10th Physics Full Book Notes (1)
10th Physics Full Book Notes (1)
Ch#10
Encircle the Correct Option.
1) Any distance of the vibrating body frommean d) 2.99s
position is called as: 9) The frequency of the simple pendulum 1.0mlong
a) Time period is:
b) Frequency a) 1.56Hz
c) Amplitude b) 2.56Hz
d) Displacement c) 0.50Hz
2) The maximum displacement on either side ofthe d) 2.99Hz
mean position is called as 10) Simple harmonic motion occurs when thenet
a) Time period force is to the displacement.
b) Frequency a) Inversly Proportional
c) Amplitude b) Directly proportional
d) Displacement c) Equal
3) The time to complete one vibration is called d) None of these
a) Time period 11) In simple harmonic motion the net force isalways
b) Frequency directed towards position.
c) Amplitude a) Initial
d) Displacement b) Extreme
4) The number of vibrations of vibrating body inone c) Mean
second is called as d) None of these
a) Time period 12) The waves which require any medium fortheir
b) Frequency propagation are called:
c) Amplitude a) Mechanical waves
d) Displacement b) Electromagnetic waves
5) Amplitude is denoted by c) Both of these
a) x d) None of these
b) xo 13) The waves in which direction of oscillationsare
c) f direction of propagation of waves are
d) None of these called transverse waves.
6) The to and fro motion of the body about itsmean a) Perpendicular
position is called as b) Parallel
a) Vibrational motion c) Opposite
b) Linear motion d) None of these
c) Translatory motion 14) Longitudinal waves consists of :
d) Circular motion a) Compression
7) The period of pendulum is independent of its b) Rarefaction
a) Length c) Both a and b
b) Mass d) None of these
c) Amplitude 15) Transverse waves consists of
d) Both b and c a) Crest
8) What is the time period of the simple b) Trough
pendulum 1.0m long? c) Both a and b
a) 1.56s d) None of these
b) 1.22s 16) Longitudinal waves moves
c) 1.99s through solids than through liquids and gases.
a) Slower 24) The lowest points from the mean position in
b) Faster transverse waves are called
c) Moderately a) Compression
d) None of these b) Rarefaction
17) Transverse waves moves through solids at aspeed c) Crests
of less than of the speed of d) Troughs
longitudinal waves. 25) The distance between two consecutivecrests
a) Double is called:
b) Same a) Wavelength
c) Half b) Phase
d) Thrice c) Amplitude
18) Water waves and sound waves are an d) Displacement
example of 26) A wave on slinky spring with frequency 4Hzand
a) Mechanical waves wavelength of 0.4m has speed:
b) Electromagnetic waves a) 1.9 m/s
c) Both of these b) 1.6 m/s
d) None of these c) 1.1 m/s
19) X-rays, light waves and radio waves are an d) 0.9 m/s
example of: 27) Ripple tank is a device to produce
a) Mechanical waves and study their characteristics.
b) Electromagnetic waves a) String waves
c) Both of above b) Light waves
d) None of these c) Water waves
20) The waves in which direction of oscillationsof d) None of these
medium are parallel to direction of propagation of 28) The bending and spreading of waves aroundthe
waves are called. sharp edges or corners of obstacles is called:
a) Transverse waves a) Refraction
b) Longitudinal waves b) Reflection
c) Mechanical waves c) Diffraction
d) Electromagnetic waves d) None of these
21) The transfer of energy from sun to earthtakes 29) The process in which waves enter from one
place by means of: medium to second medium at some angle their
a) Longitudinal Waves direction of travel may change is called:
b) Matter a) Refraction
c) Electromagnetic waves b) Reflection
d) Transverse waves c) Diffraction
22) When a bullet is fired from gun then energyis d) None of these
transferred to the target through: 30) Which of the following is the method ofenergy
a) Waves transfer?
b) Matter a) Conduction
c) X-rays b) Radiation
d) None of these c) Wave motion
23) The highest points from the mean positionin d) All of these
transverse waves are called 31) If the mass of the bob of pendulum is
a) Compressions increased by a factor of 3, the period of
b) Rarefactions pendulum motion will:
c) Crests a) Be increased by a factor of 2
d) Troughs
b) Remain same a) Energy
c) Be decreased by a factor of 2 b) Frequency
d) Be decreased by a factor of 4 c) Wavelength
32) If the length of a simple pendulum is d) Velocity
increased 4 times, the period of pendulum 37) Which of the following is a method of
motion will: energy transfer?
a) Be increased by a factor of 2 a) Conduction
b) Remain same b) Radiation
c) Be decreased by a factor of 2 c) Wave motion
d) Be decreased by a factor of 4 d) All of these
33) Which of the following is an example ofsimple 38) In a vacuum all electromagnetic waves havethe
harmonic motion? same
a) Motion of a simple pendulum a) Speed
b) The motion of ceiling fan b) Frequency
c) The spinning of the earth on its axis c) Amplitude
d) A bouncing ball on a floor d) Wavelength
34) If the mass of the bob of a pendulum is 39) A large ripple tank with a vibrator working at a
increased by a factor of 3, the period of the frequency of 30 Hz produces 25 complete waves in a
pendulum’s motion will distance of 50 cm. The velocity of thewave is
a) By increased by a factor of 2 a) 53cms-1
b) Remain same b) 60 cms-1
c) Be decreased by a factor of 2 c) 750 cms-1
d) Be decreased by a factor of 4 d) 1500 cms-1
35) Which of the following devices can be usedto 40) Which of the following characteristics of awave
produce both a transverse and longitudinal wave? is independent of the others
a) A string a) Speed
b) A ripple tank b) Frequency
c) a helical spring (slinky) c) Amplitude
d) A tuning fork d) Wavelength
36) Waves transfer
ch#11
Encircle the Correct Option.
1) Which type of waves produced by tuningfork? b) Electromagnetic
a) Water c) Longitudinal
b) Sound d) None of these
c) Light 4) The speed of sound in air at 0oC is:
d) Matter a) 336 m/s
2) Sound waves are: b) 346 m/s
a) Mechanical c) 313 m/s
b) Electromagnetic d) 364 m/s
c) Transverse 5) The speed of sound in air at 21oC is:
d) None of these a) 331 m/s
3) Light waves are: b) 343 m/s
a) Mechanical c) 313 m/s
d) 364 m/s
6) The speed of sound in air at 100oC is: b) Humidity
a) 331 m/s c) Pressure
b) 346 m/s d) All of these
c) 368 m/s 16) How many times speed of sound waves insolid
d) 386 m/s is grater than in gases?
7) The speed of sound in Hydrogen at 0o C is:a) a) Two
1920m/s b) Five
b) 2290m/s c) Fifteen
c) 1290m/s d) Twenty
d) 364m/s 17) If the amplitude of sound waves is greaterthen
8) The speed of sound in oxygen at 0oC is: what will be the magnitude of loudness?
a) 331 m/s a) Larger
b) 317 m/s b) Smaller
c) 313 m/s c) Moderate
d) 364 m/s d) Equal in magnitude
9) The speed of sound in helium at 0oC is: 18) The loudness of sound is larger if the area of
a) 972 m/s vibrating body is:
b) 2972 m/s a) Smaller
c) 1972 m/s b) Rectangular
d) 3972 m/s c) Larger
10) The speed of sound in sea water at 25oC is:a) d) Circular
3331 m/s 19) If the distance between the listener and
b) 1346 m/s vibrating body is larger then what will be the
c) 1531 m/s loudness of sound?
d) 1764 m/s a) Smaller
11) The speed of sound in brass at 25oC is:a) b) Medium
3331 m/s c) Larger
b) 1346 m/s d) None of these
c) 1531 m/s 20) The value of pitch of sound depends on:
d) 4700 m/s a) Amplitude of body
12) The speed of sound in flint glass at 25oC is:a) b) Area of body
3331 m/s c) Distance of body
b) 1346 m/s d) Frequency of sound waves
c) 3980 m/s 21) The quality of sound waves depends on:
d) 1790 m/s a) Amplitude of body
13) The speed of sound in wood at 25oC is: b) Shape of sound waves
a) 200 m/s c) Distance of body
b) 2000 m/s d) Frequency of sound waves
c) 205 m/s 22) What is the unit of intensity of sound?
d) 1764 m/s a) W/m
14) The speed of sound in distilled water at25oC b) W/m2
is: c) W/m3
a) 3331 m/s d) W
b) 1346 m/s 23) The quality of sound due to which a shrill voice
c) 1948 m/s can be distinguished by a grave voice is called as:
d) 1498 m/s a) Loudness
15) The speed of sound waves depends on the: b) Intensity
a) Temperature
c) Quality a) 100W / m2
d) Pitch b) 1W / m2
24) The intensity of faintest audible sound is: c) Both of above
a) 10-12W/m2 d) None of these
b) 10-10W/m2 33) What is the intensity of sound of lawn
c) 101W/m2 mover?
d) 100W/m2 a) 10-2W /m2
25) 1 bel is equal to: b) 10-5W /m2
a) 10-11W/m2 c) 10-10W /m2
b) 10dB d) 10-6W /m2
c) Both a and b 34) What is the intensity of sound of whisper?a) 10-
2
d) None of these W /m2
26) 1dB is equal to: b) 10-13W /m2
a) 0.01 bel c) 10-9W /m2
b) 0.1 bel d) 10-6W /m2
c) 0.001 bel 35) What is the intensity level of sound of
d) 10-13 W/m2 mosquito buzzing?
27) What is the SI unit of intensity level? a) 10 dB
a) Watt b) 100 dB
b) Watt per meter c) 70 dB
c) Bel d) 40 dB
d) Joule 36) What is the intensity level of sound of
28) What is the maximum frequency of soundwaves jackhammer?
that a human ear can hear? a) 150 dB
a) 20,000Hz b) 130 dB
b) 200Hz c) 100 dB
c) 15000Hz d) 500 dB
d) 20Hz 37) The technique which is used to absorb
29) 100 m amplitude can be related to howmany undesirable sounds by soft and porous surfacesis
decibels? called as:
a) 20dB a) Acoustics
b) 10dB b) Reflection
c) 30dB c) Refraction
d) 40dB d) SONAR
30) The sounds which cast a pleasant effect onour 38) What is the speed of sound at STP?
ears is called as: a) 300m/s
a) Music b) 330m/s
b) Noise c) 360m/s
c) Both a and b d) 390m/s
d) None of these 39) What is the minimum distance between
31) What is the recommended level of noise inmost obstacle and source required to hear echo?
of the countries for an eight hour work day? a) 20 m
a) 85-90 bel b) 30 m
b) 85-90 dB c) 17 m
c) 100 dB d) 27 m
d) 100 bel 40) What is the frequency of a sound wave withspeed
32) What is the intensity of sound of train siren? of 340 m/s and 0.5m wavelength?
a) 660 Hz
b) 670 Hz a) Tuning fork
c) 680 Hz b) Bell jar
d) 690 Hz c) Drum
41) What is the highest frequency of soundwaves d) None of these
that a bat can hear? 49) Which is an example of a longitudinal wave?
a) 120,000 Hz a) Sound wave
b) 150,000 Hz b) Light wave
c) 200,000 Hz c) Radio wave
d) 100, 000 Hz d) Water wave
42) What is the highest audible frequency ofsound 50) How does sound travel from its source toyour
wave for mice? car?
a) 120,000 Hz a) By change in air pressure
b) 150,000 Hz b) By vibrating in wires or strings
c) 200,000 Hz c) By electromagnetic waves
d) 100, 000 Hz d) By infrared waves
43) What is the highest audible frequency ofsound 51) Which form of energy is sound;
wave for dog? a) Electrical
a) 55,000 Hz b) Mechanical
b) 45,000 Hz c) Thermal
c) 65,000 Hz d) Chemical
d) 35,000 Hz 52) Astronauts in space used to communicatewith
44) What is the highest audible frequency ofsound each other by radio links because
wave for cat? a) Sounds waves travel very slowly in space
a) 25,000 Hz b) Sound waves travel very fast in space
b) 45,000 Hz c) Sound waves cannot travel in space
c) 65,000 Hz d) Sound waves have low frequency in space
d) 35,000 Hz 53) The loudness of a sound is most closely
45) The sound waves having frequency greaterthan related to its
20,000 Hz are called: a) Frequency
a) Infrasound b) Period
b) Ultrasounds c) Wavelength
c) Intensity d) Amplitude
d) Quality 54) For a normal person, audible frequencyrange
46) The sound waves having frequency less than20 Hz for sound wave lie between
are called: a) 10 Hz and 10 KHz
a) Infrasound b) 20 Hz and 20 KHz
b) Ultrasounds c) 25 Hz and 25 KHz
c) Intensity d) 30 Hz and 30 KHz
d) Quality 55) When the frequency of a sound wave is increased,
47) What is the audible frequency range?a) 20 which of the following will decrease?
Hz-2000 Hz I) Wavelength II) period
b) 20 Hz-20,000 Hz III) amplitude
c) 20 Hz-200 Hz a) i only
d) 20Hz-200000Hz b) iii only
48) Which device is used to produce soundwaves c) i and ii only
in laboratory? d) i and iii only
ch#12
Encircle the Correct Option.
1) Light is the form of: 9) The mirror which is made up of a part of
a) Energy hollow sphere of glass or plastic is called:
b) Waves a) Spherical mirror
c) Both of above b) Lens
d) None of these c) Microscope
2) Light gives the sensation of: d) Prism
a) Hearing 10) How many types of spherical mirror arethere?
b) Vision a) 1
c) Both of above b) 2
d) None of these c) 3
3) The bouncing back of light in to the same d) 4
medium is called as: 11) The mirror having its inner reflecting surfacecalled
a) Reflection as:
b) Refraction a) Spherical mirror
c) Diffraction b) Convex spherical mirror
d) Vibration c) Concave spherical mirror
4) How many types of reflection are there? d) Plane mirror
a) 3 12) The mirror having its outer reflecting
b) 2 surface called as:
c) 4 a) Spherical mirror
d) 5 b) Convex spherical mirror
5) The reflection of light from smooth surface iscalled c) Concave spherical mirror
as: d) Plane mirror
a) Reflection 13) Which types of image can be formed by
b) Regular reflection concave spherical mirror?
c) Irregular reflection a) Real
d) Smooth reflection b) Virtual
6) The reflection of light from rough surface iscalled c) Both of above
as: d) None of these
a) Reflection 14) Which types of image can be formed by
b) Regular reflection convex spherical mirror?
c) Irregular reflection a) Real
d) Smooth reflection b) Virtual
7) In regular reflection all the reflected rays oflight c) Both of above
remain in: d) None of these
a) One direction 15) The center of hollow sphere, a part of whose
b) Opposite direction surface is used to make spherical mirroris called:
c) Different directions a) Curvature
d) None of these b) Radius of curvature
8) In irregular reflection all the reflected rays oflight c) Focal point
remain in: d) Center of curvature
a) One direction
b) Different direction
c) Opposite direction
d) None of these
16) The radius of hollow sphere, a part of whose d) Center of curvature
surface is used to make spherical mirroris called: 24) What is the sign convention of object
a) Curvature distance for real object?
b) Pole a) Positive
c) Radius of curvature b) Negative
d) Center of curvature c) Both of above
17) The straight line passing through principlefocus d) None of these
and pole of spherical mirror is called: 25) What is the sign convention of object
a) Aperture distance for virtual object?
b) Pole a) Positive
c) Radius of curvature b) Negative
d) Principle axis c) Both of above
18) The central symmetrical point of a sphericalmirror d) None of these
is called: 26) What is the sign convention of image
a) Curvature distance for virtual image?
b) Pole a) Positive
c) Radius of curvature b) Negative
d) Center of curvature c) Both of above
19) Pole of spherical mirror is also called as: d) None of these
a) Aperture 27) What is the sign convention of image
b) Vertex distance for real object?
c) Radius of curvature a) Positive
d) Center of curvature b) Negative
20) The length of straight line which divides the c) Both of above
spherical mirror into two parts is called: d) None of these
a) Aperture 28) The passing of light into another medium iscalled
b) Pole as:
c) Vertex a) Refraction
d) Center of curvature b) Reflection
21) What is the other name of aperture of c) Diffraction
spherical mirror? d) None of these
a) Vertex 29) The angle made by incident ray with normalis
b) Principle focus called as:
c) Radius of curvature a) Angle of reflection
d) Diameter of spherical mirror b) Angle of refraction
22) The distance from pole to principle focus of c) Angle of incidence
spherical mirror is called as its: d) Angle of normal
a) Principle focus 30) The angle made by refracted ray with
b) Principle axis normal is called as:
c) Focal length a) Angle of reflection
d) Canter of curvature b) Angle of refraction
23) The point at which parallel incident rays after c) Angle of incidence
reflection from spherical mirror convergeis called its: d) Angle of normal
a) Principle focus 31) The angle made by reflected ray with
b) Principle axis normal is called as:
c) Focal length a) Angle of reflection
b) Angle of refraction
c) Angle of incidence
d) Angle of normal d) 8
32) When the angle of incidence becomes larger 40) The lenses which try to converge the
than critical angle then it is called as: incident ray are called:
a) Reflection a) Spherical lenses
b) Angle of reflection b) Converging lenses
c) Refraction c) Diverging lenses
d) Total internal reflection d) Convex lens
33) For total internal reflection, angle of 41) The lenses which try to diverge the incidentray
incidence must be than criticalangle. are called:
a) Greater a) Spherical lenses
b) Smaller b) Converging lenses
c) Equal c) Diverging lenses
d) None of these d) Convex lens
34) When angle of reflection becomes 90o thenangle 42) What is the thickness of converging lens as
of incidence is called as: compared to eyes?
a) Internal angle a) Greater
b) Right angle b) Smaller
c) Snell angle c) Equal
d) Critical angle d) None of these
35) The velocity of light in free space is always 43) What is the thickness of diverging lens as
than its velocity inside any other compared to eyes?
medium. a) Greater
a) Greater b) Smaller
b) Smaller c) Equal
c) Equal d) None of these
d) None of these 44) The symmetrical center point of lens iscalled
36) Critical angle is denoted by: as:
a) <C a) Optical center
b) <0 b) Radius of curvature
c) 0 c) Focal point
d) 0c d) Center of curvature
37) Mirage is formed by the process of: 45) Optical center is denoted by:
a) Reflection a) C
b) Angle of reflection b) Oc
c) Refraction c) O
d) Total internal reflection d) None of these
38) The piece of transparent reflecting mediumwhose 46) The distance from optical center to principlefocus
boundary surface has some part of spherical shape is of a lens is called as it:
called: a) Principle focus
a) Spherical mirror b) Principle axis
b) Lens c) Focal length
c) Microscope d) Center of curvature
d) Prism 47) The power of the lens is the reciprocal of its:
39) How many types of lenses are there? a) Principle focus
a) 2 b) Focal length
b) 4 c) Optical length
c) 6 d) Center of curvature
48) What is the SI unit of power of lens?
a) Watt c) Central layer
b) Diopter d) All of above
c) Micro watt 57) The central layer of optical fiber core has:
d) None of these a) Low refractive index
49) Which symbol is used to represent diopter? b) High refractive index
a) D c) Unity refractive index
b) Dop d) No refractive index
c) d 58) The covering of core is called:
d) None of these a) Core
50) What is the sign convention of object distance, b) Cladding
when object is on right side of lens ? c) Central layer
a) Positive d) All of above
b) Negative 59) In optical fibers, which type of signal is usedto
c) Both of above transmit information form end to another?
d) None of these a) Light signals
51) What is the sign convention of image distance b) Electrical signal
for real image on sight side of lens ? c) Electronic signal
a) Positive d) All of above
b) Negative 60) The refractive index of cladding is:
c) Both of above a) High
d) None of these b) Unity
52) For lens, what is the sign convention ofimage c) Zero
distance for real object: d) Low
a) Positive 61) Which type of material is used to make coreand
b) Negative cladding?
c) Both of above a) Glass
d) None of these b) Silicon
53) Which type of image can be formed by c) Carbon
camera? d) All of above
a) Real 62) If a large number of optical fibers are
b) Inverted bonded then it is called as:
c) Diminished a) Endoscope
d) All of above b) Fiber optics
54) Which type of image can be formed by slide c) Light pipe
projector? d) All of above
a) Real 63) Which instrument is used to see small
b) Small objects?
c) virtual a) Simple microscope
d) All of above b) Fiber optics
55) In camera the distance between the lensand c) Central layer
film is equal to the: d) All of above
a) Power of lens 64) Light enters the eye through the
b) Optical center transparent membrane called:
c) Focal length of lens a) Iris
d) All of above b) Cornea
56) The central part of optical fiber is called: c) Retina
a) Core d) Lens
b) Cladding 65) The opening at the center of iris is called:
a) Pupil a) The focal length
b) Cornea b) The speed of light
c) Retina c) The image distance
d) Lens d) The object distance
66) What is the near point distance for normaleye? 72) Which type of image is formed by a concavelens
a) 35 cm on a screen?
b) 50 cm a) Inverted and real
c) 25 cm b) Inverted and virtual
d) 40 cm c) Upright and real
67) Which of the following quantities is not d) Upright and virtual
changed during refraction of light? 73) Which type of image is produce the
a) Its direction converging lens of human eye of it views a
b) Its speed distant object? by
c) Its frequency a) Real, erect and same size
d) Its wavelength b) Real, inverted & diminished
68) A converging mirror with a radius of 20 cm c) Virtual, erect & diminished
creates a real image 30 cm from the mirror. What is d) Virtual, inverted & magnified
the object distance? 74) Image formed on a camera is:
a) -5.0 cm a) Real, inverted and diminished
b) -7.5 cm b) Virtual, upright and diminished
c) -15 cm c) Virtual, upright and magnified
d) -20 cm d) Real, inverted and magnified
69) An object is placed at the center of 75) If a ray of light in glass is incident on an air
curvature of a concave mirror. The image surface at an angle greater than the critical angle,
produced by the mirror is located. the ray will :
a) Out beyond the center of curvature a) Refract only
b) At the centre of curvature b) Reflect only
c) Between the center of curvature and thefocal c) Partially refract and partially reflect
point d) Diffract only
d) At the focal point 76) The critical angle for a beam of light passingfrom
70) An object is 14 cm in front of a convex mirror. water into air is 48.8 degrees. This means that all light
The image is 5.8 cm behind the mirror.What is the rays with an angle of incidence greater than this angle
focal length of the mirror? will be
a) -4.1 cm a) Absorbed
b) -8.2 cm b) Totally reflected
c) -9.9 cm c) Partially reflected and partially transmitted
d) -20 cm d) Totally transmitted
71) The index of refraction depends on
ch#14
Encircle the Correct Option.
1) The rate of flow of charge is called as: 7) The current which flows due to the flow of positive
a) Electric current charges from higher potential to lowerpotential of
b) Conventional current battery is called:
c) Both of above a) Electric current
d) None of these b) Conventional current
2) SI unit of current is : c) Both of above
a) Faraday d) None of these
b) Volt 8) Galvanometer is used to detect
c) Ampere a) Electric current
d) Electron volt b) Electric potential
3) If one coulomb charges flow through any cross c) Both of above
section area of wore in one second thencurrent is d) None of these
said to be: 9) Ammeter is used to detect and measure
a) One faraday a) Electric current
b) One ampere b) Electric potential
c) One volt c) Both of above
d) None of these d) None of these
4) If Q denotes the amount of charge flow 10) In which combination galvanometer and
through any cross section in time ‘t’ then valueof ammeter always connected
current I is given by: a) Series combination
a) Q = It b) Parallel combination
b) I = Qt c) Both of above
c) t = Ql d) None of these
d) None of these 11) Galvanometer is used to detect electric
5) If 0.5 C charge passes through a wire in 10secthen current of the range
what will be the value of current flowing through it? a) Large current
a) 5 A b) Amperes
b) 5 mA c) Few milliamperes
c) 0.5 mA d) None of these
d) 0.5 A 12) Ammeter is used to measure and detect
6) How does it take a current of 10 mA to current range of
deliver 30C of charge? a) 1 A
a) 50 sec b) 10 a
b) 50 mA c) 100 A
c) 50 min d) 1A 10A
d) 5 sec 13) SI unit of electric potential is:
a) Faraday
b) Volt
c) Ampere
d) Electron volt b) Voltage
14) Potential difference across any resistancecan be c) Electric potential
measured by using: d) Resistance
a) Ammeter 22) SI unit of resistance are called as:
b) Voltmeter a) Volt
c) Galvanometer b) Ohms
d) Electron volt c) Faraday
15) Voltmeter is always connected in; d) Electron volt
a) Series combination 23) If a potential difference of one volt across the
b) Parallel combination conductor produces an electric current of one
c) Both of above ampere then resistance is said to be one;
d) None of these a) Volt
16) The energy supplied by a battery to a unit b) Ampere
charge when it flows through the electrical circuits c) eV
is called : d) ohm
a) Electric potential 24) the materials which have constant
b) Electric current resistance over a wide range is called as:
c) Emf a) ohmic conductors
d) Conventional current b) non-ohmic conductors
17) SI unit of emf is: c) conductors
a) Volt d) insulators
b) j/c 25) the material whose resistance changes with
c) both of above voltage is called as:
d) none of these a) ohmic conductors
18) the energy converted from non-electrical forms b) non-ohmic conductors
to electrical form when one coulomb ofpositive c) semiconductors
charge passes through the battery is called as; d) insulators
a) electric potential 26) filament of bulb and semiconductors are an
b) EMF example of
c) Electric current a) ohmic conductors
d) Conventional current b) conductors
19) EMF can be measured by using: c) non-ohmic conductors
a) Voltmeter d) insulators
b) Ammeter 27) what is the effect on resistance of thermistor
c) Galvanometer with the decrease in temperature?
d) None of these a) Increases
20) According to ohm’s law the relationship b) Decreases
between voltage across any resistance and c) Remain same
current is d) None of these
a) Directly proportional 28) The resistance of a conductor of resistanceof
b) Inversely proportional conductor and its length
c) Equals a) Directly proportional
d) None of these b) Inversely proportional
21) The property of substance which offers c) Equals
opposition to the flow of current through is called d) None of these
as; 29) The resistance of a conductor of unit lengthand of
a) Current unit area of cross section is called:
a) Resistance
b) Resistivity 37) If a number of resistance are connected in such a
c) Specific resistance way that there is only one path to flow the current
d) Both a and b then such combination is called as:
30) Reading on a voltmeter connected across a a) Short circuited
heating element 60v. the amount of current passing b) Parallel combination
through the heating element is 2A. theresistance of c) Open circuited
heating element will be: d) Series combination
a) 30V 38) If a number of resistance are connected in such a
b) 30Ω way that there that there are more thanone path to
c) 300V flow the current then such combination is called as:
d) 300 Ω a) Short circuited
31) SI unit of specific resistance is : b) Parallel combination
a) Ohm-meter c) Open circuited
b) Meter d) Series combination
c) Ohm 39) In series combination the current throughall
d) Volt individuals remains:
32) The resistivity of conductor depends upon; a) Same
a) Nature of conductor b) Different
b) Temperature of conductor c) Equals to total current
c) Both of above d) None of these
d) None of these 40) In parallel combination the voltage throughall
33) If the length of copper wire is 1 meter and its individuals remains:
diameter of conductor the resistance of thiscopper a) Same
wire will be b) Different
a) 1.54 × 10-4 Ω c) Equals to total current
b) 0.64 × 10-3 Ω d) None of these
c) 0.54 × 10-3 Ω 41) The amount of energy supplied by currentin unit
d) 0.54 × 10-2 Ω time is known as:
34) The materials which offer low resistance topass a) Electric power
current through them are called as: b) Electric potential
a) Semiconductors c) Electric current
b) Insulators d) None of these
c) Conductors 42) SI unit of electric power is:
d) None of these a) Watt b) j/s
35) The materials which offer high resistanceand c) both of above
negligible current to passes through are called as: d) none of these
a) Semiconductors 43) 1kwh is equal to:
b) Insulators a) 36 × 106 j
c) Conductors b) 3.6 × 106 j
d) None of these c) 0.36 × 106 j
36) Rubber, glass and wood are good examplesof d) None of these
a) Semiconductors 44) The current which does not changes is
b) Insulators direction of flow is known as:
c) Conductors a) Electric current
d) None of these b) Direct current
c) Alternating current
d) None of these
45) The current which changes its direction offlow b) High electric potential
after regular intervals of time is know as; c) Low electric potential
a) Electric current d) No electric current
b) Direct current 54) The resistance of dry human skin is about:
c) Alternating current a) 100Ω
d) None of these b) 100000 Ω
46) The frequency for alternating current in c) 1000 Ω
Pakistan is: d) 10000 Ω
a) 5Hz 55) In which combination fuse is connected tolie
b) 15Hz wire:
c) 25Hz a) Series combination
d) 50Hz b) Parallel combination
47) The supply of electricity in houses is done byusing: c) Open circuited
a) Single phase supply d) Short circuited
b) Double phase supply 56) If three resistance of 6 Ω are connected in parallel
c) Three phase supply then what will be equivalent resistance
d) None of these a) 12Ω
48) In houses, the potential difference betweenlive b) 2 Ω
and neutral wire is: c) 38 Ω
a) 120A d) 5 Ω
b) 110A 57) Electrical power can be given by:
c) 220A a) P = VI
d) 210A b) P – V2R
49) The fuses of main box rated at current of : c) P = I2/R
a) 3A d) All of above
b) 13A 58) All the household appliances are connectedin:
c) 300A a) Series combination
d) 30A b) Parallel combination
50) The electric potential that a live wire has: c) Open circuited
a) Alternating d) Short circuited
b) Direct 59) A current of 3mA flowing through a wire for
c) Zero 1minute . what is the charge flowing through the
d) Grounded wire?
51) Which color of insulator is used for coveringof live a) 180mC
wire: b) 180C
a) Alternating c) 180A
b) Direct d) 180F
c) Zero 60) Which instrument is used to detect and
d) Grounded measure electric current?
52) Which color of insulator is used for coveringof a) Ammeter
neutral wire: b) Galvanometer
a) Grey c) Voltmeter
b) Blue d) Both a and b
c) Brown 61) Voltmeter is used to detect and measure:
d) Red a) Resistance
53) Earth and ground wires carry; b) Potential difference
a) High electric current c) Electric current
d) Capacitance 68) why should household appliances be connected in
62) If there are number of resistor connected inseries parallel with the voltage sourece?
then each resistor has; a) To increase the resistance of the circuit
a) Same voltage b) To decrease the resistance of the circuit
b) Different voltage c) To provide each appliance the same voltageas the
c) Same current power source
d) Different current d) To provide each appliance the same currentas the
63) What is the equivalent resistance for power source
resistors connected in series? 69) Electric potential and e.m.f
a) Req = n/R a) Are the same terms
b) Req = nR b) Are the different terms
c) Req = R/n c) Have different units
d) None of these d) Both a and b
64) What is the equivalent resistance for 70) When we double the voltage in a simple
resistors connected in parallel? electric circuit, we double the
a) Req = n/R a) Current
b) Req = nR b) Power
c) Req = R/n c) Resistance
d) None of these d) Both a and b
65) If there are number of resistors connectedin 71) If we double both the current and the voltage in
parallel then each resistor has: a circuit while keeping its resistanceconstant, the
a) Same voltage power
b) Different voltage a) Remains unchanged
c) Same current b) Halves
d) Different current c) Four times
66) If two resistors of 6k and 4k are connectedin d) Quarter
series then what will be the equivalent resistance? 72) What is the power rating of a lamp connected to a
a) 24k 12 V source when it carries 2.5 A
b) 12k ?
c) 10k a) 4.8 W
d) 2.4k b) 14.5 W
67) What happens to the intensity or the brightness of c) 30 W
the lamps connected in series andmore lamps are d) 60 W
added? 73) The combined resistance of two identical
a) Increases resistors, connected in series is 8 Ω. Their
b) Decreases combined in a parallel arrangement will be
c) Remains the same a) 2 Ω
d) Cannot be predicted b) 4 Ω
c) 8 Ω
d) 12 Ω
ch#15
Encircle the Correct Option.
1) The strength of magnetic field depends upon d) None of these
a) Current 2) Direction of magnetic field lines can be
b) Distance from wire determined by
c) Both of these a) Right hand rule
b) Fleming’s left hand rule d) 120o
c) Lenz’s law 11) Direction of magnetic force can be
d) Ohm’s law determined by
3) MRI stands for a) Right hand rule
a) Medical resonance imaging b) Lenz law
b) Magnetic imaging c) Faraday’s law
c) Magnetic resonance imaging d) Fleming left hand rule
d) None of these 12) An electrical device which converts mechanical
4) MRI is used to diagnose energy to electrical energy called is
a) Brain disease a) motor
b) Eye disease b) generator
c) Stomach disease c) transformer
d) None of these d) none of these
5) Magnetic field inside the solenoid is 13) An electrical device which converts electrical
a) Weak energy to mechanical energy called is
b) Uniform .
c) Irregular a) motor
d) None of these b) generator
6) The polarity of current carrying solenoid canbe c) transformer
determine by . d) none of these
a) Right hand rule 14) External magnetic field to motor is applied
b) Negligible through
c) Stronger a) permanent magnetic
d) None of these b) prime mover
7) When a current carrying conductor placedinside c) generator
the magnetic field the magnetic field then it is d) transformer
experiences a force called as 15) The phenomenon of producing an induced emf in
a) Electromagnetic force a circuit by changing number of magneticlines passing
b) Mechanical force through it is called
c) Electric force a) induction
d) Magnetic force b) electromagnet induction
8) Magnetic force will be maximum when c) MRI
conductor is placed the magnetic field d) Transformer
a) 90o 16) The number of magnetic lines of force
b) 180o passing through surface area is called as
c) 0o a) Electric flux
d) Both b and c b) Magnetic flux
9) When the conductor is right angle to the c) Electromagnetic induction
magnetic field the magnetic force will be d) None of these
a) Maximum 17) Magnetic flux is maximum when magneticfield
b) Minimum lines are to surface area
c) Negligible a) Perpendicular
d) None of these b) Parallel
10) Magnetic force will be minimum when the angle c) Directly proportional
between conductor and magnetic field is d) Inversely proportional
a) 0o 18) Magnetic flux is minimum when the direction
b) 90o of magnetic field lines and surfacearea is
c) 45o
a) Perpendicular a) Watt
b) At some angle b) Henry
c) Parallel c) Newton
d) Upward d) Becquerel
19) According to Faraday’s law the relationship of 29) Strength of magnetic field outside the
induced emf and rate of change of magneticflux is solenoid
a) Directly proportional a) Stronger
b) Inversely proportional b) Weaker
c) Equal c) Negligible
d) None of these d) None of these
20) Direction of induced current can be 30) An electrical device which is used to increase or
determined by decrease the voltage level is called
a) Lenz law a) Motor
b) Right hand rule b) Generator
c) Grip rule c) Transformer
d) Left hand rule d) All of above
21) When the magnetic field lines are parallel to 31) Transformer only works on supply
surface area then magnetic flux will be a) AC
a) Maximum b) DC
b) Minimum c) Both of these
c) Moderate d) None of these
d) None of these 32) Transformer works on principle of
23) Right hand grip rule is used to find the a) Mutual induction
direction of b) Self induction
a) Magnetic flux c) Len’s law
b) Magnetic force d) Faraday’s law
c) Polartity of solenoid 33) Transformer has coils
d) None of these a) Two
24) The magnitude of induced emf dependsupon b) Three
a) Number of turns of coil c) One
b) Cross sectional area of coil d) Four
c) Current passing through coil 34) In transformer input voltage is appliedacross
d) All of above a) Primary coil
25) Len’s law is in accordance with b) Secondary coil
a) Faraday’s law c) Both coils
b) Law of conservation of energy d) None of these
c) Right hand rule 35) In transformer output voltage is obtainedacross
d) Fleming left hand rule a) Primary coil
27) The phenomenon of producing induced emfin one b) Secondary coil
coil due to change of current in neighbouring coil is c) Both a and b
called d) None of these
a) Lenz’s law 36) Core of transformer is made up of
b) Electromagnetic induction a) Soft iron strips
c) Mutual induction b) Metal
d) Self induction c) Copper
28) What is the Si unit of mutual induction d) None of these
37) Voltage across the coils of transformer is d) Input power
to number of turns 45) An electrical switch than opens and closeunder
a) Inversely proportional the control of another elutric crunit
b) Directly proportional a) Relay
c) Equal b) Transistor
d) Less c) Solenoid
38) An electrical device which steps up or stepdown d) None of these
the voltage is called 46) If a transformer is used to supply voltage toa 24v
a) Motor which draws a current in primary if voltage source is
b) Generator 240v
c) Transformer a) 0.16v
d) Battery b) 0.16Ma
39) Transformer is used for c) 0.16uA
a) voltage up d) 0.56A
b) voltage down 47) The magnetic force and field strength are
c) Both of these a) Directly proportional
d) None of these b) Inversely proportional
40) If transformers steps up the voltage levelthen it c) Equald) None of these
is called as 48) The relationship of magnetic force and
a) Ideal transformer current is
b) Step up transformer a) Directly proportional
c) Step down transformer b) Inversely proportional
d) None of these c) Equal
41) If the number of turns of secondary coil is d) None of these
greater than number of turns of primary coil then 49) The relationship of magnetic force andlength
transforming is is
a) Step up transformer a) Directly proportional
b) Step down transformer b) Inversely proportional
c) Ideal transformer c) Equal
d) All of these d) None of these
42) If the number of turns of secondary coil is less 50) Which statement is true about the magneticpoles?
than number of turns of primary coil then a) Unlike poles repel
transformer is b) Like poles attract
a) Step up c) Magnetic poles do not effect each other
b) Step down d) A single magnetic pole does not exist
c) Ideal 51) What is the direction of the magnetic fieldlines
d) All of these inside a bar magnet?
43) If the input power is equal to the outputpower a) From north pole to south pole
then transformer is said to be: b) From south pole to north pole
a) Step up c) From side to side
b) Step down d) There are no magnetic field lines
c) Ideal 52) The presence of a magnetic field can be
d) All of these detected by a
44) For ideal transformer output power must beequal a) Small mass
to b) Stationary positive charge
a) Losses c) Stationary negative charge
b) Applied frequency d) Magnetic compass
c) Input voltage
53) If the current in a wire which is placed a) The armature
perpendicular to a magnetic field increases theforce b) The commutator
on the wire c) The brushes
a) Increase d) The slip rings
b) Decreases 56) The direction of induced e.m.f in a circle isin
c) Remains the same accordance with conservation of
d) Will be zero a) Mass
54) A.D.C motor converts b) Charge
a) Mechanical energy into electrical energy c) Momentum
b) Mechanical energy into chemical energy d) Energy
c) Electrical energy into mechanical energy 57) The step-up tranformer
d) Electrical energy into mechanical a) Increases the input current
55) Which part of a D.C motor reverses the direction b) Increases the input voltage
of current through the coil every half-cycle? c) Has more turns in the primary
d) Has les turns in the secondary
ch#16
Objective Type
Encircle the Correct Option.
1) Electronics is the branch of science which deals 6) Thermionic emission can also be produced by
with the behavior of using electrically heating :
different devices for various purposes . a) Vacuum tube
a) Atoms b) Tungsten filament
b) Electrons c) Electron gun
c) Protons d) None of above
d) Neutrons 7) is used to investigate the
2) The charge carried by cathode rays are properties of electron beam .
a) Negative a) Vacuum tube
b) Positive b) Tungsten filament
c) Both of above c) Electron gun
d) None of above d) None of above
3) Cathode rays were discovered in :a) 8) Which one supply is sued to heat tungsten
1895 filament in thermionic emission :
b) 1896 a) 26V
c) 1987 b) 16V
d) 1897 c) 6V
4) Cathode rays are also called as: d) 60V
a) Atoms 9) In thermionic emission the high positive
b) Electrons potential is supplied to :
c) Protons a) Cathode
d) Neutrons b) Anode
5) Cathode rays are discovered by : c) Cylinder
a) Eugene Goldstein d) Plates
b) Neil Bohr 10) The instrument which is used to display the
c) Rutherford magnitude of changing elelctric current or potential is
d) J.J.Thomson called as :
a) Tungsten filament lamp
b) C.R.O 19) Digital quantities are those values vary in
c) Vacuum tube manner :
d) None of these a) Remain constant
11) C.R.O consist of b) Continuous
a) Electron gun c) Non continuous
b) Deflecting plates d) All of these
c) Fluorescent screen 20) Digital quantities are expressed in form of
d) All of above a) Digits
12) is the part of cathode ray b) Numbers
oscilloscope . c) None of these
a) Tungsten filament lamp d) All of these
b) Electron gun 21) The branch of electronics which deals with digital
c) Vacuum tube quantities is called electronics
d) All of these .
13) The C.R.O electron gun is used for a) Digital
production of b) Logical
a) Fast moving protons c) Analogue
b) Fast moving electrons d) Binary
c) Fast moving neutrons 22) In which form data is provided in digital
d) All of these system ?
14) The electrode of electron gun is called as : a) Decimal
a) Electron source b) Binary
b) Grid c) Octal
c) None of these d) Hexadecimal
d) All of these 23) A continuously varying signals is called as
15) The screen of C.R.O consist of a thin layer of a) Digital signals
a) Sulphur b) Electronics signals
b) Silicon c) Analogue signals
c) Phosphor d) Binary signals
d) Copper 24) Digital signal have only values
16) C.R.O is used as : a) Continuous
a) Displaying waveforms b) Discrete
b) Displaying heartbeats c) Non discrete
c) Measure voltage d) Constant
d) All of above 25) The device which is used to convert digitalto
17) The branch of electronics consisting of circuits analogue one is:
which process quantities iscalled a) DAC
Analogue electronics . b) ADC
a) Digital c) CDA
b) Electronics d) CAD
c) Analogue 26) The device which is used to convert digitalsignal
d) All of these to analogue signal one is :
18) Amplifier is an analogue circuit which a) ADC
amplifies the signal without changing its : b) ACD
a) Shape c) DAC
b) Length d) DCA
c) Phase difference 27) A switches has only states
d) Angle a) 1
b) 2 36) For AND operation when any one of theswitch
c) 3 is open then lamp is :
d) 4 a) ON
28) The 0 and 1 is also called: b) OFF
a) Logic variables c) Blinking
b) Logic states d) None of these
c) None of these 37) For OR operation when all switches areopen
d) Both of these then the lamp is
29) Boolean variables can have only a) ON
values b) OFF
a) 1 c) Blinking
b) 2 d) None of these
c) None of above 38) For OR operation when all switches areclosed
d) Both of above then the lamp is
30) For AND operation switches are connectedin a) ON
a) Series b) OFF
b) Parallel c) Blinking
c) Open circut d) None of these
d) None of above 39) For OR operation when any one of theswitch
31) X=A.B shows operation . is open then lamp is
a) AND a) ON
b) OR b) OFF
c) NAND c) Blinking
d) NOT d) None of these
32) X=A+B shows operation . 40) For NOT operation when switch is closedthen
a) AND lamp is
b) OR a) ON
c) NAND b) OFF
d) NOT c) Blinking
33) For OR operation switches are connected in d) None of these
a) Series 41) For NOT operation when switch is openthen
b) Parallel lamp is
c) Open circuit a) ON
d) None of above b) OFF
34) For AND operation when all switches areclosed c) Blinking
then lamp is : d) None of these
a) ON 42) The particles emitted from a hot cathode
b) OFF surface are :
c) Blinking a) Positive ions
d) None of these b) Negative ions
35) For AND operation when all switches areopen c) Protons
then lamp is d) Electrons
a) ON 43) The process by which electrons are emittedby a
b) OFF hot metal surface is known as
c) Blinking a) boiling
d) None of these b) evaporation
c) conduction
d) Thermionic emission
44) The tables which gives the values of input and 47) If X=A.B then X is 1 when
output basic types of logical gates is calledas: a) A and B are 1
a) AND table b) A or B is 0
b) OR table c) A is 0 and B is 1
c) Truth table d) A is 1 and B is 0
d) NOR table 48) The output of a two-input NOR gate is1when
45) Can be used for house safety alarm a) A is '1' and B is '0'
a) AND gate b) A is '0' and B is '1'
b) OR gate c) both A and B are '0'
c) NAND gate d) both A and B are '1'
d) NOR gate 49) AND gate can be formed by using two
46) The output of a NAND gate is 0 when a) NOT gates
a) both of its inputs are 0 b) OR gates
b) both of its inputs are 1 c) NOR gates
c) any of its input is 0 d) NAND gates
d) any of its inputs is 1
ch#17
Encircle the Correct Option.
1) ICT stands for: b) information technology
a) introduction to computer technology c) Flow of information
b) Introduction to computing technology d) None of these
c) information and communication 6) CBIS stands for;
techonology a) computer Based intelligence System
d) introduction to communication technology b) Computer Based Interface System
2) the method that is used to communicate c) computer Based information System
information to far off places instantly is called: d) None of these
a) Communication technology 7) How many components of CBIS are there?
b) information technology a) 5
c) Flow of information b) 6
d) None of these c) 7
3) the scientific method for storing, arranging d) 8
information for proper use and to communicatethem 8) The term hardware refers to;
to others is called: a) Computer software
a) Communication technology b) computers windows
b) information technology c) Machinery
c) Flow of information d) None of these
d) None of these 9) the term software refers to:
4) Computers and internet are the main sourcesof; a) Computer programs
a) Communication technology b) computers devices
b) information technology c) Machinery
c) Flow of information d) None of these
d) None of these 10) Data is usually stored on:
5) Radio, telephone, fax machine and cell phoneare a) Computer programs
the main sources۔ b) Disks
a) Communication technology c) CPU
d) None of these
11) The transfer of information from one placeto d) Electrical
another is called as: 20) The central part of optical fiber fiber
a) Transfer of information through which travels is called;
b) Flow of information a) Cladding
c) Both of these b) Core
d) None of these c) Transmitter
12) Transmitter process the: d) Receiver
a) Input signal 21) documents are sent from one place to theother
b) Output signal through:
c) Transmitted signal a) Printer
d) None of these b) Scanner
13) Telephone invented by: c) Fax machine
a) Graham Bell d) Mobile phone
b) Albert Einstein 22) A fax means scanning a page to make a
c) Newton representation of its text or
d) None of these graphics.
14) Telephone invented in: a) Electromagnetic
a) 1867 b) Electronic
b) 1865 c) Magnetic
c) 1875 d) Mechanical
d) 1876 23) Fax machine transmitted data to other fax
15) Telephone sends voice in the form of machine through:
signals from one place to another. a) Telephone line
a) Electromagnetic b) Scanner
b) electrical c) printer
c) magnetic d) Sound waves
d) Mechanical 24) Optical fibers works on the principle of:
16) Mouthpiece contains electrically conductive a) Total internal reflection
granules. b) Reflection
a) Carbon c) Refraction
b) Sulphur d) Diffraction
c) phosphor 25) The transmission rate of optical fibers is.
d) None of these a) Low
17) BSc stands for: b) High
a) Bachelor of science c) Moderate
b) base stations d) None of these
c) Both of above 26) the single mode cable are use for:
d) none of these a) short range
18) Optical means: b) Medium range
a) Lens c) Long range
b) Sensor d) None of these
c) Light 27) the multimode cable use for:
d) None of these a) short range
19) Optical fiber uses signal to transfer b) Medium range
information from one place to another. c) Long range
a) Electromagnetic d) None of these
b) light 28) dingle mode cable has:
c) Sound a) large diameter core
b) Small diameter core 38) Audio cassettes consist of
c) Highest bandwidth rating tapes on which sound is saved in particular formby the
d) none of these help of magnetic field.
29) Multi mode cable has: a) Electromagnetic
a) large diameter core b) Electronic
b) Small diameter core c) Magnetic
c) Highest bandwidth rating d) Mechanical
d) none of these 39) Floppy disk has storage capacity:
30) The diameter of single mode cable is a) 1MB - 3MB
a) 7 - 8 microns b) 10MB - 30MB
b) 7 - 9 microns c) 10MB - 13MB
c) 7 - 11 microns d) 11MB - 30MB
d) 7 - 10 microns 40) Hard disk is made up of:
31) 1 micron = a) Plastic
a) 10-8 b) Aluminium
b) 10-7 c) Metal oxide
c) 10-16 d) Carbon
d) 10-6 41) The data storage capacity of hard disk is:
32) The diameter of multimode cable is: a) smaller
a) 70 - 80 microns b) Larger
b) 70 - 90 microns c) moderate
c) 50-180 microns d) specific
d) 50- 80 microns 42) CD contains data.
33) the bandwidth of single mode cable is a) Analogue
a) Shortest b) Digital
b) Highest c) Binary
c) Moderate d) Magnetic
d) none of these 43) HTML stands for:
34) CPU contains tiny rectangular chip called as: a) Hotmail
a) processor b) Hyper text markup language
b) Controller c) Hyper text makeup language
c) microprocessor d) none of these
d) Microcontroller 44) TCP stands for:
35) RAM stands for: a) Transmitter control process
a) Read only memory b) Transmission central process
b) Random Accept memory c) Transmission control process
c) Random access memory d) None of these
d) None of these 45) IP stands for;
36) CD stands for: a) Internal protocol
a) Computer disks b) Internet process
b) Controller disks c) Internet protocol
c) Compact text d) None of these
d) copy disks 46) e-mail stands for:
37) IC stands for: a) Electrical mail
a) information communication b) Electronic mail
b) Internal circuit c) Erasable mail
c) integrated circuits d) None of these
d) None of these
47) Cell phone is two way 56) From which of the following you can get
communications. information almost about everything:
a) sound a) Book
b) Radio b) Internet
c) Both of above c) Teacher
d) None of these d) Computer
48) FTP stands for: 57) Which of the following is not processing?
a) Flexible transfer protocol a) Arranging
b) Floppy transfer protocol b) Manipulating
c) File transfer protocol c) Calculating
d) None of these d) Gathering
49) URL stands for: 58) ROM stands for:
a) united resource language a) Read only memory
b) United resource locations b) Random accept memory
c) uniform resource language c) Random access memory
d) uniform resource locators d) None of these
50) WWW stands for: 59) Cell phones transmission are made with:
a) World Web Wide a) Magnetic waves
b) Web World Wide b) Sound waves
c) Wide World Web c) Micro waves
d) World Wide Web d) None of these
51) An unauthorized access computer for anyillegal 60) CD's are based on:
work is called: a) laser technology
a) Hacking b) light technology
b) Accessing internet c) Magnetic technology
c) Virus d) None of these
d) None of these 61) In computer terminology information
52) The storing capacity of CD is: means:
a) 860 MB a) any data
b) 680 MB b) raw data
c) 760 MB c) processed data
d) 670 MB d) large data
53) The storing capacity of DVD is: 62) Which is the most suitable means of reliable
a) 17 GB continuous communication between an orbiting
b) 170 GB satellite and Earth?
c) 70 GB a) microwaves
d) 17 GB b) radio waves
54) In computer terminology information c) sound waves
means: d) any light waves
a) Any data 63) The basic operations performed by a
b) Processed data computer are:
c) raw data a) arithmetic operations
d) large data b) Non-arithmetic operations
55) The brain of any computer system is: c) logical operations
a) Monitor d) both a and c
b) Hard disk 64) Which of the following is not processing?
c) CPU a) arranging
d) Keyboard b) manipulating
c) calculating b) electronic mail
d) gathering c) extra mail
65) What does the term e-mail stand for? d) external mail
a) emergency mail
ch#18
Encircle the Correct Option.
1) Who discovered neutrons? d) Nucleons
a) James Chadwick 9) Number of nucleons are the sum of
b) J.J Thomson a) Protons
c) Newton b) Neutrons
d) none of these c) Both of above
2) When neutrons were discovered?a) d) None of these
1930 10) Which symbol is used to represent atomic
b) 1913 number?
c) 1923 a) A
d) 1932 b) Z
3) When protons were discovered in nucleus? c) N
a) 1919 d) P
b) 1920 11) Which symbol is used to represent neutrons
c) 1918 number?
d) 1912 a) A
4) Which one is the fundamental particle ofatom? b) Z
a) Protons c) N
b) Neutrons d) O
c) Electrons 12) Which symbol is used to represent atomicmass?
d) All of these a) A
5) Electrons have charge: b) Z
a) Positive c) N
b) Negative d) O
c) Neutral 13) What is the relationship between protonsand
d) None of these neutrons?
6) Protons have charge? a) A = N – P
a) Positive b) A = P – N
b) Negative c) A = (P + N)
c) Neutral d) P = (A + 2 N)
d) None of these 14) Iso means:
7) The number of protons in a nucleus is called? a) Different
a) Atomic number b) Many
b) Mass number c) Same
c) Neutron number d) None of these
d) Nucleons 15) Isotopes have:
8) The number of neutrons in a nucleus is called a) Same atomic number
a) Atomic number b) Different atomic number
b) Mass number c) Same atomic masses
c) Neutron number d) None of these
16) Hydrogen has isotopes: 25) The radiation which our earth receives fromouter
a) 2 space are called as:
b) 3 a) Cosmic radiations
c) 4 b) Background radiations
d) 1 c) Primary radiations
17) Simple hydrogen is called: d) Secondary radiations
a) Protium 26) When cosmic radiations interact with atomsin
b) Deuterium atmosphere then radiations created are called:
c) Tritium a) Cosmic radiations
d) None of these b) Background radiations
18) Protium has: c) Primary radiations
a) One proton d) Secondary radiations
b) One neutron 27) Secondary radiations includes:
c) One electron a) X-rays
d) Both a and c b) Muons
19) Deuterium has: c) Protons
a) One proton d) All of these
b) One neutron 28) Which device is used to count background
c) One electron radiations?
d) All of these a) GM tube
20) Tritium has: b) Vacuum tube
a) One proton c) Digital stop watch
b) two neutron d) All of these
c) three electron 29) How many types of radiations emitted from
d) None of these radioactive elements?
21) What is the SI unit of radioactivity a) 1
a) N/s, b) 2
b) Becquerel c) 3
c) Diopter d) 4
d) Disintegration/sec 30) Alpha particle is
22) 1 Becquerel d equal to: a) Stable
a) One N/s b) Unstable
b) 10, c) More stable
c) 1 disintegration/sec d) None of these
d) None of these 31) Alpha particle has ionizing power
23) Who discovered radium and polonium? a) Highest
a) Marie Curie b) Lowest
b) Henry Becquerel c) Moderate
c) J.J Thomson d) None of these
d) Rutherford 32) The highest ionizing power of alpha particleis due
24) Radiations present in atmosphere due to to its:
different natural radioactive substances are called: a) Large mass
a) Cosmic radiations b) Small mass
b) Background radiations c) Stability
c) Primary radiations d) Unstability
d) Secondary radiations 33) The range of alpha particles is
a) Large
b) Very large b) negative
c) Intermediate c) neutral
d) Short d) none of these
34) The process in which a parent unstable nucleus 43) Radioactive elements have atomic number
changes into more stable daughter nuclide with the a) Less than 82
emission of radiations is called: b) 82 and less than 82
a) α-decay c) More than 82
b) β-decay d) 82 and more than 82
c) γ-decay 44) Non-radioactive elements can be changed into
d) nuclear transmutation radioactive elements by bombarding themwith
35) In de-excitation, extra energy is released inthe a) Alpha-particles
form of b) Protons
a) α-radiations c) Neutrons
b) β-radiations d) All of these
c) γ-radiations 45) Half life of hydrogen
d) X-rays a) 22.3 years
36) The penetrating power of alpha particle is b) 5730 years
a) Less than β rays c) 52.3 years
b) More than β rays d) 12.3 years
c) More than γ rays 46) Half life of cobalt is
d) More than β and a) 22 years
37) The ionizing power of β particle is b) 30 years
a) Less c) 36 years
b) More d) 40 years
c) Intermediate 47) Half life of iodine is
d) None of these a) 8 years
38) β-particle has range b) 9 years
a) several meters c) 10 years
b) few centimeters d) 11 years
c) thousands meters 48) Half life period of lead (Pb) is
d) none of these a) 10.6 hours
39) The range of γ-particles is b) 10.6 mins
a) Lowest c) 10.6 years
b) Intermediate d) 10.6 months
c) Highest 49) Half life period of polonium21084Po is
d) None of these a) 138 years
40) Alpha particles contains charge b) 138 sec
a) +2 c) 138 min
b) -2 d) 138 days
c) +1 50) In nuclear fusion reaction, amount of
d) -1 energy released
41) β particles contains charge a) 17.6 eV
a) +2 b) 17.5 MeV
b) -2 c) 17.6 V
c) +1 d) 17.6 W
d) -1 51) Phosphorous 32 is used for the diagnosis of
42) γ-particles contains charge a) Thyroid gland
a) positive
b) Brain tumor 60) When deuterium is fused with an atom of
c) Both of above tritium then is formed
d) None of these a) α-particles
52) Cobalt-60 is used for the curing of b) muons
a) Cancerous tumor c) β- particles
b) Stomach disease d) γ- particles
c) Throat disease 61) what is the temperature of sun.
d) All of these a) 20 K
53) Which one radioactive isotope is present inrocks b) 20 million K
a) Plutonium c) 20 billion K
b) Potassium d) None of these
c) Uranium 62) Lekuemia is
d) Carbon a) Cancer
54) Half life period of argon-40 is b) Brain tumor
a) 2.4 years c) Thyroid gland
b) 2.6 ×108 years d) Blood cancer
c) 2.4 ×108 years 63) Radioactive elements are also called as
d) 5.4 ×1016 years a) Stable elements
55) The age determination of very old objects like b) Unstable elements
dead plants, animals and stones is based onhalf life of c) Radio isotopes
radioactive elements is called: d) All of these
a) Radio isotopes 64) Nuclear radiations is measured in
b) Radio isotope dating a) Becquerel
c) Carbon dating b) N/s,
d) Both a and c c) Rem
56) Age determination of old carbon containing d) None of these
objects by measuring radioactivity of C-14 is called: 65) What is the safe limit of radiation exposureper
a) Radio isotopes dating year
b) Dating a) 6 rem
c) Carbon dating b) 4 rem
d) None of these c) 3 rem
57) Energy-mass relationship is d) 5 rem
a) E = mc2 66) Patients should be exposes to x-rays limit of
b) m = Ec2 a) 1rem to 5 rem
c) E = mc b) 0.1 rem to 0.5 rem
d) None of these c) 0.1 rem to 10 rem
58) Half life period of uranium 235 isa) 7.1 d) None of these
× 1080years 67) Becquerel is denoted by
b) 7.1 × 1018 years a) B
c) 7.1 years b) Bq
d) 7.1 × 108 years c) Ba
59) Half life period of uranium -238 isa) 4.5 d) Bu
× 1090 years 68) Artificially produced radioactive elementsby
b) 4.51 × 109 years bombardment of different particles are called
c) 7.1 × 108 years a) Isotopes
d) 4.6 × 1010 years b) Radio isotopes
c) γ-particles
d) mouns 76) What happens to the atomic number of an
69) Half life period of plutonium-236 is element which emits one alpha particle and a beta
a) 2 years particles?
b) 2.65 years a) Increases by 1
c) 2.75 years b) Stays the same
d) 2.85 years c) Decreases by 2
70) Breaking of heavy nucleus in to smallernuclei d) Decreases by 1
is called 77) The half–life of a certain isotope is 1 day. What is
a) Nuclear fusion the quantity of the isotope after 2 days.
b) Nuclear fission a) One half
c) α-decay b) One quarter
d) β-decay c) One eighth
71) The process in which two light nuclei d) Zero
combine to form heavier nucleus is called 78) When uranium (92 protons) ejects a beta
a) Nuclear fusion particle, how many protons will be in the remaining
b) Nuclear fission nucleus?
c) Nuclear transmutation a) 89 protons
d) All of these b) 90 protons
72) The elements which emits radiations arecalled c) 91 protons ‘
as: d) 93 protons
a) Non-radioactive elements 79) Release of energy by the Sun is due to
b) Radioactive elements a) Nuclear fission
c) Radioactive isotopes b) Nuclear fusion
d) None of these c) Burning of gases
73) Carbon has isotopes d) Chemical reaction
a) 2 80) When a heavy nucleus splits into two lighternuclei,
b) 4 the process would
c) 6 a) Release nuclear energy
d) 8 b) Absorb energy
74) One of the isotopes of uranium is 23892U, c) Release chemical energy
The number of neutrons in this isotope is d) Absorb chemical energy
a) 92 81) The reason carbon-dating works is that
b) 146 a) Plants and animals are such strong emittersof
c) 238 carbon-14
d) 330 b) After a plant or animal dies, it stops taking in
75) Which among the following radiations hasmore fresh carbon-14
penetrating power? c) There is so much non-radioactive carbon
a) A beta particle dioxide in the air
b) A gamma ray d) When a plant or an animal dies it takes infresh
c) An alpha particle carbon
d) All of these
Best of Luck
CHAPTER 10
i. Differentiate between mechanical and electromagnetic waves with examples.
ii. What change occurs in time period of simple pendulum if length is doubled?
iii. Define damped oscillations and how amplitude decreases in damping? With graph.
iv. What change occur in speed of water waves when enter in deep water region?
v. Define wave equation with mathematical form.
vi. Write 3 properties of SHM.
vii. Define reciprocal of frequency. Write its formula for simple pendulum.
viii. What will be the time period of simple pendulum if its length becomes double?
ix. Write any two characteristics of SHM.
x. What are Damped Oscillations? Give an example. How damping progressively reduces the amplitude of
oscillation?
xi. What type of waves do not require any material medium for their propagation?
xii. What is difference b/w transverse and longitudinal waves
xiii. What is meant by Wave-Diffraction?
xiv. What is the displacement of an object in SHM when the kinetic energy and potential energy are equal?
xv. Does increasing the frequency of a wave also increase its wavelength? If not, how are these quantities related?
xvi. What is simple pendulum? Write formula for its time period.
xvii. What is simple harmonic motion? What are the necessary conditions for a body to execute simple harmonic
motion?
xviii. Think of several examples of motion in everyday life that are simple harmonic.
xix. How can you define the term wave? Elaborate the difference between mechanical and electromagnetic waves.
Give examples of each.
xx. Draw a transverse wave with an amplitude of 2 cm and a wavelength of 4 cm. Label a crest and trough on the
wave.
xxi. Derive a relationship between velocity, frequency and wavelength of a wave. Write a formula relating velocity of a
wave to its time period and wavelength.
xxii. Waves are the means of energy transfer without transfer of matter. Justify this statement with the help of a
simple experiment.
xxiii. If the length of a simple pendulum is doubled, what will be the change in its time period?
xxiv. What types of waves do not require any material medium for their propagation?
CHAPTER 11
i. Define pitch and frequency. Discuss its relation with frequency with graph.
ii. How speed of sound changes with physical conditions of air?
iii. Differentiate between musical sounds and noise with example.
iv. Define Ultrasound and infrasound and write three uses in medical field.
v. Define loudness with example and write factors name.
vi. Why speed of sound is greater in solids than liquids and gases?
vii. Define echo.
viii. Define Quality of sound.
ix. What is Stethoscopes?
x. What is difference b/w frequency and pitch of sound? Describe their relationship graphically.
xi. Why ceilings of lecture halls are made curved?
xii. What do you mean by the term sound intensity? Write its formula and unit.
xiii. Calculate the frequency of sound wave of speed 340ms-1 and wavelength 0.5m.
xiv. What is meant by SONAR?
xv. Describe audible frequency range.
xvi. Will two separate 50dB sounds together constitute a 100dB sound? Explain.
xvii. How astronauts communicate in space?
xviii. Why two tin cans with a string stretched between them could be better way to communicate than merely
shouting through the air?
xix. We can recognize persons speaking with the same loudness from their voice. How is this possible?
xx. You can listen to your friend round a corner, but you cannot watch him/her. Why?
xxi. Why must the volume of a stereo in a room with wall-to-wall carpet be tuned higher than in a room with a
wooden floor?
xxii. A student says that the two terms speed and frequency of the wave refer to the same thing. What is your
response?
xxiii. Two people are listening to the same music at the same distance. They disagree on its loudness. Explain how this
could happen.
xxiv. Is there any difference between echo and reflection of sound? Explain
xxv. Why ultrasound is useful in medical field?
CHAPTER 12
i. Define total internal reflection and critical angle.
ii. Write three properties of compound microscope.
iii. Define reflection of light and Write laws of reflection.
iv. What is function of ciliary muscle when object is away from eye?
v. Define lens formula with mathematical form.
vi. Define lens and Write applications of lenses.
vii. Draw ray diagram when object is inside focal length of convex lens and discuss nature.
viii. Write two uses of compound microscope.
ix. Write difference b/w regular and irregular reflection.
x. A man raises his left hand in a plane mirror, the image facing him is raising his right hand. Explain why?
xi. State Snell’s law.
xii. At what distance from convex lens an object should be placed so that its image disappears?
xiii. Find the position of image, whereas focal length of concave mirror is 10cm and object is at 10cm from mirror.
xiv. What is light pipe? For what purpose it is used?
xv. How light travels through optical fibre?
xvi. How thickness of lens affects its focal length?
xvii. Define Critical angle and angle of deviation.
xviii. A man raises his left hand in a plane mirror, the image facing him is raising his right hand. Explain why.
xix. In your own words, explain why light waves are refracted at a boundary between two materials.
xx. Explain why a fish under water appears to be at a different depth below the surface than it actually is.
Does it appear deeper or shallower?
xxi. Why or why not concave mirrors are suitable for makeup?
xxii. Why is the driver's side mirror in many cars convex rather than plane or concave?
xxiii. When an optician's testing room is small, he uses a mirror to help him test the eyesight of his patients.
Explain why.
xxiv. How does the thickness of a lens affect its focal length?
xxv. Under what conditions will a converging lens form a virtual image?
xxvi. Under what conditions will a converging lens form a real image that is the same size as the object?
xxvii. Why do we use refracting telescope with large objective lens of large focal length?
CHAPTER 13
i. State Coulomb’s law with mathematical form and conditions.
ii. Define electric potential and it's unit with mathematical form.
iii. Define electric field intensity with formula and unit.
iv. Write three uses of capacitors.
v. In what direction positively charged particles move in an electric field?
vi. You have seen a gasoline truck trailing a metal chain beneath it, what purpose does chain serve?
vii. Define capacitor and capacitance with formula and unit.
viii. An electrified rod attracts pieces of paper. After a while these pieces fly away! Why?
ix. How much negative charge has been removed from a positively charged electroscope, if it has a charge of 7.5 × 10–
11 C?
x. In what direction will a positively charged particle move in an electric field?
xi. Does each capacitor carry equal charge in series combination? Explain.
xii. Each capacitor in parallel combination has equal potential difference between its two plates. Justify the statement.
xiii. Perhaps you have seen a gasoline truck trailing a metal chain beneath it. What purpose does the chain serve?
xiv. If a high-voltage power line fell across your car while you were in the car, why should you not come out of the car?
xv. Explain why, a glass rod can be charged by rubbing when held by hand but an iron rod cannot be charged by
rubbing, if held by hand?
xvi. Why electric field lines due to an isolated positive charge are radially outward?
xvii. What is meant by electrostatic Induction?
xviii. If voltage across plates of capacitor is 12V then what will be the potential difference b/w plates of capacitor?
xix. Define electric field intensity. Write its formula and unit.
xx. What are electric field lines? Write two characteristics.
xxi. Define capacitance. Write its unit and formula. Also write the factors on which it depends.
xxii. How would you suspend 500,000 pounds of water in the air with no visible means of support?
xxiii. If two capacitors of 5uF and 10uF are connected in series, Find equivalent capacitance.
xxiv. Discuss electrolytic capacitor.
xxv. Capacitor blocks DC but allows AC to pass through the circuit. How does this happen?
CHAPTER 14
i. State Joule’s Law with mathematical Form.
ii. Define one Kwh and prone that 1KWh = 3.6 M J.
iii. Differentiate between direct current and alternating current.
iv. Differentiate between ohmic and non-ohmic conductors with examples.
v. Differentiate between EMF and potential difference.
vi. Write three features of parallel combination of resistors.
vii. State Ohm’s law with its mathematical form.
viii. Discuss house wiring.
ix. Prove that: P=I2R
x. What is difference b/w ohmic and non ohmic conductors?
xi. Define electric power and describe its unit.
xii. Define E.M.F
xiii. Show that 1KWH= 3.6 MJ
xiv. Draw symbols for diode and variable resistor.
xv.Discuss effect of electric currents on the body.
xvi.How can you identify livewire, neutral wire and earth wire with colour coding?
xvii.Why in conductors charge is transferred by free electrons rather than by positive
xviii.charges?
xix.What is the difference between a cell and a battery?
xx.Can current flow in a circuit without potential difference?
xxi.Two points on an object are at different electric potentials. Does charge necessarily flow between them?
xxii.In order to measure current in a circuit why ammeter is always connected in series?
xxiii.In order to measure voltage in a circuit voltmeter is always connected in parallel. Discuss.
xxiv.How many watt-hours are there in 1000 joules?
xxv.From your experience in watching cars on the roads at night, are automobile headlamps connected in series or in
parallel.
xxvi.A certain flash-light can use a 10-ohm bulb or a 5-ohm bulb. Which bulb should be used to get the brighter light?
Which bulb will discharge the battery first?
xxvii.It is impracticable to connect an electric bulb and an electric heater in series. Why?
xxviii.Does a fuse in a circuit control the potential difference or the current?
CHAPTER 15
i. Differentiate between step-up and step-down transformer.
ii. State Lenz’s law.
iii. What is an ideal transformer?
iv. Define electromagnetic Induction.
v. How we can find direction of 𝐵 ⃑ through current carrying conductor by right hand rule.
vi. What is difference between motor and generator?
vii. Define electromagnetic induction.
viii. State Fleming’s left-hand principle.
ix. What is transformer? Describe its types.
x. On what factors induced e.m.f depends?
xi. Define mutual induction.
xii. Can you separate north and south pole?
xiii. What is difference b/w generator and motor?
xiv. Write working principle of walk-through gates?
xv. Draw figure for emf vs time of AC generator.
xvi. Suppose someone handed you three similar iron bars and told you one was not magnet, but the other two were.
How would you find the iron bar that was not magnet?
xvii. Suppose you have a coil of wire and a bar magnet. Describe how you could use them to generate an electric current.
xviii. Which device is used for converting electrical energy into mechanical energy?
xix. Suppose we hang a loop of wire so that it can swing easily. If we now put a magnet into the coil, the coil will start
swinging. Which way will it swing relative to the magnet, and why?
xx. A conductor wire generates a voltage while moving through a magnetic field. In
xxi. what direction should the wire be moved, relative to the field to generate the maximum voltage?
xxii. What is the difference between a generator and a motor?
xxiii. What reverses the direction of electric current in the armature coil of D.C motor?
xxiv. A wire lying perpendicular to an external magnetic field carries of a current in the direction shown in the diagram
below. In what direction will the wire move due to the resulting magnetic force?
xxv. Can a transformer operate on direct current?
CHAPTER 16
i. Define Electronics and thermionic emission.
ii. Explain two factors which enhance Thermionic Emission.
iii. How are the electrons deflected by electric field and magnetic field?
iv. What is Cathode Ray Oscilloscope? Write names of its components.
v. Differentiate between analogue and digital electronics?
vi. What is meant by AND operation? Draw the circuit diagram of AND gate.
vii. Name three uses of oscilloscope.
viii. Draw figure to form a NOT gate from NAND and NOR gate.
ix. When a magnet is brought near to TV Screen, Picture on the screen is distorted. Why?
x. Differentiate b/w digital and analogue electronics.
xi. What is smart ID card?
xii. Define Boolean variables.
xiii. NAND gate is the reciprocal of AND gate. Discuss
xiv. What is NOR operation? Draw its symbol and write its truth table.
xv. What is safety alarm? Write shortly.
xvi. What is the function of LDR?
xvii. What is meant by digitization?
xviii. Name two factors which can enhance thermionic emission.
xix. Give three reasons to support the evidence that cathode rays are negatively charged electrons.
xx. When electrons pass through two parallel plates having opposite charges, they are deflected towards the positively
charged plate. What important characteristic of the electron can be inferred from this?
xxi. When a moving electron enters the magnetic field, it is deflected from its straight path. Name two factors which can
enhance electron deflection.
xxii. How can you compare the logic operation X=A.B with usual operation of multiplication?
xxiii. NAND gate is the reciprocal of AND gate. Discuss
xxv. Show that the circuit given below acts as AND gate.
CHAPTER 17
i.
What is difference between data and information?
ii.
What is meant by fax machine and photo phone?
iii.What id hardware and software?
iv. Define C.P.U. Why it is called Brain of Computer?
v.Define Internet. Write two uses of it?
vi. Write down two benefits of electronic mail.
vii. Differentiate between secondary and primary memory.
viii. What is E-Commerce?
ix.What is Data managing?
x.What is word processing?
xi.Give benefits of flash drive.
xii.Write difference b/w primary and secondary memory storage devices.
xiii.Describe elements of communication system.
xiv. What is Photo phone?
xv. What is MSC and BSC?
xvi. Discuss Fax Machine?
xvii. Write difference b/w hardware and software.
xviii. Why optical fibre is more useful tool for the communication process?
xix. Which is more reliable floppy disk or a hard disk?
xx. What is the difference between RAM and ROM memories?
CHAPTER 18
i. Define half-life and write its relation.
ii. Differentiate between fission and fusion reactions.
iii. What are background radiations?
iv. What is difference between natural and artificial radioactivity.
v. Write uses of radioactive tracer in medicine.
vi. Write 𝛽-decay and 𝛼-decay with an reaction.
vii. Define ionizing power and penetrating power and also write order for 𝛼, 𝛽, 𝛾for these properties.
viii. Define Becquerel.
ix. How much of 1g sample of pure radioactive substance would be left undecayed after four half-lives?
x. Can you separate isotopes by chemical means?
xi. Write the alpha decay process for 234 91𝑃𝑎. Identify the parent and daughter nuclei in this decay.
xii. Write Difference b/w beta particles and electrons.
xiii. Define ionization and penetrating power.
xiv. Define half-life. Determine time required for complete decay.
xv. What is carbon dating?
xvi. Write three risks of radiations.
xvii. Write difference b/w natural and artificial radioactivity.
xviii. Is it possible for an element to have different types of atoms? Explain.
xix. What nuclear reaction would release more energy, the fission reaction or the fusion reaction? Explain.
xx. Which has more penetrating power, an alpha particle or a gamma ray photon?
xxi. What is the difference between natural and artificial radioactivity?
xxii. How long would you likely have to wait to watch any sample of radioactive atoms completely decay?
xxiii. Which type of natural radioactivity leaves the number of protons and the number of neutrons in the nucleus
unchanged?
xxiv. How much of a 1 g sample of pure radioactive substance would be left undecayed after four half- lives?
xxv. Tritium, 31H is radioactive isotope of hydrogen. It decays by emitting an electron.
xxvi. What is the daughter nucleus?
xxvii. What information about the structure of the nitrogen atom can be obtained from its nuclide? In what way atom in is
different from the atom in?
Long Questions
Ch#10
1-Define SHM Prove that Motion of a mass attached to a spring is SHM
2-Prove that motion of simple pendulum is a SHM.
3-Define SHM and prove that motion of a ball and bowl system is SHM
4-Define Rpple tank explain its construction.
5-Define ripple tank explain the reflection, diffraction and diffraction
Numerical
i-The time period of a simple pendulum is 2 s. What will be its length on the Earth? What will be its length on
the Moon if g =g /6? where g = 10 m s-2.
ii-A pendulum of length 0.99 m is taken to the Moon by an astronaut. The period of the pendulum is 4.9 s. What
is the value of g on the surface of the Moon?
iii-A wooden bar vibrating into the water surface in a ripple tank has a frequency of 12 Hz. The resulting wave
has a wavelength of 3 cm. What is the speed of the wave?
iv-If 100 waves pass through a point of a medium in 20 seconds, what is the frequency and the time period of
the wave? If its wavelength is 6 cm, calculate the wave speed.
v-At one end of a ripple tank 80 cm across, a 5 Hz vibrator produces waves whose wavelength is 40 mm. Find
the time the waves need to cross the tank.
vi-What is the wavelength of the radio waves transmitted by an FM station at 90 MHz? 6 8 -1 where 1M = 106,
and speed of radio wave is 3 x 10 m s-1.
Ch#11
1-Define loudness. Explain its dependent factors
2-What is sound intensity level derive its formula.
3-Explain the importance of acoustics protection.
4-Define ultra sound. write its uses
5-How can you prove the mechanical nature of sound by a simple experiment?
Numerical
i- A normal conversation involves sound intensities of about 3.0 × 10 W m . What is the decibel level for this
intensity? What is the intensity of the sound for 100 dB?
ii- If at Anarkali Bazar Lahore, intensity level of sound is 80 dB, what will be the intensity of sound there?
iii- A doctor counts 72 heartbeats in 1 min. Calculate the frequency and period of the heartbeats.
iv- A student clapped his hands near a cliff and heard the echo after 5 s. What is the –1 distance of the cliff from
the student if the speed of the sound is taken as 346 m s’-1 ?
v- A ship sends out ultrasound that returns from the seabed and is detected after -1 3.42 s. If the speed of
ultrasound through seawater is 1531 m s , what is the distance of the seabed from the ship?
Ch#12
1-What is reflection of light? Explain with laws
2-What is refraction of light also write laws of refraction.
3-define total internal reflection. Explain with condition and two applications.
4-Define and explain the compound microscope.
5-what is simple microscope and explain magnifying power and resolving power.
6-Define and explain defects of vision and its correction.
Numerical
i- An object 10.0 cm in front of a convex mirror forms an image 5.0 cm behind the mirror. What is the focal
length of the mirror?
ii- An object 30 cm tall is located 10.5 cm from a concave mirror with focal length 16 cm. (a) Where is the image
located? (b) How high is it?
iii- Find the focal length of a mirror that forms an image 5.66 cm behind the mirror of an object placed at 34.4
cm in front of the mirror. Is the mirror concave or convex?
iv- An object and its image in a concave mirror are of the same height, yet inverted, when the object is 20 cm
from the mirror. What is the focal length of the mirror?
v- An image of a statue appears to be 11.5 cm behind a concave mirror with focal length 13.5 cm. Find the
distance from the statue to the mirror.
vi- An object 4 cm high is placed at a distance of 12 cm from a convex lens of focal length 8 cm. Calculate the
position and size of the image. Also state the nature of the image.
vii- The power of a convex lens is 5 D. At what distance the object should be placed from the lens so that its real
and 2 times larger image is formed.
Ch#13
1-What is gold leaf electroscope and hoe can we detect presence and types of charge using electroscope
2-State coulomb’s law derive its mathematical form
3-explain the properties of series combination of capacitors.
4- explain the properties of parallel combination of capacitors.
5-Applications of electrostatic.
Numerical
i- The charge of how many negatively charged particles would be equal to 100 µC. Assume charge on one
negative particle is 1.6 × 10–19 C ?
ii- Two point charges q = 10 µC and q = 5 µC are placed at a distance of 150 cm. What will be the Coulomb's
force between them? Also find the direction of the force.
iii- The force of repulsion between two identical positive charges is 0.8 N, when the charges are 0.1 m apart.
Find the value of each charge.
iv- Two charges repel each other with a force of 0.1 N when they are 5 cm apart. Find the forces between the
same charges when they are 2 cm apart.
v- The electric potential at a point in an electric field is 10 V. If a charge of +100 µC is brought from infinity to
this point. What would be the amount of work done on it?
vi- A capacitor holds 0.03 coulombs of charge when fully charged by a 6 volt battery. How much voltage would
be required for it to hold 2 coulombs of charge?
vii- A capacitor holds 0.06 coulombs of charge when fully charged by a 9 volt battery. Calculate capacitance of
the capacitor.
Ch#14
1-state Ohms law. explain ohmic and non ohmic conductors
2-Explain the factors affecting the resistance.
3-Explain the properties of series combination of resistors.
4- Explain the properties of parallel combination of resistors.
Numerical
i- The resistance of a conductor wire is 10 MΩ. If a potential difference of 100 volts is applied across its ends,
then find the value of current passing through it in mA.
ii- By applying a potential difference of 10 V across a conductor, a current of 1.5 A passes through it. How much
energy would be obtained from the current in 2 minutes?
iii- An incandescent light bulb with an operating resistance of 95 Ω is labelled “150 W.” Is this bulb designed for
use in a 120 V circuit or a 220 V circuit?
iv- A 100 W lamp bulb and a 4 kW water heater are connected to a 250 V supply. Calculate (a) the current which
flows in each appliance (b) the resistance of each appliance when in use.
v- A resistor of resistance 5.6 Ω is connected across a battery of 3.0 V by means of a wire of negligible
resistance. A current of 0.5 A passes through the resistor.
Ch#15
1-Explain the force on current carrying conductor
2-D.C motor
3-A.C generator
4- Explain transformer with working.
Numerical
i- A transformer is needed to convert a mains 240 V supply into a 12 V supply. If there are 2000 turns on the
primary coil, then find the number of turns on the secondary coil.
ii- A step-up transformer has a turn ratios of 1 : 100. An alternating supply of 20 V is connected across the
primary coil. What is the secondary voltage?
iii- A step-down transformer has a turns ratio of 100 : 1. An ac voltage of amplitude 170 V is applied to the
primary. If the current in the primary is 1.0 mA, what is the current in the secondary?
iv A power station generates 500 MW of electrical power which is fed to a transmission line. What current
would flow in the transmission line, if the input voltage is 250 kV?
Ch#16
1-Investigate the properties of electron by applying electric and magnetic field
2-Explain C.R.O with components.
3-What are the three universal Logic Gates? Give their symbols and truth tables.
4- Explain NAND gate and NOR gate with symbol and truth tables.
Ch#17
Ch#18
1-nuclear transmutation and explain alpha, beta and gamma decay
2-Explain the half-life and derive its formula.
3-Uses of radio isotopes as tracer and Carbon dating
4- Define and explain nuclear fission reaction
5-Define and explain nuclear fusion reaction
Numerical
i- The half-life of is 7.3 s. A sample of this nuclide of nitrogen is observed for 29.2 s. 16 7N Calculate the fraction
of the original radioactive isotope remaining after this time.
ii- Cobalt-60 is a radioactive element with half-life of 5.25 years. What fraction of the original sample will be left
after 26 years?
iii- Carbon-14 has a half-life of 5730 years. How long will it take for the quantity of carbon-14 in a sample to
drop to one-eighth of the initial quantity?
iv Half-life of a radioactive element is 10 minutes. If the initial count rate is 368 counts per minute, find the time
for which count rates reaches 23 counts per minute
v- Ashes from a campfire deep in a cave show carbon-14 activity of only one-eighth the activity of fresh wood.
How long ago was that campfire made?