ANDHERI / BORIVALI / DADAR / CHEMBUR / THANE / KHARGHAR / NERUL / POWAI / PUNE / AKOLA / NASHIK / NAGPUR

AITS – 01 (For 2023 NEET Aspirants)

Day and Date : Sunday, 20th November, 2022 Duration: 3 Hours 20 min.
Time : 2.00 p.m. to 5.20 p.m. Total Marks :720 (+4,–1)

Instructions to Candidates
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on the OMR with only Blue/Black Ball Point Pen.
2. Write correct TEST ID mentioned above on the OMR Answer sheet.
3. The test is of 3 hours duration and The Test Booklet consists of 200 questions.
The maximum marks are 720.
4. There are four parts in the question paper consisting of Physics, Chemistry, Botany
and Zoology subjects.
5. Each subject will consist of two sections Section-A and Section-B. Section A will
consist of 35 Questions and Section B will have 15 questions, out of these 15
Questions, candidates can choose to attempt 10 Questions.
6. Each question is allotted 4 (four) marks for correct response. ¼ (one-fourth) marks of
the total marks (i.e. 1 mark) will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of
each question. No deduction from the total score will be made if no response is
indicated for an item in the answer sheet.
7. There is only one correct response for each question. Filling up more than one response
in any question will be treated as wrong response and marks for wrong response will be
deducted accordingly as per instruction 6 above.
8. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers,
pager, mobile phone, any electronic device, etc. inside the examination room/hall.
9. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet
only. This space is given at the bottom of each page of the booklet.
10. Do not fold or make any stray mark on the Answer Sheet.

.
SYLLABUS FOR Medical AITS – 01

Physics – Vectors, Calculus for physics, Unit & Dimension, Errors & measurements, Kinematics- I &
II , LOM & Friction
Chemistry – Atomic Structure, Mole concept, Periodic Table, Gaseous State, Chemical Bonding
Botany – Living World, Biological Classification, Plant Kingdom, Cell - the Unit of Life
Zoology – Structural Organisation in Animals, Animal Kingdom
 AITS – 01 (NEET 2023 Aspirants)

PHYSICS
SECTION - A
1. The unit of thermal conductivity is:
(1) Jm–1 K–1 (2) W m K–1 (3) W m–1 K–1 (4) J m K–1

2. A screw gauge gives the following readings when used to measure the diameter of a wire
Main scale reading: 0 mm Circular scale reading : 52 divisions Given that, 1 mm on main scale
corresponds to 100 divisions on the circular scale. The diameter of the wire from the above data is
(1) 0.52 cm (2) 0.026 cm (3) 0.26 cm (4) 0.052 cm

3. Time intervals measured by a clock. give the following readings 1.25 s,1.24 s, 1.27 s, 1.21s and 1.28
s. What is the percentage relative error of the observations?
(1) 2% (2) 4% (3) 16% (4) 1.6%

4. In an experiment, four quantities a,b,c and d are measured with percentage error 1%, 2%, 3% and 4%
a 3b2
respectively. Quantity P is calculated P  % . Error in P is
cd
(1) 14% (2) 10% (3) 7% (4) 4%

e2
5. A physical quantity of the dimensions of length that can be formed out of c, G and is [c is
4 0
velocity of light, G is universal constant of gravitation and e is charge]
1/2 1/2 1/2
1  e2  2 e2  1  e2  1 e2
(1) 2  G  (2) C G  (3) 2   (4) G
c  40   40  c  G40  c 40

6. Putting dimensions of r and F, we get, [x y r z ], where ,  and r are the coefficient of viscosity of
liquid, density of liquid and radius of the tube respectively, then the values of x, y and z are given by
(1) 1, –1, –1 (2) –1, –1, 1 (3) 1, 1, 1 (4) 1, 1, 1

7. A pair of physical quantities having same dimensional formula is

(1) force and torque (2) work and energy
(3) force and impulse (4) linear momentum and angular momentum

8. Preeti reached the metro station and found that the escalator was not working. She walked up the
stationary escalator in time t1. On other days, if she remains stationary on the moving escalator, then
the escalator takes her up in time t2. The time taken by her to walk up on the moving escalator will be
t t t1 t 2 t1 t 2
(1) 1 2 (2) (3) (4) t1  t 2
2 t 2  t1 t 2  t1

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

CENTERS: MUMBAI / DELHI / AKOLA / LUCKNOW / NAGPUR / NASHIK / PUNE / GOA / BOKARO / DUBAI # 2
 AITS – 01 (NEET 2023 Aspirants)
9. Two cars P and Q start from a point at the same time in a straight line and their positions are
represented by XP (t) = at + bt2 and XQ (t) = ft – t2. At what time do the cars have the same velocity ?
a f af a f f a
(1) (2) (3) (4)
1 b 2(b  1) 2(1  b) 2(1  b)

10. A system of mass connected by string is placed on rough surface having  = 0.1 and a force F = 3N
is exerted as shown

Then T1, T2 and f r2 will be :

(1) 2N, 0N, 0N (2) 2N, 0N, 2N (3) 3N, 0N, 3N (4) none

11. A particle of unit mass undergoes one-dimensional motion such that its velocity varies according to
v(x)  x 2n where,  and n are constants and x is the position of the particle. The acceleration of
the particle as a function of x, is given by
(1) 2n2 x 2n 1 (2) 2n2 x 4n 1 (3) 22 x 2n 1 (4) 2n2e4n 1

12. A person sitting in the ground floor of a building notices through the window of height 1.5 m, a ball
dropped from the roof of the building crosses the window in 0.1 s. What is the velocity of the ball
when it is at the topmost point of the window? (g=10m/s2)
(1) 15.5 m/s (2) 14.5 m/s (3) 4.5 m/s (4) 20 m/s

13. A person standing on the floor of an elevator drops a coin. The coin reaches the floor in time t1 if the
elevator is at rest and in time t2 if the elevator is moving uniformly. The which of the following
option is correct?
(1) t1 < t2 or t1 > t2 depending upon whether the lift is going up or down
(2) t1 < t2
(3) t1 > t2
(4) t1 = t2

14. If a vector 2iˆ  3jˆ  8kˆ is perpendicular to the vector 4iˆ  4ˆj  kˆ , then the value of  is
1 1
(1) –1 (2) (3)  (4) 1
2 2

15. The angle between A and B is . The value of the triple product A. (B  A) is
(1) A2B (2) Zero (3) A2Bsin  (4) A2 Bcos 

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

CENTERS: MUMBAI / DELHI / AKOLA / LUCKNOW / NAGPUR / NASHIK / PUNE / GOA / BOKARO / DUBAI # 3
 AITS – 01 (NEET 2023 Aspirants)
16. When an object is shot from the bottom of a long smooth inclined plane kept at an angle 60o with
horizontal, it can travel a distance x1 along the plane. But when the inclination is decreased to 30°
and the same object is shot with the same velocity, it can travel x2 distance.
Then x1 : x2 will be
(1) 2 :1 (2) 1: 3 (3) 1: 2 3 (4) 1: 2

17.  
The velocity of a projectile at the initial point A is 2iˆ  3jˆ m / s . Its velocity (in m/s) at point B is

(1) 2iˆ  3jˆ (2) 2iˆ  3jˆ (3) 2iˆ  3jˆ (4) 2iˆ  3jˆ

18. A particle has initial velocity (3iˆ  4ˆj) and has acceleration (0.4iˆ  0.3j)
ˆ . Its speed after 10 s is
(1) 7 unit (2) 7 2unit (3) 8.5unit (4) 10 unit

19. For angles of projection of a projectile at angles  45   and  45   , the horizontal ranges
described by the projectile are in the ratio of
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 2 : 3 (3) 1 : 2 (4) 2 : 1

20. A person swims in a river aiming to reach exactly opposite point on the bank of a river. His speed of
swimming is 0.5 m/s at an angle 120o with the direction of flow of water. The speed of water in
stream is
(1) 1.0 m/s (2) 0.5 m/s (3) 0.25 m/s (4) 0.43 m/s

21. A ball of mass 0.15 kg is dropped from a height 10 m, strikes the ground and rebounds to the same
height. The magnitude of impulse imparted to the ball is nearly (g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 0 (2) 4.2 kg–m/s (3) 2.1 kg–m/s (4) 1.4 kg–m/s

22. A truck is stationary and has a bob suspended by a light string, in a frame attached to the truck. The
truck, suddenly moves to the right with an acceleration of a. The pendulum will tilt
g
(1) to the left and the angle of inclination of the pendulum with the vertical is sin 1  
a
a
(2) to the left and angle of inclination of the pendulum with the vertical is tan 1  
g

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

CENTERS: MUMBAI / DELHI / AKOLA / LUCKNOW / NAGPUR / NASHIK / PUNE / GOA / BOKARO / DUBAI # 4
 AITS – 01 (NEET 2023 Aspirants)

a
(3) to the left and angle of inclination of the pendulum with the vertical is sin1  
g
g
(4) to the left and angle of inclination of the pendulum with the vertical is tan 1  
a

23. A balloon with mass m is descending down with an acceleration a (where, a < g). How much mass
should be removed from it so that it starts moving up with an acceleration a?
2ma 2ma ma ma
(1) (2) (3) (4)
ga ga ga ga

24.  
An object of mass 3 kg is at rest. If a force F  6t 2 ˆi  4tjˆ N is applied on the object, then the
velocity of the object at t = 3 s is
(1) 18iˆ  3jˆ (2) 18iˆ  6ˆj (3) 3iˆ  18ˆj (4) 18iˆ  4ˆj

25. What will be the maximum value of mass M, so that system will not move ?

(1) 2.5 kg (2) 10 kg (3) 5 kg (4) 25 kg

26. A block of mass m is placed on a smooth inclined wedge ABC of inclination  as shown in the
figure. The wedge is given an acceleration a towards the right. The relation between a and  for the
block to remain stationary on the wedge is

g g
(1) a  g cos  (2) a  (3) a  (4) a  g tan 
sin  cos ec

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

CENTERS: MUMBAI / DELHI / AKOLA / LUCKNOW / NAGPUR / NASHIK / PUNE / GOA / BOKARO / DUBAI # 5
 AITS – 01 (NEET 2023 Aspirants)
27. Two blocks A and B of masses 3m and m respectively are connected by a massless and inextensible
string. The whole system is suspended by a massless spring as shown in figure. The magnitudes of
acceleration of A and B immediately after the string is cut, are respectively

g g g g
(1) g, (2) ,g (3) g,g (4) ,
3 3 3 3

28. Mark the correct statements about the friction between two bodies.
1. Static friction is always greater than the kinetic friction.
2. Coefficient of static friction is always greater than the coefficient of kinetic friction.
3. Limiting friction is always greater than the kinetic friction.
4. Limiting friction is never less than static friction.
(1) 2,3,4 (2) 1,2,3 (3) 1,3,4 (4) 1,2,4

29. A body of mass m is kept on a rough horizontal surface (coefficient of friction=  ) Horizontal force
is applied on the body, but it does not move. The resultant of normal reaction and the frictional force
acting on the object is given F, where F is
(1) | F | mg  mg (2) | F | mg (3) | F | mg  1  2 (4) | F | mg

30. A plank with a box on it at one end is gradually raised about the other end. As the angle of
inclination with the horizontal reaches 30o, the box starts to slip and slides 4.0 m down the plank in
4.0 s. The coefficients of static and kinetic friction between the box and the plank will be,
respectively

(1) 0.6 and 0.6 (2) 0.6 and 0.5 (3) 0.5 and 0.6 (4) 0.4 and 0.3

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

CENTERS: MUMBAI / DELHI / AKOLA / LUCKNOW / NAGPUR / NASHIK / PUNE / GOA / BOKARO / DUBAI # 6
 AITS – 01 (NEET 2023 Aspirants)
31. Two monkey of equal mass 10 kg is at rest on rope then tension at point A, B and C on rope TA, TB
and TC will be respectively :

(1) 0, 100, 100 N (2) 0, 200, 100 N (3) 0, 100, 200 N (4) 100, 100, 200 N

32.
Column – I Column – II
(i) Curie (A) [MLT–2]
(ii) Light year (B) M
(iii) Dielectric strength (C) Dimensionless
(iv) Atomic weight (D) T
(v) Decibel (E) ML2T–2
(F) MT–3
(G) T–1
(H) L
(I) MLT–3I–1
(J) LT–1
Choose the correct match :
(1) (i) G, (ii) H, (iii) C, (iv) B, (v) C (2) (i) D, (ii) H, (iii) I, (iv) B, (v) G
(3) (i) G, (ii) H, (iii) I, (iv) B, (v) G (4) None of the above

A x
33. The potential energy of a particle varies with distance x from a fixed point as U  where A
xB
and B are constants. The dimensions of AB is :
(1) [ML3/2T–2] (2) [ML7/2T–2] (3) [M2L5/2T–2] (4) dimensionless

34. The circular scale of a micrometer has 200 divisions and pitch of 2 mm. Find the measure value of
thickness of a thin sheet. If diagram show reading without and with thin sheet.

(1) 3.40 mm (2) 6.41 mm (3) 3.46 mm (4) 3.51 mm

35. Number of significant figures for numbers 1, 1,0 and 1.000 are respectively.
(1) 1, 1, 1 (2) 1, 2, 3 (3) 1, 2, 4 (4) 1, 1, 4

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

CENTERS: MUMBAI / DELHI / AKOLA / LUCKNOW / NAGPUR / NASHIK / PUNE / GOA / BOKARO / DUBAI # 7
 AITS – 01 (NEET 2023 Aspirants)
SECTION - B

36. The main scale of vernier callipers has n divisions/cm. n divisions of the vernier scale coincide
with (n – 1) divisions of main scale. The least count of the vernier callipers is
1 1
(1) cm (2) cm
(n  1)(n  1) n
1 1
(3) cm (4) cm
n 2
n(n  1)

37. In the diagram shown in figure :

(1) W  A  B (2) Y  B  C  A
(3) Z  B  C (4) Both (2) and (3) are correct

38. If A  2iˆ  3jˆ make angle  with x-axis then :

3 2 3
(1) sin   (2) cos   (3) tan   (4) all of these
13 13 2

39. What is the unit vector perpendicular to the following vectors 2iˆ  2ˆj  kˆ and 6iˆ  3jˆ  2kˆ ?
ˆi  10ˆj  18kˆ ˆi  10ˆj  18kˆ ˆi  10ˆj  18kˆ ˆi  10ˆj  18kˆ
(1) (2) (3) (4)
5 17 5 17 5 17 5 17

40. If acceleration of a particle is varying with x according to curve. Velocity of particle at A is 2m/s.
What is the velocity of particle at point B?

(1) 4m/s (2) 34m / s (3) 28m / s (4) 7m / s

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

CENTERS: MUMBAI / DELHI / AKOLA / LUCKNOW / NAGPUR / NASHIK / PUNE / GOA / BOKARO / DUBAI # 8
 AITS – 01 (NEET 2023 Aspirants)
o
41. An inclined plane makes an angle 30 with the horizontal A groove OA = 5m cut in the plane makes
an angle 30° with OX a shot smooth cylinder is free to slide down the influence of gravity. The time
taken by the cylinder to reach from A to O is: (g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 4 s (2) 3 s (3) 2 s (4) 1 s

42. Figure shows four paths for a kicked football. Ignoring the effects of air on the flight, rank the paths
according to initial horizontal velocity component, highest first:

(1) 1,2,3,4 (2) 2,3,4,1 (3) 3,4,1,2 (4) 4,3,2,1

43. A dynamometer D is attached to two bodies of equal masses (M = 10kg). Force F = 20N and f = 10N
are applied to the masses as shown. The dynamometer reads :

(1) 14 N (2) 20 N (3) 15 N (4) 30 N

x2
44. Trajectory of particle in a projectile motion is given as : y  x  . Here, x and y are in metres. For
80
this projectile motion match the following with g = 10 m/s2.

Table – 1 Table – 2
(i) Angle of projection (p) 20 m
(ii) Angle of velocity with (q) 80 m
horizontal after 4s
(iii) Maximum height (r) 45o
(iv) Horizontal range (s) 1
tan 1  
2

(1) (i) – (r), (ii) – (s), (iii) – (p), (iv) – (q)

(2) (i) – (r), (ii) – (r), (iii) – (p), (iv) – (q)
(3) (i) – (r), (ii) – (r), (iii) – (q), (iv) – (p)
(4) (i) – (r), (ii) – (s), (iii) – (q), (iv) – (p)
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

CENTERS: MUMBAI / DELHI / AKOLA / LUCKNOW / NAGPUR / NASHIK / PUNE / GOA / BOKARO / DUBAI # 9
 AITS – 01 (NEET 2023 Aspirants)
45. A force time graph for the motion of a body is shown in the figure. The change in the momentum of
the body between zero and 10 sec is :

(1) zero (2) 4 kg m/s (3) 5 kg m/s (4) 3 kg m/s

46. A water jet having mass per unit length  = 100kg/m and velocity of water coming out is v =
2m/sec, force exerted by jet on wall will be :

(1) 200 N (2) 400 N (3) 100 N (4) can’t calculate

47. A sphere of mass m is kept in equilibrium with the help of several springs as shown in the figure.
Measurement shows that one of the springs applies a force F on the sphere. With what acceleration
the sphere will move immediately after this particular spring is cut?

(1) zero (2) F / m

(3) F / m (4) insufficient information

48. If masses of blocks A and B are 3kg and 8kg respectively, then normal reaction between A and B

(1) 20 N (2) 30 N (3) 35 N (4) 115 N

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

CENTERS: MUMBAI / DELHI / AKOLA / LUCKNOW / NAGPUR / NASHIK / PUNE / GOA / BOKARO / DUBAI # 10
 AITS – 01 (NEET 2023 Aspirants)
49. Consider the three cases given in figures shown. Assume the friction to be absent everywhere and the
pulleys to be light, the string connecting the blocks to other block of fixed vertical wall to be light
and inextensible. Let TA, TB and TC be the tension in the strings in figure (A), figure (B) and figure
(C) respectively. Then pick the correct comparison between the given tensions (for the instant
shown) from options below.

(1) TA = TB = TC (2) TB = TC < TA (3) TA < TB < TC (4) TB < TC < TA

50. Figure shows two pulley arrangements for lifting a mass m. In case-1, the mass is lifted by attaching
a mass 2m while in case-2 the mass is lifted by pulling the order end with a downward force F =
2mg. If aa and ab are the accelerations of the two masses then (Assume sting is massless and pulley is
ideal)

(1) aa = ab (2) aa = ab/2 (3) aa = ab / 3 (4) aa = 2ab

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

CENTERS: MUMBAI / DELHI / AKOLA / LUCKNOW / NAGPUR / NASHIK / PUNE / GOA / BOKARO / DUBAI # 11
 AITS – 01 (NEET 2023 Aspirants)

CHEMISTRY
SECTION - A
51. The potential energy of an electron in He ion is 12.09eV . Find out in which excited state, the
electron is present
(1) first (2) second (3) third (4) fourth

52. Electron in He ion in nth level falls successively from nth to n1 th and then n1 th to 1st level,
 
emitting two photons of wavelengths 1000 A and 300 A . Thus, n corresponds to
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 6 (4) 10

53. Ionisation potential of hydrogen is 13.6eV . Hydrogen atoms in the ground state are excited by
monochromatic light of energy 12.1eV . The spectral lines emitted by hydrogen according to the
Bohr’s theory are
(1) one (2) two (3) three (4) four

54. In the Brackett series of Be3 , successive lines tend towards a limiting value of frequency.
R Hc 4R H R Hc
(1) (2) (3) (4) R H c
4 c 2

55. If the de-Broglie wavelength of a particle of mass m is 25 times its velocity , then this wavelength is
1 h h 1 m m
(1) (2) 5 (3) (4) 5
5 m m 5 h h

56. If kinetic energy of a proton is increased to nine times. The wavelength of de-Broglie wave
associated with it would become
1 1
(1) 3 times (2) 9 times (3) times (4) times
3 9

57. The uncertainty in the position of an electron moving with a velocity of 1104 cm/s(accurate up to
0.011% ) will be
(1) 1.92 cm (2) 7.68 cm (3) 0.528cm (4) 3.8 cm

58. Which of the following statements about LiCl and NaCl is wrong?
(1) LiCl has lower melting point that of NaCl.
(2) LiCl dissolves more in organic solvents, whereas NaCl does not.
(3) LiCl would ionise in water more than NaCl.
(4) Fused LiCl would be more conducting than fused NaCl.

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

CENTERS: MUMBAI / DELHI / AKOLA / LUCKNOW / NAGPUR / NASHIK / PUNE / GOA / BOKARO / DUBAI # 12
 AITS – 01 (NEET 2023 Aspirants)

59. The nitrite ion NO 2 may be represented by two major resonance forms. The lengths of the N  O
bonds in the ion are expected to be
(1) the same as the length of N  O double bonds
(2) the same as the length of N  O triple bonds
(3) between the lengths of N  O single and N  O double bonds
(4) between N  O double and N  O triple bonds

60. Atoms the following, the compound without a   bond is

(1) SO3  g  (2) SiO2  g  (3) F2O2  g  (4) SO2  g 

61. The correct order of increasing s-character(in percentage) in the hybrid orbitals of the following
molecules/ ions is
I. CO32  II. H 2S III. NH3 IV. CCl 4
V. BeCl 2
Choose the correct order.
(1) II  III  IV  I  V (2) II  IV  III  V  I
(3) III  II  I  V  IV (4) II, IV  III  I  V

62. By VSPER model, correct matching for BrF5 is

(1) AX5 - Trigonal bipyramidal (2) AX5 E  Square pyramidal
(3) AX5 E 2  Square planar (4) AX 2 E3  Linear


63. The H  Cl bond length is 1.275A (charge e  4.8 1010 esu ).If   1.02D , then percentage ionic
character in HCl is
(1) 68% (2) 17% (3) 83% (4) 32%

64. Identify the correct statement about CH 2 F2 .

(1) H C H bond angle is equal to FC H bond angle.

(2) H C H bond angle is greater than FC H bond angle.
(3) H C H bond angle is less than FC H bond angle.
(4) bond angles are equal

65. Consider the statements.


I. Bond length in N 2 is 0.02 A more than in N 2 .

II. Bond length in NO is 0.09 A less than in NO.
III. O 22  has a shorter bond length than O 2 .
Then, which of the following is correct?
(1) I and III (2) II and III (3) I and II (4) I,II and III
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

CENTERS: MUMBAI / DELHI / AKOLA / LUCKNOW / NAGPUR / NASHIK / PUNE / GOA / BOKARO / DUBAI # 13
 AITS – 01 (NEET 2023 Aspirants)
66. Which one of the following does not have intermolecular H-bonding?
(1) H 2 O (2) o-nitrophenol (3) HF (4) CH3OH

67. A metal sulphate is isomorphous with CaSO4 .2H 2O and contains 10%S. Atomic weight of the metal
is  Ca  40
(1) 108 (2) 188 (3) 94 (4) 208

68. Number of electrons present in 6g of CO32  is

(1) 1.806 1024 (2) 1.9264 1024 (3) 3.724 1024 (4) None of these

69. What volume of 6.0 MH 2SO4 should be mixed with 10 L of 1.0 M H 2SO4 to make 20.0L of
3.0 M H 2SO4 upon dilution to volume?
(1) 1.7L (2) 5 L (3) 8.3 L (4) 10.0L

70. A solution containing 12.0% NaOH by mass has a density of 1.1131g / mL . What volume of this
solution contains 5.00 moles of NaOH?
(1) 0.0240 L (2) 1.67L (3) 1.47L (4) 1.00L

71. The density of 2.0M solution of a solute is 1.2 g mL1 . Molar mass of solute is 100 g mol1 . Thus,
molality of the solution is
(1) 2.0 m (2) 1.2m (3) 1.0m (4) 0.6m

72. Iron (III) oxide can be reduced with CO to form metallic iron as described by unbalanced chemical
reaction
Fe2 O3  CO   Fe  CO2
The number of moles of CO required to form one mole of Fe from its oxide is
(1) 1 (2) 1.5 (3) 200g (4) 228 g

73. How many grams of SO 2 could b formed, if the mixture of 128 g of sulphur and 100g O2 are mixed
and ignited?
(1) 100 g (2) 114g (3) 200 g (4) 228 g

74. Equal masses of ethane and hydrogen are mixed in an empty container at 25oC. The fraction of the
total pressure exerted by hydrogen is
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 1 (3) 1 : 16 (4) 15 : 16

75. Through the two ends of a glass tube of length 200cm HCl gas and NH3 are allowed to enter. At
what distance, the white ring of ammonium chloride will first appear?
(1) 81.1 cm from HCl end (2) 81.1 cm from NH3 end
(3) 100cmfrom both end (4) The ring will not form

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

CENTERS: MUMBAI / DELHI / AKOLA / LUCKNOW / NAGPUR / NASHIK / PUNE / GOA / BOKARO / DUBAI # 14
 AITS – 01 (NEET 2023 Aspirants)
76. A mixture containing Ne and Ar in a vessel at 250 K has a total translation kinetic energy  3kJ . The
total mass of mixture is 30 g. What is the mass % of Ar in mixture?
(1) 28.3 (2) 71.7 (3) 50.3 (4) 30.2

77. The value of van der Waal’s constant a for various gases are given
Gas a  L2atm mol2 
N2 1.390
O2 1.360
NH3 4.170
CH 4 2.253
The order of liquefaction of these gases is
(1) N 2  O2  NH3  CH4 (2) NH3  CH4  N2  O2
(3) NH3  CH 4  N 2  O2 (4) N 2  O2  NH3  CH 4

78. If V is the volume of one molecule of a gas under given conditions, then van der Waal’s constant
b(also called excluded volume or effective volume) is
4V N0
(1) 4V (2) (3) (4) 4V N 0
N0 4V

79. At low pressure, if RT  2 ap , (a is van der Waal’s constant), then the volume occupied by a real
gas is
(1) 2RT /  (2) 2 / RT (3) RT / 2 (4) 2RT / 

80. At critical state the compressibility factor (z) for a real gas is equal to
3 8 4 3
(1) (2) (3) (4)
8 3 3 4

81. A M2 ion derived from a metal in the first transition metal series have 6 electrons in 3d-
subshell.Identify element M?
(1) Cr (2) Mn (3) Fe (4) Ni

82. An element x belong to the third period of p-block. It has 4 electrons in the outermost shell. What is
the name of element?
(1) Si (2) Rb (3) Ge (4) Na

83. What is the increasing order of size for the following ions?
Be2 , Cl ,s 2 , Na  , Mg 2 , Br 
(1) Be2  Cl  s 2  Na   Mg 2  Br  (2) Be2  Mg 2  Cl  Na   s 2  Br 
(3) Be2  Mg 2  Na   Cl  S2  Br  (4) Br   Mg 2  Cl  Na   s 2  Be2

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

CENTERS: MUMBAI / DELHI / AKOLA / LUCKNOW / NAGPUR / NASHIK / PUNE / GOA / BOKARO / DUBAI # 15
 AITS – 01 (NEET 2023 Aspirants)
84. Which of the following is incorrect?
(1) 1st, I.P.of He  1st I.p. of Ne
(2) 1st, I.P.of Li > last I.P of Be
(3) lst I.p. of Li < lst I.P. of Be
(4) 1st IP.of Li  I.p.of Na

85. Among the following elements which one has zero electron affinity?
(1) N (2) Na (3) Ne (4) O

SECTION - B
86. Consider following isoelectronic species (with 24 electrons)
I. Fe2 II. Mn III. Cr IV. Co3
Their magnetic moments will be in the following order
(1) I  IV  II  III (2) I  II  III  IV
(3) III  II  I  IV (4) I  II  III  IV

87. In which of the following plane would the probability of finding an electron residing in a d xy orbital
will be zero?
(1) xy and yz  planes (2) xy and xy-planes
(3) xz and yz  planes (4) z  direction, yz and xz planes

88. In the element with atomic number 20, number of electrons with  l  m  0 , is
(1) 20 (2) 13 (3) 12 (4) 7

89. Ionisation potential of sodium is  5.1eV  and the electron affinity of chlorine is 3.6eV . Energy
required to transfer one electron from an isolated sodium-atom to an isolated gaseous atom is
(1) 1.5eV (2) 1.5eV (3) 8.7eV (4) 8.7eV

90. Which pair is not correct order of lattice energy?

(1) KCl  MgO (2) AlN  MgO (3) CaO  BaO (4) MgCO3  CaCO3

91. Identify the correct statement.

(1) SnCl2 is ionic, while SnCl4 is covalent.
(2) PbCl 2 has a lower melting point that PbCl 4 .
(3) MgCl2 and AlCl3 are equally soluble in water.
(4) Sulphides of a metal are more soluble than its oxide.

92. 20.0 magnesium carbonate sample decomposes on heating to give CO2 and 8.0g of magnesium
oxide. Percent purity of magnesium carbonate sample is
(1) 75 (2) 96 (3) 60 (4) 84

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

CENTERS: MUMBAI / DELHI / AKOLA / LUCKNOW / NAGPUR / NASHIK / PUNE / GOA / BOKARO / DUBAI # 16
 AITS – 01 (NEET 2023 Aspirants)

93. NH3 is formed in the following sequence of reactions.

CaC2 50%yield 
I. Ca  2C 
 CaCN2  C 100%yield 
II. CaC2  N2 
 2NH3  CaCO3 50%yield 
III. CaCN2  3H2O 
To forms 2 moles of NH3 ,calcium should be taken
(1) 1mole (2) 2 moles (3) 3 moles (4) 4 moles

94. 1L solution of 1 molal aluminium sulphate  d  2.684g mL1  is treated with excess of BaCl 2 .Thus,
BaSO4 formed is Al  27,Ba  137
(1) 2 moles (2) 3moles (3) 6 moles (4) 12 moles

95. A cylinder of 5L capacity, filled with air at NTP is connected with another evacuated cylinder of 30L
of capacity. The resultant air pressure in both the cylinders will be
(1) 10.8 cm of Hg (2) 14.9cm of Hg (3) 21.8 cm of Hg (4) 38.8 cm of Hg

96. O 2 gas escapes through a pinhole in 37.5 s. Under the same conditions, the same volume of another
gas escapes in 44.0 s. This gas could be
(1) He (2) CO2 (3) Cl2 (4) F2

97. At 400K, the root mean square (rms) speed of a gas X (molecular weight  40 )is equal to the most
probable speed of gas Y at 60K. The molecular weight  g mol1  of gas Y is
(1) 8 (2) 12 (3) 16 (4) 4

98. Increasing order of electronegativities of the following elements H,O, F ,S and Cl are
(1) H  S  Cl  O  F (2) H  5  F  O  Cl
(3) H  Cl  5  F  O (4) F  Cl  S  O  H

99. Which of the following ions is the best conductor of electricity in aqueous solution?
(1) Li (2) Na  (3) Cs  (4) K 

100. Which one of the following is an amphoteric oxide?

(1) SO 2 (2) B2 O3 (3) ZnO (4) Na 2 O

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

CENTERS: MUMBAI / DELHI / AKOLA / LUCKNOW / NAGPUR / NASHIK / PUNE / GOA / BOKARO / DUBAI # 17
 AITS – 01 (NEET 2023 Aspirants)

BOTANY
SECTION - A
101. The hypothesis that the bodies of animals and plants are composed of cells and products of cells was
proposed by _________.
(1) Schwann (2) Schleiden
(3) Virchow (4) Schleiden and Schwann

102. Which of the following statement is not CORRECT regarding biological nomenclature?
(1) The first word denoting the genus starts with a capital letter.
(2) These names are Latinised or derived from Latin irrespective of their origin.
(3) The second word of name denoting the family starts with a small letter.
(4) Both the words in name are printed in italics and when handwritten they are separately
underlined.

103. Which of the following are NOT members of class RHODOPHYCEAE?

(1) Gracilaria and Gelidium (2) Ectocarpus and Dictyota
(3) Porphyra and Gracilaria (4) Polysiphonia and Porphyra

104. In the five kingdom classification, proposed by R.H. Whittaker (1969),

Chlamydomonas and Chlorella are included in kingdom_________.
(1) PLANTAE (2) ALGAE (3) PROTISTA (4) MONERA

105. In given figure A B, C and D represent :-

(1) A-Sporangium, B-Capsule, C-Sporophyte, D-Gametophyte

(2) A-Capsule, B-Seta, C-Sporophyte, D-Gametophyte
(3) A-Sporangium, B-Seta, C-Gametophyte, D-Sporophyte
(4) A-Sporangium, B-Capsule, C-Gametophyte, D-Sporophyte

106. The other plants, except algae have _______in their cell wall.
(1) only cellulose
(2) cellulose, galactans, mannans and minerals like calcium carbonate
(3) cellulose, hemicellulose, pectins and proteins
(4) only chitin

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

CENTERS: MUMBAI / DELHI / AKOLA / LUCKNOW / NAGPUR / NASHIK / PUNE / GOA / BOKARO / DUBAI # 18
 AITS – 01 (NEET 2023 Aspirants)
107. Which set of diseases are caused by bacteria?
(1) Cholera, Typhoid, Tetanus, Citrus canker (2) Cholera, AIDS, Tetanus, Kuru
(3) Typhoid, Tetanus, Influenza, Rabies (4) Rabies, AIDS, Mumps, Kuru

108. Which of the following is responsible for peat formation?

(1) Marchantia (2) Riccia (3) Funaria (4) Sphagnum

109. Ribosome is made of_______.

(1) rRNA + protein (2) rRNA + mRNA + protein
(3) mRNA + protein (4) rRNA + tRNA + protein

110. Haplontic alteration of generation is found in_________.

(1) gymnosperms (2) algae
(3) angiosperms (4) pteridophytes

111. Find out an INCORRECT description about secondary constriction

(1) Non staining (2) Constant position
(3) Known as centromere (4) Present in few chromosomes

112. The earliest classifications were based on the _______of various organisms.
(1) morphological features (2) anatomical features
(3) both (1) and (2) (4) uses

113. Match the Column I with Column II and select the CORRECT option

Column – I Column – II
(i) Dianoflagellates (a) Pellicle
(ii) Diatoms (b) Saprotrophic
(iii) Slime moulds (c) Cellulosic cell wall
(iv) Euglenoids (d) Cellulosic cell wall
with silica

(1) (i)-d, (ii)-c, (iii)-b, (iv)-a (2) (i)-c, (ii)-d, (iii)-b, (iv)-a
(3) (i)-c, (ii)-d, (iii)-a, (iv)-b (4) (i)-d, (ii)-c, (iii)-a, (iv)-b

114. Analyse the statements to their correctness and select a RIGHT option
(i) The problem of classification becomes more complex at higher categories.
(ii) Cytotaxonomy is based on chemical compounds present in cells.
(iii) Classification is not a single step process.
(iv) Five kingdom classification of R.H. Whittaker is phylogenetic.
(1) (i), (iii) and (iv) (2) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (3) (i) and (iv) only (4) (i), (ii) and (iii)

115. Which type of reproduction is found in monerans?

(1) Only sexual (2) Both sexual and asexual
(3) Only asexual (4) Only vegetative
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

CENTERS: MUMBAI / DELHI / AKOLA / LUCKNOW / NAGPUR / NASHIK / PUNE / GOA / BOKARO / DUBAI # 19
 AITS – 01 (NEET 2023 Aspirants)
116. Find an INCORRECT statement about gymnosperms
(1) The female gametophyte of gymnosperms has two or more archegonia.
(2) In Pinus male and female cones are born on the same tree but in Cycas male cones and
megasporophylls are borne on different trees.
(3) Pollination in gymnosperms is by wind.
(4) In gymnosperms, both male and female gametophytes have an independent
free-living existence.

117. Prions consist of________.

(1) normally folded lipids (2) RNA + protein
(3) DNA + protein (4) abnormally folded protein only

118. The photosynthetic pigments in a chloroplast are restricted to________.

(1) stroma (2) outer membrane (3) thylakoid (4) inner membrane

119. Mycorrhizal association is seen in roots of__________.

(1) Ginkgo (2) Cedrus (3) Pinus (4) Cycas

120. Which of the following possesses an organised nucleus with a nuclear envelope?
(1) Mycoplasma (2) Cyanobacteria (3) Amoeba (4) Bacteria

121. Find the WRONG match wrt shapes of bacteria

(1) Coccus — Spherical (2) Vibrio — Comma
(3) Spirillum — Rod-like (4) Bacillus — Rod-like

122. Study the following table which shows different organisms with their taxonomic categories

Common Family Order Class Phylum/Division

name
Man HOMINIDAE PRIMATA MAMMALIA A
Housefly MUSCIDAE DIPTERA B ARTHROPODA
Mango C SAPINDALES DICOTYLEDONAE ANGIOSPERMAE
Wheat POACEAE POALES D ANGIOSPERMAE
Select the correct option for A, B, C and D
(1) A-CHORDATA, B-INSECTA, C-ANACARIDIACEAE, D-MONOCOTYLEDONAE
(2) A-ANIMALIA, B-ARACHNIDA, C-ANACARDIACEAE, D-DICOTYLEDONAE
(3) A-CHORDATA, B-ARACHNIDA, C-POLYGONACEAE, D-MONOCOTYLEDONAE
(4) A-NON-CHORDATA, B-INSECTA, C-ANACARDIACEAE, D-DICOTYLEDONAE

123. Arrange the steps involved in sexual cycle in fungi in a chronological sequence
(1) Plasmogamy → Karyogamy → Zygote → Meiosis → Haploid spores
(2) Karyogamy → Plasmogamy → Zygote → Meiosis → Haploid spores
(3) Plasmogamy → Karyogamy → Zygote → Haploid spores → Meiosis
(4) Plasmogamy → Zygote → Karyogamy → Meiosis → Haploid spores
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

CENTERS: MUMBAI / DELHI / AKOLA / LUCKNOW / NAGPUR / NASHIK / PUNE / GOA / BOKARO / DUBAI # 20
 AITS – 01 (NEET 2023 Aspirants)
124. Match the following columns and select the CORRECT option

Column I Column II
(A) Polar nuclei + male (a) Double fertilization
gamete
(B) Ovule (b) Fruits
(C) Ovary (c) Seed
(D) Syngamy + triple (d) Endosperm
fusion

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(1) (a) (d) (c) (d)
(2) (d) (c) (b) (a)
(3) (c) (b) (a) (d)
(4) (d) (c) (a) (b)

125. The endomembrane system includes________.

(1) ER, Golgi complex, lysosomes, and vacuoles
(2) ER, Golgi complex, peroxisomes, and vacuoles
(3) sphaerosomes, peroxisomes, and glyoxysomes
(4) ER, lysosomes, and peroxisomes

126. Algae are divided into various classes on the basis of____________.
(A) pigment
(B) morphology of thallus
(C) stored food
(D) mode of spore formation and fruiting bodies
(1) A, B, C and D (2) A and B (3) C and D (4) A and C

127. Which of the following are exclusively unicellular, saprophytic eukaryotes?

(1) Desmids (2) Dinoflagellates (3) Euglenoids (4) Slime moulds

128. Ribosomes are the granular structures first observed under the electron microscope as dense particle
by_________.
(1) Flemming (2) Brown
(3) Hooke (4) Palade

129. I. Instead of a cell wall, they have a protein rich pellicle making their body flexible
II. They have two flagella, one transverse and other vertical.
III. They show mixotrophic nutrition.
IV. Their cell wall has stiff cellulosic plates on the outer surface.
From the above statements which can be assigned to dinoflagellates?
(1) I and II (2) II and III (3) III and IV (4) II and IV

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

CENTERS: MUMBAI / DELHI / AKOLA / LUCKNOW / NAGPUR / NASHIK / PUNE / GOA / BOKARO / DUBAI # 21
 AITS – 01 (NEET 2023 Aspirants)
130. Which of the following structures are related to the given diagram?

(1) Node, Internode, Rhizome, Seed

(2) Strobilus, Rhizome, Seed
(3) Strobilus, Rhizome, Node, Internode
(4) Fruit, Rhizophore, Rhizome, Strobilus

131. Due to the absence of _____________, a prokaryotic cell is different from an eukaryotic cell.
(1) cytoplasm (2) nuclear membrane (3) ribosome (4) cell wall

132. Which of following is TRUE for herbarium?

(1) Quick referral system (2) Always analytical in nature
(3) Repository of dead animal species (4) Only contains information about one taxon

133. Which cell organelle is present both in prokaryotic as well as eukaryotic cell?
(1) Cell membrane (2) Ribosome
(3) Nucleus (4) Both (1) and (2)

134. Find out an INCORRECT match

(1) PHYCOMYCETES- Rhizopus (2) ASCOMYCETES- Claviceps
(3) BASIDIOMYCETES- Alternaria (4) DUTEROMYCETES- Trichoderma

135. What is common in the following?

[Dog, Wheat, Mammal, Animal]
(1) These are all taxa at different levels.
(2) These all taxa belong to the same category.
(3) These are all taxa at same level in Linnaean hierarchy.
(4) These are all categories at different levels.

SECTION - B
136. Nucleolus is the site of synthesis of _________.
(1) rRNA (2) mRNA
(3) tRNA (4) hnRNA
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

CENTERS: MUMBAI / DELHI / AKOLA / LUCKNOW / NAGPUR / NASHIK / PUNE / GOA / BOKARO / DUBAI # 22
 AITS – 01 (NEET 2023 Aspirants)
137. All of the following are multicellular fungi, EXCEPT_________.
(1) Saccharomyces (2) Streptococcus
(3) Salmonella (4) Staphylococcus

138. In pteridophytes, the prothallus produces __________.

(1) sporangia (2) antheridia and archegonia
(3) vascular tissues (4) root, stem and leaf

139. Cell membrane is mainly constituted by lipids, proteins and carbohydrates. With respect to
their mutual proportions which of the following statements is CORRECT?
(1) All the three are in equal proportions. (2) Lipids are in the least proportion.
(3) Proteins are in the least proportion. (4) Carbohydrates are in the least proportion.

140. Bacteriophages are generally__________.

(1) ss DNA viruses (2) ds DNA viruses (3) ss RNA viruses (4) ds RNA viruses

141. Jacketed sex organs are found in________.

(1) Chlamydomonas (2) Funaria
(3) Laminaria (4) Nostoc

142. The __________is the main arena of cellular activities in both the plant and animal cells.
(1) mitochondrom (2) ribosome (3) nucleus (4) cytoplasm

143. The two kingdom classification was mainly based on________.

(1) presence or absence of cell organelle (2) presence or absence of cell wall
(3) chemical composition of cell wall (4) types of pigment

144. In natural classification of plants more weightage is given to floral characters than vegetative
characters because__________.
(1) floral characters are more conservative than vegetative characters
(2) floral characters are easy to understand
(3) flowers can be safely preserved
(4) both (2) and (3)

145. _________ forms the basal body of cilia and flagella.

(1) Centriole (2) Cell membrane
(3) Cytoskeleton (4) Centromere

146. A kingdom which has decomposers but lack producers is kingdom _____________.
(1) PROTISTA (2) MONERA
(3) FUNGI (4) PLANTAE

147. The number of gametes taking part in double fertilization are___________.

(1) two (2) three (3) four (4) five

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

CENTERS: MUMBAI / DELHI / AKOLA / LUCKNOW / NAGPUR / NASHIK / PUNE / GOA / BOKARO / DUBAI # 23
 AITS – 01 (NEET 2023 Aspirants)
148. Which one of the following is absent in an eukaryotic cell?
(1) Ribosome having 50S sub unit.
(2) Cell wall composed of peptidoglycan.
(3) Membrane less cell organelles.
(4) Flagella composed of tubulin protein.

149. Read the following statements (A-D)

(A) Cell wall of fungi consists of chitin or fungal cellulose.
(B) Most fungi are heterotrophic.
(C) Fungi can also live as symbionts in association with algae as lichens and with roots
of higher plants as mycorrhiza.
(D) Fusion of two nuclei is called plasmogamy.
How many of the above statement are not INCORRECT?
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 1

150. Heterospory is found in some members of ___ and all members of ___.
(1) BRYOPHYTA; PTERIDOPHYTA (2) PTERIDOPHYTA; BRYOPHYTA
(3) BRYOPHYTA; GYMNOSPERMAE (4) PTERIDOPHYTA; SPERMATOPHYTA

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

CENTERS: MUMBAI / DELHI / AKOLA / LUCKNOW / NAGPUR / NASHIK / PUNE / GOA / BOKARO / DUBAI # 24
 AITS – 01 (NEET 2023 Aspirants)

ZOOLOGY
SECTION - A
151. The kind of epithelium which forms the inner walls of blood vessels is
(1) cuboidal epithelium (2) columnar epithelium
(3) ciliated columnar epithelium (4) squamous epithelium

152. Which of the following is common in Cnidarians and Ctenophora ?

(1) Digestion is both intracellular and extracellular
(2) Cnidoblast
(3) Only sexual means of reproduction present
(4) Metagenesis

153. Which of the following tissue is CORRECTLY matched to its location ?

Option Tissue Location

(1) Ciliated epithelium Inner lining of salivary ducts
(2) Glandular epithelium Moist surface of buccal cavity
(3) Cuboidal epithelium Tubular parts of nephron
(4) Squamous epithelium Inner surface of bronchioles

154. Limbs are present in

(1) Osteichthyes (2) Chondrichthyes (3) Reptiles (4) Urochordates

155. Annelids do not represent :-

(1) Circumpharyngeal nerve ring (2) Longitudinal muscles in the gut
(3) Metameric segmentation (4) Mesodermal pouches in body cavity

156. Among the options given below, simple epithelium is not found at which location ?
(1) Air sacs of lungs
(2) PCT
(3) Inner surface of bronchioles and fallopian tubes
(4) Inner lining of ducts of salivary glands

157. Given below is a diagrammatic representation of a glandular tissue

Identify the structure labelled as ‘A’ and choose the correct option w.r.t its example.
(1) Gastric gland (2) Goblet cells (3) Oxyntic cells (4) Sebaceous gland

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

CENTERS: MUMBAI / DELHI / AKOLA / LUCKNOW / NAGPUR / NASHIK / PUNE / GOA / BOKARO / DUBAI # 25
 AITS – 01 (NEET 2023 Aspirants)
158. Which one of the following statements about certain given animals is CORRECT?
(1) Round worms (Aschelminthes) are Pseudocoelomates
(2) Molluscs are acoelomates
(3) Insects are pseudocoelomates
(4) Flat worms (Platyhelminthes) are coelomates

159. Select the INCORRECTLY matched pair from the following:

(1) Chondrocytes – Smooth muscle cells (2) Neurons – Nerve cells
(3) Fibroblast – Areolar tissue (4) Osteocytes – Bone cells

160. The feature lacking in bony fishes would be :

(1) Operculum (2) Swim bladder (3) Ammonotelism (4) Placoid scales

161. Which of the following structure is associated with locomotion?

(i) Parapodia (ii) Water vascular system (iii) Radula (iv) Proboscis
(1) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) (2) (i) only (3) (i), (ii) only (4) (i), (iii) only

162. Match the following and choose the correct option.

Column – I Column – II
a. Adipose tissue (i) Fibreless matrix
b. Cuboidal epithelium (ii) Abundant fat cells
c. Hyaline cartilage (iii) Thyroid follicles
d. Blood (iv) Tracheal rings

(1) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) (2) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
(3) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (4) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)

163. What is wrong with respect to skeletal muscles ?

(1) The striated skeletal muscle fibres are bundled together in a randomly fashion.
(2) A sheath of loose connective tissue encloses many bundles of muscle fibres.
(3) Skeletal muscle is partially attached to skeletal bones
(4) All are wrong

164. Dense irregular connective tissue with fibroblasts and many fibres (mostly collagen) that are oriented
irregularly are found in
(1) Tendon (2) Ligament (3) Dermis of skin (4) Blood

165. Match the column I with column II and choose the correct option.

Column I Column II
A. Porifera 1. Canal system
B. Aschelminthes 2. Water vascular system
C. Annelida 3. Muscular pharynx

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

CENTERS: MUMBAI / DELHI / AKOLA / LUCKNOW / NAGPUR / NASHIK / PUNE / GOA / BOKARO / DUBAI # 26
 AITS – 01 (NEET 2023 Aspirants)
D. Arthropoda 4. Jointed appendarges
E. Echinodermata 5. Metameres
Codes
A B C D E
(1) 2 3 5 4 1
(2) 2 5 3 4 1
(3) 1 3 5 4 2
(4) 1 5 3 4 2

166. Neuroglia makes more than __________of the volume of neural tissue in our body.
(1) 10% (2) 50% (3) 25% (4) 20%

167. Which of the following structures or substances is INCORRECTLY paired with a tissue ?
(1) Haversian system - bone (2) platelets - blood
(3) fibroblasts – skeletal muscle (4) chondroitin sulfate - cartilage

168. Tick mark the statement which is NOT CORRECT with respect to cockroach ?
(1) In cockroach the grinding of the food particles is performed by mandibles & gizzard.
(2) Malpighian tabules help in the removal of nitrogenous wastes in the form of urea & ammonia.
(3) Midgut gut of cockroach absorb food.
(4) Main body cavity is called haemocoel.

169. Which one of the following is INCORRECT about Porifera?

(1) Presence of spongin fibres (2) Cellular level of organization
(3) Presence of mouth and digestive cavity (4) Pores all over the body

170. What is true regarding morphology of Periplaneta americana ?

(1) Head is formed by the fusion of 10 segments
(2) Hypopharynx acts as the tongue
(3) The first pair of wings arises from the prothorax
(4) Anal cerci are not seen in females

171. Match each item in Column I with one item in Column II regarding anatomy of cockroach and
choose your answer from the codes given below.

Column I Column II
(Structure) (abdominal segment)
I. Testes 1. 2nd to 6th
II. Ovaries 2. 4th to 6th
III. Spermatheca 3. 6th
IV. Mushroom gland 4. 6th – 7th
Codes :
I II III IV
(1) 1 2 3 4

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

CENTERS: MUMBAI / DELHI / AKOLA / LUCKNOW / NAGPUR / NASHIK / PUNE / GOA / BOKARO / DUBAI # 27
 AITS – 01 (NEET 2023 Aspirants)
(2) 2 4 1 3
(3) 2 1 3 4
(4) 1 2 4 3

172. The respiratory system of cockroach consists of a network of trachea, that opens through ___(A)___
of small holes called ____(B)____ present on _____(C)_____ side of body
Choose the option which correctly fills the blanks labelled as A, B and C
Blank A Blank B Blank C
(1) 10 pairs Spiracles Dorsal
(2) 8 pairs Stigmata Lateral
(3) 10 pairs Spiracles Lateral
(4) 8 pairs Spiracles Ventral

173. Select the correct sequence of organs in the alimentary canal of cockroach starting from mouth :
(1) Pharynx  Oesophagus  lleum  Crop  Gizzard  Colon  Rectum
(2) Pharynx  Oesophagus  Crop  Gizzard  lleum  Colon  Rectum
(3) Pharynx  Oesophagus  Gizzard  Crop  lleum  Colon  Rectum
(4) Pharynx  Oesophagus  Gizzard  lleum  Crop  Colon  Rectum

174. Which of the following does not behave as sense organ in cockroach ?
(1) Maxillary palps (2) Labial palps (3) Anal cerci (4) Phallomeres

175. Which of the following is the unique feature of mammal?

(1) Muscular diaphragm (2) Ear pinna
(3) Mammary glands (4) All of the above

176. Alary muscles play an important role in

(1) Circulation of blood (2) Respiration
(3) Body movement (4) Peristalsis

177. Alternation of generation is seen in

(1) Sea-pen (2) Sea-fan (3) Sea fur (4) Sea anemone

178. The largest and the second largest phylum of the animal kingdom are
(1) Arthropoda and Echinodermata (2) Echinodermata and Mollusca
(3) Mollusca and vertebrata (4) Arthropoda and Mollusca

179. Which of the following is not an annelid ?

(1) Leech (2) Earthworm (3) Sea mouse (4) Sea cucumber

180. Select the group of animals belonging to different phyla?

(1) Hirudinaria. Limulus, Laccifer (2) Nereis, Dentalium, Aplysia
(3) Pheretima, Chaetopleura, Ophiura (4) Cucumaria, Antedon, Loligo.

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

CENTERS: MUMBAI / DELHI / AKOLA / LUCKNOW / NAGPUR / NASHIK / PUNE / GOA / BOKARO / DUBAI # 28
 AITS – 01 (NEET 2023 Aspirants)
181. Birds are NOT characterized by :
(1) Forelimbs modified into wings (2) Fully ossified endoskeleton
(3) Skin dry without glands except for oil gland (4) Oviparous and external fertilization

182. Choose the CORRECT statements.

(1) All mammals are viviparous
(2) All cyclostomes do not possess jaws and paired fins
(3) All reptiles have a three-chambered heart
(4) All Pisces have gills covered by an operculum

183. Which of the following characteristics is NOT CORRECT for squamous epithelium ?
(1) Made up of single thin layer of flattened cells.
(2) Cells with irregular boundaries.
(3) Free surface contains microvilli.
(4) Involved in a function like forming diffusion boundary.

184. Which of the following animal has a bony endoskeleton?

(1) Exocoetus (2) Clarias (3) Pristis (4) both (1) and (2)

185. Select the INCORRECT option w.r.t. animal listed in column A and features exhibited in column B

Column A Column B
(Organism) (Features)
1. Psittacula Homeothermy, Air
sacs to supplement
repiration
2. Panthera tigris Viviparity, Thecodont
dentition
3. Pleurobrachia Bioluminescence,
Eight rows of ciliated
comb plates
4. Pristis Presence of operculum,
Absence of air bladder

SECTION - B
186. Which of the following cnidarians are radially symmetrical and sessile?
(1) Hydra (2) Aurelia (3) Adamsia (4) Both (1) and (3)

187. Coordination, homeostasis and response to stimuli is the function of

(1) Epithelial tissue (2) Muscular tissue (3) Connective tissue (4) Nervous tissue

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

CENTERS: MUMBAI / DELHI / AKOLA / LUCKNOW / NAGPUR / NASHIK / PUNE / GOA / BOKARO / DUBAI # 29
 AITS – 01 (NEET 2023 Aspirants)
188. Mark the INCORRECT statement regarding compound epithelium.
(1) Made up of more than one layer of cells
(2) Vital role in secretion and absorption
(3) Provide protection against chemical and mechanical stress
(4) It covers the moist surface of buccal cavity

189. Which of the following statements is NOT CORRECT with respect to the epithelial tissue?
(1) It covers the external surface of the body and internal surface of many organs
(2) The neighbouring cells are held together by cell junctions and there is very little intercellular
material
(3) The epithelial cells rest on a cellular basement membrane that separates it from underlying
connective tissue.
(4) There is no blood supplying the nutrients to the epithelial cells

190. Match each item in column I with one item in column II regarding and choose your answer from the
codes given below:
Column I Column II
(organism) (respiratory organ)
I. Nereis 1. Gills
II. Prawn 2. Parapodia
III. Earthworm 3. Skin
IV. Cockroach 4. Trachea
I II III IV
(1) 1 2 3 4
(2) 2 1 4 3
(3) 2 1 3 4
(4) 1 2 4 3

191. Choose the CORRECT option, pairing the principal cell with the tissue .
(1) Mast cell - Adipose tissue
(2) Fibroblasts - Areolar tissue
(3) Macrophages - Tendon
(4) Chondroclasts - Bone

192. Intercalated discs are characteristic of muscles found in

(1) heart (2) thigh (3) urinary bladder (4) stomach

193. Which of the following is NOT an arthropod characteristic ?

(1) jointed appendages (2) Non-segmented bodies
(3) Periodic moulting (4) Articulated exoskeleton

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

CENTERS: MUMBAI / DELHI / AKOLA / LUCKNOW / NAGPUR / NASHIK / PUNE / GOA / BOKARO / DUBAI # 30
 AITS – 01 (NEET 2023 Aspirants)
194. Which of the following CORRECTLY states as it happens in the common cockroach ?
(1) Oxygen is transported by haemoglobin in blood
(2) Nitrogenous excretory product is urea
(3) The food is ground by mandibles and gizzard
(4) Malpighian tubules are excretory organs projecting out from the colon

195. What will you look to identify the sex of the following?
(1) Male frog – a copulatory pad on the first digit of the hind limb
(2) Female cockroach – anal cerci
(3) Male shark – claspers on pelvic fins
(4) Female Ascaris – sharply curved posterior end

196. Homeothermy is exhibited by :

(1) All amniotes (2) Birds and Mammals
(3) All dueterostomes (4) Reptiles and Mammals

197. At the time of copulation in Cockroach

(1) Sperms are discharged (2) Spermatophores are discharged
(3) Spermatheca are discharged (4) Spermatozoa are discharged

198. Echinoderms are NOT characterized by :

(1) An absence of excretory system
(2) Bisexual animals
(3) Usually external fertilization
(4) Indirect development with free swimming larva

199. Which one of the following is NOT a poisonous snake?

(1) Cobra (2) Viper (3) Python (4) Krait

200. Match each item in Column I with one item in Column II and choose your answer from the codes
given below.
Column I Column II
I. Placoid Scales 1. Chondrichthyes
II. Ctenoid scales 2. Osteichthyes
III. Ectoparasites 3. Hemichordata
IV. Proboscis gland 4. Cyclostomata
Codes:
I II III IV
(1) 1 2 3 4
(2) 2 1 4 3
(3) 2 1 3 4
(4) 1 2 4 3

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

CENTERS: MUMBAI / DELHI / AKOLA / LUCKNOW / NAGPUR / NASHIK / PUNE / GOA / BOKARO / DUBAI # 31