Nephrology Problem Solving
Nephrology Problem Solving
CASE 210 :
A female patient 50 yrs old, known to have long standing hypertension on irregular
treatment, presented with history of generalized fatigue over the last 6 months. Over the
last 2 months, she complained of nausea with occasional vomiting and she reported to
have weight loss and some itching. On examination, her BP was 170/110 mmHg, she was
found to be pale with some scratch marks over the LL. Her skin was dry and cardiac
examination revealed a systolic murmur.
Investigations showed serum Creatinine 9 mg/dl, BUN 100 mg/di, serum Na 135mmol/L,
K 5.8mmol/L, Ca 7.5 mg/dl, P 6.5mg/dl, Hb 8gm/dl, WBC 4.7 x 103/mm3, Platelets count
190 x 103 /mm3
4. Discuss treatment strategies for this patient?1. What is the most likely diagnosis?
2. What is the most appropriate investigation to reach the diagnosis? Explain why.
Answers :
Data with : The patient presents with typical symptoms of end stage renal failure :
nausea, weight loss, fatigue and pruritus. The elevated urea & Cr confirm renal
failure. Anemia & skin manifestations indicate CRF.
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3. Management of anemia :
o Complete blood picture with RBC indices, reticulocytic count and iron study
(serum Fe, TIBC and ferritin) are done to investigate the type of anemia:
- If normochromic normocytic (due to erythropoietin deficiency) : erythropoietin
injection is usually needed.
- If inadequate iron stores, iron should be replaced by oral iron, however, if iron
absorption is not adequate, iron can be given through the IM route (Fe
dextrane) or the IV route which is the preferred route on dialysis.
4. Treatment :
o Hypertension.
o Endocrinal & gonadal dysfunction.
o Infections.
o Bone disease : active vit D
o Anemia : controlled by erythropoietin
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CASE 12
A 70 year old male, living alone developed an attack of diarrhea that persisted for 3 days
before coming to the hospital. He complained of reduced urine output and marked
weakness and reported that he was too weak even to bring himself a glass of water. He
has no past history of medical importance.
On examination his BP was 90/60, he had dry mucous membranes and skin turgor
showed evident dehydration.
Laboratory work revealed serum Creatinine 6 mg/di, urea 200 mg/d, Hb 12gm/dl. Urine
analysis was unremarkable
1. What is the most likely diagnosis?
2. How would you confirm the diagnosis?
3. What other tests are needed?
4. What is the first line of management to be done in this patient?
Answers :
1. The patient has : prerenal acute kidney injury/acute tubular necrosis (AKI/ATN). The
latter develops with prolongation of the prerenal condition.
Pre-renal Renal
- Renal tubular epithelial cells and brownish pigmented cellular casts in ATN.
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3. Other tests :
enlargement).
o Tests for serum Na, K, Ca, P, uric acid and blood gases are needed for further
management.
o Immediate IV saline
CASE 212
A 37 year old male presented with lower limb edema and puffiness of the eye
lids. He has no previous history of DM or HTN. Examination reveals BP 140/80,
edema was restricted to the ankles. Chest, heart and abdominal examination
was unremarkable.
Lab tests revealed urine albumin +++, WBC 5-10 cell/mm3, RBC 20-30 cell/mm3,
serum Creatinine 1.5mg/dl, cholesterol 319mg/dl, TG 225mg/dl, HDL 48, LDL
240mg/dl, Hb 12gm/dl. Hepatitis markers were negative so as ANA and anti
DNA. C3 and C4 were not consumed. Renal biopsy was done.
1. What is the likely diagnosis?
2. What is the most likely underlying etiology?
3. Discuss possible measures to reduce proteinuria.
4. Discuss possible pathologic findings.
Answer :
1. The most likely diagnosis is :
o Nephrotic syndrome however 24 hours urinary protein and serum albumin
are needed to confirm diagnosis.
o Data with : The patient presented with proteinuria, edema and
hypercholesterolemia
2. The most likely etiology :
Probably the case is primary (idiopathic ) nephrotic syndrome: WHY?
- Hepatitis markers are negative, so as ANA and anti DNA, this exclude
hepatitis and collagen diseases. ANCA is also needed to exclude vasculitis
which usually has a more stormy presentation.
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- ASOT and CRP can be done for diagnosis of post streptococcal GN which is
more of nephritic presentation and has reduced C3.
- The patient has no history of DM and this can be confirmed by lab test.
3. Proteinuria reduction will necessitate :
Reduction of BP to less than 120/70
Use of ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs) with or
without non dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker.
Immunosuppression treatment of the primary nephrotic syndrome
depending on pathologic type.
4. Possible pathological finding are : (proteinuria + hematuria)
o Membrano-proliferative glomerulonephritis, focal sclerosis GN, or
mesangioproliferative GN (IgA nephropathy).
o Hematuria is not a common occurrence with membranous or minimal
change GN.
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CASE 214
A 19 year-old male was involved in a road traffic accident while diving his
motorbike. He suffered a penetrating wound of his left knee joint. There was no
clinical suggestion of trauma to his kidneys or lower urinary tract, and he
continued to pass urine normally.
Routine urine analysis was unremarkable.
Within 3 days, the left knee joint became swollen, painful and inflamed The
patient was febrile. Pus was aspirated from the knee which grew a penicillin
resistant staphylococcus pyogenes and parenteral methicillin therapy was
commenced. The response to treatment was rapid but, after few days, he
developed a diffuse skin rash, fever and he became oliguric, serum creatinine,
which was 0.7 mg/dl on admission had risen to 5mg/dl.
There was no fluid depletion.
Examination of his fluid balance and blood pressure charts were unremarkable.
The urine contained blood and protein but no myoglobin. Serum potassium was
4.9mm/l, full blood count showed an eosinophilia 10% of a total WBC count of
12.9 x 103/, abdominal sonography demonstrated a normal sized kidneys, with
no evidence of urinary tract obstruction.
1. What is the most likely diagnosis?
2. How should the patient be managed?
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Answer
1. Most likely diagnosis : Methicillin-induced interstitial nephritis.
2. Management :
o Renal biopsy is indicated to confirm the diagnosis.
o Stop the methicillin.
o If no improvement, then steroids are given at a dose of 1 mg/kg/day.
o If no response occurs in 2 weeks, addition of cyclophosphamide is
considered.
o TTT of ARF : e.g. dialysis may be needed
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CASE 216
A 35 year old man was noted to be hypertensive but no other abnormality was
revealed. His father had died at the age of 56 from cerebrovascular accident. 2
years later, his blood pressure having been controlled, he experienced several
episodes of painless hematuria unrelated to trauma or infection. There was no
proteinuria.
Examination revealed fullness in both flanks. Over the next 15 years his renal
function deteriorated at a steady rate. The patient recently entered the phase
of terminal renal failure and is currently being integrated into the dialysis and
transplantation program.
1. What is the most probable diagnosis?
2. What anatomical abnormality may have been responsible for the
cerebrovascular accident (CVA) ?
3. What investigation is needed to prove the condition?
4. What are the implications of this disease for his children?
Answer
1. The most likely diagnosis is : Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney (ADPKD)
4. The genetic importance of this condition is that the offspring of the affected
parent will have a 50 % chance of being affected.
These children should have their BP checked and later be screened by
ultrasound. In their early 20s, ultrasound examination usually indicates
involvement or not. By age 30, 90% of ADPKD patients will have cysts detected by
ultrasound.
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CASE 221
A 45 old male working as executive secretary born and living in Banha city.
He's married, fertile and has no special habits of medical importance. He's
presenting with pyrexia, repeated vomiting and diarrhea. Clinical examination
showed: normal mental functions, toxic pale facies, temperature 38.1°c, B.P.
155/95 mmHg, R.R. 24/minute, diffuse mild tenderness in all abdominal
quadrants with increased intensity of intestinal sounds. Laboratory
investigations revealed: serum creatinine 2.4 mg/dl, eGFR 34 ml/minute, serum
urea 97 mg/dl, serum uric acid 8 mg/dl, serum bicarbonate 11 mmol/L, urine
protein +++, 24 hour urine protein 1.95 gm/dl, hemoglobin concentration is 10.4
g/d and hematocrit value 31%
1. What is the diagnosis? What are the other investigations needed to evaluate
kidneys in this patient?
2. Do you think this patient deserves other therapeutic interventions?
3. Which anti- hypertensive drug do you prefer in this patient?
4. What are the other medications that should be prescribed?
5. What are the targets for your treatment?
Answer
1. The diagnosis is : Chronic kidney disease associated with gastro enteritis.
- Data with : being hypertensive, proteinuria with impaired kidney functions.
associated with attack of gastro enteritis as manifested by fever, vomiting,
diarrhea and tender abdomen.
- Investigations needed to evaluate his kidneys are :
Abdominal U/S (to show: kidney size and echogenicity), doppler of renal arteries
(to show evidence of renal artery stenosis).
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5. Targets of treatment:
o B.P. 130/80 mmHg
o Serum Bicarbonate 22 mmol/L
o Serum phosphorus <4.5 mg/dl
o Serum PTH within normal range
o Serum ferritin not exceeding 800 ng/ml, transferrin saturation not
exceeding 40%.
o Hemoglobin concentration 11-12 gm/dl, hematocrit value 33-36%