportional
to torque.
B. torque is proportional to the square of armature current and speed is proportional to
torque.
C. torque and speed is proportional to the square of armature current.
D. none of these
39. A series motor is started without load. The effect is that
A. the torque increases rapidly B. the speed increases rapidly
C. the current drawn increases rapidly D. the back emf decreases
40. The direction of rotation of a dc motor can be reversed by interchanging
A. the supply terminals only B. the field terminals only
C. the supply as well D. none of these
41. The motor used for intermittent, high torque
A. dc shunt motor B. dc series motor
C. differential compound motor D. cumulative compound motor
42. If the field of a dc shunt motor is opened
A. it will continue to run at its rated speed
B. the speed of the motor will become very high
C. the motor will stop
D. the speed of the motor will become very high
43. Which of the following motors is used for rolling mills?
A. DC shunt motor B. cumulative compound motor
C. DC series motor D. DC differential compound motor
44. Armature reaction is attributed to
A. the effect of magnetic field set-up by the armature current
B. the effect of magnetic set-up by the field current
C. copper loss in the armature
D. the effect of magnetic field set-up by back emf
45. What will happen if the supply terminals of a DC shunt motor are interchanged?
A. Motor will stop
B. Motor will run at its normal speed in the same direction as it was running
C. The direction of rotation will reverse
D. Motor will run at a speed lower than the normal speed in the same direction
46. When the electric train is moving down a hill the dc motor acts as
A. dc series motor B. dc shunt motor
C. dc series generator D. dc shunt generator
47. Which of the following motors is suitable for high starting torque?
A. shunt motor B. cumulative compound motor
C. series motor D. compound motor
48. For which of the following dc motors is suitable for high starting torque?
A. shunt motor : electric trains
B. series motor : machine tools
C. series motor : belt drive
D. compound motor : fly wheel drive
49. Why is the air gap between stator and armature of an electric motor kept as small as possible?
A. to get stronger magnetic field B. to make the rotation easier
 C. to reach a higher speed rotation D. to improve the air circulation
50. Interpoles are meant for
A. increasing the speed of the motor
B. decreasing the counter emf
C. reducing sparking at the commutator
D. converting armature current to dc
51. Which of the following methods is most economical for finding the no-load losses of a large dc
shunt motor?
A. Hopkinson’s test B. Swinburne’s test
C. Retardation test D. none of these
52. The rated speed of a given dc shunt motor is 1050 rpm. To run this machine at 1200 rpm, which
of the following speed control scheme will be used?
A. armature current resistance control B. Field resistance control
C. Ward-Leonard control D. none of these
53. It is preferable to start a dc series motor with some mechanical load on it because
A. it will not run at no load
B. it acts as a starter to the motor
C. it may develop excessive speed and damage itself
D. none of these
54. If the flux of a dc motor approaches zero, its speed will approach
A. infinity
B. zero
C. a stable value nearer to the rated speed
D. unity
55. A 230 V dc series motor is connected to 230 V ac. It will
A. run slowly B. not run at all
C. run with less efficiency D. run faster than its rated speed
56. The main function of a commutator in a dc motor is to
A. prevent sparking B. convert ac to dc
C. reduce friction D. convert dc to ac
57. Which of the following statements is incorrect? If a starter is not used with large dc motor, it will
draw a starting current which
A. is many times its full-load
B. will produce excessive line voltage drop
C. will damage the commutator
D. will produce very low starting torque
 A.C. FUNDAMENTALS
1. When using circuit laws and rules we must use
A. maximum value B. effective value
C. average value D. peak to peak value
2. A 60 Hz frequency would cause an electric light to
A. turn on and off 120 times per second
B. flicker noticeable
C. turn on and off 180 times second
D. turn on and off 60 times per second
3. The relationship between frequency f, number of revolutions per second N and pair of poles is
given by
A. f = N/P B. f = N/2P C. f = NP/2 D. f = 2NP
4. The difference between peak +ve value and the peak –ve value of an a.c. voltage is called
A. maximum value B. average value
C. effective value D. peak to peak value
5. The greatest value attained during one half of the cycle is called
A. peak value B. average value C. rms value D. effective
6. The root mean square (r.m.s) value of an a.c. is the same as
A. instantaneous value B. effective value
C. average value D. maximum value
7. The rms value of a sine wave is equal to
A. 0.637 max. value B. 0.707 max. value
C. 0.506 max. value D. 1.414 max. value
8. Formed factor is defined as
A. rms value/peak value B. max. value/rms value
C. rms value/average value D. effective value/rms value
9. The value of form factor for a pure sine wave is
A. 1.414 B. 0.707 C. 0.637 D. 1.11
10. The value of peak factor for a pure sine wave is
A. 1.414 B. 0.707 C. 0.637 D. 1.11
11. If the current and voltage are out of phase by 90 degrees, the power is
A. 1.1 V.I. B. maximum C. minimum D. zero
12. If e1 = A sin ωt and e2 = B sin (ωt - θ) then
A. e1 lags e2 θ B. e2 lags e1 by θ
C. e2 leads e1 by θ D. e1 leads e2 by θ
13. Average value of a sine wave is √2 times the maximum value
 A. True B. False C. Partly true D. Partly false
14. Which of the following frequencies has the longest period?
A. 1 Hz B. 10 Hz C. 1 kHz D. 100 kHz
15. RMS value and the mean value is the same in case of
A. square wave B. sine wave
C. triangular wave D. half wave rectified sine wave
REE - SEPT. 2014
16. When the sole purpose of an alternating current is to produce heat, the selection of conductor is
based on
A. average value of current B. peak value of current
C. rms value of current D. any of these
17. The form factor of dc supply is always
A. infinite B. zero C. 0.5 D. unity
 A.C. CIRCUITS (SERIES AND PARALLEL)
1. The voltage in a series RL circuit _______ the current by and angle _______.
A. lags, 90° B. lags, between 0° and 90°
C. leads, between 0° and 90° D. leads, between 90° and 180°
REE - APRIL 2013
2. In a series RL circuit, the inductor current _______ the resistor current.
A. lags B. leads C. is equal to D. is negative of
3. The impedance triangle is similar to the _______ triangle with the resistance phasor in place of the
_______.
A. current, resistor current B. current, resistor voltage
C. voltage, impedance D. voltage, resistor voltage
4. In the impedance triangle, the inductive reactance and impedance phasor are analogous to the
_______ and _______ phasor respectively in the voltage triangle.
A. inductive voltage, total voltage B. inductive current, total current
C. inductive voltage, resistive voltage D. inductive current, resistive current
5. In a series RL circuit phasor diagram, total voltage may be represented by the _______ phasor
and the resistor voltage may be represented by the _______ phasor.
A. current, voltage B. current resistance, current
C. impedance, resistance D. impedance, inductance
6. The phase angle of a series RL circuit is the angle between the _______ phasor and the _______
phasor.
A. resistance, inductive reactance B. resistance, impedance
C. inductive reactance, impedance D. impedance, inductance
7. The phase angle of a series RL circuit may be computed as _______ or _______ or _______.
A. cos-1 R/XL, sin-1 XL/R, tan-1 R/Z B. cos-1 R/Z, sin-1 XL/R, tan-1 R/XL
C. cos-1 Z/XL, sin-1 R/Z, tan-1 XL/Z D. cos-1 R/Z, sin-1 XL/Z, tan-1 XL/R
8. A(n) _______ stores and returns energy to a circuit while a(n) _______ dissipates energy.
A. resistor, impedance B. resistor, inductor
C. inductor, resistor D. inductor, reactance
9. For an RL circuit, the power factor cannot be less than _______ or greater than _______.
A. 0, 1 B. 1, 0 C. 0, -1 D. -1, 0
10. The voltage across a capacitor _______ the current through it by _______.
A. lags, 45° B. lags, 90° C. leads, 0° D. leads, 90°
11. If the resistance in a series RC circuit is increased, the magnitude of the phase angle
A. increases B. remains the same
C. decreases D. changes in an indeterminate manner
12. In a series RC circuit, the current _______ the total voltage by an angle _______.
A. lags, of 45° B. lags, of 0°
C. leads, between 0° and 90° D. leads, of 90°
13. The resistance phasor for a series RC circuit points out to the right. The capacitive reactance
phasor points _______ while the diagonal of the rectangle having there two phasors as sides
represents the _______.
A. up, impedance B. down, impedance
C. left, current D. up, total voltage
14. The phase angle for a series RC circuit is defined as the angle between the _______ and the
_______ phasors.
A. current, resistance voltage B. current, total voltage
C. resistance voltage, capacitor voltage D. R, Xc
15. The phase angle for a series RC circuit may be computed as the angle between the _______ and
_______ phasors.
A. resistance, impedance B. resistance, reactance
C. resistance, capacitance D. impedance, reactance
16. The net reactance in a series RLC circuit is
A. XL B. XC C. XC + XL D. XL - XC
17. The impedance of a series RLC circuit is

A. √R2 + XL 2 + XC 2 B. √R2 + XL 2 − XC 2

C. √R2 + (XL + XC )2 D. √𝐑𝟐 + (𝐗 𝐋 − 𝐗 𝐂 )𝟐

18. There will _______ be a frequency, called the _______ frequency at which _______.
A. sometimes, natural; XL = XC B. always, natural; R = 0
C. always, resonant; XL = XC D. sometimes, resonant; R=0
19. The formula for the resonant frequency is f =
𝟏
A. √LC B. 1/√LC C. 2π√LC D. 𝟐𝛑√𝐋𝐂
20. For a series RLC circuit at resonance the current amplitude is _______ for a fixed voltage
amplitude and the power factor is _______.
A. minimum, zero B. minimum, unity
C. maximum, zero D. maximum, unity
21. In a series RLC circuit, the impedance at resonance is
A. maximum B. minimum
C. infinity D. zero
22. The current in RLC circuit, i.e. at resonance is
A. maximum B. minimum
C. infinity D. zero
23. In RLC circuits, the current at resonance is
A. maximum in series circuit and minimum in parallel circuit
B. maximum in parallel circuit and minimum in series circuit
C. maximum in both circuits
D. minimum in both circuits
24. A series resonant circuit is capacitive at f = 100 Hz. The circuit will be inductive somewhere at
A. f < 100 Hz
B. f > 100 Hz
C. f = 100 Hz by increasing the value of the resistance
D. f = 0
25. At a frequency less than the resonant frequency
A. series circuit is capacitive and parallel circuit is inductive
B. series circuit is inductive and parallel circuit is capacitive
C. both circuits are inductive
D. both circuits are capacitive
26. In series as well as parallel resonant circuits, increasing the value of resistance would lead to
A. increase in the bandwidth of both the circuits
B. decrease in the bandwidth of both the circuits
C. increase in bandwidth in series circuit and decrease in parallel circuit
D. decrease in bandwidth in series circuit and increase in parallel circuit
27. The value of current at resonance in a series RLC circuit is affected by the value of
A. R B. C C. L D. all of these
28. In resonant circuits, the power factor at resonance
A. zero B. 1 C. 0.5 D. 0.707
29. Which of the following statements is true for a series RLC circuit tuned at resonant frequency?
A. the voltage across C > applied voltage
B. the voltage across L > applied voltage
C. the voltage across L and C > the applied voltage
D. the voltage across both L and C < the applied voltage
30. The frequency at which maximum voltage occurs across the inductance in RLC series circuit is
1 1 𝟏 1
A. 2π√LC B. C. D.
2π√LC−R2 𝐂 𝟐 𝐑𝟐 LC−C2 R2
𝟐𝛑 √𝐋𝐂− 2π√
𝟐 2

31. The frequency at which maximum voltage occurs across the capacitance in RLC series circuit is
1 𝟏 𝟏 𝐑𝟐 1 R2 1 1 R2
A. 2π√LC B. 𝟐𝛑 √𝐋𝐂 − 𝟐𝐋𝟐 C. 2π√LC
√
2L2
D. 2π √LC2 − 2L

32. If f1 and f2 are half power frequencies and f0 be resonance frequency, the selectivity of RLC series
circuit is given by
f2 −f0 f2 −f1 𝐟𝟐 −𝐟𝟏 f2 −f1
A. B. C. ` D.
f1 −f0 f0 𝐟𝟏 −𝐟𝟎 f0
33. In a series RC circuit, the voltage across the capacitor and the resistor are 60 V and 80 V
respectively. The input voltage should be
A. 70∠45°V B. 100∠-37°V C. 105∠-42°V D. 108∠-60°V
34. To a series RLC circuit a voltage of 10V is applied. If Q of the coil at resonant frequency is 20, the
voltage across the inductor at resonant frequency will be
A. 200 V B. 100 V C. 75 V D. 50 V
35. The currents flowing in L and C at parallel resonance are
A. zero B. equal C. infinite D. different
36. The exact natural frequency of free oscillations in an oscillatory circuit with capacitance of 0.055
µF, inductance 2 µH and resistance 1 ohm will be
A. 478 kHz B. 337 kHz C. 272 kHz D. 192 kHz
37. A coil with large distributed capacitance has a
A. low resistance B. low Q
C. low resonant frequency D. high resonant frequency
38. The transient currents are due to
A. voltage applied to circuit B. resistance of the circuit
C. impedance of the circuit D. changes in stored energy in inductance and
capacitance
39. To a highly inductive circuit, a small capacitance is added in series. The angle between voltage
and current will
A. increase B. decrease
C. remain nearly the same D. become indeterminate
 3-PHASE SYSTEM
1. In the balanced three phase star connected circuit the line voltages are equal
A. to the line current B. to the phase voltage
C. and so are the line currents D. but the line currents are unequal
2. The type of a.c. distribution system commonly used to supply both light and power is the
A. open delta system
B. three phase delta system
C. three phase star system with neutral wire
D. three phase star system without neutral wire
3. The phase displacement between phasors in polyphase system is always
A. 90 degrees B. 30 degrees
C. 120 degrees D. 360 degrees divided by the number of phases
4. In a balanced three phase star connected system, the line voltage
A. the phasor difference of the two phase voltages
B. the phasor sum of the two phase voltages
C. 0.707 times the phase voltage
D. 1.414 times the phase voltage
5. In a star connected system, line current is
A. 0.707 times the phase voltage
B. 1.735 times the phase voltage
C. equal to the phase current
D. 1.414 times the phase voltage
6. The advantages of star connection over delta connections for some phase voltage is that it gives
A. step down current B. extra step up voltage
C. extra step up current D. extra step up power
7. Power in a three phase star system is equal to
A. √3 x VL x IL x power factor B. 3 x Vph x IL x power factor
C. √3 x VL x Iph x power factor D. 3 x Vph x Iph x power factor
8. Power in a three phase delta system with balanced load is equal to
A. √𝟑 x VL x IL x power factor B. √3 x Vph x Iph x power factor
C. 3 x Vph x IL x power factor D. 3 x VL x IL x power factor
9. In a delta connected system the line current is
A. 1.414 times the phase current B. phasor sum of the two phase currents
C. equal to the phase current D. 1.732 times the phase current
10. Power in star connected system is
A. equal to that of delta system B. √2 times that of delta system
 C. √3 times that of delta system D. 3 times that of delta system
11. For an unbalanced load, which connection is suitable?
A. 3 wire open delta B. 4 wire star connection
C. 3 wire delta connection D. 3 wire star connection
12. What is the minimum number of wattmeters required for measuring power of a three phase
balanced load?
A. two B. four C. one D. three
13. The power is to be measured for a balanced delta connected load whose terminals cannot be
opened. How many wattmeters do you need?
A. four B. one C. two D. three
14. What is the minimum number of wattmeters required to measure unbalanced power for a three
phase system?
A. two B. four C. three D. one
15. In two wattmeter method, the readings of the wattmeter will be identical when
A. load in one of the phases is zero B. power factor is unity
C. power factor is 0.5 D. neutral is earthed
16. Two wattmeters can be used to measure 3-phase power for a
A. balance and unbalanced load B. unbalanced load only
C. balanced load only D. unity power factor only
17. In two wattmeter method, the reading of one of the wattmeters will be zero when
A. power factor is unity B. power factor is 0.5
C. load in one of the phases is zero D. a neutral wire is not provided
REE - SEPT. 2014
18. For a three phase unbalanced load
A. the power factor of each phase will be proportional to the load
B. the power factor of each phase will be the same
C. the power factor of at least one of the phases must be leading
D. the power factor of each phase may be different
 POWER FACTOR
1. In a pure reactive circuit, the power factor is
A. lagging B. zero C. leading D. unity
2. Power factor is define as the ratio of
A. volt ampere to watts B. watts to volt amperes
C. reactance to impedance D. reactance to resistance
3. In a series circuit consisting of resistance and reactance, power factor is defined as the ratio of
A. resistance to impedance B. resistance to reactance
C. reactance to impedance D. reactance to resistance
4. For a parallel circuit consisting of resistance and reactance, the value of power is the ratio of
A. impedance to reactance B. reactance to impedance
C. resistance to impedance D. impedance to resistance
5. It is not easy to find the value of impedance for a parallel circuit but power factor can easily be
obtained as the ratio of
A. active current to line current B. reactive current to line current
C. line current to active current D. line current to reactive current
6. The power factor of a.c. circuit containing both a resistor and a conductor is
A. more than unity B. leading by 90 d
C. between 0 – 1 leading D. between 0 – 1 lagging
7. In an a.c. circuit, a low value of reactive volt ampere compared with watts indicates
A. high power factor B. unity power factor
C. leading power factor D. low power factor
8. In a given circuit when power factor is unity the reactive power factor is
A. a maximum B. equal to I2R
C. zero D. a minimum
9. The capacitor of power factor correction are rated in terms of
A. voltage B. VA C. kW D. kVAR
10. Poor power factor results in all of the following except
A. overloading of transformers B. overloading of alternators
C. reduction in power losses D. reduction in load handling capacity of
electrical system
REE - SEPT. 2014
11. Power factor of an inductive circuit can be improved by connecting a capacitor to it in
A. series B. parallel
C. either series or parallel D. depends on the value of the capacitor
12. For the same load, if the power factor of the load is reduced, it will draw
 A. more current B. less current
C. same current but less power D. less current but more power
REE - APRIL 2013
13. The power factor of incandescent bulb is
A. 0.8 lagging B. 0.8 leading C. unity D. zero
14. The power factor of magnetizing component of a transformer is
A. unity B. 0.8 leading C. always leading D. zero
15. One of the reasons for improving the power factor is
A. to increase the reactive power B. to decrease the reactive power
C. to increase the real power D. none of these
16. Another reason for improving the power factor is
A. to avoid poor voltage regulation B. to keep voltage regulation constant
C. to increase the voltage regulation D. to decrease the voltage regulation
REE - SEPT. 2012
17. Power factor improvement may be achieved by the use of
A. synchronous motor B. induction motor
C. long transmission line D. short transmission line
18. The advantages of using static capacitor to improve the power factor is because they
A. are not variable
B. are almost loss free
C. provide continuous change of power factor
D. all of the above
19. Many industrial tariffs penalize consumers whose power factor falls
A. below 0.8 B. below unity
C. between 0.8 to 0.95 D. between 0.95 to unity
20. A current of 10 amperes at a power factor of 0.8 lagging is taken from 250 V a.c. supply. The
reactive power of the system is
A. 2000 watts B. 2000 VA
C. 1500 watts D. 1500 Var
 NETWORK THEOREMS
1. Kirchhoff’s voltage law in not valid for a non-linear network.
A. True B. False C. Partly true D. Partly false
2. Kirchhoff’s law is applicable to
A. AC circuits only B. passive networks only
C. AC as well as DC circuits D. DC circuits only
3. An ideal current source has zero
A. voltage on no load B. internal resistance
C. internal conductance D. current
4. A closed path made of several branches of the network is known as
A. loop B. junction C. branch D. division
5. An ideal voltage source is that which
A. has terminal voltage in proportion to current
B. has zero internal resistance
C. has terminal voltage in proportion to load
D. has terminal voltage in proportion to power
6. A passive network has
A. no source of emf
B. no source of current
C. neither source of current nor source of emf
D. none of these
7. Which of the following is an active element of a circuit?
A. ideal current source B. resistance
C. inductance D. capacitance
8. The relationship between voltage and current is same for two opposite directions of current in
case of
A. bilateral network B. active network
C. unilateral network D. passive network
9. Which of the following statement is not correct?
A. voltage source is an active element B. current source is a passive element
C. resistance is a passive element D. conductance is a passive element
10. A network is said to be non-linear if it does not satisfy
A. homogeneity condition B. superposition condition
C. both A and B D. associative condition
11. Which of the following statement is not correct?
A. Ideal voltage source is one whose internal conductance is zero.
 B. Ideal current source is one whose internal conductance is zero.
C. Ideal voltage source is one whose internal resistance is zero.
D. Ideal voltage source is one whose generated voltage is equal to the available terminal
voltage.
12. Which of the following is not a non-linear element?
A. diode B. transistor
C. heater coil D. electric arc with unlike electrodes
13. Which of the following theorems enables a number of voltage (or current) source to be combined
directly into a single voltage (or current) source?
A. compensation theorem B. reciprocity theorem
C. superposition theorem D. Millman’s theorem
14. Thevenin’s theorem is applicable to network of
A. ac circuit only B. dc circuit only
C. ac and dc circuit both D. none of the above
15. For open circuited condition of Thevenin’s theorem, all sources of emf in the network are replaced
A. by their internal impedance B. by their internal resistance
C. as a total a big source of emf D. by their internal reactance
16. The current in any branch of a network in case of Thevenin’s theorem is the same as if it were
connected to a generator of
A. different rating B. emf E1 and internal impedance Z1
C. low rating D. emf E1 and internal impedance zero
17. In order to find z in Thevenin’s theorem
A. all independent voltage and current sources are short circuited
B. all independent voltage sources are short circuited and independent current sources are
open circuited.
C. all independent current sources are short circuited and independent voltage sources are
open circuited.
D. all independent voltage sources are open circuited and independent current sources are
open circuited.
18. Regarding Thevenin’s equivalent, which of the following is not correct?
A. The voltage source in the Thevenin equivalent circuit is the open circuit voltage of the
network when the load is disconnected.
B. The Thevenin equivalent resistance (impedance) is the resistance (impedance) of the
network when all voltage sources are short circuited.
C. Thevenin equivalent resistance is calculated when all voltage sources are open circuited.
D. Thevenin equivalent is the voltage equivalent of the network.
19. Regarding Norton’s equivalent, which of the following is not correct?
 A. Norton’s equivalent is the voltage equivalent of the network.
B. Norton’s equivalent is the current equivalent of the network.
C. Norton’s equivalent resistance is the same as the Thevenin equivalent resistance.
D. The load is connected in parallel to the Norton equivalent resistance and Norton’s
equivalent source
20. Reciprocity theorem is valid for
A. active network only B. passive network only
C. active and passive network both D. none of the above
21. Reciprocity theorem is applicable to a network in which
A. generators are present B. capacitor is present
C. inductor is present D. generators are not present
22. In compensation theorem, a network containing generator can be replaced by
A. its zero internal impedance B. its infinite impedance
C. another generator D. L.C. circuit
23. The most important feature of superposition theorem application is
A. that the process is eased very much
B. to find d.c. level in a network that has both sources
C. that number of equations needed to be solved is reduced very much
D. none of the above
24. Open circuit voltage is the potential difference between two points when the impedance between
these points is
A. infinity B. reactive C. zero D. capacitive
25. Norton’s theorem reduces a two terminal network to
A. a constant voltage source and an impedance in parallel
B. a constant voltage source and an impedance in series
C. a constant current source and an impedance in parallel
D. a constant current source and an impedance in series
26. For the same original network end load, Thevenin’s and Norton’s equivalent circuits are related
by
A. Eth = InZth = InZn B. Eth = IthZn = IthZth
C. Zn = Eth/Ith D. Zth = En/In
REE - SEPT. 2014
27. If an electrical network having one or more than one voltage source, is transformed into
equivalent electrical network with a single voltage source (which is short circuit current of
previous circuit) with parallel internal resistance of the network with all current source replaced by
their internal resistance. The above illustration is called
A. Thevenin’s theorem B. Reciprocity theorem
 C. Norton’s theorem D. Superposition theorem
28. The superposition theorem requires as many circuits to be solved as there are
A. meshes B. nodes C. sources D. all of the above
29. For a maximum power transfer, according to maximum power transfer theorem, source
impedance
A. must be very much larger as compared to the load impedance
B. must be complex conjugate of load impedance
C. must be equal to load impedance
D. must be very small as compared to the load impedance
30. In case of delta connected circuit, when one resistor is open, power will be
A. unaltered B. reduced by 1/3 C. reduced by 1/9 D. reduced to 1/16
31. A source V has an internal impedance Zin = (R + jX), when it is connected to ZL = R – jX, the
power transferred is
A. V2/4R2 B. V2/4R C. V2/R D. V2/2R
32. The superposition theorem is applicable to
A. linear responses only
B. linear and non-linear responses only
C. linear, non-linear and time variant responses
D. non-linear responses only
 GENERATION OF ELECTRIC POWER
1. Which of the following generating stations has maximum running cost?
A. thermal power station B. nuclear power station
C. hydro power station D. none of these
2. Which of the following methods of generating electric power from the sea water is more
advantageous?
A. water power B. ocean power
C. tidal power D. none of these
3. Out of the following, which one is not unconventional source of energy?
A. tidal power B. geothermal power
C. nuclear energy D. wind energy
4. Heating value of coal largely depends on
A. ash content B. moisture content
C. volatile matter D. size of coal particles
5. Power plants using coal work closely on which of the following cycle?
A. Rankine cycle B. Binary vapor cycle
C. Otto cycle D. Brayton cycle
6. The efficiency of a thermal power plant improves with
A. increased quantity of coal burnt B. use of high steam pressures
C. lower load in the plant D. larger quantity of water used
7. Which of the following contributes to improvement of efficiency of Rankine cycle in a thermal
power plant?
A. use of high pressures
B. regeneration use of steam for heating boiler feed water
C. reheating of steam at intermediate stage
D. all of the above
8. Which of the following is not a high pressure boiler?
A. Loeffer boiler B. Lancashire boiler
C. Velox boiler D. La-Mount boiler
9. Overall thermal efficiency of a steam power station is in the range
A. 18-24% B. 30-40%
C. 44-62% D. 68-79%
10. In a steam turbine cycle, the lowest pressure occurs in
A. turbine outlet B. boiler
C. condenser D. superheater
11. Chemical composition of coal is given by
 A. Proximate analysis B. Ultimate analysis
C. Orost analysis D. All of the above
12. For low head and high discharge, the hydraulic turbine used is
A. Kaplan turbine B. Francis turbine
C. Pelton wheel D. Jonval turbine
13. A graphical representation between discharge and time is known as
A. Monograph B. Hectograph
C. Hydrograph D. Topograph
14. A Pelton wheel is an
A. axial flow impulse turbine B. inward flow reaction turbine
C. outward flow impulse turbine D. inward flow impulse turbine
15. A Francis turbine is an
A. outward flow impulse turbine B. outward flow reaction turbine
C. inward flow impulse turbine D. inward flow reaction turbine
16. Spouting velocity is
A. 50% of ideal velocity of jet B. actual velocity of jet
C. ideal velocity of jet D. velocity of jet under specified condition
17. A Kaplan turbine is
A. a high head mixed flow turbine B. an impulse turbine, inward flow type
C. a reaction turbine, outward flow type D. low head axial flow turbine
18. Outward radial flow turbines
A. are impulses turbines
B. are reaction turbines
C. are partly impulse partly reaction turbines
D. may be impulse or reaction turbines
19. An impulse turbine
A. always operates submerged B. makes use of a draft tube
C. is most suited for low head installation D. operates by initial complete conversion to
kinetic energy
20. A gas turbine works on
A. Carnot cycle B. Brayton cycle
C. Dual cycle D. Rankine cycle
21. Maximum efficiency of an open cycle gas turbine is nearly
A. 40% B. 50%
C. 60% D. 30%
22. Compressor used in gas turbine is
A. screw compressor B. multistage axial flow compressor
 C. plunger type compressor D. reciprocating compressor
23. Overall efficiency of gas turbine is
A. equal to Carnot cycle efficiency B. equal to Rankine cycle efficiency
C. less than Diesel cycle efficiency D. more than Otto or Diesel cycle efficiency
24. The compressor ratio in case of diesel engine is
A. 5 to 7 B. 7 to 10 C. 14 to 22 D. 25 to 36
25. High horse power diesel engines are started by
A. self-starter B. cranking C. battery D. compressed air
26. Which of the following is a non-petroleum fuel?
A. benzol B. methyl alcohol C. ethyl alcohol D. all of the above
27. Diesel engine fuels are rated by
A. Octane number B. H.U.C.R
C. Cetane number D. CRF number
28. Air standard efficiency of a diesel engine depends on
A. compression ratio B. speed
C. fuel D. torque
29. Which engine has the highest air fuel ratio?
A. Petrol engine B. Gas engine
C. Diesel engine D. Gas turbine
30. Most of heat generated in internal combustion engine is lost in
A. cooling water B. exhaust gases
C. lubrication oil D. radiation
31. The internal combustion engines never work on
A. Diesel cycle B. Rankine cycle
C. Otto cycle D. Dual combustion cycle
32. The efficiency of thermal plant is approximately
A. 10% B. 30% C. 60% D. 80%
33. Which of the following is not a secondary nuclear fuel?
A. U-235 B. U-233 C. plutonium D. Pn-239
34. The function of moderator in nuclear reaction is
A. to accelerate the reaction B. to control the reaction
C. to absorb excessive neutrons D. to liberate excessive neutrons
35. Heavy water is
A. H2O B. D2O C. W2O D. B2O
36. Nuclear reactors generally employ
A. fusion B. fission
C. both fusion and fission D. none of the above
37. In water turbine, the runway speed of Pelton turbine is
A. 1.8 times the rated speed B. 2 to 2.2 times the rated speed
C. 2.5 to 2.8 times the rated speed D. 3 to 4 times the rated speed
 ECONOMICS OF POWER GENERATION
1. Load factor during a period is
𝐀𝐯𝐞𝐫𝐚𝐠𝐞 𝐋𝐨𝐚𝐝 Maximum Load
A. B.
𝐌𝐚𝐱𝐢𝐦𝐮𝐦 𝐋𝐨𝐚𝐝 Installed Capacity
Average Load Maximum Load
C. D.
Installed Capacity Average Load

2. For economy in generation of power

A. load factor should be high
B. diversity factor should be high
C. plant utilization factor should be high
D. load factor and diversity factor should be low
3. A load curve is a plot of
A. load versus time B. load versus costs of power
` C. load versus current D. load versus generation capacity
4. During which season the load on a power plant supplying power to a city will be highest?
A. rainy season B. summer
C. winter D. autumn
5. During summer months the increased load is due to
A. increased water supply B. vacations in institutions
C. increased business activities D. increased use of fans and air conditioners
6. Load due to ceiling fan is nearly
A. 40 to 50 W B. 10 W
C. 250 to 2000 W D. 100 to 200 W
7. Which domestic utility item has the highest power rating?
A. electric iron B. ceiling fan
C. mixi D. refrigerator
8. A power plant supplying energy to a city will usually experience peak demand
A. from midnight to early morning
B. 8 AM to 12 noon
C. 2 PM to 6 PM
D. 6 PM to 12 PM
Sum of individual maximum demand
9. The ratio is known as
Maximum demand of the installation
A. demand factor B. plant use factor
C. diversity factor D. plant capacity factor
10. Capital cost per MWh is the highest in case of
A. steam power plant B. diesel engine power plants
C. nuclear power plant D. hydroelectric power plant
REE - SEPT. 2006
 11. A diesel power plant is best suited as
A. standby plant B. base load plant
C. peak load plant D. general purpose plant
12. A gas turbine power plant usually suits for
A. peak load operation B. base load operation
C. casual run D. none of the above
REE - MAY 2010
13. Which power plant cannot have single unit of 100 MW?
A. hydroelectric power plant B. diesel power plant
C. steam power plant D. nuclear power plant
14. The useful life of a diesel engine in a power plant is expected to be
A. five years B. one year
C. fifty years D. fifteen years
15. Which of the following plants is expected to have the longest expected life?
A. steam B. hydroelectric
C. diesel D. all have equal life
16. For a power plant, the expenditure on which of the following items is expected to be negligible?
A. publicity B. taxes
C. wages D. insurance
17. At break-even point
A. constant expenses = profits B. total sales = variable expenses
C. total sales = total expenses D. variable expenses – profits = total sales
18. A nuclear power plant is invariably used as a
A. base load plant B. peak load plant
C. standby plant D. spinning reserve plant
19. Efficiency is secondary consideration in case of
A. base load plants B. both peak load and base load plants
C. peak load plants D. none of these
20. Which of the following plants will take least time in starting from cold conditions to full load
operation?
A. gas turbine B. steam power plant
C. nuclear power plant D. hydroelectric power plant
21. During load shedding
A. system voltage is reduced B. some loads are switched off
C. system power factor is changed D. system frequency is reduced
22. Which statement about daily load curve is valid?
A. The area under the curve gives the average demand.
 B. The ratio of the area under the curve to the total area of rectangle in which it is contained
gives the load factor for the day.
C. The peak of the curve gives the installed capacity of the plant.
D. The area of the curve divided by the number of houses gives load factor.
23. An equipment purchased for $10,000 two years ago has a market value of $1,250 at present. It
can be concluded that
A. The value has depreciated according to straight-line method.
B. The value has depreciated according to diminishing value method.
C. The value has depreciated according to sinking fund method.
D. The value has depreciated with time.
24. In a steam power plant, which component needs maximum maintenance attention?
A. boiler B. condenser C. turbine D. water treatment plant
25. A certain plant has fixed cost of $40,000 and a salvage value of $4,000 at the end of useful life of
20 years. The depreciated value of the plant at the end of 10 years will be least (interest rate
being 6% compounded annually) when calculated by
A. Diminishing value method B. Sinking fund method
C. Straight-line method D. Sum-of-years digits method
26. In problem 25, the value will be highest when calculated by
A. Straight-line method B. Diminishing value method
C. Sinking fund method D. Sum-of-years digits method
27. When a power plant is not able to meet the demand of consumers it will resort to
A. load shedding
B. efficient plant operation
C. power factor improvement at the generators
D. penalizing high load consumers by increasing the charges of electricity
28. Load shedding is possible through
A. switching off the loads B. frequency reduction
C. voltage reduction D. any of the above
29. Ideally depreciated value of the plant plus the accumulation in the depreciation fund should be
equal to
A. sinking fund B. original invested capital
C. salvage value D. obsolescence rate
30. In power plant, insurance cover is provided for
A. equipment only B. skilled workers only
C. unskilled workers only D. all of the above
31. Which of the following relation is incorrect?
A. Capacity factor = Utilization factor x Load factor
 B. Load factor x Maximum load = Average load
C. Demand factor x Connected load = Average load
D. None of the above
32. Sinking fund is
A. Initial value – Salvage value
B. Capital cost – Operating cost
C. Periodical maintenance – Breakdown maintenance
Capital cost
D.
Useful life
33. A low utilization factor for a plant indicates that
A. plant is used for base load only
B. plant is under maintenance
C. plant is used for standby purpose only
D. plant is used for peak load as well as base load
 TRANSMISSION AND DISTRIBUTION
1. Which of the following is usually not the generating voltage?
A. 11 kV B. 13.2 kV C. 9.9 kV D. 6.6 kV
2. The fact that a conductor carries more current on the surface as compared to core is known as
A. corona B. permeability
C. unsymmetrical fault D. skin effect
3. Transmission efficiency increases as
A. voltage and power factor both decrease
B. voltage and power factor both increase
C. voltage increases but power factor decreases
D. voltage decreases but power factor increases
4. Skin effect is proportional to
A. (diameter of conductor)2 B. diameter of conductor
C. (diameter of conductor)3 D. (diameter of conductor)1/2
5. The surge impedance for overhead line is taken as
A. 50-60 ohms B. 1000-2000 ohms
C. 10-20 ohms D. 100-200 ohms
6. The effect of corona is
A. increase reactance B. increased inductance
C. increase energy loss D. all of the above
7. The current drawn by the line due to corona losses is
A. non-sinusoidal B. sinusoidal
C. square D. triangular
8. Presence of ozone as a result of corona is harmful because
A. it gives bad odor B. it transfers energy to the ground
C. it reduces the power factor D. it corrodes the material
9. For 66 kV lines, the number of insulator discs used is
A. 8 B. 12 C. 5 D. 3
10. Wooden poles for supporting transmission lines are used for voltages up to
A. 22 kV B. 440 kV C. 11 kV D. 66 kV
11. The surge impedance of transmission lines is about
A. 100 ohms B. 250 ohms C. 500 ohms D. 50 ohms
12. For transmission lines, the standing wave ratio is the ratio of
A. maximum current to minimum voltage
B. maximum voltage to minimum voltage
C. maximum reactance to minimum reactance
 D. peak voltage to rms voltage
13. For a distortion less transmission line (G = shunt conductance between two wires)
𝐑 𝐆
A. RL = GC B. RG = LC C. RLGC = 0 D. =
𝐋 𝐂
14. A relay used in long transmission line is
A. reactance relay B. impedance relay
C. mho’s relay D. no relay is used
15. The power transmitted will be maximum when
A. sending end voltage is more B. receiving end voltage is more
C. reactance is high D. corona losses are least
16. Surge impedance of transmission line is given by
C
A. √L B. √CL
1 𝐋
C. D. √𝐂
√CL

17. Stages in the provision of electrical energy to a consumer are:

A. generation and transmission
B. generation, distribution and transmission
C. generation, dissipation and distribution
D. generation, transmission and distribution
18. The purpose of a grid system is to
A. interconnect the power stations
B. supply energy to remote areas
C. make extra high voltage available to consumers
D. make distribution of energy at reasonable cost
19. Line loss of a transmission line for a given power is
A. directly proportional to supply voltage and power factor
B. inversely proportional to supply voltage and power factor
C. directly proportional to supply voltage and inversely proportional to power factor
D. directly proportional to power factor and inversely proportional to supply voltage
20. The volume of copper required for a transmission line to transmit a given power is
A. directly proportional to supply voltage and power factor
B. inversely proportional to supply voltage and power factor
C. directly proportional to supply voltage and inversely proportional to power factor
D. directly proportional to power factor and inversely proportional to supply voltage
21. For a given current density, the resistance voltage drop per line is
A. constant B. increase with voltage increase
C. increase with voltage decrease D. remain constant for all voltages
22. The percentage voltage drop of transmission line of question 21 will
 A. increase with voltage increase B. decrease with voltage increase
C. increase with voltage decrease D. remain constant for all voltages
23. The efficiency of transmission for a given power improves as
A. voltage increases and power factor decreases
B. voltage decreases and power factor increases
C. voltage and power factor increase
D. voltage and power factor decrease
24. Extra high voltages are needed for long distance transmission, transmitting a given power to
reduce the
A. current and cross-sectional area of the line
B. current and the voltage drop
C. voltage drop and cross-sectional area of the line
D. power factor and the voltage drop
25. Various dc and ac systems of transmission are available but to find out which system is superior,
comparison is made on the basis of equal
A. line loss
B. voltage drop
C. percentage voltage drop
D. power transmitted
26. Comparison of various overhead transmission systems is made with the
A. rms voltage between the conductors
B. rms voltage between the conductor and earth
C. maximum voltage between conductors
D. maximum voltage between the conductor and earth
27. For underground cable systems, the comparison is made with the
A. rms voltage between the conductors
B. rms voltage between the conductor and earth
C. maximum voltage between conductors
D. maximum voltage between the conductor and earth
28. For ac transmission, whether overhead or underground, the most unsuitable system is the
A. 3-phase, 3-wire B. 3-phase, 2-wire
C. single phase D. 2-phase, 3-wire
29. Among all the ac systems, the most superior system is
A. 3-phase, 3-wire with maximum voltage between conductors
B. 3-phase, 3-wire with maximum voltage between conductor and earth
C. 3-phase, 3-wire with rms voltage between conductors
D. 3-phase, 3-wire with rms voltage between conductor and earth
30. For overhead transmission line, 3-phase, 3-wire system is
A. superior over single phase, 2-wire midpoint earthed system
B. superior over 2-phase, 4-wire system
C. not superior over the other two
D. not used in practice
31. The greatest economy of conductor material is possible by adopting a dc system for transmission,
particularly when the power factor of the ac system is considerably less than unity. The power
factor which limits the dc transmission is
A. no easy way of obtaining high voltage
B. high voltage drop
C. that dc resistance is higher than ac resistance
D. the rms voltage is not available
32. The problems associated with ac transmission system are
A. high voltage drop, insulation and instability for long lines
B. continuous loss even at no load, insulation and instability for long lines
C. continuous loss due to charging current, high voltage drop and instability for long lines
D. continuous loss due to charging current, high voltage drop and insulation
33. The behavior of an ac transmission line used for power transmission depends upon
A. alternating electrostatic field, resistance and length of the line
B. alternating electrostatic field, alternating electromagnetic field and length of the line
C. alternating electromagnetic field, resistance and length of the line
D. resistance, alternating electrostatic field and alternating electromagnetic field
34. Short transmission lines have a length not exceeding
A. 40 kilometers B. 20 kilometers C. 80 kilometers D. 100 kilometers
35. One of the line parameters which is neglected in short transmission line is
A. capacitance B. inductance C. resistance D. admittance
36. For a receiving end current I and lagging power factor angle ψ, the sending end voltage VS for a
short transmission line is
A. VS = VR + IX cos ψ + IR sin ψ B. VS = VR - IX cos ψ + IR sin ψ
C. VS = VR – IR sin ψ + IX cos ψ D. VS = VR – IR cos ψ + IX sin ψ
37. The term _______ includes the use of cable and associated control and protective equipment
necessary for supplying electrical energy to required position on consumer’s premises.
A. generation B. transmission
B. distribution D. generation and distribution
38. A low tension distribution system consists of
A. transmission lines, transformers and circuit breakers
B. feeders, distribution and service mains
 C. feeders, transformers and distributors
D. transmission line, distributors and circuit breakers
39. A distributor is designed from the point of view of
A. voltage drop
B. current carrying capacity
C. voltage drop and current carrying capacity
D. load capacity
40. The supply undertaking is allowed to vary the actual voltage at the consumers terminal
A. because ac supply alternates during each cycle
B. because of the voltage drop along the distributor
C. owing to large load at the consumer end
D. owing to variation of power factor along the distributor
41. The consumer main switch gear is usually located
A. in the center of the house B. out of reach
C. over the kitchen sink D. at the intake position
42. For the same amount of power to be delivered to a consumer, if the supply voltage is increased to
n time, the size of the feeder cable is
𝟏
A. reduced to 𝐧 times B. increased to n times
1
C. reduced to n−1 times D. increased to n-1 times
43. If the voltage of a distribution cable is increased to n times, then for the same power and
percentage voltage drop new resistance R1 of the same length of the distribution in terms of the
old resistance R will be
A. R1 = R/n2 B. R1 = n2R
C. R1 = R/n D. R1 = nR
44. The weight of the copper required for the new distributor of question 43 will be
A. increased to n2 times B. increased to n times
C. reduced to n times D. reduced to 1/n2 times
45. In spite of the advantages of increasing voltages for distribution, the limiting factors are:
A. disproportionately greater cost of higher voltage cables and supplied to a consumer must
be at consumer voltage
B. voltage drop and the cost of higher voltage cable
C. the power loss and cost of the higher voltage cable
D. the power loss and voltage drop
46. A 3-wire dc system of distribution is preferred to a 2-wire dc system because it
A. results in a saving of copper and has less resistance
B. results in a saving of copper and makes two alternative voltage available
C. has less resistance and results in less voltage drop
 D. makes two alternative voltage available and results in less voltage drop
47. The two types of distribution systems used are
A. radial and delta B. radial and star
C. ring main and radial D. ring main and delta
48. The advantage of the ring main system is
A. less voltage drop in the main feeders B. continuity of supply to feeding points
C. less costly D. none of the above
49. To reduce the voltage drop at a particular feeding point or load, the system preferred is
A. ring main
B. radial
C. interconnected
D. radial arrangement superimposed
50. For a given loading, it is better to feed radial distributor at both ends as this gives
A. minimum loss and voltage drop
B. greater cross-sectional area of the conductor and minimum loss
C. continuity of supply and greater cross-sectional area of the conductor
D. greater cross-sectional area of the conductor and minimum voltage drop
51. For a 3 wire d.c. distributor fed at one end, if the total voltage drop in the neutral is positive it is
A. added to the negative drop
B. deducted from the positive drop
C. added to the positive drop and deducted from the negative drop
D. deducted from the positive drop and added to the negative drop
52. With point loads in a distributor fed at both ends, in order to determine the maximum voltage drop
necessary to know the point of
A. largest load B. minimum voltage
C. maximum voltage D. least load
53. At the point of the minimum potential in a distributor fed from both ends, the load at the point is
A. supplied from the left hand feeding point
B. supplied from the right hand feeding point
C. supplied from the left and right hand feeding points
D. minimal
54. To determine the distribution of load at the point of the minimum potential, the moments in
ampere meters about one of the feeding point _______ the moments in ampere meters about the
other feeding point,
A. should be less than B. should be greater than
C. could be equal to D. must be equal to
55. For a.c. distributors, the power factor of the load has to be taken into consideration and the
calculations became cumbersome. The approximate method that gives results within plus or
minus 5 percent of the actual voltage drop involves calculating
A. the center of gravity of the load and average power factor
B. the center of gravity of the load, the point of minimum potential and average power factor
C. the center gravity of the load, resistance and reactance per double run and average power
Factor
D. the average power factor, the point of minimum potential and resistance and reactance per
double run
56. Voltage drop in a uniformly loaded distributor fed at one end is calculated by assuming the whole
of the load concentrated at
A. middle point B. feeding point
C. the far end of the feeding point D. distance from the feeding point
57. Uniformly loaded distributor fed at equal potentials from both ends is treated like the distributor of
question 37 because the voltage drop is
A. approximately halved
B. exactly halved
C. equal at the two feeding points
D. different at the feeding points
58. In actual practice, the potential at the two feeding points is unequal. To calculate the voltage drop,
the difference in potential is
A. added to the actual voltage drop
B. subtracted from the actual voltage drop
C. converted into ampere meters and added to the moments of the higher feeding point
D. converted into ampere meters and moments of the lower feeding point start from this initial
value
59. There should be no break in the neutral, which is usually earthed at the supply end, of a 2 wire
a.c. distribution system because
A. it would make all part dead
B. excess current protection would be affected
C. the action of switching will be nullified
D. it would affect the voltage
60. Commercial premises usually but some domestic installations have 3 phase, 4 wire distribution
system because
A. the supply tariff is cheaper
B. the services are cheaper to install
C. the load is relatively large
 D. the voltage drop is less
61. The economical section of the feeder can be obtained by applying
A. Ohm’s law B. Faraday’s law
C. Lenz’s law D. Kelvin’s law
 ILLUMINATION
1. The study of illumination involves
A. design of lighting system
B. study of lighting and wiring system
C. calculation of wiring sizes for various lighting fixtures
D. study of photometry and its application
2. Energy radiated continuously in the form of lighting waves is called
A. luminous intensity
B. lumen
C. luminous flux
D. illumination
3. The luminous flux emitted in unit solid angle by a uniform point source having a luminous intensity
of 1 candela
A. lumen B. lux
C. illumination D. luminance
4. The luminous intensity is defined as
A. Lumen per square meter
B. Luminous flux per unit solid angle
C. Illumination per square meter
D. Candela per unit solid angle
5. The luminous intensity of the lamp is expressed in
A. watts B. lumens
C. lux D. candela
6. The illumination at a point of a surface is the luminous flux per unit area of the surface and its unit
is
A. lux B. lumen
C. watts D. candela power
7. Polar curve of a filament lamp
A. shows the distribution of illumination in all directions
B. shows the luminous intensity in all directions in one plane around a light source
C. determine the efficiency of the lamp
D. gives the effectiveness of the reflector used for a lamp
8. When the light distribution from a lamp or a lamp and fitting is non-uniform the correct value of the
luminous intensity in the particular direction is
A. given by inverse law
B. given by sine law
 C. given by the average value
D. taken from the polar curve
9. The illumination of a surface is
A. directly proportional to its distance from the source
B. inversely proportional to its distance from the source
C. directly proportional to the square of its distance from the source
D. inversely proportional to the square of its distance from the source
10. The illumination of a surface at any point is proportional to the _______ of the angle between the
normal at that point and the direction of the luminous flux.
A. sine B. cosine C. tangent D. cotangent
11. The first object of a lighting system is to provide adequate illumination on the working surface. For
proper design the effects of the surroundings must be taken into account and the factors are
A. finish of windows, proportions or room and temperature
B. finish of ceiling and walls, proportion of room, and place or work
C. color of ceiling and walls, proportion of room and window space
D. height of light fittings, room temperature and color of ceiling and walls
12. To use lumen method of design, you must first find
A. room index and the lumens
B. room index and then coefficient of utilization
C. light distribution from a polar curve and then coefficient of utilization
D. coefficient of utilization and the room index
13. Maintenance factor or depreciation factor takes account of
A. effects of dust, dirt and fall in light output of the lamp during its life
B. depreciation in capital cost of installation
C. effects of dust, dirt and the type of lamp used
D. condition of the room and the type of lamp used
14. The typical values of maintenance factors range about _______ for good maintenance conditions
down to _______ for dirty conditions with poor maintenance and cleaning.
A. 0.9, 0.6 B. 0.8, 0.6 C. 0.6, 0.5 D. 0.8, 0.4
15. Total lumens output from lamps when new is equal to
total lumens required x coefficient of utilization
A. maintenance factor
coefficient of utilization x maintenance factor
B.
total lumens required
total lumens required x maintenance factor
C. coefficient of utilization
𝐭𝐨𝐭𝐚𝐥 𝐥𝐮𝐦𝐞𝐧𝐬 𝐫𝐞𝐪𝐮𝐢𝐫𝐞𝐝
D. 𝐦𝐚𝐢𝐧𝐭𝐞𝐧𝐚𝐧𝐜𝐞 𝐟𝐚𝐜𝐭𝐨𝐫 𝐱 𝐜𝐨𝐞𝐟𝐟𝐢𝐜𝐢𝐞𝐧𝐭 𝐨𝐟 𝐮𝐭𝐢𝐥𝐢𝐳𝐚𝐭𝐢𝐨𝐧
16. Another requirement of a good lighting scheme is that it makes the principal object the brightest
thing in the field of vision. An illumination ratio of 10 : 3 :1 has been suggested as the best for
A. background/task/surroundings B. task/background/surroundings
 C. background/surroundings/task D. surrounding/background/task
17. The lumen output of a 230-volt, 100 watts gas field lamp is approximately
A. 700 B. 1000 C. 1200 D. 1500
18. The principle of working of a high pressure mercury vapor lamp is that
A. the radiation from the discharge excites a fluorescent material
B. the radiation is produced directly by the discharge
C. the radiation is produced by the argon gas
D. very high voltage is needed to start the discharge
19. Although the average efficiency of a 400 watts high pressure mercury vapor lamp is high but its
main disadvantages are
A. high cost, color distortion and high copper loss
B. color distortion, stroboscopic effect and cannot be started immediately
C. high cost, cannot be started immediately and high copper loss
D. needs a capacitor, a choking coil and a starter
20. Low pressure in a fluorescent tube is obtained by
A. high starting voltage B. high current density
C. low current density D. low starting voltage