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PTS 2025 | Test Code : 211140 |

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

T.B.C. : FIAS-PTS25 Test Booklet Series
Serial No.

A
TEST BOOKLET
GENERAL STUDIES
Paper – 1

Maximum Marks: 100 Time Allowed: ONE HOUR

INSTRUCTIONS
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU
SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST BBOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE
ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS ETC. IF SO,
GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOK.
2. Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to encode and fill in
the Roll Number and Test Booklet Series A, B, C or D carefully without
any omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR
Answer Sheet. Any omission/discrepancy will render the Answer Sheet
liable for rejection.
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the test
booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT
write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 50 items (questions). Each item is printed in
English. Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the
response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that
there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you
consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet
provided.
See directions in the Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items
in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as
per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and
the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only
the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet.
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10. Penalty for wrong answers:
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A
CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each
question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-
third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as wrong
answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there
will be same penalty as above to that question.
(iii) If a question is left bank i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there
will be no penalty for that question.

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

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[1]
PTS 2025 | Test Code : 211140 |

Q.1) Which of the following sectors has the Which one of the following is correct in
largest share in total ground water usage in respect of the statements given above?
India? a) Both statement -I and statement -II are
a) Domestic Sector correct and statement -II is the correct
b) Industrial Sector explanation for statement -I.
c) Agricultural Sector b) Both statement -I and statement -II are
d) Power Sector correct and statement -II is not the correct
explanation for statement -I.
c) Statement -I is correct but statement -II is
Q.2) With reference to the Bauxite Ore,
incorrect.
consider the following statements:
d) Statement -I is incorrect but statement -II
1. It is a rock consisting of hydrated
is correct.
aluminium oxide.
2. Bauxite mining in India is carried out
Q.5) With reference to the fertiliser industry
primarily through the underground mining
method.
in India, consider the following statements:
1. Currently, only Indian Farmers Fertiliser
Which of the statements given above is/are
Cooperative Limited (IFFCO) produces the
correct?
Government approved nano urea in India.
a) 1 only
2. Many fertiliser industries in India are
b) 2 only
located near the oil refineries.
c) Both 1 and 2
3. India meets more than two third of its urea
d) Neither 1 nor 2
demand through imports.
Which of the statements given above is/are
Q.3) Consider the following statements correct?
about major ports in India: a) 1 and 2 only
1. Kandla Port is the only corporatized major b) 2 only
port owned by the Government of India. c) 3 only
2. Kolkata Port is the only major riverine port
d) 1,2 and 3
in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are
Q.6) With reference to the major ports in
correct?
India, consider the following:
a) 1 only
1. Paradip port
b) 2 only
2. Mumbai port
c) Both 1 and 2
3. Kolkata port
d) Neither 1 nor2
4. Kandla port
Arrange the above ports from north to south
Q.4) Consider the following statements:
and select the correct answer using the
Statement I: A large number of people from
code given below?
the neighbouring countries have taken a) 4-3-1-2
refuge in India after independence. b) 3-4-1-2
Statement II: India has implemented a c) 4-3-2-1
refugee protection framework as it is a party d) 3-4-2-1
to the 1951 Refugee Convention.

[2]
PTS 2025 | Test Code : 211140 |

Q.7) In the context of India’s demography, b) Education

consider the following statements: c) Marriage
Statement I: India is currently in the midst d) Family movement
of a demographic opportunity window that
is expected to last until 2055-56. Q.11) It is alloyable, malleable & ductile and
Statement II: A large proportion of India’s an indispensable metal in the electrical
population will remain within the age group industry. It is mixed with gold to provide
of 15-64 for the next three decades. strength to jewelry. Its deposits mainly
Which one of the following is correct in occur in Singhbhum district in Jharkhand,
respect of the statements given above? Balaghat district in Madhya Pradesh and
a) Both statement -I and statement -II are Jhunjhunu and Alwar districts in Rajasthan.
correct and statement -II is the correct Which of the metals is described in the
explanation for statement -I. passage given above?
b) Both statement -I and statement -II are a) Copper
correct and statement -II is not the correct b) Aluminium
explanation for statement -I. c) Silver
c) Statement -I is correct but statement -II is d) Zinc
incorrect.
d) Statement -I is incorrect but statement -II
Q.12) With reference to Anthracite coal,
is correct.
consider the following statements:
1. It has coal content of less than 50 percent.
Q.8) Consider the following regions of India:
2. It has the highest heating value compared
1. Krishna Godavari River Basin to other types of coal.
2. Cauvery River Basin 3. In India it is found primarily in Jammu and
3. Bombay High, Maharasthra Kashmir.
4. Digboi, Aasam Which of the statements given above are
5. Jaisalmer, Rajasthan correct?
In how many of the above given regions of a) 1 and 2 only
India are Natural Gas resources found? b) 1 and 3 only
a) Only two c) 2 and 3 only
b) Only three d) 1, 2 and 3
c) Only four
d) All five Q.13) Consider the following statements:
Statement - I: India's Gender Inequality
Q.9) Consider the following Index ranking improved significantly in
activities/processes: 2022, increasing by 14 positions from 2021.
1. Extraction of groundwater
Statement - II: Nari Shakti Vandan
2. Deposition of Fossil salt
Adhiniyam 2023, provides for reservation of
3. Change of land use from natural forest
women in Parliament and State Legislative
vegetation to annual food crops
Assemblies.
4. Over-usage of agro-chemicals
5. Canal water seepage Which one of the following is correct in
Which of the above causes Salinization of respect of the above statements?
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
Soil in a region??
correct and Statement-II is the correct
a) Only two
explanation for Statement-I
b) Only three
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
c) Only four
correct and Statement-II is not the correct
d) All five explanation for Statement for Statement-I
c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
Q.10) As per the 2011 Census, which of the incorrect
following is the primary reason for the d) (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-
migration of females in India? II is correct
a) Work and Employment

[3]
PTS 2025 | Test Code : 211140 |

Q.14) With reference to cotton textile b) Bihar

industry in India, consider the following c) Tamil Nadu
statements: d) Uttar Pradesh
1. The handloom sector in India is more labor
intensive than power loom sector. Q.18) With reference to an Estuary, consider
2. India has largest area under Cotton the following statements:
cultivation. 1. An estuary is a partially enclosed, coastal
3. India has the highest productivity of cotton water body where freshwater from rivers
(Kilogram/ Hectare) in the world. and streams mixes with salt water from the
Which of the statements given above are ocean.
correct? 2. Estuarine environments produce more
a) 1 and 2 only organic matter each year than comparably
b) 1 and 3 only sized areas of forest.
c) 2 and 3 only Which of the statements given above is/are
d) 1, 2 and 3 correct?
a) 1 only
Q.15) Which of the following statements b) 2 only
related to tribes in India are correct? c) Both 1 and 2
1. Garasia tribes are primarily found in Goa. d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. Gaddi tribes are nomadic herders of Jammu
& Kashmir and Himachal Pradesh. Q.19) Which of the following minerals is not
Select the correct answer using the code metallic in nature?
given below: a) Aluminum
a) 1 only b) Manganese
b) 2 only c) Mica
c) Both 1 and 2 d) Mercury
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.20) "World Cities Report" is released by
Q.16) Consider the following statements which of the following organizations?
regarding the Manganese mineral: a) World Economic Forum
1. Gondite, a type of metamorphic rock, b) World Bank
serves as a major source of Manganese c) Commonwealth Sustainable Cities Network
deposits in India. d) UN- Habitat
2. Karnataka has the largest share of
Manganese deposits in India.
Q.21) With reference to nuclear power
3. Manganese is a critical component of
projects in India, consider the following
lithium-ion batteries, which are used in
pairs:
electric vehicles.
Nuclear power plant Located at
How many of the statements given above
1. Tarapur Maharashtra
are correct?
2. Kota Rajasthan
a) Only one
3. Kalpakkam Tamil Nadu
b) Only two
4. Narora Uttar Pradesh
c) All three
How many of the above given pairs correctly
d) None
matched?
a) Only one
Q.17) According to census 2011, which among
b) Only two
the following states of India has largest
c) Only three
number of persons migrating out of the
d) All four
state?
a) West Bengal

[4]
PTS 2025 | Test Code : 211140 |

Q.22) With reference to Major mines in Q.25) With refereAnce to mining in India,
India, consider the following information: consider the following mines:
Famous Minerals Located 1. Malanjkhand Mine
mines Majorly found in 2. Khetri Mine
1. Jharia Copper Jharkhand 3. Kendadih Mine
2. Kalahandi Bauxite Odisha Which of the following minerals is
3. Hutti Gold Bihar associated with the above-mentioned
In how many of the above rows is the given mines?
information correctly matched? a) Diamond
a) Only one b) Copper
b) Only two c) Lead
c) All three d) Aluminium
d) None
Q.26) Consider the following pairs:
Q.23) Consider the following statements: Steel Plant in India Location
1. India is the largest consumer of sugar in 1. Visvesvaraya Iron Madhya Pradesh
the world. and Steel Plant
2. India is the largest producer of sugar in the 2. Rourkela Steel Plant Odisha
world 3. Durgapur Steel West Bengal
3. India is the largest producer of Ethanol in Plant
the world. How many of the pairs given above are
Which of the statements given above is/are correctly matched?
correct? a) Only one
a) 1 only b) Only two
b) 2 and 3 only c) All three
c) 1 and 3 only d) None
d) 2 only
Q.27) Consider the following minority
Q.24) In the context of international Communities:
migration, consider the following 1. Jains
statements: 2. Sikhs
Statement I: According to the recent World 3. Christians
Migration Report, India is the largest 4. Buddhists
recipient of remittances in the world. What is the correct increasing order of the
Statement II: India is the origin of the above minority communities in India based
largest number of migrants in the world. on their population as per Census 2011?
Which one of the following is correct in a) 1 - 4 - 2 - 3
respect of the above statements? b) 1 - 4 - 3 - 2
a) Both Statement I and Statement II are c) 4 - 1 - 2 - 3
correct, and Statement II explains d) 4 - 1- 3 - 2
Statement I.
b) Both Statement I and Statement II are Q.28) In the context of the Geography of
correct, but Statement II does not explain
India, what does the term "Kayals" refer to?
Statement I.
a) Coastal plains
c) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is
b) Lagoons or backwaters
incorrect.
c) River tributaries
d) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is
d) Deltas formed by rivers
correct.

[5]
PTS 2025 | Test Code : 211140 |

Q.29) In the context of energy resources in 2. Karnataka

India, consider the following statements: 3. Jharkhand
Statement I: India depends on import of 4. Maharashtra
Uranium from various countries, to fuel its Select the correct answer using code below:
nuclear power program. a) 1, 2, 3, 4
Statement II: Uranium does not occur b) 1, 3, 2, 4
naturally in India. c) 3, 1, 4, 2
Which one of the following is correct in d) 3, 1, 2, 4
respect of the above statements?
a) Both Statement I and Statement II are Q.33) With reference to Indian Approach
correct and Statement II explains towards Globalisation, Consider the
Statement I. following statements:
b) Both Statement I and Statement II are 1. Opening up the economy to foreign direct
correct, but Statement II does not explain investment by providing facilities to foreign
Statement I. companies to invest in different fields of
c) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is economic activity in India.
incorrect. 2. Removing constraints and obstacles to the
d) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is entry of multinational companies in India.
correct. 3. Allowing Indian companies to enter into
foreign collaborations and also encouraging
Q.30) With reference to urbanization in them to set up Joint ventures abroad.
India, consider the following statements: Which of the statements given above are
1. More than one-sixth of India's urban correct about Indian Approach towards
population lives in slums. Globalisation?
2. Dharavi in Mumbai houses the largest slum a) 1 and 2 only
population in the world. b) 2 and 3 only
Which of the statements given above is/are c) 1 and 3 only
correct? d) 1, 2 and 3
a) 1 only
b) 2 only Q.34) Consider the following statements
c) Both 1 and 2 regarding the PM Krishi Sinchayee Yojana
d) Neither 1 nor 2 (PMKSY):
1. It aims to improve on-farm water use
Q.31) Consider the following statements efficiency and implement sustainable water
regarding Mica: conservation methods.
1. Bihar has the largest reserves of mica in 2. Accelerated Irrigation Benefit programme
India. (AIBP) is a component of PMKSY.
2. Mica has been notified as a major mineral 3. State Agriculture Departments are the
by the government of India. Nodal Departments for implementation of
Which of the statements given above is/are PMKSY.
correct? Which of the statements given above are
a) 1 only correct?
b) 2 only a) 1 and 3 only
c) Both 1 and 2 b) 1 and 2 only
d) Neither 1 nor c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.32) Arrange the following states in India in
the descending order of Iron ore
production:
1. Odisha

[6]
PTS 2025 | Test Code : 211140 |

Q.35) Monazite and Ilmenite are the ores of 3. It is a central sector scheme, where 100%
which of the following minerals? funding for implementing the scheme is
a) Thorium provided by the central government.
b) Uranium Which of the statements given above is/are
c) Lithium correct?
d) Polonium a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
Q.36) Namchik – Namphuk (Arunachal c) 2 and 3 only
Pradesh) and Kalakot (Jammu and Kashmir) d) 1, 2 and 3
are famous for the extraction of which of
the following? Q.39) Consider the following statements:
a) Oil shale Statement-I: The proportion of workers in
b) Petroleum the agricultural sector in India has shown a
c) Natural Gas decline over the last few decades.
d) Brown Coal Statement II: Per capita agricultural land in
India is significantly lower than the global
Q.37) Consider the following statements: average.
Statement-I: Migrants act as agents of Which one of the following is correct in
social change. respect of the above statements?
Statement-II: Migration leads to a) Both Statement I and Statement II are
intermixing of people from diverse cultures. correct, and Statement II explains
Statement I.
Which one of the following is correct in
b) Both Statement I and Statement II are
respect of the above statements?
correct, but Statement II does not explain
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
Statement I.
correct and Statement-II explains
c) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is
Statement-I
incorrect.
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
d) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is
correct, but Statement-II does not explain
correct.
Statement-I
c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is
incorrect Q.40) Consider the following statements:
d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II 1. In the financial year 2023-24, India
is correct surpassed the USA as the largest exporter
of refined petroleum in the world.
2. In the financial year 2023-24, India
Q.38) Consider the following statements
surpassed China as the largest importer of
with regards to Atal Mission for
crude oil in the world.
Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation
Which of the statements given above is/are
(AMRUT) Scheme:
correct?
1. It was launched to provide basic civic
a) 1 only
amenities to improve the quality of life for
all, especially the poor and the
b) 2 only
disadvantaged in the urban areas. c) Both 1 and 2
2. One of the major aims of the scheme is to d) Neither 1 nor 2
double the percentage of urban population
in India by 2030.

[7]
PTS 2025 | Test Code : 211140 |

Q.41) With reference to the mineral Which of the above given conditions are
production in India, consider the following conducive for the growth of algal blooms?
statements: a) 1 and 2 only
Statement I: The State of Odisha accounts b) 1, 2, and 3 only
for the highest annual production of c) 2, 3, and 4 only
Aluminium in India. d) 1, 2, 3, and 4
Statement II: Odisha has the largest
reserves of Bauxite Ore in India. Q.44) With reference to the Smart Cities
Which one of the following is correct in Mission in India, consider the following
respect of the statements given above? statements:
a) Both statement -I and statement -II are 1. Each city's Smart City proposal must
correct and statement -II is the correct include at least one area-based
explanation for statement -I. development approach and a Pan-city
b) Both statement -I and statement -II are initiative.
correct and statement -II is not the correct 2. All 100 Smart Cities have operational
explanation for statement -I. Integrated Command and Control Centres
c) Statement -I is correct but statement -II is (ICCCs).
incorrect. 3. The mission implements three area-based
d) Statement -I is incorrect but statement -II development approaches: Retrofitting,
is correct. Redevelopment, and Greenfield
Development.
Q.42) Consider the following statements: Which of the statements given above are
correct?
Statement-I: Iron Pyrite is one of the chief
a) 1 and 2 only
sources of iron.
b) 2 and 3 only
Statement-II: Iron Pyrite is a sulphide of
c) 1 and 3 only
Iron.
d) 1, 2, and 3
Which one of the following is correct in
respect of the above statements?
Q.45) Which of the following are the major
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
Industrial Regions of India?
correct, and Statement-II explains
Statement-I 1. Chhota Nagpur plateau region
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are 2. Hyderabad-Warangal-Nagpur region
correct, but Statement-II does not explain 3. Madurai – Coimbatore – Bangalore region
Statement-I 4. Kolkata- Chennai – Tuticorin region
c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is Select the correct answer using the code
incorrect given below.
d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II a) 1 and 2 only
is correct b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
Q.43) Consider the following conditions d) 1 and 4 only
1. Increased nutrient availability in water
bodies.
2. Warm water temperatures.
3. Abundant sunlight
4. Stable wind conditions

[8]
PTS 2025 | Test Code : 211140 |

Q.46) With reference to the various phases Select the correct answer using the code
of population growth of India in the last given below:
century, consider the following statements: a) 1 only
1. The first phase (1901-1921) is referred to as b) 2 only
the stagnant phase of population growth. c) Both 1 and 2
2. The second phase (1921-1951) witnessed the d) Neither 1 nor 2
negative growth of India's population.
3. The third phase (1951-1981) registered a Q.50) Consider the following statements:
rapid fall in fertility rate and a high 1. Gondwana coal is moderate in ash content
mortality rate. and low in Sulphur.
4. The fourth phase (1981-present) of India's 2. Tertiary coal fields are mainly located in
population growth is considered as the North-eastern India.
population explosion phase. Which of the statements given above is/are
How many of the statements given above correct?
are correct? a) 1 only
a) Only one b) 2 only
b) Only two c) Both 1 and 2
c) Only three d) Neither 1 nor 2
d) All four

Q.47) Which of the following is the best

description of the ‘footloose industry’?
It is an industry:
a) that requires a large amount of labor to
produce its goods or services.
b) which cannot be relocated easily to a new
place.
c) which is always located near the source of
its raw material.
d) whose location is not much dependent on
the factors of production.

Q.48) Which one of the following is the

largest solar power plant in India, in terms
of power generation capacity?
a) Rewa Ultra Mega Solar Project, Madhya
Pradesh
b) Pavagada Solar Park, Karnataka
c) Bhadla Solar Park, Rajasthan
d) Kurnool Ultra Mega Solar Park, Andhra
Pradesh

Q.49) Which of the following statements

is/are correct in the context of different
languages spoken in India?
1. Indo-European family of language has the
highest number of speakers in India.
2. In India, Speakers of Sino-Tibetan
languages is more than speaker of
Dravidian family of languages.

[9]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211140 |

Q.1)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
According to a Report by the Ministry of Jal Shakti (Dynamic Ground Water Resource Assessment
Report 2022), the total annual groundwater recharge in India is 437.60 billion Cubic Metres (BCM).
The quantity of groundwater extracted stood at 239.16 BCM.
The major user for groundwater is agriculture (208.49 BCM), followed by domestic (27.05 BCM) and
industrial sector (3.64 BCM).
Agricultural sector (87%) is the largest user of groundwater, followed by the domestic sector (11%)
and industrial sector (2%)

.
Source:) https://forumias.com/blog/groundwater-use-and-governance-in-india-explained-
pointwise/
https://ncert.nic.in/ncerts/l/legy206.pdf
https://static.pib.gov.in/WriteReadData/userfiles/file/GWRA2022(1)HIDO.pdf
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1986272
Subject:) Geography
Topic) Water Resources [India]
Subtopic)

Q.2)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Bauxite is the ore which is used in the manufacturing of Aluminium. Bauxite is found mainly in
tertiary deposits. It is associated with laterite rocks, which occurs extensively on the plateau and hill
ranges of peninsular India and also in the coastal tracts of the country.
Statement 1 is correct. Bauxite is a rock, which is an aggregate of various minerals. In bauxite's
case, it is composed primarily of hydrated aluminium oxides like gibbsite, boehmite, and diaspore,
along with other impurities such as iron oxides and silica. Rocks, unlike minerals, are composed of
multiple minerals or mineraloids, which is why bauxite is termed a rock rather than a mineral.
Bauxite contains varying amounts of aluminium oxide (Al₂O₃) combined with water.

[1]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211140 |

Statement 2 is incorrect. Bauxite mining in India is primarily conducted through the open-cast
method, not underground mining. Bauxite deposits are generally located close to the Earth's
surface, making the open-cast method more efficient and cost-effective for extracting the ore
without the need for underground operations.
Source:)
NCERT: Class XII - India people and Economy Chapter 7 Mineral and Energy Resources
https://ibm.gov.in/writereaddata/files/170987945265eab09cd2f82Bauxite_2022.pdf
Subject:) Geography
Topic) Minerals Resources [India]
Subtopic:)

Q.3)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
India's ports are crucial for its trade and economy, with 13 major ports and over 200 minor ports.
Key ports include Mumbai, Chennai, Kolkata, and Mundra. Ports handle significant cargo, boosting
trade and connectivity.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The only corporatized major port owned by the Government of India is
Kamarajar Port (formerly Ennore Port), not Kandla Port. Kandla Port, now renamed Deendayal
Port, is a major government-owned port but is not classified as a corporate port.
Statement 2 is correct: Kolkata Port, also known as Syama Prasad Mukherjee Port, is the only
major riverine port in India. It is located on the Hooghly River and has two dock systems: the
Kolkata Dock System and the Haldia Dock Complex.
Source:) https://www.indiainfoline.com/company/gujarat-pipavav-port-ltd/summary
https://www.newindianexpress.com/states/tamil-nadu/2023/Oct/23/pm-modi-lays-stone-for-
projects-for-indias-first-green-port-2626321.html
https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/business/india-business/government-approves-renaming-
kolkata-port-trust-as-syama-prasad-mookerjee-trust/articleshow/76179517.cms
https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/economy/logistics/corporatisation-of-major-ports-
more-action-is-needed/article66572934.ece
Subject:) Geography
Topic) Industry and Service [India]
Subtopic:)

Q.4)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
A refugee is a person who has fled their own country because they are at risk of serious human
rights violations and persecution there.
Statement I is correct. India has historically been perceived as a ‘refugee-receiving’ nation having
hosted over 2,00,000, diverse refugee groups since its independence. As of January 31, 2022, 46,000
refugees and asylum-seekers were registered with UNHCR India. 46% of this population is
comprised of women and girls, a disproportionately burdened and vulnerable group. Refugees and
asylum-seekers in India primarily live in urban settings alongside host communities.

[2]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211140 |

For ex: The Partition of India, the China-Tibet issue, the Bangladesh liberation war in 1971, the Sri
Lankan civil war from 1983 to 2009, and the ongoing Rohingya crisis in Myanmar have resulted in a
significant influx of refugees into India.
Statement II is incorrect. India is not a party to the 1951 Refugee Convention or its 1967 Protocol
and does not have a national refugee protection framework.
India lacks a national refugee law and is also not a signatory to the United Nations 1951 Refugee
Convention.
The United Nations 1951 Refugee Convention is a protocol outlining the international standards of
treating and protecting people seeking refuge. The 1951 Refugee Convention and its 1967 Protocol
are the key legal documents that form the basis of refuge protection. They define the term 'refugee'
and outline their rights and the international standards of treatment for their protection.
Source:) https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/lead/refugee-rights-the-gendered-nature-of-
displacement/article68506611.ece
https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/invisible-suffering-of-rohingya-
refugees/article68307612.ece
Subject:) Geography
Topic) Migration [India]
Subtopic:)

Q.5)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
India is the second largest producer of nitrogenous fertilisers in the world. India is the 3rd largest
producer of phosphatic fertilisers however India meets its entire potash requirement through
imports because of the limited resources.
Statement 1 is correct: Indian Farmers Fertiliser Cooperative Limited (IFFCO) has developed
nanotechnology-based Nano Urea (Liquid) fertilizers. IFFCO’s Nano Urea is the only Nano
fertilizer approved by the Government of India. It is Patented by IFFCO and application of 1 bottle
of Nano Urea can effectively replace at least 1 bag of Urea.
Statement 2 is correct: Fertiliser industries are located near the source of raw materials. Naphtha is
the most important raw material for manufacturing fertilisers. Naphtha is derived from petroleum;
hence many fertiliser industries are located near oil refineries.
Statement 3 is incorrect: India imports less than 20% of its average annual consumption of the
Urea. It means more than 2/3rd of India’s urea needs is met through her domestic production.
India is expected to stop the urea imports by the end of 2025. Recently the minister of Fertilizers
has noted that India needs around 35 million tonnes of urea annually to meet domestic demand. The
installed domestic production capacities have been increased to around 31 million tonnes from 22.5
million tonne in 2014-15. So, at present, the gap between annual domestic production and demand is
around 4 million tonnes.
Source:) https://www.iffco.in/en/nano-urea-liquid-
fertilizer#:~:text=IFFCO%20NANO%20UREA%20(Liquid),least%201%20bag%20of%20Urea.
https://www.business-standard.com/economy/news/india-to-stop-importing-urea-by-end-of-
2025-says-mansukh-mandaviya-124040500265_1.html
Subject:) Geography
Topic) Industry and Service [India]

[3]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211140 |

Subtopic:)

Q.6)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
India has 13 major ports and 205 notified minor and intermediate ports. While the Major Ports are
under the administrative control of the Ministry of Shipping, the non-major ports (minor ports)
are under the jurisdiction of the respective State Government. The twelve major seaports in India
include Kandla port in Gujarat, Kolkata port (including Haldia) in West Bengal, Paradeep in
Odisha, Mumbai port and Jawaharlal Nehru Port in Maharashtra, Ennore, Chennai and Tuticorin
port in Tamil Nadu, Marmagao in Goa, Mangalore in Karnataka, Visakhapatnam in Andhra Pradesh
and Kochi in Kerala.
Kandla port in Gujarat is the northernmost major port in India.
Kolkata port in West Bengal is a major port located immediately below the Kandla port.
Paradip port in Odisha is a major port located immediately below the Kolkata port,
Mumbai port and Jawaharlal Nehru Port in Maharashtra are major ports located immediately below
the Paradip port in the same order.

Source:) https://shipmin.gov.in/division/ports-wing
Subject:) Geography
Topic) Industry and Service [India]
Subtopic:)

Q.7)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
The demographic opportunity window is a period when a country's working-age population is high
relative to dependents, potentially boosting economic growth through increased labor supply.

[4]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211140 |

Statement I is correct. Demographic dividend refers to the growth in an economy that results from
a change in the age structure of a country's population. India is expected to enjoy the demographic
opportunity window for 37 years starting 2018 and up to 2055. However, this window is available at
different times in different states because of the differential behaviour of the population
parameters.
Statement II is correct and explains Statement I. The working population of India, which
includes the 15-64 age group, comprises 68% of the total population. This scenario highlights the
potential of India reaping the demographic dividend in the years to come. The Economic Survey
2018-19 also stated that India’s demographic dividend would peak around 2041, when the share of
the working-age population is expected to hit 59%. With more people in the labour force and fewer
children to support, India has a window of opportunity for achieving higher economic growth.
Harnessing this dividend requires expanding opportunities for young people to engage in the
economic sector, guided through the right social and economic investments and policies made in
health, education, governance, and the economy.
Source:) NCERT: Class XII - India people and Economy Chapter 7 Mineral and Energy Resources
https://www.businesstoday.in/india-at-100/story/inclusive-india-2047-empowering-the-
demographic-dividend-395359-2023-08-24
Subject:) Geography
Topic) Population [India]
Subtopic:)

Q.8)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Natural Gas is found with petroleum deposits and is released when crude oil is brought to the
surface. It can be used as a domestic and industrial fuel.
Option 1 is correct: The Krishna-Godavari (KG) basin has large deposits of methane hydrate, a
natural gas formed when methane gas and hydrogen-bonded water come together under high
pressure and low ocean temperatures.
Option 2 is correct: There have been multiple discoveries of natural gas in the Cauvery Basin. The
Oil and Natural Gas Corporation (ONGC) made the first discovery of natural gas in the Cauvery Basin
in 1970 at the Madanam gas field.
Option 3 is correct: Natural gas is found at the Mumbai High oilfield, formerly known as the Bombay
High field. The field hit a peak of 4,76,000 barrels of oil per day and 28 billion cubic meters of gas in
1989 and has since seen a gradual decline in output. It is currently producing some 1,35,000 bpd of
oil and 13 bcm of gas.
Option 4 is correct: Crude Oil is the chief mineral available in Assam. The state accounts for about
15% of Indian Crude Oil output. The Oil wells at Digboi, Duliajan and Sibsagar also produce natural
gas, contributing to about 50% of Indian’s total on-shore production which may be used for
production of fertilizers, electricity, petrochemicals and fuel in the industrial sector.
Option 5 is correct: Natural gases found in the Jaisalmer basin display a wide variation in the
contents of hydrocarbon gases, C1-C5 (20%-75%), nitrogen (70%-30%) and carbon dioxide (0.1%-
10%), such high amount of N2 provides an ideal case for studying the origin and genesis of nitrogen.
Source:)

[5]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211140 |

https://aidcltd.assam.gov.in/information-services/detail/mineral-
based#:~:text=The%20Oil%20wells%20at%20Digboi,fuel%20in%20the%20industrial%20sector.
https://indianexpress.com/article/cities/mumbai/ongcs-mumbai-high-50-years-on-still-going-
strong-9169641/
https://ibm.gov.in/writereaddata/files/01172022163442PNG.pdf
Subject:) Geography
Topic) Energy Resources [India]
Subtopic:)

Q.9)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Soil salinization is the process of increasing the salt content in soil, which can be caused by natural
and human factors.
Option 1 is correct: Over-extraction of groundwater can lead to saltwater intrusion, especially in
coastal areas. As freshwater is extracted, saltwater can seep into the aquifer, contaminating the
groundwater and increasing soil salinity when it is used for irrigation.
Option 2 is correct: Naturally occurring salt deposits in the soil can become a source of salinity,
especially in arid regions where there is limited rainfall to flush away the salts.
Option 3 is correct: Forests play a vital role in regulating water cycles and preventing soil erosion.
When natural forests are cleared for agriculture, the soil becomes more susceptible to salinization
due to changes in water infiltration and evaporation patterns.
Option 4 is correct: Some fertilizers and pesticides contain salts that can accumulate in the soil over
time, leading to salinization. Excessive use of these chemicals can exacerbate the problem.
Option 5 is correct: Canals used for irrigation can sometimes leak, allowing water to seep into the
surrounding soil. If the water is saline or contains high levels of dissolved salts, it can contribute to
soil salinization.
Source:) Ncert Class XII - India People and economy - Water Resources
https://www.frontiersin.org/journals/sustainable-food-
systems/articles/10.3389/fsufs.2020.533781/full
Subject:) Geography
Topic) Minerals Resources [India]
Subtopic:)

Q.10)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
According to the 2011 Census, marriage is the primary reason for female migration in India. This is
because many women move to their husband's place of residence after marriage, leading to a
significant number of female migrants. About a quarter of India’s population was formed by women
who had moved to a place other than where they were born. Marriage is commonly quoted as a key
reason for this migration. Census data reveals that about 2 of every 3 women migrants had moved
for marriage

[6]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211140 |

Associational reasons - movement on account of accompanying parents or any member of the

family was elicited second most important reason among both male and female migrants (20.5%)
and (11.7%).
Source:) https://censusindia.gov.in/census.website/data/stories/women-and-migration-in-india
10. Migration in India trends and characteristics-1669206793.pdf (iasp.ac.in)
Subject:) Geography
Topic) Migration [India]
Subtopic:)

Q.11)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Copper is an indispensable metal in the electrical industry for making wires, electric motors,
transformers and generators. It is alloyable, malleable and ductile. It is also mixed with gold to
provide strength to jewelry. The Copper deposits mainly occur in Singhbhum district in Jharkhand,
Balaghat district in Madhya Pradesh and Jhunjhunu and Alwar districts in Rajasthan.
Minor producers of copper are Agnigundala in Guntur District (Andhra Pradesh), Chitradurg and
Hasan districts (Karnataka) and South Arcot district (Tamil Nadu).
Source:) Geography Class 12 - Chapter 17 Mineral and Energy Resources
Subject:) Geography
Topic) Minerals Resources [India]
Subtopic:)

Q.12)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is incorrect. Anthracite coal has the highest carbon content of all coal types, typically
around 80% to 95% carbon. This high carbon content makes it more efficient in terms of energy
production. It is hard, brittle, black and lustrous. It ignites slowly with a blue flame.
Statement 2 is correct. Anthracite coal has the highest heating value compared to other types of
coal, such as bituminous, sub-bituminous, and lignite. Its high carbon content means it produces
more heat per unit of weight than lower-grade coals. This makes it an excellent fuel for industries
requiring intense and prolonged heat.
Statement 3 is correct. Anthracite coal is quite rare in India and is primarily found in Jammu and
Kashmir. Other regions of India, such as Jharkhand, Odisha, and Chhattisgarh, are rich in
bituminous coal and lower grades.
Source:) NCERT Class XII - India People and Economy- Chapter 7; D.R. Khullar- Chapter 24-Energy
resources
Subject:) Geography
Topic) Minerals Resources [India]
Subtopic:)

Q.13)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring Canal
Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020
9311740400, 9311740900 | https://academy.forumias.com | [email protected] | [email protected]

[7]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211140 |

The Gender Inequality Index (GII) measures gender disparities in health, empowerment, and Labour
Market participation, highlighting inequalities between men and women across countries. It is
published annually by the UNDP.
Statement I is correct. The 2022 Gender Inequality Index (GII) report, released by the United
Nations Development Programme (UNDP), places India at 108th out of 193 countries, with a score
of 0.437. This marks a significant improvement from India's 2021 ranking, where it stood at 122nd out
of 191 countries with a score of 0.490. This reflects a notable 14-rank advancement in India's
position on the GII between 2021 and 2022.
Statement II is correct. Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam, 2023 seeks to reserve one-third of the
total number of seats for women in Lok Sabha, State Legislative Assemblies and Delhi Legislative
Assembly. However, the reservation will come into effect only after a delimitation exercise is
completed, which is scheduled to be held after new census.
Statement II is not the correct explanation for statement I. The Gender Inequality Index (GII)
measures three key dimensions: health, empowerment, and the labor market. The empowerment
dimension specifically considers the female and male share of parliamentary seats. However, the
improvement in India’s GII ranking is not linked to the Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam, passed in
2023, as the latest GII is based on data from 2022. Additionally, the Adhiniyam is scheduled for
implementation only in 2029.
Source:) https://pib.gov.in/PressNoteDetails.aspx?NoteId=151861&ModuleId=3&reg=3&lang=1
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/womens-reservation-bill-govt-introduces-nari-
shakti-vandan-adhiniyam-in-lok-sabha/article67322055.ece
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2014513#:~:text=On%20the%20Gender%20Inequa
lity%20Index,the%20Gender%20Inequality%20Index%202021.
https://hdr.undp.org/data-center/thematic-composite-indices/gender-inequality-
index#/indicies/GII
Subject:) Geography
Topic) Population [India]
Subtopic:)

Q.14)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct. The handloom sector is traditionally more labor-intensive than the power
loom sector. Handloom involves manual work, with artisans weaving fabric using hand-operated
looms, which require more human effort and time. Power looms, on the other hand, are mechanized
and can produce fabric at a faster rate with less human labor, making them less labor-intensive than
handlooms.
Statement 2 is correct and statement 3 is incorrect: India got 1st place in the world in cotton
acreage with 124.69 lakh hectares area under cotton cultivation i.e. around 39% of world area of
318.8 lakh hectares. Approximately 67% of Indian’s cotton is produced on rain-fed areas and 33% on
irrigated lands. In terms of productivity, India is on 33rd rank with yield of 441 kg/ha (not the
highest productivity in the world).
Source:) NCERT Class XII - India People and Economy – Industry
https://texmin.gov.in/sites/default/files/Note%20on%20Cotton%20Sector.pdf
D.R. Khullar- Chapter 25- Manufacturing industry

[8]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211140 |

Subject:) Geography
Topic) Industry and Service [India]
Subtopic:)

Q.15)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Garasia are an ethnic group who live mainly in the states of Rajasthan,
Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, and Maharashtra. They speak various Bhil languages and follow
Hinduism or animism.
Statement 2 is correct: Gaddi tribes are nomadic herders of Jammu & Kashmir and Himachal
Pradesh.
The Gaddi is an ethnic group who inhabit the western Himalayan regions of Jammu & Kashmir,
Himachal Pradesh, and Uttarakhand.
Source:) https://indianexpress.com/article/lifestyle/art-and-culture/tribal-festival-jharkhand-
ranchi-8885448/
https://ncert.nic.in/ncerts/l/gess107.pdf
https://nios.ac.in/media/documents/SecICHCour/English/CH.19.pdf
Subject:) Geography
Topic) Population [India]
Subtopic:)

Q.16)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Manganese, widely present within the Earth's surface, boasts diverse applications. Its primary uses
lie in enhancing the strength and characteristics of steel and metal alloys. As a result, the major
portion of the manganese is used as an alloy component in the steel manufacturing industries.
Statement 1 is correct: The Gondite series of rocks refers to a group of rocks found in the
Gondwana region, which was a supercontinent that existed hundreds of millions of years ago.
Gondite rocks are metamorphic rocks rich in manganese, formed around 2.5 billion years ago.
They are the primary source of manganese ore in India. Gondites are found in the Dharwar region,
a large geological province covering parts of Karnataka, Maharashtra, Goa, Andhra Pradesh, and
Kerala.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Odisha with 44% (not Karnataka) holds the largest share of India's
manganese resources, with key deposits concentrated in the Sundargarh, Koraput, and Ganjam
districts. The next leading state is Karnataka with the 22% of manganese deposits in Belgaum,
North Canara, Chikmagalur, Shimoga, Chitradurg and Tumkur. Maharashtra is also an important
producer of manganese which is mined in Nagpur, Bhandara and Ratnagiri districts.
Statement 3 is correct: The manganese component of the cathode material significantly impacts
the safety of battery cells. As safety is paramount in batteries that power electric vehicles and other
electronic devices, manganese acts as a critical component of lithium ion batteries used in
electric vehicles.
Source:) Class XII-Indian People and Economy -Chapter: Mineral and Energy Resources

[9]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211140 |

https://crsreports.congress.gov/product/pdf/R/R47227
Subject:) Geography
Topic) Minerals Resources [India]
Subtopic:)

Q.17)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
According to Census 2011, both Uttar Pradesh and Bihar experienced significant out-migration.
Uttar Pradesh had the largest outflow with 26.9 lakh people, while Bihar followed with 17.2 lakh
out-migrants. These states saw high migration due to limited economic opportunities, with many
people moving to urban centers like Maharashtra and Delhi for better livelihoods.
Source:)
https://censusindia.gov.in/nada/index.php/catalog/40447/download/44081/DROP_IN_ARTICL
E-08.pdf
NCERT Class XII - India People and Economy – Industry
Subject:) Geography
Topic) Migration [India]
Subtopic:)

Q.18)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct. An estuary is a partially enclosed body of water where freshwater from
rivers or streams meets and mixes with saltwater from the sea, creating brackish water (a mixture
of fresh and saltwater). Estuaries are typically found where rivers meet the ocean or sea.
Statement 2 is correct. Estuarine environments are among the most productive on earth,
creating more organic matter each year than comparably sized areas of forest, grassland or
agricultural land. The sheltered waters of estuaries also support unique communities of plants and
animals specially adapted for life at the margin of the sea.
Source:) https://www.epa.gov/nep/basic-information-about-estuaries
http://sarsunacollege.ac.in/WebPages/Downloads/ELearning/Science/Geograpgy/UG%204th%
20Sem/English/CC4-10-BASIC%20CONCEPTS%20IN%20BIOGEOGRAPHY-1.pdf
https://egyankosh.ac.in/bitstream/123456789/102619/1/Unit-5.pdf
https://oceanservice.noaa.gov/facts/estuary.html#:~:text=Estuaries%20and%20their%20surroun
ding%20wetlands,the%20land%20and%20salty%20seawater.
Subject:) Geography
Topic) Water Resources [India]
Subtopic:)

Q.19)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
On the basis of chemical and physical properties, minerals are grouped under two main categories
of metallics and non-metallics. Metallic minerals are the sources of metals which are further divided

[10]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211140 |

into ferrous and non-ferrous metallic minerals. Non-metallic minerals are either organic in origin
such as fossil fuels or inorganic in origin such as mica, limestone and graphite, etc.
Option a is incorrect: Aluminium is a non-ferrous metallic mineral. Bauxite is the ore, which is
used in manufacturing of aluminium. Bauxite is found mainly in tertiary deposits in India.
Option b is incorrect: Manganese is a metallic mineral. It is primarily used in steel production as an
alloying element to improve hardness, toughness, and wear resistance. It is also used in
manufacturing bleaching powder, insecticides and paints.
Option c is correct: Mica is a one of the important non-metallic minerals which is mainly used in
the electrical and electronic industries. It can be split into very thin sheets which are tough and
flexible.
Option d is incorrect: Mercury is a metallic mineral which exist in a liquid form at room
temperature.

Source:) https://ncert.nic.in/textbook/pdf/legy205.pdf
Subject:) Geography
Topic) Minerals Resources [India]
Subtopic:)

Q.20)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
The United Nations Human Settlements Programme (UN-Habitat) is mandated by the UN General
Assembly to promote socially and environmentally sustainable towns and cities. UN-Habitat is the
focal point for all urbanization and human settlement matters within the UN system.
Option d is correct: The World Cities Report 2022: Envisaging the Future of Cities was released by
the United Nations Human Settlements Programme (UN-Habitat) which stresses that building
resilience must be at the heart of the cities of the future. The Report proposes a state of informed
preparedness that provides us with the opportunity to anticipate change, correct the course of
action and become more knowledgeable of the different scenarios or possibilities that the future of
cities offers.
The World Cities Report (WCR) 2024 (World Cities Report 2024: Cities and Climate Action) seeks to
provide a greater understanding of the role that cities and human settlements can play through
reinvigorated action in addressing the existential threat posed by climate change.
Source:) https://unhabitat.org/sites/default/files/2022/06/wcr_2022.pdf
https://unhabitat.org/sites/default/files/2024/02/concept_note_wcr_case_studies_annex.pdf
https://unhabitat.org/about-us
https://unhabitat.org/wcr/

[11]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211140 |

Subject:) Geography
Topic) Urbanisation [India]
Subtopic:)

Q.21)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
India's nuclear journey began shortly after its independence, with a vision to harness nuclear energy
for peaceful purposes. Atomic Energy Commission (AEC) was established in 1948 which laid the
foundation for India's nuclear program, focusing on research, development, and utilization of atomic
energy for national progress. India’s first nuclear reactor, Apsara went into operation in 1956.
Row 1 is correct: The Tarapur Nuclear Power Plant is in Maharashtra and was built in collaboration
with the United States of America. The Tarapur Atomic Power Station (TAPS) was constructed by
General Electric (USA), with electricity production from nuclear energy starting in October 1969.
Row 2 is correct: India’s second nuclear power station was established in Rajasthan, near Kota. The
first unit began operations in August 1972. The first two units at Rajasthan were built in
collaboration with Canada.
Row 3 is correct: India’s third nuclear power station was established at Kalpakkam, near Chennai.
This station was entirely designed and built by India, using domestically produced materials and
equipment.
Row 4 is correct: The fourth nuclear power station was set up at Narora, on the banks of the river
Ganga in the state of Uttar Pradesh. The first unit at Narora started up in October 1989. Over the
next twenty years, India developed and commissioned eleven 220 MW units and two 540 MW units,
all based on its indigenous 'Pressurized Heavy Water Reactor' technology.
Source:) https://ncert.nic.in/textbook/pdf/legy205.pdf
https://pib.gov.in/newsite/printrelease.aspx?relid=170047
https://www.iaea.org/sites/default/files/publications/magazines/bulletin/bull21-
5/21505090211.pdf
Subject:) Geography
Topic) Energy Resources [India]
Subtopic:)

Q.22)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Row 1 is incorrect: Jharia is famous for coal mines, not copper. Jharia is the largest coal field
followed by Raniganj in the state of Jharkhand.
Row 2 is correct: Kalahandi and Sambalpur are popular mines of Bauxite located in the state of
Odisha. Bauxite is the ore, which is used in manufacturing of aluminium. Bauxite is found mainly in
tertiary deposits. Odisha happens to be the largest producer of Bauxite.
Row 3 is incorrect: Gold is a relatively scarce metal in the world and a scarce commodity in India.
By States, largest resources in terms of gold ore (primary) are located in Bihar (44%) followed by
Rajasthan (25%), Karnataka (21%),West Bengal (3%), Andhra Pradesh (3% ) and Jharkhand (2%) The
famous Hutti Gold Mines are located in Karnataka, not Bihar.

[12]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211140 |

Source:) https://ncert.nic.in/textbook/pdf/legy205.pdf
https://ibm.gov.in/writereaddata/files/10142020121942Gold_2019_AR.pdf
Subject:) Geography
Topic) Minerals Resources [India]
Subtopic:)

Q.23)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
International Sugar Organisation (ISO) is the apex international body on sugar and relating products
having about 90 countries as members. During its chairmanship of the International Sugar
Organization (ISO) in 2024, India seeks the support and cooperation of all member countries to
promote the adoption of more sustainable practices in sugarcane cultivation, sugar and ethanol
production, and the efficient utilization of by-products. India's focus will be on uniting member
nations to foster sustainability across the sugar industry.
Statement 1 is correct: India has been the largest consumer sugar in the world with about 15%
share in global sugar consumption.
Statement 2 is incorrect: India is the second largest producer of sugar in the world of about 20%
production of sugar after Brazil.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The United States is the world's largest producer of ethanol, having
produced over 15 billion gallons in 2021 and 2022. Together, the United States and Brazil produce
80% of the world's ethanol.
Sugarcane ethanol is an alcohol-based renewable biofuel produced by the fermentation of
sugarcane extract and molasses. India is the 3rd largest country in the world in ethanol production
after USA and Brazil.
Source:) https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1979507
Subject:) Geography
Topic) Industry and Service [India]
Subtopic:)

Q.24)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Statement I is correct. The World Migration Report highlighted that India consistently ranked as
the top remittance recipient in 2010, 2015, 2020, and 2022. Other nations in the top five included
Mexico, China, the Philippines, and France. Between 2000 and 2022, international remittances
surged by 650%, increasing from USD 128 billion to USD 831 billion, with India receiving the highest
share at USD 111 billion in 2022, followed by Mexico. Out of the total remittances, USD 647 billion
were sent to low- and middle-income countries, emphasizing India's position as the leading
recipient globally.
Statement II is correct: India is the origin of the largest number of emigrants in the world (nearly
18 million), with large diasporas in countries like the UAE, the US, and Saudi Arabia.
Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I: A larger emigrant population means more
individuals are sending money back home, which naturally results in higher remittance inflows.

[13]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211140 |

The high volume of remittances received by India is a direct outcome of its vast global diaspora,
particularly in countries where job opportunities for Indian workers and professionals are abundant.
Source:) https://worldmigrationreport.iom.int/what-we-do/foreword/foreword
https://indianexpress.com/article/trending/top-10-listing/world-migration-report-top-10-
countries-receiving-highest-remittances-9318069/
Subject:) Geography
Topic) Migration [India]
Subtopic:)

Q.25)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Copper is an indispensable metal in the electrical industry for making wires, electric motors,
transformers and generators. It is mixed with gold to provide strength to jewellery.
The Copper deposits mainly occur in Singhbhum district in Jharkhand, Balaghat district in Madhya
Pradesh and Jhunjhunu and Alwar districts in Rajasthan.
The Malanjkhand Mine is a surface and underground Copper mine located in Madhya Pradesh. It is
owned by Hindustan Copper ltd.
The Khetri Mine is a copper mine located in Rajasthan. It is owned by Hindustan Copper ltd. The
Kendadih Mine is an underground Copper mine located in Jharkhand. It is owned by Hindustan
Copper ltd.
Source:) Class XII: Indian people and economy: Chapter-Minerals and Energy Resources.
https://ncert.nic.in/textbook/pdf/jess105.pdf
Subject:) Geography
Topic) Minerals Resources [India]
Subtopic:)

Q.26)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
The Steel Authority of India Limited (SAIL) has five integrated steel plants at Bhilai (Chhattisgarh),
Rourkela (Odisha), Durgapur (West Bengal), Bokaro (Jharkhand) and Burnpur (West Bengal). It also
has three special and alloy steels plants viz. Alloy Steels Plant at Durgapur (West Bengal), Salem
Steel Plant at Salem (Tamil Nadu) and Visveswaraya Iron and Steel Plant at Bhadravati (Karnataka).
Pair 1 is incorrect: Visvesvaraya Iron and Steel Plant (VISL) is a pioneer in production of high quality
alloy & special steels and pig iron. It is located in Bhadravati, Karnataka. Initially, it was called the
Mysore Iron and Steel Works. It is located close to an iron ore producing area of Kemangundi in the
Bababudan hills. The Bhadravati River supplies water to the plant. This plant produces specialised
steels and alloys.
Pair 2 is correct. The Rourkela Steel plant is an integrated steel plant located in the Sundargarh
district of Odisha. It was set up in 1959 in collaboration with Germany. The plant was located on the
basis of proximity to raw materials, thus, minimising the cost of transporting weight losing raw

[14]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211140 |

material. This plant has a unique locational advantage, as it receives coal from Jharia (Jharkhand)
and iron ore from Sundargarh and Kendujhar. The Hirakud project supplies power for the electric
furnaces and water is obtained from the Koel and Sankh rivers.
Pair 3 is correct. Durgapur Steel Plant is an integrated Steel Plant in West Bengal. It was set up in
collaboration with the government of the United Kingdom. It started production in 1962. This plant
lies in Raniganj and Jharia coal belt and gets iron ore from Noamundi. It on the main Kolkata-Delhi
railway route. The Hydel power and water is obtained from the Damodar Valley Corporation (DVC)
by this plant.
Source:)
https://steel.gov.in/sites/default/files/E-Book2014_0.pdf (page 6)
https://magadhuniversity.ac.in/download/econtent/pdf/Iron%20and%20steel%20industries%20i
n%20india-converted.pdf
https://sail.co.in/en/plants/about-bhilai-steel-plant
https://sail.co.in/en/plants/visvesvaraya-iron-and-steel-plant
Subject:) Geography
Topic) Industry and Service [India]
Subtopic:)

Q.27)
Ans) a
Exp) option a is the correct answer.
According to the Census of India 2011, the population of various minority communities is:
1. Jains: 4.5 million (0.4% of the total Population)
2. Buddhists: 8.4 million (0.7% of the total Population)
3. Sikhs: 20.8 million (1.7% of the total Population)
4. Christians: 27.8 million (2.3% of the total Population)
Source:) https://ncert.nic.in/textbook.php?legy2=1-12
Subject:) Geography
Topic) Population [India]
Subtopic:)

Q.28)
Ans) b
Exp) option b is the correct answer.
"Kayals" refer to lagoons or backwaters that are a distinctive feature of Kerala's coastal
geography. These are shallow stretches of water separated from the open sea by a narrow strip of
land. Kerala’s backwater system is a network of interconnected canals, rivers, lakes, and inlets,
formed by the action of sea waves and shore currents.
Kayals, particularly the Vembanad Kayal (the largest in Kerala), play a crucial role in the region’s
economy, providing water for agriculture, being used as transport routes, and supporting a rich
ecosystem that sustains fisheries. They are also a key tourist attraction in Kerala, known for
houseboat cruises.
Source:) https://ncert.nic.in/ncerts/l/kegy102.pdf;
https://ncert.nic.in/textbook/pdf/legy211.pdf

[15]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211140 |

Subject:) Geography
Topic) Water Resources [India]
Subtopic:)

Q.29)
Ans) c
Exp) option c is the correct answer.
Statement I is correct. India relies on importing Uranium from countries such as Kazakhstan,
Australia, Canada, and Russia to sustain its nuclear power plants. This is because domestic
production of Uranium is insufficient to meet the needs of the expanding nuclear energy program.
These imports ensure a stable and sufficient supply of Uranium for India's nuclear reactors.
Statement II is incorrect. Uranium deposits occur in the Dharwar rocks. Geographically in India,
uranium ores are known to occur in several locations along the Singbhum Copper belt. It is also
found in Udaipur, Alwar and Jhunjhunu districts of Rajasthan, Durg district of Chhattisgarh,
Bhandara district of Maharashtra and Kullu district of Himachal Pradesh. However, the deposits are
relatively limited, which makes India dependent on imports to meet its nuclear fuel requirements.
Source:) https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/india/india-to-import-100-tonne-of-
uranium-to-power-nuclear-power-plants-in-fy23/articleshow/90561182.cms?from=mdr;
https://ncert.nic.in/textbook.php?legy2=5-12
Subject:) Geography
Topic) Minerals Resources [India]
Subtopic:)

Q.30)
Ans) a
Exp) option a is the correct answer.
Slums are an integral part of the urban landscape in India, driven by rapid urbanization, poverty,
and lack of affordable housing. The growth of these informal settlements significantly impacts the
socio-economic fabric of Indian cities.
Statement 1: More than one-sixth of India's urban population (around 17%) resides in slums where
Maharashtra constitutes for the highest numbers of slum dwellers in India. Slum Population have
risen from 52 million in 2001 to 65 million in 2011.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Dharavi in Mumbai is the third largest and not the largest slum in world
population wise. According to Human Development Report by United Nations Development
Programme (UNDP) and according to a report of the World Economic Forum, the Orangi Town,
Karachi, Pakistan houses the largest Slum population in the World.
Source:) India – A Comprehensive Geography by D R Khullar -Chapter – Settlements
https://www.weforum.org/agenda/2016/10/these-are-the-worlds-five-biggest-slums/
https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/india/17-of-urban-india-lives-in-slums-
census/articleshow/19118219.cms#:~:text=Nearly%20one%20in%20every%20six,had%20been%20p
rojected%20for%20India
Subject:) Geography
Topic) Urbanisation [India]
Subtopic:)

[16]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211140 |

Q.31)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Mica is a naturally occurring non-metallic mineral. It is common in igneous and metamorphic
rock and is occasionally found as small flakes in sedimentary rock.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Andhra Pradesh (Not Bihar) is known for having substantial mica reserves
and is a key contributor to mica production in India.
Andhra Pradesh leads with 41% share in the country’s total resources followed by Rajasthan (21%),
Odisha (20%), Maharashtra (15%), Bihar (2%) and remaining 1% is in Jharkhand and Telangana
together.
Statement 2 is incorrect: As per Govt of India Notification S.O. 423(E), dated 10th February 2015,
'mica' has been declared as 'Minor Mineral'.
Source:) https://m.economictimes.com/industry/indl-goods/svs/metals-mining/mines-
ministry-to-notify-31-major-minerals-as-minor-
minerals/articleshow/46131503.cms#:~:text=The%20list%20of%2031%20minerals,Limekankar%2C
%20Mica%2C%20Ochre%2CPyrophyllite
https://ibm.gov.in/writereaddata/files/1683715413645b7555d763416_Mica.pdf
Subject:) Geography
Topic) Minerals Resources [India]
Subtopic:)

Q.32)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Iron ore is a type of rock that contains iron minerals, mainly Haematite and Magnetite.
Odisha is recognized as the largest producer of iron ore in India, contributing significantly 55% to
the country's overall production.
Thus, the correct order from highest to lowest is Odisha (more than 50%), Karnataka (16%),
Jharkhand (10%) and Maharashtra (2%).

Source:) NCERT Class XII - India People and Economy -chapter 7: Mineral resources
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1806555

[17]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211140 |

Subject:) Geography
Topic) Minerals Resources [India]
Subtopic:)

Q.33)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
The term globalization refers to the integration of economies of the world through uninhibited trade
and financial flows, as also through mutual exchange of technology and knowledge. The process of
globalization includes opening up of world trade, development of advanced means of
communication, internationalization of financial markets, growing importance of MNCs, population
migrations and more generally increased mobility of persons, goods, capital, data and ideas.
Statement 1 is correct: opening the economy to foreign direct investment by providing facilities to
foreign companies to invest in different fields of economic activity in India. For instance,
Government has established several initiatives, such as make in India campaign, which encourages
foreign companies to manufacture their products in India. Also companies like Samsung and Apple
have invested heavily in Indian manufacturing plants such as Foxcon, creating jobs and boosting
local economies .
Statement 2 is correct: Removing constraints and obstacles to the entry of MNCs in India. For
example, government has initiated, ‘single window clearance' systems to facilitate faster approval
for MNCs.
Statement 3 is correct: Allowing Indian companies to engage in global partnerships and
encouraging them to form joint ventures abroad. An example is the collaboration between Tata
motors and Jaguar Land Rover, Tata motors acquired Jaguar in 2008.
Globalization also carries out massive import liberalization programs by switching over from
quantitative restrictions to tariffs and import duties.
Source:) https://nios.ac.in/media/documents/SecEcoCour/English/Chapter-22.pdf
India : People and Economy- chapter- manufacturing
Subject:) Geography
Topic) Industry and Service [India]
Subtopic:)

Q.34)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
PMKSY has been formulated with the vision of extending the coverage of irrigation ‘Har Khet ko
pani’ and improving water use efficiency ‘More crop per drop'. Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchai
Yojana (PMKSY) was launched during the year 2015-16, with an aim to enhance physical access of
water on farm and expand cultivable area under assured irrigation, improve on-farm water use
efficiency, introduce sustainable water conservation practices, etc.
Statement 1 is correct: The goal is to enhance physical access of water on farm and expand
cultivable area under assured irrigation, improve on-farm water use efficiency, introduce
sustainable water conservation practices, etc.
The broad objectives of PMKSY :-

[18]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211140 |

a. Achieve convergence of investments in irrigation at the field level (preparation of district level
and, if required, sub district level water use plans).
b. Enhance the physical access of water on the farm and expand cultivable area under assured
irrigation (Har Khet ko pani),
c. Integration of water source, distribution and its efficient use, to make best use of water through
appropriate technologies and practices.
d. Improve on-farm water use efficiency to reduce wastage and increase availability both in
duration and extent,
e. Enhance the adoption of precision-irrigation and other water saving technologies (More crop per
drop)
f. Enhance recharge of aquifers and introduce sustainable water conservation practices
Statement 2 is correct: PMKSY is an umbrella scheme. It has following programme components:
A-Accelerated Irrigation Benefit Programme(AIBP)-It was launched in 1996-97. This scheme is
now a component of PM Krishi Sinchai Yojana.AIBP helps States for the major/medium irrigation
projects in the Country, with the objective to accelerate implementation of advanced stage
irrigation projects held up due to financial constraints
B- PMKSY (Har Khet ko Pani) - It focuses on expanding cultivable area under assured irrigation, it
is funded through the ongoing Command Area Development & Water Management (CADWM)
programme
C- Watershed Development- It focuses on Effective management of runoff water and improved soil
& moisture conservation activities such as ridge area treatment, drainage line treatment, rain water
harvesting, in-situ moisture conservation and other allied activities on watershed basis
D- Per Drop - More Crop- It is an integral component of PMKSY, focuses on maximizing water use
efficiency at the farm level. Major activities under Per Drop - More Crop can be categorized into
“Micro Irrigation” including Drip, Sprinkler, Micro Sprinklers etc and “Supplementary Water
Management Activities (SWMA)/ Other interventions”.
Statement 3 is correct: State Agriculture Departments will be the Nodal Departments for
implementation of PMKSY. All communication between Ministry of Agriculture (MOA) and State
Government would be with and through the nodal department.
Source:) https://pmksy.gov.in/
https://pmksy.gov.in/pdflinks/Guidelines_English.pdf
Subject:) Geography
Topic) Water Resources [India]
Subtopic:)

Q.35)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Thorium is mainly obtained from monazite and ilmenite. It is found in the beach sands along the
coast of Kerala and Tamil Nadu. These minerals are concentrated in the black sand deposits found
along the coastline, and their extraction provides a significant source of thorium for various
applications. Monazite, a mineral with approximately 5-10% thorium by weight, stands as a
significant source of thorium in India. On the other hand, Ilmenite contains about 0.5-1% thorium
by weight.

[19]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211140 |

Source:) Class 12, India: People and Economy Ch: 5, Pg: 61

Subject:) Geography
Topic) Minerals Resources [India]
Subtopic:)

Q.36)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Tertiary coals are found in Namchik–Namphuk in Arunachal Pradesh and Kalakot in Jammu and
Kashmir. Apart from that, Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Meghalaya, and Nagaland are also associated
with tertiary coals. Tertiary coal, also known as brown coal or lignite, is a type of coal formed during
the Tertiary geological period (66 million years ago to 2.6 million years ago). It is younger and less
mature than other types of coal, such as bituminous and anthracite.
Source:) Class 12, India: People and Economy Ch: 5, Pg: 59
Subject:) Geography
Topic) Minerals Resources [India]
Subtopic:)

Q.37)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct: Migrants introduce new ideas and practices, facilitating social change
through cultural intermixing. The diverse viewpoints and experiences that migrants contribute can
lead to creative solutions and innovations in various fields. They are vital agents of social change
because through community building and social networking, they foster social ties that enhance
community resilience and cohesion.
For example, migration from Rural areas to urban centres have enabled individuals to work in
diverse environments that promotes interactions across caste lines, reducing entrenched biases.
Statement-II is correct and explains Statement-I: Migration leads to intermixing of people from
diverse cultures and leads to the evolution of a composite culture. When some people come from a
developed region to an under-developed region, they bring with them a developed thinking and new
technology. Similarly, girls' education has become important as a result of migration.
Source:) NCERT Class XII - India People and Economy -chapter 2 : Migration
https://ncert.nic.in/ncerts/l/legy202.pdf
Subject:) Geography
Topic) Migration [India]
Subtopic:)

Q.38)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Urbanisation is the process of population migration from rural to urban areas, leading to the
growth of cities and towns. It is driven by industrialisation, job opportunities, and better living

[20]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211140 |

standards. Urbanisation affects infrastructure, housing, and the environment, and plays a key role in
economic development and modernization.
Statement 1 is correct: The Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Infrastructure (AMRUT)
scheme was launched in 2015 to improve the urban infrastructure in Indian cities, especially
aimed to provide basic civic amenities like water supply, sanitation, and improving public spaces, to
improve the quality of life for all especially the poor and the disadvantaged in the urban areas.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Although it is true that urbanization is significantly influenced by the
quality of life provided in cities, but the Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Infrastructure
(AMRUT) scheme did not specifically aim to double the percentage of urban population in India by
2030.
The main aim of “AMRUT” scheme is to-
(i) ensure that every household has access to a tap with an assured supply of water and a sewerage
connection.
(ii) increase the amenity value of cities by developing greenery and well-maintained open spaces e.g.
parks etc. and
(iii) reduce pollution by switching to public transport or constructing facilities for non-motorized
transport e.g. walking and cycling
Statement 3 is incorrect: The AMRUT scheme is a centrally sponsored scheme, where States and
Central Government the revenue in 40:60 ratio, respectively. Hence the expenditure related to
implementation of the scheme is shared between states and Central Government and not entirely
borne by Central Government.
Source:) NCERT Class XII - India People and Economy - Human Settlement
https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1908856#:~:text=Atal%20Mission%20for%2
0Rejuvenation%20and,continue%20till%2031stMarch
https://mohua.gov.in/cms/amrut.php
Subject:) Geography
Topic) Urbanisation [India]
Subtopic:)

Q.39)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
India’s agriculture sector employs about 55% of the population and contributes around 16% to the
GDP. It is the world’s largest producer of milk, pulses, and spices, and the second-largest producer
of fruits, vegetables, and rice. The sector is crucial for India’s economy and food security.
Statement-I is correct: The proportion of agricultural workers has steadily declined in India. For
example, in 2001, 58.2% of the workforce was engaged in agriculture, but this dropped to 54.6% by
2011. This indicates a shift in the workforce from the primary sector (agriculture) to secondary
(industrial) and tertiary (services) sectors.
Statement-II is correct and explains Statement-I: As per the fifth edition of Wastelands Atlas –
2019, the world average cropland area per person was 0.29 hectares, whereas in India, the per
capita availability of agricultural land was only 0.12 hectares. This indicates that India has
significantly lower agricultural land per person compared to the global average.

[21]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211140 |

The decline in the agricultural workforce occurred because lower per capita agricultural land means
fewer people can be sustainably employed in agriculture, forcing workers to seek employment in
secondary and tertiary sectors.
Source:) NCERT Class XII - India people and economy - Population
Subject:) Geography
Topic) Population [India]
Subtopic:)

Q.40)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is incorrect: India is the second-largest exporter of refined petroleum products in
the world, not the largest. The USA remains the largest exporter of refined petroleum products
globally ($135.4 Billion). As of Financial Year 2023-24, India exported around $70 billion in refined oil
products, but it did not surpass the USA, which holds the top position.
Statement 2 is incorrect: China remains the largest importer of crude oil globally. In 2023, China
imported 11.3 million barrels per day (b/d), an increase of 10% from the previous year. India's crude
oil imports are significant (4.6 million barrels per day (b/d)) but still far lower than China’s, meaning
India did not surpass China in crude oil imports.
Source:)
https://www.eia.gov/todayinenergy/detail.php?id=61843#:~:text=China%2C%20the%20world's%2
0largest%20importer,according%20to%20China%20customs%20data.
https://www.newindianexpress.com/business/2024/Apr/10/europe-becomes-top-spot-for-
indias-exports-of-petroleum-products
https://www.business-standard.com/economy/news/india-imports-2-8-billion-worth-of-crude-
oil-from-russia-in-july-124081500280_1.html
, NCERT Class XII - India People and Economy - Industry
Subject:) Geography
Topic) Industry and Service [India]
Subtopic:)

Q.41)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Bauxite is the primary ore of aluminium, composed of hydrated aluminium oxides. It is mainly used
for aluminium production, but also finds applications in cement, refractories, and abrasives
industries due to its chemical properties.
Statement I is correct. Odisha accounts for the highest annual production of aluminium in India,
largely due to its rich bauxite reserves and the presence of major companies like NALCO (National
Aluminium Company Ltd.). In 2021-22, Odisha contributed around 73% of India's total bauxite
production, which is crucial for aluminium production
Statement II is correct. By States, Odisha alone accounts for 41% of country's resources of bauxite
followed by Chhattisgarh 20%, Andhra Pradesh (12%), Gujarat (8%), Jharkhand (6%), Maharashtra
Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring Canal
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9311740400, 9311740900 | https://academy.forumias.com | [email protected] | [email protected]

[22]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211140 |

(5%) and Madhya Pradesh (4%). Major bauxite resources are concentrated in the East Coast bauxite
deposits in Odisha and Andhra Pradesh. Odisha holds the largest reserves of bauxite ore in India,
accounting for approximately 41% of the country's total bauxite reserves. Its significant deposits,
particularly in districts like Koraput, Kalahandi, and Rayagada, make Odisha a major hub for bauxite
mining, supporting the aluminium industry.
Thus, due to the presence of large reserves of bauxite ore, Odisha is a major producer of Aluminium
in India.
So, both statement -I and statement -II are correct and statement -II is the correct explanation
for statement -I.
Source:)
NCERT: Class XII - India people and Economy Chapter 7 Mineral and Energy Resources
https://ibm.gov.in/writereaddata/files/10012020172018Bauxite_2019_AR.pdf
Subject:) Geography
Topic) Minerals Resources [India]
Subtopic:)

Q.42)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Statement-I is incorrect: Iron Pyrite (FeS₂), commonly known as "fool's gold", is not a significant
source of iron. It contains iron, but iron is not commonly extracted from it due to its high sulphur
content. Instead, iron is primarily extracted from ores like hematite (Fe₂O₃) and magnetite (Fe₃O₄),
which are much more efficient and viable sources of iron. Iron pyrite is more commonly used for the
production of sulphuric acid, not for extracting iron.
Statement II is correct: Iron Pyrite is a sulphide of iron, with the chemical formula FeS₂. It
contains iron (Fe) and sulfur (S), making it a sulphide mineral. This composition is what gives it its
distinctive yellow, metallic appearance, which resembles gold, hence the nickname "fool's gold."
Source:) NCERT Class XII - India People and Economy- Mineral and Energy Resources
India a comprehensive geography by DR Khullar chapter 23 Mineral resources
Subject:) Geography
Topic) Minerals Resources [India]
Subtopic:)

Q.43)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Algal blooms refer to the rapid growth and accumulation of algae in water bodies, often resulting in
discolored water. While some blooms are harmless, others, known as Harmful Algal Blooms (HABs),
can produce toxins, deplete oxygen levels, and disrupt aquatic ecosystems, posing threats to water
quality, marine life, and human health.
Statement 1 is correct. Increased nutrient availability, particularly nitrogen and phosphorus, from
sources like agricultural runoff and industrial waste, leads to eutrophication, promoting algal
growth. This is a major driver of blooms, especially in poorly managed watersheds.

[23]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211140 |

Statement 2 is correct. Warmer water temperatures accelerate algae growth, particularly

cyanobacteria, by increasing metabolic rates. Rising global temperatures, as highlighted by the IPCC,
have made warmer waters more conducive to frequent and intense algal blooms.
Statement 3 is correct: Abundant sunlight fuels photosynthesis, crucial for algae proliferation.
Shallow, clear waters with high light penetration, like coastal zones and river mouths, are especially
vulnerable to algal blooms, as seen along the Indian west coast.
Statement 4 is correct: Stable wind conditions reduce water mixing, allowing nutrients to
accumulate near the surface, fostering algae growth. Regions with low wind activity experience
stagnant water conditions, creating a favorable environment for blooms to thrive uninterrupted.
Source:) https://egyankosh.ac.in/bitstream/123456789/86865/1/Unit-9.pdf
https://www2.gov.bc.ca/gov/content/environment/air-land-water/water/water-quality/algae-
watch/what-are-algae/causes-of-an-algae-bloom
https://oceanservice.noaa.gov/hazards/hab/
Subject:) Geography
Topic) Water Resources
Subtopic:)

Q.44)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
The Smart Cities Mission was launched in 2015. The main objective of the Mission is to transform
100 cities to provide core infrastructure, clean and sustainable environment and give a decent
quality of life to their citizens through the application of ‘smart solutions’.
Statement 1 is correct: Each city's Smart City proposal must include at least one area-based
development approach and a Pan-city initiative, which ensures comprehensive urban improvement
through targeted interventions in selected areas and city-wide application of smart solutions.
Statement 2 is corerct: All 100 Smart Cities have operational Integrated Command and Control
Centres (ICCCs), which utilize technologies like AI, IoT, and data analytics to enhance city
management in areas such as traffic control, public safety, and resource management.
Statement 3 is correct: The mission implements three area-based development approaches:
Retrofitting, which upgrades existing areas; Redevelopment, which transforms areas with new
layouts; and Greenfield Development, which creates smart infrastructure in previously
undeveloped regions.
Source:) https://smartcities.gov.in/about-the-mission
https://pib.gov.in/PressNoteDetails.aspx?NoteId=151908&ModuleId=3&reg=3&lang=1
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1947455
Subject:) Geography
Topic) Urbanisation [India]
Subtopic:)

Q.45)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
In India, there are six major industrial regions out of which three are in the hinterlands of ports. It
- Hooghly Industrial region; Mumbai – Pune Industrial region; Ahmedabad – Vadodara region;
Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring Canal
Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020
9311740400, 9311740900 | https://academy.forumias.com | [email protected] | [email protected]

[24]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211140 |

Madurai – Coimbatore – Bangalore region; Chhota Nagpur plateau region and Delhi and Adjoining
region.

Statement 1 is correct. The Chotanagpur Region extends over Jharkhand, northern Odisha and
western West Bengal. and is known for the heavy metallurgical industries. The development of the
region is from the discovery of coal in the Damodar Valley and metallic and non-metallic minerals
in Jharkhand and northern Odisha.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The Hyderabad Warangal and Hyderabad Nagpur is an Industrial
Corridor which has an Influence area spread across the states of Telangana and Maharashtra. The
Government of India is considering it to facilitate development of a well- planned and resource-
efficient industrial base served by world-class sustainable connectivity infrastructure, bringing
significant benefits in terms of innovation, manufacturing, job creation and resource security to the
identified areas.
Statement 3 is correct. The Madurai – Coimbatore – Bangalore industrial region confined to
Bengaluru, Salem and Madurai districts have now spread over all the districts of Tamil Nadu
except Villupuram. The region is well known for Cotton textile industry, loom industry, several
heavy engineering industries, rail wagons industry, aluminium industry, cement industry, etc.
Aircraft (HAL), machine tools, telephone (HTL) and Bharat Electronics are industrial landmarks of
this region.
Statement 4 is incorrect. The Kolkata- Chennai – Tuticorin is not an industrial region but is linked
to East Coast Economic Corridor which encompasses one of the largest concentrations of
industrial, mineral and urban nodes supplemented by strong local factor advantages which inter
alia include good connection with its hinterland and major ports in the proximity of East Asian
economies (around 80% of Andhra Pradesh).
Source:) https://nios.ac.in/media/documents/316courseE/ch24.pdf
https://ncert.nic.in/textbook/pdf/legy208.pdf (FOR IMAGE ALSO)
https://dpiit.gov.in/programmes-and-schemes/infrastructure/industrial-corridors
Subject:) Geography
Topic) Industry and Service [India]

[25]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211140 |

Subtopic:)

Q.46)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
The change in the population of a given area between two points in time is known as population
growth.
Statement 1 is correct. Phase-I (1901-1921): This period is referred to as a period of stagnant or
stationary phase of growth of India’s population, since in this period growth rate was very low,
even recording a negative growth rate during 1911-1921. Both the birth rate and death rate were
high.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Phase-II (1921-1951): This period is referred to as the period of steady
population growth. An overall improvement in health and sanitation throughout the country
brought down the mortality rate. The crude birth rate remained high in this period leading to a
higher growth rate than the previous phase.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Phase-III (1951-1981): This period is referred to as the period of
population explosion, which resulted in a rapid fall in the mortality rate and a high fertility rate of
the population in the country. After independence, it was in this period that developmental
activities were first introduced through a centralised planning process.
Statement 4 is incorrect. Phase-IV (1981-present): Although the country's population growth rate
has been high since 1981 and up to the present, it has progressively started to slow down. A decline
in the crude birth rate is considered to be the cause of this population growth. Third phase is
considered as the phase of population explosion and not the fourth phase.
Source:) NCERT India: People and economy – Chapter-1
https://ncert.nic.in/textbook/pdf/legy201.pdf
Subject:) Geography
Topic) Population (India)
Subtopic:)

Q.47)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Option a is not correct. The term "labor-intensive" refers to a process or industry that requires a
large amount of labor to produce its goods or services.
Option b is not correct. A Footloose Industry can be easily relocated to a newer place as its
location is not affected by factors of production.
Option c is not correct. The location of the footloose industry is not dependent on the source of
raw material. It can be located anywhere.
Option d is correct. A Footloose Industry is an industry that can be located in a wide variety of
places without much effect from factors of production such as resources, land, labour, and capital.
These are called footloose as these types of industries are prone to relocation.
Foot loose industries can be located in a wide variety of places. They are not dependent on any
specific raw material, weight losing or otherwise. They largely depend on component parts which

[26]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211140 |

can be obtained anywhere. They produce in small quantity and also employ a small labour force.
These are generally not polluting industries.
Source:) India People and Economy Class 12th NCERT
https://ncert.nic.in/ncerts/l/legy106.pdf
Subject:) Geography
Topic) Industry and Service [India]
Subtopic:)

Q.48)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
India ranks 5th in solar power capacity globally. The installed solar energy capacity stands at 89.4
GW as of August 2024.
Option a is incorrect. Rewa Ultra Mega Solar Project is located in Rewa district of Madhya Pradesh.
It has a power generation capacity of 750MW. It covers an area of 1590 acres. It is the first solar
project in India funded by the Clean Technology Fund (CTF).
Option b is incorrect. Pavagada Solar Park is located in Tumkur of Karnataka. It is spread over
13000 acres in the Tumkur district and has a capacity of 2,050 MW.
Option c is correct. The Bhadla Solar Park located in the Jodhpur district of Rajasthan is the
largest solar power plant in India with a capacity of 2,245 MW. This solar park spans 14000 acres.
It has been developed in phases by various stakeholders including Adani Renewable Energy Park
Rajasthan and Rajasthan Renewable Energy Corporation Limited. Bhadla Solar Park has a 2,245 MW
capacity and is the largest in the world.
Option d is incorrect. Kurnool Ultra Mega Solar Park is located in Andhra Pradesh. It has a power
generation capacity of 1000MW. It spans a total area of 5,932.32 acres. It is one of the largest solar
power plants in India.
Source:) https://rumsl.mp.gov.in/solar-
project/#:~:text=750%20MW%20Rewa%20Ultra%20Mega,Rewa%20district%20of%20Madhya%20
Pradesh.
https://tumkur.nic.in/en/solar-
park/#:~:text=Pavagada%20Solar%20Park%20Shakti%20Sthala,said%20to%20be%202%2C000%20
megawatts.
Subject:) Geography
Topic) Energy Resources [India]
Subtopic:)

Q.49)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer
India is a land of linguistic diversity. There are about 22 scheduled languages and a number of non-
scheduled languages. The speakers of major Indian languages belong to four language families:
Austric, Dravidian, Sino-Tibetan and Indo – European.
Statement 1 is correct. Indo-European family of language has the highest number of speakers in
India which is mainly spoken in the region of Punjab, Himachal Pradesh, U.P., Rajasthan, Haryana
etc. It covers about 73% of the Indian population.
Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring Canal
Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020
9311740400, 9311740900 | https://academy.forumias.com | [email protected] | [email protected]

[27]
PTS 2025 | Solution | Test Code : 211140 |

Statement 2 is incorrect. Dravidian is the second most important group after Indo-European family
and comprises mainly of languages spoken in Southern India. (Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Kerala etc.) It
covers about 20% of the Indian population.

Knowledge Base:
Source:) NCERT Class XII, India: People and economy - Chapter 1
Subject:) Geography
Topic) Population [India]
Subtopic:)

Q.50)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Coal is one of the important minerals which is mainly used in the generation of thermal power and
smelting of ore. Coal occurs in rock sequences mainly of two geological ages, namely Gondwana and
tertiary coal.
Statement 1 is correct. Gondwana coal is moderate to high in ash content and low in Sulphur. About
80% of the coal deposits in India is of bituminous type and is of non-coking grade. The Gondwana
coal mines are located in river valleys of Damodar, Mahanadi, Godavari, Son and Narmada. Damodar
valley is home to largest coal mines in Jharkhand-West Bengal coal belt located in Jharia (largest
coal field of India), Raniganhj (second largest coal field of India), Bokaro, Giridih, Karanpura ,
Chandrapur, Tatapani, Talcher, Himgiri, Korba, Singrauli etc.
Statement 2 is correct. Tertiary coal fields share only 1% of coal production of India. They have high
sulphur content. Such fields occur in Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Meghalaya and Nagaland and
also in small quantities in Jammu & Kashmir. It is extracted from Darangiri, Cherrapunji, Mewlong
and Langrin (Meghalaya); Makum, Jaipur and Nazira in upper Assam, Namchik – Namphuk
(Arunachal Pradesh) and Kalakot (Jammu and Kashmir).
Source:) India people and economy. Class 12. page no.78
https://fossil.energy.gov/international/Publications/ucg_1106_gsi.pdf
Subject:) Geography
Topic) Minerals Resources [India]
Subtopic:)

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211140

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PTS 2025 | Test Code : 211140 |

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

Maximum Marks: 100 Time Allowed: ONE HOUR

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

Q.7) In the context of India’s demography, b) Education

Q.14) With reference to cotton textile b) Bihar

Q.29) In the context of energy resources in 2. Karnataka

Q.47) Which of the following is the best

Q.48) Which one of the following is the

Q.49) Which of the following statements

Associational reasons - movement on account of accompanying parents or any member of the

Source:) Class 12, India: People and Economy Ch: 5, Pg: 61

Statement 2 is correct. Warmer water temperatures accelerate algae growth, particularly

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