DAYASADAN AGARWAL VIDYALAYA (CBSE), NERKUNDRAM, CHENNAI

SAMPLE PAPER TEST 07 FOR BOARD EXAM 2024

(with ANSWERS)
SUBJECT: SOCIAL SCIENCE MAX. MARKS : 80
CLASS : X DURATION : 3 HRS
General Instruction:
1. Question paper comprises five Sections – A, B, C, D and E. There are 37 questions in the
question paper. All questions are compulsory.
2. Section A – From question 1 to 20 are MCQs of 1 mark each.
3. Section B – Question no. 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 2 marks
each. Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.
4. Section C contains Q.25to Q.29 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks each.
Answer to each question should not exceed 60 words
5. Section D – Question no. 30 to 33 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each.
Answer to each question should not exceed 120 words.
6. Section-E - Questions no from 34 to 36 are case based questions with three sub questions and
are of 4 marks each
7. Section F – Question no. 37 is map based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 37a from History (2
marks) and 37b from Geography (3 marks).
8. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided
in few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions have to be attempted.
9. In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever
necessary.

SECTION – A
Questions 1 to 20 carry 1 mark each.
1. The democracy in France was destroyed by .
(a) Napolean Bonaparte (c) Giuseppe Garibaldi
(b) Giuseppe Mazzini (d) Otto von Bismarck
Ans: (a) Napolean Bonaparte

2. Match the column I with column II and select the correct option.
Column I Column II
(A) SAIL (i) Heavy Industries
(B) Ship building (ii) Bauxite
(C) Textile (iii) Public Sector
(D) Aluminium (iv) Agro Based
A B C D
(a) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(b) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(c) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(d) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
Ans: (a) (A) - (iii), (B) - (i), (C) - (iv), (D) - (ii)

3. What led to tensions between the Dutch-speaking and French-speaking communities?

(a) Both the communities demanded special powers.
(b) The minority French-speaking community was richer and more powerful than the majority
Dutch speaking community.
(c) The majority Dutch-speaking community was richer and more powerful than the minority
French speaking community.
(d) Both the communities were equal in socio-economic ladder and this was resented by the
French speaking community.

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 Ans: (b) The minority French-speaking community was richer and more powerful than the
majority Dutch speaking community.

4. Which of the following information is correct regarding the figure given below?

(a) Slaves for sale (b) The Irish Potato Famine (c) Merchants from Venice (d) Goa Museum
Ans: (a) Slaves for sale

5. Identify the characteristics of Cavour among the following and choose the correct option:
(i) He was an Italian statesman.
(ii) He spoke French much better than Italian.
(iii) He was a tactful diplomat.
(iv) He belonged to a Royal family.
(a) Only (i) and (ii) are correct. (b) Only (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct.
(c) Only (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct. (d) Only (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct.
Ans: (b) Only (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct.
Cavour did not belong to a Royal family. He belonged to a family that had served the House of
savoy as soldiers and officials.

6. There are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark your answer as per the
codes provided below.
Assertion (A): When the power is taken away from the Central and the State governments and
given to local governments it is called decentralisation.
Reason (R): One-third seats are reserved for women in local government bodies.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is correct but R is incorrect.
(d) A is incorrect but R is correct.
Ans: (b) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
7. Power shared by two or more political parties belongs to which form of government?
(a) Community government (b) Federal government
(c) Coalition government (d) Unitary government
Ans: (c) Coalition government
8. Which among the following countries is/are examples of multi-party system?
(i) India (ii) China (iii) United States of America (iv) Cuba (v) The United Kingdom
(a) (i) only (b) (i), (ii) and (v) only (c) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) only (d) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v) only
Ans: (a) (i) only

9. Read the given statements and choose the correct option.

Statement I: The name “silk routes” points to the importance of East-bound Chinese silk
cargoes.
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 Statement II: Until the eighteenth century, China and India were among the world’s richest
countries.
(a) Both statements I and II are true.
(b) Both statements I and II are false.
(c) Statement I is true but statement II is false.
(d) Statement II is true but statement I is false.
Ans: (d) Statement II is true but statement I is false.
The name 'silk routes' points to the importance of west bound Chinese cargoes along this route.

10. The first printing press came to India with which one of the following?
(a) Portuguese Missionaries (b) Catholic Priests
(c) Dutch protestants (d) East India Company
Ans: (a) Portuguese Missionaries

11. In which of the following states, Tungabhadra Dam is located?

(a) Tamil Nadu (b) Kerala (c) Andhra Pradesh (d) Karnataka
Ans: (d) Karnataka

12. Identify the sector to which A and B belong and choose the correct option.
Place of work Nature of No. of working
employment
Office, clinic in market places with A 15
formal license
Working in small workshops usually B 50
not registered with the government
(a) A - Unorganised, B - Organised (b) A - Service sector, B - Secondary sector
(c) A - Organised, B - Unorganised (d) A - Secondary, B - Primary sector
Ans: (c) A - Organised, B – Unorganised

13. Read the following data and information carefully and select the most appropriate answer from
the given options:
Table for Comparison of three countries
Countries Monthly income of citizens in 2007 (in Rupees)
I II III IV V
Country A 9500 10500 9800 10000 10200
Country B 500 500 500 500 48000
Country C 5000 1000 15000 4000 25000
Rita is an employee of a multinational company who gets transferred to different countries after
every three years of service. She has been given an opportunity to choose any one out of the
three countries mentioned in the table above as her next job location. She calculates average
income of all these countries as per the given data and chooses to be transferred to Country A.
Identify the reason for which Rita has chosen country A.
(a) Most of its citizens are rich and stable
(b) It has most equitable distribution of income
(c) National income of its citizens is higher
(d) Average income of its citizens is lower
Ans: (b) It has most equitable distribution of income

14. Which of the following authorities of India issues currency notes on behalf of the Central
Government?
(a) State Bank of India (b) Reserve Bank of India (c) Bank of Baroda (d) Punjab National Bank
Ans: (b) Reserve Bank of India

15. The products received by exploiting natural resources come under which one of the following
sectors?

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 (a) Quaternary (b) Tertiary (c) Secondary (d) Primary
Ans: (d) Primary

16. Why is it that while there has been a change in the share of three sectors in GDP, a similar shift
has not taken place in employment?
(a) It is because not enough jobs were created in the secondary and tertiary sectors.
(b) The secondary and tertiary sectors have to develop more.
(c) People in India are more attached to land and want to continue in agriculture.
(d) People are not interested in working in the secondary and tertiary sectors.
Ans: (a) It is because not enough jobs were created in the secondary and tertiary sectors.

17. Fill in the blanks choosing the correct options given below:
While taking loan, a borrower looks for easy terms of credit. This means (i) interest rate, (ii)
condition for repayment, (iii) collateral and documentation requirements.
(a) (i)–low, (ii)–tough, (iii)–more (b) (i)–high, (ii)–easy, (iii)–less
(c) (i)–low, (ii)–easy, (iii)–less (d) (i)–low, (ii)–tough, (iii)–less
Ans: (c) (i) low, (ii) easy, (iii) less

18. Which of the following is true about globalisation?

(a) Globalisation is purely an economic phenomenon.
(b) Globalisation emerged only because of the availability of improved communications.
(c) Globalisation is the same thing as westernisation.
(d) Globalisation is a multi-dimensional concept.
Ans: (d) Globalisation is a multi-dimensional concept.
MNCs are playing a major role in the globalisation process. More and more goods and services,
investments and technology are moving between countries.

19. India has varied relief features, landforms, climatic realms and vegetation types. These have
contributed in the development of various types of soils.
Identify the types of soils marked as X, Y and Z in the given map of India.

X Y Z
(a) Arid Soil Laterite Soil Alluvial Soil
(b) Red and Yellow Soil Black Soil Mountainous Soil
(c) Alluvial Soil Red and Yellow Soil Black Soil
(d) Black Soil Alluvial Soil Arid Soil
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 Ans: (c) : (i) Alluvial Soil (X) : It covers the entire Northern Plains and extends to Rajasthan
and Gujarat through a narrow corridor and also found in the eastern coastal plains particularly in
the deltas of the Mahanadi, the Godavari, the Krishna and the Kaveri rivers.
(ii) Red and Yellow Soil (Y) : Yellow and red soils are found in parts of Odisha, Chhattisgarh,
southern parts of the middle Ganga plain and along the piedmont zone of the Western Ghats.
(iii) Black Soil (Z) : They cover the plateaus of Maharashtra, Saurashtra, Malwa, Madhya
Pradesh and Chhattisgarh and extend in the south east direction along the Godavari and the
Krishna valleys.

20. Two statements are given below as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and
choose the most appropriate option:
Assertion (A): Transparency means openness, communication and accountability of the
government.
Reason (R): Transparency is considered missing in democratic government.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: (c) A is true but R is false.
Transparency is often missing from a non-democratic government.

SECTION – B
Questions 21 to 24 carry 2 marks each.
21. Why did the Indian Government remove barriers to a large extent on foreign trade and foreign
investment after independence?
Ans: To protect the Indian industries from competition of superior foreign goods.

22. In which list of the Indian constitution does education come? Why?
Ans: Education comes under the concurrent list; so both the states and the centre can legislate
on any aspect of education.

23. Why did Mahatma Gandhi decide to call off the Civil Disobedience Movement in 1931?
Ans: (i) Colonial government responded with brutal repression. Many satyagrahis were attacked
when a children were beaten in huge numbers and about 100,000 people were arrested.
(ii) Gandhiji once again decided to call off the movement and entered into a part with Irwin on 5
March 1931 (Gandhi-Irwin Pact) to participate in a Round Table Conference.
OR
Mention any two causes that led to the Civil Disobedience Movement.
Ans: The Civil Disobedience Movement was one of the most significant movements launched
by Mahatma Gandhi in the course of India's freedom struggle in 1930. The two main causes of
the Civil Disobedience Movement are:
(i) The Simon commission was constituted with no Indians and the death of Lala Lajpat Rai
while protesting against the commission enraged the entire nation.
(ii) In the Lahore session the demand of Puma swaraj was declared thus, the civil disobedience
movement was launched as the first step to fulfil this goal.

24. Mention any two factors that make forests a very useful resource for humans.
Ans: The following factors make forests a very useful resource for humans:
(i) Forests control soil erosion, bring rainfall and contribute in economic wealth of a nation.
(ii) Forests provide raw materials such as timber, gum, medicines, etc. to forest based industries
and agro based industries.

SECTION – C
Questions 25 to 29 carry 3 marks each.

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25. Suggest any three measures to enhance the participation of woman in politics.
Ans: (i) Women should be given proper education, so that they are aware of their rights and
duties and participate actively in politics.
(ii) Every woman should be self reliant, so that she enjoys a respectable position in the society
and is confident about her meaningful contribution in politics as well.
(iii) It should be legally binding to have a fair proportion of woman in the elected bodies. That
is why 1/3rd of seats in local government bodies in panchayats and in municipalities are now
reserved for women.

26. "A public expression of dissatisfaction with democracy shows the success of democratic
project:' Justify the statement.
Ans: A public expression of dissatisfaction with democracy shows the success of democracy.
(i) It shows that people have developed awareness and the courage to ask questions.
(ii) When people look critically at the government, democracy becomes better.
(iii) When people complain, government begins to perform better.
(iv) They value their democratic rights and make use of it.

27. Describe any three characteristics of the Durg-Bastar-Chandrapur Iron-ore belt in India.
Ans: Durg-Bastar-Chandrapur belt lies in Chhattisgarh and Maharashtra.
(i) Bailadila range of hills, in the Bastar district of Chhattisgarh, provides very high grade
hematite.
(ii) The range of hills comprise of 14 deposits of super high-grade hematite iron ore which has
the best physical properties needed for steel making.
(iii) Iron ore from these belts are exported to Japan and South Korea via Vishakhapatnam port.

28. Why did Gandhiji decide to launch a nationwide Satyagraha against the proposed Rowlatt Act
in 1919? Explain any three reasons.
Ans: Mahatma Gandhi decided to launch a nationwide Satyagraha against the proposed Rowlatt
Act in 1919 because of the following reasons:
(i) The Rowlatt Act had been hurriedly passed through the Imperial Legislative Council, inspite
of the united opposition of the Indian members.
(ii) It was an unjustful law because it gave the government enormous power to repress political
activities.
(iii) The Act allowed detention of political prisoners without trial for two years.

29. Disguised unemployment does not help in productivity of a country, why? Explain with the help
of an example.
Ans: Disguised unemployment means that more number of people are employed in an economic
activity than required. If these extra people are removed, there will be no effect on the
production. They seem to be employed but actually they are not. The workforce is not being
used to its potential. They divide the work but do not increase production. For example, in the
rural areas, the entire family is engaged in the production of crops on the same piece of land. If
there are ten people in the family, three people can manage the production. If the extra seven
people are removed the productivity will be the same. Their employment does not contribute to
the output and it works in redundant manner and so it is a form of unemployment. Hence, it can
be said that disguised or hidden unemployment does not help in productivity of a country.
OR
What constitutes the unorganised sector in urban areas? Why do workers in this sector need
protection?
Ans: In the urban areas, unorganised sector comprises workers in small scale industry, casual
workers in construction, trade and transportation, etc. It also includes street vendors, head load
workers, garment makers, rag pickers, etc. Workers in this sector need protection from over
exploitation, due to long working now, no job security and no social security and health
benefits.

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 SECTION – D
Questions 30 to 33 carry 5 marks each.
30. What is a Gram Sabha? Describe any four functions of a Gram Sabha.
Ans: Gram Sabha : A body comprising of all the adult members of a village or a group of
villages.
Functions of Gram Sabha :
(i) It elects the members and the sarpanch of the Gram Panchayat.
(ii) It supervises the work of the village panchayat.
(iii) It approves the annual budget of the panchayat.
(iv) It reviews the performance of the Gram Panchayat.
OR
What is the meaning of decentralisation? Explain any four provisions that have been made
towards decentralisation in India after the Constitutional Amendment in 1992.
Ans: Decentralisation : When power is taken from Central and State governments and is given
to local government, it is called decentralisation.
The Constitution was amended in 1992 to make a third-tier of government and it made
democracy more powerful and effective.
(i) It is mandatory to hold regular elections to local government bodies.
(ii) At least 113rd of all positions and seats are reserved for women.
(iii) An independent institution called the State Election Commission has been created in each
state to conduct panchayat and municipal elections.
(iv) The State Governments are required to share some powers and revenue with local
government bodies.

31. Is per capita income the true measure of development? Elaborate.

Ans: Per capita income is the average income per head. It is not a true measure of development.
This is because there are various aspects of development. For example, the per capita income
does not tell income distribution. There might be huge gap in income despite the per capita
income being high as is the case in Saudi Arabia.
Income is an inadequate measure of the level of development, so health and education indicators
have come to be widely used along with income as a measure of development. For instance,
Human Development Report published by UNDP compares countries based on the educational
levels of the people, their health status and per capita income.
This is evident if we compare Haryana and Kerala on certain parameters. Though, Haryana has
a high per capita income it ranks quite low on Human Development Index (HDI) as compared to
Kerala. This is because Kerala scores high in education and public health.
OR
What is Human Development Index? Which organisation measures the HDI? Explain the three
major indicators of the HDI.
Ans: Human Development Index was created to emphasise that people and their capabilities
should be the ultimate criteria for assessing the development of a country not economic growth
alone and rank countries based on the level of social and economic development. The HDI
makes it possible to track changes in development levels from time to time and to compare
development levels in different countries. The concept of HDI goes beyond income and growth
to cover overall development with the object of improving the conditions of people from all
angles. The organisation that measures the HDI is the United Nations Development Programme.
Three major indicators of the HDI are as follows:
(i) Health: Without proper health facilities, no matter how much a country earns, it will not be
able to provide decent standard of living to its people.
(ii) Access to Education: It is measured by expected years of schooling of children at school
entry age and mean years of schooling of the adult population. Over the past few decades,
education has become an important factor in leading a quality life. So, if the country has high
income but the literacy rate is low, it cannot be considered developed.

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 (iii) Income: A decent standard of living is measured by per capita income. More than income,
people want to have a secured life. A country should be able to provides its citizens a sense of
security.

32. "The first clear expression of nationalism came with the 'French Revolution' in 1789:' Examine
the statement.
Ans: The first clear expression of nationalism came with the French Revolution in 1789. France,
was a full-fledged territorial state in 1789 under the rule of an absolute monarch.
(i) The political and constitutional changes that came in the wake of the French Revolution led
to the transfer of sovereignty from the monarchy to a body of French citizens.
(ii) The French revolutionaries introduced various measures and practices that could create a
sense of collective identity amongst the French people.
(iii) The ideas of la patrie (the fatherland) and le citoyen (the citizen) emphasised the notion of a
united community enjoying equal rights under a constitution.
(iv) A new French flag, the tricolor, was chosen to replace the former royal standard. The
Estates General was elected by the body of active citizens the National Assembly was renamed.
New hymns were composed, oaths taken and martyrs commemorated, all in the name of the
nation.
(v) The revolutionaries further declared that it was the mission and the destiny of the French
nation to liberate the people of Europe from despotism.
OR
How did the wave of economic nationalism strengthen the wider nationalist sentiment growing
in Europe? Explain.
Ans: Economic nationalism strengthened the wider nationalist sentiment.
(i) In the economic sphere, liberalisation stood for the freedom of markets and the abolition of
state imposed restrictions on the movement of goods and capital. There was a strong demand of
the emerging middle classes.
(ii) Napoleon's administrative measures had created a confederation of 39 states. Each of these
possessed its own currency, weights and measures. Such conditions were viewed as obstacles to
economic exchange and growth by the new commercial classes, who argued for the creation of a
unified economic territory allowing the unhindered movement of goods, people and capital.
(iii) The union abolished tariff barriers and reduced the number of currencies from over thirty to
two.
(iv) The creation of network of railways further stimulated mobility, harnessing economic
interests to national unification.

33. Give an account of oilseeds in India. State the importance of groundnut and name the states
where it is grown.
Ans: (i) Oil seeds production in India covers approximately 12 per cent of total cultivated area.
(ii) Some of them are edible and used as cooking mediums.
(iii) Some of them are also used as raw material in production of soaps, cosmetics and
ointments.
(iv) Groundnut, mustard, coconut, sesamum (til), soybean, castor seeds, cotton seeds, linseed
and sunflower are main oil-seeds produced in India.
Groundnut :
(i) It is a Kharif crop.
(ii) It accounts for half of the total oilseeds production in India.
(iii) In 2019-20, Gujarat was the largest producer followed by Rajasthan and Tamil Nadu.

OR
Explain any five initiatives taken by the government to ensure the increase in agricultural
production.
Ans: The main initiatives include :
(i) Land reforms : Collectivisation, consolidation of land holdings, cooperation and abolition of
zamindari.
(ii) Agricultural reforms : Green revolution and white revolution.
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 (iii) Land development programmes : Provision for crop insurance against drought, flood,
cyclone, etc., establishment of Grameen banks, Cooperative societies and banks for providing
loans.
(iv) Issuing of Kisan Credit Card and Personal Accident Insurance Scheme, etc.
(v) Special weather bulletins and agricultural programmes for farmers on radio and TV.
(vi) Government announces Minimum support Price (MSP) and remunerative and procurement
prices to check exploitation.
(vii) The government provides HYV seeds and fertilisers.
(viii) Government provides technical assistance and training for farmers.
(ix) Soil testing facilities, cold storage and transportation for farmers.

SECTION – E (Case Study Based Questions)

Questions 34 to 36 carry 4 marks each.
34. Case Study – 1
Read the given extract and answer following questions
Exhaustion of Natural Resources
Look at the following data for crude oil:
Region/country Reserve (2017) Number of Years
(Thousand Million Reserves will last
Barrels)
Middle East 808 70
United States of America 50 10.5
World 1697 50.2
The table above gives an estimate of reserves of crude oil (column1). More important, it also
tells us for how many years the stock of crude oil will last if people continue to extract it at the
present rate. The reserves would last only 50 years for the world. However, different countries
face different situations. Countries like India depend on importing oil from abroad because they
do not have enough stocks of their own. There are countries like USA which have low reserves
and hence want to secure oil through military or economic power. The question of
sustainability of development raises many fundamentally new issues about the nature and
process of development.
(i) Is crude oil essential for the development process in a country? Discuss. (2)
(ii) India has to import crude oil. What problems do you anticipate for the country looking at the
above situation? (2)
Ans: (i) Crude oil serves as an important energy source all over the world. It would be hard to
imagine an economy developing without oil and natural gas. Apart from fuel it also serves as
the raw material for products such as lubricants, fertilizers. Plastics etc. At first hand it does
seem that petroleum is very important for development but what if it is no more. We need to
innovate and look for alternative energy sources. Enormous amount of work is being done all
over the world including India, on solar power and electric vehicles. Development of our society
cannot be solely dependent on petroleum in the coming decades.
(ii) Yes, India has to depend a lot on imported petroleum and we spend a lot of foreign
exchange on it. However, in the coming decades our requirements of petroleum is very likely to
come down as we are able to shift to alternative sources of energy.

35. Case Study – 2

Read the source given below and answer the question that follows:
Source A - Mode of Occurrence of Minerals
Minerals are usually found in "ores". The term ore is used to describe an accumulation of any
mineral mixed with other elements. The mineral content of the ore must be in sufficient
concentration to make its extraction commercially viable.
Source B - Conventional Source of Energy
In India, coal is the most abundantly available fossil fuel. It provides a substantial part of the
nation's energy needs. It is used for power generation, to supply energy to industry as well as for

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 domestic needs. India is highly dependent on coal for meeting its commercial energy
requirements
Source C - Non-Conventional Source of Energy
The growing consumption of energy has resulted in the country becoming increasingly
dependent on fossil fuels such as coal, oil and gas. Increasing use of fossil fuels also causes
serious environmental problems. Hence there is a pressing need to use renewable energy sources
like solar energy, wind, tide biomass and energy from waste material.
(i) Where are mineral usually found? (1)
(ii) What is the most abundantly available fossil fuel in India? (1)
(iii) Describe any two non-conventional sources of energy. (2)
Ans: (i) Ores
(ii) Coal
(iii) Solar energy : India has enormous possibilities of trapping solar energy. Photovoltaic
technology converts sunlights directly into electricity. Wind energy : India is now a "wind super
power" in the world. The largest wind farm cluster is located in Tamil Nadu.

36. Case Study – 3

Read the given extract and answer following questions.
The Independence Day Pledge, 26 January, 1930 `We believe that it is the inalienable right of
the Indian people, as of any other people, to have freedom and to enjoy the fruits of their toil
and have the necessities of life, so that they may have full opportunities of growth. We believe
also that if any government deprives a people of these rights and oppresses them, the people
have a further right to alter it or to abolish it. The British Government in India has not only
deprived the Indian people of their freedom but has based itself on the exploitation of the
masses, and has ruined India economically, politically, culturally and spiritually. We believe,
therefore, that India must sever the British connection and attain Puma Swaraj or Complete
Independence:
(i) Who was the president of the Lahore Session of Congress held in December 1929? (1)
(ii) Why was Puma Swaraj considered essential by the people of India? (1)
(iii) Explain the significance of the Lahore Session of Congress (1929). (2)
Ans: (i) Jawaharlal Nehru
(ii) The British government had exploited the Indian people economically, politically, socially
and so they wanted complete independence from the british rule. Hence, Puma Swaraj was
considered essential by the people of India.
(iii) The Lahore Session of Congress in December 1929 had formalised the demand of 'Puma
Swaraj' or 'full independence' for India and it was declared that Independence Day would be
celebrated on 26 January 1930, when people will take pledge to struggle for complete
independence.

SECTION – F (Map Skill Questions) – 2 + 3 = 5

37. (a) Two places A and B have been marked on the given outline map of India. Identify them and
write their correct names on the lines drawn near them.
(I) The Place where Jallianwala Bagh massacre took place.
(II) The place where on 4th February 1922, large group of protestors, clashed with police and
set fire to a Police Station.
(b) On the same outline map of India locate and label any 3 of the following with suitable
symbols.
(i) Kakrapara Nuclear Plant (ii) Ballari Iron ore mine (iii) A Software Technology Park in
Kerala (iv) An Airport in Kolkata which was earlier known as Dum Dum. (v) Mormagao Port

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Ans:

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