EST Electronic Communications Systems 2e; Roy Blake EST

Chapter 1: Introduction to Communication Systems

D. all of the above

MULTIPLE CHOICES 16. Thermal noise is generated in:

A. transistors and diodes
1. The theory of radio waves was originated by: B. resistors
A. Marconi C. Maxwell * C. copper wire
B. Bell D. Hertz D. all of the above *

2. The person who sent the first radio signal across the Atlantic ocean 17. Shot noise is generated in:
was: A. transistors and diodes *
A. Marconi * C. Maxwell B. resistors
B. Bell D. Hertz C. copper wire
D. none of the above
3. The transmission of radio waves was first done by:
A. Marconi C. Maxwell 18. The power density of "flicker" noise is:
B. Bell D. Hertz * A. the same at all frequencies
B. greater at high frequencies
4. A complete communication system must include: C. greater at low frequencies *
A. a transmitter and receiver D. the same as "white" noise
B. a transmitter, a receiver, and a channel *
C. a transmitter, a receiver, and a spectrum analyzer 19. So called "1/f" noise is also called:
D. a multiplexer, a demultiplexer, and a channel A. random noise C. white noise
B. pink noise * D. partition noise
5. Radians per second is equal to
A. 2πf * C. the phase angle 20. "Pink" noise has:
B. f ÷ 2π D. none of the above A. equal power per Hertz
B. equal power per octave *
6. The bandwidth required for a modulated carrier depends on: C. constant power
A. the carrier frequency D. none of the above
B. the signal-to-noise ratio
C. the signal-plus-noise to noise ratio 21. When two noise voltages, V1 and V2, are combined, the total voltage
D. the baseband frequency range * VT is:
A. VT = sqrt(V1 × V1 + V2 × V2) *
7. When two or more signals share a common channel, it is called: B. VT = (V1 + V2)/2
A. sub-channeling C. SINAD C. VT = sqrt(V1 × V2)
B. signal switching D. multiplexing * D. VT = V1 + V2

8. TDM stands for: 22. Signal-to-Noise ratio is calculated as:

A. Time-Division Multiplexing * A. signal voltage divided by noise voltage
B. Two-level Digital Modulation B. signal power divided by noise power *
C. Time Domain Measurement C. first add the signal power to the noise power, then divide by noise
D. none of the above power
D. none of the above
9. FDM stands for:
A. Fast Digital Modulation 23. SINAD is calculated as:
B. Frequency Domain Measurement A. signal voltage divided by noise voltage
C. Frequency-Division Multiplexing * B. signal power divided by noise power
D. none of the above C. first add the signal power to the noise power, then divide by noise
power
10. The wavelength of a radio signal is: D. none of the above*
A. equal to f ÷ c
B. equal to c ÷ λ 24. Noise figure is a measure of:
C. the distance a wave travels in one period * A. how much noise is in a communications system
D. how far the signal can travel without distortion B. how much noise is in the channel
C. how much noise an amplifier adds to a signal *
11. Distortion is caused by: D. signal-to-noise ratio in dB
A. a. creation of harmonics of baseband frequencies
B. b. baseband frequencies "mixing" with each other 25. The part, or parts, of a sinusoidal carrier that can be modulated are:
C. shift in phase relationships between baseband frequencies A. its amplitude
D. all of the above * B. its amplitude and frequency
C. its amplitude, frequency, and direction
12. The collection of sinusoidal frequencies present in a modulated carrier D. its amplitude, frequency, and phase angle *
is called its:
A. frequency-domain representation
B. Fourier series COMPLETION
C. spectrum
D. all of the above * 26. The telephone was invented in the year ____________________.
A. 1863 * C. 1943
13. The baseband bandwidth for a voice-grade (telephone) signal is: B. 1843 D. 1963
A. approximately 3 kHz *
B. 20 Hz to 15,000 Hz 27. Radio signals first were sent across the Atlantic in the year
C. at least 5 kHz ____________________.
D. none of the above A. 1821 C. 1921
B. 1801 D. 1901 *
14. Noise in a communication system originates in:
A. the sender C. the channel 28. The frequency band used to modulate the carrier is called the
B. the receiver D. all of the above * ____________________ band.
A. sub-channeling C. SINAD
15. "Man-made" noise can come from: B. base* D. multiplexing
A. equipment that sparks *
B. temperature 29. The job of the carrier is to get the information through the
C. static ____________________.
EST Electronic Communications Systems 2e; Roy Blake EST

A. base C. channel * A. Thermal, Shot, Partition, 1/f, transit-time *

B. switch D. multiplexer B. Thermal, Shot, Open, 2/f, transit-time
C. Thermal, Shot, Open, 1/f, transit-time
30. The bandwidth of an unmodulated carrier is ____________________. D. Thermal, Shot, Partition, 2/f, transit-time
A. six C. one
B. seven D. zero * 47. Why is thermal noise called "white noise"?
A. Thermal noise is called white noise because it only occurs at high
31. The 'B' in Hartley's Law stands for ____________________. frequencies.
A. noise C. channel capacity B. Thermal noise is called white noise because it can be completely
B. bandwidth * D. signal power eliminated with a simple filter.
C. Thermal noise is called white noise because it is dependent on the
32. The more information per second you send, the color of the material generating it.
____________________ the bandwidth required. D. White light is composed of equal amounts of light at all visible
A. greater, larger or wider * C. shorter frequencies. Likewise, thermal noise has equal power density over a
B. smaller D. none of the above wide range of frequencies. *

33. In ____________________, you split the bandwidth of a channel into 48. What is "pink noise"?
sub-channels to carry multiple signals. A. Pink noise is named because it is generated by combining red and
A. FFM C. FDM * white noise.
B. FTM D. none of the above B. Pink noise gets its name from the pink color it produces when
visualized on an oscilloscope.
34. In ____________________, multiple signal streams take turns using C. Pink noise is a type of noise that only exists in electronic circuits.
the channel. D. Light is pink when it contains more red than it does other colors,
A. RGM C. RRM and red is at the low end of the visible spectrum. Likewise, pink
B. TDM * D. RDM noise has higher power density at lower frequencies. *

35. VHF stands for the ____________________ frequency band. 49. Suppose there is 30 mV from one noise source that is combined with 40
A. very humble C. very hopeless mV from another noise source. Calculate the total noise voltage.
B. very heavy D. very high * A. 100 mV C. 30 mV
B. 10 mv D. 50 mV *
36. The VHF band starts at ____________________ MHz.
A. 30 * C. 90 50. If you have 100 mV of signal and 10 mV of noise, both across the same
B. 60 D. 120 100-ohm load, what is the signal-to- noise ratio in dB?
ANS: A. 40 dB C. 30 dB
B. 20 dB * D. 50 dB
37. The UHF band starts at ____________________ MHz.
A. 250 C. 300 * 51. The input to an amplifier has a signal-to-noise ratio of 100 dB and an
B. 120 D. 150 output signal-to-noise ratio of 80 dB. Find NF, both in dB and as a
ratio.
38. A radio signal's ____________________ is the distance it travels in A. 10 dB, NF = 50 C. 20 dB, NF = 100 *
one cycle of the carrier. B. 10 dB, NF = 25 D. 20 dB, NF = 75
A. length C. bandwidth ANS: 20 dB, NF = 100
B. ratio D. wavelength *
52. A microwave receiver has a noise temperature of 145 K. Find its noise
39. In free space, radio signals travel at approximately figure.
____________________ meters per second. A. 25 C. 3
A. 250 million C. 300 million * B. 12 D. 1.50 *
B. 120 million D. 150 million
53. Two cascaded amplifiers each have a noise figure of 5 and a gain of 10.
40. The equipment used to show signals in the frequency domain is the Find the total NF for the pair.
_________________________. A. 5.4 * C. 3.1
A. modem C. multiplexer B. 12.6 D. 15.8
B. spectrum analyzer * D. demodulator
54. Explain why you could use a diode as a noise source with a spectrum
41. Mathematically, a spectrum is represented by a close to that of pure thermal noise. How would you control the amount
____________________ series. of noise generated?
A. Maclaurin C. Fourier * A. You could use a diode as a noise source with a spectrum close to
B. Laplace D. Taylor that of pure thermal noise by adjusting its color temperature. By
changing the color temperature of the diode, you can control the
42. Disabling a receiver during a burst of atmospheric noise is called amount of noise generated.
____________________. B. When current flows through a diode, it generates shot noise that can
A. disruptor C. reactor be represented as a current source, the output of which is a noise
B. noise blanking (blanking) * D. eruption current.
C. The equation for the noise current is very similar to the equation for
43. For satellite communications, ____________________ noise can be a thermal noise voltage. Since the power in the shot noise is
serious problem. proportional to the diode current, controlling the diode current
A. sky C. ground controls the noise power.
B. solid D. solar * D. Both B and C *

44. Thermal noise is caused by the random motions of

____________________ in a conductor.
A. electrons * C. gas
B. protons D. neutrons

SHORT ANSWER

45. Name the five elements in a block diagram of a communications

system.
A. Source, Transmitter, Codes, Receiver, Destination
B. Source, Transmitter, Channel, Receiver, Destination *
C. Signal, Transducer, Channel, Receiver, Destination
D. Signal, Transmitter, Channel, Receiver, Dumpster

46. Name five types of internal noise.

EST Electronic Communications Systems 2e; Roy Blake EST

Chapter 2: Radio-Frequency Circuits

MULTIPLE CHOICES C. an RC time constant
D. a piezoelectric crystal
1. The time it takes a charge carrier to cross from the emitter to the
collector is called: 15. The Colpitts VFO uses:
A. base time C. charge time A. a tapped inductor
B. transit time * D. Miller time B. a two-capacitor divider *
C. an RC time constant
2. A real capacitor actually contains: D. a piezoelectric crystal
A. capacitance and resistance only
B. capacitance and inductance only 16. The Clapp oscillator is:
C. capacitance, inductance, and resistance * A. a modified Hartley oscillator
D. reactance only B. a modified Colpitts oscillator *
C. a type of crystal-controlled oscillator
3. Bypass capacitors are used to: D. only built with FETs
A. remove RF from non-RF circuits *
B. couple RF around an amplifier 17. A varactor is:
C. neutralize amplifiers A. a voltage-controlled capacitor
D. reduce the Miller effect B. a diode
C. used in tuner circuits
4. A resonant circuit is: D. all of the above *
A. a simple form of bandpass filter
B. used in narrowband RF amplifiers 18. Crystal-Controlled oscillators are:
C. both a and b * A. used for a precise frequency
D. none of the above B. used for very low frequency drift (parts per million)
C. made by grinding quartz to exact dimensions
5. Loading down a tuned-circuit amplifier will: D. all of the above *
A. raise the Q of the tuned circuit
B. lower the Q of the tuned circuit * 19. If two signals, Va = sin(wat) and Vb = sin(wbt), are fed to a mixer, the
C. "multiply" the Q output:
D. have no effect on Q A. will contain w1 = wa + wb and w2 = wa – wb *
B. will contain w1 = wa / wb and w2 = wb / wa
6. The "Miller Effect" can: C. will contain w = (wa + wb ) / 2
A. cause an amplifier to oscillate D. none of the above
B. cause an amplifier to lose gain
C. reduce the bandwidth of an amplifier 20. In a balanced mixer, the output:
D. all of the above * A. contains equal (balanced) amounts of all input frequencies
B. contains the input frequencies
7. The Miller Effect can be avoided by: C. does not contain the input frequencies *
A. using a common-emitter amplifier D. is a linear mixture of the input signals
B. using a common-base amplifier *
C. increasing the Q of the tuned circuit 21. "VFO" stands for:
D. it cannot be avoided A. Voltage-Fed Oscillator
B. Variable-Frequency Oscillator *
8. In a BJT, the Miller Effect is due to: C. Varactor-Frequency Oscillator
A. inductance of collector lead D. Voltage-Feedback Oscillator
B. collector-to-emitter capacitance
C. base-to-emitter capacitance 22. A "frequency synthesizer" is:
D. base-to-collector capacitance * A. a VCO phase-locked to a reference frequency *
B. a VFO with selectable crystals to change frequency
9. In RF amplifiers, impedance matching is usually done with: C. a fixed-frequency RF generator
A. RC coupling D. same as a mixer
B. transformer coupling *
C. direct coupling
D. lumped reactance COMPLETION

10. Neutralization cancels unwanted feedback by: 23. Generally, conductor lengths in RF circuits should be
A. adding feedback out of phase with the unwanted feedback * ____________________.
B. bypassing the feedback to the "neutral" or ground plane A. long C. broad
C. coupling it B. short * D. larger
D. none of the above
24. At UHF frequencies and above, elements must be considered
11. For a "frequency multiplier" to work, it requires: a_________________ instead of as being "lumped".
A. a nonlinear circuit * A. plump C. compressed
B. a linear amplifier B. loss D. distributed *
C. a signal containing harmonics
D. an input signal that is an integer multiple of the desired frequency 25. When one side of a double-sided pc board is used for ground, it is
called a __________.
12. A sinusoidal oscillation from an amplifier requires: A. fire-plane C. ground-plane *
A. loop gain equal to unity B. water-plane D. air-plane
B. phase shift around loop equal to 0 degrees
C. both a and b, but at just one frequency * 26. Interactions between parts of an RF circuit can be reduced by using
D. none of the above _________ between them.
A. resistor C. conductor
13. The conditions for sinusoidal oscillation from an amplifier are called: B. antenna D. shielding *
A. the loop-gain criteria
B. the Hartley criteria 27. In high-frequency RF circuits, the placement of wires and
C. the Bode criteria ____________________ can be critical.
D. Barkhausen criteria * A. components * C. voltage
B. pliers D. machine
14. The Hartley oscillator uses:
A. a tapped inductor * 28. A ____________________ circuit is used to remove RF from the DC
B. a two-capacitor divider voltage bus.
EST Electronic Communications Systems 2e; Roy Blake EST

A. capacitive C. inductive 6. An oscillator has a frequency of 100 MHz at 20°C, and a tempco of
B. decoupling * D. resistive +10 ppm per degree Celsius. What will be the shift in frequency at
70°C? What percentage is that?
29. A ____________________ capacitor is used to short unwanted RF to A. 50 kHz, 0.05% * C. 75 kHz, 3.05%
ground. B. 25 kHz, 4.05% D. 100 kHz, 7.05%
A. loosed C. flimsy
B. bypass * D. resistive 7. Two sinusoidal signals, V1 and V2, are fed into an ideal balanced
mixer. V1 is a 20-MHz signal; V2 is a 5- MHz signal. What
30. The bandwidth of a tuned-circuit amplifier depends on the frequencies would you expect at the output of the mixer?
____________________ of the tuned circuit. A. 45 MHz and 25 MHz C. 15 MHz and 25 MHz *
A. Q * C. I B. 15 MHz and 45 MHz D. 45 MHz and 75 MHz
B. R D. G
8. Suppose the phase-locked-loop frequency synthesizer of Figure 2.39
31. A value of ____________________ or more for Q is required for the has a reference frequency of 1 MHz and a fixed-modulus divider of 10.
approximate tuned circuit equations to be valid. What should be the value of the programmable divider to get an output
A. 40 C. 30 frequency of 120 MHz?
B. 20 D. 10 * A. 20 C. 12 *
B. 40 D. 4
32. In a class C RF amplifier, the __________ extracts one frequency from
all the harmonics contained in the device current (e.g. collector
current).
A. signal C. capacitor
B. antenna D. tuned circuit *

33. Using additional feedback to compensate for "stray" feedback is called

_____________.
A. evasion C. astray
B. negation D. neutralization *

34. A Colpitts oscillator uses ___________ voltage divider to provide

feedback.
A. capacitive * C. resistive
B. inductive D. intuitive

35. Electrically, a piezoelectric crystal has both a _____________ and a

________________ resonant frequency.
A. series, parallel * C. resistive, series
B. inductive, parallel D. capacitive, series

36. To produce sum and difference frequencies, a mixer must be a non-

____________________ circuit.
A. resistive C. linear *
B. inductive D. capacitive

37. At some bias point, a diode or a transistor can act as a

____________________-law mixer.
A. circle C. cube
B. triangle D. square *

SHORT ANSWER

1. What inductance would you use with a 47-pF capacitor to make a tuned
circuit for 10 MHz?
A. 8.6 mH C. 3.2 mH
B. 12 mH D. 5.4 mH *

2. What value of Q is required for a 10-MHz tuned circuit to have a

bandwidth of 100 kHz?
A. 50 C. 300
B. 100* D. 150

3. A tuned-circuit amplifier with a gain of 10 is being used to make an

oscillator. What should be the value of the feedback ratio to satisfy the
Barkhausen criteria?
A. 10 C. 10.01
B. 0.1* D. 1.01

4. What is the advantage of a Clapp oscillator compared to a Colpitts

oscillator?
A. The Clapp oscillator has a simpler circuit design compared to the
Colpitts oscillator.
B. It is more stable because it "swamps" the device capacitance with
large value capacitors in the feedback divider. *
C. The Clapp oscillator operates at higher frequencies than the Colpitts
oscillator due to its unique feedback mechanism.
D. The Clapp oscillator is preferred because it uses less power than the
Colpitts oscillator.

5. If a varactor has a capacitance of 90 pF at zero volts, what will be the

capacitance at 4 volts?
A. 30 pF * C. 90 pF
B. 60 pF D. 50 pF
EST Electronic Communications Systems 2e; Roy Blake EST

Chapter 3: Amplitude Modulation

MULTIPLE CHOICES

1. AM stands for: C. sideband-carrier

A. Audio Modulation D. none of the above
B. Amplitude Modulation
C. Angle Modulation * 15. PEP stands for:
D. Antenna Modulation A. Peak Envelope Power *
B. Peak Efficiency Power
2. The "envelope" of an AM signal is due to: C. Peak Envelope Product
A. the baseband signal * D. none of the above
B. b. the carrier signal
C. the amplitude signal 16. If an SSB transmitter radiates 1000 watts at peak modulation, what will
D. none of the above it radiate with no modulation?
A. 1000 watts C. 250 watts
3. If the audio Va sin(wat) modulates the carrier Vc sin(wct), then the B. 500 watts D. 0 watts *
modulation index, m, is:
A. m = wa / wc C. m = (Va / Vc)2 17. Music on AM radio stations is "low-fidelity" because:
B. m = Va / Vc * D. m = Va / wa A. AM is susceptible to noise
B. commercial AM stations use low power
4. The equation for full-carrier AM is: C. commercial AM stations have a narrow bandwidth *
A. v(t) = (Ec + Em) × sin(wct) D. all of the above
B. v(t) = (Ec + Em) × sin(wmt) + sin(wct)
C. v(t) = (Ec × Em) × sin(wmt) × sin(wct) 18. The type of information that can be sent using AM is:
D. v(t) = (Ec + Em sin(wmt)) × sin(wct) * A. audio C. digital data
B. video D. all of the above *
5. Overmodulation causes:
A. distortion C. both a and b * 19. Two tones modulate an AM carrier. One tone causes a modulation
B. splatter D. none of the above index of m1 and the other tone causes a modulation index of m2. The
total modulation index is:
6. The peak voltage of an AM signal goes from Emax to Emin. The A. m1 + m2 C. sqrt(m1m2 + m2m1)
modulation index, m, is: B. (m1 + m2) / 2 D. sqrt(m1m1 + m2m2) *
A. m = Emin / Emax
B. m = Emax / Emin 20. To demodulate a USB SSB signal, the receiver must:
C. m = (Emax – Emin) / (Emax + Emin) * A. be set to USB mode
D. m = (Emax + Emin) / (Emax – Emin) B. reinsert the carrier
C. both a and b *
7. If Va sin(wat) amplitude modulates the carrier Vc sin(wct), it will D. none of the above
produce the frequencies:
A. wc + wa and wc – wa *
B. (wc + wa)/2 and (wc – wa)/2 COMPLETION
C. wc + wa and 2wc + 2wa
D. none of the above 21. An advantage of AM is that the receiver can be very
____________________.
8. At 100% modulation, the total sideband power is: A. audio C. digital data
A. equal to the carrier power B. video D. simple *
B. twice the carrier power
C. half the carrier power * 22. A disadvantage of AM is its _________________ use of power.
D. 1.414 ´ carrier power A. Inefficient * C. usefulness
B. bad D. all of the above
9. If a 5-kHz signal modulates a 1-MHz carrier, the bandwidth of the AM
signal will be: 23. The ____________________ of an AM signal resembles the shape of
A. 5 kHz C. 1.005 MHz the baseband signal.
B. 10 kHz * D. none of the above A. envelope * C. digital data
B. code D. signal
10. If an AM radio station increases its modulation index, you would
expect: 24. In AM, modulating with a single audio tone produces
A. the audio to get louder at the receiver ____________________ sidebands.
B. the received RF signal to increase A. six C. two *
C. the signal-to-noise ratio to increase B. three D. four
D. all of the above *
25. Compared to the USB, the information in the LSB is
11. The modulation index can be derived from: ____________________.
A. the time-domain signal A. junk C. longer
B. the frequency-domain signal B. the same * D. greater
C. both a and b *
D. none of the above 26. Compared to the USB, the power in the LSB is
____________________.
12. The main problem in using quadrature AM would be: A. junk C. the same *
A. requires too much bandwidth B. better D. longer
B. requires too much power
C. incompatibility with ordinary AM radios * 27. In AM, total sideband power is always __________________ than the
D. all of the above carrier power.
A. smaller C. greater
13. As compared to plain AM, SSB AM: B. bigger D. less *
A. is more efficient
B. requires a more complex demodulator circuit 28. In AM, as the modulation index increases, the carrier power
C. requires less bandwidth _________________________.
D. all of the above * A. diminished C. is loosened
B. radiates D. remains constant *
14. The SC in SSB SC stands for:
A. single-carrier
B. suppressed-carrier *
EST Electronic Communications Systems 2e; Roy Blake EST

29. The power in an AM signal is maximum when the modulation index is

________________.
A. one * C. two
B. three D. four

30. In AM, a voice-band signal of 300 Hz to 3000 Hz will require a

bandwidth of ____________________.
A. 6000 Hz * C. 6555 Hz
B. 7000 Hz D. 7555 Hz

31. With a 1-MHz carrier, if the LSB extends down to 990 kHz, then the
USB will extend up to ____________________.
A. 1111 kHz C. 1010 kHz *
B. 1110 kHz D. 1101 kHz

32. If an AM transmitter puts out 100 watts with no modulation, it will put
out _________________ watts with 100% modulation.
A. 450 C. 150 *
B. 75 D. 300

SHORT ANSWER

1. An AM transmitter generates 100 watts with 0% modulation. How

much power will it generate with 20% modulation?
A. 143 watts C. 112 watts
B. 102 watts * D. 123 watts

2. If the carrier power is 1000 watts, what is the power in the USB at
70.7% modulation?
A. 250 watts C. 65 watts
B. 125 watts * D. 145 watts

3. A carrier is modulated by three audio tones. If the modulation indexes

for the tones are 0.3, 0.4, and 0.5, then what is the total modulation
index?
A. 7.777 C. 7.707
B. 7.070 D. 0.707 *

4. You look at an AM signal with an oscilloscope and see that the

maximum Vpp is 100 volts and the minimum Vpp is 25 volts. What is
the modulation index?
A. 0.6 * C. 2.6
B. 1.6 D. 3.6

5. A SSB transmitter is connected to a 50-ohm antenna. If the peak output

voltage of the transmitter is 20 volts, what is the PEP?
A. 16 watts C. 12 watts
B. 8 watts D. 4 watts *
EST Electronic Communications Systems 2e; Roy Blake EST

Chapter 4: Angle Modulation

MULTIPLE CHOICES B. angle * D. signal

1. The FM modulation index: 15. PM is extensively used in ___ communication.

A. increases with both deviation and modulation frequency A. audio C. voice
B. increases with deviation and decreases with modulation frequency * B. video D. data *
C. decreases with deviation and increases with modulation frequency
D. is equal to twice the deviation 16. Compared to AM, the signal-to-noise ratio of FM is usually
____________________.
2. One way to derive FM from PM is: A. smaller C. cheaper
A. integrate the modulating signal before applying to the PM oscillator B. costly D. better *
*
B. integrate the signal out of the PM oscillator 17. Compared to AM, the bandwidth of FM is usually
C. differentiate the modulating signal before applying to the PM ____________________.
oscillator A. wider, greater * C. cheaper, better
D. differentiate the signal out of the PM oscillator B. wider, costly D. all of the above

3. The bandwidth of an FM signal is considered to be limited because: 18. FM transmitters can use Class____ amplifiers since amplitude linearity
C. there can only be a finite number of sidebands is not important.
D. it is equal to the frequency deviation A. C * C. S
E. it is band-limited at the receiver B. A D. B
F. the power in the outer sidebands is negligible *
19. Both the power and amplitude of an FM signal _______________ as
4. Mathematically, the calculation of FM bandwidth requires the use of: modulation is applied.
A. ordinary trigonometry and algebra A. dismantle C. radiate
B. Bessel functions * B. loose D. stay constant *
C. Taylor series
D. fractals 20. In FM, the frequency deviation is proportional to the instantaneous
_______________ of the modulating signal.
5. FM bandwidth can be approximated by: A. audio C. amplitude *
A. Armstrong's Rule B. resistance D. data
B. Bessel's Rule
C. Carson's Rule * 21. The frequency deviation of an FM signal occurs at a rate equal to the
D. none of the above _________ of the modulating signal.
A. audio C. frequency *
6. NBFM stands for: B. data D. bandwidth
A. National Broadcast FM C. Near Band FM
B. Non-Broadcast FM D. Narowband FM* 22. Mathematically, the number of sidebands in an FM signal is
____________________.
7. When FM reception deteriorates abruptly due to noise, it is called: A. 1 C. 100
A. the capture effect C. the noise effect B. infinite * D. 75
B. the threshold effect * D. the limit effect
23. As FM sidebands get farther from the center frequency, their power
8. An FM receiver switching suddenly between two stations on nearby ________________.
frequencies is called: A. decreases * C. stays the same
A. the capture effect * C. the threshold effect B. increases D. none of the above
B. the "two-station" effect D. None of the above
24. Mathematically, the value of an FM modulation index can be as high as
9. Pre-emphasis is used to: ________________.
A. increase the signal to noise ratio for higher audio frequencies * A. any number * C. mt. fuji
B. increase the signal to noise ratio for lower audio frequencies B. the sky D. none of the above
C. increase the signal to noise ratio for all audio frequencies
D. allow stereo audio to be carried by FM stations 25. In FM, as the modulating frequency decreases, the modulation index
__________.
10. A pre-emphasis of 75 ms refers to: A. stay the same C. increases *
A. the time it takes for the circuit to work B. decreases D. none of the above
B. the "dead time" before de-emphasis occurs
C. the time delay between the L and R channels 26. In FM, as the frequency deviation decreases, the modulation index
D. the time-constant of the filter circuits used * _________________.
A. stay the same C. decreases *
11. FM stereo: B. increases D. none of the above
A. uses DSBSC AM modulation *
B. is implemented using an SCA signal 27. As the FM modulation index increases, the number of significant
C. has a higher S/N than mono FM sidebands ____________________.
D. is not compatible with mono FM A. stay the same C. decreases
B. none of the above D. increases *
12. An SCA signal:
A. can use amplitude modulation 28. For certain values of mf, such as 2.4, the amplitude of the carrier
B. can use FM modulation frequency ____________________.
C. is monaural A. spread C. becomes infinite
D. all of the above * B. increase D. disappears, goes to zero *

13. The modulation index of an FM signal can be determined readily: 29. The bandwidth of an FM signal can be approximated using
A. using measurements at points where J0 equals one _______________ rule.
B. using measurements at points where J0 equals zero * A. Newgate’s C. Taylor’s
C. using measurements at points where the deviation equals zero B. Fourier’s D. Carson’s *
D. only by using Bessel functions
30. FM bandwidth can be calculated precisely using
____________________ functions.
COMPLETION A. data C. digital
B. coding D. Bessel *
14. FM and PM are two forms of ____ modulation.
A. audio C. digital data
EST Electronic Communications Systems 2e; Roy Blake EST

31. The ______________ effect is characteristic of FM reception in a noisy

environment.
A. threshold * C. digital data
B. video D. all of the above

32. The ____________________ effect is seen when an FM receiver is

exposed to two FM signals that are close to each other in frequency.
A. capture * C. digital data
B. audio D. all of the above

33. Rest frequency is another name for an FM ____________________

frequency.
A. carrier * C. data
B. signal D. all of the above

SHORT ANSWER

34. If a 2-volt instantaneous value of modulating signal amplitude causes a

10-kHz deviation in carrier frequency, what is the deviation sensitivity
of the modulator?
A. 20 kHz/ volt C. 5 kHz/ volt *
B. 15 kHz/ volt D. 10 kHz/ volt

35. If a 2-kHz audio tone causes a frequency deviation of 4 kHz, what is

the modulation index?
A. 7 C. 2 *
B. 8 D. 14

36. What will be the deviation caused by a 3-kHz tone if the modulation
index is 3?
A. 3 kHz C. 9 kHz *
B. 6 kHz D. 18 kHz

37. If the deviation sensitivity of an FM modulator is 2 kHz /V, what will

be the modulation index caused by a 1-volt, 1-kHz audio signal?
A. 4 C. 6
B. 2 * D. 8

38. At a modulation index of 2, how much power is in the carrier of a

1000-watt FM transmitter?
A. 58.4 watts C. 38.4 watts
B. 48.4 watts * D. 28.4 watts

39. At a modulation index of 2, how much power is in the first pair of

sidebands of a 1000-watt FM transmitter?
A. 637 watts C. 376 watts
B. 736 watts D. 673 watts *

40. At a modulation index of 2, how much power is in the fifth pair of

sidebands of a 1000-watt FM transmitter?
A. 600 mW (0.6 watt) C. 200 mW (0.2 watt) *
B. 800 mW (0.8 watt) D. 400 mW (0.4 watt)

41. Using Carson's rule, what is the approximate bandwidth of an FM

signal with a modulation index of 2 being modulated by a 5-kHz
signal?
A. 60 kHz C. 90 kHz
B. 15 kHz D. 30 kHz *

42. Using the Bessel chart of Figure 4.1, what is the bandwidth of an FM
signal with a modulation index of 2 being modulated by a 5-kHz signal
if we ignore sidebands containing less than 1% of the total power?
A. 60 kHz C. 90 kHz
B. 15 kHz D. 30 kHz *

43. How would you use the fact that J0 is zero for certain known values of
mf (2.4, 5.5, etc) to measure the frequency deviation of an FM
modulator?
A. Use an audio frequency generator to modulate the FM carrier. Using
a spectrum analyzer, adjust the audio frequency until the carrier
amplitude vanishes.
B. Record the audio frequency. Then do the calculation: δ =
fm × mf where mf will have one of the known values. For example, if fm
is measured to be 2 kHz when mf is 5.5, then δ is 11 kHz.
C. Both A and B are correct. *
D. None of the above.
EST Electronic Communications Systems 2e; Roy Blake EST

Chapter 5: Transmitters
MULTIPLE CHOICES 14. Which of the following can be used for impedance matching?
A. pi network C. both a and b *
1. The ability to change operating frequency rapidly without a lot of B. T network D. a bridge circuit
retuning is called:
A. agility * C. VFO 15. When a transmitter is connected to a resistor instead of an antenna, the
B. expansion D. spread-spectrum resistor is called:
A. a heavy load C. a temporary load
2. The difference between the DC power into a transmitter and the RF B. a dummy load * D. a test load
power coming out:
A. is a measure of efficiency 16. When a transmitter is connected to a resistor instead of an antenna, the
B. heats the transmitter resistor must be:
C. may require water cooling A. wire-wound
D. all of the above * B. noninductive *
C. 1% tolerance or better
3. Baseband compression produces: D. all of the above
A. a smaller range of frequencies from low to high
B. a smaller range of amplitude from soft to loud * 17. A Class D amplifier is:
C. a smaller number of signals A. very efficient
D. none of the above B. essentially pulse-width modulation
C. essentially pulse-duration modulation
4. ALC stands for: D. all of the above *
A. Amplitude Level Control
B. Automatic Level Control * 18. To generate a SSB signal:
C. Accurate Level Control A. start with full-carrier AM
D. none of the above B. start with DSBSC *
C. start with a quadrature signal
5. In an AM transmitter, ALC is used to: D. all of the above
A. keep the modulation close to 100%
B. keep the modulation below 100% 19. The carrier is suppressed in:
C. maximize transmitted power A. a balanced modulator *
D. all of the above * B. a mixer
C. a frequency multiplier
6. With high-level AM: D. none of the above
A. all RF amplifiers can be nonlinear *
B. minimum modulation power is required 20. To remove one AM sideband and leave the other you could use:
C. minimum RF power is required A. a mechanical filter
D. all of the above B. a crystal filter
C. both a and b *
7. With high-level AM: D. none of the above
A. the RF amplifiers are typically Class A
B. the RF amplifiers are typically Class C * 21. A direct FM modulator:
C. the RF amplifiers are typically Class B A. varies the frequency of the carrier oscillator*
D. the RF amplifiers are typically Class AB B. integrates the modulating signal
C. both a and b
8. With low-level AM: D. none of the above
A. the RF amplifiers must be Class A
B. the RF amplifiers must be linear * 22. An indirect FM modulator:
C. the RF amplifiers must be Class B A. requires a varactor in the carrier oscillator
D. the RF amplifiers must be low-power B. varies the phase of the carrier oscillator *
C. both a and b
9. Power amplifiers must be linear for any signal that: D. none of the above
A. is complex
B. has variable frequency 23. AFC stands for:
C. has variable amplitude * A. Amplitude to Frequency Conversion
D. all of the above B. Automatic Frequency Centering
C. Automatic Frequency Control *
10. In high-level AM, "high-level" refers to: D. Audio Frequency Control
A. the power level of the carrier
B. the power level of the modulation 24. Frequency multipliers are:
C. the power level of the final RF amplified. A. essentially balanced modulators
D. none of the above * B. essentially Class C amplifiers *
C. essentially mixers
11. In high-level AM, the power in the sidebands comes from: D. none of the above
A. the modulating amplifier *
B. the RF amplifier 25. With mixing:
C. the driver stage A. the carrier frequency can be raised
D. the carrier B. the carrier frequency can be lowered
C. the carrier frequency can be changed to any required value *
12. In an AM transmitter with 100% modulation, the voltage of the final D. the deviation is altered
RF stage will be:
A. approximately half the DC supply voltage
B. approximately twice the DC supply voltage COMPLETION
C. approximately four times the DC supply voltage *
D. none of the above 26. The accuracy and stability of a transmitter frequency is fixed by the
________ oscillator.
13. Practical transmitters are usually designed to drive a load impedance A. smaller C. greater
of: B. bigger D. carrier *
A. 50 ohms resistive *
B. 75 ohms resistive 27. In the USA, the ____________________ sets requirements for
C. 300 ohms resistive accuracy and stability of a transmitter's frequency.
D. 600 ohms resistive A. CTC C. ECC
B. FCC * D. CPC
EST Electronic Communications Systems 2e; Roy Blake EST

28. In Canada, _________________________ sets requirements for 45. Switching amplifiers are sometimes called Class
accuracy and stability of a transmitter's frequency. ____________________ amplifiers.
A. Industry China C. Industry America A. B C. S
B. Industry Canada * D. Industry Japan B. A D. D *

29. Frequency ____________________ is the ability of a transmitter to 46. Because the sideband filter in a SSB transmitter is fixed,
change frequency without a lot of retuning. ____________________ is used to operate at more than one frequency.
A. agility * C. intelligence A. modulation C. composer
B. strength D. bandwidth B. decoder D. mixing *

30. Power output of SSB transmitters is rated by ____________________. 47. To generate a SSB signal, it is common to start with a
A. PEP * C. EFF ____________________ signal.
B. GGE D. PPE A. DSBSC * C. HSMFC
B. FSCGC D. DSBBC
31. Reducing the dynamic range of a modulating signal is called
_______________. 48. Indirect FM is derived from _____ modulation.
A. compression * C. noise A. phase * C. frequency
B. grinding D. disintegration B. noise D. signal

32. The opposite of compression is called______. 49. Using a varactor to generate FM is an example of a ________________
A. disintegration C. expansion * modulator.
B. compression D. grinding A. noise C. reactor
B. phase D. reactance *
33. ALC is a form of ____________________.
A. grinding C. compression * 50. The modern way to make a stable VFO is to make it part of a
B. disintegration D. expansion __________________ loop.
A. signal C. phase-shift
34. High-level modulation allows the RF amplifiers to operate more B. noise D. phase-locked *
______________.
A. smaller C. larger SHORT ANSWER
B. bigger D. efficiently *
1. If a 50-MHz oscillator is accurate to within 0.001%, what is the range
35. Low-level modulation requires the RF amplifiers to be of possible frequencies?
____________________. A. 50 MHz ± 500 hertz * C. 150 MHz ± 1500 hertz
A. opposite C. non-linear B. 100 MHz ± 1000 hertz D. 200 MHz ± 2000 hertz
B. parallel D. linear *
2. What is the efficiency of a 100-watt mobile transmitter if it draws 11
36. To isolate the oscillator from load changes, a ____________________ amps from a 12-volt car battery?
stage is used. A. 75.8% * C. 88.8%
A. smaller C. greater B. 55.8% D. 69.8%
B. ground D. buffer *
3. The power amplifier of an AM transmitter draws 100 watts from the
37. The peak collector voltage in a Class C RF amplifier is power supply with no modulation. Assuming high-level modulation,
____________________ than the DC supply voltage. how much power does the modulation amplifier deliver for 100%
A. Higher * C. wider modulation?
B. smaller D. lower A. 44 watts C. 88 watts
B. 50 watts * D. 100 watts
38. Most practical transmitters are designed to operate into a
________________-ohm load. 4. If the final RF amplifier of an AM transmitter is powered by 100 volts
A. 50 * C. 69 DC, what is the maximum collector voltage at 100% modulation?
B. 25 D. 75 A. 100 volts C. 400 volts *
B. 124 volts D. 345 volts
39. Transmitters built with transistor RF amplifiers often use a
____________________ network for impedance matching. 5. Suppose the output of a balanced modulator has a center frequency of
A. G C. T * 10 MHz. The audio modulation frequency range is 1 kHz to 10 kHz. To
B. C D. R pass the USB, what should be the center frequency of an ideal crystal
filter?
40. Matching networks also act as filters to help reduce A. 5.005 MHz C. 15.005 MHz
____________________ levels. B. 1.005 MHz D. 10 .005 MHz *
A. melodic C. beat
B. harmonic * D. lower 6. Suppose you have generated a USB SSB signal with a nominal carrier
frequency of 10 MHz. What is the minimum frequency the SSB signal
41. Severe impedance ____________________ can destroy a transmitter's can be mixed with so that the output signal has a nominal carrier
output stage. frequency of 50 MHz?
A. radiation C. noise A. 44 MHz C. 76 MHz
B. mismatch * D. matched B. 88 MHz D. 40 MHz *

42. Transceivers combine a transmitter and a ____________________ into 7. Suppose you have an FM modulator that puts out 1 MHz carrier with a
one "box". 100-hertz deviation. If frequency multiplication is used to increase the
A. transducer C. receiver * deviation to 400 hertz, what will be the new carrier frequency?
B. capacitor D. transceiver A. 4 MHz * C. 8 MHz
B. 32 MHz D. 16 MHz
43. To allow a high modulation percentage, it is common to modulate the
________________ as well as the power amplifier in transistor 8. Suppose you had an FM signal with a carrier of 10 MHz and a
modulators. deviation of 10 kHz. Explain how you could use it to get an FM signal
A. noise C. driver * at 100 MHz with a deviation of 20 kHz.
B. signal D. codes A. First, put the signal through a frequency doubler to get a 20-MHz
carrier with a 20-kHz deviation.
44. Pulse-width modulation is the same as pulse-____________________ B. Then mix that signal with an 80-MHz carrier to generate a 100-MHz
modulation. carrier with 20-kHz deviation.
A. modifier C. attenuation C. Both A and B are correct. *
B. radiation D. duration * D. None of the above
EST Electronic Communications Systems 2e; Roy Blake EST

Chapter 6: Receivers
MULTIPLE CHOICES A. voice communications systems
B. color video receivers *
1. The two basic specifications for a receiver are: C. monochrome video receivers
A. the sensitivity and the selectivity * D. all of the above
B. the number of converters and the number of IFs
C. the spurious response and the tracking 16. The response of a receiver to weak signals is usually limited by:
D. the signal and the noise A. the AGC
B. noise generated in the receiver *
2. The superheterodyne receiver was invented by: C. the dynamic range of the receiver
A. Foster C. Armstrong * D. the type of detector circuit being used
B. Seeley D. Hertz
17. Image frequencies occur when two signals:
3. Trimmers and padders are: A. are transmitted on the same frequency
A. two types of adjusting tools B. enter the mixer, with one being a reflected signal equal to the IF
B. small adjustable resistors frequency
C. small adjustable inductors C. enter the mixer, one below and one above the local oscillator by a
D. small adjustable capacitors * difference equal to the IF *
D. enter the mixer, and the difference between the two signals is equal
4. "Skin effect" refers to: to twice the IF
A. the way radio signals travel across a flat surface
B. the tissue-burning effect of a strong RF signal 18. An image must be rejected:
C. the increase of wire resistance with frequency * A. prior to mixing *
D. none of the above B. prior to IF amplification
C. prior to detection
5. The "front end" of a receiver can include: D. images cannot be rejected
A. the tuner C. the mixer
B. the RF amplifier D. all of the above * 19. Image frequency problems would be reduced by:
A. having an IF amplifier with the proper shape factor
6. "IF" stands for: B. having a wideband RF amplifier after the mixer
A. intermediate frequency * C. having a narrowband RF amplifier before the mixer *
B. intermodulation frequency D. none of the above
C. indeterminate frequency
D. image frequency 20. A common AM detector is the:
A. PLL
7. AGC stands for: B. envelope detector *
A. Audio Gain Control C. ratio detector
B. Automatic Gain Control * D. all of the above
C. Active Gain Control
D. Active Gain Conversion 21. An FM detector is the:
A. PLL C. quadrature detector
8. The frequency of the local oscillator: B. ratio detector D. all of the above *
A. is above the RF frequency
B. is below the RF frequency 22. Germanium diodes are used in AM detectors because:
C. can be either above of below the RF frequency * A. they are faster than silicon diodes
D. is fixed, typically at 455 kHz. B. they are cheaper than silicon diodes
C. they minimize distortion from nonlinearity *
9. The local oscillator and mixer are combined in one device because: D. all of the above
A. it gives a greater reduction of spurious responses
B. it increases sensitivity 23. A common SSB detector is:
C. it increases selectivity A. a PLL C. a BFO
D. it is cheaper * B. a diode D. a product detector *

10. Basically, sensitivity measures: 24. BFO stands for:

A. the weakest signal that can be usefully received * A. Beat Frequency Oscillator *
B. the highest-frequency signal that can be usefully received B. Barrier Frequency Oscillator
C. the dynamic range of the audio amplifier C. Bipolar Frequency Oscillator
D. none of the above D. Bistable Frequency Oscillator

11. Basically, selectivity measures: 25. To demodulate both SSB and DSBSC, you need to:
A. the range of frequencies that the receiver can select A. use a Foster-Seeley discriminator
B. with two signals close in frequency, the ability to receive one and B. reinject the carrier *
reject the other * C. use double conversion
C. how well adjacent frequencies are separated by the demodulator D. use one diode for SSB and two diodes for DSBSC
D. how well the adjacent frequencies are separated in the mixer
26. Which would be best for DSBSC:
12. When comparing values for shape factor: A. carrier detection
A. a value of 1.414 dB is ideal B. coherent detection *
B. a value of 0.707 is ideal C. envelope detection
C. a value of 1.0 is ideal * D. ratio detection
D. there is no ideal value
27. An FM detector that is not sensitive to amplitude variations is:
13. When comparing values for shape factor: A. Foster-Seeley detector
A. a value of 2 is better than a value of 4 * B. a quadrature detector
B. a value of 4 is better than a value of 2 C. a PLL detector *
C. both values are basically equivalent D. all of the above
D. none of the above
28. The function of a limiter is:
14. Distortion in a receiver can occur in: A. to remove amplitude variations *
A. the mixer C. the IF amplifiers B. to limit spurious responses
B. the detector D. all of the above * C. to limit dynamic range
D. to limit noise response
15. Phase distortion is important in:
EST Electronic Communications Systems 2e; Roy Blake EST

29. Suppressing the audio when no signal is present is called:

A. AGC C. AFC 44. In a receiver, the ____________________ refers to the input filter and
B. squelch * D. limiting RF stage.
A. front end * C. back view
30. LNA stands for: B. back end D. front view
A. Limited-Noise Amplifier
B. Low-Noise Amplifier * 45. In a superhet, the output of the___________ goes to the IF amplifiers.
C. Low-Noise Audio A. mixer * C. signal
D. Logarithmic Noise Amplification B. noise D. antenna

31. AFC stands for: 46. In a superhet, the ____________________ frequency is the difference
A. Audio Frequency Compensator between the local oscillator frequency and the received signal
B. Autodyne Frequency Compensation frequency.
C. Automatic Frequency Control * A. Intermediate IN C. greater
D. Autonomous Frequency Control B. larger D. intermediate IF*

32. The function of AFC is: 47. The ____________________ circuit adjusts the gain of the IF
A. maintain a constant IF frequency amplifiers in response to signal strength.
B. match the local oscillator to the received signal * A. CBC C. GGC
C. lock the discriminator to the IF frequency B. TGC D. AGC *
D. none of the above
48. An ____________________ converter uses the same transistor for both
33. SAW stands for: the local oscillator and the mixer.
A. Symmetrical Audio Wave A. antenna C. noise
B. Surface Acoustic Wave * B. autodyne * D. phase
C. Silicon-Activated Wafer
D. Software-Activated Wave 49. In low-side injection, the local oscillator is ____________________
than the received signal frequency.
34. The important property of a SAW is: A. smaller C. greater
A. it stabilizes the audio in a receiver B. lower * D. larger
B. it allows software radios to be built
C. it is a stable bandpass filter * 50. ____________________ is the ability of a receiver to separate two
D. none of the above signals that are close to each other in frequency.
A. Attenuation C. Selectively *
35. The main function of the AGC is to: B. Antenna D. Signal
A. keep the gain of the receiver constant
B. keep the gain of the IF amplifiers constant 51. ____________________ is the ability of a receiver to receive and
C. keep the input to the detector at a constant amplitude * successfully demodulate a very weak signal.
D. all of the above A. Signal C. Sensitivity *
B. Attenuation D. Selectively
36. DSP stands for:
A. Dynamic Signal Properties 52. A receiver with two different IF frequencies is called a double-
B. Direct Signal Phase ____________________ receiver.
C. Distorted Signal Packet A. substitution C. integration
D. Digital Signal Processor * B. modulation D. conversion *

37. SINAD stands for: 53. A multiple-conversion receiver will have better rejection of
A. Sinusoidal Amplitude Distortion ________________ frequencies.
B. Signal and Noise Amplitude Distortion A. digital C. capture
C. Signal-plus-Noise-to-Noise Ratio B. binary D. image *
D. Signal-plus-Noise and Distortion-to-Noise and Distortion Ratio *
54. A demodulator is also called a ____________.
38. TRF stands for: A. detector * C. driver
A. Tuned Radio Frequency * B. switch D. inspector
B. Tracking Radio Frequency
C. Transmitted Radio Frequency 55. An ____________________ detector uses a diode to half-wave rectify
D. Tuned Receiver Function an AM signal.
A. noise C. envelope *
B. antenna D. folder
COMPLETION
56. A ____________________ detector is used for SSB signals.
39. Almost all modern receivers use the _________________________ A. frequency C. product *
principle. B. noise D. signal
A. superheterodyne * C. thompson’s
B. taylor’s D. fourier’s 57. A BFO produces a locally generated ____________________.
A. noise C. signal
40. The first radio receiver of any kind was built in the year B. frequency D. carrier *
____________________.
A. 1887 * C. 1899 58. A DSBSC signal requires a ____________________ detection circuit.
B. 1997 D. 1945 A. frequency C. coherent *
B. signal D. noise
41. When two tuned circuits ____________________ each other, it means
that when the frequency of one is adjusted, the other changes with it. 59. FM detectors have a characteristic___-shaped curve.
A. mix C. track * A. S * C. F
B. capacitor D. resistor B. C D. A

42. The ____________________ effect causes the resistance of wire to 60. While still commonly found, the Foster-Seeley and ratio detectors are
increase with frequency. ________________.
A. space C. ground A. signal C. coherent
B. water D. skin * B. noise D. obsolescent *

43. The superhet was invented in the year ____________________. 61. Unlike the PLL detector, the quadrature detector is sensitive to changes
A. 1989 C. 1945 in _____________ of the input signal.
B. 1818 D. 1918* A. capacitance C. ohms
EST Electronic Communications Systems 2e; Roy Blake EST

B. resistance D. amplitude * 78. Suppose a SSB receiver requires an injected frequency of 1.5 MHz.
What would be the acceptable frequency range of the BFO if the
62. A dual-____________________ MOSFET is useful for AGC. maximum acceptable baseband shift is 100 hertz?
A. balcony C. window A. 4.5 MHz ± 150 hertz C. 1.5 MHz ± 100 hertz *
B. gate * D. door B. 3 MHz ± 150 hertz D. 2 MHz ± 100 hertz

63. Diode mixers are too ____________________ to be practical in most 79. The transformer of a double-tuned IF amplifier has a Q of 25 for both
applications. primary and secondary. What value of kc do you need to achieve
A. behave C. crazy optimal coupling?
B. noisy * D. non-practical A. 0.06 * C. 1.43
B. 2.33 D. 1.88
64. The IF amplifiers in an AM receiver must be Class
________________. 80. What value of transformer coupling would a double-tuned 10-MHz IF
A. D C. B amplifier with optimal coupling need to get a bandwidth of 100 kHz?
B. C D. A * A. 0.01 * C. 1.01
B. 2.01 D. 3.01
65. A double-tuned IF transformer is usually ____________________
coupled for the response to have a flat top and steep sides.
A. over * C. greater
B. pass D. less

66. Multiple IF stages can be ____________________-tuned to increase

the bandwidth.
A. stagger * C. greater
B. pass D. less

67. Compared to tuned circuits, ceramic and crystal IF filters do not require
____________________.
A. source C. adjustment *
B. electrons D. load

68. Up-conversion is when the output of the mixer is a

____________________ frequency than the incoming signal.
A. smaller C. higher *
B. bigger D. lower

69. In a block converter, the frequency of the first local oscillator is

____________________.
A. smaller C. greater
B. bigger D. fixed constant *

70. Typically, AGC reduces the gain of the ____________________

amplifiers.
A. OR C. ELSE
B. NOR D. IF *

71. An ____________________-meter is designed to indicate signal

strength in many communications receivers.
A. S * C. A
B. D D. F

72. The effectiveness of FM _________________ is measured by a

receiver’s quieting sensitivity.
A. limiting * C. effectivity
B. passing D. action

73. A ____________________ refers to any kind of FM or PM detector.

A. modulator C. hater
B. racist D. discriminator *

SHORT ANSWER

74. Suppose the bandwidth of a tuned circuit is 10 kHz at 1 MHz.

Approximately what bandwidth would you expect it to have at 4 MHz?
A. 10 kHz C. 20 kHz *
B. 40 kHz D. 55 kHz

75. Using high-side injection for a 1-MHz IF, what is the frequency of the
local oscillator when the receiver is tuned to 5 MHz?
A. 3 MHz C. 9 MHz
B. 6 MHz * D. 12 MHz

76. An IF filter has a –60 dB bandwidth of 25 kHz and a –6 dB bandwidth

of 20 kHz. What is the shape factor value?
A. 3.25 C. 4.25
B. 2.25 D. 1.25 *

77. Suppose a receiver uses a 5-MHz IF frequency. Assuming high-side

injection, what would be the image frequency if the receive was tuned
to 50 MHz?
A. 15 MHz C. 30 MHz
B. 90 MHz D. 60 MHz *
EST Electronic Communications Systems 2e; Roy Blake EST

Chapter 7: Digital Communications

MULTIPLE CHOICES D. the m Law (mu law) *

1. The first digital code was the: 17. In Europe, companding uses:
A. ASCII code C. Morse code * A. the Logarithmic Law
B. Baudot code D. none of the above B. the A Law *
C. the a Law (alpha law)
2. In digital transmission, signal degradation can be removed using: D. the m Law (mu law)
A. an amplifier
B. a filter 18. Codec stands for:
C. a regenerative repeater * A. Coder-Decoder * C. Code-Compression
D. all of the above B. Coded-Carrier D. none of the above

3. TDM stands for: 19. A typical codec in a telephone system sends and receives:
A. Time-Division Multiplexing * A. 4-bit numbers C. 12-bit numbers
B. b. Time-Domain Multiplexing B. 8-bit numbers * D. 16-bit numbers
C. Ten-Digital Manchester
D. Ten Dual-Manchester 20. Compared to PCM, delta modulation:
A. transmits fewer bits per sample
4. Hartley's Law is: B. requires a much higher sampling rate
A. I = ktB * C. C = B log2(1 + S/N) C. can suffer slope overload
B. C = 2B log2M D. SR = 2fmax D. all of the above *

5. The Shannon-Hartley theorem is: 21. In delta modulation, "granular noise" is produced when:
A. I = ktB C. C = B log2(1 + S/N) A. the signal changes too rapidly
B. C = 2B log2M * D. SR = 2fmax B. the signal does not change *
C. the bit rate is too high
6. The Shannon Limit is given by: D. the sample is too large
A. I = ktB C. C = B log2(1 + S/N) *
B. C = 2B log2M D. SR = 2fmax 22. Compared to PCM, adaptive delta modulation can transmit voice:
A. with a lower bit rate but reduced quality
7. The Nyquist Rate can be expressed as: B. with a lower bit rate but the same quality *
A. I = ktB C. C = B log2(1 + S/N) C. only over shorter distances
B. C = 2B log2M D. SR = 2fmax * D. only if the voice is band-limited

8. Natural Sampling does not use: 23. Which coding scheme requires DC continuity:
A. a sample-and-hold circuit * A. AMI C. unipolar NRZ *
B. true binary numbers B. Manchester D. bipolar RZ
C. a fixed sample rate
D. an analog-to-digital converter 24. Manchester coding:
A. is a biphase code
9. Which is true about aliasing and foldover distortion? B. has a level transition in the middle of every bit period
A. They are two types of sampling error. C. provides strong timing information
B. You can have one or the other, but not both. D. all of the above *
C. Aliasing is a technique to prevent foldover distortion.
D. They are the same thing. * 25. The number of framing bits in DS-1 is:
A. 1 * C. 4
10. Foldover distortion is caused by: B. 2 D. 8
A. noise
B. too many samples per second 26. Framing bits in DS-1 are used to:
C. too few samples per second * A. detect errors
D. all of the above B. carry signaling
C. synchronize the transmitter and receiver *
11. The immediate result of sampling is: D. all of the above
A. a sample alias C. PCM
B. PAM * D. PDM 27. So-called "stolen" bits in DS-1 are used to:
A. detect errors
12. Which of these is not a pulse-modulation technique: B. carry signaling *
A. PDM C. PPM C. synchronize the transmitter and receiver
B. PWM D. PPS * D. all of the above

13. Quantizing noise (quantization noise): 28. The number of bits per sample in DS-1 is:
A. decreases as the sample rate increases A. 1 C. 4
B. decreases as the sample rate decreases B. 2 D. 8 *
C. decreases as the bits per sample increases *
D. decreases as the bits per sample decreases 29. The number of samples per second in DS-1 is:
A. 8 k * C. 64 k
14. The dynamic range of a system is the ratio of: B. 56 k D. 1.544 × 106
A. the strongest transmittable signal to the weakest discernible signal *
B. the maximum rate of conversion to the minimum rate of conversion 30. The bit rate for each channel in DS-1 is:
C. the maximum bits per sample to the minimum bits per sample A. 1.544 Mb/s C. 56 kb/s
D. none of the above B. 64 kb/s * D. 8 kb/s

15. Companding is used to: 31. In DS-1, bits are transmitted over a T-1 cable at:
A. compress the range of base-band frequencies A. 1.544 MB/s * C. 56 kb/s
B. reduce dynamic range at higher bit-rates B. 64 kb/s D. 8 kb/s
C. preserve dynamic range while keeping bit-rate low *
D. maximize the useable bandwidth in digital transmission 32. A T-1 cable uses:
A. Manchester coding
16. In North America, companding uses: B. bipolar RZ AMI coding *
A. the Logarithmic Law C. NRZ coding
B. the A Law D. pulse-width coding
C. the a Law (alpha law)
EST Electronic Communications Systems 2e; Roy Blake EST

33. The number of frames in a superframe is: 12. Ignoring noise, the __________________ theorem gives the maximum
A. 6 C. 24 rate of data transmission for a given bandwidth.
B. 12 * D. 48 A. Taylor-Shannon C. Shannon-Hartley *
B. Shannon-Blake D. Taylor-Shannon
34. A typical T-1 line uses:
A. twisted-pair wire * C. fiber-optic cable 13. The _________________ limit gives the maximum rate of data
B. coaxial cable D. microwave transmission for a given bandwidth and a given signal-to-noise ratio.
A. Blake C. Shannon *
35. "Signaling" is used to indicate: B. Taylor D. Hartley
A. on-hook/off-hook condition
B. busy signal 14. ____________________ sampling is done without a sample-and-hold
C. ringing circuit.
D. all of the above * A. Natural * C. Series
B. Snowball D. Fish bowl
36. A vocoder implements compression by:
A. constructing a model of the transmission medium 15. The ____________________ Rate is the minimum sampling rate for
B. constructing a model of the human vocal system * converting analog signals to digital format.
C. finding redundancies in the digitized data A. Nyquist * C. Lower
D. using lossless techniques B. Higher D. Fast

37. Compared to standard PCM systems, the quality of the output of a 16. ______________ distortion occurs when an analog signal is sampled at
vocoder is: too slow a rate.
A. much better C. about the same A. Ground C. Space
B. somewhat better D. not as good * B. Sky D. Foldover *

17. ____________________ means that higher frequency baseband signals

from the transmitter "assume the identity" of low-frequency baseband
COMPLETION signals at the receiver when sent digitally.
A. Dipole C. Bandwidth
1. Digitizing a signal often results in ____________________ transmission B. Antenna D. Aliasing *
quality.
A. improved better * C. greater 18. The output of a sample-and-hold circuit is a pulse-_______________
B. lower D. less modulated signal.
A. resistance C. repeater
2. To send it over an analog channel, a digital signal must be B. amplitude * D. less
____________________ onto a carrier.
A. pass through C. fit 19. _______________ modulation is the most commonly used digital
B. lowered D. modulated * modulation scheme.
A. Pulse-modulator C. Antenna
3. To send it over a digital channel, an analog signal must first be B. Pulse-code * D. Frequency
____________________.
A. digitized * C. electrocuted 20. ____________________ noise results from the process of converting
B. data D. coded an analog signal into digital format.
A. Sky C. Quantizing *
4. In analog channels, the signal-to-noise ratio of an analog signal gradually B. Radiated D. Attenuation
____________ as the length of the channel increases.
A. none of the following C. decrease, get worse * 21. _________________ is used to preserve dynamic range using a
B. remains the same D. increase, get worse reasonable bandwidth.
A. Modulation C. Companding *
5. The ____________________ value of a pulse is the only information it B. Substitution D. Integrating
carries on a digital channel.
A. polynomial C. binary * 22. In North America, compression is done using the ________________-
B. single D. tertiary law equation.
A. π C. ∑
6. A ____________________ repeater is used to restore the shape of pulses B. Ω D. µ*
on a digital cable.
A. phase C. double 23. In Europe, compression is done using the ____________________-law
B. continuous D. regenerative * equation.
A. G C. C
7. There are techniques to detect and ____________________ some errors B. E D. A *
in digital transmission.
A. correct * C. wrong 24. A _______________ is an IC that converts a voice signal to PCM and
B. bigger D. frequently vice versa.
A. audio C. video
8. Converting an analog signal to digital form is another source of B. codec * D. digital data
____________________ in digital transmission systems.
A. signal C. load 25. In a PCM system, the samples of the analog signal are first converted to
B. error, noise * D. radiation ____ bits before being compressed to 8 bits.
A. 6 C. 18
9. _________________-division multiplexing is easily done in digital B. 12 * D. 24
transmission.
A. Frequency C. atom 26. The number of bits per sample transmitted in delta modulation is
B. Time * D. amplitude __________________.
A. 1 * C. 7
10. All practical communications channels are band- B. 4 D. 9
____________________.
A. group C. less 27. Delta modulation requires a ___________ sampling rate than PCM for
B. troop D. limited * the same quality of reproduction.
A. smaller C. greater
11. ____________________ Law gives the relationship between time, B. higher * D. less
information capacity, and bandwidth.
A. Taylor’s C. Blake’s 28. ____________________ noise is produced by a delta modulator if the
B. Fourier’s D. Hartley’s * analog signal doesn't change.
A. Small C. Refined
EST Electronic Communications Systems 2e; Roy Blake EST

B. Bigger D. Granular *
3. What is the Shannon Limit of a channel that has a bandwidth of 4000
29. In delta modulation, _______ overload can occur if the analog signal hertz and a signal-to-noise ratio of 15?
changes too fast. A. 4 kbps C. 8kbps
A. modulation C. frequency B. kbps * D. 32 kbps
B. bandwidth D. slope *
4. What is the minimum required number of samples per second to digitize
30. The ____________________ size varies in adaptive delta modulation. an analog signal with frequency components ranging from 300 hertz to
A. smaller C. step * 3300 hertz?
B. bigger D. less A. 3300 samples/ second C. 2200 samples/ second
B. 6600 samples/ second * D. 4400 samples/ second
31. Adaptive delta modulation can transmit PCM-quality voice at about
___________ the bit rate of PCM. 5. What is the approximate dynamic range, in dB, of a linear PCM system
A. one and a half C. half * that uses 12 bits per sample?
B. one fourth D. one whole A. 74 dB * C. 69 dB
B. 34 dB D. 99 dB
32. Unipolar NRZ is not practical because most channels do not have
______ continuity. 6. What is the approximate data rate for a system using 8 bits per sample
A. AM C. FM and running at 8000 samples per second?
B. DC * D. AC A. 8 kbps C. 32 kbps
B. 16 kbps D. 64 kbps *
33. In AMI, binary ones are represented by voltage that alternates in
_______________. 7. If bits were "stolen" from every DS-1 frame, what would the useable
A. node C. capacitor data-rate be for each channel in the frame?
B. polarity * D. resistor A. 12 kbps C. 33 kbps
B. 26 kbps D. 56 kbps *
34. Long strings of ____________________ should be avoided in AMI.
A. threes C. ones 8. Assuming maximum input and output voltages of 1 volt, what is the
B. twos D. zeros * output voltage of a μ-law compressor if the input voltage is 0.388 volt?
A. 0.222 volt C. 3.55 volt
35. Manchester code has a level _________ in the center of each bit period. B. 3.43 volt D. 0.833 volt *
A. spread C. dissipation
B. radiates D. transition *

36. Manchester coding provides __________ information regardless of the

pattern of ones and zeros.
A. timing * C. mixing
B. spacing D. composing

37. There are ____________________ channels in a DS-1 frame.

A. 48 C. 24 *
B. 4 D. 12

38. DS-1 uses a ____________________ bit to synchronize the transmitter

and receiver.
A. information C. framing *
B. disintegration D. modulating

39. In DS-1, each channel is sampled ______ times per second.

A. 2000 C. 16000
B. 4000 D. 8000 *

40. Data is carried over a T-1 line at a rate of ____________________ bits

per second.
A. 7.454 x 104 C. 6.545 x 106
B. 3.455 x 104 D. 1.544 x 106 *

41. A group of 12 DS-1 frames is called a ____.

A. dipole C. frequency
B. bandwidth D. superframe *

42. From a group of twelve frames, signaling bits are "stolen" from every
_________ frame.
A. first C. third
B. fourth D. sixth *

43. ____________________ compression transmits all the data in the

original signal but uses fewer bits to do it.
A. Lossless * C. Open
B. Wireless D. Wide

SHORT ANSWER

1. Use Hartley's Law to find how much time it would take to send 100,000
bits over a channel with a bandwidth of 2,000 hertz and a channel
constant of k = 10.
A. 5 seconds * C. 12 seconds
B. 9 seconds D. 16 seconds

2. Use the Shannon-Hartley theorem to find the bandwidth required to send

12,000 bits per second if the number of levels transmitted is 8.
A. 200 hertz C. 300 hertz
B. 2000 hertz * D. 3000 hertz
EST Electronic Communications Systems 2e; Roy Blake EST

Chapter 8: The Telephone System

MULTIPLE CHOICES D. 20 mA to 80 mA *

1. DTMF stands for: 15. The separation of control functions from signal switching is known as:
A. Digital Telephony Multiple Frequency A. step-by-step switching control
B. Dial Tone Master Frequency B. crossbar control
C. Dual-Tone Multifrequency * C. common control *
D. Digital Trunk Master Frequency D. ESS

2. PSTN stands for: 16. The typical voltage across a telephone when on-hook is:
A. Public Switched Telephone Network * A. 48 volts DC *
B. Private Switched Telephone Network B. 48 volts, 20 hertz AC
C. Primary Service Telephone Network C. 90 volts DC
D. Primary Service Telephone Numbers D. 90 volts, 20 hertz AC

3. POTS stands for: 17. The typical voltage needed to "ring" a telephone is:
A. Private Office Telephone System A. 48 volts DC
B. Primary Office Telephone Service B. 48 volts, 20 hertz AC
C. Primary Operational Test System C. 90 volts DC
D. Plain Old Telephone Service * D. 90 volts, 20 hertz AC *

4. LATA stands for: 18. The bandwidth of voice-grade signals on a telephone system is
A. Local Access and Transport Area * restricted in order to:
B. Local Access Telephone Area A. allow lines to be "conditioned"
C. Local Area Telephone Access B. prevent "singing"
D. Local Area Transport Access C. allow signals to be multiplexed *
D. all of the above
5. A LATA is a:
A. a local calling area * 19. VNL stands for:
B. a type of digital local network A. voltage net loss C. via net loss *
C. a way of accessing a tandem office B. volume net loss D. voice noise level
D. a way of accessing a central office
20. Signal loss is designed into a telephone system to:
6. Central offices are connected by: A. eliminate reflections
A. local loops C. both a and b B. prevent oscillation *
B. trunk lines * D. none of the above C. improve signal-to-noise ratio
D. reduce power consumption
7. Local loops terminate at:
A. a tandem office 21. The reference noise level for telephony is:
B. a toll station A. 1 mW C. 1 pW *
C. a central office * B. 0 dBm D. 0 dBr
D. an interexchange office
22. The number of voice channels in a basic FDM group is:
8. Call blocking: A. 6 C. 24
A. cannot occur in the public telephone network B. 12 * D. 60
B. occurs on the local loop when there is an electrical power failure
C. occurs only on long-distance cables 23. Basic FDM groups can be combined into:
D. occurs when the central office capacity is exceeded* A. supergroups C. jumbogroups
B. mastergroups D. all of the above *
9. In telephony, POP stands for:
A. Post Office Protocol 24. In telephone system FDM, voice is put on a carrier using:
B. Point Of Presence * A. SSB * C. PDM
C. Power-On Protocol B. DSBSC D. PCM
D. none of the above
25. PABX stands for:
10. The cable used for local loops is mainly: A. Power Amplification Before Transmission
A. twisted-pair copper wire * B. Private Automatic Branch Exchange *
B. shielded twisted-pair copper wire C. Public Automated Branch Exchange
C. coaxial cable D. Public Access Branch Exchange
D. fiber-optic
26. SLIC stands for:
11. FITL stands for: A. Single-Line Interface Circuit
A. Framing Information for Toll Loops B. Standard Line Interface Card
B. Fiber In the Toll Loop C. Subscriber Line Interface Card *
C. Framing In The Loop D. Standard Local Interface Circuit
D. Fiber-In-The-Loop *
27. In DS-1, bits are "robbed" in order to:
12. Loading coils were used to: A. provide synchronization
A. increase the speed of the local loop for digital data B. carry signaling *
B. reduce the attenuation of voice signals * C. cancel echoes
C. reduce crosstalk D. check for errors
D. provide C-type conditioning to a local loop
28. "Bit-stuffing" is more formally called:
13. DC current flows through a telephone: A. compensation C. justification *
A. when it is on hook B. rectification D. frame alignment
B. when it is off hook *
C. as long as it is attached to a local loop 29. ISDN stands for:
D. only when it is ringing A. Integrated Services Digital Network *
B. Information Services Digital Network
14. The range of DC current that flows through a telephone is: C. Integrated Services Data Network
A. 20 mA to 80 mA D. Information Systems Digital Network
B. 200 mA to 800 mA
C. 2 mA to 8 mA 30. Basic ISDN has not been widely adopted because:
EST Electronic Communications Systems 2e; Roy Blake EST

A. it took to long to develop 14. The ____________________ functions are provided by a SLIC.
B. it is too slow A. SCROBTH C. BOORHTC
C. it has been surpassed by newer technologies B. OBHTSRC D. BORSCHT *
D. all of the above *
15. A ____________________ coil prevents loss of signal energy within a
31. ADSL stands for: telephone while allowing full duplex operation over a single pair of
A. All-Digital Subscriber Line wires.
B. Asymmetrical Digital Subscriber Line * A. small C. open
C. Allocated Digital Service Line B. cut D. hybrid *
D. Access to Data Services Line
16. In a crosspoint switch, not all __________ can be in use at the same
32. Compared to ISDN, internet access using ADSL is typically: time.
A. much faster * A. capacitor C. resistor
B. about the same speed B. load D. lines *
C. much more expensive
D. none of the above 17. The old carbon transmitters generated a relatively _______________
signal voltage.
A. smaller C. large *
B. wider D. less

COMPLETION 18. The generic term for Touch-Tone® signaling is

____________________.
1. A ______________ is a local calling area. A. DTTFM C. DTMF *
A. PATA C. URBAN B. FFTDM D. FFTD
B. RURAL D. LATA *
19. A ____________________ line provides more bandwidth than a
2. Central offices are connected together by _________ lines. standard line.
A. transmission line C. roots A. smaller C. longer
B. branch D. trunk * B. conditioned * D. shielded

3. One central office can be connected to another through a 20. In the telephone system, amplifiers are called ____________________.
_______________ office. A. repeaters * C. converter
A. smaller C. greater B. modulator D. inverter
B. tandem * D. bigger
21. An echo _______ converts a long-distance line from full-duple to half-
4. With 7-digit phone numbers, ____________________ thousand duplex operation.
telephones can connect to a central office. A. capacitor C. inverter
A. one C. seven B. converter D. suppressor *
B. ten * D. eight
22. ____________________ weighting is an attempt to adjust the noise or
5. Call ____________________ is when it becomes impossible for a signal level to the response of a typical telephone receiver.
subscriber to place a call due to an overload of lines being used. A. G-message C. T-message
A. smoking C. entry B. D-message D. C-message *
B. blocking * D. fogging
23. In FDM telephony, the modulation is usually ____________________.
6. New____________________ switching equipment uses TDM to A. BBC, SSBSC C. CCB, BBSBC
combine signals. B. SBS, SBSSC D. SSB, SSBSC *
A. signal C. data
B. code D. digital * 24. In FDM telephony, _________________ bands separate the channels in
a group.
7. Most local loops still use __________ copper wire. A. open C. cutter
A. open C. shielded B. guard * D. stopper
B. unshielded D. twisted-pair *

8. As compared to a hierarchical network, a ___________ network never 25. Because of "bit robbing", a channel in a DS-1 frame allows only
needs more than one intermediate switch. _______________ kbps when used to send digital data.
A. smaller C. lump A. 34 C. 89
B. bigger D. flat * B. 32 D. 56 *

9. _______________ coils were used to reduce the attenuation of voice 26. A ____________________ is a group of 12 DS-1 frames with signaling
frequencies. information in the sixth and twelfth frames.
A. Loading * C. Ground A. noise C. superframe *
B. Open D. Cut B. modulator D. signal

10. In a twisted-pair telephone cable, the red wire is called 27. In DS-1C, ____________________ bits are used to compensate for
____________________. differences between clock rates.
A. ring * C. root A. 4 C. open
B. square D. sphere B. stuff * D. many

11. In a twisted-pair telephone cable, the green wire is called 28. Busy and dial tone are referred to as ____________________ signals
____________________. because they use the same pair of wires as the voice signal.
A. center C. space A. open C. radiated
B. tip * D. signal B. in-channel * D. free

12. Of the red and green 'phone wires, the ____________________ wire is 29. SS7 is the current version of ___________ signaling.
positive with respect to the other. A. A. common-channel * C. radiated
A. blue C. red B. B. in-channel D. open
B. green * D. black
30. SS7 is a ________-switched data network.
13. A telephone is said to have ____________________ the line when the A. packet * C. open
central office sends it dial tone. B. off D. cutting
A. larger C. open
B. seized * D. cut 31. In ISDN, the ______________ channel is used for common-channel
signaling.
 EST Electronic Communications Systems 2e; Roy Blake EST

A. D * C. A
B. E D. B

32. In ISDN, the ____________________ channels are used for voice or data.
A. D C. A
B. E D. B *

33. Terminal equipment especially designed for ISDN is designated

_________ equipment.
A. SE1 C. DE1
B. FE1 D. TE1 *

34. The A in ADSL stands for ____________.

A. asymmetrical * C. metric
B. symmetrical D. system

35. In ADSL, the speed from the network to the subscriber is

____________________ than the speed in the opposite direction.
A. smaller C. slower
B. bigger D. greater, faster *

SHORT ANSWER

1. For a certain telephone, the DC loop voltage is 48 V on hook and 8 V off

hook. If the loop current is 40 mA, what is the DC resistance of the local
loop?
A. 1000 ohms * C. 1000 watts
B. 1111 ohms D. 1111 watts

2. For a certain telephone, the DC loop voltage is 48 V on hook and 8 V off

hook. If the loop current is 40 mA, what is the DC resistance of the
telephone?
A. 323 ohms C. 234 ohms
B. 200 ohms * D. 875 ohms

3. Which two DTMF tones correspond to the digit "1"? (Use the table in the
text.)
A. 389 Hz and 4342 Hz C. 344 Hz and 9897 Hz
B. 697 Hz and 1209 Hz * D. 456 Hz and 1233 Hz

4. Calculate the dB of VNL required for a channel with a 3 ms delay.

A. 43 dB C. 6 dB
B. 1 dB * D. 9dB

5. If a telephone voice signal has a level of 0 dBm, what is its level in dBrn?
A. 90 dBrn * C. 190 dBrn
B. 178 dBrn D. 45 dBrn

6. A telephone test-tone has a level of 80 dBrn at a point where the level is

+5dB TLP. If C-weighting produces a 10-dB loss, what would the signal
level be in dBrnc0?
A. 65 dBrnc TLP C. 87 dBrnc TLP
B. 45 dBrnc TLP D. 12 dBrnc TLP
EST Electronic Communications Systems 2e; Roy Blake EST

Chapter 9: Data Transmission

15. To maintain synchronization in synchronous transmission:
MULTIPLE CHOICES A. long strings of 1s and 0s must not be allowed *
B. transmission must stop periodically for resynchronization
1. In practical terms, parallel data transmission is sent: C. the clock circuits must be precisely adjusted
A. over short distances only * D. the channel must be noise-free
B. usually over long distances
C. over any distance 16. BISYNC:
D. usually over a coaxial cable A. is an IBM product
B. is a character-oriented protocol
2. The five-level teletype code was invented by: C. requires the use of DLE
A. the Morkum Company D. all of the above *
B. the Teletype Company
C. Western Union 17. HDLC:
D. Emile Baudot * A. is an IBM product
B. is a bit-oriented protocol *
3. Data codes are also called: C. is identical to SDLC
A. character codes D. all of the above
B. character sets
C. they do not have any other name *
D. both a and b 18. The use of flags in SDLC requires:
A. "bit-stuffing" *
4. Digital data that is not being used to carry characters is called: B. different flags at either end of a frame
A. FIGS data C. numerical data C. FEC
B. binary data * D. all of the above D. ARQ

5. Character codes include: 19. The initials ARQ are used to designate:
A. alphanumeric characters A. automatic request for resynchronization
B. data link control characters B. automatic request for retransmission *
C. graphic control characters C. automatic receiver queue
D. all of the above * D. automatic request for queue

6. ASCII stands for: 20. ARQ is used to:

A. American Standard Character-set 2 A. correct bit errors *
B. American Standard Code for Information Interchange * B. correct synchronization problems
C. American Standard Code 2 C. put data into a temporary buffer
D. Alphanumeric Standard Code for Information Interchange D. none of the above

7. BS, FF, and CR are examples of: 21. FEC stands for:
A. nonstandard character codes A. Fixed Error Control
B. escape characters B. Forward Error Control
C. control characters * C. Forward Error Correction *
D. none of the above D. False Error Condition

8. LF stands for: 22. VRC is another name for:

A. Line Feed * C. Line Forward A. FEC C. LRC
B. Link Feed D. Link Forward B. ARQ D. parity *

9. UART stands for: 23. CRC stands for:

A. Universal Asynchronous Receiver-Transmitter * A. Control Receiver Code
B. Unidirectional Asynchronous Receiver-Transmitter B. Correct Received Character
C. Unaltered Received Text C. Cyclic Redundancy Check *
D. Universal Automatic Receiver for Text D. Cycle Repeat Character

10. In asynchronous transmission, the transmitter and receiver are: 24. Huffman codes:
A. frame-by-frame synchronized using the data bits A. allow errors to be detected but not corrected
B. frame-by-frame synchronized using a common clock B. allow errors to be detected and corrected
C. frame-by-frame synchronized using the start and stop bits * C. allow alphanumeric data to be corrected
D. not synchronized at all, hence the name "asynchronous" D. allow alphanumeric data to be compressed*

11. In asynchronous transmission, the time between consecutive frames is: 25. Run-length encoding is used to:
A. equal to zero A. encrypt data C. correct data
B. equal to one bit-time B. compress data * D. none of the above
C. equal to the start and stop bit-times
D. not a set length * 26. Public-key encryption:
A. allows the use of digital signatures
12. In synchronous transmission, the frames are: B. is used to convey symmetric keys
A. about the same length as ten asynchronous frames C. avoids the "password problem"
B. much longer than asynchronous frames * D. all of the above *
C. 128 bytes long
D. 1024 bytes long 27. SDLC stands for:
A. Synchronous Data Link Control *
13. Synchronous transmission is used because: B. Synchronous Data Line Control
A. no start and stop bits means higher efficiency * C. Synchronous Data Link Character
B. it is cheaper than asynchronous since no UARTS are required D. Synchronous Data Line Character
C. it is easier to implement than asynchronous
D. all of the above 28. HDLC is:
A. a bit-oriented protocol
14. In synchronous transmission, the receiver "syncs-up" with the B. based on SDLC
transmitter by using: C. an ISO standard
A. the clock bits C. the CRC bits D. all of the above *
B. the data bits * D. a separate clock line
EST Electronic Communications Systems 2e; Roy Blake EST

COMPLETION 19. HDLC uses bit-_____________ to prevent accidental flags.

A. stuffing * C. user
1. Parallel transmission can be used only for ____________________ B. stopper D. less
distances.
A. wide C. greater 20. ____________________ errors cause many consecutive bits to be bad.
B. bigger D. short * A. Radiated C. Loss
B. Burst * D. Noise
2. The term "baud" was named after Emil ___.
A. Baudot * C. Watson 21. FEC stands for ________ error correction.
B. Vingot D. Craner A. sideward C. forward *
B. upward D. backward
3. Data codes are also called _______ codes.
A. smaller C. data 22. An ___________ scheme corrects errors by requiring the
B. empty D. character * retransmission of bad blocks.
A. QAR C. RAQ
4. The ____________________ code is a 7-bit code commonly used in B. ARQ * D. RRQ
communication between personal computers.
A. AAICS C. ICCSA 23. Parity fails when an _________________ number of bits are in error.
B. SSCIA D. ASCII * A. smaller C. odd
B. bigger D. even *
5. The two letters ____________________ designate the code character
used to advance a printer to the next page. 24. CRC codes are particularly good at detecting ____________________
A. SS C. WP errors.
B. FF * D. GG A. loss C. radiated
B. noise D. burst *
6. An asynchronous frame begins with the ____________________ bit.
A. start * C. greater 25. Huffman coding and run-length encoding are examples of data
B. bigger D. stop _________________.
A. compression * C. loss
7. An asynchronous frame ends with the ____________________ bit. B. insertion D. error
A. stop * C. greater
B. start D. less 26. A ____________ is an encoding scheme that is not public in order to
protect data.
8. At the end of an asynchronous frame, the line will be at the A. signal C. programming
____________ level. B. cipher * D. coding
A. 23 C. lower
B. higher D. binary 1 * 27. A ____________________ is often used to generate an encryption key
because it is easier to remember.
9. An integrated circuit called a _____ is used in an asynchronous A. Captcha C. gate
communication system to convert between parallel and serial data. B. door D. password *
A. TRAU C. TARU
B. RAUT D. UART * 28. If the key is ____________________ enough, private-key encryption
can be quite secure.
10. When receiving digital data, __________ are used to hold data until A. long * C. greater
they can be read. B. bigger D. less
A. capacitor C. resistor
B. buffers * D. signal 29. Messages cannot be ___________ using a public key.
A. encrypted C. cipher
11. Synchronous communication is more ____________________ than B. decrypted * D. translation
asynchronous since there are fewer "overhead" bits.
A. junk C. greater 30. Because it is ____________________-intensive, public-key encryption
B. efficient * D. less can be slow.
A. forward C. slow
12. There must be sufficient 1-to-0 _________ to maintain synchronization B. bias D. computation *
in synchronous transmission.
A. transmission C. transformation SHORT ANSWER
B. transitions * D. transducer
1. How many different characters could be encoded using a six-bit code?
13. Clock sync is derived from the stream of __________ bits in A. 23 C. 98
synchronous transmission. B. 54 D. 64 *
A. code C. data *
B. bigger D. signal 2. What is the numerical difference between ASCII 'a' and ASCII 'A' if you
treat them as hexadecimal (hex) numbers?
14. In the ____________ protocol, each frame begins with at least two A. 30 hex C. 20 hex *
SYN characters. B. 88 hex D. 66 hex
A. BISYNC * C. DISYNC
B. TRISYNC D. POLYSYNC 3. The ASCII codes for the characters '0' through '9' are what hex numbers?
A. 30 H to 39 H * C. 21 H to 34 H
15. In HDLC, each frame starts with an 8-bit ____________________. B. 55 H to 78 H D. 56 H to 87 H
A. mag C. rag
B. flag * D. slug 4. If an asynchronous frame is used to send ASCII characters in the form of
bytes (8 bits), what is the shortest time it could take to send 1000
16. The first eight bits of an SDLC frame are ____________________. characters if each bit in a frame is 1 msec long?
A. 00001100 C. 10101010 A. 44 seconds C. 33 seconds
B. 01101101 D. 01111110 * B. 66 seconds D. 10 seconds *

17. BCC stands for _______ check character. 5. Suppose an asynchronous frame holds 8 bits of data, a parity bit, and two
A. boundary C. bitter stop bits (it could happen). Calculate the efficiency of the
B. best D. block * communication system.
A. 34.4 % C. 67.8%
18. DLE stands for data link _____________. B. 66.7% * D. 98.2%
A. space C. escape *
B. line D. door
EST Electronic Communications Systems 2e; Roy Blake EST

6. Suppose a synchronous frame has 16 bits of non-data in the front and a

16-bit BCC at the end. The frame carries 1024 bytes of actual data.
Calculate the efficiency of the communication system.
A. 97.0% * C. 23.6%
B. 23.4% D. 56.7%
EST Electronic Communications Systems 2e; Roy Blake EST

Chapter 10: Local Area Networks

MULTIPLE CHOICES D. none of the above

1. CSMA stands for: 17. The standard that describes Ethernet-type networks is:
A. Client-Server Multi-Access A. EIA 232 C. IEEE 802.3 *
B. Carrier Sense Multiple Access * B. IEEE 488.1 D. CCITT ITU-E
C. Carrier Server Master Application
D. none of the above 18. Ethernet was invented by:
A. IBM
2. The CD in CSMA/CD stands for: B. INTEL
A. Carrier Detection C. Collision Detection * C. Xerox *
B. Carrier Delay D. Collision Delay D. Digital Equipment Corporation

3. The Internet is: 19. An Ethernet running at 10 Mbits / second uses:

A. a network of networks * A. Manchester encoding *
B. a very large client-server network B. Three-Level encoding
C. a very large CSMA/CD network C. NRZ encoding
D. not really a network at all D. AMI encoding

4. Most LANs: 20. A 100BaseT cable uses:

A. are based on Ethernet C. use UTP cable A. fiber-optic cable
B. use CSMA/CD D. all of the above * B. twisted-pair copper wires *
C. RG-58U coaxial cable
5. Dumb terminals are still used: D. 50-ohm coaxial cable
A. in token-passing networks
B. in networks requiring central monitoring * 21. The word "Base" in 10BaseT means:
C. in networks that cannot provide central monitoring A. a. the cable carries baseband signals *
D. none of the above B. b. the cable has a base speed of 10 Mbps
C. c. it can be used as the base for a backbone cable system
6. In a circuit-switched network: D. d. none of the above
A. communication is half-duplex only
B. each channel carries only one data stream * 22. The reason a CSMA/CD network has a minimum length for packets is:
C. connection is usually done using a bus topology A. to increase the data rate
D. all of the above B. to prevent packets from reaching all other nodes during transmission
C. to make sure all other nodes hear a collision in progress *
7. Each computer on a network is called a: D. all of the above
A. hub C. node *
B. token D. circuit 23. The reason a CSMA/CD network has a maximum length for cables is:
A. to increase the data rate
8. Compared to CSMA/CD systems, token-passing rings are: B. to prevent packets from reaching all other nodes during transmission
A. slower C. not as widely used C. to make sure all other nodes hear a collision in progress *
B. more expensive D. all of the above * D. all of the above

9. The key feature of a star network is that individual workstations are 24. NIC stands for:
connected to: A. Network Interface Card *
A. a central ring C. a node B. Network Interface Cable
B. a central bus D. none of the above * C. Network Interface Code
D. Network Internal Code
10. On networks, long messages are divided into "chunks" called:
A. packets * C. carriers 25. 10BaseT cable typically uses:
B. nodes D. tokens A. a BNC connector
B. a T connector
11. When two or more PCs try to access a baseband network cable at the C. an RJ45 connector *
same time, it is called: D. an RS11 connector
A. a collision C. excess traffic
B. contention * D. multiple access 26. UTP stands for:
A. Untwisted-Pair copper wire
12. When two PCs send data over a baseband network cable at the same B. Unshielded Twisted-Pair copper wire *
time, it is called: C. Uninterruptible Terminal Packet
A. a collision * C. excess traffic D. Unicode Text Packet
B. contention D. multiple access
27. Compared to twisted-pair telephone cables, CAT-5 cables:
13. One type of network that never has a collision is: A. are cheaper
A. CSMA B. are easier to crimp connectors onto
B. Ethernet C. allow faster bit rates*
C. token-passing * D. all of the above
D. all networks have collisions
28. A hub:
14. In an Ethernet-based network, a switch can be used to reduce the A. sends incoming packets out to all other terminals connected to it *
number of: B. sends incoming packets out to specific ports
A. nodes C. packets C. cannot be used in an Ethernet-type network
B. users D. collisions * D. are more common in token-passing networks

15. The effect of too many collisions is: 29. A switch:

A. the network goes down A. sends incoming packets out to all other terminals connected to it
B. the network slows down * B. sends incoming packets out to specific ports *
C. the cable overheats C. cannot be used in an Ethernet-type network
D. data is lost D. are more common in token-passing networks

16. MAU stands for: 30. An advantage of using a switch instead of a hub is:
A. Multistation Access Unit * A. it is cheaper when used in large networks
B. Multiple Access Unit B. it is faster when used in large networks
C. Multiple Auxiliary Units C. it reduces the number of collisions in large networks *
EST Electronic Communications Systems 2e; Roy Blake EST

D. all of the above A. quiet C. unused/ available

B. free D. all of the above *
31. Broadband LANs:
A. modulate the data onto a carrier 12. A "____________________" cable links clusters of computers
B. use coaxial cables together.
C. are provided by cable TV companies for Internet access A. feet C. head
D. all of the above * B. tail D. backbone *

32. Using one node in the network to hold all the application software is 13. 100BaseT cables can reliably carry up to ____________________ bits
done in: per second.
A. peer-to-peer networks A. 100 mega * C. 100 kilo
B. client-server networks * B. 100 tera D. 100 giga
C. both a and b
D. none of the above 14. In CSMA/CD, packets must have a ____________________ length to
ensure that collisions are detected.
33. Record locking is used to: A. minimum * C. lesser
A. store records securely on a server B. maximum D. greater
B. prevent multiple users from looking at a document simultaneously
C. prevent one user from reading a record that another user is writing 15. In CSMA/CD, the ____________________ of a cable is limited to
to* ensure that collisions are detected.
D. none of the above A. bandwidth C. signal
B. frequency D. length *
34. The software that runs a client-server network must be:
A. UNIX-based C. multitasking * 16. A unique numerical address is provided to a node by its
B. WINDOWS-based D. Novell certified ____________________.
A. NIC * C. TCI
35. A "thin" client is: B. INC D. NCI
A. basically, a PC with no disk drives *
B. a node that rarely sends data 17. A 100BaseTX cable is a ____________________ cable.
C. same as a "dumb" terminal A. coaxial C. twisted pair
D. all of the above B. fiber-optic * D. shielded

18. Hubs can be ____________________ to form, in effect, one big hub.

COMPLETION A. fix C. cut
B. open D. stacked *
1. A LAN is a _______________ Area Network.
A. Lamp C. Land 19. A switch looks at the ____________________ of each incoming
B. Lane D. Local * packet.
A. address * C. modulator
2. The Internet is a network of ______________. B. IP D. antenna
A. frequency C. networks *
B. data D. bandwidth 20. The effect of a switch is to greatly reduce ____________________.
A. sauce C. cube
3. In a ____________________ network, all nodes are connected to a B. contention * D. compact
central computer.
A. star * C. bus SHORT ANSWER
B. tree D. ring *
21. Explain how a network can be a physical bus but a logical ring.
4. In a ____________________-switched network, users have a dedicated A. A token-passing network sends the token from node to node in a
channel for the duration of communications. prescribed order.
A. circuit * C. resistive B. So it doesn't matter how the physical connection is made. It still
B. capacitive D. inductive works like a token-passing ring.
C. Both A and B are correct. *
5. The _______________ of a network describes how it is physically D. None of the above.
connected together.
A. data C. signal 22. What is the key difference between a hub and a switch?
B. topology * D. repeater A. A hub sends incoming packets out to all other ports on the hub.
B. A switch sends a packet to a specific port based on the address in
6. Ring networks often use __________-passing. the packet.
A. non C. open C. None of the above.
B. token * D. close D. Both A and B are correct. *

7. A ____________________ is a short section of a message in digital 23. What is the advantage of a CSMA/CD network over a basic star
form. network?
A. signal C. packet * A. If the central computer in a star network fails, the entire network is
B. video D. data inoperative.
B. If a node fails in a CSMA/CD network, it can be disconnected and
8. ____________________ is when two nodes try to seize the same cable the network still functions.
at the same time. C. None of the above.
A. Resistors C. Pulling D. Both A and B are correct. *
B. Contention * D. Elimination
24. Why do CSMA/CD packets have a minimum size limit?
9. A ____________________ occurs when two nodes transmit A. If a packet is too short, nodes at either end of a cable could get on,
simultaneously on the same baseband cable. send a packet.
A. elimination C. collision * B. And get off before the packets travel far enough to collide. The
B. contention D. pulling collision would not be detected.
C. Both A and B are correct. *
10. In CSMA/CD networks, all collisions must be D. None of the above.
____________________.
A. zero C. open 25. What is a NIC address, and why is it unique?
B. closed D. detected * A. The address is a long binary number "burned" into a NIC's memory
chip at the factory.
11. Carrier-Sense means that a node "listens" for the cable to be
____________ before using it.
EST Electronic Communications Systems 2e; Roy Blake EST

B. Each factory uses a different sequence of numbers, so the chances of

two NICs on the same network having the same address is
extremely small.
C. Both A and B are correct. *
D. None of the above.
EST Electronic Communications Systems 2e; Roy Blake EST

Chapter 11: Wide-Area Networks and the Internet

MULTIPLE CHOICES 16. UDP stands for:

A. User Datagram Protocol *
1. MAN stands for: B. User Data Protocol
A. Manchester Access Network C. User Data Packet
B. Multiple-Area Network D. Universal Data Packet
C. Metropolitan-Area Network *
D. Multiple Access Network 17. HTTP stands for:
A. High-speed Transmission Test Procedure
2. Packet switching is based on: B. High-Level Transfer Test Procedure
A. store-and-forward * C. real-time delivery C. Hypertext Transmission and Transport Procedure
B. switched circuits D. all of the above D. Hypertext Transport Protocol *

3. SNA stands for: 18. HTTP allows the use of:

A. Standard Network Access A. dumb terminals C. browsers *
B. Small Network Access B. file transport D. none of the above
C. Standard Network Architecture
D. Systems Network Architecture * 19. HTML stands for:
A. Hypertext Markup Language *
4. The number of layers in ISO OSI is: B. Hypertext Transfer-Mode Level
A. 3 C. 7 * C. Hypertext Transfer-Mode Layer
B. 5 D. 8 D. High-speed Transfer-Mode Language

5. The lowest-level layer in ISO OSI is called the: 20. HTML allows:
A. physical layer * C. cable layer A. telneting
B. link layer D. transport layer B. high-speed file transfer
C. web page layout *
6. Bad frames are usually detected by the: D. all of the above
A. frame layer C. error-check layer
B. physical layer D. link layer * 21. FTP stands for:
A. File Transfer Protocol *
7. A virtual circuit is set up by the: B. File Transport Protocol
A. user C. network * C. File Test Procedure
B. link layer D. frame D. Fast Transport Packet

8. Frame Relay: 22. FTP is used to:

A. is faster than X.25 A. transfer files between a server on the network and a user *
B. does less error checking than X.25 B. test files to see if their data has been "corrupted"
C. allows for variable length packets C. transport packets at maximum speed through the network
D. all of the above * D. none of the above

9. ATM stands for: 23. SMTP stands for:

A. Asynchronous Transfer Mode * A. Short Message Transport Protocol
B. Asynchronous Transmission Mode B. Simple Message Transport Protocol
C. Asynchronous Transmission Model C. Simple Mail Transport Protocol *
D. Automatic Test Mode D. Secondary Mail Transfer Procedure

10. A bridge: 24. ISP stands for:

A. separates a network into "collision domains" A. Internet Service Protocol
B. looks at the address of each packet B. Internet Service Provider *
C. operate at the data-link level C. Internet Service Procedure
D. all of the above * D. none of the above

11. IP stands for: 25. The standard Internet address (or URL) is:
A. Internet Process A. a 32-bit binary number
B. Internet Protocol * B. four groups of base-ten numbers
C. Interconnect Protocol C. running out of available values
D. Interconnect Procedure D. all of the above *

12. TCP stands for: 26. DNS stands for:

A. Transmission Control Process A. Domain Name Server *
B. Transmission Control Protocol * B. Domain Name System
C. Transfer Connection Protocol C. Domain Numbering System
D. none of the above D. Domain Naming System

13. Together, TCP/IP consists of: 27. A DNS:

A. 5 layers * A. has become obsolete on the Internet
B. 7 layers B. translates words to numbers *
C. an application and a process C. stores all domain addresses
D. datagrams D. describes the Internet address-naming procedure

14. IP is a: 28. An intranet connected to the Internet is often protected by:

A. connection-oriented protocol A. a DNS
B. virtual circuit B. a "brick wall"
C. connectionless protocol * C. a "firewall" *
D. non-robust protocol D. the use of "spoofing" protocols

15. The "lifetime" of a packet in an IP network: 29. OSI stands for:

A. is essentially forever A. Open Systems Interconnection *
B. depends on elapsed time since transmission B. Open Standard Interconnection
C. depends on number of "hops" between nodes * C. Open Systems Internet
D. is approximately 200 milliseconds D. none of the above
EST Electronic Communications Systems 2e; Roy Blake EST

COMPLETION
19. _________ look at the address inside a packet to decide whether or not
1. A ____________________-Area Network would extend typically to retransmit it.
across a city. A. Bridges * C. Programmers
A. building C. house B. Servers D. Operators
B. server D. metropolitan *
20. ____________________ decide the best network path on which to
2. A ____________________-Area Network could extend across a forward a packet.
nation. A. Repeaters C. Antenna
A. Wand C. Warp B. Routers * D. Modulator
B. Wide * D. World
21. TCP/IP goes back to the ________________ of the 1970s.
3. A dedicated telephone line can be _________ on a monthly basis. A. ARPANET C. both A and B *
A. leased * C. clean B. DARPANET D. none of the above
B. server D. disconnected
22. Between ISO OSI and TCP/IP, ___________ was used first.
4. The use of digital circuit-_______________ lines is cheaper than A. TCP/IP * C. ISO OSI
dedicated lines. B. signal D. data
A. error C. loose
B. cut D. switched * 23. A ____________________ protocol does not track packets after they
are sent.
5. Packet switching is done on a store-and-____________________ A. lock C. limiter
network. B. wired D. connectionless *
A. upward C. forward *
B. sideward D. backward 24. HTTP allows the use of _____________ that jump to other pages on
the web.
6. A ____________ is a hierarchy of procedures for implementing digital A. codes C. IP
communications. B. data D. hyperlinks *
A. resistor C. protocol *
B. switch D. modulator 25. The Internet "backbone" mostly uses high-speed
____________________ cables.
7. Voltage levels on a cable are specified at the ____________________ A. coaxial C. twisted pair
layer. B. fiber-optic * D. shielded
A. digital C. data
B. physical * D. fading 26. A ____________________ translates words in an Internet address to
numbers.
8. Bad frames are usually detected at the ____________________ layer. A. DNS * C. SND
A. noise C. network B. NSD D. SDN
B. modulator D. data-link *
27. Intranets usually connect to the Internet through a
9. Setting up a path through the network is done by the __________________ for security.
________________ layer. A. firewall * C. sensor
A. noise C. data B. antivirus D. gate
B. data-link D. network *
28. Voice over _______ is telephony done over the Internet.
10. The X.25 protocol was developed by _______. A. IP * C. data
A. IICTT C. TCICI B. Hyperlink D. signal
B. CCITT * D. CCIIT
29. "____________________" is another term for real-time transmission
11. In X.25, the data-link layer is called the ________________ layer. over the Internet.
A. network C. data A. Dancing C. Acting
B. noise D. frame * B. Singing D. Streaming *

12. In X.25, the network layer is called the ________________ layer. 30. Most people gain access to the Internet by subscribing to an
A. packet * C. noise ____________________.
B. switch D. sensor A. SIP C. PIS
B. ISP * D. PSI
13. The physical route of a ____________ circuit changes each time it is
used.
A. signal C. virtual * SHORT ANSWER
B. data D. packet
1. Name the three parts of an IP address as used on the Internet.
14. Frame Relay requires channels with low ____________________ rates. A. Network number C. Host number
A. code C. bit-error * B. Subnet number D. all of the above *
B. data D. signal
2. Why is a logical channel called a "virtual" circuit?
15. Compared to X.25, Frame Relay does ____________________ error A. A logical channel is a way of keeping track of which two nodes on
checking. the network have messages for each other. The actual physical path
A. many C. bigger can change while packets are being sent.
B. smaller D. less * B. Virtual means it behaves like direct circuit between 'A' and 'B', but it
is not a direct circuit.
16. All ATM frames contain just _________ bytes. C. Both A and B are correct. *
A. 34 C. 23 D. None of the above.
B. 53 * D. 89
3. Why is it faster to send packets of a fixed size compared to packets of
17. Small frame size and a high-speed channel allow ______________- variable size?
time communications. A. The processing required to store and forward packets of different
A. global C. real * lengths is greater than that required for packets of a fixed length.
B. virtual D. digital B. More processing implies more time per packet, which implies fewer
packets per second through the network.
18. _________________ simply regenerate and retransmit packets in a C. Both A and B are correct. *
network. D. None of the above.
A. Antenna C. Modulators
B. Transceivers D. Repeaters *
EST Electronic Communications Systems 2e; Roy Blake EST

4. Why are the tasks involved in digital communications divided into

layers in a protocol stack? Why not just have one layer that does it all?
A. Divide and conquer: it reduces complexity to a manageable job.
B. One big layer could not be adapted to newer media etc as easily as a
system of independent layers.
C. Think of subroutines in a computer program.
D. All of the above. *

5. What is a "hop"?
A. Every time a packet is forwarded on to the next store-and-forward
node in the network, it is considered to be one “hop”. *
B. Temporary file created on a server during data processing is called a
“hop”.
C. Unit of data measurement equivalent to one kilobyte is called a
“hop”.
D. Specific type of network protocol used for secure data transmission
is called a “hop”.

6. What does it mean to say a packet has a lifetime measured in hops?

A. Each packet contains a number representing the maximum number
of allowed hops.
B. At each hop, this number is reduced by one. When it gets to zero,
the packet is deleted from the network.
C. Both A and B are correct. *
D. None of the above.

7. Why should packets have a lifetime?

A. If they didn't, then the number of "lost" packets traveling around the
network would continuously increase. At some point, there would
be no bandwidth left to carry real traffic. *
B. Packets should have a lifetime to improve their encryption and
security features.
C. Packets should have a lifetime to increase their size and enhance
data capacity.
D. Packets should have a lifetime to ensure they are delivered at the
exact time they were sent.
EST Electronic Communications Systems 2e; Roy Blake EST

Chapter 12: Digital Modulation and Modems

MULTIPLE CHOICES 15. The ITU is under the auspices of:

A. CCITT C. IEEE
1. FSK stands for: B. the U.N. * D. ANSI
A. Full-Shift Keying
B. Frequency-Shift Keying * 16. High-speed modems equalize the line to compensate for:
C. Full-Signal Keying A. noise and interference
D. none of the above B. uneven phase and frequency response *
C. low SNR
2. PSK stands for: D. inconsistent bit rates at either end of channel
A. Pulse-Signal Keying
B. Pulse-Shift Keying 17. The bits sent to allow equalization are called:
C. Phase-Signal Keying A. Gaussian bits C. a training sequence *
D. Phase-Shift Keying * B. random bits D. a random sequence

3. QAM stands for: 18. The V.90 standard is issued by:

A. Quadrature Amplitude Modulation * A. the EIA C. the ITU *
B. Quadrature Amplitude Masking B. the TIA D. the ISO
C. Quadrature Amplitude Marking
D. none of the above 19. MNP2, MNP3, MNP4, and MNP10 are all:
A. data-compression schemes
4. In the equation I = ktB, I is measured in: B. error-correction protocols *
A. amperes C. both a and b
B. amperes per second D. none of the above
C. bits *
D. bits per second 20. MNP5 and V.42 bis are both:
A. data-compression schemes *
5. In the equation C = 2Blog2M, M is the: B. error-correction protocols
A. margin of noise C. both a and b
B. modulation index D. none of the above
C. number of possible states per symbol *
D. maximum number of symbols per second 21. In RS-232, flow control is done using:
A. RTS/CTS handshake
6. An "eye pattern" shows a good channel when: B. XON/XOFF characters
A. the eye is maximally open * C. both a and b *
B. the eye is maximally closed D. none of the above
C. the eye is half open
D. the eye alternately opens and closes 22. The official name for RS-232C is:
A. RS-232C C. ISO-232C/D
7. What you see in an eye pattern is the effect of: B. EIA-232D * D. ANSI-232C
A. too many bits high
B. too many bits low 23. In RS-232, a modem would be:
C. intermodulation distortion A. a DTR C. a DCE *
D. intersymbol interference * B. a DSR D. a DTE

8. High-frequency radioteletype systems commonly use: 24. In RS-232, a personal computer would be:
A. FSK * C. PSK A. a DTR C. a DCE
B. AFSK D. QAM B. a DSR D. a DTE *

9. Instead of a single bit, a QPSK symbol contains: 25. On a DB-9 RS-232 connector, signal ground is pin:
A. a byte C. a dibit * A. 1 C. 5 *
B. 4 bits D. a Q-bit B. 3 D. 7

10. To reduce the need for linearity, π/4 DQPSK uses: 26. On a DB-25 RS-232 connector, signal ground is pin:
A. angles of 0, 90, 180, and 270 degrees A. 1 C. 5
B. angles of 45, 135, 225, and 315 degrees * B. 3 D. 7 *
C. angles of π/4, 2π/4, 3π/4, and 4π/4
D. double phase-shift angles 27. The minimum lines required for RS-232 are:
A. TD and RD
11. For QAM, a "constellation diagram" shows: B. TD, RD, and signal ground *
A. location of symbols in "symbol space" C. TD, RD, DSR, and signal ground
B. separation of symbols in "symbol space" D. TD, RD, RTS, CTS, and signal ground
C. effects of noise on symbols
D. all of the above * 28. Hardware flow control uses:
A. XON and XOFF C. RTS and CTS *
12. For QAM, the two dimensions of its symbol space are: B. TD and RD D. DSR and DCD
A. amplitude and frequency
B. amplitude and phase angle * 29. Software flow control uses:
C. frequency and phase angle A. XON and XOFF * C. RTS and CTS
D. I-bits and Q-bits B. TD and RD D. DSR and DCD

13. The specs of the old Bell type 103 modem were: 30. Which voltage represents a binary zero on an RS-232 data pin:
A. 300 bps, full-duplex, FSK * A. +15 volts C. +9 volts
B. 600 bps, full-duplex, FSK B. +12 volts D. all of the above *
C. 1200 bps, full-duplex, FSK
D. 1200 bps, half-duplex, FSK 31. DSL stands for:
A. Data Signal Line
14. ITU is an abbreviation for: B. Digital Signal Line
A. International Telephony Unit C. Digital Subscriber Line *
B. International Telephony Union D. Double-Speed Loop
C. International Telecommunications Union *
D. International Telecommunications Units 32. ADSL stands for:
EST Electronic Communications Systems 2e; Roy Blake EST

A. Asynchronous DSL B. 98k D. 78k

B. Asymmetrical DSL *
C. Analog DSL 15. The nominal maximum speed on an RS-232 cable is ________ bps.
D. All DSL A. 78k C. 20k *
B. 12k D. 67k
33. In a CATV system, HFC stands for:
A. Head Frequency Control 16. In RS-232, the ____________________ line is asserted when the
B. Hybrid Frequency Control analog carrier from another modem is being received.
C. Hybrid Fiber-Coax * A. CD C. RLSD
D. Hybrid Fiber Control B. DCD D. all of the above *

34. In a CATV system, CMTS stands for: 17. Between hardware flow control and software flow control, _______
A. Cable Modem Terminal Server * flow control is preferred.
B. Cable Modem Transmission System A. module C. repeater
C. Cable Modem Terminal System B. hardware* D. modem
D. Cable Modem Transmission Server
18. A voltage higher than ________ volts should be considered a high on
35. A "splitter" at the subscriber end is not required for: an RS-232 receiver.
A. Any DSL scheme C. ADSL Lite * A. 6 C. 9
B. ADSL D. none of the above B. 3 * D. 12

19. A _________________ modem cable is used to connect two DTEs via

COMPLETION their serial ports.
A. junk C. null *
1. RTS means Request To ____________. B. closed D. great
A. Mix C. Receive
B. Save D. Send * 20. ADSL stands for __________________ DSL.
A. Asymmetrical * C. Disconnected
2. The response to RTS is _____________. B. Symmetrical D. Open
A. CTS * C. CST
B. STC D. TCS 21. A typical CATV system is organized as a ____________________
network.
3. FSK stands for Frequency-Shift __________. A. tree * C. ring
A. Keying * C. Kale B. star D. bus
B. Kangaroo D. King
22. In a CATV system using cable modems, a ________________ is used
4. DSR stands for ______________ Set Ready. to put several channels of data onto a fiber-optic backbone.
A. Error C. Signal A. CMTS * C. MCTS
B. Noise D. Data * B. TCMS D. SCMT

5. QAM stands for _____ Amplitude Modulation. 23. ________ is the process of synchronizing transmitted data from cable
A. Quintuple C. Quote modems to a CMTS.
B. Quadrature* D. Queen A. Fixing C. Cutting
B. Opening D. Ranging *
6. The number of symbols per second is called the
____________________ rate. 24. _________ systems send high-speed data over a POTS line while
A. kilo C. baud * sharing the line with dialup service.
B. macro D. micro A. DASL C. LADS
B. SALD D. ADSL *
7. The 2 bits of information in a QPSK symbol is called a
_________________. 25. The _______________ version of ADSL does not require a splitter at
A. macro C. micro the subscriber end.
B. giga D. dibit * A. tera C. mega
B. giga D. lite *
8. QPSK uses _______ different phase angles.
A. six C. four * 26. _____________ modulation divides the line bandwidth into many
B. eight D. three narrow bands called tones or bins for ADSL.
A. DMT * C. DTM
9. DPSK stands for _______________ PSK. B. TMD D. MDT
A. Delta * C. Beta
B. Omega D. Alpha 27. A DSLAM is a DSL Access ______________.
A. Mouse C. Muffler
10. The QAM amplitude-phase combinations are shown with a B. Multitude D. Multiplexer *
_______________ diagram.
A. constellation * C. tree SHORT ANSWER
B. block D. mind
1. Calculate the bits per second capacity of a system sending 1000
11. ITU stands for International _________ Union. symbols per second with 16 possible states per symbol.
A. Tangerine C. Trumpet A. 9786 C. 1435
B. Telescopic D. Telecommunications * B. 4000 * D. 1234

12. In QAM modems, ________ coding adds extra bits to improve 2. How many points will be on the constellation diagram of a QAM
performance on a noisy line. system using 8 phase angles and 2 amplitude levels?
A. cut C. series A. 4 C. 8
B. binary D. Trellis * B. 16 * D. 32

13. ____________________ is used in a high-speed modem to compensate 3. A CATV system has 100 cable-modem customers sharing a single
for uneven frequency and phase response on a line. channel with a data rate of 36 Mbps. If half the modems are active at
A. Modulation C. Equalization * any given time, what bit rate can a customer expect?
B. Summation D. Integration A. 720 kbps * C. 654 kbps
B. 456 kbps D. 798 kbps
14. The maximum allowed speed for a modem on a dial-up line is about
________ bps. 4. A DMT system uses 4.3-kHz bins on a 1-MHz cable. Approximately
A. 34k C. 54k* how many bins are there?
EST Electronic Communications Systems 2e; Roy Blake EST

A. 120 C. 756
B. 690 D. 230 *

5. Assuming a maximum symbol rate of 400 per second, how many

possible states must a symbol have to achieve a data rate of 1200 bps?
A. 2 C. 8*
B. 4 D. 6
EST Electronic Communications Systems 2e; Roy Blake EST

Chapter 13: Multiplexing and Multiple-Access Techniques

MULTIPLE CHOICES 16. To calculate processing gain, divide the transmitted RF bandwidth by:
A. the digital data bit rate *
1. TDMA stands for: B. bandwidth of original baseband
A. Time Domain Multiple Access C. the S/N ratio
B. Time-Division Multiple Access * D. the chip size
C. Tone Division Multiple Access
D. none of the above 17. A receiver for frequency-hopping spread-spectrum would be:
A. a narrowband receiver *
2. CDMA stands for: B. a wideband receiver
A. Code-Division Multiple Access * C. a direct-conversion receiver
B. Carrier Division Multiple Access D. a CDMA receiver
C. Compact Digital Multiplex Arrangement
D. none of the above 18. A receiver for direct-sequence spread-spectrum would be:
A. a narrowband receiver
3. TDMA is used instead of TDM when: B. a wideband receiver *
A. all the signals come from the same source C. a direct-conversion receiver
B. the signals come from different sources * D. a "chip-rate" receiver
C. TDM is used in RF communications
D. they mean the same thing 19. CDMA:
A. cannot be used with frequency-hopping spread-spectrum
4. When calculating the maximum number of users, a limiting factor in B. cannot be used with direct-sequence spread-spectrum
FDM is: C. cannot be used on an RF channel
A. the type of media used D. allows many transmitters to use a band simultaneously *
B. the length of the channel
C. the bandwidth of each signal * 20. For optimal performance, CDMA requires the use of:
D. all of the above A. orthogonal PN sequences *
B. non-orthogonal PN sequences
5. A DS-1 signal contains: C. true-random PN sequences
A. 2 channels C. 32 channels D. none of the above
B. 24 channels * D. 64 channels

6. The bit-rate of a DS-1 signal over a T-1 line is: COMPLETION

A. 64 kbps C. 1.536 Mbps
B. 256 kbps D. 1.544 Mbps * 1. Multiplexing allows many signals to ____________________ a
channel.
7. Besides data bits, a DS-1 frame contains a: A. share * C. block
A. timing bit C. signaling bit B. pass through D. open
B. T-bit D. framing bit *
2. Three methods of multiple access are FDMA, TDMA, and
8. In DS-1, a bit is "stolen" out of each channel: ____________________.
A. every frame C. every sixth frame * A. CDMA * C. CADM
B. every other frame D. every twelfth frame B. DAMC D. CAMD

9. Moving signals from one line to another is called: 3. In FDM, each signal uses part of the bandwidth __________________
A. time switching C. line switching of the time.
B. space switching * D. cross-point switching A. one C. all *
B. seven D. zero
10. Moving PCM samples from one time-slot to another is called:
A. time switching * C. signal switching 4. In TDM, each signal uses all of the bandwidth ____________________
B. space switching D. crosspoint switching of the time.
A. antenna C. part *
11. A digital space switch is a: B. line D. material
A. multiplexer
B. TDM switch 5. Using CDMA on a radio channel, all signals can transmit
C. computerized Strowger switch ________________ of the time.
D. crosspoint switch * A. six C. one
B. seven D. all *
12. Spread-spectrum can be done by using:
A. computer-controlled frequency reuse 6. DS-1 is an example of _________-division multiplexing.
B. frequency-hopping A. time * C. date
C. direct-sequence method B. place D. signal
D. all of the above *
7. The AM radio band is an example of ______-division multiplexing.
13. The term "chip rate" is used in describing: A. frequency * C. signal
A. computer-controlled frequency reuse B. bandwidth D. noise
B. frequency-hopping
C. direct-sequence method * 8. A DS-1 frame contains one sample from each of
D. all of the above ____________________ channels.
A. 54 C. 53
14. For a given data rate, direct-sequence systems, compared to standard B. 24 * D. 57
RF systems, use:
A. about the same bandwidth 9. T1 uses the ______________ line code.
B. much more bandwidth * A. AIM C. MAI
C. much less bandwidth B. AMI * D. MIA
D. approximately double the bandwidth
10. Each DS-1 frame contains a total of ____ bits.
15. "Processing gain" is another term for: A. 686 C. 344
A. RF gain B. 566 D. 193 *
B. computer speed
C. spreading gain * 11. A DS-1 frame is transmitted at a rate of ____________________ bits
D. improved signal-to-noise ratio per second.
A. 8.565 Meg C. 5.344 Meg
EST Electronic Communications Systems 2e; Roy Blake EST

B. 2.765 Meg D. 1.544 Meg * C. Both A and B are correct. *

D. None of the above.
12. Each sample in a DS-1 frame contains __ bits.
A. six C. one 4. Why is it difficult to eavesdrop on a spread-spectrum signal?
B. seven D. eight * A. In a spread-spectrum transmission, the signal power at any given
frequency in its band is so low that it is virtually indistinguishable
13. A group of twelve DS-1 frames is called a ___. from noise.
A. bits C. codes B. An eavesdropper would not know a signal was being sent.
B. superframe * D. data C. And without knowing the exact sequence being used, it is virtually
impossible to "de-spread" the signal.
14. Switching signals from one line to another is called __________ D. All of the above. *
switching.
A. series C. parallel 5. Why is autocorrelation used to receive direct-sequence spread-spectrum
B. space * D. ground signals?
A. Autocorrelation allows a signal to be "pulled out of" the noise even
15. Moving PCM samples from one time slot to another is called when the signal-to-noise ratio is less than one, as it is in spread-
____________ switching. spectrum. *
A. place C. date B. Autocorrelation allows a signal to be "pulled out of" the noise even
B. time * D. none of the above when the signal-to-noise ratio is less than two, as it is in spread-
spectrum.
16. The deep fades caused by signal-cancellation due to reflection are C. Autocorrelation allows a signal to be "pulled out of" the noise even
called _________ fading. when the signal-to-noise ratio is less than four, as it is in spread-
A. Rayleigh * C. Shanks space.
B. Luffy D. Zoro D. Autocorrelation allows a signal to be "pulled out of" the noise even
when the signal-to-noise ratio is less than three, as it is in spread-
17. A PN sequence is a ________-random noise sequence. space.
A. pseudo * C. micro
B. nano D. macro 6. What is meant by "orthogonal sequences" in CDMA?
A. During transmission, the PN sequences determine which parts of the
18. One method of spread-spectrum is frequency ________. available bandwidth the spread spectrum signal will occupy.
A. killing C. hopping * Assume you have two PN sequences: PN1 and PN2.
B. cutting D. shopping B. At some point in time, suppose PN1 would cause a transmission to
occupy frequencies f11, f12, f13, and so forth.
19. It is _______ to jam a spread-spectrum signal. C. Now suppose PN2 would cause the transmission to occupy
A. natural C. difficult * frequencies f21, f22, f23, and so forth. If the two sets of frequencies,
B. normal D. easy (f11, f12, f13, ...) and (f21, f22, f23, ...), have no frequencies in
common, then the two PN sequences are said to be orthogonal.
20. It is ____________________ to eavesdrop on a spread-spectrum signal. D. All of the above. *
A. normal C. difficult*
B. natural D. easy

21. The extra bits added to the data in direct-sequence spread-spectrum are
called ______.
A. chips * C. potato
B. snacks D. noise

22. A chipping-rate of at least ____________ times the bit rate of the data
is common.
A. six C. zero
B. seven D. ten *

23. The 'C' in CDMA stands for ___________.

A. code * C. closed
B. crack D. crimp

24. In a frequency-hopping CDMA system, when no two transmitters use

the same frequency at the same time the PN sequences are said to be
____________________.
A. cubical C. hexagonal
B. pentagonal D. orthogonal *

SHORT ANSWER

1. What does Hartley's Law tell us about the relationship between time
and bandwidth for digital transmission?
A. The more bandwidth, the less time it takes to send a given amount
of information.
B. So the more bandwidth available, the higher the possible bit rate.
C. Both A and B are correct. *
D. None of the above.

2. How many signals could fit into 1 MHz of bandwidth if each signal
required 100 kHz of bandwidth and the separation between adjacent
channels was 10 kHz?
A. 5 C. 23
B. 42 D. 9 *

3. Why is it difficult to jam a spread-spectrum signal?

A. Jamming requires an interference signal of sufficient power in the
same part of the spectrum the information signal occupies.
B. Because a spread-spectrum signal is, by definition, spread out over a
very wide bandwidth, jamming can interfere with only a small
fraction of the total signal.
Chapter 14: Transmission Lines
EST Electronic Communications Systems 2e; Roy Blake EST

15. The optimum value for SWR is:

MULTIPLE CHOICES A. zero
B. one *
1. SWR stands for: C. as large as possible
A. Shorted Wave Radiation D. there is no optimum value
B. Sine Wave Response
C. Shorted Wire Region 16. A non-optimum value for SWR will cause:
D. none of the above * A. standing waves
B. loss of power to load
2. TDR stands for: C. higher voltage peaks on cable
A. Total Distance of Reflection D. all of the above *
B. Time-Domain Reflectometer *
C. Time-Domain Response 17. VSWR stands for:
D. Transmission Delay Ratio A. variable SWR C. voltage SWR *
B. vacuum SWR D. none of the above
3. An example of an unbalanced line is:
A. a coaxial cable * 18. The impedance "looking into" a matched line:
B. 300-ohm twin-lead TV cable A. is infinite
C. an open-wire-line cable B. is zero
D. all of the above C. is the characteristic impedance *
D. 50 ohms
4. When analyzing a transmission line, its inductance and capacitance are
considered to be: 19. A Smith Chart is used to calculate:
A. lumped C. equal reactances A. transmission line impedances *
B. distributed * D. ideal elements B. propagation velocity
C. optimum length of a transmission line
5. As frequency increases, the resistance of a wire: D. transmission line losses
A. increases * C. stays the same
B. decreases D. changes periodically 20. Compared to a 300-ohm line, the loss of a 50-ohm cable carrying the
same power:
6. The effect of frequency on the resistance of a wire is called: A. would be less C. would be the same
A. I2R loss C. the skin effect * B. would be more * D. cannot be compared
B. the Ohmic effect D. frequency effect
21. A balanced load can be connected to an unbalanced cable:
7. As frequency increases, the loss in a cable's dielectric: A. directly C. by using a "balun" *
A. increases * B. by using a filter D. cannot be connected
B. decreases
C. stays the same 22. On a Smith Chart, you "normalize" the impedance by:
D. there is no loss in a dielectric A. assuming it to be zero
B. dividing it by 2π
8. The characteristic impedance of a cable depends on: C. multiplying it by 2π
A. the resistance per foot of the wire used D. dividing it by Z0 *
B. the resistance per foot and the inductance per foot
C. the resistance per foot and the capacitance per foot 23. The radius of the circle you draw on a Smith Chart represents:
D. the inductance per foot and the capacitance per foot * A. the voltage C. the impedance
B. the current D. none of the above *
9. For best matching, the load on a cable should be:
A. lower than Z0 C. equal to Z0 * 24. The center of the Smith Chart always represents:
B. higher than Z0 D. 50 ohms A. zero
B. one
10. The characteristic impedance of a cable: C. characteristic impedance *
A. increases with length D. none of the above
B. increases with frequency
C. increases with voltage 25. A TDR is commonly used to:
D. none of the above * A. measure the characteristic impedance of a cable
B. find the position of a defect in a cable *
11. The velocity factor of a cable depends mostly on: C. replace a slotted-line
A. the wire resistance D. all of the above
B. the dielectric constant *
C. the inductance per foot
D. all of the above COMPLETION

12. A positive voltage pulse sent down a transmission line terminated in a 1. A cable that lacks symmetry with respect to ground is called
short-circuit: ____________________.
A. would reflect as a positive pulse A. unbalanced * C. balanced
B. would reflect as a negative pulse * B. fiber-optics D. grounded
C. would reflect as a positive pulse followed by a negative pulse
D. would not reflect at all 2. Parallel lines are usually operated as ____________________ lines
since both wires are symmetrical with respect to ground.
13. A positive voltage pulse sent down a transmission line terminated with A. unbalanced C. balanced *
its characteristic impedance: B. fiber-optics D. grounded
A. would reflect as a positive pulse
B. would reflect as a negative pulse 3. Normally, a transmission line is terminated with a load equal to its
C. would reflect as a positive pulse followed by a negative pulse ____________________ impedance.
D. would not reflect at all * A. signal C. value
B. frequency D. characteristic *
14. A positive voltage-pulse sent down a transmission line terminated in an
open-circuit: 4. Twisted-pair cables are transmission lines for relatively _________
A. would reflect as a positive pulse * frequencies.
B. would reflect as a negative pulse A. parallel C. high
C. would reflect as a positive pulse followed by a negative pulse B. opposite D. low *
D. would not reflect at all
EST Electronic Communications Systems 2e; Roy Blake EST

5. To analyze a transmission line, it is necessary to use

____________________ parameters instead of lumped ones. 23. The __________ of a Smith Chart always represents the characteristic
A. distributed * C. open impedance.
B. radiated D. closed A. block C. hypotenuse
B. side D. center *
6. The increase of a wire's resistance with frequency is called the
________ effect. 24. A ____________________ wavelength transmission line can be used a
A. skin * C. space transformer.
B. ground D. air A. Three-half C. one
B. one-half D. one-quarter *
7. The increase of a wire's resistance with frequency is caused by the
__________ field inside the wire. 25. A slotted line is used to make measurements in the
A. gravity C. electric ____________________ domain.
B. sound D. magnetic * A. bandwidth C. signal
B. frequency * D. noise
8. Dielectrics become more _____________ as the frequency increases.
A. thinner C. lossy *
B. close D. open SHORT ANSWER

9. The inductance and capacitance of a cable are given per unit 1. A transmission line has 2.5 pF of capacitance per foot and 100 nH of
_______________. inductance per foot. Calculate its characteristic impedance.
A. distance C. height A. 200 watts C. 100 ohms
B. length * D. weight B. 200 ohms * D. 100 watts

10. Characteristic impedance is sometimes called _____________ 2. Two wires with air as a dielectric are one inch apart. The diameter of
impedance. the wire is .04 inch. Calculate, approximately, its characteristic
A. surge * C. lossy impedance.
B. empty D. noise A. 69 ohms C. 233 ohms
B. 143 ohms D. 386 ohms *
11. A cable that is terminated in its characteristic impedance is called a
______________ line. 3. If a coaxial cable uses plastic insulation with a dielectric constant εr =
A. matched * C. parallel 2.6, what is the velocity factor for the cable?
B. series D. mismatched A. 0.62 * C. 8.92
B. 2.34 D. 5.67
12. A pulse sent down a cable terminated in a short-circuit will reflect with
the _____ polarity. 4. If a cable has a velocity factor of 0.8, how long would it take a signal to
A. series C. direct travel 3000 kilometers along the cable?
B. parallel D. opposite * A. 12.5 ms * C. 34 ms
B. 78 ms D. 24.5 ms
13. The apparently stationary pattern of waves on a mismatched cable is
called a _______ wave. 5. If a cable has a velocity factor of 0.8, what length of cable is required
A. space C. ground for a 90° phase shift at 100 MHz?
B. sky D. standing * A. 5 meters C. 0.6 meters *
B. 2.1 meters D. 3 meters
14. SWR stands for ______________-wave ratio.
A. space C. sky 6. A cable has a VSWR of 10. If the minimum voltage along the cable is
B. ground D. standing * 20 volts, what is the maximum voltage along the cable?
A. 100 volts C. 200 volts *
15. The ideal value for SWR is _____________. B. 100 watts D. 200 watts
A. six C. one *
B. seven D. zero 7. A lossless line has a characteristic impedance of 50 ohms, but is
terminated with a 75-ohm resistive load. What SWR do you expect to
16. Transmission line impedances can be found using a measure?
____________________ chart. A. 3 C. 4.5
A. Rayleigh C. Taylor B. 1.5 * D. 6
B. Smith * D. Thompson
8. If a cable has an SWR of 1.5, what will be the absolute value of its
17. Short transmission-line sections called ______ can be used as voltage coefficient of reflection?
capacitors or inductors. A. 1.2 C. 2.2
A. trunk C. root B. 0.2 * D. 3.2
B. branch D. stubs *
9. A generator matched to a line with a voltage coefficient of reflection
18. Any cable that radiates energy can also _____ energy. equal to 0.2 transmits 100 watts into the line. How much power is
A. absorb * C. destruct actually absorbed by the load?
B. radiates D. evaporate A. 96 watts * C. 69 watts
B. 24 watts D. 45 watts
19. A _____________-dB loss in a cable means only half the power sent
reaches the load. 10. Using a Smith Chart to analyze a 50-ohm cable, what would be the
A. 8 C. 6 normalized value of an impedance equal to 200 + j50 ohms?
B. 3* D. 4 A. 16 + j1 C. 8 + j1
B. 12 + j1 D. 4 + j1 *
20. It is often best to measure SWR at the ______ end of a cable.
A. load * C. resistor
B. source D. capacitor

21. Besides heat from I2R, the power a cable can carry is limited by the
__________ voltage of its dielectric.
A. short C. breakdown *
B. locked D. open

22. To normalize an impedance on a Smith Chart, you divide it by

_________.
A. L C. C
B. R D. Z0 *
EST Electronic Communications Systems 2e; Roy Blake EST

Chapter 15: Radio-Wave Propagation

MULTIPLE CHOICES 16. Radio waves would most strongly reflect off:
A. a flat insulating surface of the right size
1. Radio waves were first predicted mathematically by: B. a flat dielectric surface of the right size
A. Armstrong C. Maxwell * C. a flat metallic surface of the right size *
B. Hertz D. Marconi D. a flat body of water

2. Radio waves were first demonstrated experimentally by: 17. Radio waves sometimes "bend" around a corner because of:
A. Armstrong C. Maxwell A. reflection C. refraction
B. Hertz * D. Marconi B. diffusion D. diffraction *

3. The technology that made cell phones practical was: 18. Space waves are:
A. the microprocessor chip * A. line-of-sight *
B. the miniature cell-site B. reflected off the ionosphere
C. high-power microwave transmitters C. same as sky waves
D. all of the above D. radio waves used for satellite communications

4. Cell phones reduce much of the problems of mobile communications 19. Sky waves:
with: A. are line-of-sight
A. high power levels C. reuse of frequencies * B. "bounce" off the ionosphere *
B. high antennas D. all of the above C. are same as space waves
D. are radio waves used for satellite communications
5. Which of the following are electromagnetic:
A. radio waves C. gamma waves 20. Sky waves cannot be "heard":
B. light D. all of the above * A. close to the transmitter
B. far from the transmitter
6. The electric and magnetic fields of a radio wave are: C. in the "silent" zone
A. perpendicular to each other D. in the "skip" zone *
B. perpendicular to the direction of travel
C. both a and b * 21. A 20-dB reduction in the strength of a radio wave due to reflection is
D. none of the above called:
A. fading * C. frequency diversity
7. TEM stands for: B. diffraction D. spatial diversity
A. Transverse Electromagnetic *
B. Transmitted Electromagnetic 22. "Ghosts" on a TV screen are an example of:
C. True Electromagnetic A. fading
D. none of the above B. diffraction
C. multipath distortion *
8. In free space, radio waves travel at a speed of: D. cancellation due to reflection
A. 3 × 106 meters per second
B. 300 × 106 meters per second * 23. A "repeater" is used to:
C. 3 × 106 miles per second A. send a message multiple times over a channel
D. 300 × 106 miles per second B. send a message over multiple channels at the same time
C. extend the range of a radio communications system *
9. Which is a possible polarization for an electromagnetic wave: D. cancel the effects of fading
A. vertical C. circular
B. horizontal D. all of the above * 24. Cellular phone systems rely on:
A. high power C. the radio horizon
10. Which polarization can be reasonably well received by a circularly B. repeaters * D. frequency reuse
polarized antenna:
A. vertical C. circular 25. If the number of cell-phone users within a cell increases above some
B. horizontal D. all of the above * limit:
A. the cell area is increased
11. The number of circular polarization modes (directions) is: B. the cell area is split
A. 1 C. 3 C. the power levels are increased
B. 2 * D. many D. the number of channels is reduced *

12. An antenna has "gain" as compared to: 26. As a cell-phone user passes from one cell to another:
A. an isotropic radiator * A. a "handoff" process occurs *
B. vertically polarized radiator B. a "sectoring" process occurs
C. horizontally polarized radiator C. both cells will handle the call
D. none of the above D. nothing occurs

13. EIRP stands for: 27. To receive several data streams at once, a CDMA spread-spectrum
A. the E and I fields of the Radiated Power system uses:
B. the Effective Isotropic Radiated Power * A. a "funnel" receiver
C. the Effective Internal Reflected Power B. a "rake" receiver *
D. the Electric-field Intensity of the Radiated Power C. multiple receivers
D. none of the above
14. The "attenuation of free space" is due to:
A. losses in the characteristic impedance of free space 28. The troposphere is the:
B. losses due to absorption in the upper atmosphere A. highest layer of the atmosphere
C. the decrease in energy per square meter due to expansion of the B. middle layer of the atmosphere
wavefront * C. lowest layer of the atmosphere *
D. the decrease in energy per square meter due to absorption of the D. the most ionized layer of the atmosphere
wavefront
29. Meteor-trail propagation is:
15. Ground waves are most effective: A. used for radio telephony
A. below about 2 MHz * B. used to send data by radio *
B. above about 20 MHz C. also called "ducting"
C. at microwave frequencies D. not possible
D. when using horizontally polarized waves
EST Electronic Communications Systems 2e; Roy Blake EST

18. _____________ is the "bending" of radio waves as they travel across

COMPLETION the boundary between two different dielectrics.
A. Refraction * C. Radiation
1. Radio waves were mathematically predicted by _____________. B. Reflection D. Diffraction
A. Einstein C. Rayleigh
B. Maxwell * D. Isaac Newton 19. 19. The process of _______________makes radio waves appear to
"bend around a corner".
2. Radio waves were first demonstrated by ____. A. Refraction C. Radiation
A. Watts C. Volts B. Reflection D. Diffraction *
B. Hertz * D. ohms
20. _____________ waves travel from transmitter to receiver in a "line-of-
3. Radio waves are ____ electromagnetic waves. sight" fashion.
A. long C. grounded A. Light C. Sound
B. transverse * D. free B. Space * D. Ground

4. The propagation speed of radio waves in free space is 21. ________ waves are vertically polarized radio waves that travel along
____________________ m/sec. the earth's surface.
A. 172 x 108 C. 145 x 106 A. Space C. Light
B. 199 x 108 D. 300 x 106 * B. Ground * D. Sound

5. Electromagnetic radiation can be thought of as a stream of particles 22. ________ waves are radio waves that "bounce off" the ionosphere due
called _____________. to refraction.
A. protons C. photons * A. Space C. Ground
B. neutrons D. electrons B. Sky * D. Sound

6. Unlike sound or water waves, radio waves do not need a 23. The ____________________ zone is a region where sky waves cannot
_____________ to travel through. be received.
A. large C. small A. death C. shift
B. medium * D. ultra B. evasion D. skip *

7. The dielectric strength of clean dry air is about 24. "Ghosts" on a TV screen are an example of ________________
____________________ volts per meter. distortion.
A. 3 x 1012 C. 3 x 108 A. singlepath C. balanced
B. 3 x 1010 D. 3 x 106 * B. unbalanced D. multipath *

8. Waves from an ____________ source radiate equally in all directions. 25. The "fast fading" seen in mobile communications is caused by
A. isotropic * C. parallel _________ waves interfering with direct waves.
B. series D. open A. radiated C. refracted
B. diffracted D. reflected *
9. The wavefront of a point source would have the shape of a
____________. 26. Cell phones typically operate at a _______ power level.
A. sphere * C. square A. giga C. low *
B. cube D. triangle B. medium D. high

10. At a far distance from the source, a radio wavefront looks like a flat 27. The __________ of frequencies allows many cell-phone users to share
_______-wave. a geographical area.
A. ship C. plane * A. reuse * C. reduce
B. tank D. submarine B. recycle D. repurpose

11. The polarization of a radio wave is the direction of its ______________ 28. ____________________ is when a cell-site uses three directional
field. antennas, each covering a third of the cell area, to reduce interference.
A. magnetic C. sound A. Sectoring * C. Cutting
B. electric * D. light B. Dismantling D. Recycling

12. The electric field of a radio wave is _________ to its magnetic field. 29. The use of ____________________ chips makes cell phones a practical
A. open C. matched technology.
B. direct D. perpendicular * A. conductor C. signal
B. circuit D. microprocessor *
13. Both the electric and magnetic fields of a radio wave are
____________________ to its propagation direction.
A. radiating C. direct SHORT ANSWER
B. perpendicular * D. open
1. A certain dielectric has permittivity of 6.3 ´ 10–10 F/m and the same
14. With ____________________ polarization, the direction of a radio permeability as free space. What is the characteristic impedance of that
wave's electric field rotates as it travels through space. dielectric?
A. triangle C. squared A. 34 ohms C. 98 ohms
B. cube D. circular * B. 45 ohms * D. 77 ohms

15. An antenna is said to have ____________ in a certain direction if it 2. If a point source of radio waves transmits 1 watt, what is the power
radiates more power in that direction than in other directions. density 10,000 meters from the source?
A. source C. load A. 677 pW/m2 C. 143 pW/m2
2
B. input D. gain * B. 796 pW/m * D. 123 pW/m2

16. The watts per square meter of a radio wave ____________________ as 3. What power must a point-source of radio waves transmit so that the
the wave-front moves through space. power density at 3000 meters from the source is 1 mW/m2?
A. decrease * C. radiates A. 113 watts * C. 312 watts
B. hopping D. increase B. 456 watts D. 231 watts

17. Reflection of plane-waves from a smooth surface is called 4. If a radio receiver needs 1 nW/m2 of power density to function, how
______________ reflection. far away from a 1-watt point source will it continue to work?
A. specular * C. direct A. 67.3 km C. 2.4 km
B. circular D. polynomial B. 29.5 km D. 8.9 km *
EST Electronic Communications Systems 2e; Roy Blake EST

5. A line-of-sight radio link over flat terrain needs to use antenna towers
50 km apart. What, approximately, is the minimum height for the
towers assuming all the towers are the same?
A. 45 meters C. 21 meters
B. 67 meters D. 37 meters *

6. A mobile radio is being used at 1 GHz in an urban environment with

lots of reflecting structures. If the car is traveling 36 km/hour, what is
the expected time between fades?
A. 55 msec C. 66 msec
B. 15 msec * D. 45 msec
EST Electronic Communications Systems 2e; Roy Blake EST

Chapter 16: Antenna

16. An antenna can be matched to a feed line using:
MULTIPLE CHOICES A. a shorted stub C. an LC network
B. a loading coil D. all of the above *
1. The real part of an antenna's input impedance is due to:
A. the radiated signal * C. the SWR 17. As the length of a "long-wire" antenna is increased:
B. the reflected signal D. all of the above A. the number of lobes increases *
B. the number of nodes decreases
2. A half-wave dipole is sometimes called: C. efficiency decreases
A. a Marconi antenna C. a Yagi antenna D. none of the above
B. a Hertz antenna * D. none of the above
18. Arrays can be:
3. The end-to-end length of a half-wave dipole antenna is actually: A. phased C. parasitic
A. one wavelength B. driven D. all of the above *
B. one half-wavelength
C. slightly longer than a half-wavelength 19. An array with one driven element, a reflector, and one or more
D. slightly shorter than a half-wavelength * directors is called a:
A. Marconi C. Log-Periodic Dipole
4. The radiation of energy from an antenna can be seen in the: B. Yagi * D. stacked array
A. standing wave pattern around the antenna
B. SWR along the feed cable 20. LPDA stands for:
C. radiation resistance of the antenna * A. Low-Power Dipole Array
D. I2R loss of the antenna B. Low-Power Directed Array
C. Log-Periodic Dipole Array *
5. Measured on the ground, the field strength of a horizontally polarized D. Log Power Dipole Array
half-wave dipole antenna is strongest:
A. in one direction 21. The radiated beam from a parabolic "dish" transmitting antenna is:
B. in two directions * A. collimated * C. dispersed
C. in all directions B. phased D. none of the above
D. depends on the number of elements
22. The energy picked up by a parabolic antenna is concentrated at the:
6. The ability of an antenna to radiate more energy in one direction than in A. center C. focus *
other directions is called: B. edges D. horn
A. directivity * C. active antenna
B. selectivity D. resonance 23. Antennas are often tested in:
A. an echo chamber
7. The front-to-back ratio of a half-wave dipole antenna is: B. an anechoic chamber *
A. 0 dB * C. 10 dB C. a vacuum chamber
B. 3 dB D. infinite D. an RF reflective chamber

8. An antenna's beamwidth is measured: 24. Field strength at a distance from an antenna is measured with:
A. from +90° to –90° A. a slotted line C. an EIRP meter
B. from front to back B. a dipole D. a field-strength meter *
C. between half-power points *
D. between the minor side-lobes
COMPLETION
9. ERP stands for:
A. Equivalent Radiation Pattern 1. An antenna is the interface between the transmission line and
B. Effective Radiation Pattern ________________.
C. Equivalent Radiated Power A. space * C. ground
D. Effective Radiated Power * B. sky D. light

10. "Ground Effects" refers to the effects on an antenna's radiation pattern 2. Hertz antenna is another name for a half-wave _____________.
caused by: A. resistor C. capacitor
A. radio signals reflecting off the ground * B. dipole * D. inductor
B. buildings and other structures on the ground
C. fading 3. The length of a half-wave dipole is about _____ % of a half-wave in
D. faulty connection of the feed cable ground free space.
A. 95 * C. 35
11. A 1-MHz monopole antenna must be: B. 67 D. 42
A. mounted vertically *
B. mounted horizontally 4. The ______________ resistance is the portion of an antenna's input
C. at least one half-wavelength long impedance due to transmitted radio waves leaving the antenna.
D. at least one wavelength long A. refraction C. diffraction
B. radiation * D. reflection
12. The typical antenna in an AM radio is a:
A. dipole C. ferrite "loop-stick" * 5. Input impedance at the center feed point of a resonant half-wave dipole
B. folded dipole D. none of the above is about _____ Ω.
A. 64 C. 32
13. The polarization of plane waves received from a satellite is changed by: B. 70 * D. 12
A. gamma rays C. helical rotation
B. Faraday Rotation * D. the distance traveled 6. Input impedance at the center feed point of a resonant folded dipole is
about _________ Ω.
14. A nonresonant antenna: A. 100 - 200 C. 220 - 330
A. will not transmit B. 120 - 290 D. 280 - 300 *
B. will not receive
C. will cause SWR on the feed cable * 7. The vertical angle of radiation is called the angle of ____________.
D. all of the above A. Elevation * C. destruction
B. integration D. death
15. At resonance, the input impedance to a lossless antenna should be:
A. resistive * C. capacitive 8. Antenna radiation patterns are typically drawn on graphs with
B. inductive D. infinite _____________ coordinates.
A. unknown C. perpendicular
EST Electronic Communications Systems 2e; Roy Blake EST

B. modular D. polar * A. six C. one

B. seven D. five *
9. As compared to a ________________ source, a half-wave dipole has a
gain of about 2 dBi. 27. All the waves that hit the surface of a parabolic antenna merge at the
A. isotropic C. both A and B * ____________.
B. point D. none of the above A. trunk C. focus *
B. root D. branch
10. Antenna gain measured in ______ is with reference to a half-wave
dipole. 28. A ____________________ beam has all its individual rays parallel to
A. dBi C. dB each other.
B. dBd * D. dBm A. collimated * C. long
B. severe D. smaller
11. ______________ is the same as the gain for a lossless antenna.
A. Signal C. Polarity 29. A microwave _________________ antenna is essentially an extension
B. Elements D. Directivity * of a waveguide.
A. peak C. series
12. The front-to-back ratio of a half-wave dipole is _________ dB. B. horn * D. dipole
A. six C. one
B. seven D. zero * 30. An ____________________ chamber is often used to test microwave
antennas.
13. The ______________ of a directional antenna is the angle between its A. operational C. resistor
half-power points. B. element D. anechoic *
A. frequency C. signal
B. bandwidth D. beamwidth * SHORT ANSWER

14. ERP stands for ___________ radiated power. 1. Calculate the physical length of a half-wave dipole for use at 300 MHz.
A. estimation C. equivalent A. 475 mm * C. 231 mm
B. effective * D. error B. 686 mm D. 344 mm

15. ERP is the power input to the antenna multiplied by the antenna's 2. How much power will a 95% efficient antenna radiate if driven with
_____________. 100 watts?
A. gain * C. data A. 95 watts * C. 86 watts
B. source D. load B. 34 watts D. 344 watts

16. A _______________ is required to connect a coaxial cable to a center- 3. If an antenna has 10.14 dB of gain compared to a point source, how
fed dipole antenna. much gain does it have compared to a half-wave dipole?
A. balun * C. converter A. 16 dB C. 23 dB
B. transformer D. inverter B. 34 dB D. 8 dB *

17. A horizontally mounted dipole will radiate waves with 4. What is the ERP of an antenna with 10 dBd of gain and driven by one
_______________ polarization. watt?
A. closed C. horizontal * A. 34 watts C. 43 watts
B. series D. parallel B. 10 watts * D. 78 watts

18. A folded dipole has _____________ bandwidth than a standard dipole. 5. A resonant antenna has an input impedance of 100 ohms and is driven
A. wider C. more by 100 watts. What is the RMS current in the antenna?
B. greater D. all of the above * A. 6 amp C. 1 amp *
B. 29 amp D. 9 amp
19. A monopole antenna is typically mounted in the
____________________ direction. 6. A resonant antenna has an input impedance of 100 ohms and is driven
A. parallel C. horizontal by 100 watts. What is the RMS voltage at the feed-point of the
B. series D. vertical * antenna?
A. 100 volts * C. 344 volts
20. The length of a typical monopole antenna is ____________________ B. 200 volts D. 676 volts
wavelength.
A. one quarter C. both A and B *
B. 1/4 D. 1/2

21. A monopole antenna mounted high on a tower typically uses a

_______________ plane.
A. space C. sky
B. ground * D. sound

22. A vertical antenna has an _____________ radiation pattern for ground-

based receivers.
A. omnidirectional * C. antenna
B. directional D. bidirectional

23. The number of driven elements in a Yagi antenna is typically

_______________.
A. six C. one *
B. seven D. zero

24. The reflector on a Yagi antenna is called a ____________________

element.
A. directive C. active
B. parasitic * D. thick

25. An LPDA is a ______________ dipole array.

A. binary C. periodic table
B. data D. log periodic *

26. If an LPDA had five elements, the number of driven elements it had
would be __________.
EST Electronic Communications Systems 2e; Roy Blake EST

Chapter 17: Microwave Devices

MULTIPLE CHOICES D. prevents microwaves from being "trapped" in a waveguide

1. The microwave frequency range is considered to start at: 16. GaAs stands for:
A. 100 MHz C. 10 GHz A. gallium arsenide * C. gallium astenite
B. 1 GHz * D. 100 GHz B. gallium assembly D. none of the above

2. The UHF range is: 17. IMPATT stands for:

A. below the microwave range * A. impact avalanche and transit time *
B. inside the microwave range B. induced mobility at transmission time
C. above the microwave range C. implied power at transmission terminal
D. same as the microwave range D. none of the above

3. The dominant mode of a waveguide depends on: 18. YIG stands for:
A. the shape of the waveguide * A. Yttrium-Iron-Gallium
B. the power level of the signal B. Yttrium-Iron-Germanium *
C. the point of signal injection C. Yttrium-Iron-Garnet
D. none of the above D. none of the above

4. The dominant mode of a rectangular waveguide is: 19. A YIG can be tuned by applying:
A. TE01 C. TE 10 * A. an electric field C. mechanical pressure *
B. TM01 D. TM10 B. a magnetic field D. an "exciter" signal

5. The dominant mode of a circular waveguide is: 20. The device commonly used in microwave ovens is the:
A. TE01 C. TE11 * A. TWT * C. magnetron
B. TM01 D. TM11 B. klystron D. YIG

6. Circular waveguides use TM01 mode because: 21. The device commonly used in satellite communications is the:
A. it is dominant A. TWT C. magnetron
B. of its circular symmetry * B. klystron D. YIG
C. it is the only mode possible
D. it is more efficient 22. The device commonly used in UHF transmitters is the:
A. TWT C. magnetron
7. The characteristic impedance of a waveguide: B. klystron * D. YIG
A. is fixed
B. depends on the frequency it carries 23. A microwave phased array is often made using:
C. depends on the longer dimension of its cross section A. slots * C. Fresnel lenses
D. both b and c * B. Yagis D. all of the above

8. Power can be coupled into or out of a waveguide: 24. RADAR stands for:
A. with a magnetic field probe A. radio ranging
B. with an electric field probe B. radio depth and ranging
C. through a hole in the waveguide C. radio detection and ranging *
D. all of the above * D. remote detection and ranging

9. Directional couplers for waveguides are characterized by: 25. RADAR uses:
A. their insertion loss A. pulsed transmission
B. their coupling specification B. continuous transmission
C. their directivity C. the Doppler effect
D. all of the above * D. all of the above *

10. Striplines and microstrips are used to: 26. The maximum effective range for pulsed radar:
A. couple sections of waveguide A. increases with increasing repetition rate
B. couple waveguides to antennas B. decreases with increasing repetition rate *
C. couple components on a circuit board * C. decreases with increasing pulse period
D. none of the above D. none of the above

11. A resonant cavity is a type of: 27. The minimum effective range for pulsed radar:
A. tuned circuit * A. increases with increasing pulse duration *
B. defect in a waveguide B. decreases with increasing pulse duration
C. antenna C. is always a tenth of the maximum range
D. none of the above D. none of the above

12. A TEE connector used with waveguides is:

A. an H-plane TEE C. a "magic" TEE
B. an E-plane TEE D. all of the above * COMPLETION

13. TWT stands for: 1. __________ is the effect of a pulse "spreading out" as it travels through
A. Transverse Wave Transmission a waveguide.
B. Transverse-Wave Tube A. Refraction C. Interruption
C. Traveling-Wave Tube * B. Dispersion * D. Reflection
D. Traveling-Wave Transmission
2. The electric field is _______ along the walls of a rectangular
14. An "isolator" is a device that: waveguide.
A. isolates frequencies in a waveguide A. six C. one
B. allows a signal to pass in one direction only * B. seven D. zero *
C. separates signals among various ports
D. prevents microwaves from leaking out of a waveguide 3. The waveguide mode with the lowest cutoff frequency is the ________
mode.
15. A "circulator" is a device that: A. longest C. dominant *
A. rotates signal polarity in a waveguide B. smallest D. shortest
B. allows a signal to pass in one direction only
C. separates signals among various ports *
EST Electronic Communications Systems 2e; Roy Blake EST

4. In TE10 mode, the _____________ field peaks in the middle of the A. 9 GHz C. 12 GHz
waveguide cross section. B. 3 GHz * D. 6 GHz
A. electric * C. sound
B. magnetic D. light 2. Calculate the group velocity in a waveguide carrying a signal that is
twice its cutoff frequency.
5. In TE20 mode, the electric field has _________ peaks in the waveguide A. 260 x 106 m/s * C. 315 x 108 m/s
cross section. B. 45 x 106 m/s D. 867 x 108 m/s
A. six C. one
B. seven D. two * 3. Calculate the phase velocity in a waveguide carrying a signal that is
twice its cutoff frequency.
6. In a circular waveguide, ____________ mode is used because of its A. 346 x 106 m/s * C. 321 x 106 m/s
circular symmetry. B. 667 x 106 m/s D. 474 x 106 m/s
A. TM03 C. TM07
B. TM05 D. TM01 * 4. Calculate the wavelength of a 2-GHz signal in a waveguide with a 1-
GHz cutoff frequency.
7. A waveguide acts as a _________-pass filter. A. 366 mm C. 323 mm
A. pash C. high * B. 575 mm D. 173 mm *
B. medium D. low
5. Find the gain in dBi of a 10-GHz horn antenna with dE = dH= 60 mm.
8. In a waveguide, group velocity is always _________________ than the A. 12.8 C. 78.6
speed of light. B. 14.8 * D. 67.6
A. slower * C. medium
B. faster D. greater 6. Find the maximum unambiguous range for a pulsed radar sending 10k
pulses per second.
9. In a waveguide, phase velocity is always _________________ than the A. 24 km C. 77 km
speed of light. B. 15 km * D. 68 km
A. slower C. medium
B. faster * D. less 7. Find the minimum unambiguous range for a pulsed radar sending 2-
msec duration pulses.
10. In a waveguide, impedance ________________ as frequency increases. A. 676 m C. 324 m
A. decrease * C. remain B. 243 m D. 300 m *
B. increase D. begone

11. A ____________________ TEE is a combination of E-plane and H-

plane TEES.
A. natural C. ordinary
B. digital D. hybrid *

12. The Q of a resonant cavity is very _________ compared to lumped LC

circuits.
A. natural C. high *
B. medium D. low

13. A wavemeter is a resonant ______________ with an adjustable

plunger.
A. data C. line
B. cavity * D. zero

14. A Gunn device oscillates because of its negative

____________________.
A. resistance * C. inductance
B. conductance D. gain

15. Both magnetrons and TWTs are slow _______________ tubes.

A. wave * C. hopping
B. moving D. running

16. Both klystrons and TWTs are ___-beam tubes.

A. linear * C. parallel
B. series D. non-linear

17. A ___________ antenna is just a waveguide with a hole in it.

A. gain C. source
B. load D. slot *

18. A ____________________ antenna is a flat piece of copper on an

insulating substrate with a ground plane on the other side.
A. sky C. ground
B. space D. patch *

19. The radar cross section of a target is typically _______________ than

its actual size.
A. smaller * C. taller
B. longer D. shortest

20. The frequency of the returned signal will be ______________ than the
transmitted signal if the target is moving toward the radar antenna.
A. natural C. higher *
B. medium D. lower

SHORT ANSWER

1. Calculate the TE10 cutoff frequency for a rectangular waveguide if the

longer dimension of its cross section is 5 cm.
EST Electronic Communications Systems 2e; Roy Blake EST

Chapter 18: Terrestrial Microwave Communication Systems

MULTIPLE CHOICES 17. MMDS stands for:
A. Multichannel Microwave Distribution System
1. Another term for a single microwave link is a: B. Multipoint Microwave Distribution System
A. section C. skip C. Multichannel Multipoint Distribution System *
B. hop * D. jump D. Multiple Microwave Distribution Systems

2. Microwave systems use: 18. LMDS stands for:

A. FM C. QAM A. Local Microwave Distribution System
B. SSB D. all of the above * B. Local Multipoint Distribution System *
C. Local Multichannel Distribution System
3. The typical reliability of a microwave system is: D. Low-power Microwave Distribution System
A. 90% C. 99.9%
B. 99% D. 99.99% * 19. LMDS is:
A. bidirectional * C. multidirectional
4. A typical microwave system uses a transmitted power of about: B. unidirectional D. none of the above
A. 2 watts * C. 200 watts
B. 20 watts D. none of the above
COMPLETION
5. In analog microwave systems, additional repeaters increase the:
A. reliability C. jitter 1. One microwave link is called a ____________.
B. noise level * D. all of the above A. section C. skip
B. hop * D. jump
6. In digital microwave systems, additional repeaters increase the:
A. reliability C. jitter * 2. STL stands for _______-to-transmitter links.
B. noise level D. all of the above A. studio * C. skip
B. sound D. skin
7. LOS stands for:
A. Loss-Of-Skip C. Line-Of-Sight * 3. A typical microwave system has about one hour per __________ or
B. Loss-Of-Signal D. Line-Of-Signal less of downtime.
A. section C. skip
8. Too much antenna gain causes: B. hop D. year *
A. very narrow microwave beam *
B. a very wide microwave beam 4. Adding more links causes ________ in a digital microwave system.
C. excessive noise A. section C. skip
D. jitter B. jitter * D. jump

9. The microwave signal path should clear obstacles by at least: 5. In microwave systems, it is more convenient to use noise
A. 60% of the Faraday zone ____________________ than noise figure in calculations.
B. 60% of the Fresnel zone * A. temperature * C. skip
C. 60% of the height of the antenna tower B. error D. jump
D. 60% of the highest obstacle height
6. In digital microwave systems, the energy per bit per ____________ is a
10. Satisfactory performance of an analog microwave system is defined as: key parameter.
A. a carrier-to-noise ratio that exceeds a given value * A. error C. data
B. an ERP level that exceeds a given value B. noise density * D. bit
C. an energy-per-hertz level that exceeds a given value
D. none of the above 7. Multipath reception can cause 20 dB or more of _____________.
A. section C. skip
11. Satisfactory performance of a digital microwave system requires a: B. hop D. fading *
A. low level of transmitted power
B. high level of ERP 8. Two antennas stacked one above the other on a tower is an example of
C. good energy per bit per transmitted Watt ratio _________ diversity in a microwave system.
D. good energy per bit per noise density ratio * A. space * C. sky
B. sound D. light
12. Fading is caused by:
A. multipath reception 9. The ability to use two frequencies simultaneously is an example of
B. attenuation due to weather __________.
C. ducting A. signal C. bit
D. all of the above * B. data D. diversity *

13. The effects of fading due to multipath reception are often reduced 10. Microwave systems generally use less than _______________ watts of
using: power.
A. Diversity C. high-gain antennas * A. five C. two
B. Power D. all of the above B. ten * D. four

14. Repeaters are used in a microwave system: 11. ______ are necessary in a microwave system that extends beyond the
A. always line-of-sight distance.
B. when distance exceeds line-of-sight * A. Repeaters * C. Resistor
C. above 10 GHz B. Modems D. Capacitor
D. below 10 GHz
12. Analog microwave systems use both IF and __________ repeaters.
15. Microwave repeaters can be: A. FOR C. baseband *
A. IF type C. regenerative type B. NOR D. OR
B. baseband type D. all of the above *
13. Microwave digital radio techniques reduce the accumulation of
16. An advantage of digital techniques over analog in a microwave system _________ as a signal goes from link to link.
is: A. frequency C. error
A. less bandwidth is required B. data D. noise *
B. accumulation of noise is reduced *
C. it requires less power 14. MMDS is unidirectional, but ______ is bidirectional.
D. all of the above A. LMGS C. MLGS
B. LMDS * D. SMGL
EST Electronic Communications Systems 2e; Roy Blake EST

SHORT ANSWER

1. If the line-of-sight distance for an optical beam is 12 km, what would it

be, approximately, for a microwave beam?
A. 23 km C. 98 km
B. 16 km * D. 55 km

2. A line-of-sight microwave link operating at 4 GHz has a separation of

40 km between antennas. An obstacle in the path is located midway
between the two antennas. By how much must the beam clear the
obstacle?
A. 21.4 m C. 34.4 m
B. 24.4 m D. 16 .4 m *

3. A transmitter and receiver operating at 1 GHz are separated by 10 km.

How many dBm of power gets to the receiver if the transmitter puts out
1 Watt, and both the sending and receiving antennas have a gain of
20 dBi?
C. 67.4 dbm C. – 23 .4 dBm
D. 23.4 dBm D. – 42.4 dBm *

4. A microwave system has a feed-line loss of 2 dB and sees a sky

temperature of 150 K. Calculate the noise temperature of the
antenna/feed-line system referenced to the receiver input.
A. 44 K C. 864 K
B. 201 K * D. 854 K

5. A microwave receiver receives –60 dBm of signal. The noise power is

–100 dBm. What is the carrier-to-noise power ratio?
A. 40 dB * C. 89 dB
B. 54 dB D. 23 dB
EST Electronic Communications Systems 2e; Roy Blake EST

Chapter 19: Television

MULTIPLE CHOICES B. about the same D. resolution does not apply to color

1. NTSC stands for: 18. The modulation used for the video signal in a standard NTSC color TV
A. National Television Systems Commission receiver is:
B. National Television Systems Committee * A. SSB
C. National Television Systems Council B. vestigial sideband AM *
D. Nippon Television Systems Commission C. suppressed-carrier AM
D. FM
2. The NTSC specification was drawn up by the:
A. FCC C. EIA * 19. The modulation used for the audio signal in a standard NTSC color TV
B. IRE D. IEEE receiver is:
A. SSB
3. RGB stands for: B. vestigial sideband AM
A. Red-Green Burst C. suppressed-carrier AM
B. Red-Green Brightness D. FM *
C. Red-Green Bandwidth
D. Red-Green-Blue * 20. The modulation used for the chroma signal in a standard NTSC color
TV receiver is:
4. The number of scan lines in an NTSC signal is: A. SSB
A. 525 * C. 1024 B. vestigial sideband AM
B. 625 D. 1250 C. suppressed-carrier AM *
D. FM
5. The number of NTSC frames sent per second is:
A. 25 C. 50 21. The function of the "color burst" is to:
B. 30 * D. 60 A. detect the presence of a color video signal
B. regenerate the color sub-carrier
6. The number of NTSC fields sent per second is: C. to synchronize the color demodulation line by line
A. 25 C. 50 D. all of the above *
B. 30 D. 60 *
22. SAP stands for:
7. The aspect ratio of a standard TV receiver is: A. separate audio program *
A. 3 : 4 C. 525 : 625 B. separate audio pulse
B. 4 : 3 * D. 625 : 525 C. sync amplitude pulse
D. sync audio pulse
8. Luminance refers to:
A. brightness * C. chroma 23. The horizontal output transformer is also called:
B. contrast D. raster A. the isolation transformer
B. the video transformer
9. Luminance is measured in: C. the flyback transformer *
A. foot-candles C. IRE units * D. the yoke
B. lumins D. NTSC units
24. Compared to a monochrome CRT, the accelerating voltage on a color
10. The maximum luminance level is called: CRT is:
A. max white C. all white A. about the same
B. peak white * D. whiter than white B. much higher *
C. much lower
11. The blanking level corresponds to a luminance of: D. color CRTs use magnetic acceleration
A. white C. whiter than white
B. black * D. blacker than black 25. Deflection in CRTs used in TV receivers is done:
A. magnetically for both vertical and horizontal *
12. The sync pulse level corresponds to a luminance of: B. electrostatically for both vertical and horizontal
A. white C. whiter than white C. electrostatically for vertical and magnetically for horizontal
B. black D. blacker than black * D. magnetically for vertical and electrostatically for horizontal

13. The vertical blanking pulse is serrated to: 26. AFPC stands for:
A. maintain horizontal sync * A. allowed full picture chroma
B. maintain vertical sync B. automatic frequency and phase control *
C. equalize the DC level C. automatic frequency and picture control
D. all of the above D. none of the above

14. When measured in lines, horizontal resolution:

A. is greater than vertical resolution COMPLETION
B. is about the same as vertical resolution *
C. is less than vertical resolution 1. ___________ is a conductive coating on both the inside and outside of
D. horizontal resolution is not measured in lines the CRT in a TV.
A. Aluminum C. Silver
15. The smallest picture element is called a: B. Gold D. Aquadag*
A. dot C. pixel *
B. pic D. none of the above 2. The ____________________ standard for TV has been in use since
1953.
16. In a color TV receiver, Y I Q refers to: A. SCNT C. CNTS
A. luminance signal, in-phase color component, quadrature phase color B. STNC D. NTSC *
component *
B. composite color signal, in-phase color component, quadrature phase 3. Video systems form pictures by a ________ process.
color component A. jumping C. skipping
C. composite video signal, in-phase video component, quadrature video B. scanning * D. running
color component
D. a method of demodulating stereo sound 4. During the horizontal blanking interval, the electron beam
___________ from right to left.
17. Compared to the luminance signal, the horizontal resolution for color A. small C. slow
is: B. retraces * D. fast
A. much greater C. much less *
EST Electronic Communications Systems 2e; Roy Blake EST

5. The NTSC specifies a _______ video signal. A. tomb C. bomb

A. series C. fragment B. comb * D. numb
B. composite * D. specific
24. The color ____________________ turns off the color circuitry when a
6. The ____________________ ratio of a CRT screen is the ratio of width color TV is receiving a monochrome signal.
to height. A. run C. radiates
A. correct C. wrong B. hop D. killer *
B. aspect * D. big
25. Signal levels in cable TV systems are usually measured in
7. Brightness information is called _________. ____________________.
A. luma C. both A and B * A. dB C. dBi
B. luminance D. none of the above B. dBm D. dBmv *

8. Color information is called ______________. 26. The antenna for a CATV system is located at the
A. chroma C. both A and B * ____________________ end.
B. chrominance D. none of the above A. arm C. feet
B. head * D. elbow
9. The blanking period before the sync pulse is called the front
____________________. 27. A ____________________ shows a color-bar signal with
A. balcony C. bedroom predetermined levels and phases.
B. porch * D. dining A. noise C. signal
B. vectorscope * D. data
10. Odd and even fields are identified by the _____________ of the
vertical sync pulse. 28. Color intensity is called ____________________.
A. section C. fraction A. saturation * C. bit
B. position * D. intuition B. solids D. data

11. Each horizontal scan line takes _______ microseconds, not including 29. The ____________________ of the chroma signal represents the color
blanking. hue.
A. 62.5 * C. 98 A. phase * C. hue
B. 78 D. 23.5 B. data D. color

12. Horizontal blanking lasts ____ microseconds. 30. The ____________________ controls in a color TV adjust the electron
A. 10 * C. 45 beams to strike the correct color phosphor dots.
B. 23 D. 67 A. intensity C. purity *
B. digital D. natural
13. Vertical blanking lasts about ___ milliseconds.
A. 2.3 C. 4.3 31. The ____________________ controls in a color TV adjust the electron
B. 1.3 * D. 5.3 beams to strike the correct triad of phosphor dots.
A. section C. convergence *
14. Picture elements are called ________. B. insurgence D. wave
A. pixels C. rope
B. graphic D. data

15. The maximum number of scan lines under NTSC is

____________________.
A. 225 C. 555
B. 525 * D. 222

16. The human eye is most sensitive to the color ____________________.

A. blue C. violet
B. green * D. black

17. The color sub-carrier frequency is approximately _____________

MHz.
A. 68.8 C. 32.3
B. 54.6 D. 3.58 *

18. SAP stands for ___________ audio program.

A. fragment C. mix
B. solid D. separate *

19. The second anode of a CRT is often called the

____________________.
A. ultor * C. data
B. skimming D. signal

20. The accelerating voltage for a color CRT is about

____________________ kV.
A. 20 to 30 * C. 40 to 50
B. 30 to 40 D. 50 to 60

21. The inside of a CRT's face-plate is coated with _____________ to

generate the picture.
A. phosphor C. gold
B. sulfur D. silver

22. The horizontal output transformer is called the

____________________ transformer.
A. forward C. bacward
B. flyback * D. flyforward

23. A good way to separate luma from chroma is to use a

____________________ filter.
EST Electronic Communications Systems 2e; Roy Blake EST

Chapter 20: Satellite Communications

MULTIPLE CHOICES D. very small aperture terminal *

1. The height of the geosynchronous orbit above the equator is about: 16. On the uplink from a terminal, a VSAT system uses:
A. 3,578 km A. high power to a small antenna
B. 35,780 km * B. low power to a small antenna *
C. 357,800 km C. low power to a large antenna
D. depends on satellite velocity D. LEO satellites

2. The high and low points of a satellite's orbit are called, respectively 17. A typical VSAT system is configured as a:
A. apogee and perigee * A. star * C. ring
B. perigee and apogee B. mesh D. repeater
C. uplink and downlink
D. downlink and uplink 18. LEO stands for:
A. long elliptic orbit
3. The area on the earth that is "covered" by a satellite is called its: B. low-earth orbit *
A. earth station C. footprint * C. lateral earth orbit
B. downlink D. plate D. longitudinal earth orbit

4. The velocity required to stay in orbit: 19. For real-time communication, LEO systems require:
A. is constant A. a constellation of satellites *
B. is zero (freefall) B. tracking dish antennas
C. is lower close to the earth than far from the earth C. very high power
D. is higher close to the earth than far from the earth * D. all of the above

5. An antenna is aimed by adjusting the two "look angles" called: 20. The frequency bands used by Ku-band satellites are:
A. azimuth and elevation * A. 4 GHz and 6 GHz
B. azimuth and declination B. 12 GHz and 14 GHz *
C. declination and elevation C. 20 GHz and 30 GHz
D. apogee and perigee D. none of the above

6. The power per transponder of a typical Ku-band satellite is in the

range:
A. 5 to 25 watts C. 500 to 2500 watts
B. 50 to 250 watts * D. depends on its orbit
COMPLETION
7. The power level for an earth station to transmit to a satellite is on the
order of: 1. A satellite in geosynchronous orbit takes _____________ hours to
A. 101 watts C. 103 watts * complete one orbit.
2
B. 10 watts D. 104 watts A. 34 C. 67
B. 24 * D. 65
8. The "payload" on a communications satellite consists of:
A. transponders * C. solar cells 2. The ____________________ is the signal path from the earth station to
B. batteries D. all of the above the satellite.
A. downlink C. streamlink
9. "Station-keeping" refers to: B. uplink * D. hyperlink
A. antenna maintenance
B. power-level adjustments 3. The ____________________ is the signal path from the satellite to the
C. orbital adjustments * earth station.
D. none of the above A. streamlink C. uplink
B. hyperlink D. downlink *
10. DBS stands for:
A. decibels of signal 4. A satellite in a ______________ orbit appears to stay directly above
B. down-beam signal one spot on the equator.
C. direct-broadcast system A. space C. skipping
D. direct-broadcast satellite * B. meteoric D. geostationary *

11. LNA stands for: 5. Non-geostationary satellites are sometimes called

A. low-noise amplifier * ____________________ satellites.
B. low north angle A. section C. geostationary
C. low-noise amplitude B. orbital * D. space
D. low-noise array
6. A geosynchronous orbit is about __________ km above the earth.
12. A reduction in TWT power for linearity is called: A. 42,564 C. 56,757
A. backdown C. power-down B. 35,780 * D. 34,424
B. backoff * D. EIRP drop
7. A __________ is an outline of the area on the earth's surface that a
13. TVRO stands for: satellite broadcasts to.
A. television receive only * A. footprint * C. section
B. television repeater only B. orbital D. sketch
C. television remote origin
D. none of the above 8. All satellite orbits are ____________ in shape.
A. circular C. triangular
14. TDMA stands for: B. elliptical * D. hexagonal
A. transponder-directed multiple antennas
B. television distribution master antenna 9. The ____________________ is the distance of a satellite's closest
C. time-division multiple access * approach to the earth.
D. transmit delay minimum aperture A. pedigree C. peridot
B. perigee * D. paper
15. VSAT stands for:
A. video satellite 10. The ____________________ is a satellite's farthest distance from the
B. video signal antenna terminal earth.
C. very small antenna terminal A. apogee * C. gungee
EST Electronic Communications Systems 2e; Roy Blake EST

B. abugee D. jongee

11. An antenna's ____________________ is its angular direction between

east and west.
A. azimuth * C. asylum
B. azure D. frequency

12. An antenna's _______________ is its vertical angle with respect to the

earth's surface.
A. equation C. integration
B. elevation * D. declination

13. An antenna's ____________________ is the angle by which it is offset

from the earth's axis.
A. elevation C. equation
B. declination * D. integration

14. Satellites using the _____ band operate on 12 GHz.

A. Ku * C. Sl
B. Ag D. C

15. The time for a signal to make a round trip via satellite is about
____________ milliseconds.
A. 200 C. 300
B. 600 D. 500 *

16. A ____________________ is a type of repeater used on

communications satellites.
A. modem C. data
B. bit D. transponder *

17. Both the gain and the beamwidth of a dish antenna depend on its
____________.
A. circuit C. radius
B. line D. diameter *

18. VSAT systems commonly use a ______________ network

configuration.
A. bus C. ring
B. star * D. tree

19. To date, LEO satellite systems have been a financial

____________________.
A. investment C. status
B. failure * D. improvement

20. C-band antennas are ____________ than Ku-band antennas.

A. larger * C. lower
B. smaller D. wider

SHORT ANSWER

1. A receiving antenna with a gain of 44.4 dBi looks at a sky with a noise
temperature of 15 K. The loss between the output of the antenna and
the input of the LNA is 0.4 dB, and the LNA has a noise temperature of
40 K. Calculate the G/T.
A. 35 dB C. 76 dB
B. 25 dB * D. 89 dB

2. A receiver has a noise figure of 1.7 dB. Find its equivalent noise
temperature.
A. 382 K C. 455 K
B. 139 K * D. 234 K

3. A receiving antenna with a G/T of 25 dB is used to receive signals from

a satellite 38,000 km away. The satellite has a 100-watt transmitter and
an antenna with a gain of 30 dBi. The signal has a bandwidth of 1
MHz at a frequency of 12 GHz. Calculate the C/N at the receiver.
C. 46 dB C. 12 dB
D. 23 dB D. 38 dB *
EST Electronic Communications Systems 2e; Roy Blake EST

Chapter 21: Cellular Radio

MULTIPLE CHOICES B. Supervisory Audio Tone *
C. Supervisory Access Tone
1. AMPS stand for: D. none of the above
A. American Mobile Phone System
B. Analog Mobile Phone Service 15. CMAC stands for:
C. Advanced Mobile Phone System A. Control Mobile Attenuation Code *
D. Advanced Mobile Phone Service * B. Control Mobile Access Code
C. Central Mobile Access Control
2. PCS stands for: D. Carrier Mode Attenuation Control
A. Personal Communications Service
B. Personal Communications Systems * 16. The CMAC is used to:
C. Personal Cell phone Service A. control access to the cell site
D. Portable Communications Systems B. set the access code of the cell phone
C. set the transmit power of the cell phone *
3. RCC stands for: D. select the transmit channel for the cell phone
A. Radio Common Carrier *
B. Radio Cellular Carrier 17. In an AMPS system, voice is sent using:
C. Regional Cellular Carrier A. AM C. FSK
D. none of the above B. FM * D. CDMA

4. MSC stands for: 18. In an AMPS system, control-channel signals are sent using:
A. Mobile Switching Center * A. AM C. FSK *
B. Mobile Service Cellular B. FM D. CDMA
C. Maximum Signal Carrier
D. Minimum Signal Carrier 19. The ERP of a typical handheld AMPS cell phone is:
A. less than 600 mW.
5. MTSO stands for: B. less than 600 mW. *
A. Minimum Transmitted Signal Output C. between 1 and 2 watts
B. Maximum Transmitted Signal Output D. 4 watts
C. Mobile Telephone Switching Office *
D. Mobile Transmission Time-Out 20. BSC stands for:
A. Base Station Controller *
6. MIN stands for: B. Base Signal Controller
A. Manual Identification Number C. Basic Service Contract
B. b. Mobile Identification Number * D. Basic Service Code
C. Maximum In-band Noise
D. Minimum In-band Noise 21. The combination of the mobile cell phone and the cell site radio
equipment is called the:
7. NAM stands for: A. BSC C. RF interface
A. Numerical Access Mode B. MTSO D. air interface *
B. Numerical Assignment Mode
C. Number Access Module 22. The optimum cell-site radius is:
D. Number Assignment Module * A. 2 km C. as small as possible
B. 0.5 km D. none of the above *
8. ESN stands for:
A. Electronic Serial Number * 23. Phone traffic is measured in:
B. Emitted Signal Number A. calls
C. Emission Strength Number B. erlangs *
D. none of the above C. number of users
D. number of blocked calls
9. SCM stands for:
A. Service Class Mark 24. One way to increase the capacity of a cell phone system is:
B. Station Class Mark * A. increase the number of cells *
C. Signal Class Mark B. decrease the number of cells
D. Serial-Code Mode C. increase the ERP
D. decrease the ERP
10. SCM identifies the:
A. code number of a cell phone 25. CDPD stands for:
B. base-station class A. Code-Division Packet Data
C. signal classification (analog or digital) B. Cellular Digital Packet Data *
D. maximum power level of a cell phone * C. Coded Digital Packet Data
D. Cellular Digital Pulse Data
11. SID stands for:
A. Sequential Interrupt Demand
B. Standard Identification Number
C. System Identification Number * COMPLETION
D. Signal Intensity Descriptor
1. AMPS uses the _________-MHz band.
12. The SID is used by a cell phone to: A. 344 C. 234
A. identify the type of system (analog or digital) B. 800 * D. 545
B. recognize an AMPS system
C. set its transmitted power level 2. _____________ is still the most common cellular phone system in
D. recognize that it is "roaming" * North America.
A. OHMS C. WATTS
13. DCC stands for: B. AMPS * D. VOLTS
A. Digital Color Code *
B. Digital Communications Code 3. Frequency ____________________ is what makes cellular phone
C. Digital Communications Carrier systems complex.
D. Direct Channel Code A. reuse * C. recycle
B. reduce D. repurpose
14. SAT stands for:
A. Station Antenna Tower
EST Electronic Communications Systems 2e; Roy Blake EST

4. A ___________ occurs when an in-use cell-phone moves from one cell C. None of the above.
site to another. D. Both A and B are correct.
A. handoff * C. running
B. handin D. jumping 2. If a 28.8-kbps modem is being used over a cell phone, how many words
of text would be lost during a 100-msec handoff interruption assuming
5. If a cell-site radius drops below ________ km, handoffs will occur too 10 bits per letter and 5 letters per word?
frequently. A. 35.4 C. 13.2
A. 0.5 * C. 1.5 B. 57.6 * D. 67.8
B. 1 D. 2.5
3. A certain cell site contains 200 cell phones. The probability that a given
6. The number of ERP classes in AMPS is ____. cell phone is being used is 15%. What is the traffic in erlangs?
A. one C. six A. 30 * C. 60
B. three * D. two B. 50 D. 100

7. A cell phone permanently installed in a car would be ERP class 4. What is "trunking gain"?
_______. A. Trunking gain is the profit earned by telecom companies from
A. one * C. six leasing out their communication trunks.
B. three D. two B. Trunking gain is the additional bandwidth obtained by using
multiple network cables instead of one.
8. The maximum ERP of class III cell phones is ______. C. For a given probability of being blocked, the maximum allowable
A. 300 mW C. 400 mW traffic per channel increases as the number of channels increases. *
B. 600 mW * D. 200 mW D. Trunking gain is the increase in signal strength achieved by using a
more powerful antenna.
9. A portable, handheld cell phone would be ERP class _________.
A. II C. IV
B. I D. III *

10. Mobile transmitter power is controlled by the ________________.

A. water station C. air station
B. land station * D. space station

11. A MAC is a mobile ___________ code.

A. attenuation * C. radiation
B. reflection D. refraction

12. For security, you should always assume that AMPS transmissions are
_________.
A. private C. natural
B. public * D. digital

13. A mobile switching center is also called an ___________.

A. STMO C. OTSM
B. TSMO D. MTSO *

14. The optimum size of a cell site depends on the amount of

____________________.
A. section C. stop
B. skip D. traffic *

15. Telephone call traffic is measured in ______.

A. sound C. erlangs *
B. data D. distance

16. A cell phone moving into a site with no available frequencies will have
a _______ call.
A. float C. skip
B. dropped * D. jump

17. The reduction in cell size to increase traffic is called cell

_______________.
A. splitting * C. skipping
B. mixing D. collision

18. A ____________ site is a very small unit that can mount on a

streetlight pole.
A. macrocell C. gigacell
B. microcell * D. ultracell

19. Very small cells called _____________ are used for reliable indoor
reception.
A. microcells C. megacells
B. picocells * D. ultracells

20. Compared with AMPS, digital cellular phones require

______________ bandwidth.
A. greater C. tall
B. wide D. less *

SHORT ANSWER

1. Give two reasons why digital cell phone systems are more secure than
analog cell phone systems.
A. Digital is inherently more secure because of its format.
B. Digitized voice signals are easily encrypted.
EST Electronic Communications Systems 2e; Roy Blake EST

Chapter 22: Personal Communications Systems

MULTIPLE CHOICES D. all of the above

1. Current PCS systems are referred to as: 17. IS-136 uses:

A. first-generation A. frequency hopping
B. econd-generation * B. TDMA *
C. third-generation C. CDMA
D. sdigital-generation D. all of the above

2. The frequency band designated for PCS in North America is: 18. In CDMA:
A. 800 MHz C. 1.9 GHz * A. all frequencies are used in all cells *
B. 900 MHz D. 12 GHz B. each cell uses half the available frequencies
C. each cell is assigned a frequency by the base
3. The "forward" PCS channel is: D. the frequency is selected by the mobile phone
A. from the base to the mobile *
B. from the mobile to the base 19. CDMA uses a set of PN sequences that are:
C. from mobile to mobile A. common C. rotating
D. same as the uplink B. unique D. orthogonal *

4. Compared to AMPS, PCS cell sites are: 20. The next generation of PCS is expected to have:
A. bigger C. distributed A. faster data rates C. wider roaming area
B. smaller * D. higher-power B. Internet access D. all of the above *

5. AMPS was designed for:

A. POTS
B. voice COMPLETION
C. use built into an automobile
D. all of the above * 1. PCS stands for _________ Communications System.
A. Public C. Palace
6. The number of competing PCS systems in North America is: B. Personal * D. Private
A. 2 C. 4
B. 3 * D. many 2. Current PCS systems are called ____________________-generation
systems.
7. CDMA technology was invented by: A. third C. first
A. AT&T C. Bell Labs B. second * D. fourth
B. Lucent D. Qualcomm *
3. In North America, PCS is assigned the ____________________-MHz
8. GSM is used in: band.
A. Asia C. North America A. 1899 C. 1999
B. Europe D. all of the above * B. 1800 D. 1900 *

9. In GSM, voice channels are called: 4. Compared to AMPS, PCS cells are ____________________ in size.
A. traffic channels * C. bearer channels A. bigger C. larger
B. voice channels D. talking channels B. smaller * D. wider

10. AMPS uses: 5. Besides TDMA and CDMA, ____________________ is also used in
A. CDMA C. spread-spectrum North America for PCS.
B. TDMA D. none of the above * A. GSM * C. SMG
B. MSG D. GMS
11. Other things being equal, battery life in a GSM phone should be:
A. less than in a TDMA phone 6. The spread-spectrum technique used in IS-95 PCS is
B. no better than in an AMPS phone ____________________.
C. greater than in a TDMA phone * A. direct sequence C. both A and B *
D. no better than a TDMA phone B. CDMA D. none of the above

12. It is necessary to send control information on traffic channels in: 7. The spread-spectrum technique used in GSM is
A. no PCS system C. TDMA only _________________________.
B. GSM only D. both GSM & TDMA * A. data running C. skipping
B. frequency hopping * D. jumping
13. GSM uses:
A. frequency hopping * 8. Unlike AMPS, CDMA allows for a ____________________ handoff.
B. direct-sequence modulation A. hard C. lump
C. CDMA B. soft * D. data
D. all of the above
9. The orthogonal PN sequences used in CDMA are called a
14. In GSM, SIM stands for: ____________________ code.
A. Short Inbound Message A. Walsh * C. Space
B. Subscriber-Initiated Message B. Bit D. Java
C. Subscriber ID Module *
D. Subscriber ID Method 10. Unlike other systems, in CDMA ___________ frequencies are used in
all cells.
15. IMSI stands for: A. none C. 12
A. Integrated Mobile Subscriber Identification B. all * D. 7
B. International Mobile Subscriber Identification *
C. Interim Mobile Subscriber Identification 11. PN stands for Pseudo-___________ Noise.
D. Intermodulation System Interference A. random * C. error
B. even D. legendary
16. IS-95 uses:
A. frequency hopping 12. ____________________ diversity is inherent in any spread-spectrum
B. TDMA system.
C. CDMA * A. Source C. Data
EST Electronic Communications Systems 2e; Roy Blake EST

B. Signal D. Frequency * 6. Why would a battery in a GSM phone be expected to last longer than a
battery in a TDMA phone?
13. RF channel S/N ratios ___________ than zero are typical in CDMA A. A TDMA phone is active during one out of every three time slots.
systems. B. A GSM phone is active during one out of every eight.
A. wider C. greater C. Both A and B are correct. *
B. longer D. less * D. None of the above.

14. CDMA uses a ___________-rate vocoder. 7. What is the advantage of using offset QPSK over standard QPSK?
A. section C. skip A. With standard QPSK, the transmitted power repeatedly goes to zero.
B. hop D. variable * B. With offset QPSK, it never goes to zero. Linearity requirements are
less strict for offset QPSK transmitters.
15. A phone user typically talks less than _____% of the time during a C. Both A and B are correct. *
conversation. D. None of the above.
A. 20 C. 25
B. 50 * D. 40 8. What is the "near/far" effect in CDMA, and what causes it?
A. A stronger station farther away can "drown out" a weaker station
16. CDMA requires _______-loop power control to work properly. that is near.
A. open C. cut B. This happens when the power transmitted by mobile units is not
B. closed * D. jump well controlled by the base. *
C. Both A and B are correct.
17. GPRS stands for General ____ Radio Service.
A. Purpose C. Palace
B. Packet * D. Plump

18. IMT stands for International ____________Telecommunications.

A. Mobile * C. Money
B. Microprocessor D. Multipurpose

19. UPT stands for ____________________ Personal

Telecommunications.
A. Universal * C. Unicorn
B. Uniformed D. Uber

20. UWT stands for Universal ___________ Telecommunications.

A. Wideband C. World
B. Wonder D. Wireless *

21. W-CDMA stands for ___________ CDMA.

A. Wonder C. World
B. Wireless D. Wideband *

SHORT ANSWER

1. What is the advantage of a "soft" handoff?

A. No calls are dropped. *
B. 3 calls are dropped.
C. 6 calls are dropped.
D. 9 calls are dropped.

2. If CDMA receivers hear all frequencies all the time, how do they pick a
specific frequency?
A. Each frequency is modulated using a separate orthogonal PN
sequence.
B. To demodulate, the receiver use the PN sequence specific to the
channel it wants.
C. Both A and B are correct. *
D. None of the above

3. What is the effect of cochannel interference in CDMA?

A. It increases the background noise level, but CDMA can tolerate a lot
of such noise. *
B. It decreases the background noise level, but MCDA can tolerate a
lot of such noise.
C. It increases the background data level, but MCDA can tolerate a lot
of such noise.
D. It decreases the background data level, but CDMA can tolerate a lot
of such noise.

4. How does GSM achieve frequency diversity?

A. It uses unlimited frequency hopping.
B. It uses limited frequency hopping. *
C. It uses limited frequency walking.
D. It uses unlimited frequency running.

5. Why was PCS assigned to 1.9 GHz instead of the 800-MHz band used
for AMPS?
A. The 800 MHz band was already overcrowded. *
B. The 900 MHz band was not overcrowded.
C. The 400 MHz band was already overcrowded.
D. The 700 MHz band was not overcrowded.
EST Electronic Communications Systems 2e; Roy Blake EST

Chapter 23: Paging and Wireless Data Networking

MULTIPLE CHOICES A. 10 cm to 1 meter
B. 10 cm to 10 meters *
1. Pagers use: C. 10 cm to 100 meters
A. the VHF band only D. within 10 feet
B. the UHF band only
C. both the VHF and UHF bands * 17. IRDA stands for:
D. the VHF band, the UHF band, and the ISM band A. Infrared Data Association *
B. Infrared Digital Association
2. ISM stands for: C. Infrared Restricted Data Area
A. IEEE Standard Message D. Infrared Roaming Data Area
B. IEEE Secure Message
C. Industrial, Scientific, and Messaging 18. The range of an IRDA system is:
D. Industrial, Scientific, and Medical * A. 1 meter * C. 1 foot
B. 10 meters D. 10 feet
3. CAPCODE is:
A. an encryption scheme used for pagers 19. Infrared networks:
B. an addressing scheme used for pagers * A. cannot penetrate walls
C. an error-detection scheme used for pagers B. can use diffused infrared beams
D. a digital modulation scheme used for pagers C. can use reflected infrared beams
D. all of the above *
4. In a one-way pager system:
A. all pages are sent from all transmitters 20. The maximum range of a typical wireless modem is:
B. each transmitting antenna covers a wide area A. 1 meter
C. transmitters use relatively high power B. several meters
D. all of the above * C. several hundred meters
D. several thousand meters. *
5. POCSAG stands for:
A. Pager Operations Common Standards Advisory Group
B. Pager Operations Code Standardization Advisory Group
C. Post Office Code Standardization Advisory Group * COMPLETION
D. Post Office Common Standards Advisory Group
1. Each pager has a unique address called a ____________________.
6. A typical pager system does not: A. data C. bit
A. require "handoffs" * B. capcode * D. antenna
B. allow "roaming"
C. require error detection 2. Many pagers can share a frequency using ____________________.
D. all of the above A. TDMA * C. DTAM
B. MADT D. TAMD
7. The IEEE specification covering wireless LANs is:
A. 802.10 C. 802.12 3. The POCSAG was devised by the British ____________________
B. 802.11 * D. 802.13 Office.
A. Post * C. Trade
8. The IEEE 802 spec for wireless LANs uses the: B. Government D. Labor
A. VHF band C. ISM band *
B. UHF band D. infrared band 4. A POCSAG message uses a ____________________-bit error
correction code.
9. The IEEE 802 document for wireless LANs specifies the use of: A. 10 * C. 20
A. CSMA/CA * C. CDMA B. 15 D. 25
B. CSMA/CD D. all of the above
5. IEEE ____________________ covers wireless LANs.
10. BSS stands for: A. 802.11 * C. 576.11
A. Basic Service Set * B. 354.11 D. 456.11
B. Basic Service System
C. Bluetooth Service System 6. The IEEE document specifies a maximum power of ____________ for
D. none of the above wireless LANs.
A. 4 watts C. 3 watts
11. Bluetooth uses: B. 2 watts D. 1 watt *
A. CDMA
B. frequency hopping * 7. Bluetooth uses the _____________ band.
C. QPSK A. MSI C. SIM
D. all of the above B. MIS D. ISM *

12. Bluetooth uses the: 8. A network of 2 to 8 Bluetooth devices is called a

A. VHF band C. ISM band * ____________________.
B. UHF band D. infrared band A. meganet C. micronet
B. macronet D. piconet *
13. TDD stands for:
A. Time-Division Duplex * 9. A Bluetooth scatternet consists of 2 or more ____________________.
B. Time-Delayed Duplex A. meganets C. micronets
C. Time Delay Difference B. macronets D. piconets *
D. Total Distance Delay
10. An IRDA system is deliberately restricted to a range of
14. A Bluetooth "piconet" has: ____________________.
A. 2 nodes C. 2 to 8 nodes * A. 2 m C. 5 m
B. 2 to 4 nodes D. 2 to 16 nodes B. 1 m * D. 8 m

15. Two or more connected piconets forms a:

A. micronet C. TDD net
B. multinet D. scatternet *

16. The basic range of a Bluetooth device is:

EST Electronic Communications Systems 2e; Roy Blake EST

Chapter 24: Fiber Optics

MULTIPLE CHOICES B. reflection * D. reformation

1. Compared to the core, the index of refraction of the cladding must be: 2. The core is surrounded by the ____________.
A. the same A. vulcanizing C. data
B. greater B. cladding * D. space
C. less *
D. doesn't have an index of refraction 3. The ____________________ angle is where refraction changes to
reflection.
2. Fiber-optic cables do not: A. radiation C. refraction
A. carry current C. generate EMI B. reflection D. critical *
B. cause crosstalk D. all of the above *
4. An electron-volt is a measure of __________.
3. Single-mode fiber is made from: A. energy * C. height
A. glass * C. both a and b B. distance D. weight
B. plastic D. none of the above
5. The numerical aperture is the ________ of the angle of acceptance.
4. Fiber-optic cable cannot be used: A. section C. critical point
A. in an explosive environment B. sine * D. reflection
B. to connect a transmitter to an antenna *
C. to isolate a medical patient from a shock hazard 6. Optical fiber relies on total _______ reflection.
D. none of the above A. ground C. skin
B. internal * D. external
5. A single-mode cable does not suffer from:
A. modal dispersion * 7. Chromatic dispersion is also called ____________________
B. chromatic dispersion dispersion.
C. waveguide dispersion A. intramodal * C. intromodal
D. all of the above B. multimodal D. inmodal

6. Scattering causes: 8. With optical fiber, _________________ light is more common than
A. loss * visible light.
B. dispersion A. infrared * C. x-ray
C. intersymbol interference B. microwave D. gamma
D. all of the above
9. In multimode fiber, __________ index has less dispersion than step
7. The loss in single-mode fiber-optic cable due to the glass is about: index.
A. 40 dB per km C. 0.4 dB per km * A. upgrade C. block
B. 4 dB per km D. zero loss B. ungraded D. graded *

8. The loss in single-mode fiber-optic cable due to a splice is about: 10. For laser diodes, the term _________ is used instead of bandwidth.
A. 0.02 dB * C. 1 dB A. data C. bandwidth
B. 0.2 db D. 3 dB B. line D. linewidth *

9. The loss in single-mode fiber-optic cable due to a connector is about: 11. Dispersion can be expressed in units of _____________ rather than
A. 0.02 dB C. 1 dB bandwidth.
B. 0.2 db * D. 3 dB A. time * C. height
B. area D. weight
10. Which of the following is a type of fiber connector:
A. ST C. SMA 12. ____________________ interference is when one pulse merges with
B. SC D. all of the above * the next pulse.
A. Intersymbol * C. Interbit
11. The quantum of light is called: B. Outersymbol D. Outerbit
A. an erg C. a photon *
B. an e-v D. a phonon 13. The optical fiber is free to move around in a ____________________
cable.
12. LASER stands for: A. Fiber optics C. loose-tube *
A. Light Amplification by Simulated Emission of Radiation B. coaxial D. open-tube
B. Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation *
C. Light Amplification by Simulated Emitted Rays 14. The optical fiber is not free to move around in a
D. Light Amplification by Stimulated Emitted Rays ____________________ cable.
A. Long buffer C. small buffer
13. APD stands for: B. tight-buffer * D. wide buffer
A. Avalanche Photodiode *
B. Advanced Photodiode 15. A _______________ is a short length of fiber that carries the light
C. Avalanche Photo Detector away from the source.
D. Advanced Photo Detector A. glass C. conductor
B. pigtail * D. rattail
14. In a PIN diode, leakage current in the absence of light is called:
A. baseline current C. dark current * 16. Good connections are more critical with _________________-mode
B. zero-point current D. E-H current fiber.
A. Single * C. Triple
15. For a light detector, responsivity is measured in: B. Double D. Quadruple
A. amps per watt * C. mA per joule
B. mW per amp D. msec per mW 17. A ________________ diode is the usual light source for single-mode
cable.
A. capacitor C. PIN
B. resistor D. laser *
COMPLETION
18. The quantum of light is called the _________.
1. In the core, the angle of incidence equals the angle of A. digital C. graphic
____________________. B. photon * D. virtual
A. refraction C. radiation
EST Electronic Communications Systems 2e; Roy Blake EST

19. A ___________ diode is the usual light detector for single-mode cable.
A. PIN * C. capacitor
B. laser D. resistor

20. For safety, you should never ___________ at the end of an optical fiber
unless you know it is not connected to a light source.
A. section C. skip
B. hop D. look *
EST Electronic Communications Systems 2e; Roy Blake EST

Chapter 25: Fiber-Optic Systems

MULTIPLE CHOICES B. FTTC * D. SONET

1. FDDI stands for: COMPLETION

A. Fiber Digital Data Interface
B. Fiber Distributed Data Interface * 1. FTTC stands for Fiber To The ___________.
C. Fiber Distribution Delay Interface A. City C. Country
D. Frequency-Division Data Interface B. Curb * D. Coliseum

2. FITL stands for: 2. FITL stands for Fiber In The ____________.

A. Fiber In The Loop * A. Lake C. Land
B. Fiber Input Timing Loss B. Laplace D. Loop*
C. Frequency Input to The Loop
D. Fiber Input Timing Loop 3. SDH stands for Synchronous Data _______.
A. Harmony C. Helper
3. FTTC stands for: B. Hierarchy * D. Housing
A. Fiber Transmission Timing Constraint
B. Fiber Transmission Technology Committee 4. WDM stands for ______-division multiplexing.
C. Fiber Telephone Transmission Cable A. Watts C. World
D. Fiber To The Curb * B. Washington D. Wavelength *

4. SONET stands for: 5. SONET stands for ________ Optical Network.

A. Simple Optical Network A. Synchronous * C. Space
B. Standard Optical Network B. Signal D. Sound
C. Synchronous Optical Network *
D. none of the above 6. FDDI stands for Fiber _______ Data Interface.
A. Disaster C. Decoding
5. DWDM stands for: B. Dumb D. Distributed *
A. Digital Wavelength-Division Modulation
B. Dense Wavelength-Division Modulation 7. Optical amplifiers use ______-doped glass.
C. Double Wavelength-Division Modulation A. tempered C. molten
D. Dense Wavelength-Division Multiplexing * B. erbium * D. recycle

6. A Soliton is a: 8. Optical amplifiers use a ________ laser.

A. defect in the glass A. section C. infrared
B. type of particle B. pump * D. hot
C. type of pulse *
D. type of optical network 9. Dense ____________________ allows many different wavelengths of
light to share a cable.
7. Adding bits to synchronize one digital signal to another is called: A. DWM C. DMW
A. bit stuffing * C. SDH B. WMD D. WDM *
B. bit-synch D. WDM
10. The OC-1 line rate is __________ Mbps.
8. Power above the minimum required by an optical receiver is called: A. 23.56 C. 56.87
A. gain margin C. excess gain B. 51.84 * D. 89.43
B. system margin * D. overdrive
11. SONET does not use bit _________ to synchronize two digital signals.
9. Typically, repeaters are not required for fiber-optic cable lengths up to: A. stuffing * C. skipping
A. 1000 miles C. 100 km * B. stopping D. jumping
B. 100 miles D. 10 km
12. SONET uses a ____________________ to denote the starting position
10. In SONET, OC-1 stands for: of an information frame.
A. Optical Carrier level one * A. conductor C. resistor
B. Optical Coupler unidirectional B. pointer * D. capacitor
C. Optical Channel one
D. Optical Cable type 1 13. FDDI systems use two ______ rings to carry signals.
A. gold C. silver
11. In SONET, STS stands for: B. token * D. copper
A. Synchronous Transport Signal *
B. Synchronous Transport System 14. The two rings of an FDDI system carry data in
C. Synchronous Transmission Signal ____________________ directions.
D. Synchronous Transmission System A. direct C. two
B. opposite * D. multi
12. A commonly used fiber-based system for LANs is:
A. FDDI 15. Each ____________________ in an FDDI system acts as a
B. high-speed Ethernet regenerative repeater.
C. gigabit Ethernet A. capacitor C. diode
D. all of the above* B. resistor D. node *

13. The use of solitons on fiber-optic cables is: 16. FDDI uses _____________ mode cables.
A. common C. obsolete A. opposite C. two
B. experimental * D. not possible B. direct D. multi *

14. OTDR stands for: 17. The data rate of an FDDI system is ____ bps.
A. Optical Time-Delay Response A. 500 M C. 444 M
B. Optical Timing Delay Requirement B. 777 M D. 100 M *
C. Optical Time-Domain Reflectometer *
D. Optical Time-Division Relay 18. SONET frames have considerably more ____________________ than
do DS frames for information about signal routing and setup.
15. Using fiber-optic cable in a telephone system except for the connection A. wider C. underhead
to the subscriber's phone is called: B. lower D. overhead *
A. FDDI C. FITL
EST Electronic Communications Systems 2e; Roy Blake EST

19. The number of bytes in a SONET frame is __.

A. 740 C. 840
B. 710 D. 810 *

20. The number of bytes in the payload of a SONET frame is

_______________.
A. 324 C. 984
B. 774 * D. 864

21. The number of rows in a SONET frame is ___.

A. 9 * C. 4
B. 2 D. 6

22. The total number of overhead bytes in a SONET frame row is

______________.
A. 9 C. 4*
B. 2 D. 6

23. The number of path overhead bytes in a SONET frame row is

__________.
A. 3 C. 4
B. 1 * D. 2

24. SONET frame rows contain path overhead and

____________________ overhead.
A. transport * C. skip
B. run D. jump

25. In SONET, SPE stands for synchronous payload

____________________.
A. equivalent C. estimation
B. equation D. envelope *

SHORT ANSWER

1. What is the bandwidth of a first-order LPF with a rise time of 350

nanoseconds?
A. 1 MHz * C. 7 MHz
B. 3 MHz D. 9 MHz

2. Calculate the total rise time for a fiber-optic system if the transmitter,
receiver, and cable each have a rise time of 50 nanoseconds.
A. 23.6 nanoseconds C. 46.6 nanoseconds
B. 86.6 nanoseconds * D. 56.6 nanoseconds