Test Booklet No.

Subject : ENGLISH Test Booklet Code

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Code : 101 E

(Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so)
B
Time Allowed : 45 minutes Maximum Marks : 200 Total Questions : 50 Number of questions to be answered : 40
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Kindly read the Instructions given on this Page and Back Page carefully before attempting this Question Paper.

Important Instructions for the Candidates :

1. This Test Booklet contains 50 questions printed in English. Out of these, the candidate is required to answer any
40 questions. If a candidate answers more than 40 questions, the first 40 answered questions will be considered for
evaluation.
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that on this Test Booklet. Also ensure that your Test Booklet No. and OMR Answer Sheet No. are exactly the same.
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consists of one sheet. At the start of the examination within the first five minutes, candidates are advised to ensure
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101 E/B (2)
Read the given passage and answer the six questions that follow.
Coffee’s genetic make-up is no trivial concern; 10 million tonnes of the crop were grown and sold in
2022–23. The coffee that we drink comes from two species: Coffea Canephora, which is also known as
Robusta and Coffea Arabica, known as Arabica. In many cases, beans from the two species are
blended to make a brew. But the beans of single species are also roasted and sold. Overall, Arabica
beans represent around 56% of all coffee sold.
Most genetic variation in living organisms comes from hybridization with other species. However,
this is a relatively rare event for Coffea Arabica because it has more than two copies of each
chromosome — a phenomenon called polyploidy. Coffea Canephora has two copies of each
chromosome, but Coffea Arabica contains multiple copies. This makes it much more difficult for
Arabica to interbreed with other species.
As a result, Coffea Arabica’s main source of single nucleotide variation is mutation, which occurs at a
steady rate over time. However, the species is also relatively young, having formed as a hybrid of
Robusta and Coffea Eugenioides — another coffee species that is not widely cultivated — within the
past 50,000 years. From that single plant, which has basically no variation, you create the whole
species, and then the variation is only the novel mutations that have occurred since that event.
Despite this, there is substantial variation in the physical characteristics of the Arabica coffee plant,
including different flavour profiles in the beans and variations in disease resistance, says emeritus
geneticist Juan Medrano at the UC Davis Coffee Center at the University of California, Davis.
“We’re always talking about low variability at the DNA level, but there is variability at the
structural level, at the chromosomal level, at the level of deletions … and insertions,” Medrano says.

1. Which of the following statements is true about Coffea Arabica ?

(1) Hybridization is the main source of its genetic variation.
(2) It has only two copies of each chromosome.
(3) It displays the phenomenon of polyploidy.
(4) It is easily interbred with other species.

2. Which of the following varieties of coffee is the most sold in the world ?
(1) Coffea Canephora
(2) Coffea Arabica
(3) Coffea Eugenioides
(4) A blend of Coffea Canephora and Coffea Arabica

3. Which of the following species of coffee has more than two copies of each chromosome ?
(1) Arabica
(2) Robusta
(3) Coffea Eugenioides
(4) A blend of Arabica and Robusta

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101 E/B (3)
4. Which of the following species of coffee developed only in the last 50,000 years ?
(1) Coffea Canephora
(2) Coffea Eugenioides
(3) Arabica
(4) Robusta

5. Which of the following types of variability is not very high for Coffea Arabica ?
(1) Variability at the structural level.
(2) Variability at the chromosomal level.
(3) Variability at the level of deletions and insertions.
(4) Variability at the DNA level.

6. Choose the statement that is factually incorrect from the options given below.
(1) It is possible to roast the beans of a single species of coffee.
(2) Two species of coffee can be blended to make a brew.
(3) Due to its genetic make-up, novel mutations do not occur in the species Coffea Arabica.
(4) Variations in disease resistance can be seen in the Arabica coffee plant.

7. Re-arrange the following phrases in correct sequence to form a meaningful sentence.

(A) created by human
(B) collective cultural heritage
(C) all languages
(D) communities are our
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (A), (B), (D), (C).
(2) (B), (A), (D), (C).
(3) (C), (A), (D), (B).
(4) (D), (B), (C), (A).

8. Fill in the blank with the correct option, to form a meaningful sentence.
The Principal addressed us in the assembly and _________ the rumours of an early summer break.
(1) defended (2) quashed
(3) cleared (4) rebuked

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101 E/B (4)
9. Complete the sentences given in List-I with the appropriate phrasal verbs given in List-II :
List-I List-II
(Sentences) (Phrasal verbs)
(A) She was very ____________ with him for his
(I) give away
offensive remarks on women in politics.
(B) I have plenty of interesting books to
(II) cut down
____________ to book lovers.
(C) Strange that people easily _______________ to
(III) cut up
temptation and ruin their reputation!
(D) Rahul is trying to __________ on his smoking. (IV) give in

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
(2) (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (III)
(3) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
(4) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)

10. Complete the sentences given in List-I with the appropriate adverbs given in List-II :
List-I List-II
(Sentences) (Adverbs)
(A) I thought the restaurant would be expensive but
(I) badly
it was __________ affordable.
(B) It was a serious accident. But the car was
(II) reasonably
_________ damaged.
(C) The meeting was a disaster as it was very
(III) quickly
__________ organized.
(D) Mira is gifted, she has the ability to learn any
(IV) hardly
language __________.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (III)
(2) (A) - (IV), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (I)
(3) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
(4) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

11. Choose the appropriate word pair to complete the sentence :

I didn’t know Rahul was in the hospital. If I __________, I would __________ him.
(1) knew, go (2) had known, have visited
(3) have known, be going (4) know, had gone

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101 E/B (5)
12. Identify the option closest in meaning to the underlined word :
The movie star’s biography is a glossy, sycophantic portrayal.
(1) cowardly
(2) domineering
(3) flattering
(4) insolent

13. Choose the correct ANTONYM of the underlined word :

The Minister unleashed a compliment against the newspaper for its biased editorial on illiteracy
among women in his constituency.
(1) denunciation
(2) endorsement
(3) regulation
(4) speculation

14. Choose the correct SYNONYM for redoubtable from the options given below.
(1) flimsy
(2) perplexing
(3) formidable
(4) voluble

15. Choose the correct ANTONYM for sullen from the options given below.
(1) morose
(2) reticent
(3) timid
(4) genial

16. Rearrange the following parts in the correct sequence to make a meaningful sentence :
(A) are inborn but our
(B) constituents of flavour, are learned
(C) our responses to basic tastes
(D) perceptions of smells, the main
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (B), (D), (A), (C).
(2) (A), (C), (B), (D).
(3) (C), (A), (D), (B).
(4) (C), (B), (D), (A).

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101 E/B (6)
17. Match the words in List-I with their definitions in List-II :
List-I List-II
(Words) (Definitions)
(A) Theocracy (I) One who keeps drugs for sale and puts up prescriptions
(II) One who collects and studies objects or artistic works
(B) Megalomania
from the distant past
(C) Apothecary (III) A government by divine guidance or religious leaders
(IV) A morbid delusion of one’s power, importance or
(D) Antiquarian
godliness
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
(2) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)
(3) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)
(4) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)

18. Fill in the blank with the correct option.

A small ___________________ between two children ended up as a group fight.
(1) altercation
(2) match
(3) contest
(4) race

19. Re-arrange the following phrases in the right sequence to form a meaningful sentence.
(A) for seven hours but was hardly
(B) because of the absence of any motivation
(C) able to decide who the murderer was
(D) she worked on the case
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (A), (C), (D), (B). (2) (D), (A), (C), (B).
(3) (D), (C), (B), (A). (4) (A), (B), (C), (D).

20. Fill in the blank with the correct option.

The candidate assured the interviewers that the dip in her grades during her second semester was
an ___________ since she had always been a top scorer in the first semester.
(1) anomaly
(2) allay
(3) adage
(4) abatement

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101 E/B (7)

21. Replace the underlined word with the most appropriate SYNONYM.
For sometime now, we’ve been toying with the idea of transferring all our business from physical
to online sales only.
(1) launch
(2) showing
(3) considering
(4) careful

22. Select the word opposite in meaning to the underlined word.

At first the workers were agreeable to the proposals of their Manager, but later they were
reconciled to the new proposals.
(1) resistant
(2) estranged
(3) cooperate
(4) agreed

23. Complete the sentences given in List-I with the appropriate words given in List-II :
List-I List-II
(Sentences) (Words)
(A) She was able to give a _________ explanation in the
(I) collaborate/d
court for her presence near the crime scene.
(B) The Rockland Hospital ___________ with AIIMS to
(II) corroborate/ing
conduct a free cancer screening camp.
(C) Though she has shown only 4% improvement in
(III) credible
achieving her target yet her efforts are __________.
(D) The doctors give the prognosis by __________ their
(IV) creditable
diagnosis with several tests.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
(2) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
(3) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)
(4) (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (III)

24. Fill in the blank with the correct option.

Most of the guests arrived for the concert __________ bus.
(1) by
(2) with
(3) from
(4) through
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101 E/B (8)

25. Choose the word closest in meaning to the underlined word.

Why did you make that flippant remark about her choice of clothes ?
(1) sarcastic
(2) disrespectful
(3) casual
(4) indifferent

26. Select the word OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word.

The thief showed his disbelief when informed that his partner had been arrested.
(1) displayed
(2) concealed
(3) battled
(4) marked

27. Fill in the blank with the correct option.

The President finally had to ____________ the demands of the public for his resignation.
(1) ignore
(2) initiate
(3) accede to
(4) condone

28. Re-arrange the following parts of a sentence in their correct sequence to form a meaningful sentence.
(A) for organizations which provide
(B) services to customers on a face-to-face basis,
(C) employees with whom they deal is very important
(D) the quality of the relationship between customers and
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (A), (B), (D), (C). (2) (C), (A), (B), (D).
(3) (B), (D), (A), (C). (4) (D), (A), (C), (B).

29. Re-arrange the following parts of a sentence in their correct sequence to form a meaningful sentence.
(A) as a concept fundamental to
(B) especially with the injunction to treat equals equally
(C) justice is associated with the notion of equity and equality,
(D) ethical theory and political philosophy,
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (D), (B), (C), (A). (2) (C), (A), (B), (D).
(3) (B), (A), (D), (C). (4) (A), (D), (C), (B).

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101 E/B (9)

30. Match the idioms in List-I with their meanings in List-II :

List-I List-II
(Idioms) (Meanings)
(A) blow the gaff (I) feel unable to deal with something

(B) at the end of your tether (II) feel terribly ashamed and embarrassed

(C) be full of beans (III) divulge a secret

(D) want to curl up and die (IV) be full of energy

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)
(2) (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (III)
(3) (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (III)
(4) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

31. Match the blanks in List-I with the Prepostions in List-II :

List-I List-II
(Sentences) (Prepositions)
(A) The edited version of her article is
(I) with
indistinguishable __________ her first version.
(B) I just don’t feel any affinity ____________ his
(II) to
prose style. It’s too caustic.
(C) Her ideas are not all that dissimilar ___________
(III) for
mine.
(D) It would be wrong to mistake his diffidence
(IV) from
___________ his arrogance or coldness.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (III)
(2) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
(3) (A) - (IV), (B) - (II), (C) - (I), (D) - (III)
(4) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

32. Re-arrange the parts in their correct sequence to form a meaningful sentence :
(A) students with tools for critical thinking
(B) cooperative learning is an
(C) that enhances creativity and provides
(D) eclectic and unique teaching method
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (A), (C), (B), (D). (2) (B), (D), (C), (A).
(3) (B), (A), (D), (C). (4) (C), (B), (D), (A).

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101 E/B ( 10 )
Read the given passage and answer the six questions that follow.

When I was in my late teens and still undecided about which language I should write in, he told me
that the language one is born into, one’s mother tongue, can be the only possible medium of creative
expression.

For most of his life, my father, Sripat Rai, had been a Hindi editor and critic. Off and on, he
translated writings into English from Hindi. He was fond of saying that a failed writer becomes a
critic. The weight of his literary expectation came, eventually, to rest on me. He seemed happy that I
was showing an inclination for writing. ‘‘She will go far,’’ he told my mother after reading the first
story that I sent him from Melbourne.

My father’s pronouncement on the mother tongue stayed with me when I later started writing fiction
in Hindi. Another thing that I barely acknowledged even to myself was that I felt something like
shame whenever I thought of writing in English. It seemed wrong for a granddaughter of Premchand
even to be thinking so. Our family had a certain linguistic pride. I knew that Premchand was
famous, but I had not at that time realised the extent of his popularity.

The fact that I was the granddaughter of Premchand, followed me everywhere. Everyone had a story
to tell about their personal engagement with his fiction — the shopkeeper, the long time cook in my
father’s Delhi house, a tea vendor, etc. The list was long, for there was practically no one who had
not read something by him that had moved them. However, it was this very ubiquity, the reverence
and love that he inspired in people, that made of him something too large for me to comprehend in
the early years of my life. It led also to the strange feeling that, without having read him and just by
being related to him, I had somehow inhaled his writing. The reading happened much later.

33. The author grew up with the expectation that she would take up ______________ .
Fill in the blank with the correct option to complete the sentence.
(1) editorship of a magazine.
(2) translation of literary pieces.
(3) creative writing.
(4) the job of a critic.

34. When her father said, ‘‘She will go far,’’ he meant that _______________ .
Fill in the blank with the correct option to complete the sentence.
(1) she will travel widely.
(2) she will achieve great heights in life.
(3) she will go too far, one of these days.
(4) she will settle in a far-off place.

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101 E/B ( 11 )
35. Choose a Statement which is not true with respect to the passage :
(1) The author felt pressurized to write in Hindi because of her father.
(2) She felt obligated to carry on the legacy of Premchand.
(3) Her family was chauvinistic about the English language.
(4) She was in awe of the extensive reach of her grandfather’s writings.

36. Premchand became too large for her to understand mainly because of _____________ .
(A) his ability to connect with people from all walks of life.
(B) the fact that she feared him.
(C) the kind of love and reverence that he inspired in people.
(D) her constant anxiety of failing him.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (A) and (D) only. (2) (A) and (C) only.
(3) (B) and (C) only. (4) (C) and (D) only.

37. ‘Inhaled his writing’ refers to :

Choose the correct option from the following.
(1) imbibing his style subconsciously.
(2) being compelled to write like him.
(3) being influenced by what people said about him.
(4) her father’s expectation from her.

38. Choose the correct meaning of the word ‘‘Ubiquity’’ as it appears in the passage :
(1) Occasional (2) Restricted
(3) Omnipresence (4) Unwanted

Read the given passage and answer the six questions that follow.
Free will is the ability to decide and act free from any influence of past events or environment. It
implies complete freedom to make any choice absolutely. We clearly don't have free will. Our
decisions and actions are never divorced from our past.
We have a conditioned mind. Our memories, past impressions and experiences bias and shape our
thoughts and actions in the present. It is our karmic imprint. Not just what we are born with, but
also what we accumulate while living. We can consider it as the result of our genetic code,
upbringing and environment. It's our backstory.
The only way to experience free will is to get rid of all such conditioning; to neutralise our karmic
imprint; to be independent of our psychological coding. That’s possible only if we can purify our mind
by letting go of all our ego, attachments and fixed beliefs. Then we can reside in the truth of our
being.

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101 E/B ( 12 )

The above is an exacting definition of free will. What we commonly mean by free will is that we have
a choice in most situations like, who you choose to marry, what profession you pursue or how you
react to someone’s aggression. Sounds reasonable. But here’s the catch. Our ability to make that
choice too is significantly restricted, dictated by our predispositions.
This applies even to our ability to bring about change within ourselves. Despite a strong resolve to be
calmer, kinder or less anxious, our ability to manifest that change depends, partly on our emotional
and mental wiring. That’s why some people succeed in such efforts more than the others.
If you wish to expand the scope of your agency, explore ways to engage in sustained inner work,
deepen your self-awareness, examine and reform your conditioned beliefs. But then, I wonder if your
inclination to embark on that journey too depends on your current karmic coding.

39. The author argues that humans don’t have ‘‘free will’’ because ____________________.
Fill in the blank with the correct option to complete the sentence.
(1) our decisions are shaped by past events and environmental influences.
(2) we are born with pre-determined choices that we are forced to make.
(3) we are always dictated by our mind to make irrational choices.
(4) human beings are born slaves of social constructs and expectations.

40. ‘‘Karmic imprint’’ referred to in the passage implies ___________________________.

Fill in the blank with the correct option to complete the sentence.
(1) the ability to bring about change in oneself.
(2) our genetic code, upbringing and environment.
(3) the truth of our being, our individuality.
(4) the wrong doings and vices of our past lives.

41. ‘‘Free will’’ can be experienced if ___________________________.

Fill in the blank with the correct option to complete the sentence.
(1) we embrace our past experiences and conditioning.
(2) we make choices without considering the consequences.
(3) we let go of our ego, attachments and fixed beliefs.
(4) we accumulate more and more karmic imprints.

42. The author proves that the idea of ‘‘free will’’ is a myth by suggesting that ______________________.
Fill in the blank with the correct option to complete the sentence.
(1) our ability to make a choice is restricted by our predispositions.
(2) we are unable to bring a change in ourselves.
(3) our choices are solely guided by the current environment.
(4) our choices are completely independent of past events and our genetic code.

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101 E/B ( 13 )
43. What does the author propose as a means to expand the scope of one’s agency ?
Choose the correct option.
(1) Making choices frequently and impulsively.
(2) Engaging in sustained inner work and self-awareness.
(3) Holding on to fixed beliefs and stringent mindsets.
(4) Ignoring one’s past experiences and dispositions.

44. What do you think could be a suitable title for this passage ?
Choose the most appropriate option.
(1) Definition of ‘‘Free Will’’.
(2) Our backstory – key to a successful life.
(3) Do human beings really have ‘‘Free Will’’ ?
(4) Making Choices – Every Man’s Prerogative!

Read the given passage and answer the six questions that follow.

On a chilly winter evening, nothing warms you up better than a cup of hot cocoa. Chocolate was first
consumed in liquid form by the Olmec people of northwestern Central America around 1500 BCE. It
was even enjoyed by the Aztec Emperor Montezuma, and the Aztec word for it (xocolatl, pronounced
shoh-kwah-tl) evolved into the English word Chocolate.

But the Aztecs didn’t serve their cocoa hot. And since sugar had not yet arrived from Europe, back
then, the drink was often flavoured with peppers and spices. It may not have been quite as indulgent
as today’s version, but it was more palatable if you believed, as the Aztecs did, that chocolate was a
gift from the Gods and had healing properties.

After the Spanish arrived in the Americas in the 1500s, liquid chocolate made its way across the
pond, where wealthy Europeans added sugar and drank it warm. In Chocolate: History, Culture and
Heritage, author Bertram Gordon says hot chocolate became ‘‘the beverage of the aristocracy,’’ as
sugar was still a luxury.

Soon enough, though, hot choclate caught on with the masses. Chocolate houses — a cross between
cafes and casinos — started popping up around 17th-century Europe. In these lively places, hot
chocolate was poured from gilded pots into elegant cups (for a posh experience, one can still find it
today at the famed Parisian tearoom Angelina’s, which is also in New York City). But by the end of
the 18th century, chocolate houses had mostly died off, partly because the cost of chocolate was much
higher than that of coffee or tea.

Taking a tour of international cups of cocoa, Italians serve it like a thick pudding. Colombians serve
it with a dollop of soft cheese while Mexicans punch it up with vanilla, chilli powder and cinnamon.
And Filipinos serve it with mango chunks.

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101 E/B ( 14 )

45. Cocoa was first introduced by the

(1) American people. (2) Olmec people.
(3) Aztec people. (4) Spanish people.

46. The Aztec people made their cocoa palatable by

(1) serving it cold.
(2) adding sugar to the drink.
(3) spiking it with spices.
(4) drinking it as a medicine.

47. Why did hot chocolate become ‘‘the beverage of the aristocracy’’ in Europe ?
(1) The essential ingredient was out of reach of the commoners.
(2) The Queen had a marked chocolate maker.
(3) Only wealthy Europeans could buy it.
(4) It was being consumed by the pharma companies.

48. The Chocolate Houses didn’t survive past the 18th century as
(1) people preferred tea /coffee to hot chocolate.
(2) it catered to the not so elite of the society.
(3) chocolate was costlier than tea or coffee.
(4) the supply of cocoa dwindled over the years.

49. Choose the correct statement from the following :

(1) Italians serve hot chocolate flavoured with spices.
(2) Mexicans serve hot chocolate topped with a dollop of cream.
(3) Colombians serve hot chocolate topped with a dollop of cheese.
(4) Filipinos served hot chocolate flavoured with peppers.

50. Choose the correct meaning of the underlined expression in the following sentence :
Soon enough, though, hot chocolate caught on with the masses.
(1) was readily available in cafes.
(2) became popular among the commoners.
(3) hot chocolate did not appeal to people.
(4) masses got attracted to the rich experience of drinking hot chocolate.

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101 E/B ( 15 )

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101 E/B ( 16 )

Read carefully the following instructions :

8. No candidate will be allowed to leave the OMR Answer Sheet blank. If any OMR Answer Sheet is
found blank, it shall be crossed by the Invigilator with his/her signature, mentioning “Cancelled” on it.

9. Do not tear or fold any page of the Test Booklet and OMR Answer Sheet.

10. Candidates are advised to ensure that they fill the correct particulars on the OMR Answer Sheet, i.e.,
Application No., Roll No., Test Booklet No., Name, Mother’s Name, Father’s Name and Signature.

11. Rough work is to be done in the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.

12. The answers will be evaluated through electronic scanning process. Incomplete or incorrect entries
may render the OMR Answer Sheet invalid.

13. Candidates are advised not to fold or make any stray marks on the OMR Answer Sheet. Use of Eraser,
Nail, Blade, White Fluid/Whitener, etc., to smudge, scratch or damage in any manner the OMR Answer
Sheet during examination is strictly prohibited. Candidature and OMR Answer Sheet of candidates
using Eraser, Nail, Blade or White Fluid/Whitener to smudge, scratch or damage in any manner shall
be cancelled.

14. There will be one copy of OMR Answer Sheet i.e., the Original Copy. After the examination is over,
the candidate shall hand over the OMR Answer Sheet to the Invigilator. The candidate can take away
the Test Booklet after the examination is over. If the candidate does not hand over the OMR Answer
Sheet to the Invigilator and goes away with the OMR Answer Sheet, his/her candidature shall be
cancelled and criminal proceedings shall also be initiated against him/her.

15. Candidates are advised strictly not to carry handkerchief, any mobile phone, any type of watch, belt or
wear ornaments like ring, chain, ear-ring, etc., electronic or communication device, pen, pencil, eraser,
sharpener and correction fluid to the Examination Centre. If any candidate is found possessing any
such item, he/she will not be allowed to enter the examination centre. Possession of a mobile phone
or any other aiding material as mentioned above by the candidate in the examination room will be
treated as a serious violation and it may lead to cancellation of the candidature and debarring him/her
from future examinations.

16. If a candidate violates any instructions or shows any indiscipline or misbehaviour, appropriate action
will be taken including cancellation of candidature and debarring from future examinations.

17. Use of electronic/manual calculator is not allowed.

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

 NATIONAL TESTING AGENCY
CUET (UG) 2024 : Final Answer Keys
Exam Date : 15.05.2024 Subject :101 - English (English)
Q.No Key Q.No Key Q.No Key Q.No Key Q.No Key Q.No Key Q.No Key Q.No Key
Book : A Book : A Book : B Book : B Book : C Book : C Book : D Book : D

1 2 46 3 1 3 46 3,4 1 3 46 1 1 1 46 Drop
2 1 47 1 2 2 47 1,3 2 2 47 4 2 2 47 4
3 1 48 3 3 1 48 3 3 3 48 1 3 4 48 3
4 1 49 4 4 Drop 49 3 4 2 49 1 4 3 49 3
5 3 50 3 5 4 50 2,4 5 1 50 2 5 1 50 2
6 1,2 6 3 6 3 6 3
7 3 7 3 7 1 7 4
8 1 8 2 8 2 8 3
9 2,3 9 4 9 3 9 1
10 2 10 1 10 1 10 1
11 3 11 2 11 2 11 2
12 1 12 3 12 1,3 12 1
13 4 13 1 13 2 13 3
14 1 14 3 14 3,4 14 1,2
15 1 15 4 15 1,3 15 3
16 2 16 3 16 3 16 1
17 3 17 1 17 3 17 2,3
18 2 18 1 18 2,4 18 2
19 3 19 2 19 2 19 3
20 2 20 1 20 1 20 1
21 1 21 3 21 3 21 4
22 3 22 1,2 22 Drop 22 1
23 1 23 3 23 4 23 1
24 2 24 1 24 3 24 2
25 3 25 2,3 25 3 25 3
26 1 26 2 26 2 26 2
27 2 27 3 27 4 27 3
28 1,3 28 1 28 1 28 2
29 2 29 4 29 2 29 1
30 3,4 30 1 30 3 30 3
31 1,3 31 1 31 1 31 1
32 3 32 2 32 3 32 2
33 3 33 3 33 4 33 3
34 2,4 34 2 34 3 34 1
35 2 35 3 35 1 35 2
36 1 36 2 36 1 36 1,3
37 3 37 1 37 2 37 2
38 Drop 38 3 38 1 38 3,4
39 4 39 1 39 3 39 1,3
40 3 40 2 40 1,2 40 3
41 3 41 3 41 3 41 3
42 2 42 1 42 1 42 2,4
43 4 43 2 43 2,3 43 2
44 1 44 1,3 44 2 44 1
45 2 45 2 45 3 45 3
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