28/11/2024

HOÀNG THỊ THANH TÂM- TRƯỜNG THPT BẠCH ĐẰNG

SECTION A. LISTENING
Part 1: For question 1- 5, You will hear part of a radio program in which two people, Sally
White and Martin Jones, are discussing the popularity of audio books then choose the
answer A, B, C or D which fits best according to what you hear.
1. Sally feels that the main advantage of audio books is that they
A. encourage children to read more.
B. make more books accessible to children
C. save parents from having to read to children.
D. are read by experienced actors.
2. What does Martin say about the woman who came into his shop?
A. She no longer worries about long journeys.
B. Her children used to argue about what to listen to
C. she no longer takes her children to France.
D. Her children don’t like staying in hotels.
3. Martin says that in the USA there is a demand for audio books because people there
A. were the first to obtain audio books
B. feel that they do not have time to read books.
C. are used to listening to the spoken words on the radio
D. have to drive long distances
4. Sally says that authors may record their own books on tape if
A. their book has just been published.
B. they want it read a certain way.
C. they have already read extracts from it aloud.
D. there are no suitable actors available.
5. According to Sally, successful abridgements depend on
A. their closeness to the originalB. the length of the original
C. the style of the authorD. the type of story

You will hear part of an interview with Kevin Langtree, who has just been voted Best
Young Chef of the Year. For questions 1-5, choose the best answer (A, B C or D). You
will listen TWICE.
Write your answers on your answer sheet.
1: How does Kevin account for his success?
A. He learns a lot from the diversity of food and people he meets.
B. He learns to stop being unkind towards fast food.
C. He envisions how takeaway meals will become in the future.
D. He tries to love every minute of the work.
2: What is Kevin's opinion about fish and chips?
A. He finds them indispensable in Britons' diet.
B. He is ambivalent about having them every day.
C. He thinks they do not bring the diversity that he loves.
D. He wants to incorporate them into food from different countries.
3: What does Kevin think about restaurants and takeaways in Britain?
A. They should be restructured to display more variety.
B. Too many of them are from India and China.
C. Finding a parking slot to have meals is a major problem
D. They're all very difficult to get to without a car.
4: What does Kevin say about the American fast-food outlets?
A. They make every customer look cool.
B. They are cheaper than the other restaurants.
C. They are slowly taking over other fast-food outlets
D. They target children and young people.
5: On mentioning root vegetables, what point does Kevin want to make?
A. British people are becoming more and more xenophobic.
B. Cosmopolitan food reflects a generally less insular society.
C. The root vegetables produced in Britain in the past were best.
D. There is greater choice, but imported foodstuffs are expensive.

Part 1: You will hear an interview with a man called Tim Jones, who organises an
international summer course for young musicians. For each question, choose the correct
answer.
1. What does Tim enjoy most about his job?
A. sorting out all the details
B. getting to know the musicians
C. listening to lots of good music
D. learn to play together as an orchestra.
2. Young musicians who want to do the course
A. need to fill in an online form.
B. have to perform to a very high level.
C. must be able to speak English very well.
D. must be over twenty.
3. Tim likes to hold the course in a place which
A. is specially designed for musicians.
B. is convenient for public transport.
C. is a long way from a big city.
D. is in the middle of the countryside.
4. What does Tim say about musical instruments?
A. Students cannot bring expensive ones.
B. Students sometimes lose them.
C. Students keep them in a special place.
D. Students needn’t consider the security.
5. What does Tim say about the concert tour after the course?
A. It has to make a lot of money.
B. It needs to be carefully planned.
C. It’s difficult to sell tickets.
D. Tickets have to be booked in advance.

Part 1. From questions 1-5, listen to a group of art history students going round an art
gallery with their teacher and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet to
indicate the information which fits best recording to what you hear. You will hear the
recording twice.
1. Burne-Jones believed that a painting __________
A. ought to be true to nature.
B. must have a clear moral point.
C. should play an instructive role in a modern industrial society.
D. need not have any practical value.
2. It appears that the story of the King and the Beggar Maid was _____
A. a well-known Victorian tale.
B. popularized by a poet.
C. brought to the artist's attention by his wife.
D. taken up by novelists at a later stage.
3. According to the student, how did the painter approach the work?
A. He wanted to portray the beggar very realistically.
B. He copied parts of the painting from an Italian masterpiece.
C. He had certain items in the painting made for him.
D. He wanted to decorate the clothing with jewels.
4. The student thinks that in some way the painting depicts_____
A. An uncharacteristically personal message.
B. the great sadness of the artist.
C. The artist's inability to return the girl's love.
D. the fulfilment of the artist's hopes and dreams.
5. What was people's reaction to the painting?
A. They recognized Frances Graham as the model for the Beggar Maid.
B. They realized how personal the painting was for the artist.
C. They interpreted the painting without difficulty.
D. They did not approve of the subject matter of the painting.
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HOÀNG THỊ THANH TÂM- TRƯỜNG THPT BẠCH ĐẰNG
SECTION A. LISTENING
Part 2. For question 6- 10, You will hear an interview on a train with two friends, Jane
and Chris, chef who both won prizes in the National Railway Chef of the Year competition.
Choose the correct answer A, B, C, or D. You will hear the recording twice.
6. What was Chris’s attitude to the competition?
A. He was worried about the quality of his dishes.
B. He was afraid time might be a bit of a problem.
C. He admitted he’d been looking forward to the challenge.
D. he said conditions were similar to his routine.
7. Jane admitted that the greatest problem she faced during the competition was having to
A. work in a very small space.B. be original when travelling at speed.
C. prepare a meal so quickly.D. create a meal with so little money.
8. What do both Chris and Jane feel is unique about their job?
A. the close contact with the customers
B. the necessary to do everything the same time
C. the opportunity to be creative
D. the need to be focused on the job
9. What do Chris and Jane feel about what they cook on board the train?
A. They approve of the menus created for them.
B. They consider themselves more adventurous than other chefs.
C. They would like to have more freedom of choice.
D. They are happy to adapt their ideas to suit the job.
10. What is often Jane’s initial reaction when things spill over?
A. She asks another member of staff to help her clear up.
B. She blames the train driver for the accident.
C. She feels herself to keep a closer watch next time.
D. She says nasty things to the other staff.

You will listen to part of an interview with the press officer of the National Fitness
Association, in which he gives advice on how to join the right gym. Choose the answer
(A, B, C or D ) which fits best according to what you hear. You will hear the recording
twice.
1. Why is it advisable to research gyms in your area before you join?
A. Some gyms have too much of a social scene.
B. Different gyms suit people with different needs.
C. It's impossible to lose weight in the wrong gym.
D. Some gyms have are not in good condition
2. Mark warns that joining a gym which is unsuitable for you ____________
A. will make you want to give up.
B. might prove embarrassing.
C. could end up being expensive.
D. may cause some injuries.
3. Apart from the standard monthly cost of being a member, you should find out ________
A. whether personal trainers are compulsory.
B. whether there are any hidden costs.
C. whether the changing rooms are expensive.
D. whether you have to pay for the water
4. If the gym asks you to sign a contract, you should ______________
A. be suspicious of that gym.
B. study it closely on your own.
C. see what happens if you leave.
D. need some few minutes to take it into account
5. Why does Mark say that life memberships are not good?
A. You might decide to live elsewhere.
B. The gym might move far away from you.
C. You might change your mind about exercise.
D. You may not be interested in the gym.

Part 2. For questions 6-10, listen to a radio phone-in programme on the subject of
allergies and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet to indicate the
information which fits best according to what you hear. You will hear the recording
twice.

6. Which of these possible explanations for the increase in allergies does the programme
presenter mention in her introduction?
A. People are exposed to more dangerous substances than in the past.
B. People's resistance to allergens is lower than in the past.
C. More new allergens are being released into the environment.
D. Higher levels of stress have made people more prone to allergies.
7. Which of the questions does the first caller, Tim, want to know the answer to?
A. What is the most likely cause of his allergy?B. Why is he allergic to grass and pollen?
C. Will he ever be free of the allergy?D. How can he improve his condition?
8. Arabella, the caller from Amsterdam, ________
A. thinks she may have passed on her allergy to her children.
B. asks how she can minimize the risk of her children having allergies.
C. wants to know whether her peanut allergy will continue in the future.
D. asks how probable it is that her children will have allergies.
9. If both a child's parents have a particular allergy, that child ________
A. is more than likely to have the same allergy.
B. has a less than fifty per cent chance of getting the same allergy.
C. will probably develop a different allergy.
D. is at no greater risk of developing the allergy than any other child.
10. According to Dr Bawaldi, some people believe that the increase in asthma among young
children may result from ________
A. living in centrally heated or air-conditioned buildings.
B. being in areas with very high levels of exhaust fumes.
C. spending too much time in hygienic environments.
D. receiving medical treatment for other types of illness.

Part 2. For questions 6-10, listen to an interview with an architect called Lucy Collett
who designs small buildings and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet to
indicate the information which fits best recording to what you hear. You will hear the
recording twice.
6. Lucy enjoyed building the tree-house because it _________.
A. gave her children somewhere to play
B. presented an interesting design problem
C. demonstrated the type of work she does
D. allowed her to fulfil a childhood ambition
7. What fascinated Lucy about the historical phone boxes?
A. their international character B. their luxurious interiors
C. their range of stylesD. the quality of their construction
8. At college, Lucy designed small buildings so that they _________.
A. could be assembled in a shorter time
B. would comply better with safety rules
C. would have a wider range of uses
D. could be built in a simpler style
9. Lucy got the idea for a folding market stall _________.
A. from her parents B. from travelling salesmen
C. while she was at a trade fairD. while she was on an overseas trip
10. The hotel phone booths which Lucy worked on were _________.
A. developed with mobile phone users in mind
B. designed for countries with relatively few mobile phones
C. placed at the entrance to the hotel lobby
D. intended to be the largest feature of the lobby
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HOÀNG THỊ THANH TÂM- TRƯỜNG THPT BẠCH ĐẰNG
I. Choose one word whose bold part is pronounced differently from the others. Write
your answers (A, B, C or D) in the spaces given on the right.
11. A. tiredB. erasedC. amusedD. beloved
12. A. commercialB. national C. partial D. question
13. A. connect B. comfort C. computer D. contest
14. A. laughterB. hauntedC. audibleD. pause
15. A. preparationB. explanationC. exhibitD. exercise

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet to indicate the word whose bold or
underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others in each group.
1. A. resign B. resound C. resurgent D. resolve
2. A. preferenceB. prevalence C. prejudiceD. premonition
3. A. concentrateB. private C. delicate D. accurate
4. A. trustworthyB. youths C. athleticsD. northern
5. A. complete B. reception C. receipt D.accept

I.Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet to indicate the word whose bold and
underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others in each group.
11. A. internet B. cabinet C. epithet D. minaret
12. A. huddle B. hoochie C. hood D. hauteur

13. A. bathhouse B. thoughtful C. clothes D. anthem

14. A. blockage B. damage C. cottage D. massage

15. A. venice B. justice C. practice D. suffice

I.Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose bold
and underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others in each group.
11. A. services B. determine C. personal D. Experience
12. A. vehicle B. housing C. neighbourhood D. high-rise
13. A. thank B. throat C. thief. D. though
14. A. advance B. ancient. C. cancer. D. annual
15. A. bachelor B. chef C. brochure D. machine

Phạm Công Quyết – THPT Cát Bà

I. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on the answer sheet to indicate the word whose bold and
underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others in each group.

11. A. absent B. strident C. extent D. prudent

12. A. shortage B. collage C. carriage D. manage

13. A. lesson B. scissor C. mussel D. assess

14. A. opposite B. erudite C. satellite D. appetite

15. A. obey B. obscure C. oblige D. subtle

I. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the answers sheet to indicate the word whose bold
and underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others in each group.
11. A. coast B. board C. boat D. road
12. A. nature B. artist C. winter D. photo
13. A. approach B. blame C. attract D. applicant
14. A. sick B. rise C. sand D. bus
15. A. seem B. wise C. sight D. purse
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HOÀNG THỊ THANH TÂM- TRƯỜNG THPT BẠCH ĐẰNG
SECTION B. PHONOLOGY
II. Choose the word which has a different stress position from the others in each group.
Write your answers (A, B, C, or D) in the spaces given on the right. (5 pts)
16. A. electrical B. interesting C. necessary D. beautifully
17. A. although B. between C. until D. career
18. A. possibility B. globalization C. understand D. governmental
19. A. poetic B. celebrateC. museumD. consider
20. A. sensitiveB. industrialC. commercial D. assistant

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose main stress
position is placed diferently from that of the others in each group.
1. A. photography B. professional C. declaration D.acceptable
2. A. assassinate B. employee C. intelligence D.entertain
3. A. prerequisiteB. academyC. respirationD. geneticist
4. A. peninsulaB. relativismC. legitimacyD. perpetuate
5. A. metropolitanB. tuberculosisC. hippopotamusD. supercilious

II. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet to indicate the word whose main
stress position is placed differently from that of the others in each group.
16. A. parade B. damage C. surround D. submerge

17. A.individual B. entertainment C. geometry D. environment

18. A. addict B. address C. adhere D. adjust

19. A. misgiving B. undying C. updating D. onlooker

20. A. exposure B. experience C. hurricane D. illipsis

II. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose main
stress position is placed differently from that of the others in each group.
16. A. superviseB. challengingC. flexibleD. qualification
17. A. overtimeB. reviewC. accountantD. condition
18. A. considerate B. photographer C. community D. circumstance
19. A. prevent B. recent C. receive D. remote
20. A. situationB. appropriate C. informality D. entertainment

Phạm Công Quyết – THPT Cát Bà

II. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on the answer sheet to indicate the word whose main
stress position is placed differently from that of the others in each group.

16. A. outlying B. importer C. outstanding D. unwitting

17. A. impulse B. impure C. impact D. image

18. A. flamingo B. predator C. technical D. masterpiece

19. A. support B. observe C. suffer D. expect

20. A. politician B. introduction C. beneficial D. considerate

II. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the answers sheet to indicate the word whose main
stress position is placed differently from that of the others in each group.
16. A. different B. creative C. possible D. national
17. A. suggest B. become C. prepare D. answer
18. A. willing B. decent C. afraid D. scary
19. A. maximum B. vacancy C. compliment D. commitment
20. A. poverty B. emission C. mechanic D.mechanic
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Đào Thị Huyền - Trường THPT Hải An
Câu hỏi: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet to indicate the correct word
or phrase to complete each of the following sentences.
21. The African killer bees could not be handled safely, nor _____.
A. could their honey be harvested B. their honey could be harvested
C. harvested could their honey be D. could nor their honey be harvested
22. _____ seeing an approaching car, some drivers tend to speed up.
A. When slowing down instead of B. Instead of when slowing down
C. Instead of slowing down when D. When instead of slowing down
23. Scientists have been carrying out experiments on _____ about it all night and didn't
get much sleep.
A. whether can noise pollution B. what can noise volution
C. whom noise pollution can D. how noise pollution can
24. He parked in the wrong place and the police _____ his car away.
A. hoisted B. hitched C. towed D. lifted
25. He believed that promotion should be awarded on ______, not on length of service.
A. equality B. merit C. characteristics D. purposes
26. As _____ in Greek and Roman mythology, harpies were frightful monsters that were half
woman and half bird.
A. described B. descriptive C. description D. descriptively
27. Some great men have had an ______ school record.
A. indistinct B. indistinguishable C. distinguished D. undistinguished
28. Anyone who lies under oath will be charged with _____ the course of justice.
A. perverting B. inverting C. converting D. diverting
29. The President is clearly in a _______ about how to tackle the crisis.
A. problem B. puzzle C. loss D. dilemma
30. The restaurant has _________ recently, and the food is much better now.
A. had its hands full B. lived hand to mouth
C. changed hands D. gained the upper hand
31. Far from sidestepping the issue, she should _______ and seek alternative solutions.
A. shake it to her foundations B. jump out of her skin
C. batten down the hatches D. snap her head off
32. You can try reformatting your computer, but once you open that _________, you'll
probably be working on it for days.
A. apple of discord B. can of worms
C. load of cobblers D. snot of bother
33. We intend to _____ with the old system as soon as we have developed a better one.
A. do up B. do away C. do down D. do in
34. When John was arrested for drunken driving, he expected to lose his driving license, but
he was ____ with a fine.
A. let through B. let off C. let out D. let down
35. A study that’s just been published _________ our theory completely.
A. puts up B. holds up C. backs up D. takes up

Câu hỏi: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet to indicate the correct word
or phrase to complete each of the following sentences.
21. We were shocked to hear the news of your ________.
A. having fired B. being fired
C. having been fired D. to have been fired
22. I’ve yet ________ a person as Theo.
A. to meet as infuriating B. to have met such infuriating
C. been meeting as infuriating D. been meeting such infuriating.
23. David was deported on account of his expired visa. He _____ it renewed.
A. must have had B. should have had
C. needn’t have had D. mightn't have had
24. Charles Babbage's 'difference engine' is widely regarded as the _____ of the computer.
A. ancestor B. precursor C. antecedent D. premonition
25.For centuries, Rome was the ______ power in the Mediterranean.
A. utmost B. superlative C. overruling D. supreme
26. We couldn’t fly _____ because all the tickets had been sold out.
A. economically B. economy C. economic D. economics
27. No candidate fulfils all the ______ for this position.
A. standards B. experience C. criteria D. requirement
28. In order to _______ their goals in college, students need to invest the maximum amount
of time, money, and energy in their studies.
A. manage B. catch C. establish D. achieve
29. Many collectors are willing to ______ for early examples of that famous artist’s works.
A. pay through their teeth B. live on the breadline
C. pay over the odds D. pull the wool over their eyes
30.It’s my job to ______ the budget.
A. weigh B. balance C. add D. raise
31. James never shows his emotions; no matter what happens, he always keeps a stiff upper
_______.
A. mouth B. eye C. head D. lip
32. I want you to _______ every bad word you’ve said about my brother.
A. take back B. say again C. take off D. give off
33. Most of the afternoon was________in Oxford, where I had a hair appointment.
A. taken on B. taken up C. depended on D. called up
34. Rudy was ______ with emotion at seeing his team win the championship.
A. carried over B. carried forward C. carried out D. carried away
35. I’ve been racking my _______ to remember that man’s name but it still won’t come.
A. mind B. thoughts C. brain D. Ideas
Câu hỏi: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet to indicate the correct word
or phrase to complete each of the following sentences.
21. There are no problems with Dan. He seems ______ after in a proper way.
A. to be looking B. to have looked
C. to have been looked D. to look
22. Of the two films we watched last night, “The Avengers” is ______.
A. more interesting B. as interesting
C. the more interesting D. the most interesting
23. "If you implement this scheme, we shall have no choice but to go on strike.'_________,
we must implement the scheme.'
A. Be that as it may B. Maybe that be as it is
C. Though it be thus D. While that be so
24. Extensive forests, abundant wildlife, and spectacular mountain ______ are among the
attractions of Glacier National Park.
A. scene B. scenery C. sights D. views
25. Teachers aim to help children become _________ learners.
A. autonomous B. withdrawn C. susceptible D. composed
26. Ben’s so unlucky in love. Why does he ______ the type of woman who brings trouble?
A. catch on B. fall for C. put before D. set out
27. David’s leaving on Friday. I suggest we all ______and get him a going-away present £1
each should do.
A. dish out B. chip in
C. pass the buck D. pay through the nose
28.The birdsong in the morning ______ my childhood memories of the time when I lived in
the countryside.
A. comes off B. gets along C. breaks in D. brings back
29.I think it’s time for us to mend our ______ before it’s too late.
A. edges B. benches C. fences D. watches
30. After her song topped the music chart, she proved that her success wasn’t a ______ in the
pan.
A. storm B. flash C. fire D. light
31. The government’s new policy in terms of providing free education for all children under 5
struck a ______ with poor parents.
A. note B. sound C. chord D. tune
32. Every time I see that shirt, I ______ my miserable days abroad.
A. look up to B. make up for C. go down with D. look back on
33. Many employees ______ the idea of increasing working hours from home.
A. look up to B. go along with C. keep away from D. make up for
34. The Prime Minister is to consider changes to sexually ________ laws to enforce equal
opportunities.
A. discriminate B. discrimination C. discriminatory D. discriminated
35. The Red Cross organizes and leads relief assistance missions after ______, such as
natural disasters, man-made disasters, and epidemics.
A. emergent B. emergencies C. emergently D. emergence

Câu hỏi: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet to indicate the correct word
or phrase to complete each of the following sentences.
21. You _____ then; otherwise, the policeman wouldn’t have stopped you.
A. could have been speeding B. must have been speeding
C. might have been speeding D. ought to have been speeding
22. ______, the balcony chairs will be ruined in this weather.
A. Leaving uncovered B. Having left uncovered
C. Left uncovered D. Been left uncovered
23. Job specialisation takes place ______ of production is separated into occupations.
A. whenever the work is B. when the work
C. is when the work D. whenever working
24. If there happened to be both rich and poor people, as there happen to be both black and
white ones, then the advantages of the ______ might well spread in time to the hard-up.
A. well-heeled B. big-hearted C. open-handed D. tight-fisted
25. His poor handling of the business ______ on negligence.
A. neared B. edged C. approached D. bordered
26. The job wasn’t giving the ______ of the experience he wanted
A. width B. depth C. length D. breadth
27. Violent crime has been reduced since the laws came into ________
A. influence B. effect C. impact D. affect
28. Sportsmen ______ their political differences on the sports field.
A. take part B. put aside C. take place D. keep apart
29. You will be brought before the disciplinary panel to ________ your behavior.
A. turn down B. take up C. account for D. put down
30. As the managing director dictating the letter, his secretary _______ what he was saying in
shorthand.
A. filled out B. took down C. set up D. put off
31. He said that the songs were “_________ inappropriate” for schoolchildren.
A. lyricism B. lyrically C. lyricist D. lyrical
32. The charity will go under unless a ______ donor can be found within the next few
months.
A. generous B. generator C. generously D. generosity
33. He asked if she had any _________ in her closet that might affect her political campaign.
A. bones B. skeletons C. dust D. dirt
34. He believes in honour trust between friends, loyalty between lovers, and that blood is
_______ than water between family members, but he discovers all these notions have
fallen apart.
A. thicker B. heavier C. stronger D. salter
35.I had no idea they were planning to organize a party for my birthday, they must have kept
it _____.
A. in deep water B. in a lip lockC. among the flowers D. under the rose
NGUYEN THI LAM – THPT HONG BANG
SECTION C: GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase
to complete each of the following sentences.
21. Very soon I found some other people to ________ and we began to write songs.
A. keep up with B. team up with
C. talk through with D. get along with
22. ________ hired on short-term contracts.
A. The rest of the staff have been B. The rest staff has been
C. The rest of the staff has been D. The rest staff have been
23. After a while, the flat was silent again. The baby had cried himself _______. His mother
sighed with relief.
A. sleeping B. to sleeping C. into sleeping D. to sleep
24. The dying man’s speech was so________ that no one was able to interpret his last
request.
A. incoherent B. indiscreet C. nonchalant D. impotent
25. While some areas are suffering from ________, others are experiencing heavy rains and
floods.
A. the weather B. the climate C. drought D. problems
26. Janice made some useful ________ for the class extra-curricular activities.
A. suggest B. suggested C. suggestions D. suggesting
27. The more ________ you look, the better impression you will make on your interviewer.
A. confine B. confident C. confidently D. confidence
28. ________ of patience, no one can beat Martha.
A. In front B. In spite C. In terms D. Regardless
29. Without written evidence, we don't have a________ on.
A. leg to stand B. foot to stand C. leg to lean D. foot to lean
30. The sheep was huddled into a ________ to protect them from overnight frosts.
A. pen B. barn C. kennel D. hutch
31. I'm so sorry that you have had such an unenjoyable meal. Please accept this bottle of
champagne as an apology.
A. on the house B. with an olive branch
C. in black and white D. at a drop of the hat
32. I could see that Tim was in a________ and didn't notice what was going on.
A. hot water B. brown study C. vacuum pump D. clock tower
33. The sheep was huddled into a ________ to protect them from overnight frosts.
A. pen B. barn C. kennel D. hutch
34. He promised to mend the broken wheel soon without ________.
A. fail B. failure C. trouble D. mistake
35. A: "I think I'm getting a sore throat."
B: "You're probably ________. You haven't gotten a full night's sleep in weeks!"
A.came-off B. run-down C. turned-over D. tired-out
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LƯƠNG THỊ THANH THỦY – THPT AN HẢI
Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B,C or D on the answer sheet to
indicate the correct phrase to complete each of the numbered blanks from 36 to 40.
Rock began in the USA in the early 1950s. At that time 'rhythm and blues' music was very
popular with black Americans. 'R&B' was a mixture of black religious music and jazz. It had
strong rhythms that you could dance to and simple, fast music.

Noticing the success of R&B music, white musicians started to copy the same style. By the
mid 1950s, this new while R&B music, (36)_______ 'rock 'n' roll' had become very popular.
Singers like Elvis Presley and Bill Haley attracted millions of teenage fans. Their music was
fast and loud. (37)_______ older people thought that rock 'n' roll was very dangerous.

By the early 1960s, even rock 'n' roll had become old-fashioned. Many of the songs had
begun to sound the same. It was at that time ( 38)___________ a new group from England
became popular: The Beatles.

The Beatles first started by singing American style songs, (39)_______ they soon developed
their own style, with more complicated melodies. They also introduced different instruments,
such as the Indian sitar. Groups like The Beatles had a very important influence on the style
of popular music. By the (40)_______ 1970s, rock 'n' roll had developed into a new form of
music. Electronics had replaced the amplified guitars and drums of rock 'n' roll. Rock had
arrived.
36. A. calling B. calls C. call D. called
37. A. Little B. Many C. Few D. Much
38. A. who B. what C. that D. when
39. A. and B. but C. so D. for
40. A. early B. opening C. first D. advance
HOÀNG THỊ THANH TÂM - TRƯỜNG THPT BẠCH ĐẰNG
SECTION D. READING
I. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct option that best fits each of the
numbered blanks from 36 to 40.
Engaging in part-time employment during adolescence can bring forth a lot of benefits for
teenagers. Taking on a part-time job allows teenagers to (36) __________ valuable skills and
experiences that can shape their personal and professional growth. By managing
responsibilities such as time management, teamwork, and customer service, teenagers
develop a sense of accountability and work ethic. Part-time jobs also provide opportunities
for them to explore their interests and passions, allowing them to make (37) ___________
about their future career paths. Furthermore, teenagers (38) ___________ work part-time
often learn the importance of financial literacy and develop budgeting skills as they handle
their earnings. (39) ___________ benefit is that part-time employment can boost their
confidence and self- esteem as they navigate real-world scenarios and interact with diverse
individuals. (40) __________, it is crucial for teenagers to balance their work commitments
with their academic responsibilities and personal well-being, ensuring that their part- time job
remains a positive and manageable aspect of their lives.
36. A. acquire B. realize C. hesitate D. worsen
37. A. influences B. concerns C. decisions D. contributions
38. A. which B. what C. whose D. who
39. A. Another B. Other C. The other D. Others
40. A. But B. However C. At the end D. So

Read the following passage adapted from Understanding Rural America - InfoUSA
and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word
for each of the blanks
The well-being of America's rural people and places depends upon many things - the
availability of good-paying jobs; (1) to critical services such as education, health
care, and communication; strong communities; and a healthy natural environment.
And, while urban America is equally dependent upon these things, the challenges to
well-being look very different in rural areas than in urban areas. Small-scale, low-
density settlement patterns make it more costly for communities and businesses to
provide critical services. Declining jobs and income in the natural resource-based
industries that many rural areas depend on (2) workers in
those industries to find new ways to make a living. Low-skill, low-wage rural
manufacturing industries must find new ways to challenge the increasing number of
foreign competitors. Distance and remoteness impede many rural areas from being
connected to the urban centers of economic activity. Finally, changes in the availability
and use of natural resources located in rural areas (3) _____________the
people who earn a living from those resources and those who derive recreational and
other benefits from them. Some rural areas have met these challenges successfully,
achieved some level of prosperity, and are ready (4) the challenges of the
future. Others have neither met the current challenges nor positioned themselves for the
future. Thus, concern for rural America is real. And, while rural America is a producer
of critical goods and services, the concern goes beyond economics. Rural America is
also home to a fifth of the Nation's people, keeper of natural amenities and national
treasures, and safeguard of a/an (5) part of American culture, tradition, and history.
1. A. advanteage B. key C. challenge D. access
2. A. turn B. make C. offer D. force
3. A. effect B. encourage C. affect D. stimulate
4. A. in B. for C. with D. of
5. A. unique B. incredible C. simple D. abnormal

SECTION D: READING
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase to complete each of the numbered blanks.
MARRAKECH
Marrakech is a city of great beauty, with its pink buildings and green palm trees contrasting
with the snow-covered (36) ____ of the Atlas Mountains in the distance. For tourists, there's
the added attraction of excellent food at reasonable prices, and high quality accommodation,
such as Hotel La Mamounia, regarded as one of the top hotels in the world.
(37) ____ Marrakech is one of Morocco's busiest and most modern cities, the influence of
the Middle Ages is still very evident. (38) ____ can admire the battlements, towers, and
mosques, which were built several centuries ago. And forget about shopping malls – for
perfumes, fabrics, antiques, spices and crafts, (39) ____ the ‘souks’, open-air market places
where you'll almost certainly find something to take back home.

For those who want to (40) ____ sport Marrakech has plenty to offer. In addition to golf and
tennis, there is also skiing on the slopes of the high Atlas Mountains, where the views of the
surrounding area are quite spectacular. Alternatively, you could just relax by a heated
swimming pool and dream of your next visit.
36. A. peaks B. hills C. heads D. surfaces
37. A. Because B. However C. Despite D. Although
38. A. Spectators B. Viewers C. Sightseers D. Onlookers
39. A. work out B. put up with. C. head for D. make up for
40. A. do B. exercise C. play D. go in for

SECTION D: READING
I.Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase to complete each of the numbered blanks from 36 to
40.
Shopping lists, super-market hopping and an increased sensitivity to shelf prices are among
the signs that Greek consumers in these times of financial crisis are changing their habits
when it comes to how they shop, what they spend and what they buy. These are the most
recent findings of an annual research project carried out by the Athens University of
Economics and Business on a (36) _______sample of 1,928 households.

One of the most significant changes in this year’s report is that 93.3 percent of respondents
said that they have already made up their (37)_______ about what they will buy in advance
of going shopping. Random purchases are becoming rarer: in the past, unable to resist the
temptation of the colourful shelf displays, shoppers would happily buy things from the
supermarket they had not intended to get when they set out. But at a time when money is
short, people tend to avoid buying anything but the bare essentials. (38)_______, there is
much less waste than in the past when people felt more carefree.

(39)_________ important finding is that only 60 percent of those (40)_______have made

mental or written shopping lists specifically intend to buy particular well-known brand names
when they get to the supermarket. Cheaper, less well-known brands or local supermarket
products, are becoming more popular.
(Adapted From Exam Preparation In School , Level (B1&B2) Exam In English)

36. A.careless. B. conscious C. random D. selective

37. A. minds. B. heads C. spirits D. thoughts
38. A. However. B. On the other hand. C. As a result. D. In addition
39. A. Other. B. Another. C. Each D. The other
40. A. who. B. which. C. whom D. what

Cao Thị Bảo Ngọc – THPT Chuyên Trần Phú

SECTION D: READING
I. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase to complete each of the numbered blanks from 36 to
40.
Those who opt for a vegetarian diet must usually (36) ________ a variety of aspect
concerning the nutritional value of vegetables and the adequacy of vegetarian meals in terms
of the number of nutrients provided to the body. Vegetarianism is not a new concept, rather
an ancient custom which evolved in the Far East cultures on ethical or religious grounds.

In today’s world, it has been undertaken by many followers who for a variety of reasons
believe the vegetarian diet more preferable to that containing meat. For example, there’s the
theory that animal meat wasn’t originally a component of the staple human diet as mankind
evolved from foragers who later acquired a taste for flesh. Hence, our (37) _______ ancestors
are alleged to have had a substantial intake of proteins and vitamins from natural vegetation
rather than from the meat of hunted game. What’s more, human teeth don’t (38) _______
much resemblance to those of animal carnivores, and neither is our digestive system
equivalent to the meat eaters’ one.

(39) _______ the enforced vegetarianism of underdeveloped communities where populations

deprived of animal protein fall back on the natural vegetation, there’s a rising acceptance of
the vegetarian diet which ceases to be regarded as an eccentricity. (40) ______ from animal
food, be it for religious, economic or humanitarian reasons, has been a quickly spreading
custom as, surprisingly, the vegetarian diet needn’t be dull or deficient. Yet, it does involve
taking good precautions to supply the body with a sufficient quantity of nutrients derived
from corn, seeds and cereals.
36. A. weigh up B. sort out C. set aside. D. run over
37. A. primeval B. antiquated C. archaic D. obsolete
38. A. infer B. assume C. bear. D. pertain
39. A. In lieu of B. In terms of C. With a view to D. Apart from
40. A. Resistance B. Abstention C. Hindrance. D. Defiance
SECTION D: READING
I. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase to complete each of the numbered blanks from 36 to
40.
WARNING ON GLOBAL WARMING
Global warming could cause drought and possibly famine in China, the source of much of
Hong Kong's food, by 2050, a new report predicts. Hong Kong could also be (36) ______
from flooding as sea level rose. The report (37) ______ building sea-walls around low-lying
areas such as the new port and airport reclamations. (38) ______ by the world Wide Fund of
Nature (WWF), the report, which includes work by members of the Chinese Academic
meteorological Sciences, uses the most recent projections on climate change to point to a
gloomy outlook for China.

By 2050, about 30 to 40 percent of the country will experience changes in the type of
vegetation it supports, with tropical and subtropical forest conditions (39) ______ northward
and hot desert conditions rising in the West where currently the desert is temperate, crop-
growing areas will expand but any benefit is expected to be negated by increased evaporation
of moisture, making it too dry to grow crops such as rice. The growing season also is
expected to alter, becoming shorter in southern and central China, the mainland's (40)
______. The rapid changes make it unlikely that plants could adapt.
36. A. at a loss B. at risk C. at it again. D. at random
37. A. comments B. realizes C. agrees. D. recommends
38. A. To publish. B. Having published C. Published. D. Publishing
39. A. running B. shifting C. dashing. D. rushing
40. A. breadwinner B. breadline C. breadbasket. D. breadboard

SECTION D: READING
I. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase to complete each of the numbered blanks from 36 to
40.
The craze of (36) ______ sports in the 1990s brought new popularity to climbing. It has also
featured in many popular films, although Hollywood does not always give an accurate picture
of what climbing really involves. There are many different types of climbing, the most
difficult and dangerous one being alpine climbing where climbers spend days or weeks at a
time (37) ______ mountains, often in freezing conditions. This sort of climbing requires very
specific equipment and is usually only done by professional climbers with plenty of
experience.

(38) ______, climbing doesn't have to involve snow and ice and dangerous conditions; it can
be a very enjoyable hobby and something you can do for just a few hours on a Saturday
afternoon. At the other end of the climbing (39) ______ from alpine climbing is sport
climbing. This can be done indoors or outdoors on climbing walls. These walls vary from
those which are completely artificial and which have been designed and built specially for the
purpose to naturally (40) ______ rock formations which have been prepared for climbing
with equipment bolted in place. For beginners the easiest type of climbing is top-roping
where the rope is already in place. All you need are climbing shoes, a harness and an
experienced climber or instructor to work the belay device and control the ropes. All this
basic equipment can be hired from most sports centres.
(Adapted from FCE Practice Tests by Karen Dyer and Dave Harwood)
36. A. extreme B. ghostly C. fearful D. scary
37. A. in B. up C. on D. at
38. A. Although B. Because. C. Therefore. D. However
39. A. domain B. aspect C. spectrum D. format
40. A. happening B. occurring. C. existing D. emerging

The popular writer J. K. Rowling has agreed to end her part in the destruction of the world’s
forests by having her books printed on paper which is environmentally friendly. The multi-
millionaire author, whose novels about a teenage wizard have _(36) 6.5 million trees so
far, is one of a number of high-profile authors who have pledged their support for the
environment by stipulating that only recycled paper should be used for their books.
Techniques (37) in Canada mean that, for the first time, paper made from such
materials as office waste paper can be used to make books. The Canadian edition of
Rowling’s last book was printed without chopping down a single tree, saving an (38)
40,000 of them. In the past, it was difficult to print books on recycled paper because the
paper was not strong enough to withstand a lifetime’s reading. Technological advances
mean that paper which is manufactured from waste materials is now just as (39) as
paper made from virgin fiber in terms of quality and strength. Despite the high cost of
developing recycled paper that has the required strength and whiteness needed for books,
there will not necessarily be a price rise for the readers. (40) , publishers are likely
to compensate for the higher paper cost by using cheaper book covers, as happened in
Canada.

Question 36. A. exhausted B. erased C. consumed D. absorbed

Question 37. A. led B. inaugurated C. pioneered D. founded
Question 38. A. evaluated B. estimated C. established D. assessed
Question 39. A. durable B. firm C. persistent D. substantial
Question 40. A. Moreover B. Instead C. However D. Therefore
————————————————————————————————————

HOÀNG THỊ THANH TÂM- TRƯỜNG THPT BẠCH ĐẰNG

SECTION D. READING
II. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct option that
best fits each of the numbered blanks from 41 to 45.
Many young people strive to be independent. That means you are able to take care of
yourself, and you don't have to rely on anyone else. However, to live independently, you need
a number of life skills in order not to (41) _______ and older brothers or sisters. One of the
most important skills is time management (42) _______ and self-esteem. With good time
management skills, you can perform (43) _______, including your responsibilities at school
and at home with pleasing results. Moreover, you will not feel stressed when exam dates are
approaching. These skills can also help you act more independently and responsibly, get
better grades at school and (44) _______.

Developing time-management skills is not as challenging as you may think. Firstly, make a
plan for things you need to do, including appointments and deadlines. Using a diary or apps
on mobile devices will remind you of what you need to accomplish and when you need
to accomplish it. Secondly, prioritize your activities. You need to decide which tasks are the
most urgent and important. Thirdly, develop routines because routines, when established,
take less time for you to do your tasks.
Time management skills are not hard to develop; once you master them, you will find out that
they are great keys to success and (45) _______.
41. A. depend on your parents B. depended on your parents
C. to depend on your parents D. depending on your parents
42. A. can help you build your confidence
B. which can help you build your confidence
C. where can help you build your confidence
D. can be helped to build your confidence
43. A. their daily tasks B. our daily tasks C. my daily tasks D. your daily tasks
44. A. have more for family and friends time
B. family and friends have more time for
C. have more time for your family and friends
D. family and friends have for more time
45. A. you can become independent. B. her can become independent.
C. this can become independent. D. that is can become independent

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on the answer sheet to
indicate the correct phrase or sentence to complete each of the numbered blanks.
While the integration of technology in urban development is promising, it is not without
challenges. (1)_____________ is ensuring the inclusivity and accessibility of these
technologies to all sections of society. Additionally, (2)_______________can be high, posing
a challenge for resource-limited settings.

(3)_______________, a collaborative approach involving the government, private sector, and

civil society is essential. Policies and frameworks that support innovation while ensuring
environmental protection are critical. Furthermore, public awareness and participation in
smart city initiatives play a crucial roletheir success and sustainability.
In conclusion, the intersection of smart cities and green living is not just a possibility but a
necessity in our quest for sustainable urban development. By leveraging technology in a way
(4)____________ we can create urban spaces that are not only efficient and technologically
advanced (5)______________. The journey towards smart, sustainable cities requires a
concerted effort from all stakeholders, and with the right approach, this vision can indeed
become a reality.
1. A.One significant challenge B. One significant challenges
C. One challenges of the significance D. One challenge of significant
2. A.the cost of initial of the implementing smart technologies
B. the initial costly of smart technologies implementing
C. the initial cost of implement smart technologies
D. the initial cost of implementing smart technologies
3. A.Not to overcome these challenges B. To overcome these challenges
C. To overcome this challenges D. To be overcome these challenges
4. A.that respects and preserves the environment, B. who respects and preserves the
environment,
C. where respects and preserves the environment, D. when respects and preserves the
environment,
5. A.but sustainable and livable. B. but sustainable and also livable.
C. also sustainable and livable. D. but also sustainable and livable.
Tran Thi Thuy – THPT Bach Dang

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet to
indicate the correct phrase or sentence to complete each of the numbered blanks from 1
to 5.
My school organizes a carnival every year during the month of October. It is the time our first
term examination is over and there is still enough time for the second term examination to
begin. So, (41)_____.

Our school management and teachers put in a lot of efforts in organizing the school carnival.
They all begin with the preparation months and (42)_____. Many of the senior class students
are also a part of the carnival organization committee and they also work with dedication
(43)_____ . Big posters are made and several craft items are made to decorate the place
where the carnival is to be held.

Our teachers ensure (44)_____. A number of stalls are set for the entertainment of visitors.
Some of these stalls have interesting games that mostly involve single player. These games
test your intelligence, analytical skills and eye-hand coordination. Then, there are rides
mostly for children up to 10 years. (45)____ ,they enjoy them thoroughly. We also have food
stalls serving delectable food. These stalls pull a large number of people and are appreciated
for their amazing food and quick service.
41. A. what is the perfect time to host a carnival B. which is the perfect time to host a
carnival
C. this is the perfect time to host a carnival D. there is the perfect time to host a
carnival
42.A. come up with various innovative ideas B. come various innovative ideas up with
C. to come up with various innovative ideas D. to come various innovative ideas up with
43.A. to make a success this event B. to make this event a success
C. making this event a success D. making a success this event
44. A. active participation from each student B. from each student active participation
C. participation active from each student D. from active participation each student.
45. A. To take these rides B. Take these rides
C. Having taken these rides D. When children take these rides

II.Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct phrase or sentence to complete each of the numbered blanks from
41 to 45.
There are more than one billion cows in the world, and cow farming is a large source of
methane emissions. This colorless and odorless gas ____ (41) ____ at warming the earth.

Farmers and companies are developing solutions for ___ (42) _____. In Canada and Brazil,
farmers started adding a special ingredient to their animals' feed to reduce cows' methane
production. In New Zealand, scientists are working on a vaccine which can cut methane
emissions. Rather than stopping methane emissions, a UK company has designed face masks
to catch the gas___ (43) ______.

The masks will allow cows to continue _____ (44) ____ but will turn methane into CO2 and
water. They can fit comfortably on the cow's head and can be adjusted to different head sizes.
Sensors on the masks can notice when methane comes out of the cow's mouth and provide
the percentage of the gas____(45)_____. This information can also be useful for farmers who
can use it to identify the early signs of disease. For example, if a cow eats less, but produces
more methane than usual, it may have a health problem.

It is predicted that the need for beef and dairy products will go up in the coming years. The
company developing the methane-catching masks hopes that farmers will start using their
invention, which will slow down global warming.
41. A. is more much powerful than CO2. B. is much more powerful than CO2.
C. is much powerful than CO2. D. is much powerful more than CO2.
42. A. decreasing cows' methane emissions.
B. to be decreasing cows' methane emissions.
C. to decrease cows' methane emissions
D. decrease cows' methane emissions.
43. A. before it being released. B. before being released it.
C. before they are released. D. before it is released.
44. A. their normal diet B. its normal diet
C. our normal diet D. this normal diet
45. A. who can cut methane emissions.
B. what can cut methane emissions.
C. which can cut methane emissions.
D. which can be cut methane emissions
————————————————————————————————————
LƯƠNG THI THANH THỦY – THPT AN HẢI
Read the following pasage and mark the letter A,B,C or D on the answer sheet to
indicate the correct phrase of sentence to complete each of the numbered blanks from
46 to 55.
In today’s fast-paced industry, learning will most likely involve (46)__________ in ways that
challenge the norm. (47)_________, there is a promise for such lifelong learning online – a
promise that will save you time and money while helping you earn more of both.

(48)_________, the barrier to getting started is probably lower than it ever has been. And
with those things in place, it is a matter of finding the content you wish to learn. So, to help
others who may be looking to maximize their own learning efforts, I have listed some quick
tips below.

First, set achievable goals. When you start learning, (49)____about what you want to learn or
what you might do with your newly acquired knowledge. It might be landing that new job,
building a tangible product, or (50) ____. The goals may vary in size and complexity but do
revisit these goals throughout your learning process. Within a couple weeks ask yourself,
“Am I getting closer to my goal?” or “Am I learning the skills necessary to reach (51) _____?
If you are not, then you may need to look elsewhere.

Second, (52) ___. By yourself, (53) ____to become frustrating. Try teaming up with friends
or colleagues. They can often be your best resource (54) ___

Third, make it a habit. Online habits often include scrolling through social media or watching
videos on YouTube. If you have the downtime for such activities, then you could spend that
downtime learning something. (55)__________And why not learn something? If you do, then
you will have plenty more to talk about on social media anyway. So, make learning your new
online habit by making a commitment to learn something new each day.
46. A. seeking new skills B. to seek new skills
C. seek new skills D. seeks new skills
47.A. And thankfully B. But thankfully
C. Tobe thankful D. Thankfully
48.A. If you have access to a decent computer and the Internet
B. Unless you have access to a decent computer and the Internet
C. Should you have access to a decent computer and the Internet
D. Provided you have access to a decent computer and the Internet
49.A. it is a good idea to set goals. B. being a good idea to set goals
C. which is a good idea to set goals. D. that is a good idea to set goals
50.A. to impress your current management B. impress your current management
C. impressing your current management D. to impressing your current management
51.A. my goals B. their goals. C. her goals D. our goals

52.A. to learn anything has a high propensity

B. when learning anything has a high propensity
C. having learnt anything has a high propensity
D. learning anything has a high propensity
53.A. learn with other B. learn with another
C. learn with others D. learn with the other
 54.A. to maintaining motivation while you learn.
B. for maintaining motivation while you learn.
C. in maintaining motivation while you learn.
D. about maintaining motivation while you learn.
55.A. And why not learn something. B. Do you want to learn anything
C. Let’s learn something D. Shall we learn something
————————————————————————————————————
Trần Thị Thúy – THPT Bạch Đằng
HOÀNG THỊ THANH TÂM- TRƯỜNG THPT BẠCH ĐẰNG
SECTION D. READING
IV. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 56 to 60.
It is estimated that by 2050 more than two-thirds of the world's population will live in cities,
up from about 54 percent today. While the many benefits of organized and efficient cities are
well understood, we need to recognize that this rapid, often unplanned urbanization brings
risks of profound social instability, risks to critical infrastructure, potential water crises, and
the potential for devastating spread of disease. These risks can only be further exacerbated as
this unprecedented transition from rural to urban areas continues.

How effectively these risks can be addressed will increasingly be determined by how well
cities are governed. The increased concentration of people, physical assets, infrastructure, and
economic activities mean that the risks materializing at the city level will have far greater
potential to disrupt society than ever before.

Urbanization is by no means bad by itself. It brings important benefits for economic, cultural
and societal development. Well managed cities are both efficient and effective, enabling
economies of scale and network effects while reducing the impact on the climate of
transportation. As such, an urban model can make economic activity more environmentally-
friendly. Further, the proximity and diversity of people can spark innovation and create
employment as exchanging ideas breeds new ideas.

But these utopian concepts are threatened by some of the factors driving rapid urbanization.
For example, one of the main factors is rural-urban migration, driven by the prospect of
greater employment opportunities and the hope of a better life in cities. But rapidly increasing
population density can create severe problems, especially if planning efforts are not sufficient
to cope with the influx of new inhabitants. The result may, in extreme cases, be widespread
poverty. Estimates suggest that 40% of the world's urban expansion is taking place in slums,
exacerbating socio-economic disparities and creating unsanitary conditions that facilitate the
spread of disease.

The Global Risks 2015 Report looks at four areas that face particularly daunting challenges in
the face of rapid and unplanned urbanization: infrastructure, health, climate change, and
social instability. In each of these areas we find new risks that can best be managed or, in
some cases, transferred through the mechanism of insurance.
56. According to paragraph 3, what is one of the advantages of urbanization?
A. It minimizes risks for economic, cultural and societal development.
B. It makes water supply system both efficient and effective.
C. Weather and climate in the city will be much improved.
D. People may come up with new ideas for innovation.
57. Which statement is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. Urbanization brings important benefits for development as well.
B. 54% of the world's population will live in cities by 2050.
C. Risks cannot be addressed effectively no matter how well cities are governed.
D. Rapidly increasing population density can help solve poverty.
58. The word "addressed" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _________.
A. aimed at B. dealt with C. added to D. agreed on
59. What can be inferred from the passage?
A. Poverty may be a foregone conclusion of unplanned urbanization.
B. Diseases are caused by people migrating to cities.
C. Urbanization can solve the problem of environmental pollution in cities.
D. The increasing number of people in cities can create more employment.
60. Which is the most suitable title for the passage?
A. The Risks of Rapid Urbanization in Developing Countries
B. Infrastructure and Economic Activities in Cities
C. The Global Risks 2015 Report on Developing Urban Areas
D. Rapid Urbanization Put Cities in Jeopardy

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct option that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 40.
Langston Hughes was one of the greatest American writers of the twentieth century. He was
born in Joplin, Missouri, and moved to Cleveland at the age of fourteen. Several years later
he spent one year in Mexico before attending Columbia University in New York. For a few
years after that he roamed the world as a seaman, visiting ports around the world and writing
some poetry. He returned to the United States and attended Lincoln University, where he won
the Witter Bynner Prize for undergraduate poetry. After graduating in 1928, he traveled to
Spain and to Russia with the help of a Guggenheim fellowship.

His novels include Not Without Laughter (1930) and The Big Sea (1940). He wrote an
autobiography in 1956 and also published several collections of poetry. The collections
include The Weary Blues (1926), The Dream Keeper (1932), Shakespeare in Harlem
(1942), Fields of Wonder (1947), One Way Ticket (1947), and Selected Poems (1959). A
man of many talents, Hughes was also a lyricist, librettist, and a journalist. As an older man
in the 1960s he spent much of his time collecting poems from Africa and from African-
Americans to popularize black writers. Hughes is one of the most accomplished writers in
American literary history, and he is seen as one of the artistic leaders of the Harlem
Renaissance, the period when a neighborhood that was predominantly black produced a flood
of great literature, music, and other art forms depicting daily city life for African-Americans.
1. What is the main topic of this passage?
A. the life of Langston Hughes B. the Harlem Renaissance
C. African-American writers D. American twentieth-century writers
2. The word “accomplished” in paragraph 2 is opposite in meaning to_______.
A.capable B. adept C. proficient D. incompetent
3. To which of the following movements might “Shakespeare in Harlem” refer to?
A. the Civil War B. the Harlem Riots
C. the Harlem Renaissance D. the Civil Rights Movement
4. According to the author, what did Hughes do during the later years of his life?
A. write short stories B. popularize African-American writers
C. advocate racial equality D. write about life in Harlem
5. According to the passage, Langston Hughes was all of the following EXCEPT _______.
A. a novelist B. a poet C. an historian D. a journalist

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
Football, or soccer in the U.S., dates back to 2500 B.C.E with the Chinese game of tsu chu.
The sport we know today originated from Britain. Today, more than 120 million players
over the globe participate in the game, making soccer the world’s sport.

So, why is soccer so popular? Maybe it’s a feeling that the team on the field is your team;
their win is your victory, and their loss is your defeat. Or maybe it is the game’s
international quality. In countries like France, England, Spain, Brazil, major teams have
players from many different nations, and these clubs now have fans all over the world. Or
perhaps it’s the promise of great wealth. A number of professional soccer players,
including Cameroon’s Samuel Eto’o and Portugal’s Cristiano Ronaldo, come from poor
families. Today, both of these players make millions of euros every year.
However, ultimately, the main reason for its universal appeal may be this: It’s a simple
game. It can be played anywhere with anything – a ball, a can, or even some bags tied
together. And anyone can play it.

In the mid-1800s, European colonists brought the game to Africa. Early matches were first
played in the South African cities of Cape Town in 1862: Today, some of the game’s best
players come from African nations and all over the continent, thousands of soccer
academies now recruit boys from poorer cities and towns to play the game. Their dream is
to join a national team or one of the big clubs in Europe someday. For some, the dream
comes true, but for most, it doesn’t.
(Adapted from https: //www.telegraph.co.uk)
Question 56. What is the passage mainly about?
A. the history of soccer B. soccer clubs
C. the popularity of soccer D. how African soccer began
Question 57. According to the passage, where did the sport football or soccer that we
 know today originate from?
A. China B. Britain C. Africa D. France
Question 58. In the second paragraph, which of these is NOT given as a possible reason
for soccer’s popularity?
A. the team spirit among players B. famous players from many different
countries
C. the number of soccer games shown on TV D. the possibility of making a lot of
money
Question 59. What does the author mean by “It’s a simple game” in paragraph 3?
A. The rules are easy for people to understand. B. You can play it anywhere with
anything.
C. You don’t need talent to play soccer well. D. There are many local versions of
soccer.
Question 60. What does the word “some” in the last sentence of paragraph 4 refer to?
A. poor boys B. soccer academies C. national teams D. cities and
towns

IV.Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the numbered blanks from 56 to 60
Risk-Taking and the Monkey Economy
Humans are uniquely smart among all the other species on the planet. We are capable of
outstanding feats of technology and engineering. Then why are we so prone to making
mistakes? And why do we tend to make the same ones time and time again? When Primate
Psychologist Laurie Santos from the Comparative Cognition Lab at Yale University posed
this question to her team, they were thinking in particular of the errors of judgement which
led to the recent collapse of the financial markets. Santos came to two possible answers to
this question. Either humans have designed environments which are too complex for us to
fully understand, or we are biologically prone to making bad decisions.
In order to test these theories, the team selected a group of Brown Capuchin monkeys.
Monkeys were selected for the test because, as distant relatives of humans, they are
intelligent and have the capacity to learn. However, they are not influenced by any of the
technological or cultural environments which affect human decision-making. The team
wanted to test whether the capuchin monkeys, when put into similar situations as humans,
would make the same mistakes.
[A] Of particular interest to the scientists was whether monkeys would make the same
mistakes when making financial decisions. [B] In order to find out, they had to introduce the
monkeys to money. [C] The monkeys soon cottoned on, and as well as learning simple
exchange techniques, were soon able to distinguish 'bargains' – If one team-member offered
two grapes in exchange for a metal disc and another team-member offered one grape, the
monkeys chose the two-grape option. [D] Interestingly, when the data about the monkey's
purchasing strategies was compared with economist's data on human behaviour, there was a
perfect match.
So, after establishing that the monkey market was operating effectively, the team decided to
introduce some problems which humans generally get wrong. One of these issues is risk-
taking. Imagine that someone gave you $1000. In addition to this $1000, you can receive
either A) an additional $500 or B) someone tosses a coin and if it lands 'heads' you receive an
additional $1000, but if it lands 'tails' you receive no more money. Of these options, most
people tend to choose option A. They prefer guaranteed earnings, rather than running the risk
of receiving nothing. Now imagine a second situation in which you are given $2000. Now,
you can choose to either A) lose $500, leaving you with a total of $1500, or B) toss a coin; if
it lands 'heads' you lose nothing, but if it lands 'tails' you lose $1000, leaving you with only
$1000. Interestingly, when we stand to lose money, we tend to choose the more risky choice,
option B. And as we know from the experience of financial investors and gamblers, it is
unwise to take risks when we are on a losing streak.
So would the monkeys make the same basic error of judgement? The team put them to the
test by giving them similar options. In the first test, monkeys had the option of exchanging
their disc for one grape and receiving one bonus grape, or exchanging the disc for one grape
and sometimes receiving two bonus grapes and sometimes receiving no bonus. It turned out
that monkeys, like humans, chose the less risky option in times of plenty. Then the
experiment was reversed. Monkeys were offered three grapes, but in option A were only
actually given two grapes. In option B, they had a fifty-fifty chance of receiving all three
grapes or one grape only. The results were that monkeys, like humans, take more risks in
times of loss.
The implications of this experiment are that because monkeys make the same irrational
judgements that humans do, maybe human error is not a result of the complexity of our
financial institutions, but is imbedded in our evolutionary history. If this is the case, our
errors of judgement will be very difficult to overcome. On a more optimistic note however,
humans are fully capable of overcoming limitations once we have identified them. By
recognising them, we can design technologies which will help us to make better choices in
future.
56. What was the aim of the experiment outlined above?
A To investigate whether monkeys could learn to use money
B To investigate where human mistakes come from
C To find out whether it is better to take risks in times of loss
D To determine whether monkeys make more mistakes than humans

57. Which of the following statements is the best paraphrase of the highlighted sentence?
On a more optimistic note however, humans are fully capable of overcoming limitations
once we have identified them.
A Hopefully, humans will soon be able to solve these problems.
B Fortunately, humans can solve problems that we know about.
C Luckily, humans do not have many limitations which have been identified.
D We are happy to note that we can solve the problem which we have identified.
58. The words 'cottoned on' are closest in meaning to:
A learnt
B knew
C completed
D concluded
59. Which paragraph addresses why monkeys were chosen for the experiment?
A Paragraph 2
B Paragraph 3
 C Paragraph 4
D Paragraph
60. What can be inferred about Laurie Santos?
A She thinks that both humans and monkeys are greedy.
B Her job frequently involves working with monkeys.
C She believes that humans should never take risks.
D She prefers monkeys to humans.
—————————————————————————————————————
Cao Thị Bảo Ngọc – THPT Chuyên Trần Phú
V. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 61 to 65.
The modern comic strip started out as ammunition in a newspaper war between giants of the
American press in the late nineteenth century. The first full-color comic strip appeared in
January 1894 in the New York World, owned by Joseph Pulitzer. The first regular weekly
full-color comic supplement, similar to today’s Sunday funnies, appeared two years later, in
William Randolph Hearst’s rival New York paper, the Morning Journal.

Both were immensely popular and publishers realized that supplementing the news with
comic relief boosted the sale of papers. The Morning Journal started another feature in 1896,
the “Yellow Kid”, the first continuous comic character in the United States, whose creator,
Richard Outcault, had been lured away from the World by the ambitious Hearst. The
“Yellow Kid” was in many ways a pioneer. Its comic dialogue was the strictly urban farce
that came to characterize later strips, and it introduced the speech balloon inside the strip,
usually placed above the characters’ heads.

The first strip to incorporate all the elements of later comics was Rudolph Dirks’s
“Katzenjammer Kids”, based on Wilhelm Busch’s Max and Moritz, a European satire of the
nineteenth century. The “Kids” strip, first published in 1897, served as the prototype for
future American strips. It contained not only speech balloons, but a continuous cast of
characters, and was divided into small regular panels that did away with the larger panoramic
scenes of earlier comics.

Newspaper syndication played a major role in spreading the popularity of comic strips
throughout the country. Though weekly colored comics came first, daily black-and-white
strips were not far behind. The first appeared in the Chicago American in 1904. It was
followed by many imitators, and by 1915 black-and-white comic strips had become a staple
of daily newspapers around the country.
61. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. A comparison of two popular comic strips
B. The differences between early and modern comic strips
C. The effects of newspapers on comic strip stories
D. Features of early comic strips in the United States
62. The passage suggests that comic strips were popular for which of the following reasons?
A. They provided a break from serious news stories.
B. Readers enjoyed the unusual drawings.
C. Readers could identify with the characters
D. They were about real-life situations.
63. What does the author mean by stating “Richard Outcault, had been lured away from
the World by the ambitious Hearst”?
A. Hearst convinced Outcault to leave the World.
B. Hearst fired Outcault from the World.
C. Hearst warned Outcault not to leave the World.
D. Hearst wanted Outcault to work for the World.
64. According to the passage, the “Yellow Kid” was the first comic strip to do all of the
following EXCEPT ______.
A. feature the same character in each episode
B. include dialogue inside a balloon
C. appear in a Chicago newspaper
D. characterize city life in a humorous way
65. The word “staple” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. regular feature B. popular edition C. new version D. huge
success
Nguyễn Thị Thảo Vy – THPT Chuyên Trần Phú

V. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 61 to 65.
THE RECYCLED ORCHESTRA
There is a village called Cateura in poverty-stricken Latin America that has to be seen to be
believed: it is a slum built on a landfill. People here live on garbage and from garbage.
Tons of rotting debris are dumped here daily, and the villagers swarm around the garbage
trucks, picking over the pieces that provide them with their livelihood. They are definitely the
poorest of the region, yet they are a passionate people with strong family bonds and
friendships. Cateura is the setting of one of the most amazing examples of how love and
creativity can triumph over poverty.

It all started a few years ago, when one of the garbage pickers, known as “Cola”, joined
forces with a local musician, Favio, to start making instruments for the children of the slum.
Cola grew up close to Cateura and started working as a builder at the age of 7, when his
father died. After 3 decades of hard labour in construction, he considered himself fortunate to
become a trash collector, due to the steady daily income it provides. As he puts it, “There will
always be garbage, which means I will always have a job.” Cola proved to be an untutored
genius, creating violins and cellos from oil cans, flutes from water pipes, and guitars from
packing crates. The children and their parents were thrilled and eventually one of the most
unusual orchestras was formed. Called the “Recycled Orchestra”, the musicians use
instruments that are made entirely out of trash.

Favio’s initial aim was simply to offer music lessons in order to keep the children out of the
landfill and away from drugs or illegal activities. Never in his wildest dreams could he have
imagined the dedication and support his endeavours would receive. Parents were thrilled that
their children were being kept out of trouble and soon there were more and more children
wanting to take his music lessons. The problem was the lack of instruments; in Cateura, a
violin can cost more than a house. This is where Cola came into the picture. Having
experimented for months with instrument building, he ultimately fashioned instruments that
sounded superior to the “real instruments” that the state had donated to his cause.
61. What is the author trying to express with the sentence 'People here live on garbage
and from garbage' in paragraph 1?
A. that the amount of garbage in the landfill is steadily increasing
B. that it is impossible for the villagers to leave the landfill
C. that garbage is an indispensable part of the villagers’ lives
D. that the villagers are becoming fed up with the garbage
62. How does the first paragraph describe Cateura?
A. as a village with the potential to become wealthy
B.as a village with many contradictions
C. as a village whose residents have lost hope
D. as a typical Latin American village
63. What does Cola appreciate about his job as a trash collector?
A. collaborating with others while collecting trash
B. the potential of attaining a higher position
C. the flexibility it offers him
D. the stability it provides
64. What does the author mean by the phrase 'untutored genius' in paragraph 2?
A. that Cola’s skills are underestimated
B. that Cola is being taken advantage of
C. that Cola’s musical abilities are unique
D. that Cola’s talent is innate
65. Why did Favio start giving music lessons to the children from the village?
A. He wanted to find better uses for garbage.
B. He hoped to draw the media's attention to their situation.
C. He was concerned about their welfare.
D. He thought this could improve his skills in music.

V. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 61 to 65.
In an unremarkable business park outside the city of Ann Arbor in Michigan stands a
poignant memorial to humanity’s shattered dreams. It doesn’t look like that from the outside,
though. Even when you get inside, it takes a few moments for your eyes to get used to what
you’re seeing. It appears to be a vast and haphazardly organized supermarket; along every
aisle, grey metal shelves are crammed with thousands of packages of food and household
products. There is something unusually cacophonous about the displays and soon enough you
work out the reason: unlike in a real supermarket, there is only one of each item.

The storehouse, operated by a company called GfK Custom Research North America, has
acquired a nickname: the Museum of Failed Products. This is consumer capitalism’s
graveyard or, to put it less grandly, it’s almost certainly the only place on the planet where
you’ll find A Touch of Yogurt shampoo alongside the equally unpopular For Oily Hair Only.
The museum is home to discontinued brands of caffeinated beer and self-heating soup cans
that had a regrettable tendency to explode in customers’ faces.

There is a Japanese term, mono no aware, that translates roughly as “the pathos of things”. It
captures a kind of bittersweet melancholy at life’s impermanence – that additional beauty
imparted to cherry blossoms, for their fleeting nature. It’s only stretching the concept slightly
to suggest that this is how the museum’s manager, an understatedly stylish GfK employee
named Carol Sherry, feels about the cartons of Morning Banana Juice in her care or about
Fortune Snookies, a short-lived line of fortune cookies for dogs. Every failure, the way she
sees it, embodies its own sad story on the part of designers, marketers, and salespeople. It is
never far from her mind that real people had their mortgages, their car payments, and their
family holidays riding on the success of products such as A Touch of Yogurt.
(Adapted from Gold Advanced by Sally Burgess & Amanda Thomas)
61. According to the writer, what is the reason why the storehouse does not resemble a
supermarket?
A. its appearance on the outside B. the dimly lit space
C. the size of the building D. the range of products on each
shelf
62. The word “haphazardly” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. logically B. randomly C. greedily D. roughly
63. What is the writer’s main purpose in paragraph 2?
A. To provide an idea of what the museum contains
B. To explain why these products were rejected by consumers
C. To explain how obvious it was that self-heating cans failed
D. To illustrate how the museum is organized and operated
64. What is Carol Sherry’s attitude to the failed products?
A. She feels particularly attached to some products.
B. She has sympathy for the people inventing them.
C. She prefers failed products to successful ones.
D. She appreciates the concepts behind the products.
65. The word “haphazardly” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. intractable B. durable С. selective D. brief

Nguyễn Thị Thêm – THPT Cộng Hiền

V. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 61 to 65.
People have been donating blood since the early twentieth century to help accident victims
and patients undergoing surgical procedure. Usually a pint of whole blood is donated, and it
is then divided into platelets, white blood cells and red blood cells. People can donate blood
(for red blood cells) about once every two months.

Transfusing the blood from the donor to the recipient is straightforward. It involves taking the
blood from the donor’s arm vein by means of hypodermic syringe. The blood flows through a
plastic tube to a collection bag or bottle that contains sodium citrate, which prevents the
blood from clotting.

When the blood is given to the patient, a plastic tube and hypodermic needle are connected
to the recipient’s arm. The blood flows down from the container by gravity. This is a slow
process and may last as long as two hours to complete the infusion of blood to the recipient.
The patient is protected from being infected during the transfusion. Only sterile containers,
tubing and needles are used, and this helps ensure that transfused or stored blood is not
exposed to disease causing-bacteria.

Negative reactions to transfusion are not unusual. The recipient may suffer an allergic
reaction or be sensitive to donor leukocytes. Some may suffer from an undetected red-cell
incompatibility.

Unexplained reactions are also fairly common. Although they are rare, other causes of such
negative reactions include contaminated blood, air bubbles in the blood, overloading the
circulatory system through administration of excess blood, or sensitive to donor plasma or
platelets.

Today, hospitals and blood banks go to great lengths to screen all blood donors and their
blood. All donated blood is routinely or rigorously tested for diseases, such as HIV (which
causes AIDS), hepatitis B, and syphilis. When the recipient is a newborn or an infant, the
blood is irradiated to eliminate harmful elements. Donated blood is washed and the white
blood cells and platelets are removed.

Storing the blood sometimes requires a freezing process. To freeze the red blood cells, a
glycerol solution is added. To unfreeze the glycerol is removed. The ability to store blood for
long periods has been a boon to human health.
61. In line 3 the word “it” refers to
A. accident victims B. surgical procedures
C. a pint of whole blood D. surgery patients
62. All of the following are mentions as negative reactions to transfusion EXCEPT
A. allergies B. red-cell incompatibility
C. air bubbles in the blood D. sensitive to donor leukocytes
63. What answered choice is closest in meaning to the word “undetected” in line 17?
A. Not wanted B. Not captured C. Not found D. Not illustrated
64. Based on the information in the passage, what can be inferred about blood transfusion to
infants and newborns ?
A. It is as rigorously tested as blood for adults. B. It is treated with radiant energy
C. It is not treated differently from adults D. It is not dangerous for children
65. What does the author implies in the passage?
A. Transfusing blood is a dangerous process B. Storing blood benefits mankind
C. Clotting cannot be prevented D. Freezing blood destroys platelets
LƯƠNG THỊ THANH THỦY – THPT AN HẢI
IV.Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B,C or D on the answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 61-65.
Hawaii is often considered to be one place in the world where you can find paradise. But
when I arrived in Hawaii, I was shocked to discover beaches were covered in plastic rubbish
washed up from around the world. As I dug through the sand, I realised the sandy beach was
being transformed into a plastic beach. A chill went down my spine. From the beaches of
Hawaii to the seas around Britain, we are polluting our own environment.

Beaches are now covered in more rubbish than ever before. The plastic we see on our
beaches is just a small amount of the plastic waste that exists in our oceans. Scientists believe
that sea currents have created five huge garbage areas in our oceans, including the one in the
North Atlantic. This is a global problem for which we are all responsible.

Plastic makes our life easier, but its production and use are completely out of control.
Because plastic rubbish in the oceans looks like food, it is being eaten by small fish, which in
turn is eaten by large fish, which in turn is eaten by us. Plastic is damaging our beaches,
polluting the oceans, and poisoning our food chain. The consequences are still not fully
understood, but they are likely to be terrible.

We need to stop using plastic bags for packaging and single-use water bottles. These make up
most of the plastic garbage in the oceans. In Bangladesh and Kenya, they have stopped using
plastic bags completely. The UK has put a tax on plastic bags. Many supermarkets around the
world are not packing goods in plastic.

The future of our beaches, our seas, and the food chain is at risk. This is an environmental
problem that we need to solve immediately.
(Adapted from Headway by Soars, Soars and Hancock)
61. Which of the following is the best title for the passage?
A. Common Plastic Products B. A Green Lifestyle
C. Benefits of Plastic Products D. A Planet Poisoned by Plastic
62. The word transformed in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to_______.
A. changed B. placed C. checked D. broken
63. According to paragraph 4, both Bangladesh and Kenya_______..
A. have used more and more plastic bags. B. have produced a lot of plastic bags.
C. do not use plastic bags any more. D. encourage the use of plastic bags.
64.Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. Hawaii is protected from plastic rubbish. B. One huge garbage area in the oceans is in the
North Atlantic.
C. The UK has introduced a tax on plastic bags.
D. Production and use of conưol. plastic are now out of control.
65.Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. The environment in Hawaii was not as good as the writer had expected.
B. There is far more plastic waste on the beaches than in the oceans.
C. Plastic helps maintain the natural food chain in the oceans.
D. People in the past were more concerned about the effects of plastic waste.
—————————————————————————————————————
HOÀNG THỊ THANH TÂM- TRƯỜNG THPT BẠCH ĐẰNG
SECTION D. READING
VI. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 66 to 75.
The Impact of Climate Change on Marine Ecosystems
Climate change is having a profound impact on marine ecosystems around the globe. Rising
ocean temperatures, acidification, and changing weather patterns are altering the delicate
balance of marine life, with consequences for biodiversity, fisheries, and human
communities that rely on the sea.
One of the most significant effects of climate change on the ocean is the rise in sea
temperature. Warmer waters can cause coral bleaching, a phenomenon where corals expel the
algae living in their tissues, leading to a loss of colour and vital energy sources. [A] Coral
reefs are home to approximately 25% of all marine species, so their decline can have a
cascading effect on the entire marine ecosystem. Moreover, higher temperatures can also
disrupt the reproductive cycles of fish and other marine animals, leading to population
declines.
Ocean acidification, another consequence of increased carbon dioxide (CO2) emissions,
poses a serious threat to marine life. [B] When CO2 is absorbed by seawater, it reacts to form
carbonic acid, which lowers the pH of the ocean. This acidification can weaken the shells and
skeletons of many marine organisms, such as molluscs and corals, making it difficult for
them to survive. The weakening of these foundational species can disrupt food webs and
marine biodiversity.
Changing weather patterns due to climate change are also affecting marine ecosystems.
Increased storm frequency and intensity can damage coastal habitats, such as mangroves and
seagrasses, which serve as crucial breeding grounds and protective barriers for marine life.
Additionally, altered ocean currents can change the distribution of nutrients in the water,
impacting the availability of food for various species. [C]
The decline in marine biodiversity and the health of marine ecosystems has significant
implications for human communities. Fisheries, which provide a primary source of protein
for millions of people worldwide, are particularly vulnerable. [D] Changes in fish populations
and distribution can lead to decreased catches and economic hardship for communities that
depend on fishing. Furthermore, the loss of coastal habitats can increase the vulnerability of
coastal areas to storms and rising sea levels, threatening human lives and infrastructure.
In conclusion, climate change poses a multifaceted threat to marine ecosystems and the
human societies that depend on them. Mitigating these impacts requires urgent action to
reduce greenhouse gas emissions and protect marine habitats, ensuring the resilience of both
marine life and coastal communities.
66. What is the main idea of the passage?
A. Climate change has no significant impact on marine ecosystems.
B. Climate change is severely affecting marine ecosystems and human communities that
rely on them.
 C. Marine ecosystems are adapting well to climate change.
D. Human activities have no connection to changes in marine ecosystems.
67. In paragraph 1, the phrase "delicate balance" most closely means:
A. A state of severe imbalance B. A state of high stability
C. A state that is easily disturbed D. A state of no movement
68. In paragraph 3, the sentence "Ocean acidification, another consequence of increased
carbon dioxide (CO2) emissions, poses a serious threat to marine life" suggests that
ocean acidification:
A. Is beneficial to marine life
B. Has no effect on marine life
C. Is a major danger to marine organisms
D. Is a minor issue compared to temperature rise
69. In paragraph 4, the term "altered ocean currents" refers to currents that have:
A. Remained unchanged B. Been modified by climate change
C. Become stronger over time D. Decreased in frequency
70. According to the passage, what is one effect of coral bleaching?
A. Increase in marine biodiversity B. Enhanced reproductive cycles of fish
C. Loss of algae that corals depend on D. Stabilization of marine ecosystems
71. It can be inferred from the passage that one reason why coastal habitats are important is
because they:
A. Have no effect on marine life
B. Serve as breeding grounds and protect marine life
C. Increase Ocean acidification D. Are unaffected by storm frequency
72. All of the following are mentioned in the passage as effects of climate change on marine
ecosystems EXCEPT:
A. Rise in sea temperature B. Ocean acidification
C. Decrease in storm frequency D. Altered Ocean currents
73. Why does the author discuss the implications of declining marine biodiversity for human
communities?
A. To show that humans are not affected by changes in marine ecosystems
B. To emphasize the interconnectedness of marine health and human well-being
C. To argue that human communities can easily adapt to changes in marine biodiversity
D. To suggest that fisheries are the only concern for humans
74. Where would the following sentence best fit in the passage?
"This loss can have far-reaching effects on the ocean's food web."
A. After sentence 2 in paragraph 2 [A] B. After sentence 1 in paragraph 3 [B]
C. After sentence 3 in paragraph 4 [C] D. After sentence 2 in paragraph 5 [D]
75. Which of the following best expresses the essential information in the bold and
underlined sentence in paragraph 3?
"When CO2 is absorbed by seawater, it reacts to form carbonic acid, which lowers the
pH of the ocean."
A. CO2 absorption by seawater increases ocean ph.
B. CO2 does not react with seawater to change pH levels.
C. CO2 absorption leads to acid formation and pH reduction in the ocean.
 D. CO2 absorption by seawater has no effect on marine life.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
The expression of emotions
Joy and sadness are experienced by people in all cultures around the world, but how can we
tell when other people are happy or despondent? It turns out that the expression of many
emotions may be universal. Smiling is apparently a universal sign of friendliness and
approval. Baring the teeth in a hostile way, as noted by Charles Darwin in the nineteenth
century, may be a universal sign of anger. As the originator of the theory of evolution,
Darwin believed that the universal recognition of facial expressions would have survival
value. For example, facial expressions could signal the approach of enemies (or friends) in
the absence of language.

Most investigators concur that certain facial expressions suggest the same emotions in all
people. Moreover, people in diverse cultures recognize the emotions manifested by the facial
expressions. In classic research Paul Ekman took photographs of people exhibiting the
emotions of anger, disgust, fear, happiness, and sadness. He then asked people around the
world to indicate what emotions were being depicted in them. Those queried ranged from
European college students to members of the Fore, a tribe that dwells in the New Guinea
highlands. All groups, including the Fore, who had almost no contact with Western culture,
agreed on the portrayed emotions. The Fore also displayed familiar facial expressions
when asked how they would respond if they were the characters in stories that called for
basic emotional responses. Ekman and his colleagues more recently obtained similar results
in a study of ten cultures in which participants were permitted to report that multiple
emotions were shown by facial expressions. The participants generally agreed on which two
emotions were being shown and which emotion was more intense.

Psychological researchers generally recognize that facial expressions reflect emotional states.
In fact, various emotional states give rise to certain patterns of electrical activity in the facial
mus¬cles and in the brain. The facial-feedback hypothesis argues, however, that the causal
relationship between emotions and facial expressions can also work in the opposite direction.
According to this hypothesis, signals from the facial muscles ("feedback") are sent back to
emotion centers of the brain, and so a person's facial expression can influence that person's
emotional state. Consider Darwin's words: "The free expression by outward signs of an
emotion intensifies it. On the other hand, the repression, as far as possible, of all outward
signs softens our emotions." Can smiling give rise to feelings of good will, for example, and
frowning to anger?

Psychological research has given rise to some interesting findings concerning the facial-
feedback hypothesis. Causing participants in experiments to smile, for example, leads them to
report more positive feelings and to rate cartoons (humorous drawings of people or
situations) as being more humorous. When they are caused to frown, they rate cartoons as
being more aggressive.
What are the possible links between facial expressions and emotion? One link is arousal,
which is the level of activity or preparedness for activity in an organism. Intense contraction
of facial muscles, such as those used in signifying fear, heightens arousal. Self-perception of
heightened arousal then leads to heightened emotional activity. Other links may involve
changes in brain tem¬perature and the release of neurotransmitters (substances that transmit
nerve impulses.) The contraction of facial muscles both influences the internal emotional
state and reflects it. Ekman has found that the so-called Duchenne smile, which is
characterized by "crow's feet" wrinkles around the eyes and a subtle drop in the eye cover
fold so that the skin above the eye moves down slightly toward the eyeball, can lead to
pleasant feelings.

Ekman's observation may be relevant to the British expression "keep a stiff upper lip" as a
recommendation for handling stress. It might be that a "stiff" lip suppresses emotional
response—as long as the lip is not quivering with fear or tension. But when the emotion that
leads to stiffening the lip is more intense, and involves strong muscle tension, facial feedback
may heighten emotional response.

1. The word despondent in the passage is closest in meaning to

A. curious B. unhappy C. thoughtful D. uncertain
2. The author mentions "Baring the teeth in a hostile way" in order to
A differentiate one possible meaning of a particular facial expression from other meanings of
it
B. support Darwin's theory of evolution
C. provide an example of a facial expression whose meaning is widely understood
D. contrast a facial expression that is easily understood with other facial expressions
3. The word concur in the passage is closest in meaning to
A. estimate B. agree C. expect D. understand
4. The word them in the passage refers to
A. emotions B. people C. photographs D. cultures
5. According to paragraph 2, which of the following was true of the Fore people of New
Guinea?
A. They did not want to be shown photographs.
B. They were famous for their story-telling skills.
C. They knew very little about Western culture.
D. They did not encourage the expression of emotions.
6. Which of the sentences below best expresses the essential information in the highlighted
sentence in the passage? “ The Fore also displayed familiar facial expressions when
asked how they would respond if they were the characters in stories that called for basic
emotional responses.”
A. The Fore's facial expressions indicated their unwillingness to pretend to be story
characters.
B. The Fore were asked to display familiar facial expressions when they told their stories.
C. The Fore exhibited the same relationship of facial expressions and basic emotions that is
seen in Western culture when they acted out stories.
D. The Fore were familiar with the facial expressions and basic emotions of char¬acters in
stories.
7. According to the passage, what did Darwin believe would happen to human emotions that
were not expressed?
A. They would become less intense.
B. They would last longer than usual.
C. They would cause problems later.
D. They would become more negative.
8. According to the passage, research involving which of the following supported the facial-
feedback hypothesis?
A. The reactions of people in experiments to cartoons
B. The tendency of people in experiments to cooperate
C. The release of neurotransmitters by people during experiments
D. The long-term effects of repressing emotions
9. The word relevant in the passage is closest in meaning to
A. contradictory B. confusing C. dependent D. applicable
10. According to the passage, stiffening the upper lip may have which of the
following effects?
A. It first suppresses stress, then intensifies it.
B. It may cause fear and tension in those who see it.
C. It can damage the lip muscles.
D. It may either heighten or reduce emotional response.
Tran Thi Thuy – THPT Bach Dang

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
SIMPLE – IT’S ALL IN THE MIND
Tony Buzan is his own best advertisement when he claims that his latest book can teach you
not only how to be brilliant with words, but also to be fitter, live longer and be happier. He
has transformed himself from a promising but not outstanding schoolboy into a man with an
IQ at genius level, who has contributed to more than 80 books on the brain and is consulted
by universities, business organizations and governments. Some 250 million people worldwide
have already benefited from his Mind Maps, a diagrammatic learning tool that helps the brain
to store and recall information. [A]
In his latest book, Head First, subtitled, ‘10 ways to tap into your natural genius’, he
redefines intelligence to include not only the familiar verbal, numerical and spatial
benchmarks measured by IQ tests, but other skills such as creative, social, spiritual and
physical intelligence, to which he gives equal weight. Developing these, he claims, will bring
confidence, self-awareness and personal fulfillment. And with this transformation will come
physical benefits – less stress, a stronger immune system and even a longer life. It is
estimated that we use around one per cent of our brain, so there is plenty of scope for
improvement. ‘I have fallen into the usual traps of thinking that IQ was the be-all and end-all,
that being academic was better than being artistic and that art and music were unteachable
gifts,’ admits Buzan, 58. “Bit by bit, I have come to know better. This book is a compact
history of my revelations”.

The first moment of truth came when Buzan was at primary school. After scoring 100 per
cent in a nature test, he found himself top of the A-stream. His best friend knew far more
about ecology than Buzan, but was bottom of the D-stream. ‘That started me wondering.
Later, I became aware that many of the so-called intelligent people I knew did not seem very
bright at all. [B] They were brilliant at words and numbers, but not particularly interesting to
be with, or happy with themselves or even successful. [C] I began working with children and
found that many were like my best friend. [D] For instance, I spoke to a boy of eight who had
been marked down in an ‘intelligence test’ for ticking a picture of the earth when asked
which image was the odd one out – sun, moon, lemon or earth. When I asked him why he had
done this, he looked at me as if I were an idiot and said: ‘Because the earth is the only one
that is blue.’ At that point I wondered who was the fool – the eight-year-old ‘slow learner’ or
the university lecturer. If we had measured the process by which the child had reached his
answer – instead of the expected response – we would have realised the beautiful,
sophisticated intelligence behind it.’

Identifying and developing this kind of undervalued intelligence is Buzan’s mission. His
starting point is that all people have the potential to excel if they can only rid themselves of
the barriers placed in their way by upbringing, education and society’s belief systems and
expectations. The first obstacle to overcome is lack of self belief. Buzan describes how his
marks in maths soared at secondary school after he was told he was in the top one per cent of
the population in the subject. ‘I realised that what I thought about my ability in a subject
affected how well I did.’ The second hurdle is the conviction most of us have that certain
skills – art, music and numerical ability – are gifts from heaven, conferred only on the
naturally talented few. Buzan disputes this, claiming that all we have to do is learn the
appropriate ‘alphabet’. If we can learn to copy, he insists, we can learn to draw. ‘It is the
same with music. The most sophisticated musical instrument is the human voice. Many
people think they cannot sing. But everybody sings without realising it. It’s called talking.
Listen to somebody speaking a foreign language of which you know no vocabulary; it is pure
music.’ Buzan’s third lesson is the recognition that we are all intelligent; otherwise, we could
not survive. ‘There is only one true intelligence test,’ he says, ‘and that is life on planet Earth.
Sitting in a room answering questions is not as difficult as survival. Every day, we are
confronted with new problems that we learn to handle.’

Head First offers a template for each of the 10 kinds of intelligence, including a definition, an
outline of its benefits and lots of exercises. ‘Think of each of your multiple intelligences as a
finger on a pair of wonderfully adept and agile piano-playing hands. You can play life’s
music with just two fingers, but if you use all 10 you can play a concerto where each one
supplements and enhances the others. The Moonlight Sonata will sound OK with two fingers.
But it sounds much better with 10.
Adapted from
https://www.telegraph.co.uk/news/health/news
66. What is implied about Tony Buzan in the first paragraph?
A. His views have caused a certain amount of controversy.
B. Some of the claims he makes are rather exaggerated.
C. It is hard to understand why he has been so successful.
D. His theories are supported by his own life story.
67. What is said about the book Head First in the second paragraph?
A. Buzan accepts that some people may disagree with some of the views expressed in it.
B. In it Buzan argues against beliefs he previously held.
C. It suggests that IQ tests are of no real value.
D. Its main focus is on the relationship between intelligence and physical condition.
68. The phrases “verbal, numerical and spatial benchmark” in paragraph 2 are mentioned
to ___.
A. analyze the contents of his latest book “Head First”. B. question the template for kinds of
intelligence
C. illustrate some of the criteria of intelligence D. appreciate the value of the book “Head
First”.
69. What does the phrase “tap into” in paragraph 2 mostly mean___.
A. boost B. scour C. sift D. unravel
70. Buzan uses the boy who ticked a picture of the earth as an example of_____.
A. People who are more interesting than many people considered to be intelligent.
B. People whose intelligence is not allowed to develop fully.
C. People with an attitude that prevents them from being considered intelligent.
D. People whose intelligence is likely to develop later in life.
71. Which of the following square brackets [A],[B],[C] and [D] best indicates where in the
paragraph the sentence “They were amazing, but they were not able to express their
brilliance at school.” can be inserted?
A.[B] B. [C] C.[D] D. [A]
72. Buzan thinks that one thing that prevents people from excelling is_____.
A. their habit of focusing too much on trivial aspects of everyday life.
B. their belief that too much effort is required to acquire certain skills.
C. their failure to realize how much natural intelligence they have.
D. their tendency to be easily discouraged by the comments of others.
73. Buzan uses the Moonlight Sonata to illustrate his belief that_____.
A. his book can benefit everyone who reads it.
B. some things are not as difficult to learn as they may seem.
C. it is desirable but not essential for people to develop their intelligence.
D. his definitions of intelligence are simple enough for everyone to understand.
74. Which of the following best summarizes the view expressed by Tony Buzan in the article
as a whole?
A. Too much emphasis in life is placed on how intelligent people are.
B. Most people are inclined to underestimate their own intelligence.
C. Intelligence is something that it is unwise to generalize about.
D. Conventional views on what constitutes intelligence are inaccurate.
75. What does the word “adept” mentioned in paragraph 5 pertain to?
A. skillful B. awkward C. advisable D. skittish

VI.Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet
to indicate the correct answer to each of the numbered blanks from 66 to 75.
The Creators of Grammar
No student of a foreign language needs to be told that grammar is complex. By changing
word sequences and by adding a range of auxiliary verbs and suffixes, we are able to
communicate tiny variations in meaning. We can turn a statement into a question, state
whether an action has taken place or is soon to take place, and perform many other word
tricks to convey subtle differences in meaning. Nor is this complexity inherent to the
English language. All languages, even those of so-called 'primitive' tribes have clever
grammatical components. The Cherokee pronoun system, for example, can distinguish
between 'you and I', 'several other people and I' and 'you, another person and I'. In English,
all these meanings are summed up in the one, crude pronoun 'we'. Grammar is universal
and plays a part in every language, no matter how widespread it is. So the question
which has baffled many linguists is - who created grammar?

At first, it would appear that this question is impossible to answer. To find out how grammar
is created, someone needs to be present at the time of a language's creation, documenting its
emergence. Many historical linguists are able to trace modern complex languages back to
earlier languages, but in order to answer the question of how complex languages are
actually formed, the researcher needs to observe how languages are started from scratch.
Amazingly, however, this is possible.

Some of the most recent languages evolved due to the Atlantic slave trade. At that time,
slaves from a number of different ethnicities were forced to work together under colonizer's
rule. Since they had no opportunity to learn each other's languages, they developed a make-
shift language called a pidgin. Pidgins are strings of words copied from the language of the
landowner. They have little in the way of grammar, and in many cases it is difficult for a
listener to deduce when an event happened, and who did what to whom. [A] Speakers need
to use circumlocution in order to make their meaning understood. [B] Interestingly,
however, all it takes for a pidgin to become a complex language is for a group of children to
be exposed to it at the time when they learn their mother tongue. [C] Slave children did not
simply copy the strings of words uttered by their elders, they adapted their words to create a
new, expressive language. [D] It included standardised word orders and grammatical
markers that existed in neither the pidgin language, nor the language of the
colonizers. Complex grammar systems which emerge from pidgins are termed creoles, and
they are invented by children.
Further evidence of this can be seen in studying sign languages for the deaf. Sign languages
are not simply a series of gestures; they utilise the same grammatical machinery that is found
in spoken languages. Moreover, there are many different languages used worldwide. The
creation of one such language was documented quite recently in Nicaragua. Previously, all
deaf people were isolated from each other, but in 1979 a new government introduced schools
for the deaf. Although children were taught speech and lip reading in the classroom, in the
playgrounds they began to invent their own sign system, using the gestures that they used at
home. It was basically a pidgin. Each child used the signs differently, and there was
no consistent grammar. However, children who joined the school later, when this inventive
sign system was already around, developed a quite different sign language. Although it was
based on the signs of the older children, the younger children's language was more fluid and
compact, and it utilised a large range of grammatical devices to clarify meaning. What is
more, all the children used the signs in the same way. A new creole was born.

Some linguists believe that many of the world's most established languages were creoles at
first. The English past tense –ed ending may have evolved from the verb 'do'. 'It
ended' may once have been 'It end-did'. Therefore it would appear that even the most
widespread languages were partly created by children. Children appear to have innate
grammatical machinery in their brains, which springs to life when they are first trying to
make sense of the world around them. Their minds can serve to create logical, complex
structures, even when there is no grammar present for them to copy.
(Adapted from TOFEL reading)
66. In paragraph 1, why does the writer include information about the Cherokee
language
A. To show how simple, traditional cultures can have complicated grammar
structures
B. To show how English grammar differs from Cherokee grammar
C. To prove that complex grammar structures were invented by the Cherokees.
D. To demonstrate how difficult it is to learn the Cherokee language
67. What can be inferred about the slaves' pidgin language?
A. It contained complex grammar.
B. It was based on many different languages.
C. It was difficult to understand, even among slaves.
D. It was created by the land-owners.
68. All the following sentences about Nicaraguan sign language are true
EXCEPT: _________
A. The language has been created since 1979.
B. The language is based on speech and lip reading.
C. The language incorporates signs which children used at home.
D. The language was perfected by younger children.
69. In paragraph 3, where can the following sentence be placed?
It included standardised word orders and grammatical markers that existed in
neither the pidgin language, nor the language of the colonizers. ______

A.[A] B. [B] C.[C] D.

[D]
70. 'From scratch' in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to:__________
A. from the very beginning
B. in simple cultures
 C. by copying something else
D. by using written information
71. 'Make-shift' in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to:__________
A. complicated and expressive
B. simple and temporary
C. extensive and diverse
D. private and personal
72. Which sentence is closest in meaning to the highlighted sentence?
Grammar is universal and plays a part in every language, no matter how
widespread it is.
A. All languages, whether they are spoken by a few people or a lot of people, contain
grammar.
B. Some languages include a lot of grammar, whereas other languages contain a little.
C. Languages which contain a lot of grammar are more common that languages that
contain a little.
D. The grammar of all languages is the same, no matter where the languages evolved.
73. All of the following are features of the new Nicaraguan sign language EXCEPT: _______
A. All children used the same gestures to show meaning.
B. The meaning was clearer than the previous sign language.
C. The hand movements were smoother and smaller.
D. New gestures were created for everyday objects and activities.
74. Which idea is presented in the final paragraph?
A. English was probably once a creole.
B. The English past tense system is inaccurate.
C. Linguists have proven that English was created by children.
D. Children say English past tenses differently from adults.
75. Look at the word 'consistent' in paragraph 4. This word could best be replaced by which
of the following?
A. natural
B. predictable
C. imaginable
D. uniform

LƯƠNG THI THANH THỦY – THPT AN HẢI

Read the following pasage and mark the letter A,B,C or D on the answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 66-75.
During the seventeenth and eighteenth centuries, almost nothing was written about the
contributions of women during the colonial period and the early history of the newly formed
United States. Lacking the right to vote and absent from the seats of power, women were not
considered an important force in history. Anne Bradstreet wrote some significant poetry in
the seventeenth century, Mercy Otis Warren produced the best contemporary history of the
American Revolution, and Abigail Adams penned important letters showing she exercised
great political influence over her husband, John, the second President of the United States.
But little or no notice was taken of these contributions. During these centuries, women
remained invisible in history books.

Throughout the nineteenth century, this lack of visibility continued, despite the efforts of
female authors writing about women. These writers, like most of their male counterparts,
were amateur historians. Their writings were celebratory in nature, and they were uncritical
in their selection and use of sources.

During the nineteenth century, however, certain feminists showed a keen sense of history by
keeping records of activities in which women were engaged. National, regional, and local
women’s organizations compiled accounts of their doings. Personal correspondence,
newspaper clippings, and souvenirs were saved and stored. These sources from the core of
the two greatest collections of women’s history in the United States one at the Elizabeth and
Arthur Schlesinger Library at Radcliffe College, and the other the Sophia Smith Collection at
Smith College. Such sources have provided valuable materials for later Generations of
historians.

Despite the gathering of more information about ordinary women during the nineteenth
Century, most of the writing about women conformed to the “great women” theory of
History, just as much of mainstream American history concentrated on “great men.” To
demonstrate that women were making significant contributions to American life, female
authors singled out women leaders and wrote biographies, or else important women produced
their autobiographies. Most of these leaders were involved in public life as reformers,
activists working for women’s right to vote, or authors, and were not representative at all of
the great of ordinary woman. The lives of ordinary people continued, generally, to be untold
in the American histories being published.
66. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The role of literature in early American histories B. The place of American women in
written histories
C. The keen sense of history shown by American women
D. The “great women” approach to history used by American historians
67. The word “contemporary” in the 1st paragraph means that the history was
A. informative B. thoughtful C. written at that time D.
faultfinding
68. In the first paragraph, Bradstreet, Warren, and Adams are mentioned to show that
________
A. a woman’s status was changed by marriage
B. even the contributions of outstanding women were ignored
C. only three women were able to get their writing published
D. poetry produced by women was more readily accepted than other writing by women
69. The word “celebratory” in the 2nd paragraph means that the writings referred to
________
A. related to parties B. religious C. serious D. full of praise
70. The word “they” in the 2nd paragraph refers to________
 A. efforts B. authors C. counterparts D. sources
71. In the 2nd paragraph, what weakness in nineteenth-century histories does the author point
out?
A. They put too much emphasis on daily activities
B. They left out discussion of the influence of money on politics.
C. The sources of the information they were based on were not necessarily accurate.
D. They were printed on poor-quality paper.
72. On the basis of information in the third paragraph, which of the following would most
likely have been collected by nineteenth-century feminist organizations?
A. Newspaper accounts of presidential election results B. Biographies of John Adams
C. Letters from a mother to a daughter advising her how to handle a family problem
D. Books about famous graduates of the country’s first college
73. What use was made of the nineteenth-century women’s history materials in the
Schlesinger Library and the Sophia Smith Collection?
A. They were combined and published in a multivolume encyclopedia
B. They formed the basis of college courses in the nineteenth century.
C. They provided valuable information for twentieth- century historical researchers.
D. They were shared among women’s colleges throughout the United States.
74. In the last paragraph, the author mentions all of the following as possible roles of
nineteenth-century “great women” EXCEPT ________
A. authors B. reformers C. activists for women’s rights D.
politicians
75. The word “representative” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to _________
A. typical B. satisfied C. supportive D.
distinctive
—————————————————————————————————————
Phạm Thế Hoàng – THPT An Hải
Question 76
Mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct arrangement of
the sentences to make a meaningful paragraph/letter in each of the following question.
a. Firstly, the process of invention often involves identifying a problem or need in society.
b. This is followed by brainstorming ideas and conducting research to find possible
solutions.
c. Once a viable solution is conceptualized, inventors move on to prototyping and testing
their invention.
d. Invention is a crucial driver of progress and innovation in society.
e. Finally, after refining the invention based on feedback and testing results, it can
be brought to market or implemented for practical use.
A. d - a - b - c - e B. a - b - c - d - e C. b - c - a - d - e D. d - b - a - c - e

Question 77
Mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct arrangement of
the sentences to make a meaningful paragraph/letter in each of the following question.
a. Second,buyings things on the Internet helps people save a great deal of time. That is to say,
since people nowadays are often so caught up with work and study, shopping online is a wise
choice which doesn't require them to go the the stores.
b. In addition to this, Third, since there is a high demand of buying things online, many
people can realize their dream of starting up their own business and achieve success in the
long rub.
c. Firstly,shopping online allows consumers to browse for products and checking prices
between these online shops
d. Finally, it creates good job opportunities for people and thereby help people to improve
their income and well-being. This also contributes to boosting the economy of a nation in
generall.
e. people get many benefits from shopping online.
A. e – a – c – b - d B. c – c - a – b – d C. c – a – b – d – e D. e – c – a – b - d

Question 78
Mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct arrangement of
the sentences to make a meaningful paragraph/letter in each of the following question.
a. Thirdly, and most importantly, it is said that people tend to remember only 10-20% of
what they read or hear.
b. In this paragraph, I’m going to discuss a few reasons why practice is important to
mastering skills.
c. Firstly, the only way to truly learn a skill is by actually doing what you’ll have to do in the
real world.
d. In conclusion, following up explanation with practice is key to mastering a skill.
e. Secondly, I think practice can be a fun way of putting in the necessary hours.
A. c - d - e - a - b B. c - e - b - d - a C. b - c - d - a - e D. b - c - e - a - d

Question 79
Mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct arrangement of
the sentences to make a meaningful paragraph/letter in each of the following question.
a. The weather was perfect for a day at the beach.
b. We packed our bags with sandwiches, fruits, and cold drinks.
c. As the sun set, we packed up our things and headed home, tired but happy.
d. We spent the day building sandcastles, playing beach volleyball, and swimming in the
sea.
e. It was a day well spent with family.

A. a - b - c - d - e B. b - a - d - e - c C. a - b - d - c - e D. b - a - c - d - e

Question 80
Mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct arrangement of
the sentences to make a meaningful paragraph/letter in each of the following question.
a. Furthermore, it opens up opportunities to connect with people from different backgrounds,
fostering friendships and expanding social networks.
b. In addition to career benefits, learning a foreign language has positive effects on brain
healthsuch as such as enhancing cognitive flexibility and increasing creativity.
c. The benefits of learning a foreign language are multifaceted and extend beyond
communication.
d. To begin with, learning a foreign language opens up numerous job opportunities in today's
globalized world.
e. Lastly, it allows for deeper cultural understanding and greater appreciation of different
cultures.
A. c-a-b-d-e B. c-d-b-a-e C. d-a-b-e-c D. d-b-a-c-e

Bùi Thị Thanh Hương – THPT Bạch Đằng

SECTION E. WRITING
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct arrangement of
the sentences to make a meaningful paragraph/letter in each of the following questions.

76.
a. First, doing housework helps children develop some important life skills such as doing
the laundry, cleaning the house or taking care of others.
b. They will certainly need those skills in their lives later, when they start their own
families.
c. I think children should do housework for a number of reasons.
d. Second, children can learn to take responsibility when they do housework. They know
that they have to do something even though they don't like to do it.
e. So doing housework is really good for children and I believe that they should do it.
A. e-c-a-b-d B. e-a-c-b-d C. c-a-b-d-e D. c-e-a-b-d
77.
a. Firstly, we should clean up all areas regularly. For example, we can organize clean-up
activities at weekends.
b. There are three things we can do to improve the environment in our school.
c. Secondly, we ought to set up more rubbish bins. For instance, we can put more rubbish
bins in the school gate, in front of each building, or in the playground.
d. In conclusion, we can improve the environment in our school in many ways and even
small actions can make a big difference.
e. Finally, we should plant more trees. To give an example, we can encourage students to
plant trees or flowers in our school because this reduces CO2 and makes the air clean.
A. e-a-d-b-c B. e-b-a-d-c C. e-b-a-c-d D. b-a-c-e-d
78.
a. Dear Sir or Madam,
b. Yours faithfully,
c. Next, I would like to know the course fee and the daily wage for the apprenticeship. It is
very important for me to have this information so that I can decide if I can afford to study at
your school.
d. Finally, it would be great if you write back to me with details about what topics it will
cover and how long it will take.
 e. I am writing to ask for more information about the tour guide training courses at the
SGV Vocational School. I am over 18 years old now and I am very interested in travelling
and exploring different cultures. I would really like to apply for one of your courses.
f. I look forward to hearing from you.
g. First, I would appreciate it if you could tell me what the entry requirements are. I
finished upper secondary school last summer. Could you please let me know if I still need to
take a test? If there is one, please let me know where I can find detailed information about it.
A. a – g – c – e – d – f – b B. e – a – c – g – d – f – b
C. a – d – g – c – e – f – b D. a – e – g – c – d – f – b
79.
a. I am writing to apply for a volunteer position at the head office. I heard the
announcement about this position on radio last Sunday.
b. I am available for an interview on any weekday from 8.00 am to 11.00 am. If my
application is successful, I can start on 15th January 2022.
c. I am interested in the job duties at the head office. I want to help you welcome guests
and visitors to the office and receive and sort donations.
d. Yours faithfully,
e. I look forward to hearing from you.
f. Dear Sir or Madam,
A. e-b-a-c-f-d B. e-c- f-d-b-a C. b-c-d-e-a-f D. f-a-c-b- e-d
80.
a. In addition, students should be taught about natural and cultural importance of the
heritage sites.
b. This can result in the fact that people’s awareness of preserving heritage sites will be
raised.
c. Best regards,
d. First, it’s a good idea to spread information on social media because more people will
get useful information quickly.
e. Dear Mimi, I hope you’re well. I am thinking about what can be done to preserve
heritage sites in my local community.
f. Preserving heritages sites plays a pivotal role in keeping our traditions alive.
A. e-f-a-c-d-b B. e-f-d-b-a-c C. b-e-c-d-f-a D. e-b-f-d-a-c

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct arrangement of
the sentences to make a meaningful paragraph/letter in each of the following questions.
1.
a. I look forward to hearing from you.
b. I want to help you welcome guests and visitors to the office and receive and sort donations.
c. Dear Sir or Madam, I am writing to apply for a volunteer position at the head office.
d. If my application is successful, I can start on 15th January 2022.
e. Yours faithfully,
f. I heard the announcement about this position on radio last Sunday.
A. c - f - d - a - b – e B. c - a - f - b - d – e C. c - f - b - d - a - e D. c - b - f - a - d - e
2.
 a. Also,you can also make new friends through this platform. When you connect with people
from all over the world, it opens doors to learning about new cultures, values and traditions
from different countries.
b. In addition to this,it is also a great source of information and news. It helps in
staying updated with the latest happenings in the world and subscribing to popular fan
pages to get the latest updates
c. Firstly,Most importantly, it allows you to get in touch with people from the other
side of the world without spending a penny. It is also a great way to connect with old
school friends and college friends.
d. Last but not least,You can get great opportunities for employment through social media
too.
e. When we look at the positive aspect of the facebook, we find numerous benefits.
A. e—a—c—b—d. B. c—e—a—b—d. C. c—a—b—d—e D. e – c – a – b
3.
a. I wanted to chat with you about the disadvantages of urbanisation.
b. Besides, affordable housing becomes scarce, contributing to homelessness and inequality.
c. Dear Peter, I hope you're doing well!
d. First, cities often become crowded, leading to congestion and limited space.
e. Finally, unemployment rates can rise due to increased competition for jobs.
f. Also, urban areas may suffer from poor sanitation, posing health risks to residents.
g. Let's catch up soon!
h. In summary, while urbanisation brings opportunities, it also brings challenges like
overcrowding, housing issues, inequality, sanitation problems, and unemployment.
A. c – a – d – f – e – b – h – g B. c – a – d – b – f – e – g – h
C. c – a – d – e – b – f – h – g D. c – a – d – b – f – e – h – g
4.
a. Second, urbanisation results in the expansion and modernisation of infrastructure,
including roads, transportation systems, and utilities.
b. Finally, urbanisation improves reliable access to healthcare, education, and employment
opportunities, enhancing overall quality of life for urban dwellers.
c. Urbanisation offers several advantages.
d. In summary, urbanisation brings about improvements in infrastructure and services, making
cities more livable for their inhabitants.
e. First, it leads to the construction of high-rise buildings, which efficiently utilise limited
space in urban areas.
f. This expansion makes cities more convenient for residents, providing access to essential
services and amenities.
A. c – e – a – b – f – d B. c – e – a – f – b – d
C. c – e – f – a – b – d D. c – f – a – e – b – d
5.
a. However, the fast pace can be overwhelming at times.
b. Firstly, the diversity here is astounding; you encounter people from all walks of life
daily.
c. Warm regards.
 d. Dear Laura, I hope you are well.
e. Looking forward to catching up soon!
f. Overall, the experience has been enriching, pushing me out of my comfort zone
while teaching me valuable lessons about adaptability.
g. Secondly, the opportunities for growth and exploration are endless.
h. Living in a big city has been exciting.
A. d – b – a – g – f – h – e – c B. d – h – a – b – g – f – e – c
C. d – h – b – g – a – f – e – c D. d – h – b – g – f – a – e – c

SECTION E: WRITING
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct arrangement
of the sentences to make a meaningful paragraph/letter in each of the questions.
Question 76.
a. I am writing to enquire about the tour guide training courses offered by SGV Vocational
School. I am very interested in exploring different cultures and would like to know more
about the courses.
b. Dear Sir / Madam,
c. Secondly, I would appreciate it if you could inform me if SGV Vocational School offers
any discounts for students who are financially disadvantaged. This would greatly assist me in
planning for the cost of the training.
d. Lastly, I would like to enquire about the daily wage for the apprenticeships provided by
SGV Vocational School. It would be great if you could provide me with more information
about this opportunity.
e. Thank you for considering my request. I look forward to hearing from you soon.
Yours faithfully,
Lan
f. Firstly, I would like to ask if there is a test requirement to enroll in the tour guide training
courses. As I do not have any previous qualifications in this field, I would like to know if
there are any specific requirements for admission.
A. b - a - f - c - d - e. B. b - a - c - f - d - e C. b - a - f - d - c - e D. b - a - f - e - c - d
Question 77.
a. They may also learn about food safety, kitchen hygiene, and restaurant management if the
course covers those topics.
b. Additionally, students may hope to gain hands-on experience in cooking and receive
feedback on their dishes from their instructor.
c. Students can take a vocational course in cooking or culinary arts.
d. They expect to learn various cooking techniques and recipes, as well as gain a deeper
understanding of the culinary arts.
e. Overall, the goal of this course is likely to help students develop their skills and knowledge
in the culinary field.
A. c - d - a- b - e B. c - b - a- c – e C. c - b - a- d - e D. d - a - b - e - c
Question 78.
a. Then, vocational training is much cheaper than university education.
b. First, Vocational courses are more practical than university courses. It will help students
develop practical skills.
c. Next, it’s the short duration of study.
d. Therefore, more school - leaves attend vocational training nowadays.
e. Degree programmes at university usually go on for at least three years while vocational
courses can last less than two years.
f. Let’s decide on the three main benefits of vocational training.
A. f - d - c - e - a - b. B. b - a - c - f - d – e C. f - b - c - e - a - d. D. c- b - f - e - a - d
Question 79.
a. Other options could include taking a gap year to travel or gain work experience, enrolling
in vocational or trade schools, or pursuing apprenticeships or internships.
b. Higher education is really for people who want formal learning in order to get an academic
degree.If you are good at certain subjects and need a degree related to those subjects, then
university is the right choice for you.
c. Let’s think about two options for school-leavers which is more common in your town.The
two most common options for school-leavers are to continue their education at university or
to enter the workforce directly
d. Many students still manage to work part-time during their university years.
e. In addition, college or university students usually have an advantage over students from
vocational schools when it comes to further studies after a degree.They will also have broader
career options and an advantage in the job market.
f. Besides studying, university students also have the opportunity to live independently, make
new friends, and join different clubs.
A. b - a - f - c - e - f B.c - a - b - f - d – e C. b - a - c - e - d - f D. c- b - f - e - a -
d
Question 80.
a. Additionally, it fosters an environment where individuals can contribute their special
abilities and experiences.
b. Moreover, this equality not only brings harmony to society but also lets people use a
variety of skills and viewpoints from both men and women.
c. In conclusion, promoting gender equality is essential for creating a just and thriving
community.
d. Gender equality is vital because it ensures fairness for everyone.
e. Firstly, it gives both men and women equal chances in various opportunities.
A. d- e- c- a- b B. e- a- b- c- d C. d - e - b - a - c D. e- b- a- c- d

SECTION E: WRITING
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct arrangement
of the sentences to make a meaningful paragraph/ letter in each of the following
questions from 76 to 80.
76.
a. By imposing restrictions, parents can allocate more time for learning and healthier
outdoor pursuits.
 b. Secondly, excessive screen time poses health risks, including potential damage to
eyesight, headaches, and issues like sleep disturbances and weight problems.
c. Firstly, prolonged screen use often hinders teenagers from completing their
homework, impacting both their academic performance and outdoor activities.
d. Excessive screen time is a prevalent issue among today's teenagers, and I strongly
advocate for parents to impose strict limits on their usage for two crucial reasons.
e. In conclusion, parental control over teenagers' digital device usage is vital to ensure
a balance between academic responsibilities, outdoor activities, and the protection of
their overall healt
A. c-e-d-a- b B. d-c-a- b-e C. d-e- c-a- b D. d- c-e-a- b
77.
a. Next, it enables you to build better relationships with people
because through frequent sports you can get to know a lot about others' personalities.
b. First, playing sports helps reduce the stress and gives you more energy in your life.
c. In short, people should play sports regularly because it brings lots of advantages.
d. Lastly, it improves your health. When playing sports, the body is protected from
different types of harmful bacteria and viruses.
e. Playing sports brings a lot of advantages.
A. e - a - b - d - c B. e - b - a - d - c. C. b - a - d - c - e D. c - b - a - e - d
78.
a. Firstly, the process of invention often involves identifying a problem or need in
society.
b. This is followed by brainstorming ideas and conducting research to find possible
solutions.
c. Once a viable solution is conceptualized, inventors move on to prototyping and
testing their invention.
d. Invention is a crucial driver of progress and innovation in society.
e. Finally, after refining the invention based on feedback and testing results, it can be
brought to market or implemented for practical use.
A. d - a - b - c – e B. a - b - c - d – e C. b - c - a - d – e D. d - b - a - c – e
79.
a.Second,buyings things on the Internet helps people save a great deal of time. That is
to say, since people nowadays are often so caught up with work and study, shopping
online is a wise choice which doesn't require them to go the the stores .
b.In addition to this,Third, since there is a high demand of buying things online, many
people can realize their dream of starting up their own business and achieve success in
the long rub.
c.Firstly,shopping online allows consumers to browse for products and checking prices
between these online shops
d.Finally,it creates good job opportunities for people and thereby help people to improve
their income and well-being. This also contributes to boosting the economy of a nation in
generall.
e.people get manybenefitsfromshopping online.
A. e-a-c-b-d B. c-e-a-b-d C. c-a-b-d-e D. e-c- a-b-d
80.
a.Face-to-face learning can do these but online learning does better.
b.First of all, coronavirus disease (COVID-19) is affecting every part of the world and
schools are not an exception.
c.Both face-to-face learning and online learning are good but personally, I believe that
online learning is much better due to some reasons.
d.Besides, learning on the Internet also provides us with active learning opportunities
and develops our self-discipline.
e.Learning online helps us protect ourselves and reduce the spread of disease.

A. c-d-a-e-b B. c-e-b-d-a C.c-b- e-d-a D. c-e-b-a-d