Lakshya JEE (2025)

BOARD PATTERN TEST - 02

DATE : 01/12/2024 M. MARKS : 220

Topics Covered
Physics : Full Syllabus.
Chemistry : Coordination Compounds (Complete Chapter), Principles of Qualitative Analysis : Salt analysis
(Complete Chapter), The p-Block Elements (XII) (Complete Chapter), The d and f-Block Elements
(Complete Chapter),
Mathematics : Determinants, Matrices, Relations and Functions, Inverse Trigonometric Functions Limit, Continuity
and Differentiability, Method of Differentiation, Application of Derivatives, Indefinite Integration,
Definite Integration, Application of integrals, Differential Equation, Vector Algebra, Three Dimensional
Geometry.

General Instructions:
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the test booklet.
2. The test is of 3 hours for each subject.
3. The test booklet consists of 104 questions. The maximum marks are 220.
4. This paper is divided Subject-wise in which Physics consists 5 Sections, Chemistry consists 4 Sections, Maths
consists 5 Sections. Each type is mentioned in the paper.
5. Marking is mentioned with each type in the paper.
6. No student is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, any
electronic device, etc. inside the examination room/hall.
7. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the
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[1]
 SECTION-I (PHYSICS)
SECTION - A 6. In an LCR series circuit R = 10 Ω, XL = 8 Ω and
Very Short Answer Type Questions (1-10) (10 × 1 = 10) XC = 6 Ω. The total impedance of the circuit is
1. Law stating that "force is directly proportional to (1) 10.2 Ω (2) 17.2 Ω
product of charges and inversely proportional to (3) 10 Ω (4) None of these
square of separation between them" is called:
(1) Newton's law (2) Coulomb's law 7. In the circuit shown in Figure, if the diode forward
(3) Gauss's law (4) Ohm's law voltage drop is 0.3 V, the voltage difference
between A and B is :
2. Consider sunlight incident on a slit of width 104 Å.
The image seen through the slit shall
(1) be a fine sharp slit white in colour at the
centre.
(2) a bright slit white at the centre diffusing to
zero intensities at the edges.
(3) a bright slit white at the centre diffusing to
regions of different colours.
(4) only be a diffused slit white in colour.
(1) 1.3 V (2) 2.3 V
3. In an unbiased p-n junction, holes diffuse from the (3) 3.2 V (4) 3.1 V
p-region to n-region because
(1) free electrons in the n-region attract them. 8. If the rms current in a 50 Hz AC circuit is 5A , the
(2) they move across the junction by the potential  1 
value of the current   s after its value
difference.  300 
(3) hole concentration in p-region is more as becomes zero is :
compared to n-region.
3
(4) all the above. (1) 5 2 A (2) 5 A
2
5 5
4. If E and B represent the electric and magnetic (3) A (4) A
6 2
field vectors of an electromagnetic wave, then the
direction of propagation of the electromagnetic
wave is in the direction of 9. An electromagnetic wave travelling along z-axis is
(1) E (2) B given as E = E0 cos ( kz − t ) . Choose the incorrect

(3) E  B (4) B  E options from the following:

(1) The associated field is given as
5. A parallel plate capacitor is connected to a battery
as shown in figure. Consider two situations :
1
(
B = kˆ  E
c
)
(2) The electromagnetic field can be written in
terms of the associated magnetic field as
(
E = c B  kˆ )
(3) kˆ  E = 0, kˆ  B = 0
(4) kˆ  E = 0, kˆ  B = 0
A : Key K is kept closed and plates of capacitors
are moved apart using insulating handle.
10. An electron is moving with an initial velocity
B : Key K is opened and plates of capacitors are
moved apart using insulating handle. v = v0iˆ and is in a magnetic field B = B0 ˆj . Then,
Choose the correct option(s). its de Broglie wavelength
(1) In A : Q remains same but C changes. (1) remains constant.
(2) In B : V remains same but C changes. (2) increases with time.
(3) In A : V remains same and hence Q changes. (3) decreases with time.
(4) In B : Q and V both change. (4) increases and decreases periodically.

[2]
Assertion & Reason Type Questions (11–14) (4 × 1 = 4) SECTION - B
11. Assertion: In Rutherford's nuclear model of the Case Study Based Questions (15–16) (2 × 4 = 8)
atom, the entire positive charge and most of the 15. The nuclear mass M is always less than the total
mass, Σm, of its constituents. So the study of mass
mass of the atom are concentrated in the nucleus.
defects plays a very important role in nuclear
Reason: According to alpha-particle scattering physics (nuclear fusion and nuclear fission). The
experiment, the neutrons are distributed throughout difference between the rest mass of a nucleus and
the atom. the sum of the rest masses of its constituent
(1) Both, A and R, are true and R is the correct nucleons is called the mass defect. If we consider
explanation of A the nucleus ZA X , it has Z protons and (A – Z)
(2) Both, A and R, are true but R is not the neutrons. Therefore, its mass defect will be:
Δm = Zm p + ( A − Z ) mn − m , where mp, mn and m
correct explanation of A
(3) If A is true but R is false are the rest masses of a proton, neutron, and
(4) If A is false but R is true nucleus ZA X respectively.
Using Einstein's mass-energy relation, we can
12. Assertion: The electric field E due to a point express this mass difference in terms of energy.
(a) Calculate the mass defect of an alpha-particle.
charge Q is uniform everywhere. If mp = 1.007825 amu, mn = 1.008665 amu
Reason: The electric field E at a point due to and mass of He nucleus = 4.002800 amu.
charge Q is independent of charge on the test (b) Calculate the energy equivalence of mass
charge. defect in alpha particle in the unit (MeV).
(1) Both, A and R, are true and R is the correct (Take, 1 amu  931.5 MeV )
(c) Packing fraction of a nucleus is defined mass
explanation of A
defect per nucleon. Calculate the packing
(2) Both, A and R, are true but R is not the fraction for an alpha particle.
correct explanation of A (d) Why is the mass of a nucleus always less than
(3) If A is true but R is false the sum of the masses of its constituents,
(4) If A is false but R is true neutrons and protons?

16. The wave nature of light was demonstrated

13. Assertion: The critical angle for glass-air interface convincingly for the first time in 1801 by Thomas
is smaller than the critical angle of glass water Young with the help of a simple experiment. He let
interface. a ray of sunlight pass into a dark room, placed a
Reason: The critical angle is directly proportional dark screen in front of it, pierced with two small
pinholes, and beyond this, at some distance, a
to the square of refractive index of a medium.
white screen. He then saw two darkish lines at both
(1) Both, A and R, are true and R is the correct sides of a bright line, which gave him sufficient
explanation of A encouragement to repeat the experiment. He then
(2) Both, A and R, are true but R is not the repeated the experiment with spirit flame as light
correct explanation of A source, with a little salt in it to produce the bright
yellow sodium light. This time, he saw a number
(3) If A is true but R is false
of dark lines, regularly spaced; the first clear proof
(4) If A is false but R is true that light added to light can produce darkness. This
phenomenon is called interference. To understand
14. Assertion: Magnetic field lines due to a bar this, let us consider two coherent sources of wave
magnet never intersect. S1 and S2. At any time t, the displacement of the
Reason: The direction of the magnetic field at a waves are given by y1 = a1 sin t and
particular point is not unique. y2 = a2 sin ( t + ) , where a1 and a2 are the
(1) Both, A and R, are true and R is the correct amplitudes, ϕ is the constant phase difference
explanation of A between the two waves. By the superposition
principle, the resultant displacement at any given
(2) Both, A and R, are true but R is not the
point is y = ( a1 + a2 cos ) sin t + a2 sin  cos t .If
correct explanation of A
the intensities of these two waves are I1 and I 2
(3) If A is true but R is false
(4) If A is false but R is true respectively, then I1  a12 and I 2  a22 .

[3]
 23. Two identical circular wires P and Q each of
radius R and carrying current I are kept in
perpendicular planes such that they have a
common centre as shown in the figure. Find the
magnitude and direction of the net magnetic field
at the common centre of the two coils.

(a) What is principle of superposition of waves?

(b) What is the difference between coherent and
incoherent sources?
(c) Two light waves of same frequency and
constant phase difference ϕ superpose at a
point P . If the intensities of these two waves 24. When an ideal capacitor is charged by a dc battery,
are I1 and I 2 respectively, then write the no current flows. However, when an ac source is
expression for the Interference term. used, the current flows continuously. How does
(d) Two coherent sources of wave of intensity I one explain this, based on the concept of
and 9I are used in an interference experiment. displacement current?
Find the intensity at a point where two waves
from the two sources superimpose with a 25. Arrange the following electromagnetic radiations
phase difference zero degree. in ascending order to their frequencies :
(i) Microwaves
SECTION - C
(ii) Radio waves
Short Answer Type Questions (17–25) (9 × 2 = 18)
17. A charge q of mass m is moving with a velocity of (iii) X-rays
v, at right angles to a uniform magnetic field B. (iv) Gamma rays
Deduce the expression for the radius of the circular Write two uses of any one of these.
path it describes.
SECTION - D
18. Find the condition under which the charged Short Answer Type Questions (26 – 30) (5 × 3 = 15)
particles moving with different speeds in the 26. A triangular prism of refracting angle 60º is made
presence of electric and magnetic field vectors can 2
be used to select charged particles of a particular of a transparent material of refractive index .A
3
speed.
ray of light is incident normally on the face KL as
19. Plot a graph showing the variation of stopping shown in the figure. Trace the path of the ray as it
potential with the frequency of incident radiation passes through the prism and calculate the angle of
for two different photosensitive materials having emergence and angle of deviation.
work functions W1 and W2 (W1 > W2). On what
factors do the (i) slope and (ii) intercept of the
lines depend ?

20. Find the ratio between the wavelengths of the

'most energetic' spectral lines in the Balmer and
Paschen series of the hydrogen spectrum.

21. Using Rutherford model of the atom, derive the

expression for the total energy of the electron in 27. First a set of n equal resistors of R each is
hydrogen atom. What is the significance of total connected in series to a battery of emf E and
negative energy possessed by the electron ? internal resistance R. A current I is observed to
flow, the n resistors are connected in parallel to the
22. Write Einstein's photoelectric equation. Explain same battery then it is observed that the current
the terms (i) threshold frequency and (ii) stopping
becomes 10 times. What is n ?
potential.

[4]
28. (a) Define mutual inductance and write its S.I. SECTION - E
unit. Long Answer Type Questions (31 – 33) (3 × 5 = 15)
31. Two point charges q and –q are located at points
(b) A square loop of side 'a' carrying a current I2
(0, 0, –a) and (0, 0, a) respectively.
is kept at distance x from an infinitely long (i) Find the electrostatic potential at (0, 0, z) and
straight wire carrying a current I1 as shown in (x, y, 0).
the figure. Obtain the expression for the (ii) How much work is done in moving a small
test charge from the point (5, 0, 0) to (–7, 0,
resultant force acting on the loop. 0) along the x-axis?
(iii) How would your answer change if the path of
the test charge between the same points is not
along the x-axis but along any other random
path ?
(iv) If the above point charges are now placed in
the same positions in the uniform external
electric field E , what would be the potential
energy of the charge system in its orientation
of unstable equilibrium?
29. The following graph shows the variation of Justify your answer in each case.
photocurrent for a photosensitive metal :
32. A device X is connected across an ac source of
voltage V = V0 sinωt. The current through X is
 
given as I = I 0 sin  t + 
 2
(a) Identify the device X and write the expression
(i) Identify the variable X on the horizontal axis. for its reactance.
(b) Draw graphs showing variation of voltage and
(ii) What does the point A on the horizontal axis current with time over one cycle of ac, for X.
represent? (c) How does the reactance of the device X vary
(iii) Draw this graph for three different values of with frequency of the ac ? Show this variation
frequencies of incident radiation n1, n2 and n3 graphically.
(d) Draw the phasor diagram for the device X.
(n1 > n2 > n3) for same intensity.
(iv) Draw this graph for three different values of 33. (a) Draw a ray diagram to show image formation
intensities of incident radiation I1, I2 and I3 when the concave mirror produces a real,
(I1 > I2 > I3) having same frequency. inverted and magnified image of the object.
(b) Obtain the mirror formula and write the
expression for the linear magnification.
30. Draw the circuit diagram of a full wave rectifier (c) Explain two advantages of a reflecting
and explain the working. Also, give the input and telescope over a refracting telescope.
output waveforms.

SECTION-II (CHEMISTRY)
SECTION - A The complexes, thus, formed are known as
Passage Type Questions (34–35) (2 × 4 = 8) chelates. Chelates are usually more stable.
Passage-I (i) Which of the following are chelating ligand?
34. Read the passage given below and answer the (1) Ethylenediamine (2) Oxalate
following questions: (3) Glycinate (4) All of these
The neutral molecules, anions or cations which
are directly linked with a central metal atom or (ii) How many 'donor sites are present in
ion in a complex are called ligands. A ligand is a ethylenediamine tetraacetate (EDTA4–) ligand?
species that is capable or donating an electron (1) 2 (2) 3
pair or pair to the central metal atom or ion. It (3) 4 (4) 6
acts as a Lewis base. The ligands having two or
more donor atoms are called polydentate or (iii) Ni2+ ion forms a scalet red with DMG. It is a ___
multidentate ligands. A multidenate ligand is membered closed ring structure. (Do not
known as a chelating ligand if on coordination it consider the ring which is formed by H-bonding)
results in formation of a closed or cyclic ring. (1) 3 (2) 4
(3) 5 (4) 6

[5]
(iv) Which of the following is incorrect? 37. The maximum covalency of nitrogen is
(1) Cis-platin: a drug used in the treatment of (1) 3 (2) 5
cancer (3) 4 (4) 6
(2) Haemoglobin: is a complex of Fe.
(3) Chlorophyll: is a complex of Ca. 38. Which of the following chloride will not give
(4) Vitamin B12: it is a cobalt complex. chromyl chloride test?
(1) NaCl (2) KCl
Passage-II (3) AgCl (4) CaCl2
35. Read the passage given below and answer the
following questions: 39. The coordination number and oxidation state of
Most of the compounds of transition metals are Cr in K3[Cr(C2O4)3] are respectively
coloured in the solid or in solution states. This is (1) 3 and +3 (2) 3 and 0
unlike the compounds of s and p block elements (3) 6 and +3 (4) 4 and +2
which are usually colourless or in any case not
strongly coloured Paramagnetism is a property 40. What is the oxidation state of metal in
associate with transition elements. Most of the [Mn2(CO)10]?
transition metal and their compounds show good (1) +1 (2) –1
catalytic properties. (3) +2 (4) 0
(i) Which of the following is true?
(1) The colour of tripositive transition elements 41. Which of the following precipitate of sulphide is
[Cr3+, Fe3+] is due to the d-d transition. yellow in colour?
(2) The transition elements which have empty (1) HgS (2) PbS
d-orbital are coloured. (3) CuS (4) CdS
(3) Sc3+ is coloured.
(4) HgI2 is black coloured complex. 42. Arrange the following hydrides of group 16
elements in order of increasing thermal stability?
(ii) Which of the following has the same value of (1) H2S < H2O < H2Te < H2Se
spin only magnetic moment? (2) H2O < H2Te < H2Se < H2S
(1) Sc3+ & Ti3+ (2) Cr2+ & Fe2+ (3) H2O < H2S < H2Se < H2Te
(3) Cu2+ & Ni2+ (4) V2+ & Ti3+ (4) H2Te < H2Se < H2S < H2O

(iii) Which of the following is correct? 43. According to IUPAC nomenclature sodium
(1) Mo act as promoters in Haber’s process of nitroprusside is named as
ammonia. (1) Sodiumpentacyanidonitrosoniumferrate(II)
(2) Wilkinson’s catalyst can be used in the (2) Sodiumpentacyanonitrosylferrate(III)
hydrogenation of olefins. (3) Sodiumnitroferricyanide
(3) V2O5 is used in the contact process as a (4) Sodiumnitroferrocyanide
catalyst.
(4) All are correct. 44. Which of the following element forms dark
green coloured salt in flame test?
(iv) Zn (II) complexes are colourless due to (1) Chromium (2) Zinc
(1) The fully-filled d-orbital. (3) Barium (4) Cobalt
(2) The low enthalpy of atomization.
(3) The bigger metallic radius at the end of first 45. What is the highest oxidation state exhibited by
transition series. element osmium?
(4) The absence of 4s electron. (1) +1 (2) +3
(3) +5 (4) +8
Objective Type Questions (36–49) (14 × 1 = 14)
36. Amongst the following, the most stable complex 46. The increasing order of the crystal field splitting
is power of some common ligands is
(1) [Fe(H2O)6]3+ (1) H2O < OH– < Cl– < CN–
(2) [Fe(NH3)6]3+ (2) H2O < Cl– < OH– < CN– < F–
(3) [Fe(C2O4)3]3– (3) CN– < H2O < OH– < F– < Cl–
(4) [FeCl6]– (4) Cl– < F– < OH– < H2O < CN–
[6]
47. Among the following metal carbonyls, the C – O SECTION - C
bond order is lowest in Short Answer Type Questions (59 – 63) (5 × 3 = 15)
(1) [Mn(CO)6]+ 59. Explain the following properties of group 16
(2) [Fe(CO)5] elements:
(3) [Cr(CO)6]
(i) Melting and boiling points
(4) [V(CO)6]–
(ii) Electronegativity
48. The metal ion M+ in the following reaction is
NO − 60. The +3 oxidation state of lanthanum (Z = 57),
M+ + S2– → Black precipitate ⎯⎯⎯
2→
White gadolinium (Z = 64) and lutetium (Z = 71) are
precipitate especially stable, why?
(1) K+
(2) Fe2+
61. (i) Give the IUPAC name and electronic
(3) Na+
configuration of central metal atom in terms
(4) Ag+
of t 2g and eg of K4[Mn(CN)6].
49. Which of the following low spin systems has (ii) What is meant by 'Chelate effect'? Give an
maximum number of unpaired electrons or example.
maximum paramagnetism?
(1) d4 (octahedral) 62. The first ionization enthalpies of 5d–series
(2) d9 (octahedral) elements is higher than those of 3d and 4d series
(3) d7 (octahedral) elements why?
(4) d5 (octahedral)

SECTION - B 63. How would you account for the following?

Very Short Answer Type Questions (50–58) (9×2=18) (i) Ni(CO)4 possesses tetrahedral geometry
while [Ni(CN)4]2– is square planar.
50. Write any two metal hydroxide soluble in excess
(ii) [Ni(CN)4]2– is diamagnetic while [NiCl4]2–
of NH4OH.
is paramagnetic.
51. Write the electronic configuration of Cr3+ ion
SECTION - D
(atomic number of Cr = 24)
Long Answer Type Questions (64 – 66) (3 × 5 = 15)
64. Using CFT, explain the following in relation to
52. The number of geometrical isomers possible for
the complexes given below:
the complex [CoL2Cl2]– (L = H2NCH2CH2O–]
[Mn(CN)6]3–, [Co(NH3)6]3–, [Cr(H2O)6]2+,
[FeCl6]4–
53. Which elements among 3d-transition elements,
(i) Type of hybridisation
exhibit the highest oxidation state?
(ii) Inner or outer orbital complex
(iii) Magnetic behaviour
54. Why low spin tetrahedral complex are not
formed? 65. Answer the following:
(a) Compare the chemistry of the actinoids with
55. Find the number of compounds which have that of lanthanoids with reference to ___
yellow color ppt. from the given compounds:
(i) Electronic configuration
Ag2CrO4, PbCrO4, Hg2CrO4, BaCrO4
(ii) Oxidation states

56. How many basic radicals are there in IV group? (iii) Chemical reactivity.

66. Account for the following:

57. Write any three cations which are placed in VI
(i) Acidic character increases from HF to HI.
group?
(ii) There is large difference between the
melting and boiling points of oxygen and
58. Out of H2O and H2S, which one has a higher
sulphur.
bond angle and why?
(iii) Nitrogen does not form pentahalides.

[7]
 SECTION-III (MATHEMATICS)
Part - A log3 512 log 4 3 log 2 3 log8 3
SECTION - I 74.  =
log3 8 log 4 9 log3 4 log3 4
Short Answer Type Questions (67–82) (16 × 1 = 16)
( 3 ) − cot −1 ( − 3 ) is
−1
(1) 7 (2) 10
67. The principal value of tan (3) 13 (4) 17

(1) – (2) −
2 75. Total number of possible matrices of order 3 × 3
  with each entry 2 or 0 is
(3) (4) (1) 27 (2) 9
3 2
(3) 81 (4) 512
68. If O(A) = 2 × 3, O(B) = 3 × 2 and O(C) = 3 × 3,
which one of the following is not defined; 76. If A is a matrix of order 3 and |A| = 2, then |adj A| is
(1) CB + A (2) BAC equal to
(3) C ( A + B ) (4) C ( A + B ) (1) 1 (2) 2
3
(3) 2 (4) 22

1
69.  dx = 77. A line makes angle , ,  with the coordinate
(e x
+e −x 2
) axes, if  +  = 90°, then  =
1 (1) 0° (2) 90°
(1) − +c
( )
(3) 180° (4) None of these
2 e 2x
+1
1 78. The continuous function ' f ' is defined by
(2) +c
2 e ( 2x
+1 ) 2 x − 1, x  2

1 f ( x) =  k, x = 2 then the value of k is equal
(3) − +c  2
( e 2x
+1 )  x −1 x  2
(4) None of these to
(1) 2 (2) 3
0 x −1 x − 2 (3) 4 (4) – 3
70. If f ( x ) = x + 1 0 x − c , then
79. The unit vector parallel to the resultant vector of
x+2 x+c 0
2iˆ + 4 ˆj − 5kˆ and iˆ + 2 ˆj + 3kˆ is
(1) f (2) = 0 (2) f (1) = 0
iˆ + ˆj + kˆ
(3) f (3) = 0 (4) f (0) = 0 (1)
7
(
1 ˆ
3i + 6 ˆj − 2kˆ ) (2)
3
iˆ + ˆj + 2kˆ
71. If the points (–1, 2, –3), (4, a, 1) and (b, 8, 5) are
collinear, then a and b are respectively equal to
(3)
6
(4)
1
69
(
−iˆ − ˆj + 8kˆ )
(1) 5 and 5 (2) 9 and 5
(3) 5 and 9 (4) –5 and 9 80. The order and degree of the differential equation
dy
= e x − y + x 2 e− y is
cosec  − cot 
 cosec  + cot  d  =
72. dx
(1) 1, 1 (2) 1, 2
(1) 2 cosec – 2 cot –  + c (3) 2, 1 (4) 2, 2
(2) 2 cosec – 2 cot +  + c
(3) 2 cosec + 2 cot –  + c 81. If a  b = 3 and a  b = 4, then the angle between
(4) None of these

a and b is
dx

3 3
73. 4
 is equal to (1) cos −1 (2) cos −1
− 1 + cos 2 x 4 5
4
4 
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) cos −1 (4)
(3) 3 (4) 4 5 4

[8]
82. The angle between the vector 2iˆ + 3 ˆj + kˆ and (i) If  is a positive constant of proportionality,
dT
2iˆ − ˆj − kˆ is then find .
dt

(1) (ii) Find the value of T(10)
3
(iii) Find the general solution of the differential

(2) equation formed in the given situation.
4

(3) Part - B
2
SECTION - III
(4) 0
Short Answer Type Questions (85–94) (10 × 2 = 20)
SECTION - II  1 sin  1 
85. 
Let A =  − sin  1 sin  where 0 <  < 2.
Case Study Type Questions (83–84) (2 × 4 = 8)
83. An Apache helicopter of the enemy is flying along  −1 − sin  1 
the curve given by y = x2 + 7. A soldier, placed at Then find the range of |A|.
(3, 7) wants to shoot down the helicopter when it is
nearest to him 86. Find the value of the constant k so that the given
function is continuous at the indicated point:
 x 2 − 25
 , x5
f ( x) =  x − 5
 k, x =5


87. A balloon which always remains spherical, has a

3
Based on the above information, answer the variable diameter ( 2 x − 1) . Find the rate of
following questions. 2
(i) If P ( x1 , y1 ) be the position of a helicopter on change of its volume with respect to x.
curve y = x2 + 7, then find distance D from P
2
to soldier place at (3, 7). 88. Evaluate: 0 2 − x 2 dx
(ii) Find the critical point such that distance is
minimum.
(iii) Verify by a second derivative test that 89. Find the angle between the pair of lines given by:
distance is minimum at (1, 8). ( )
r = 3iˆ − 4kˆ +  iˆ + 2kˆ and

84. A thermometer reading 80°F is taken outside. 5 r = 5iˆ − 2 ˆj +  ( 3iˆ + 2 ˆj + 6kˆ ) .

minutes later the thermometer reads 60°F. After
90. Find , when the projection of a = iˆ + ˆj + 4kˆ on
another 5 minutes the thermometer reads 50°F. At
any time t the thermometer reading be T°F and the b = 2iˆ + 6 ˆj + 3kˆ is 4 units.
outside temperature be S°F.
91. Find the interval in which the given function f (x) =
2x3 – 3x2 – 36x + 7 is decreasing.

92. If a, b , c are unit vector such that a + b + c = 0.

Find the value of a  b + b  c + c  a.

93. Examine the continuity of f, where f is defined by

sin x − cos x, if x  0
f ( x) = 
 −1, if x = 0


Based on the above information, answer the 94. Solve for x : tan −1 ( 2 x ) + tan −1 ( 3x ) =
following questions. 4

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 100. Find the solution of differential equation
SECTION - IV
dy y − x
Short Answer Type Questions (95–101) (7 × 3 = 21) =
dx y + x
95. Solve the differential equation:

(1 + x2 )
dy
dx
+ 2 xy − 4 x 2 = 0, subject to the initial 101. Evaluate the integral:  ( 3x + 1) 4 − 3x − 2 x 2 dx
condition y(0) = 0
SECTION - V
96. Solve the initial value problem: Long Answer Type Questions (102–104) (3 × 5 = 15)
dy 102. Using the method of integration, find the area of
xy = ( x + 2 )( y + 2 ) , y (1) = −1 the region bounded by the lines:
dx
2x + y = 4, 3x – 2y = 6 and x – 3y + 5 = 0
1
−1 x − x dx
3
97. Evaluate: 103. Find the shortest distance between the lines:
x−6 y−7 z −4 x y −9 z −2
= = and = =
3 −1 1 −3 2 4
3x + 1
98. Evaluate:  dx
5 − 2 x − x2 1 2 −3
104. Find A , where A =  2 3 2  . Hence solve the
–1

sin x cos x  3 −3 −4

99. Evaluate: 
( cos )
dx
2
x − cos x − 2
system of equations x + 2y – 3z = – 4, 2x + 3y + 2z
= 2, 3x – 3y – 4z = 11.

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