RAS PRE.

Test Series : 2024-25

INDIAN POLITY (Complete)

( )
PAPER ID : SBA-071

Answer Key
Date : 10 November, 2024

HINDI & ENGLISH MEDIUM

JAIPUR
A-1, Keshav Vihar, Riddhi Siddhi Chouraha, Gopalpura By Pass,
Jaipur, Rajasthan - 302018 | Mob. : 0141-3597948, 9636977490

JODHPUR
P. No 145 Samrathal Page
TowerNo. :Manji
{{1}} Ka Hattha, Paota,
Jodhpur (Rajasthan) 342006 | Mob. : 7726944080
1. (CAG) 1. Consider the following statements about Comptroller
and Auditor General (CAG) of India-
A. A. Its area of operations does not cover private persons.
B. CAG can examine the policies of government.
B. CAG
C. It also has overseas Audit offices.
C.
Choose the correct statements from above (Choose the
most appropriate option)-
[1] A B [2] B C [1] A and B [2] B and C
[3] C [4] [3] C only [4] All of the above
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [3] Sol. [3]
• • Where the union of India is Sharing revenue with
Private Parties the CAG has a duty to examine that
all Rules are being followed not only by Union but
by Private Persons also.
• • CAG Cannot Question or Examine the Policy of
government.
• It has Overseas offices at Washington DC, London,
•
Kualalumpur, Rome and Geneva.
2. The form of Oath of comptroller and auditor general
2. of India has been Prescribed under ?
[1] Section IV of third schedule
[1] IV [2] Article 148
[2] 148 [3] Section III of third schedule
[3] III [4] Article 150
[4] 150 [5] Question Not Attempted
[5] Sol. [1]
Sol. [1] 3. Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) acts as a
3. (CAG) guide, friend and mentor to which of the following
committees? (Choose the most appropriate option)
[1] Estimates Committee
[2] Public Accounts Committee
[1]
[3] Committee on Public Undertakings
[2]
[4] Business Advisory Committee
[3]
[5] Question Not Attempted
[4] Sol. [2]
[5] 4. A. Audit of authorities and bodies substantially
Sol. [2] financed from the Consolidated Fund of the Union
4. A. or the States.
B. Assist in the audit functions of the United Nations.
B. C. Determine the methods, nature and scope of audit.
C. D. Check financial irregularities of Government
D. Departments.
Which of the above functions are performed by the
Comptroller and Auditor General? (Choose the most
appropriate option)
[1] A B [2] B C [1] A and B only [2] B and C only
[3] C D [4] [3] C and D only [4] All of the above
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [4] Sol. [4]

Page No. : {{2}}

5. A. V 5. A. Officers of rank of Scale V and above in Public sector
banks.
B. Officers in Grade 'D' and above in Reserve Bank of
B.
India, NABARD and SIDBI.
C. Officers drawing Salary of Rs.8700 per month and
C. 8700 above on Central Government dearness allowance
Pattern.
D. All Public Servants i.e. Group 'A', 'B','C' and 'D'.
D.
E. Managers of General Insurance companies and
E. Senior Divisional managers in life insurance
companies.
(CVC) Which of the above fall under jurisdiction of Central
Vigilance Commission (CVC)? (Choose the most
appropriate option)
[1] A, B, C, D [2] B, C, D, E [1] A, B, C, D [2] B, C, D, E
[3] A, C, D, E [4] A,B, C, E [3] A, C, D, E [4] A,B, C, E
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [4] Sol. [4]
Members of all india services in connection with affairs
of Union and only group 'A' officers of central
CVC
government are under CVC.
6. 6. Which of the following bodies was established on the
recommendation of the Santhanam Committee?
[1] (CAG) (Choose the most appropriate option)
[2] (CIC) [1] Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG)
[2] Central Information Commission (CIC)
[3] (CVC) [3] Central Vigilance Commission (CVC)
[4] (NHRC) [4] National Human Rights Commission (NHRC)
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [3] Sol. [3]
Development monitoring and evaluation office (DMEO)
7.
was established by government in 2015 as an attached
office NITI ayog.
[1] 7. Who among the following has Served as first Central
[2] Vigilance Commissioner of India?
[3] [1] Nittor Sreenivasa Rau
[2] Sukumar Sen
[4] [3] V. Narahari Rao
[5] [4] Praveen Kumar Srivastava
Sol. [1] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [1]
19 1964 Shri Nittor Sreenivasa Rau, a freedom fighter and Chief
justice of high court of Mysore state. He became the first
Central Vigilance Commissioner of India on 19 th
8. (CIC) February, 1964.
8. Consider the following statements regarding Central
A. Information Commission (CIC)-
B. A. It is not an constitutional body.
B. The jurisdiction of the commission extends over all
central public authorities.
C. C. The commission consists of a Chief Information
Commissioner and not more than ten information
Commissioner.
Select the incorrect statement from above- (Choose the
most appropriate option)
[1] A C [2] B C [1] A and C only [2] B and C only
[3] A B [4] [3] A and B only [4] None of the above
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [4] Sol. [4]
Page No. : {{3}}
9. 9. The Prime Minister is a member of the committee for
selection of heads of which of the following commissions?
A. National Human Rights Commission
A.
B. Election Commission of India
B.
C. Central Vigilance Commission
C. D. Central Information Commission
D. E. Lokpal
E. Choose the most appropriate option from below-
[1] A, B, C and D [2] C, D and E
[1] A, B, C D [2] C, D E [3] A, C, D and E [4] All of the above
[3] A, C, D E [4] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [4]
[5]
10. Consider the following statements about Central
Sol. [4]
Information Commission (CIC) -
10. (CIC)
A. It is duty of Commission to receive and inquire into
a Complaint from any Person who has been refused
A. Information that was requested.
B. The Commission has Power of a Civil Court in
respect of requisitioning any public record from any
Court or office.
B.
C. The commission submits an annual report to the
president.
Select the correct statement(s) from above- (Choose
C. the most appropriate option)
[1] A and C only [2] B and C only
[3] A and B only [4] None of the above
[1] A C [2] B C [5] Question Not Attempted
[3] A B [4] Sol. [3]
The commission submits an annual report to the central
[5]
government.
Sol. [3]
11. What is the motto of National Human Rights Commission?
[1] Sarve Bhavantu Sukhinah
11. [2] Justice for human rights
[1] [3] Protection of human rights
[2] [4] Manava adhikar, sarvottam adhikar
[3] [5] Question Not Attempted
[4] Sol. [1]
[5] 12. On what grounds can the Chairman of the National
Human Rights Commission be removed by the
Sol. [1]
President only after investigation by the Supreme
12.
Court? (Choose the most appropriate option)
[1] Insolvent
[2] Misbehaviour or Incapacity
[1] [3] Convicted by a Court of Law
[2] [4] Mentally or Physically Incapacitated
[3] [5] Question Not Attempted
[4] Sol. [2]
[5] The President can also remove the Chairman and any
member from their post due to their misconduct or
Sol. [2]
incapacity. However, in this situation, the President will
hand over the matter to the Supreme Court for
investigation. If after investigation, the Supreme Court
finds these allegations to be true, then on its advice, the
President can remove these members and the Chairman
from their post.
Page No. : {{4}}
13. 13. The members of National Human Rights Commission
are appointed on recommendation of a Committee
consisting of-
A. Prime Minister
A.
B. Speaker of Lok Sabha
B.
C. Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha
C.
D. Central Home Minister
D.
E. Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha.
E.
F. Leader of Opposition in Rajya Sabha.
F.
Choose the most appropriate option from below-
[1] A, B, C, D and E [2] A, C, D and E
[1] A, B, C, D E [2] A, C, D E
[3] A, B, C, E and F [4] All of the above
[3] A, B, C, E F [4]
[5] Question Not Attempted
[5]
Sol. [4]
Sol. [4]
14. In general elections, 2024 Home voting for eligible
14. 2024
voters was extended for the first time, these eligible
voters included-
A. Senior citizen over 85 years of age
A. 85 B. Transgenders
B. C. Persons with Disability(PwDs) with 40%
C. 40% (PwDs) benchmark disability
D. (PVTG) D. Particularly Vulnerable Tribal groups (PVTG)
Choose the most appropriate option from below-
[1] A [2] B D [1] A only [2] B and D
[3] A C [4] [3] A and C [4] All of the above
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [3] Sol. [3]
2024 85 Facility for voting from the comfort of home for senior
40% PwDs citizens above 85 years of age and PwDs with 40%
benchmark disability was extended for the first time on
15. pan India basis in General Elections 2024.
15. In an landmark judgment supreme Court has struck
down electoral bond scheme and called it as
'manifestly arbitrary' which violates voters right to
information about political Funding. This right is
provided under which article by constitution ?
[1] 14 [2] 19 (1)( ) [1] Article 14 [2] Article 19 (1)(a)
[3] 19 (1)( ) [4] 19 (1)( ) [3] Article 19 (1)(g) [4] Article 19 (1)(c)
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [2] Sol. [2]
A five-judge Bench headed by Chief Justice of India D.Y.
Chandrachud held that electoral bond scheme and
amendments made to the Representation of the People
19 (1)( ) Act, the Companies Act, and the Income Tax Act,
violated the voters’ right to information about political
funding under Article 19 (1)(a) of the Constitution.
16. Consider the following statements regarding the
16.
Election Commission of India –
A. The Election Commission of India was established
A. a day before the Indian Constitution was enforced.

Page No. : {{5}}

 B. 14 B. Provisions related to it have been made in Part-XIV
'Elections' of the Constitution.
C. -I C. Commission related matters have been included in
List-I of the Seventh Schedule.
Choose the correct statement from the above- (Choose
the most appropriate option)
[1] A and C only [2] B and C only
[1] A C [2] B C [3] A and B only [4] All of the above
[3] A B [4] [5] Question Not Attempted
[5] Sol. [1]
Sol. [1] Provisions related to ECI have been made in Part-15
15 ECI 'Elections' of the Constitution.
17. Select that best option which represents current chief
election Commissioner and Election Commissioners
17.
of India-
[1] Sushil Chandra, Sukhbir Singh Sandhu, Gyanesh
[1] Kumar
[2] [2] Rajiv Kumar, Sukhbir Singh Sandhu, Gyanesh
[3] Kumar
[4] [3] Rajiv Kumar, Anup Chandra Pandey, Arun Goel
[5] [4] Sunil Arora, Gyanesh Kumar, Sushil Chandra
Sol. [2] [5] Question Not Attempted
• 25 Sol. [2]
• Rajiv kumar : 25th Cheif Election Commissioner of
•
India
•
• Gyanesh kumar : Election Commissioner
18. • Sukhbir Singh Sandhu : Election Commissioner
10 10 18. In which year the number of proposers and seconders
50 50 required for presidential candidature was increased
[1] 1997 [2] 1998 from 10 and 10 to 50 and 50 respectively? (Choose the
[3] 1999 [4] 1996 most appropriate option)
[1] 1997 [2] 1998
[5]
[3] 1999 [4] 1996
Sol. [1]
[5] Question Not Attempted
1997
Sol. [1]
10 - 10 2500 1997
Before 1997, the number of proposers and seconders for
presidential candidature was 10 - 10 and the security
50 - 50 deposit was Rs.2500 but in 1997 the number of
15,000 proposers and seconders for presidential candidature
19. was increased to 50 - 50 and the security deposit was
increased to Rs.15000.
19. Choose the correct statement from the following
[1] statements- (Choose the most appropriate option)
50% + 1% [1] A candidate for the post of President needs 50% +
[2] 1% of the total valid votes to win.
[2] Elected members of the State Legislative Assembly
participate in the process of election and
[3] impeachment of the President.
[3] The notification for election to Lok Sabha and Rajya
Sabha is issued by the Election Commission.
[4]
[4] 'Violation of the Constitution' in the context of
impeachment of the President has not been defined
[5] in the Constitution.
Sol. [4] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [4]

Page No. : {{6}}

20. 20. Who among the following had first suggested that
there should be an institution like Ombudsman in
India?
[1] [1] First Administrative Reforms Commission.
[2] [2] Rajasthan Administrative Reforms Committee.
[3] [3] Second Administrative Reforms Commission.
[4] [4] None of the above.
[5] Question Not Attempted
[5]
Sol. [2]
Sol. [2]
In India, this suggestion was first given in 1963 by the
1963 Rajasthan Administrative Reforms Committee
(Harishchandra Mathur Committee).
21. 21. Identify the incorrect statements regarding
Organisational structure of Lokpal of India- (Choose
the most appropriate option)
[1] 50% [1] The Lokpal consists of a Chairperson and eight
Members out of whom 50% are Judicial Members.
[2] [2] They hold office for a term of five years from the date
70 on which they enter upon the office or until they
attain the age of 70 years, whichever is earlier.
[3] Lokpal has two branches Administrative and
[3] Judicial.
[4] [4] The salary and allowances of chairperson are same
as that of judge of Supreme Court.
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [4] Sol. [4]
The salary, allowances and other conditions of services
of the Chairperson are the same as that of Chief Justice
of India. And that of Members are the same as that of a
Judge of the Supreme Court.
22. 22. In which year first Lokpal was appointed in India ?
[1] 2018 [2] 2017 [1] 2018 [2] 2017
[3] 2020 [4] 2019 [3] 2020 [4] 2019
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [4] Sol. [4]
• 2013 4(1) • Upon the recommendation of the Selection
19 Committee under section 4(1) of the Lokpal and
Lokayuktas Act, 2013, the President of India
2019
appointed the Chairperson and eight Members
(including four judicial Members) by warrant under
his hand and seal on 19th March, 2019.
• • First Lokpal : Pinaki Chandra Ghosh
23. 23. Which of the following is not an objective of NITI
Aayog ? (Choose the most appropriate option)
[1] [1] Formulation of plans at village level.
[2] Providing feedback for constant innovative
[2]
improvements.
[3]
[3] Allocating financial resources to the states.
[4] [4] Technology upgradation and capacity building.
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [3] Sol. [3]
24. 24. The Governing Council of NITI Aayog comprises -
A. A. Prime Minister of India.
B. B. Chief Ministers of all States.
C. C. Chief Ministers of Union Territories with legislature.
D. Lt Governors of other UTs.
D.

Page No. : {{7}}

 Select the best option from following-
[1] A, B D [2] A, C D [1] A, B and D [2] A, C and D
[3] B, C D [4] [3] B, C and D [4] All of the above
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [4] Sol. [4]
The Governing Council of NITI Aayog comprises the
Hon’ble Prime Minister of India; Chief Ministers of all
the States and Union Territories with legislature; Lt
Governors of other UTs; Ex-Officio Members; Vice
Chairman, NITI Aayog; Full-Time Members, NITI
Aayog; and Special Invitees.
25.
25. NITI Aayog was established- (Choose the most
appropriate related option)
[1] [1] By a Parliamentary Act
[2] [2] By a Constitutional Amendment
[3] [3] By a resolution of the Union Cabinet
[4] 142 [4] By the Supreme Court invoking Article 142
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [3]
Sol. [3]
26.
26. Consider the following statements-
A. 124
A. Article 124 of the Constitution provides for the
formation of the Supreme Court.
B. 26 1950 B. The Supreme Court of India came into existence on
26 January, 1950.
C. 28 1950 C. The Supreme Court was inaugurated on 28 January,
1950.
Choose the correct statement from the above- (Choose
[1] A B [2] B C the most appropriate option)
[1] A and B only [2] B and C only
[3] A C [4] A, B C
[3] A and C only [4] A, B and C
[5]
Sol. [4] [5] Question Not Attempted
• 26 1950 Sol. [4]
• The Supreme Court came into existence on the day
the Constitution came into force (26 January, 1950).
• 28 1950
• The Supreme Court was inaugurated two days after
the Constitution came into force (28 January, 1950).
27.
27. Under which of the following Articles is an acting Chief
Justice appointed in a High Court? (Choose the best
option)
[1] 224 [2] 126 [1] Article 224 [2] Article 126
[3] 223 [4] 224 [3] Article 223 [4] Article 224A
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [3] Sol. [3]
• 126 : • Article 126 : Appointment of acting Chief Justice in
the Supreme Court.
• 224 (Additional) • Article 224 : Appointment of Additional and Acting
Judges in the High Court.
• 224 • Article 224A : Appointment of retired judges in the
meetings of the High Court.
Page No. : {{8}}
28. 28. Consider the following statements in the context of
appointments of judges in the Supreme Court and
High Courts in India-
A. Till now there have been 'Three Judges Case' in the
A.
context of appointment of judges.
B. In the 'Third Judges Case', the Constitutional Bench
B. of the Supreme Court declare null and void the
National Judicial Appointments Commission
constituted for the appointment of judges.
Choose the correct statement from the above- (Choose
the most appropriate option)
[1] A only [2] B only
[1] A [2] B
[3] Both A and B [4] Neither A, nor B
[3] A B [4] A, B
[5] Question Not Attempted
[5]
Sol. [4]
Sol. [4]
In the context of appointments of judges in the Supreme
Court and High Courts of India, it has been said that
the President should take 'consultation' from the
judiciary. The following cases came up in the context of
clarity of the meaning of this 'consultation'-
• • S.P. Gupta vs Union of India Case or First Judges
1981 Case, 1981: The Supreme Court said that
consultation does not mean consent.
• Supreme Court Advocates-on-Record vs Union of
•
India or 2nd Judges Case, 1993: The Supreme Court
1993 reversed its previous decision and said that
consultation means consent; hence the President is
required to follow the advice of the Chief Justice in
the appointment of Supreme Court judges.
• Third Judges Case, 1998 (President sought advice
• 1998 143
from the Supreme Court under Article 143): The
Supreme Court ruled that before advising the
President, the Chief Justice will consult four other
senior judges and advise the President on the basis
of majority.
• • Supreme Court Advocates-on-Record vs Union of
India or 4th Judges Case, 2015: The Government of
2015
India established the National Judicial
Appointments Commission through the 99th
99 2014 Constitutional Amendment Act, 2014 and the
National Judicial Appointments Commission Act
2015 for the appointment of judges in the Supreme Court
and High Courts, but in the Fourth Judges Case,
2015, the Constitutional Bench of the Supreme Court
declared it unconstitutional and abolished it.
29. 29. The power of enforcement of Fundamental Rights by
the Supreme Court extends to which of the following
jurisdictions? (Choose the most appropriate related
[1] option)
[2] [1] Original Jurisdiction
[2] Appellate Jurisdiction
[3]
[3] Advisory Jurisdiction
[4]
[4] None of the above
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Page No. : {{9}}
Sol. [1] Sol. [1]
• • The original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court
includes those cases which can be heard only by
the Supreme Court. But Article 32 of the Indian
32
Constitution extends the original jurisdiction of the
Supreme Court to the power to enforce Fundamental
( ) Rights. This is also called Writ jurisdiction. (A
person can also go to the High Court for enforcement
of Fundamental Rights.)
The original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court
includes the following- Any dispute in which a
question of law and fact arises and on which legal
right is vested-
• • Dispute between the Government of India and the
• State/States;
• Dispute between the Government of India + State/
•
States and State/States;
• Dispute between two or more States;
Note:- A case brought by a person against the Union
30. Government and the State Government is not considered
[1] [2] to fall under original jurisdiction.
30. What is the minimum number of judges in the
[3] [4]
Supreme Court bench ?
[5] [1] Two [2] Three
Sol. [1] [3] Five [4] Seven
[5] Question Not Attempted
• Sol. [1]
The Supreme Court has the following benches:
• Two-Member Bench: This is the smallest bench of
the Supreme Court. An appeal can be made to this
•
bench against any High Court's decision.
• Three-Member Bench: An appeal can be made
against the decision of the two-member bench in
• this bench and it also hears general cases.
• Constitutional Bench: This bench of the Supreme
Court has a minimum of five judges. This bench
hears only the cases of contradiction between more
than one bench of the Supreme Court regarding any
decision and substantial questions related to the
31. interpretation of the Constitution.
A. 31. Consider the following statements and choose the
correct one-
A. The salary of the judges of the High Court is
B.
determined by the respective state legislature.
B. There is a ban on any other appointment after
holding the post of permanent judge in a High Court.
[1] A [2] B Choose the most appropriate option from below-
[3] A B [4] A, B [1] A only [2] B only
[3] Both A and B [4] Neither A, nor B
[5]
[5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [4]
Sol. [4]
• 221(1)
• Article 221(1): The salary of the judges of the High
Court is determined by the Parliament.
• 220 • Article 220: If a person holds the post of permanent
judge in a High Court, he is eligible for appointment
to any other High Court or the Supreme Court.
Page No. : {{10}}
32. 32. Who among the following takes the oath of 'Preserve,
Protect and Defend the Constitution and the Law'?
(Choose the best option)
[1] Prime Minister only
[1]
[2] Governor only
[2]
[3] President only
[3]
[4] Both President and Governor
[4]
[5] Question Not Attempted
[5]
Sol. [4] Sol. [4]

60 159 The oath to 'Preserve, Protect and Defend the

Constitution and the law' is taken by both the President
(Article 60) and the Governor (Article 159).
33. Consider the following statements-
33.
A. People from the poor class with an annual income
A. 5 of less than Rs 5 lakh are entitled to get free legal aid
from the 'Supreme Court Legal Aid Committee'.
B. People from the middle income group do not get
B. any kind of legal aid from the Supreme Court.
Choose the true statement from the above- (Choose
the most appropriate option)
[1] A [2] B [1] A only [2] B only
[3] A B [4] A, B [3] Both A and B [4] Neither A, nor B
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [1] Sol. [1]
Eligible person to get free legal aid from 'Supreme
Court Legal Aid Committee':
• 5,00,000 • Poor person (annual income less than Rs.500000)
• • Person belonging to Scheduled Caste and
Scheduled Tribe
•
• Victim of natural calamity
•
• Woman or child
•
• Person suffering from mental disorder or disability
•
due to any other reason
•
• Industrial worker
6 7.5
• Person taken into custody
People from the middle income group (Rs.6 lakh to
Rs.7.5 lakh annual income) are also eligible to get legal
aid from the 'Supreme Court Middle Income Group
34. Legal Aid Society' by paying a nominal fee.
34. Under which of the following Articles, the Supreme
Court will have the power to review its own judgment
or order?
[1] 136 [2] 137
[1] Article 136 [2] Article 137
[3] 139 [4] 141
[3] Article 139 [4] Article 141
[5]
[5] Question Not Attempted

Page No. : {{11}}

Sol. [2] Sol. [2]
137 : 145 Article 137: Subject to the provisions of any law made
by Parliament or rules made under Article 145, the
Supreme Court may review its own judgment or order.
35. Consider the following statements with reference to
the Fazl Ali Commission constituted for the formation
35. of states on linguistic basis-
A. It was constituted after the formation of ‘Andhra
A. State’.
B. B. It accepted language as the main basis for the
reorganization of states.
C. It accepted the principle of ‘one language-one state’.
C.
Choose the correct statement from the above- (Choose
the most appropriate option)
[1] A [2] B [1] A only [2] B only
[3] A B [4] A, B C [3] Both A and B [4] A, B and C
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [3] Sol. [3]
• In 1952, Telugu speaking people of Madras State
• 1952
demanded a separate state and finally on October 1,
1 1953 1953, ‘Andhra State’ (capital Kurnool) was formed.
This increased the demand for linguistic states from
other parts of the country as well. As a result, the
Fazl Ali Commission was formed (other members:
K.M. Panikkar, H.N. Kunzru).
•
• The Fazl Ali Commission accepted language as the
main basis for the reorganization of states but
rejected the principle of ‘one language-one state’.
• 1956 • Under the State Reorganization Act passed in 1956,
the Telugu-speaking parts of the then Hyderabad
State were merged with 'Andhra State' and ‘Andhra
1 1956
Pradesh State’ was formed on 1 November 1956.
36.
36. Consider the following statements with reference to
judicial review-
A. A. The power of judicial review is given to the judiciary
by the constitution.
B. B. Judicial review is a part of the basic structure of the
C. constitution.
C. The High Court can examine the constitutionality
of the Acts passed by the Parliament.
Choose the incorrect statement from the above-
(Choose the most appropriate related option)
[1] A [2] B [1] A only [2] B only
[3] C [4] [3] C only [4] None of the above
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [4] Sol. [4]
• 13, 32, 136, 142 226 • Articles 13, 32, 136, 142 and 226 of the constitution
provide the power of judicial review to the judiciary.
• Judicial review was declared as the basic structure
• 1980
of the constitution in Minerva Mills case, 1980.

Page No. : {{12}}

37. (A) : 37. Assertion (A): The judiciary can also do judicial review
24 1973 of the laws included in the Ninth Schedule but cannot
review the laws included before 24 April 1973.
Reason (R): The doctrine of basic structure of the
(R) : constitution has been applied prospectively, not
retrospectively.
Choose the most appropriate option from below-
[1] A R R, A [1] Both A and R are correct and R is the correct
[2] A R R, A interpretation of A.
[2] Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct
[3] A R
interpretation of A.
[4] A R [3] A is correct, R is incorrect.
[5] [4] A is incorrect, R is correct.
Sol. [1] [5] Question Not Attempted
• 1981 Sol. [1]
• In Waman Rao case, 1981, the Supreme Court
decided that judicial review can be done even on
the matters included in the Ninth Schedule.
•
• Because in Kesavananda Bharati case, the doctrine
of basic structure of the constitution was given but
24 1973 it was applied prospectively, not retrospectively.
Therefore, judicial review cannot be done on laws
included in the Ninth Schedule before 24 April, 1973.
38. 42 38. Choose the correct statement from the following
statements in the context of 42 nd Constitutional
Amendment-
A. A. Through this amendment, the words Socialist and
Secular were added to the preamble.
B. B. Through this amendment, fundamental duties were
added to the constitution.
Choose the most appropriate option from below-
[1] A [2] B
[1] A only [2] B only
[3] A B [4] A, B [3] Both A and B [4] Neither A, nor B
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [3] Sol. [3]
• 42 1976 • Three new words were added to the preamble by
the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976. The
words of the original constitution, sovereign
democratic republic, were replaced by Sovereign
Socialist Secular Democratic Republic. The unity of
the nation mentioned in the original constitution
was replaced by the Unity and Integrity of the
• -IV Nation.
• A new part-IVA was added to the constitution by
this amendment. Through this, fundamental duties
39. were given a place in the constitution.
39. By which constitutional amendment the fundamental
[1] 23 right to property was curtailed?
[2] 24 [1] 23rd Constitutional Amendment
[2] 24th Constitutional Amendment
[3] 25
[3] 25th Constitutional Amendment
[4] 26 [4] 26th Constitutional Amendment
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Page No. : {{13}}
Sol. [3] Sol. [3]
25 1971 The fundamental right to property was curtailed by the
25th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1971.
40. Choose the correct statement from the following
40.
statements-
A. 52 A. The Tenth Schedule for disqualification in cases of
1985 defection was added by the 52nd Constitutional
B. 21 Amendment Act, 1985.
18 61 1989 B. The age of adult franchise in Lok Sabha and
Assembly elections was reduced from 21 years to 18
years by the 61st Constitutional Amendment Act,
1989.
[1] A [2] B Choose the best option from the following-
[3] A B [4] A, B [1] A only [2] B only
[5] [3] Both A and B [4] Neither A, nor B
[5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [3]
Sol. [3]
41.
41. By which constitutional amendment the number of
525 545 Lok Sabha seats were increased from 525 to 545?
[1] 18 [1] 18th Constitutional Amendment
[2] 31 [2] 31st Constitutional Amendment
[3] 33 [3] 33rd Constitutional Amendment
[4] 35th Constitutional Amendment
[4] 35
[5] Question Not Attempted
[5] Sol. [2]
Sol. [2] After the census of 1971, an increase in the population
1971 of India was recorded. After the census, delimitation
was done, as a result of delimitation, the number of Lok
31 1972 Sabha seats was increased from 525 to 545 by the 31st
Constitutional Amendment, 1972.
525 545
42. Choose the incorrect statement in the context of the
42. 44 44th Constitutional Amendment- (Choose the most
appropriate related option)
[1] [1] By this Constitutional Amendment, the term 'Internal
Disturbance' in the context of national emergency
was replaced by the term 'Armed Rebellion'.
[2] By this Constitutional Amendment, it was provided
[2] that the President can declare a national emergency
only on the written recommendation of the Cabinet.
[3] By this Constitutional Amendment, the fundamental
[3] right to property was abolished.
[4] By this Constitutional Amendment, the
constitutional amendment was taken out of judicial
[4] review Power of Judiciary.
[5] Question Not Attempted
[5] Sol. [4]
Sol. [4] • The constitutional amendment was taken out of
• 42 judicial review by the 42 nd Constitutional
Amendment Act, 1976. But this provision was
1976 43
abolished by the 43rd Constitutional Amendment,
1977 1977.
• By this Constitutional Amendment, the fundamental
• right to property was abolished and it was made
only a Constitutional right (Article-300A).
-300
Page No. : {{14}}
43. 43. By which constitutional amendment was elementary
education made a fundamental right?
[1] 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002
[1] 86 2002 [2] 88th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003
[2] 88 2003 [3] 92nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003
[4] None of the above
[3] 92 2003
[5] Question Not Attempted
[4] Sol. [1]
[5] By the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002, a new
fundamental right Article 21A and a new fundamental
Sol. [1]
duty Article 51A were added. The subject matter of
86 2002 Article 45 was changed in the Directive Principles of
21 51 State Policy.
45 44. Choose the incorrect statement from the following with
reference to the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act-
44. 73 (Choose the most appropriate related option)
[1] Through this, Constitutional status was given to
Panchayati Raj institutions.
[2] Part IX was added to the Constitution through this.
[1] [3] The 11th Schedule was added to the Constitution
through this.
[2] IX [4] A total of 18 subjects were added to the 11th Schedule
through this.
[3] 11 [5] Question Not Attempted
[4] 11 18 Sol. [4]
[5] Part-IX was added to the Constitution by the 73rd
Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 which provides
Sol. [4]
constitutional status to Panchayati Raj institutions. A
73 1992 -IX total of 29 subjects related to Panchayat were added to
the 11th Schedule by this.
45. Match the following-
Constitution Related
29 Amendment Matter
45. A. 91st Constitutional i. Goods and Services Tax
Amendment
B. 97th Constitutional ii. India Bangladesh Border
A. 91 i. Amendment Dispute
B. 97 ii. C. 100th Constitutionaliii. Cooperative Societies
Amendment
C. 100 iii. D. 101st Constitutional iv. Amendment in 10th
D. 101 iv. 10 Amendment Schedule
Choose the most appropriate related option from
below-
Code:
A B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D
[1] iii iv i ii [2] iv ii iii i [1] iii iv i ii [2] iv ii iii i
[3] iv iii ii i [4] i ii iii iv
[3] iv iii ii i [4] i ii iii iv [5] Question Not Attempted
[5] Sol. [3]
Sol. [3] 46. Choose the correct statement from the following
statements in the context of 103 rd Constitutional
46. 103 Amendment-
A. Through this, 10% reservation was provided to the
economically weaker sections in educational
A.
institutions.
10% B. Through this, provision of 10% reservation in public
B. appointments was made for the economically
weaker sections.
10%
C. This 10% reservation will be in addition to the
C. 10% existing reservation.
Page No. : {{15}}
 Select the best option from the following-
[1] A only [2] B and C only
[1] A [2] B C
[3] Both A and B [4] All of the above
[3] A B [4] [5] Question Not Attempted
[5] Sol. [4]
Sol. [4] 10% reservation in educational institutions and public
employment was provided to the economically weaker
103 2019
sections by the 103rd Constitutional Amendment Act,
10% 2019. This 10% reservation will be provided in addition
10% to the existing reservation.
47. Select the incorrect statement regarding the Women's
Reservation Act, 2023- (Choose the most appropriate
47. 2023
related option)
[1] It provides for reservation of one-third of the seats
[1] in Parliament and State Legislative Assemblies for
women.
[2] This women reservation will also apply to the seats
[2]
reserved for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes
in the Lok Sabha.
[3] [3] This reservation will be effective after the delimitation
done after the next census.
[4] This reservation will be implemented initially for
[4] 15 15 years.
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [1] Sol. [1]
2023 Women's Reservation Act, 2023 also known as Nari
Shakti Vandan Act. Through this, one-third of the seats
in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies only
will be reserved for women on rotation basis. These
provisions will come into force after the completion of
15 delimitation after the next census and will remain in
force for an initial period of 15 years.
48. Choose the incorrect statement from the following
48. statements in the context of "One Nation-One Election
Committee"-
A. A. This committee has recommended to conduct
elections of urban bodies and Panchayati Raj
6 institutions within a period of 6 months after the
simultaneous elections of Lok Sabha and State
Assemblies.
B. 9 B. This committee has a total of 9 members including
the chairman.
Choose the best option from the following-
[1] A [2] B [1] A only [2] B only
[3] A B [4] A, B [3] Both A and B [4] Neither A, nor B
[5] Question Not Attempted
[5] Sol. [1]
Sol. [1] One Nation One Election Committee has a total of 9
9 members including the chairman. Its chairman is former
President Ram Nath Kovind. This committee has
recommended to conduct urban body and Panchayati
100
Raj elections in the next 100 days after conducting
simultaneous elections of Lok Sabha and State
Assemblies.
49. 49. With reference to the Chief Election Commissioner
and other Election Commissioners (Appointment,
2023
Service Conditions and Tenure) Act 2023, choose the
incorrect statement- (Choose the most appropriate
related option)

Page No. : {{16}}

 [1] [1] The Chief Election Commissioner and other Election
Commissioners will be appointed by the President
on the recommendation of a selection committee.
[2] [2] This selection committee will include the Prime
Minister, a Union Cabinet Minister and the Leader
of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha/Leader of the
largest opposition party in the Lok Sabha.
[3]
[3] The salary and service conditions of the Chief
Election Commissioner and other Election
[4] Commissioners will be equivalent to that of the
[5] Cabinet Secretary.
[4] None of the above
Sol. [4]
[5] Question Not Attempted
50.
Sol. [4]
A. 50. Choose the correct statement from the following
statements-
B. A. Recently, the Supreme Court has declared sub-
classification in Scheduled Castes as constitutional.
15(4) 16(4)
B. This decision of the Supreme Court gives the states
the right to make sub-classification in Scheduled
Castes and classification under Articles 15(4) and
[1] A [2] B 16(4) of the Constitution.
Select the best option from the following-
[3] A B [4] A, B
[1] A only [2] B only
[5] [3] Both A and B [4] Neither A, nor B
Sol. [3] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [3]
(2024) 6-1 The Constitutional Bench of the Supreme Court justified
sub-classification in Scheduled Castes by a majority of
6 - 1 in the decision of State of Punjab and others vs.
Davinder Singh and others (2024). This decision will
give the states the power to give the benefit of reservation
and other benefits on priority to the backward Scheduled
51. Castes through sub-classification in Scheduled Castes.
51. From which article does the Supreme Court get the
often discussed "Power to do Complete Justice"?
[1] 13 [2] 32
[1] Article 13 [2] Article 32
[3] 21 [4] 142
[3] Article 21 [4] Article 142
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [4] Sol. [4]
142 Article 142 empowers the Supreme Court to do Complete
Justice in any case and matter by exercising its
142 jurisdiction. The decisions given by the Supreme Court
under Article 142 in the context of Complete Justice are
applicable in the whole of India like the law of
Parliament. The Supreme Court has used this power in
500 the context of the Bhopal gas tragedy, the ban on the
sale of liquor on national highways (500 meter radius),
the recent Chandigarh mayor election, Jet Airways case.
52. 23 52. Choose the correct statements from the following with
reference to the 23rd Law Commission-
A. The tenure of this commission will be 3 years from 1
A. 1 2024 31 2027
September 2024 to 31 August 2027.
3
Page No. : {{17}}
 B. B. The Law Commission is a statutory body.
C. C. Justice Rituraj Awasthi is the chairman of commission.
Choose the best option from the following-
[1] A only [2] B only
[1] A [2] B [3] C only [4] All of the above
[3] C [4] [5] Question Not Attempted
[5] Sol. [1]
Sol. [1] The tenure of the 23rd Law Commission will be from 1
23 1 2024 31 September 2024 to 31 August 2027. The Law
2027 Commission is a non-statutory body. The name of the
chairman of the Law Commission has not been
announced yet. Justice Rituraj Awasthi was the
22 chairman of the 22nd Law Commission.
53. 53. The first non-Congress central government in India
was formed under which coalition?
[1] [1] Janata Party
[2] Janata Party (Secular)
[2]
[3] National Democratic Alliance (NDA)
[3] (NDA) [4] United Progressive Alliance (UPA)
[4] (UPA) [5] Question Not Attempted
[5] Sol. [1]
Sol. [1] • The first non-Congress Central Government in India
• (1977-79) (1977-79) was formed in the leadership of Janata
Party. The Prime Minister in that government was
Morarji Desai.
• (1979-
• Choudhary Charan Singh (1979-80) became the
80) Prime Minister under the leadership of Janata Party
54. (Secular).
54. Arrange the following central coalition governments
A. in India in chronological order-
A. National Front
B.
B. United Front
C. (NDA) C. National Democratic Alliance (NDA)
D. (UPA) D. United Progressive Alliance (UPA)
Choose the most appropriate related option from
[1] A - B - C - D [2] B - D - A - C below-
[1] A - B - C - D [2] B - D - A - C
[3] D - A - B - C [4] C - B - D - A
[3] D - A - B - C [4] C - B - D - A
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [1] Sol. [1]
Tenure of above Coalition Governments:
• (1989-90) • National Front : Vishwanath Pratap Singh (1989-
• (1996-97) 90)
• (NDA) • United Front: HD Devegowda (1996-97)
• National Democratic Alliance (NDA): Atal Bihari
(1999-2004)
Vajpayee (1999-2004)
• (UPA) (2004-14) • United Progressive Alliance (UPA): Manmohan
55. Singh (2004-14)
55. Which of the following central coalition governments
[1] completed its term for the first time?
[1] Janata Party (Secular)
[2]
[2] United Front
[3] (UPA) [3] United Progressive Alliance (UPA)
[4] (NDA) [4] National Democratic Alliance (NDA)
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted

Page No. : {{18}}

Sol. [4] Sol. [4]
The first coalition government at the centre in India was
1977 (NDA : 1999- formed in 1977 in the leadership of Janata Party. But,
the central government formed in the leadership of
2004)
National Democratic Alliance (NDA, 1999-2004)
completed its term.
56. 56. Choose the incorrect statement from the following with
reference to coalition governments at the centre in
India. (Choose the most appropriate related option)
[1] Vishwanath Pratap Singh led a coalition
[1]
government called National Front.
[2] India has had continuous coalition governments
[2] 1996 2014 from 1996 to 2014.
[3] No political party has ever got a clear majority in
[3] the national general elections after 1984 in India.
[4] For the first time after 1984, a political party got a
clear majority in 2014 under the leadership of
[4] 2014 Narendra Modi and the National Democratic
Alliance formed the government.
[5] Question Not Attempted
[5] Sol. [3]
Sol. [3] For the first time after 1984, the Bharatiya Janata Party
got a clear majority in the national general elections in
1984 2014
2014 under the leadership of Narendra Modi and the
National Democratic Alliance (NDA) formed the
(NDA) government.
57. 57. Match the following-
Prime Minister Coalition Government
A. i. A. I.K. Gujral i. Samajwadi Janata Party
B. ii. B. Charan Singh ii. National Front
C. Chandrashekhar iii. United Front
C. iii.
D. V.P. Singh iv. Janata Party (Secular)
D. iv.
Choose the most appropriate related option from
below-
Code:
A B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D
[1] i iii ii iv [2] iii iv i ii [1] i iii ii iv [2] iii iv i ii
[3] ii iii i iv [4] iv i ii iii [3] ii iii i iv [4] iv i ii iii
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [2] Sol. [2]
• • I. K. Gujral : United Front
• • Charan Singh : Janata Party (Secular)
• Chandrashekhar : Samajwadi Janata Party or Janata
•
Dal (Socialist)
• • V. P. Singh : National Front
58. 58. In which article Parliament has been empowered to
legislate on any subject in the State List in national
[1] 247 [2] 249 interest?
[1] Article 247 [2] Article 249
[3] 312 [4] 252
[3] Article 312 [4] Article 252
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Page No. : {{19}}
Sol. [2] Sol. [2]
On passing a resolution by the Rajya Sabha with the
support of a two-thirds majority of the members present
and voting, the Parliament can legislate on any subject
in the State List in national interest which may apply to
the whole or any part of the territory of India.
59.
59. Consider the following statements-
A.
A. States have the power to entrust certain functions to
B. the Union.
, B. The Union Government of India can undertake the
executive, legislative or judicial functions of any
C. territory outside the territory of India.
C. Parliament has the exclusive power to make laws
with respect to any subject which is not enumerated
in the Concurrent List or the State List.
Choose the best option from the following which
indicates the true statements among the above-
[1] A B [2] B C [1] A and B only [2] B and C only
[3] A C [4] A, B C [3] A and C only [4] A, B and C
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [4] Sol. [4]
• 248
• Article 248: Under this, residuary legislative powers
have been provided to the Parliament.
• 258( ) • Article 258A: With the consent of the Government
of India, the Governor of a State, entrust either
conditionally or unconditionally, the functions
relating to any subject relating to the executive
power of the State to the Union Government.
• 260
• Article 260: The Government of India can undertake
the executive, legislative and judicial functions
vested in the government of another territory outside
60. its own territory.
60. Choose the best option from the given options in the
context of the following statement-
How long does a law made by Parliament on a subject
in the State List remain effective after the cease of a
Proclamation of Emergency?
[1] 6 [2] 1
[1] 6 weeks [2] 1 month
[3] 6 [4] 1
[3] 6 months [4] 1 year
[5]
[5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [3]
Sol. [3]
• 250 1
• Article 250(1): Under this, Parliament gets the power
to make a law for the whole or any part of the territory
of India on a subject in the State List when an
emergency is declared.
• 250 2 250 1 • Article 250(2): A law made under Article 250(1)
6 remains effective for a period of 6 months after the
expiry of the Proclamation of Emergency.

Page No. : {{20}}

61. 61. Consider the following statements regarding
Individual Privileges of MP.
A. They enjoy non-justiciable freedom of speech in
A.
Parliament.
B. B. They can refuse to give evidence and appear as a
witness in a case pending in a court while the
C. parliament is in session.
40 40 C. They cannot be arrested during the session of
Parliament and 40 days before the beginning and
40 days after the end of a session in criminal matters.
Choose the correct statements from the code given
below - (Choose the most appropriate related option)
[1] A B [2] A C [1] A and B only [2] A and C only
[3] B C [4] [3] B and C only [4] All of the above
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [1] Sol. [1]
They can't be arrested in civil matters and can be arrested
in criminal matters.
62. Which article deals with the provision of Surcharge
62.
on certain duties and taxes for the purposes of the
Union?
[1] 269 [2] 270 [1] Article 269A [2] Article 270
[3] 271 [4] 272 [3] Article 271 [4] Article 272
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [3] Sol. [3]
271 Under Article 271, Parliament may increase duties or
taxes by surcharge and the amount of such surcharge
forms part of the Consolidated Fund of India.
63. Choose the correct statements regarding the
63. Fundamental Duties mentioned in the Indian
Constitution-
A. A. Fundamental duties are for all the residents of India.
B. 42 B. All the present Fundamental duties were added by
1976 the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976.
Choose the most appropriate option from below-
[1] A only [2] B only
[1] A [2] B
[3] Both A and B [4] Neither A, nor B
[3] A B [4] A, B [5] Question Not Attempted
[5] Sol. [4]
Sol. [4] • Fundamental duties are for Indian citizens only and
• not for foreigners 51A 10 Fundamental duties under
51 10 42 Article were added by the 42nd Constitutional
1976 Amendment Act, 1976.
• The 11th Fundamental Duty was added by the 86th
• 11 86 2002
Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002.
64. Identify the correct statement(s) from the following
64. 51 regarding Article 51A(g) of the Indian Constitution.
A. On the basis of this article, in the case of Aruna Roy
A. vs Union of India, the Supreme Court directed the
Central Government to conduct classes related to
natural environment in all educational institutions
of the country.
B. It mentions the words forest, lake, river and wildlife.
B. , ,

Page No. : {{21}}

 Choose the most appropriate option from below-
[1] A [2] B [1] A only [2] B only
[3] Both A and B [4] Neither A, nor B
[3] A B [4] A, B
[5] Question Not Attempted
[5] Sol. [2]
Sol. [2] • Article 51A(g) : Protect and promote the natural
• 51 environment, which includes forests, lakes, rivers
and wildlife, and be kind to all living beings.
• On the basis of this, in the case of M.C. Mehta vs
Union of India, 1986, the Supreme Court directed
• the Central Government to conduct classes related
1986 to natural environment in all educational
institutions of the country.
65. Match List-I with List-II :
List-I
65. -I -II
A. Access to work, education and public assistance in
-I certain conditions.
A. , B. Raising the level of nutrition and the standard of
B. living.
C. Participation of workers in the management of
C.
industries.
D. D. Protection of monuments of national importance.
-II List-II
i. i. "Primary duty" of the State
ii. "Provisions" by the State
ii.
iii. "Obligation" of the State
iii. iv. "Suitable legislation" by the State
iv. Choose the most appropriate related option from
below-
Code:
A B C D A B C D
A B C D A B C D
[1] ii iii iv i [2] iv iii i ii
[1] ii iii iv i [2] iv iii i ii
[3] iii iv i ii [4] ii i iv iii
[3] iii iv i ii [4] ii i iv iii [5] Question Not Attempted
[5] Sol. [4]
Sol. [4] • Article 41: The State shall make effective provision
• 41 , , for the enjoyment of the right to work, to education
and to public assistance in cases of unemployment,
,
old age, sickness, work and disablement.
• Article 47: The State shall regard the raising of the
• 47 standard of nutrition and living of its people and
the improvement of their health as one of its primary
duties.
• Article 49: It shall be the obligation of the State to
• 49
protect every monument or place or object of artistic
or historical interest declared to be of national
importance.
• 43 • Article 43A: The State shall take steps by suitable
legislation or in any other manner to secure the
participation of workers in the management of
undertakings, establishments or other organisations
engaged in any industry.
Page No. : {{22}}
66. 37 66. According to Article 37 of the Constitution of India,
the Directive Principles of State Policy are? (Choose
the most appropriate option)
[1]
[1] Basic in the governance of the country.
[2] [2] Necessary in the governance of the country.
[3] [3] Fundamental in the governance of the country.
[4] [4] Indispensable in the governance of the country
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [3] Sol. [3]
37 According to Article 37, the Directive Principles of State
Policy shall not be enforceable by the court, but
nevertheless the principles laid down in it are
fundamental in the governance of the country and it
shall be the duty of the State to implement these
67. 3 principles in making laws.
67. Which of the following powers belongs to the
Parliament in relation to Article 3 of the Indian
A. Constitution ?
B. A. To increase or diminish the area of a State.
C. B. To alter the boundaries of a State.
D. C. To alter the name of a State.
D. To admit or establish new States.
Choose the most appropriate option from below-
[1] B, C D [2] A, B D
[1] B, C and D [2] A, B and D
[3] A C [4] A, B C [3] A and C only [4] A, B and C
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [4] Sol. [4]
• 2: • Article 2 : Parliament may by law admit or establish
new States.
3: Article 3 : Parliament may by law-
• Form a new State by separating its territory from
•
any State or by combining two or more States or parts
of States or by combining any territory with a part of
any State.
• Increase the area of any State.
• • Diminish the area of any State.
• • Alter the boundaries of any State.
• Alter the name of any State.
•
68. Which of the following Directive Principles were
• added to the Constitution by the 42nd Constitutional
68. 42 Amendment Act 1976-
1976 A. Securing opportunities for the healthy development
A. of children.
B. Providing equal justice and free legal aid.
B.
C. Securing the participation of workers in the
C. management of industries.
D. , D. Eliminating inequality in opportunities for income,
prestige and facilities.
E. E. Promotion of co-operative societies.
Choose the most appropriate related option from
below-
[1] A, C D [2] B, C E [1] A, C and D [2] B, C and E
[3] A, B C [4] A, B E [3] A, B and C [4] A, B and E
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Page No. : {{23}}
Sol. [3] Sol. [3]
42 1976 Four Directive Principles were added by the 42nd
Constitutional Amendment Act] 1976-
• 39( ) • Article 39(f) : Securing opportunities for the healthy
development of children.
• Article 39A : Providing equal justice and free legal
• 39 aid.
• Article 43A : Securing the participation of workers
• 43 in the management of industries.
• Article 48A : Protection and improvement of
• 48 environment and safeguarding of forests and
wildlife.
44th Constitutional Amendment, 1978 :
44 1978 :
• Article 38(2): Eliminating inequalities in income,
• 38(2) : and opportunities of status and facilities.
86th Constitutional Amendment, 2002 :
86 2002 : • Under this, primary education was made a
• 21 fundamental right under Article 21A.
• Article 45 : Provision for free education up to the
age of 6 years.
• 45 : 6
97th Constitutional Amendment, 2011:
97 2011 :
• Article 43B : Promotion of Co-operative Societies.
• 43 : 69. The term 'office of profit' is mentioned in which of the
69. following articles relating to Fundamental Rights in
the Constitution of India?
[1] Article 15 [2] Article 16
[1] 15 [2] 16 [3] Article 17 [4] Article 18
[5] Question Not Attempted
[3] 17 [4] 18
Sol. [4]
[5]
70. Identify the correctly matched pair(s) from the
Sol. [4]
following-
70. Case Judgment
A. A.K. Gopalan vs - The Supreme Court upheld the
A. State of Madras constitutionality of preventive
(1950) (1950) detention laws.
B. Shri Shankari - In this decision, the Supreme
B. Prasad Singh Deo Court held that the power to
(1951) 368 vs Union of India amend the Constitution under
(1951) Article 368 is absolute and
unrestricted.
C. Kesavananda - The Supreme Court held the
C. 24 25 Bharati vs State 24th and 25th Constitutional
(1973) of Kerala (1973) Amendment Acts to be fully
valid.
D. D. I.C. Golaknath - The Supreme Court held that
(1967) 368 vs State of Punjab the power to amend the
(1967) Constitution under Article 368
is not unlimited.
Choose the most appropriate option from below-
[1] B, C D [2] A, B D
[1] B, C and D [2] A, B and D
[3] A, C D [4] A, B C [3] A, C and D [4] A, B and C
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Page No. : {{24}}
Sol. [2] Sol. [2]
• 1973 • Keshavananda Bharati v State of Kerala (1973) :
24 Supreme Court upheld 24 th Constitution
Amendment Act.
• 25
• The second part of the 25th Constitutional
Amendment Act was declared as it limited the
court's power of review.
71. 12 71. Which of the following subjects is not related to the
"12th Schedule" of the Constitution?
A. A. Public distribution system.
B. B. Economic and social development scheme.
C. , C. Water supply for domestic, industrial and
commercial purposes.
D.
D. Rural housing.
Choose the most appropriate option from below-
[1] A B [2] B C [1] A and B only [2] B and C only
[3] C D [4] [3] C and D only [4] All of the above
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [2] Sol. [2]
11 243 29 11th Schedule (Article 243G) : 29 Subjects
• • Public distribution system
• • Rural housing
• Fuel and fodder
•
• Fisheries
•
• Social forestry and farm forestry
•
12th Schedule (Article 243W) : 18 Subjects
12 243 18 • Regulation of land use and construction of
• buildings.
• • Economic and social development scheme.
• , • Water supply for domestic, industrial and
commercial purposes.
72. 26
72. Under Article 26 of the Indian Constitution, every
religious denomination or any section thereof is
, guaranteed the right to freedom to practise religious
activities, subject to which provision?
A. B. A. Public order B. Morality
C. D. C. Security of the State D. Incitement to crime
E. E. Health
Choose the most appropriate option from below-
[1] A, C and D [2] B, C and E
[1] A, C D [2] B, C E
[3] A, B and C [4] A, B and E
[3] A, B C [4] A, B E
[5] Question Not Attempted
[5]
Sol. [4]
Sol. [4]
73. When was the first meeting of the Drafting Committee
73. of the Constituent Assembly held?
[1] 19 , 1947 [2] 30 , 1947 [1] 19 October, 1947 [2] 30 August, 1947
[3] 9 , 1948 [4] 29 , 1948 [3] 9 December, 1948 [4] 29 August, 1948
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [2] Sol. [2]
Page No. : {{25}}
74. 74. Consider the following statements
A. A. No amendment was made in the Fundamental
Rights in the first two years after the Constitution
came into full operation.
B. B. All Fundamental Rights are available only against
the State.
Identify the correct statement(s) from the above-
(Choose the most appropriate option)
[1] A [2] B
[1] A only [2] B only
[3] A B [4] A, B [3] Both A and B [4] Neither A, nor B
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [4] Sol. [4]
• 1951 • Several amendments were made in the Fundamental
15(4), 19(2) Rights by the First Constitutional Amendment, 1951.
Such as- Article 15(4), A part of Article 19(2), Article
31 31
31A, Article 31B.
• • Some Fundamental Rights are available against the
17 ( State and some against private individuals. Such
) as- Article 17 (Abolition of Untouchability) it is also
75. available against private individuals.
75. Consider the following statements-
A.
A. Along with Parliament the State Legislature has the
power to make laws to give effect to the Fundamental
B. Rights.
B. The Fundamental Rights are not unlimited but are
enforceable by the court.
Identify the correct statement(s) from the above-
[1] A [2] B (Choose the most appropriate option)
[3] A B [4] A, B [1] A only [2] B only
[5] [3] Both A and B [4] Neither A, nor B
Sol. [2] [5] Question Not Attempted
35 Sol. [2]
Article 35 empowers only the Parliament and not the
State Legislature to give effect to the Fundamental Rights.
76. 76. The Vice-President can be removed from his office
by-
[1] Choose the most appropriate option from below-
[1] A resolution of the Rajya Sabha passed by an
effective majority and agreed by the Lok Sabha.
[2] 23
[2] 2/3rd majority vote of members present and voting
in both the houses.
[3] [3] An executive order of the President of India.
[4] 23 [4] 2/3rd majority vote of complete strength in both the
houses.
[5]
[5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [1]
Sol. [1]
Resolution must be passed by an effective majority by
Rajya Sabha and agreed by the Lok Sabha.
77. 77. Consider the following statements regarding the office
of Vice-President-
A. He is a member of the Rajya Sabha.
A.
B. He can resign from his office at any time by
B. addressing the resignation to the President.
C. He is not eligible for re-election to the post of Vice
C. President.
Page No. : {{26}}
 Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(Choose the most appropriate related option)
[1] B [2] A C [1] B only [2] A and C only
[3] B C [4] A, B C [3] B and C only [4] A, B and C
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [1] Sol. [1]
78. 78. Who among the following hold office at the pleasure
of the President ?
A. Prime Minister
A.
B. Attorney General
B.
C. Vice-President
C.
Choose the most appropriate related option from
below-
[1] A [2] A B [1] A only [2] A and B only
[3] B C [4] A, B C [3] B and C only [4] A, B and C
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [2] Sol. [2]
79. 79. Consider the following statements regarding
ordinance power of President-
A. A. The President can promulgate an ordinance only
when both the houses of Parliament are not in
B. session.
B. The decision of the President to issue an ordinance
cannot be questioned in a court of law.
Which of the above statements are incorrect- (Choose
the most appropriate option)
[1] A [2] B
[1] A only [2] B only
[3] A B [4] A B
[3] Both A and B [4] Neither A nor B
[5]
[5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [3]
Sol. [3]
President can issue ordinance even if only one of the
house is not in session. Ordinance can be challenged in
the courts (DC Wadhwa case).
80. 80. Consider the following statements regarding
qualifications of President-
A. 35 A. He should have completed 35 years of age.
B. B. He should not hold any office of profit under the
Union Government or any State Government.
C. C. He should be qualified for election as a member of
the Lok Sabha.
How many of the above statements is/are correct-
(Choose the most appropriate option)
[1] Only one [2] Only two
[1] [2] [3] All three [4] None of these
[3] [4] [5] Question Not Attempted
[5] Sol. [3]
Sol. [3] 81. Which among the following Veto power cannot be
81. exercised by the President of India ? (Choose the most
appropriate option)
[1] [2] [1] Absolute Veto [2] Qualified Veto
[3] [4] [3] Suspensive Veto [4] Pocket Veto
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [2] Sol. [2]

Page No. : {{27}}

82. 82. Consider the correct statements regarding the Speaker
of the Lok Sabha-
A. A. The speaker once elected resigns from his party
membership.
B. He can be removed by a resolution passed by a
B.
majority of all the then members of the Lok Sabha.
C. He resigns by writing to the Deputy Speaker of Lok
C. Sabha.
Choose the most appropriate related option from below-
[1] A B [2] B C [1] A and B only [2] B and C only
[3] C [4] A, B C [3] C only [4] A, B and C
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [2] Sol. [2]
83. 83. Consider the following statements with reference to
the both houses of the Parliament:
A. 83 A. Article 83 states that the Rajya Sabha shall not be
subject to dissolution.
B. Only the speaker of the Lok Sabha in consultation
B. with the central government can dissolve the Lok
Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(Choose the most appropriate option)
[1] A [2] B [1] A only [2] B only
[3] A B [4] A, B [3] Both A and B [4] Neither A, nor B
[5] Question Not Attempted
[5]
Sol. [1]
Sol. [1]
84. Which of the following situation will lead to
84.
disqualification of members of Parliament-
A. Holding office of Profit.
A. B. Person is declared insolvent.
B. C. Arrested under Preventive detention Act
C. D. Declared mentally retarded by Court.
D. Choose the most appropriate option from below-
[1] A, C and D [2] B, C and D
[1] A, C D [2] B, C D [3] A, B and D [4] All of the above
[3] A, B D [4] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [3]
[5]
85. When does the Model Code of Conduct for guidance
Sol. [3]
of candidates and political parties comes into effect?
85. Choose the most appropriate option from below-
[1] Immediately after the announcement of the schedule
of elections.
[1] [2] Immediately after the last date for filing nominations.
[2] [3] Immediately after the last date for withdrawal of
[3] nomination.
[4] 48 hours before the actual election starts.
[4] 48
[5] Question Not Attempted
[5] Sol. [1]
Sol. [1] 86. Which of the following bill was not passed in a joint
86. sitting of Parliament? (Choose the most appropriate
option)
[1] , 1960 [1] Dowry Prohibition Bill, 1960
[2] , 1977 [2] Banking Service Commission (Repeal) Bill, 1977
[3] , 1967 [3] Unlawful Activities Prevention Bill, 1967
[4] Prevention of Terrorism Bill, 2002
[4] , 2002
[5] Question Not Attempted
[5] Sol. [3]
Sol. [3]
Page No. : {{28}}
87. 87. Consider the following statements and choose the
correct statements from below :
A. The Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or to
A. amend a Money Bill.
B. Rajya Sabha cannot Vote on the Demands for
B. Grants.
C. C. Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the Annual Financial
statement.
Choose the most appropriate related option from
[1] A [2] A B below-
[3] B C [4] A, B C [1] A only [2] A and B only
[5] [3] B and C only [4] A, B and C
Sol. [2] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [2]
Rajya Sabha can discuss the Annual financial
88. statement.
88. There is a Parliamentary system of Government in
[1] India because the- (Choose the most appropriate
related option)
[2]
[1] Federalism is a part of Basic structure of
[3] Constitution.
[4] [2] Parliament is empowered to amend the constitution.
[5] [3] Council of Ministers is responsible to the Lok Sabha.
Sol. [3] [4] Rajya Sabha represents the states in the Centre.
[5] Question Not Attempted
89.
Sol. [3]
89. Consider the following statements regarding a No
A. Confidence Motion-
B. A. There is no mention of a No confidence motion in
the constitution of India.
B. A motion of No confidence can be introduced in the
Lok Sabha only.
[1] A [2] B Choose the incorrect statement from the above-
[3] A B [4] A, B (Choose the most appropriate option)
[5] [1] A only [2] B only
[3] Both A and B [4] Neither A, nor B
Sol. [4]
[5] Question Not Attempted
90. , Sol. [4]
A. 90. With reference to the Prime Minister, consider the
following statements:
B. A. His term of office is not fixed and he holds office
during the pleasure of the President.
C.
B. His salary and allowances are determined by the
President.
C. The death of an incumbent Prime Minister
automatically dissolves the council of ministers.
[1] A B [2] B C Which of the statements given above are correct?
(Choose the most appropriate option)
[3] A C [4] A, B C
[1] A and B only [2] B and C only
[5] [3] A and C only [4] A, B and C
Sol. [3] [5] Question Not Attempted
91. Sol. [3]
91. Consider the following statements regarding Cabinet
A. Committee-
A. These are extra-constitutional committees.
B.
B. They are set-up by the President.
C.
C. Non-Cabinet ministers cannot be appointed as their
members.
Page No. : {{29}}
 How many of the above are incorrect statements-
(Choose the most appropriate related option)
[1] [2] [1] Only one [2] Only two
[3] [4] [3] All the three [4] None of these
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [2] Sol. [2]
Cabinet committee's are constituted by the Prime
Minister and Non-Cabinet Ministers can also be
appointed in cabinet committee's.
92. Consider the following statements-
92.
A. Meghalaya was known as North-East Frontier
A. 1972 NEFA Agency (NEFA) before 1972.
B. Arunachal Pradesh was made a sub-state under the
B. 1969 state of Assam in 1969.
Choose the incorrect statement from the above-
(Choose the most appropriate option)
[1] Both A and B [2] Neither A, nor B
[1] A B [2] A B [3] B only [4] A only
[3] B [4] A [5] Question Not Attempted
[5] Sol. [1]
Sol. [1] • The area of present Arunachal Pradesh was
considered as North-East Frontier Agency till 1972,
• 1972
which was a part of Assam.
(NEFA)
• Meghalaya was made a sub-state within Assam
state in 1969. In 1971, Meghalaya was formed as
• 1969 the 21st state.
1971 21 93. Consider the following statements with reference to
the composition of the Rajya Sabha:
93. A. All states are given equal representation in the Rajya
Sabha.
A. B. The Fourth Schedule of the Constitution deals with
B. the allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha to the states
and union territories.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
(Choose the most appropriate option)
[1] A only [2] B only
[1] A [2] B
[3] Both A and B [4] Neither A, nor B
[3] A B [4] A, B
[5] Question Not Attempted
[5]
Sol. [1]
Sol. [1]
94. Which of the following bills lapses on the dissolution
94.
of the Lok Sabha?
A. A bill passed by the Lok Sabha but pending in the
A. Rajya Sabha.
B. B. A bill passed by both houses but pending for the
assent of the President.
C. C. A bill pending in the Rajya Sabha but not passed by
the Lok Sabha.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(Choose the most appropriate option)
[1] A [2] B C [1] A only [2] B and C
[3] C [4] A C [3] C only [4] A and C
[5] Question Not Attempted
[5]
Sol. [1] Sol. [1]

Page No. : {{30}}

95. 95. Who among the following are included in the electoral
college for the election of the President of India?
A. The nominated members of both the Houses of
A. Parliament.
B. B. The elected members of the legislative assemblies of
C. the states.
C. The elected members of the legislative assemblies of
the Union Territories.
[1] A B [2] B C Choose the most appropriate related option from
[3] A C [4] A, B C below-
[5] [1] A and B only [2] B and C only
Sol. [2] [3] A and C only [4] A, B and C
96. [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [2]
96. Consider the following statements with reference to
A. parliamentary proceedings in India:
A. The Attorney General of India has the right to speak
and take part in the proceedings of either house or
any joint sitting of both houses.
B. , ,
B. A minister, who is not a member of either house,
cannot participate in the proceedings of any house.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(Choose the most appropriate option)
[1] A [2] B [1] A only [2] B only
[3] Both A and B [4] Neither A, nor B
[3] A B [4] A, B [5] Question Not Attempted
[5] Sol. [1]
Sol. [1] 97. Consider the following:
97. Assertion (A): The President of India is an integral part
(A) : of the Parliament.
Reason (R): A bill passed by both Houses of Parliament
(R) :
cannot become law without the President’s assent.
Choose the most appropriate related option from
below-
[1] A R , R, A [1] A and R both are correct, and R is the correct
[2] A R , R, A explanation for A.
[2] A and R both are correct, but R is the NOT the correct
[3] A , R explanation for A.
[4] A , R [3] A is correct, R is incorrect.
[5] [4] A is incorrect, R is correct.
Sol. [1] [5] Question Not Attempted
98. Sol. [1]
A. B. 98. Consider the following-
A. Manipur B. Mizoram
C. D.
C. Nagaland D. Assam
The correct order of the above states according to their
establishment as full statehood in the Indian Union
[1] C - D - B - A [2] C - D - A - B is- (Choose the most appropriate option)
[3] D - C - B - A [4] D - C - A - B [1] C - D - B - A [2] C - D - A - B
[3] D - C - B - A [4] D - C - A - B
[5]
[5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [4] Sol. [4]
• • At the time of independence, Assam was formed as
a state in India.
• 1962 • In 1962, Nagaland was separated from Assam and
made a state.
Page No. : {{31}}
 • 1971 • According to the North Eastern Areas
¤ : 19 UT (Reorganisation) Act, 1971-
¤ Manipur : 19th State (was UT earlier)
¤ : 20 UT
¤ Tripura : 20th State (was UT earlier)
¤ : 21 ¤ Meghalaya : 21st State (was a sub-state earlier)
¤ : UT ¤ Mizoram : was made UT.
¤ : UT ¤ Arunachal Pradesh : was made UT.
• 1986 : 23 • Mizoram State Act, 1986 : Mizoram was made the
23rd State.
• Arunachal Pradesh State Act, 1986 : Arunachal
• 1986 :
Pradesh was made the 24th State.
24
99. Who administers the oath of office and secrecy to the
99. Council of Ministers?
[1] [1] President
[2] [2] Prime Minister
[3] [3] Chief Justice of India
[4] [4] Vice-President
[5] Question Not Attempted
[5]
Sol. [1]
Sol. [1]
100. Which of the following are elected by a system of
100. proportional representation by a means of the single
transferable vote?
A. A. Members of Lok Sabha
B. All the members of Rajya Sabha
B.
C. All members of the state legislative council
C. D. Vice-President of India
D. Choose the most appropriate related option from
below-
[1] A and B only [2] B and C only
[1] A B [2] B C
[3] D only [4] B, C and D
[3] D [4] B, C D [5] Question Not Attempted
[5] Sol. [3]
Sol. [3] 101. Statement : Everyone should read a newspaper daily.
101. : Arguments :
I. Yes, because it will help knowing about what is
:
happening around and increasing general
I. awarenss.
II. No, because everyone does not prepare for
II. competitive exams.
Choose the most appropriate related option from below-
[1] I II [1] Both argument I and II are strong
[2] Neither argument I nor II is strong
[2] I II
[3] Only argument I is strong
[3] I
[4] Only argument II is strong
[4] II [5] Question Not Attempted
[5] Sol. [3]
Sol. [3] 102. Read the given statements, labelled Assertion (A) and
102. (A) (R) Reason (R) and select the most appropriate option with
respect to them.
Assertion (A) : Deforestation is undesirable because of
(A) :
its heavy impact on soil erosion.
Reason (R) : Erosion of soil from the surface due to heavy
(R) : and intense precipitation is accelerated due to the
cutting of trees on a mass scale.
Page No. : {{32}}
 Choose the most appropriate related option from
[1] 'A' 'R' 'R', 'A' below-
[1] Both statements 'A' and 'R' are true and 'R' is the
correct explanation of 'A'.
[2] 'A' 'R'
[2] Statement 'A' is true but statement 'R' is false.
[3] 'A' 'R' [3] Both statements 'A' and 'R' are false.
[4] 'A' 'R' 'R', 'A' [4] Both statements 'A' and 'R' are true but 'R' is not the
correct explanation of 'A'.
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [1] Sol. [1]
103. I, 103. In the question, a statement is given followed by three
II III assumptions I, II and III. You have to take the statement
to be true even if it seems to be at variance with
commonly known facts. You have to decide which of
the given assumptions, if any, follow the given
statement.
Statement : An advertisement says “If you want the
'Z' best training in civil services, join our class 'Z'”.
Assumptions :
I. I. People want training for civil services.
II. People read the advertisement.
II.
III. People want quality training.
III.
Choose the most appropriate option from below-
[1] Only assumption II is implicit.
[1] II [2] Only assumptions I and III are implicit.
[2] I III [3] All assumptions are implicit.
[3] [4] Only assumptions I and II are implicit.
[4] I II [5] Question Not Attempted
[5] Sol. [3]
Sol. [3] 104. Statement : Militants are now attacking the police in
104. several states of India in a bid to demoralize them and
to choke the intelligence network.
Course of Action :
I. Government should formulate a plan to equip its
: policemen with sophisticated weapons and
I. equipment besides making an effort to end militancy
in a peaceful way.
II. The police department should send strict
instructions to all the police officers concerned that
II.
every policeman on duty should have proper gear
like a bullet-proof vest and automatic weapons to
counter any sudden attack.
Choose the most appropriate related option from
below-
[1] I [1] If only I follows
[2] II [2] If only II follows
[3] If nither I nor II follows
[3] I II
[4] If both I and II follows.
[4] I II
[5] Question Not Attempted
[5] Sol. [4]
Sol. [4]
Page No. : {{33}}
105. I II 105. Consider the following question and arguments
numbered I and II. You have to decide which of the
arguments is a strong argument.
Question : Should Indian scientists working abroad be
called back to India?
Arguments :
I. I. Yes, they must serve the motherland first and forget
about discoveries, honours, facilities, etc.
II. II. No, we have enough talent; let them stay where they
want.
[1] I Choose the most appropriate option from below-
[2] II [1] Only argument I is strong.
[3] I II [2] Only argument II is strong.
[3] Either argument I or II is strong.
[4] I II
[4] Neither argument I nor II is strong.
[5]
[5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [4]
Sol. [4]
106.
106. Read the given statement and conclusions carefully
and select which of the conclusions logically follow(s)
the statement.
Statement : The changing trends in Indian cinema has
witnessed big budget star powered movies doing poor
business and a lot of small budget content driven movies
earning good business.
Conclusion :
I. I. The low budget movies are huge hits due to their
story content irrespective of the star cast.
II. The big budget movies are flop at box office for
II. casting big stars.
Choose the most appropriate related option from
below-
[1] I [1] Only conclusion I follows.
[2] II [2] Only conclusion II follows
[3] I II [3] Both, conclusions I and II follow.
[4] I II [4] Neither conclusion I nor II follow.
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [1] Sol. [1]
107. I 107. In the question, a statement is given followed by two
assumptions I and II. You have to take the given
II
statement to be true even if it seems to be at variance
with commonly known facts. You have to decide which
of the given assumptions, if any, follow the given
statement.
Statement : Unemployment allowance should be given
to all unemployed youth in India above the age of 21
years.
Assumptions :
I.
I. The government has sufficient funds to provide
allowance to all unemployed youth.
II. II. There are unemployed youth in India who need
monetary help.
Page No. : {{34}}
 Choose the most appropriate option from below-
[1] II [1] Only assumption II is implicit.
[2] I II [2] Neither assumption I nor II is implicit.
[3] I II [3] Both assumptions I and II are implicit.
[4] Only assumption I is implicit.
[4] I
[5] Question Not Attempted
[5]
Sol. [1]
Sol. [1]
108. Statement : The recent survey has revealed that the
108. :
construction activity for the metro in the city has
increased air-pollution in the short-term by 30%.
30% Course of Action :
: I. The construction of the metro should be put to a halt
I. in the city.
II. II. The government must seek over-the counter
measures like screening the whole construction site
to check the spread of air pollution caused by the
construction of the metro.
III.
III. Dust from construction activity should be controlled
by using fine water sprays to dampen down the site.
Choose the most appropriate related option from
[1] I II below-
[2] I, II III [1] Only I and II follows.
[3] II III [2] I, II and III follows.
[4] III [3] Only II and III follows.
[5] [4] Only III follow.
Sol. [3] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [3]
109.
109. A statement followed by two conclusion is given.
Identify which of the given conclusions logically
follow(s) the statement.
: Statement : During election period, politicians usually
huri abuses at candidates of other parties and some
often make vulgar gestures too.
: Conclusions :
I. I. Women and children should not be allowed to
attend election rallies.
II. Election Commission should issue a strict code of
II. conduct for all politicians.
Choose the most appropriate related option from
below-
[1] I [1] Only conclusion I follow.
[2] II [2] Only conclusion II follow.
[3] I II [3] Either conclusion I or II follows.
[4] Neither conclusion I nor II follows.
[4] I II
[5] Question Not Attempted
[5]
Sol. [2]
Sol. [2]
110. Statement : Introduction of multiplication tables in the
110. : 2 syllabus for class 2 is not advisable.
: Arguments :
I. I. Children in class 2 are too young to understand the
mathematical concept.
II. II. Burdening young children with such complex
concepts may create fear of the subject.

Page No. : {{35}}

 Choose the most appropriate related option from
[1] I II below-
[2] I [1] Neither argument I nor II is strong.
[2] Only argument I is strong.
[3] II
[3] Only arguments II is strong.
[4] I II
[4] Both arguments I and II are strong.
[5]
[5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [4]
Sol. [4]
111. 10%
111. A man deposits 10% of his salary in PF (Provident
30% Fund). He saves 30% of the remaining. The ratio of his
expenditure on medicine and groceries is 3 : 4 of the
3:4 2700 remaining salary after saving. If his expenditure on
medicine was Rs.2700, find his monthly salary.
[1] Rs.10,000 [2] Rs.15,000 [1] Rs.10,000 [2] Rs.15,000
[3] Rs.30,000 [4] Rs.20,000
[3] Rs.30,000 [4] Rs.20,000
[5] Question Not Attempted
[5]
Sol. [1]
Sol. [1]
Let the monthly salary of the man = m
=m
So, remaining salary after depositing in PF and saving
90 70
90 70 = m  = 0.63 m
= m  = 0.63 m 100 100
100 100 Ratio of expenditure on medicine and grocery = 3 : 4
=3:4 Let total expenditure on medicine and grocery
= 3n + 4n = 7n = 3n + 4n = 7n
3n = 2700 Given that, 3n = 2700
 n = 900  n = 900
7n = 0.63 m Now, 7n = 0.63 m
 7 × 900 = 0.63 m  7 × 900 = 0.63 m
 m = = Rs.10,000  m = = Rs.10,000
112. 7 5 8 112. 7 men, 5 women and 8 children were given the task of
2000 distributing 2000 books to the students of a school in
three days. All of them distributed books on the first
1 3
day. On the second day, 1 man, 3 women and 3 children
3 4 5 and on the third day, 4 men and 5 children were
absent. If the ratio of the number of books distributed
5:4:2 by a man, a woman and a child in a day is 5 : 4 : 2
respectively, then how many books were distributed
in total on the second day?
[1] 200 [2] 600
[1] 200 [2] 600
[3] 400 [4] 800
[3] 400 [4] 800
[5]
[5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [2]
Sol. [2]
Let the number of books distributed by a man, a woman
5x, 4x 2x
and a child in a day be 5x, 4x and 2x respectively.
Then, number of books distributed on the first day
= (7 × 5x + 5 × 4x + 8 × 2x) = 71x = (7 × 5x + 5 × 4x + 8 × 2x) = 71x
Number of books distributed on the second day
= (6 × 5x + 2 × 4x + 5 × 2x) = 48x = (6 × 5x + 2 × 4x + 5 × 2x) = 48x
Number of books distributed on the third day
= (3 × 5x + 5 × 4x + 3 × 2x) = 41x = (3 × 5x + 5 × 4x + 3 × 2x) = 41x
 71x + 48x + 41x = 2000  71x + 48x + 41x = 2000
Page No. : {{36}}
  160x = 2000  160x = 2000
2000 25 2000 25
x= = x= =
160 2 160 2
So, number of books distributed on the second day
 25   25 
= 48x =  48  2  = 600 = 48x =  48  2  = 600
   
113. 113. Some students (only boys and girls) from different
20% 15% schools appeared in the Olympiad examination. 20%
of the boys and 15% of the girls failed the examination.
The number of boys who passed the examination was
70 more than the number of girls who passed the
70 90 examination. A total of 90 students failed. Find the
number of students who appeared in the examination.
[1] 350 [2] 420 [1] 350 [2] 420
[3] 400 [4] 500 [3] 400 [4] 500
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [4] Sol. [4]
=x Number of boys appearing in the exam = x
=y Number of girls appearing in the exam = y
Now according to the question,

4x 17y 4x 17y
  70   70
5 20 5 20
16x – 17y = 1400 ...(i) 16x – 17y = 1400 ...(i)

20x 15y x 3y 20x 15y x 3y

  90    90 and   90    90
100 100 5 20 100 100 5 20
 4x + 3y = 1800 ...(ii)  4x + 3y = 1800 ...(ii)
(ii) 4 (i) (ii) On multiplying (ii) by 4 and subtracting (i) and (ii) we
get
–29y = –5800  y = 200 –29y = –5800  y = 200
(ii) From equation (ii),

1800  3y 1200 1800  3y 1200

x   300 x   300
4 4 4 4
Now, total number of students present
= x + y = 200 + 300 = 500 = x + y = 200 + 300 = 500
114. 114. The cost of manufacturing a car consists of three items:
cost of materials, labour and overheads. In one year,
the cost of these items was in the ratio of 4 : 3 : 2. The
4:3:2 next year the cost of materials increased by 10%, cost
10% 8% of labour increased by 8%, but overheads decreased
5% by 5%. Find the percentage increase in the price of the
car.
[1] 10% [2] 12% [1] 10% [2] 12%
[3] 8% [4] 6%
[3] 8% [4] 6%
[5] Question Not Attempted
[5]
Sol. [4]
Sol. [4]
Suppose material, labour and overhead in the first year
are Rs.4x, Rs.3x and Rs.2x respectively.
Rs.4x, Rs.3x Rs.2x
Then, cost of material in the second year

Page No. : {{37}}

  110  440x  110  440x
= Rs.4x 110% = Rs.  100  4x  = Rs. = 110% of Rs.4x = Rs.  100  4x  = Rs.
  100   100
Cost of labour in the second year
 108  324x
= Rs.3x 108% = Rs.  100  3x  = Rs.  108  324x
  100 = 108% of Rs.3x = Rs.  100  3x  = Rs.
  100
Overhead in the second year
 95  190x
= Rs.2x 95% = Rs.  100  2x  = Rs.
  100  95  190x
= Rs.(4x + 3x + 2x) = Rs.9x. = 95% of Rs.2x = Rs.  100  2x  = Rs.
  100
Price of car in the first year = Rs.(4x + 3x + 2x) = Rs.9x.
 440x 324x 190x  954x Price of car in the second year
= Rs.  100  100  100  = Rs.
  100  440x 324x 190x  954x
= Rs.  100  100  100  = Rs.
  100
 954x  54x
=Rs.  100  9x  = Rs.
  100  954x  54x
Increase in price =Rs.  100  9x  = Rs.
  100
 54x 1 
 % =  100  9x  100  % = 6%.
 
 54x 1 
115. B1, B2 B3  Increase% =  100  9x  100  % = 6%
 
20%, 15% 32%
115. A factory has three types of machines B1, B2 and B3
B1, B2 B3 3%, 7% 2%
which produce 20%, 15% and 32% of the total products
respectively. Also, machines B1, B2 and B3 produce 3%,
7% and 2% defective products respectively. Find the
[1] 18% [2] 30% percentage of non-defective products.
[3] 53% [4] 64% [1] 18% [2] 30%
[5] [3] 53% [4] 64%
Sol. [4] [5] Question Not Attempted
=x Sol. [4]
 B1 = 20% x Let total production = x
B2 = 15% x  Production of B1 = 20% x
B3 = 32% x Production of B2 = 15% x
= x 20% 97% Production of B3 = 32% x
x 15% 93% + x 32% 98% Non-defective production = 97% of 20% of x
= 64.71% x =  64% 93% of 15% of x + 98% of 32% of x
116. 3 = 64.71: x =  64%
116. A film was screened for 3 days-Monday, Tuesday and
Wednesday. The respective ratio between the number
2:3:5
of viewers on Monday, Tuesday and Wednesday was
2:3:4 2 : 3 : 5 respectively and the price charged for the ticket
for the three days was in the ratio of 2 : 3 : 4 respectively.
8800 If the difference between the amount earned on
Tuesday and Wednesday was Rs 8800. What was the
[1] Rs.24,800 [2] Rs.27,500 total amount earned on the three days?
[1] Rs.24,800 [2] Rs.27,500
[3] Rs.26,400 [4] Rs.22,820
[3] Rs.26,400 [4] Rs.22,820
[5]
[5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [3]
Sol. [3]
Let the number of viewers on Monday, Tuesday and
2p, 3p 5p Wednesday be 2p, 3p and 5p respectively.
2q, Let the price charged on Monday, Tuesday and
3q 4q Wednesday be 2q, 3q and 4q respectively.
Page No. : {{38}}
 According to the question,
4q × 5p – 3p × 3q = 8800 4q × 5p – 3p × 3q = 8800
20pq – 9pq = 8800 20pq – 9pq = 8800
 11pq = 8800  pq = 800  11pq = 8800  pq = 800
Now, total amount earned on three days
= 4pq + 9pq + 20pq = 4pq + 9pq + 20pq
= 4 × 800 + 9 × 800 + 20 × 800 = 4 × 800 + 9 × 800 + 20 × 800
= Rs.(3,200 + 7,200 + 16,000) = Rs.26,400 = Rs.(3,200 + 7,200 + 16,000) = Rs.26,400
117. 117. A man ordered a length of rope by telephone from his
nearest hardware store. But when an employee of the
store brought the rope, he found that the person on the
telephone had mistyped the order by swapping feet
and inches. As a result, the length of rope received
was only 30% of the length he had ordered. The length
30%
of rope that the man had ordered was in between?
1
1 [1] 6 feet and 7 feet
[1] 6 7 2
2
1 1
[2] 7 9 [2] 7 feet and 9 feet
2 2
1
[3] 9 10 1
2 [3] 9 feet and 10 feet
2
1
[4] 10 12 1
2 [4] 10 feet and 12 feet
[5] 2
Sol. [3] [5] Question Not Attempted
x y Sol. [3]
x y Suppose the man ordered x feet y inches of rope.
x y 12 Since x and y represent inches in the wrong and actual
order respectively, each of x and y is less than 12.
[ 1 = 12 ]
[1 feet = 12 inches]
=x y = (12x + y)
Actual order = x feet y inch = (12x + y) inches
=y x = (12y + x)
Wrong order = y feet x inch = (12y + x) inches
According to the question,
3
 (12y + x) = (12x + y) 30% = (12x  y) 3
10  30% of (12x + y) = (12y + x) = (12x  y)
 10(12y + x) = 3(12x + y) 10
 26x = 117y  10(12y + x) = 3(12x + y)
x 117 9  26x = 117y
 y = 
26 2
x 117 9
x < 12, y < 12, x = 9, y = 2  y = 
26 2
9 2
118. A B Since x < 12, y < 12, x = 9, y = 2
So the man ordered 9 feet 2 inches of rope.
C 3.5
118. A and B start a business by investing equal amounts.
B, C 4
After four months, C joins them by investing Rs.3.5
lakh. B leaves the business 4 months after C joined,
62,400 A withdrawing his investment in the business. At the
24,000 C end of the year the business makes a profit of
( ) Rs.62,400 out of which A collects Rs.24,000 as his share
of profit. How much (in Rs) should be paid to C as his
[1] 16,000 [2] 32,000 share of profit?
[3] 22,400 [4] 27,800 [1] 16,000 [2] 32,000
[3] 22,400 [4] 27,800
[5]
[5] Question Not Attempted

Page No. : {{39}}

Sol. [3] Sol. [3]
A B =x Let the capital invested by A and B each is = x
A:B:C At the end of the year ratio of capitals of A : B : C
= x × 12 : x × 8 : 3.5 × 8 = x × 12 : x × 8 : 3.5 × 8
= 12x : 8x : 28 = 3x : 2x : 7 = 12x : 8x : 28 = 3x : 2x : 7
Now, according to the question,
3x
  62400 = 24,000 3x
3x  2x  7   62400 = 24,000
3x  2x  7
3x 24000
   x = 2.5
5x  7 62400 3x 24000
   x = 2.5 lakh
7 5x  7 62400
C =  62400
5x  7
7
 Share of C =  62400
7 7 5x  7
=  62400 =  62400 = 22,400
2.5  5  7 19.5
7 7
119. A 10% =  62400 =  62400 = Rs.22,400
2.5  5  7 19.5
6% B 5%
119. A gardener has a supply of fertilizer A containing 10%
10% nitrogen and 6% phosphoric acid and a supply of
fertilizer B containing 5% nitrogen and 10%
14 14 phosphoric acid. After testing the soil conditions, he
A finds that he needs at least 14 kg of nitrogen and 14 kg
of phosphoric acid for his crop. If fertilizer A costs Rs
10.60 B 8.40
10.60 per kg and fertilizer B costs Rs 8.40 per kg, what
is the minimum cost at which the farmer can meet the
nutrient requirement by using a combination of both
types of fertilizers?
[1] Rs.1488 [2] Rs.1576 [1] Rs.1488 [2] Rs.1576
[3] Rs.1648 [4] Rs.1732 [3] Rs.1648 [4] Rs.1732
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [4] Sol. [4]
A x B y Let the required quantity of fertilizer A be x kg and that
x 10% + y 5% = 14 of fertilizer B be y kg.
 0.1x + 0.05y = 14 ...(i) So for Nitrogen, 10% of x + 5% of y = 14
x 6% + y 10% = 14  0.1x + 0.05y = 14 ...(i)
 0.06 x + 0.1y = 14 ...(ii) For Phosphoric Acid, 6% of x + 10% of y = 14
(ii) (i)  0.06x + 0.1y = 14 ...(ii)
Subtracting (ii) from (i), we get
5
0.04x – 0.05y = 0  x = y 5
4 0.04x – 0.05y = 0  x = y
4
5
(i) x = y , 5
4 y in (ii), we get:
Substituting x =
4
0.5y + 0.2y = 56  0.7y = 56  y = 80
0.5y + 0.2y = 56  0.7y = 56  y = 80
(ii) y = 80 x = 100.
Substituting y = 80 in (ii), we get: x = 100.
 = Rs.(100 × 10.60 + 80 × 8.40) = Rs.1732
 Required cost = Rs.(100 × 10.60 + 80 × 8.40) = Rs.1732
120. A, B C 3:2:4
120. A, B and C enter into a partnership by investing in the
B 2,70,000 ratio of 3 : 2 : 4 respectively. After one year, B invests
C 2 2,70,000 another Rs.2,70,000 and C also invests Rs.2,70,000 at
3: the end of 2 years. Finally the profit for three years is
divided in the ratio of 3 : 4 : 5, then find the initial
4:5
investment (in Rs) of each.
( )
Page No. : {{40}}
 [1] A = 2,70,000; B = 3,60,000; C = 1,80,000 [1] A = 2,70,000; B = 3,60,000; C = 1,80,000
[2] A = 1,80,000; B = 2,70,000; C = 3,60,000 [2] A = 1,80,000; B = 2,70,000; C = 3,60,000
[3] A = 3,60,000; B = 1,80,000; C = 2,70,000
[3] A = 3,60,000; B = 1,80,000; C = 2,70,000
[4] A = 2,70,000; B = 1,80,000; C = 3,60,000
[4] A = 2,70,000; B = 1,80,000; C = 3,60,000
[5] Question Not Attempted
[5] Sol. [4]
Sol. [4] Let the initial investments of A, B and C be Rs.3x, Rs.2x
A, B C Rs.3x, Rs.2x 4x and 4x respectively.
Then, (3x × 36) : [(2x × 12) + (2x + 2,70,000) × 24] : [(4x ×
(3x × 36) : [(2x × 12) + (2x + 2,70,000) × 24] : [(4x × 24) + (4x + 2,70,000) × 12] = 3 : 4 : 5  108x : (72x +
24) + (4x + 2,70,000) × 12] = 3 : 4 : 5  108x : (72x + 64,80,000) : (144x + 32,40,000) = 3 : 4 : 5
64,80,000) : (144x + 32,40,000) = 3 : 4 : 5
108x 3
108x 3  72x  64, 80, 000  4 432x = 216x + 1,94,40,000 
 72x  64, 80, 000  4 432x = 216x + 1,94,40,000 
216x = 1,94,40,000  x = 90,000
216x = 1,94,40,000  x = 90,000 So,
Initial investment of A = 3x = Rs.2,70,000
A = 3x = Rs.2,70,000 Initial investment of B = 2x = Rs.1,80,000
B = 2x = Rs.1,80,000 Initial investment of C = 4x = Rs.3,60,000
C = 4x = Rs.3,60,000 121. Choose the incorrect statement regarding Rajasthan
121. SDG Index-
Choose the most appropriate option from below-
[1] The first edition was launched in the year 2018
which covered 31 indicators across 15 goals.
[1] 2018 15 31 [2] The second edition was computed on 55 indicators
across 13 goals.
[2] 13 55 [3] The third edition was computed on 75 indicators of
[3] 14 75 14 goals.
[4] The fourth edition was built on 83 indicators across
[4] 14 83
14 goals.
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [1] Sol. [1]
12 31 2020 The first edition was released in the year 2020 with 31
indicators of 12 goals.
122. Consider the following statements regarding
122. 2023 Rajasthan Food and Nutrition Security Analysis
Report-2023-
A. A. It has been released by the World Food Programme
and Food Department of Rajasthan.
B. In this, a detailed analysis on state's food availability,
B. , , food accessibility, food utilitilization and food
stability has been done.
C. C. It will play a vital role in the formulation of data-
driven policies and programs to make state
'Suposhit Rajasthan'.
D. D. In the Food and Nutrition Security Index based on
this report,Jhunjhunu is at the top and Jaisalmer is
at the bottom .
Select the correct statement(s) from the above- (Choose
the most appropriate option)
[1] A B [2] A, B C [1] A and B only [2] A, B and C
[3] B C [4] [3] B and C only [4] All of the above
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted

Page No. : {{41}}

Sol. [3] Sol. [3]
• • This report has been prepared by the Planning
Department in collaboration with the World Food
Programme to find out the status of food and
nutrition security in Rajasthan.
• • In the Food and Nutrition Security Index based on
this, Hanumangarh is at the top and Jaisalmer is at
123. 2024 the bottom .
123. Which of the following is not included in the top five
[1] [2] districts of Rajasthan SDG Index-2024 (fifth edition)?
[1] Bhilwara [2] Nagaur
[3] [4]
[3] Churu [4] Jaisalmer
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [4] Sol. [4]
• 2024 14 • Rajasthan SDG Index-2024 (fifth edition) is based
95 95 indicators covering 14 goals.
• 66 44 • In this index, Jhunjhunu district is at the top with a
score of 66.44 and Jaisalmer district is at the bottom
50 63
with a score of 50.63.
• • Top five districts : Jhunjhunu, Naguar, Sikar,
124. 4-5 2024 Bhilwara and Churu.
124. In collaboration with NITI Aayog, a national
conference on "Accelerating Progress on Sustainable
Development Goals" was organized on 4 - 5 March,
2024 in which of the following cities?
[1] [2]
[1] Jaipur [2] Jodhpur
[3] [4] [3] Ajmer [4] Kota
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [1] Sol. [1]
4 5 , 2024 In this conference held at Rajasthan International Center
2 on 4 - 5 March, 2024, the SDG-2 Dashboard and Food
and Nutrition Security Analysis Dashboard developed
by the state government has been launched.
125. 125. Which of the following is mismatched pair with
respect to Sustainable Development Goals-
[1] 5 [1] SDG 5 – Gender Equality
[2] 7 [2] SDG 7 – Affordable and Clean Energy
[3] SDG 11 – Sustainable Cities and Communities
[3] 11
[4] SDG 16 – Partnership for the Goals
[4] 16 [5] Question Not Attempted
[5] Sol. [4]
Sol. [4] • SDG 17 – Partnership for the Goals
• 17 • SDG 16 – Peace, Justice and Strong Institutions
• 16 , 126. Match the following-
Name of Project
126.
A. Rajasthan State Highway Development
Programme II
A. II B. Rajasthan Forestry and Biodiversity Development
B. Project
C. C. Rajasthan Urban Sector Development Programme
D. Rajasthan Water Sector Livelihood Improvement
D. Project
Funding Agency
i. ii. i. ADB ii. JICA
iii. iv. iii. AFD iv. World Bank

Page No. : {{42}}

 Choose the most appropriate related option from
below-
Code:
A B C D A B C D
A B C D A B C D
[1] iv iii ii i [2] iv ii i iii
[1] iv iii ii i [2] iv ii i iii
[3] iv i iii ii [4] iv iii i ii [3] iv i iii ii [4] iv iii i ii
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [4] Sol. [4]
127. 127. Choose the correct statement regarding the initiatives
taken by the state government to promote private
sector participation: (Choose the most appropriate
option)
[1]
[1] An Empowered Committee for Infrastructure
Development has been constituted under the
chairmanship of the Chief Minister to decide on
[2] 2007 policy issues related to the projects being developed
on this basis.
[2] A social sector viability gap funding scheme has
[3] been issued in 2007 to promote PPP in the social
sector.
2011 12
[3] A PPP cell was set up under the Planning
Department in 2011-12 to coordinate the efforts of
[4] the state government in these projects.
2004 [4] The Project Development Company of Rajasthan
was formed in 2004 for the implementation of the
[5] mega highway project in PPP mode.
Sol. [2] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [2]
•
• Council for Infrastructure Development has been
constituted under the chairmanship of Chief
Minister to decide policy issues of PPP projects.
• • Empowered Committee for Infrastructure
Development has been constituted under the
• chairmanship of Chief Secretary.
2007 08 • PPP Cell has been constituted as State Nodal Agency
under Planning Department in 2007-08 to
coordinate the efforts of the State Government in PPP
• 1997 projects.
• Project Development Company of Rajasthan has
128. 2022 23 been constituted in December 1997.
(GSDP) 128. In year 2022-23 Fiscal deficit is what percent of Gross
[1] 4.37% [2] 3.76% State Domestic Product (GSDP) ?
[1] 4.37% [2] 3.76%
[3] 3.37% [4] 4%
[3] 3.37% [4] 4%
[5]
[5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [2] Sol. [2]
2022 23 51,029 , The fiscal deficit in 2022-23 was Rs.51,029 crore, which
3 76% is 3.76% of state GDP.
129. 2022 23 129. The revenue deficit of the state in the year 2022-23
[1] 31491 [2] 51029 was? (in Rs.)
[3] 20427 [4] 25870 [1] 31491 crores [2] 51029 crores
[3] 20427 crores [4] 25870 crores
[5]
[5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [1]
Sol. [1]
• 51029
• Fiscal deficit : Rs.51029 crores.
• 20427
• Primary deficit : Rs.20427 crores.
Page No. : {{43}}
130. 2023 24 130. As per schematic budget outlay (2023-24), which of
the following heads has the highest allocation?
[1] [1] Rural Development
[2] Transport
[2]
[3] Social and Community Services
[3] [4] Energy
[4] [5] Question Not Attempted
[5] Sol. [3]
Sol. [3] Social and Community Services - 52.65%, Energy -
52.65%, 13.67%, 13.67%, Rural Development - 10.79%, Transport - 6.10%.
10.79%, 6.10% 131. India's first 'India Innovation Centre for Graphene'
was launched in?
131.
[1] Bengaluru [2] Hyderabad
[3] Kochi [4] Nagpur
[1] [2] [5] Question Not Attempted
[3] [4] Sol. [3]
[5] • 'India's first India Innovation Centre for Graphene'
Sol. [3] was launched at Maker Village in Kochi (Kerala).
• • Along with this, the 'Centre for Excellence in
Intelligent Internet of Things Sensors' was also
launched at Maker Village in Kochi (Kerala).
•
132. Who was awarded the Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose
Disaster Management Award for the year 2024 in the
institutional category?
132. 2024 [1] 60 Parachute Field Hospital, Agra, Uttar Pradesh
[2] 8th Battalion National Disaster Response Force,
[1] 60 Ghaziabad
[3] Disaster Mitigation and Management Centre,
[2] 8
Uttarakhand
[3] [4] Gujarat Disaster Management Institute
[4] [5] Question Not Attempted
[5] Sol. [1]
Sol. [1] The Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose Award for the year
2024 2024 for outstanding work in the field of disaster
60 management was awarded to 60 Parachute Field
Hospital, Agra, Uttar Pradesh by the Ministry of Home
Affairs.
133. 133. Who among the following was awarded the MS
Swaminathan Award 2024 for his contribution as a
2024 scientist and extension specialist in the field of
[1] [2] agricultural science?
[3] [4] [1] Ruchira Swamy [2] Pradeepti Sharma
[5] [3] BR Kamboj [4] Yamini Subramaniam
[5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [3]
Sol. [3]
BR Kamboj, Vice Chancellor of Chaudhary Charan
2024 Singh Haryana Agricultural University was awarded
the MS Swaminathan Award 2024.
134. 2023 134. Identify the correct statement(s) from the following
regarding the awards given by ICC for the year 2023-
A. A. The Sir Garfield Sobers Trophy for Men’s Cricketer
of the Year was awarded to Travis Head.
B. The Rachael Heyhoe-Flint Trophy for Women’s
B. Cricketer of the Year was awarded to Nat Sciver-
Brunt.
[1] A [2] B [1] A only [2] B only
[3] A B [4] A, B [3] Both A and B [4] Neither A, nor B
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Page No. : {{44}}
Sol. [2] Sol. [2]
The Sir Garfield Sobers Trophy for Men’s Cricketer of
the Year was awarded to Pat Cummins.
135. 2024 (XPoSat) 135. Identify the correct statement/statements from the
following regarding the satellite XPoSat launched in
January 2024
A. It was launched by GSLV Mark-3 from Satish
A. -3
Dhawan Space Centre, Sriharikota (Andhra
( )
Pradesh).
B.
B. It is ISRO's first satellite to study the X-ray emission
from celestial sources like black holes and neutron
stars.
Choose the most appropriate option from below-
[1] A B [2] B [1] Both A and B [2] B only
[3] A [4] A B [3] A only [4] Neither A, nor B
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [2] Sol. [2]
(XPoSat) XPoSat
• PSLV-C58 • It was launched by PSLV-C58 from Satish Dhawan
Space Centre, Sriharikota and placed in low Earth
• orbit.
• It is ISRO's first satellite to study the X-ray emission
from celestial sources like black holes and neutron
stars.
136.
136. Identify the correct statement(s) from the following
regarding Japan's Mission 'Moon Sniper'-
A. A. With this mission, Japan has become the fifth country
to make a soft landing on the moon.
B. (SLIM) B. Under the mission, the lander 'SLIM' landed in the
Shioli crater of the moon.
Choose the most appropriate option from below-
[1] A [2] B [1] A only [2] B only
[3] A B [4] A B [3] Both A and B [4] Neither A, nor B
[5] Question Not Attempted
[5]
Sol. [3] Sol. [3]
137. -I -II 137. Match List-I with List-II :
List-I List-II
-I -II
A. Sada Tansik i. India - UAE
A. i.
B. Desert Cyclone ii. India - Kyrgyzstan
B. ii. C. Abhyas Khanjar iii. India - Thailand
C. iii. D. Abhyas Ayutthaya iv. India - Saudi Arabia
D. iv. Choose the most appropriate related option from
below-
Code:
A B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D
[1] i iii ii iv [2] iii iv i ii [1] i iii ii iv [2] iii iv i ii
[3] ii iii i iv [4] iv i ii iii [3] ii iii i iv [4] iv i ii iii
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [4] Sol. [4]
•  • Sada Tansik  India - Saudi Arabia
• Desert Cyclone  India - UAE
• 
• Abhyas Khanjar  India - Kyrgyzstan
• 
• Abhyas Ayutthaya  India - Thailand
• 
• Cooperation Kaijin  India - Japan
• 
Page No. : {{45}}
138. 138. Where has the country's first girls Sainik School been
[1] [2] started?
[1] Kanpur [2] Indore
[3] [4]
[3] Meerut [4] Vrindavan
[5]
[5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [4]
Sol. [4]
Name : Samvid Gurukulam Girls Sainik School.
139. 139. 'Icon of the Seas' which was in news recently is?
[1] [1] World's largest cruise ship
[2] [2] Prestigious award
[3] [3] Heritage site declared by UNESCO
[4] [4] Islands located in the Pacific Ocean
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [1] Sol. [1]
'Icon of the Seas' is the world's largest cruise ship built
for Royal Caribbean International.
140. Identify the correct statement/statements from the
140. 2024 following regarding Prerana Programme launched in
January 2024-
A. A. It has been launched by the Department of School
Education and Literacy, Ministry of Education.
B. 9 12 B. It is a week-long residential programme for selected
students of classes 9 - 12.
[1] A only [2] B only
[1] A [2] B
[3] Both A and B [4] Neither A, nor B
[3] A B [4] A, B [5] Question Not Attempted
[5] Sol. [3]
Sol. [3] Prerana Programme
• It is a week-long residential programme for selected
• 9 12 students of classes 9 - 12.
• The curriculum of Prerna Programme, designed by
• 9 IIT Gandhinagar, is built on 9 value-based themes.
141. Where has the world's tallest statue of Bhimrao
Ambedkar, the 'Statue of Social Justice', been installed
141. recently?
[1] Vijayawada [2] Hyderabad
[1] [2] [3] Amravati [4] Visakhapatnam
[3] [4] [5] Question Not Attempted
[5] Sol. [1]
Sol. [1] The world's tallest 206 feet tall statue of Bhimrao
(206 ) Ambedkar, the 'Statue of Social Justice', is installed in
Vijayawada, Andhra Pradesh.
142. Who has issued the 'MULYA PRAVAH 2.0' guidelines
142. to promote ethical practices in higher education?
2.0 [1] All India Council for Technical Education
[1] [2] University Grants Commission
[2] [3] National Council for Teacher Education
[3] [4] National Medical Commission
[4] [5] Question Not Attempted
[5] Sol. [2]
Sol. [2] The University Grants Commission has issued the
'MULYA PRAVAH 2.0' guidelines to promote ethical
practices in higher education.
2.0
Page No. : {{46}}
143. 2024 143. Identify the correct statement/statements from the
following regarding the 'Anuvaadini Platform'
launched by the Central Government in January 2024-
A. It is an artificial intelligence based platform.
A.
B. Under this, digital study material will be made
B. available in Indian languages included in the
Eighth Schedule of the Constitution.
Choose the most appropriate related option from
[1] A [2] B below-
[3] A, B [4] A B [1] A only [2] B only
[5] [3] Neither A, nor B [4] Both A and B
Sol. [4] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [4]
In order to promote multilingualism in education, the
Central Government launched an artificial intelligence
based platform 'Anuvaadini Platform'.
144. 2024
144. 'Aryan Singh', who was awarded the Pradhan Mantri
Rashtriya Bal Puraskar in the categary of Science and
Technology in January, 2024, belongs to which district
[1] [2] of Rajasthan?
[3] [4] [1] Jodhpur [2] Jaipur
[5] [3] Kota [4] Udaipur
Sol. [3] [5] Question Not Attempted
• Sol. [3]
• 'Aryan Singh' of Kota has invented a Agro robot
• that can be helpful for farmers.
• It will help farmers to take care of their crops
remotely.
145.
145. Identify the correct statement(s) from the following-
A. 58
A. 58th Director General of Police- Inspector General
Conference was held in Udaipur.
B. 27
B. 27th National Youth Festival was held in Mumbai.
[1] A [2] B
[1] A only [2] B only
[3] A B [4] A, B
[3] Both A and B [4] Neither A, nor B
[5]
[5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [4]
Sol. [4]
• 58
• 58th Director General of Police- Inspector General
Conference was held in Jaipur.
• 27 • The 27th National Youth Festival was held in Nasik.
146. 146. Who among the following was posthumously
2022 awarded the Tenzing Norgay National Adventure
Award 2022 in the Land Adventure category?
[1] [1] Anshu Kumar Tiwari
[2] [2] Tulsi Chaitanya Mothukuri
[3] [3] Ms. Savita Kanswal
[4] [4] Praveen Singh
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Page No. : {{47}}
Sol. [3] Sol. [3]
Tenzing Norgay National Adventure Award : This
2022 award is given every year in four categories. For the
year 2022-
•
• Air Adventure Category - Anshu Kumar Tiwari.
•
• Water Adventure Category - Tulsi Chaitanya
• Mothukuri.
• • Land Adventure Category - Ms. Savita Kanswal.
147. 2024 • Lifetime Achievement Category - Praveen Singh.
147. Which player defeated China's Zheng Qinwen to win
[1] [2] the women's singles title in Australian Open Tennis-
[3] [4] 2024?
[1] Iga Swiatek [2] Jasmine Paolini
[5]
Sol. [3] [3] Aryna Sabalenka [4] Elena Rybakina
2024 [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [3]
Australian Open Tennis- 2024
•
Men's Singles
•
• Winner - Jannik Sinner (Italy)
• Runner-up - Daniil Medvedev (Russia)
• Women's Singles
• • Winner - Aryna Sabalenka (Belarus)
148. 84 • Runner-up - Zheng Qinwen (China)
2024 148. Where was the 84th All India Presiding Officers
[1] [2] Conference held in January 2024?
[3] [4] [1] New Delhi [2] Bengaluru
[5] [3] Mumbai [4] Hyderabad
Sol. [3] [5] Question Not Attempted
149. Sol. [3]
149. Where has the country's first healthy and hygienic food
street Prasadam been started?
[1] [2]
[1] Rameshwaram [2] Ayodhya
[3] [4]
[3] Haridwar [4] Ujjain
[5]
[5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [4]
Sol. [4]
The country's First Healthy and higienic Food Street
2024 Prasadam was inaugurated in Ujjain in January 2024.
150. 150. The new variety ‘Namoh 108’ developed by National
108 Botanical Research Institute, Lucknow is related to?
[1] [2] [1] Hibiscus [2] Sunflower
[3] [4] [3] Lotus [4] Rose
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [3] Sol. [3]
108 Namoh 108
• A new variety of lotus developed by National
•
Botanical Research Institute, Lucknow.
• It was earlier discovered in Manipur, this lotus
• 108 flower has 108 petals.

Page No. : {{48}}

 ANSWER KEY
RAS PRE. 2024 (Indian Polity (Complete)-071) DATE 10 Nov. 2024
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
3 1 2 4 4 3 1 4 4 3 1 2 4 3 2
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
1 2 1 4 2 4 4 3 4 3 4 3 4 1 1
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
4 4 1 2 3 4 1 3 3 3 2 4 1 4 3
46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
4 1 1 4 3 4 1 1 1 4 3 2 2 4 3
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
1 3 4 2 4 3 4 3 4 2 2 4 2 4 2
76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
1 1 2 3 3 2 2 1 3 1 3 2 3 4 3
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105
2 1 1 1 2 1 1 4 1 3 3 1 3 4 4
106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
1 1 3 2 4 1 2 4 4 4 3 3 3 4 4
121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
1 3 4 1 4 4 2 2 1 3 3 1 3 2 2
136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
3 4 4 1 3 1 2 4 3 4 3 3 3 4 3

Page No. : {{49}}