500

Most Important MCQ for

UPSC Prelims
(Current + Static)
Part-1
1. With reference to the Competition Commission of India, consider the
following statements:

1. It was established under the Competition Act, of 2002.

2. The Commission consists of one Chairperson and six Members who shall
be appointed by the Central Government.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
•The Competition Commission of India (CCI) was established in March 2009 by the Government of
India under the Competition Act, 2002 for the administration, implementation, and enforcement of the
Act.
•It is a quasi-judicial body which gives opinions to statutory authorities and also deals with other cases.
•Composition of the CCI
• The Commission consists of one Chairperson and six Members who shall be appointed by the
Central Government.
• The Chairperson and other Members shall be whole-time Members
Hence both statements are correct.
2. Consider the following statements regarding the Kharai Camels:
1. They are found in the salt marshes of the Kutch district of Gujarat.
2. They are classified as Endangered under the IUCN Red List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
About Kharai Camel:
•They are a rare breed of camel found in the salt marshes of the Kutch district of Gujarat.
•Their name is derived from the local word khara, meaning saline.
•It is well adapted to the saline desert environment and is known for its ability to
swim (hence also known as ‘swimming camel’).
•They swim long distances in the sea to reach their grazing areas, usually more than 3 km
at a time, even in deep waters.
•Kharai camels mostly feed on mangroves.
•They are considered a unique Eco-tonal species as they survive in the dryland
ecosystem as well as the coastal ecosystem.
•Conservation Status:
•IUCN: Endangered
Hence both statements are correct.
3. Consider the following statements regarding the Indian Computer
Emergency Response Team (CERT-in):
1. It is a functional organisation of the Ministry of Home Affairs.
2. It is the national nodal agency for responding to computer security
incidents.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
About Indian Computer Emergency Response Team (CERT-in):
•CERT-In is a functional organisation of the Ministry of Information & Electronics
Technology.
•It is the national nodal agency for responding to computer security incidents as and
when they occur.
•Objective: Securing Indian cyberspace.
•CERT-In has been operational since January 2004.
•Functions:
•Collection, analysis and dissemination of information on cyber incidents;

Hence only statement 2 is correct.

4. Consider the following statements regarding the Bar Council of India:
1. It is a statutory body established under the Advocates Act 1961.
2. It conducts the All India Bar Examination (AIBE) to grant a 'Certificate of Practice' to advocates
practising law in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
About Bar Council of India (BCI):
•It is a statutory body established under the Advocates Act 1961 to regulate and represent the
Indian bar.
•Functions:
•It performs the regulatory function by prescribing standards of professional conduct and
etiquette and by exercising disciplinary jurisdiction over the bar.
•It also sets standards for legal education and grants recognition to Universities whose degrees
in law will serve as qualification for enrolment as an advocate.
•It conducts the All India Bar Examination (AIBE) to grant a 'Certificate of Practice' to advocates
practising law in India.

Hence both statements are correct.

5. According to the cultural history of India ‘Panchayatan’ is:

A. An assembly of elders of village

B. A religious sect
C. Temple construction style
D. Functionary of an administration
Panchayatana Style of architecture. Main shrine is built on a rectangular
plinth with four subsidiary shrines that are smaller and at the 4 corners.
6. The word ‘Sathyameva Jayate’ is taken from
__________?
A.Yajur Veda
B.Atharva Veda
C.Mundaka Upanishad
D.Sam Veda
Answer: C. Mundaka Upanishad
7. Which part of the Constitution of India declares
the ideal of welfare state?

A.Directive Principles of State Policy

B Fundamental Rights
C Preamble
D.Seventh Schedule
The correct answer is Directive Principles of State Policy

welfare state is a concept of government where the state plays a key

role in the protection and promotion of the economic and social
welfare of its citizens

DPSPs promote the ideal of the welfare state; by emphasizing the state
to promote the welfare of people by providing them with basic facilities
like shelter, food, and clothing.
9. With reference to the Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board, consider
the following statements:
1. It was formed under the Environment Protection Act, of 1986.
2. It works under the Union Ministry of New and Renewable Energy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
•The Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) was formed under the Petroleum and
Natural Gas Regulatory Board Act, of 2006.

•Objective: To protect the interests of consumers and entities engaged in specified activities relating to
petroleum, petroleum products and natural gas and to promote competitive markets and for matters
connected therewith or incidental thereto.

•PNGRB authorises the CGD networks, natural gas and petroleum product pipelines, determines tariffs,
lays down the technical and safety standards etc.

•Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas.

Hence both statements are not correct.

10. With reference to the Palamau Tiger Reserve, consider the following
statements:

1. It is located in the Chota Nagpur plateau region of India.

2. It is surrounded by the Brahmani River in the North.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
•The Palamau Tiger Reserve is on the western side of Latehar district on the Chhota Nagpur
plateau in Jharkhand.

•This tiger reserve is surrounded by the Auranga River in the North.

•It is one of the first 9 tiger reserves created in the country at the inception of ‘Project Tiger’.
•This Tiger reserve zone is the watershed area for 3 important rivers Koel, Burha, and Auranga.
•Flora: The project area is constituted mainly of Sal forests, mixed deciduous forests, and
bamboo groves.
•Fauna: The keystone species are Tigers, Elephants, Leopards, Grey Wolf, Gaur, Sloth Bear, etc.

Hence only statement 1 is correct.

10.5 Turnersuchus hingleyae, which was recently seen in the news, is:

A.
An Asteroid

B.
A new exoplanet

C.
An ancient marine crocodile

D.
None of these
Palaeontologists have recently discovered fossils of the ancient ‘marine crocodile Turnersuchus
hingleyae.
•The fossils uncovered on the Jurassic Coast in the United Kingdom include part of the head,
backbone, and limbs of Turnersuchus hingleyae.
•Its age dates back to the early Jurassic, Pliensbachian period, which was about 185 million years
ago.
•Due to their relatively long, slender snouts, they would likely have looked similar to the currently
living Gharial crocodiles.
Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.
11. With reference to the Solar Flare, consider the following statements:

1. It is a magnetic plasma ejected from the solar surface.

2. It is classified based on the strength of the flare by using a logarithmic scale.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
•Solar flares are magnetic plasma ejected at great speed from the solar surface.

•They occur during the release of magnetic energy associated with sunspots (‘dark’
regions on the Sun that are cooler than the surrounding photosphere) and can last for a
few minutes or hours.

•There are 4 classes of solar flares - B, C, M, and X and these are classified on
a logarithmic scale similar to the Richter scale.

•The class denotes the strength of the flare and the number that comes after it signifies
their strength at a finer scale.

•Each class is therefore divided into 9 subdivisions. For example, X1 to X9.

Hence both statements are correct.

12.Consider the following statements regarding the Krushak Assistance for Livelihood and
Income Augmentation (KALIA) Scheme:

1. It was launched by the Odisha Government to reduce poverty and accelerate agricultural
prosperity.
2. It gives financial assistance of Rs.25,000 for a farm family over five seasons to purchase
inputs.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
About KALIA Scheme:
•It was launched by the Odisha Government in December 2018, to reduce poverty and
accelerate agricultural prosperity.
•The KALIA scheme supports cultivators, small farmers and landless agricultural labourers.
•It provides payments to farmers to encourage cultivation and associated activities.
•Benefits:
Assistance for cultivation:
It gives financial assistance of Rs.25,000 for a farm family (small and marginal farmers) over five
seasons to purchase inputs like fertilisers, seeds and pesticides.
•The farm family can also use the financial assistance towards labour and other investments.

•Hence both correct

 13. Bandipur Tiger Reserve, lies in which state?

A.
Kerala

B.
Gujarat

C.
Odisha

D.
Karnataka
About Bandipur Tiger Reserve:

•It was established in the 1930s as a wildlife sanctuary, which became a tiger reserve in 1973
under Project tiger.
•It is situated in two contiguous districts (Mysore and Chamarajanagar) of Karnataka and
located at the tri-junction area of the States of Karnataka, Tamil Nadu and Kerala.
•Bandipur Tiger Reserve is surrounded by:
•Nagarahole Tiger Reserve (Tamil Nadu) in the North West (Kabini Reservoir separates the
two).
•Mudumalai Tiger Reserve (Tamil Nadu) in the South.
•Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary (Kerala) in the South West.
•This area has the River Kabini in its north and River Moyar in its south.
•Flora: It comprises diverse vegetation of dry deciduous to tropical mixed deciduous. It
includes rosewood, Indian kino tree, sandalwood, Indian laurel, clumping bamboo and giant
clumping bamboo etc.
•Fauna: It is a shelter for the largest population of wild Asian elephants in South Asia. It
comprises other mammals such as Bengal tiger, gaur, sloth bear, golden jackal, dhole and
four-horned antelope etc.

Hence option d is the correct answer.

14. Consider the following statements regarding the Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT):

1. It has been established under Article 323-A of the Constitution.

2. It exercises jurisdiction only in relation to the service matters of the parties covered by the
Administrative Tribunals Act 1985.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
•The Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) had been established under Article 323-A of the Constitution.
•Mandate: To adjudicate disputes and complaints with respect to recruitment and conditions of
service of persons appointed to public services and posts in connection with the affairs of the Union or
other authorities under the control of the Government.
•In addition to the Ministries and Departments of Central Government, the Government has notified
about 214 organizations under section 14 (2) of the Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985, to bring them
within the jurisdiction of the CAT from time to time.
•There are 17 Benches and 21 Circuit Benches in the CAT all over India.
•Composition: A bench consists of one Judicial Member and one Administrative Member.
•The conditions of service of the Chairman and Members of CAT are the same as applicable to a Judge of
High Court.
•Salaries, Allowances and Conditions of Service of the officers and other employees of the Tribunal are
specified by the Central Government.
•Powers:
•It exercises jurisdiction only in relation to the service matters of the parties covered by the
Administrative Tribunals Act 1985.
•The Tribunal is guided by the principles of natural justice in deciding cases and is not bound by the
procedure prescribed by the Civil Procedure Code.
•CAT is empowered to frame its own rules of procedure and practice.
•It has been conferred with the power to exercise the same jurisdiction and authority in respect of
contempt of itself as a High Court.
Hence both statements are correct.
15. Consider the following statements regarding the National Financial Reporting
Authority (NFRA):

1. It was constituted by the Government of India under the National Financial Reporting
Authority Act of 2005.
2. It is an independent regulator to oversee the auditing profession and accounting
standards in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
About National Financial Reporting Authority (NFRA):
•The NFRA was constituted on 01st October 2018, by the Government of India under the
Companies Act, 2013.
•It is an independent regulator to oversee the auditing profession and accounting standards in India.
•Objective: To continuously improve the quality of all corporate financial reporting in India.
•Functions and Duties:
•Recommend accounting and auditing policies and standards to be adopted by companies for
approval by the Central Government;
•Monitor and enforce compliance with accounting standards and auditing standards;
•Oversee the quality of service of the professions associated with ensuring compliance with such
standards and suggest measures for improvement in the quality of service;
•Composition: It consists of a chairperson, who shall be a person of eminence and having expertise in
accountancy, auditing, finance, or law to be appointed by the Central Government and such
other members not exceeding fifteen consisting of part-time and full-time members.
•Powers:
•NFRA have the power to investigate, either suo moto or on a reference made to it by the Central
Government into the matters of professional or other misconduct committed by any member or
firm of chartered accountants registered under the Chartered Accountants Act, 1949.
•It has the same powers as are vested in a civil court under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 while
trying a suit.
•HQ: New Delhi
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
16. Kibo and Shira, the volcanic peaks which were recently seen in the news,
are located in which Mountain region?

A.
Mount Kilimanjaro

B.
Mount Merapi

C.
Mount Elbrus

D.
None of these
•Mount Kilimanjaro is Africa’s tallest mountain and the world’s largest free-standing
mountain (which means not part of a mountain range) located in Tanzania.
•It has three main volcanic peaks namely: Kibo, Mawenzi, and Shira.
•Amongst these three peaks, Kibo is the tallest of the three volcanic formations
which is also a dormant volcano while the other two are extinct volcanoes.
•The mountain is also known for its snow-capped peak.
•The mountain has five main vegetation zones from the lowest to the highest
point: Lower slopes, montane forest, heath and moorland, alpine desert and
summit.
•The Kilimanjaro National park was named a United Nations Educational, Scientific
and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) World Heritage site in 1987.
Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.
17. Eravikulam National Park, which was recently seen in the news, is located
in which state?

A.
Arunachal Pradesh

B.
Kerala

C.
Assam

D.
None of these
•Eravikulam National Park is situated in the Kannan Devan Hills of the southern Western
Ghats of Kerala.
•This is also the land of “Neelakurinji”, the flower that blooms once in twelve years.
•The Anamudi peak is situated on the southern side of the Park.
•Flora: The major part of the park is covered with rolling grasslands, but several patches
of shola forests are also found in the upper part of the valley.
•Fauna: The Nilgiri Tahr, Gaur, Sloth Bear, Nilgiri Langur, Tiger, Leopard, Giant Squirrel and
wild dog are common.

Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.

18. With reference to the Basholi paintings, consider the following statements:
1. It is a miniature painting known for its deep-set facial patterns and evocative
colours.
2. It is painted only on wood by using natural pigments and dyes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
•Basholi paintings originated in the Basholi region of Jammu and Kashmir.
•It is a reputed school of miniature paintings known for its vivid, evocative colours, bold
lines, and deep-set facial patterns.
•It is considered the first school of Pahari paintings.
•Patronage: The Basholi painting style flourished during the 17th and 18th centuries under
the patronage of local rulers and wealthy merchants.
•Features of the Bisholi painting
• It has peculiar characteristics, they have perfect geometrical patterns, bright colours
and glossy enamel.
• Colours used: Ochre yellow, brown, and green grounds predominating.
• The figures in the paintings are shown clad in rich costumes, stylised faces and
large bulging eyes lent unique individuality to these paintings.
• Themes: The portraits of local rulers, Radha-Krishna, and Madhava-Malati love
themes and themes from the Bhagavata Purana.
• These are painted on paper, cloth, or wood using natural pigments and dyes.
19. consider the following statements regarding Electoral Bonds:
1. It can be bought by any Indian citizen or company incorporated in India.
2. are payable to the bearer on demand and are free of interest.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
•The electoral bond scheme was launched by the Union government in 2018.
•What is it? It is a bearer instrument, like a promissory note that can be bought by any Indian citizen or company
incorporated in India.
•The citizen or corporate can then donate the same to any eligible political party of his/her choice.
•The bonds are similar to bank notes that are payable to the bearer on demand and are free of interest.
•An individual or party is allowed to purchase these bonds digitally or through cheque.
•Working:
•EBs are issued/purchased for any value, in multiples of Rs 1,000, Rs 10,000, Rs 1,00,000, Rs 10,00,000 and Rs
1,00,00,000.
•The electoral bonds are available for purchase for 10 days at the beginning of every quarter.
•SBI is the only bank authorized to sell these bonds.
•Anonymous cash donations were capped at Rs 2,000.
•EBs have a life of only 15 days during which it can be used for making donations to political parties.
•Eligibility: Only political parties registered under Section 29A of the Representation of thePeople Act, 1951 and
which secured not less than 1% of votes polled in the last general election to the House of the People or the
Legislative Assembly of the State, are eligible to receive electoral bonds.
•The bond can be encashed by an eligible political party only through a designated bank account with the
authorized bank.
•The political parties have to disclose the amount to the Election Commission.
•The electoral bonds will not bear the name of the donor.
Hence both statements are correct.
20. Consider the following statements regarding the Lokpal:
1. It is a statutory body established under the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act 2013.
2. The Chairperson and the Members of Lokpal are appointed by the President
on the recommendation of the Union Cabinet.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
About Lokpal:

•The Lokpal is a statutory body established under the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act 2013.

•How are members appointed?

•The Chairperson and the Members are appointed by the President of India on the
recommendation of a selection committee composed of the Prime Minister as the
Chairperson, the Speaker of Lok Sabha, the Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha, the Chief
Justice of India or a Judge nominated by him/her, and One eminent jurist.

Hence only statement 1 is correct.

 500
Most Important MCQ for
UPSC Prelims
(Current + Static)
Part-3
21. World Energy Transitions Outlook report, which was recently seen in
the news is given by which organization?

A.
World Bank

B.
International Renewable Energy Agency

C.
International Monetary Fund

D.
None of these
Recently, the International Renewable Energy Agency (IRENA) released the World Energy
Transitions Outlook report.

•The International Renewable Energy Agency (IRENA) is an intergovernmental

organisation that supports countries in their transition to a sustainable energy future.
•It was officially founded in Bonn, Germany, on 26 January 2009.
•Its membership comprises 167 countries and the European Union.
•It is an official United Nations observer.
Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.
22.Consider the following statements regarding a Quasar:

1. It is an extremely active and luminous type of active galactic nucleus (AGN).

2. They form in regions of the universe where the large-scale density of matter is
much higher than average.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
About Quasar:
•A quasar is an extremely active and luminous type of active galactic nucleus (AGN).
•An AGN is nothing more than a supermassive black hole that is active and feeding at the
center of a galaxy.
•The brightest quasars can outshine all of the stars in the galaxies in which they reside, which
makes them visible even at distances of billions of light-years.
•Quasars are thought to form in regions of the universe where the large-scale density of
matter is much higher than average.
•Most quasars have been found billions of light-years away.
•Quasars emit energies of millions, billions, or even trillions of electron volts. This energy
exceeds the total of the light of all the stars within a galaxy.
Hence both statements are correct.
23.Dibang Wildlife Sanctuary lies in which state?

A.
Himachal Pradesh

B.
Uttarakhand

C.
Arunachal Pradesh.

D.
Bihar
The National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) chief recently said that the Dibang Wildlife
Sanctuary would soon be notified as a tiger reserve.

About Dibang Wildlife Sanctuary:

•Location: It is located nearby Anini district, Arunachal Pradesh.
•It has been named after the Dibang River, a tributary of Brahmaputra River.
•It occupies part of the Eastern Himalayas, and is a massive spread of lofty mountains, snow covered
peaks, deep gorges, lush forests and glistening rivers.
•Its altitude ranges between 1800m and 5000m.
•Flora:
•The two main categories of vegetation are temperate broad leaved forest and temperate conifer
forest (Rhododendra, Bamboo, Gregaria, Tsuga etc).
•Alpine vegetation occurs at higher altitude with herbs, stunted trees and dwarf bushes.
•Fauna: Mishmi takin, asiatic black bear, tigers, gongshan muntjac, red panda, red goral and musk
deer.

Hence option c is the correct answer.

Why the indigenous Idu Mishmis are protesting a proposed tiger reserve in Arunachal Pradesh
24. Consider the following statements regarding Lord Mahavir:

1. He was the twenty-fourth and the last Tirthankara of the Jain religion.
2. He was born in 15th Century AD as a prince in Bihar.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
About Lord Mahavir:
•Lord Mahavir was the twenty-fourth and the last Tirthankara of the Jain religion.
•He was born in 599 B.C. as a prince in Bihar, India.
•At the age of 30, he left his family and royal household, gave up his worldly possessions, including clothing
and become a monk.
•He organized his followers, into a four fold order, namely monk (Sadhu), nun (Sadhvi), layman (Shravak),
and laywoman (Shravika). Later on they are known as Jains.
•The ultimate objective of his teaching is how one can attain the total freedom from the cycle of birth, life,
pain, misery, and death, and achieve the permanent blissful state of one's self. This is also known as
liberation, nirvana, absolute freedom, or Moksha.
•He explained that from eternity, every living being (soul) is in bondage of karmic atoms, that are
accumulated by its own good or bad deeds.
•He preached that right faith (samyak-darshana), right knowledge (samyak-jnana), and right conduct
(samyak-charitra) together will help attain the liberation of one's self.
Who are Tirthankaras?
•In Jainism, those who have conquered their passions are called Jins.
•Those Jins who have founded religious orders are called Tirthankaras.

Hence only statement 1 is correct.

25. With reference to the Subansiri River, consider the following statements:

1. It originates in the western Himalayan region.

2. It is one of the largest tributaries of the River Ganga.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
•Subansiri Lower Dam project is the biggest hydroelectric project undertaken in India so far.
•It is a run-of-river scheme on river Subansiri.
•Location: The Project is located near North Lakhimpur on the border of Arunachal Pradesh and
Assam.
•Capacity:2000MW
• It is a concrete gravity dam 116 m high from river bed level.
•It is being developed by the state-run National Hydro Power Corporation (NHPC).
•River Subansiri originates in the Tibet Plateau and is the largest tributary of the Brahmaputra
River.
•The high topographic variation makes this river a potential zone for harnessing it for the
hydropower
Hence both statements are not correct.
26. Parambikulam Tiger Reserve, which was recently seen in the news is
located in which state?

A.
Assam

B.
Kerala

C.
Tamil Nadu

D.
None of these
•It is one of the premier Tiger Reserves of India and is endowed by nature in terms of species,
habitat and ecosystem diversity.
•It is located in the Palakkad District of Kerala and lies in between the Anamalai
Hills and Nelliampathy Hills of the Southern Western Ghats.
•Flora: It supports diverse habitat types namely; evergreen forests, moist and dry deciduous
forests and grasslands.
•Fauna: Lion-tailed macaques, Malabar giant squirrel and Flying squirrel, Tarantula (large-
bodied spiders) etc.
Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.
27. With reference to the International Seabed Authority, consider the following statements:

1. It is an international organization which regulates the exploration of poly-metallic nodules.

2. Its headquarter is located in London.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
•It is an autonomous international organization established under the 1982 United Nations Convention
on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS).
•Mandate: It has the mandate to ensure the effective protection of the marine environment from
harmful effects that may arise from deep-seabed-related activities.
•It has its headquarters in Kingston, Jamaica.
•Its primary function is to regulate the exploration of poly-metallic nodules.
•Polymetallic nodules are rounded accretions of manganese and iron hydroxides that cover vast areas of
the seafloor.
•These are most abundant on abyssal plains at water depths of 4000-6500 metres.
•They are mainly found in the north-central Pacific Ocean, the southeastern Pacific Ocean, and the
northern Indian Ocean.

Hence only statement 1 is correct.

28. Idu Mishmis is a major tribal group of which one of the following states?

A.
Himachal Pradesh

B.
Rajasthan

C.
Odisha

D.
Arunachal Pradesh
About Idu Mishmi Tribe:
•Who are they? The Idu Mishmi is a sub-tribe of the larger Mishmi group (the other two
Mishmi groups are Digaru and Miju) in Arunachal Pradesh and neighbouring Tibet.
•They primarily live in Mishmi Hills, bordering Tibet in Arunachal Pradesh.
•Their ancestral homelands are spread over the districts of Dibang Valley and Lower
Dibang Valley, as well as parts of Upper Siang and Lohit.
•They are known for their weaving and craftsmanship skills.
•They can be distinctively identified by their typical hairstyle, distinctive customs and
artistic pattern embedded on their clothes.
29.With reference to Rongali Bihu, consider the following statements:

1. It is a major festival of Assam which is celebrated during the month of April.

2. It marks the onset of the Assamese New Year.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A.
Himachal Pradesh

B.
Rajasthan

C.
Odisha

D.
Arunachal Pradesh
•It is one of the major festivals of Assam which is commonly known as Bohag Bihu
•It is the most popular Bihu that celebrates the onset of the Assamese New Year and the coming of
spring.
•The word 'Rongali' is derived from 'Rong' which means Happiness and celebrations.
•This festival reflects the rich culture of Assamese society.
•During the celebration, traditional pat or muga silk or cotton mekhela chadors are worn by ladies (the
two-piece attire).
•As a sign of affection and respect, gamocha, the traditional Assamese towel, also known as Bihuwaan, is
exchanged.
•The first Bihu is known as the Rongali Bihu or Bohag Bihu, which is celebrated in the month of April.
•The second Bihu is known as Kati Bihu or Kongali Bihu, which is celebrated during the month of
October
•Finally, there is Magh Bihu, which is observed during the month of January.

Hence both statements are correct.

30. Consider the following statements regarding Rare Earth Elements (REE):

1. They are a set of seventeen elements in the periodic table which are all metals.
2. They are found relatively abundantly in the Earth's crust.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
About Rare Earth Elements (REE):

•REE are a set of seventeen elements in the periodic table. These include the fifteen lanthanides on
the periodic table plus scandium and yttrium.
•REE are all metals, and the group is often referred to as the "rare earth metals.
•Although called "rare", they are actually found relatively abundantly in the Earth's crust.
•Why they are called "rare"? These metals are very difficult to mine because it is unusual to find them in
concentrations high enough for economical extraction.
•These metals have many similar properties, and that often causes them to be found together in geologic
deposits.
•They are also referred to as "rare earth oxides" because many of them are typically sold as oxide
compounds.
•Applications:
•REE and alloys that contain them are used in many devices that people use every day such as computer
memory, DVDs, rechargeable batteries, cell phones, catalytic converters, magnets, fluorescent lighting and
much more.
•Rare earths are used as catalysts, phosphors, and polishing compounds.

Hence both statements are correct.

 500
Most Important MCQ for
UPSC Prelims
(Current + Static)
Part-4
31.Which among the following best describes ‘Miyawaki method’?

A.
It is a method of afforestation.

B.
It is a method of gene editing.

C.
It is a method for mineral extraction.

D.
None of the above.
About Miyawaki method:

•It is a method of afforestation developed by the Japanese botanist and plant ecology
expert Professor Akira Miyawaki.
•It involves planting two to four types of indigenous trees within every square meter.
•In this method, the trees become self-sustainable and grow to their full length within three
years.
•Miyawaki forests grow 10x faster, are 30 x denser and contain 100x more biodiversity.
•They are quick to establish, maintenance-free after the first two-to-three years, and can
be created on sites as small as 3 sq m.
•The goals of a Miyawaki technique include improving biodiversity, sequestering carbon,
increasing green cover, lowering air pollution, and preserving the water table.
•Miyawaki forests are viable solutions for cities looking to rapidly build climate resilience.

Hence option a is the correct answer.

32.With reference to the Mudumalai Tiger Reserve, consider the following statements:

1. It is located in the tri-junction of three states namely Karnataka, Kerala and Telangana.
2. It shares a common boundary with Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Nilgiri Biosphere reserve Includes the protected areas
Mudumalai National Park,
Mukurthi National Park,
Sathyamangalam Wildlife Sanctuary in Tamil Nadu;
Nagarhole National Park,
Bandipur National Park, both in Karnataka;
Silent Valley National Park,
Aralam Wildlife Sanctuary,
Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary, and
Karimpuzha Wildlife Sanctuary in Kerala.
•It is located in the Nilgiris District of Tamil Nadu state at the tri-junction of three states,
viz, Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu.
•The name Mudumalai means the ancient hill range because it is as old as 65 million years when the
Western Ghats were formed.
•It has a common boundary with Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary (Kerala) on the West, and Bandipur
Tiger Reserve (Karnataka) on the North.
•The Theppakadu elephant camp is a popular tourist attraction.
•Flora: A variety of habitats ranging from tropical evergreen forest, moist deciduous forest, moist teak
forest, dry teak forest, secondary grasslands and swamps are found here.
•Fauna: Elephants, Gaur, Tiger, Panther, Spotted Deer, Barking Deer, Wild Boar, Porcupine etc.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
33.With reference to the World Meteorological Organisation, consider the following
statements:

1. It is a specialized agency of the United Nations.

2. India is not a member of this organisation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
•It is a specialized agency of the United Nations (UN).
•It originated from the International Meteorological Organization (IMO), which was
founded in 1873.
•Established in 1950, WMO became the specialized agency of the UN for
meteorology (weather and climate), operational hydrology and related geophysical
sciences.
•Headquarters: Geneva, Switzerland.
•Currently, it has a membership of 187 countries.
•India is a member of the WMO since 1949 and has a permanent representative in the
organization.

Hence only statement 1 is correct.

34.Consider the following statements regarding the 5th cycle of the All India Tiger Estimation:

1. The number of tigers has almost doubled in the last two decades in the country.
2. The Western Ghats has shown the highest rise in Tiger numbers over the last four years.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Highlights of the 5th cycle of the All India Tiger Estimation:

•India's tiger population rose by 200 in the past four years to reach 3,167 in 2022.
•According to the data, the tiger population was 1,411 in 2006, 1,706 in 2010, 2,226 in 2014, 2,967 in
2018 and 3,167 in 2022
•The number of tigers has almost doubled in the last two decades in the country.
•As many as 1,161 of India’s tigers are now in Central India, 824 in the Western Ghats, 804 in the
Shivalik Range, 194 in the North-eastern states and 100 in the Sunderbans.
•The Western Ghats, which are home to the largest tiger population in the world, have shown a
significant fall in the occupancy of tigers.
•Tiger occupancy has also declined in the states of Jharkhand, Odisha, Chhattisgarh, and Telangana.
•The north-western states such as Uttarakhand and Uttar Pradesh now have more tigers outside reserves,
requiring officials to step up habitat conservation.
•The period covered in the survey — 2018 to 2022 — also saw 551 tiger deaths, with 208 of them adults.

Hence only statement 1 is correct.

35. Consider the following statements regarding the Taiwan Strait:

1. It separates the island of Taiwan and continental Asia.

2. It extends between the South and East China Seas.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
About Taiwan Strait:

•Taiwan Strait, also called Formosa Strait, is a 180-kilometre-wide strait separating the
island of Taiwan and continental Asia.
•The strait extends from southwest to northeast between the South and East China Seas.
•The narrowest part is 130 km wide.
•It reaches a depth of about 230 feet (70 m) and contains the Pescadores Islands (which
are controlled by the government of Taiwan).
•The chief ports are Amoy in mainland China and Kao-hsiung in Taiwan.
•Median line of the Taiwan Strait:
•It is the informal dividing line in the Taiwan Strait between the Chinese mainland and
Taiwan.
•It came about during the Cold War as a way to try and delineate the two opposing sides
and reduce the risk of clashes
•No agreement or treaty ever solidified its status. But over the decades, it helped keep
Taiwan and China's militaries apart.

Hence both statements are correct.

36. Consider the following statements regarding the International Court of Justice (ICJ):

1. It is the principal judicial organ of the United Nations located in the Hague, Netherlands.
2. A judge of ICJ acts as the delegate of the government of his own country.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
About the International Court of Justice (ICJ):

•The ICJ, also known as the World Court, is the principal judicial organ of the UN.
•It was established in June 1945 by the Charter of the United Nations and began work in April 1946.
•The seat of the Court is at the Peace Palace in The Hague (Netherlands).
•Once elected, a member of the Court is a delegate neither of the government of his own country nor of any
other State.
•Members of the Court act as independent judges.

Hence only statement 1 is correct.

37.Consider the following statements regarding the 10th Schedule of the Constitution:

1. It was introduced through the 42nd amendment to the Constitution, which lays down the
process by which legislators may be disqualified on grounds of defection.
2. The decisions of the presiding officer w.r.t anti-defection cases are not subject to judicial
review.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
About Anti-defection law :
•It was introduced in India in 1985 through the 52nd amendment to the Constitution of India.
•This amendment added the Tenth Schedule to the Constitution, which lists out the provisions related
to defection.
•It lays down the process by which legislators may be disqualified on grounds of defection by the
Presiding Officer of a legislature based on a petition by any other member of the House.
•This schedule applies to both Central and State legislature.
•Grounds of disqualification: A member of any state or central legislature can be disqualified from being
a member if,
•He voluntarily gives up his membership of a political party.
•He disobeys the directions of his political party or votes or does not vote in the legislature contrary to
the directions of his political party.
•After the election, he joins another political party.
•If a nominated member joins any political party after 6 months from the day, he becomes a member of
the legislature.
•The decisions of the Speaker or Chairman in anti-defection cases are subject to judicial review.

•Name of the Case??

•However, there can not be any judicial intervention until the Presiding Officer gives his order.

Hence both statements are not correct.

38. Consider the following statements regarding Adopt a Heritage Scheme:
1. It is a collaborative effort by the Ministry of Tourism and Ministry of External
Affairs.
2. It encourages private sector and corporate citizens to become Monument
Mitras.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
About Adopt a Heritage Scheme:

•The “Adopt a Heritage: Apni Dharohar, Apni Pehchaan” scheme was launched in 2017 on World
Tourism Day
•It is a collaborative effort by the Ministry of Tourism, Ministry of Culture, Archaeological Survey
of India.
•The project aims to encourage companies from public sector, private sector, corporate citizens,
NGOs, individuals and other stakeholders to become ‘Monument Mitras’.
•They will take up the responsibility of developing and upgrading the basic and advanced tourist
amenities at these sites as per their interest and viability in terms of a sustainable investment
model under CSR.
•The Monument Mitras are selected by the ‘oversight and vision committee,’ co-chaired by the
Tourism Secretary and the Culture Secretary.
•The oversight committee also has the power to terminate a memorandum of understanding in
case of non-compliance or non-performance.

Hence only statement 2 is correct.

39. With reference to the Panna Tiger Reserve, consider the following statements:

1. It is a tiger habitat located in the Vindhyan mountains.

2. It is dominated by the dry deciduous forest vegetation type.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Recently, as part of the Ken-Betwa Link Project (KBLP), a comprehensive Integrated
Landscape Management Plan (ILMP) has been prepared for the conservation of wildlife and
biodiversity in the Panna Tiger Reserve (PTR) & surrounding areas.
•Panna Tiger Reserve is a critical tiger habitat located in Vindhya Hill in northern Madhya
Pradesh.
•The dominating vegetation type is dry deciduous forest inter-spread with grassland areas.
•In the north, it is surrounded by teak forest & in the east, it is surrounded by Teak-Kardhai
mixed forest.
•The North East-South West, running Vindhya Hill ranges link the eastern and western
populations of wild animals.
Hence both statements are correct.
40. With reference to the Government e-Marketplace, consider the following statements:

1. It aims to facilitate the procurement of goods and services by government ministries and
departments.
2. It was developed by the Ministry of Power.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
•GeM is an Online Market platform that was set up in 2016 to facilitate the procurement of goods
and services by government ministries, departments, public sector undertakings (PSU) etc.
•It has been envisaged as the National Procurement Portal of India.
•This portal was developed by the Directorate General of Supplies and Disposals (Ministry of
Commerce and Industry) with technical support from the National e-governance Division (Ministry of
Electronic and Information Technology).
•GeM is a completely paperless, cashless and system-driven e-marketplace that enables procurement
of common-use goods and services with minimal human interface.

Hence only statement 1 is correct.

 500
Most Important MCQ for
UPSC Prelims
(Current + Static)
Part-5
41. Consider the following statements regarding the Press Council of India (PCI):

1. It is a statutory, quasi-judicial body that functions under the Press Council Act 1978.
2. The decisions of the council are final and can not be challenged in any court of law.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
About the Press Council of India (PCI):
•The PCI was first set up in 1966 by the parliament on the recommendations of the First Press
Commission under the chairmanship of Justice J.R Mudholkar.
•The present council functions under the Press Council Act 1978.
•It is a statutory, quasi-judicial body that acts as a watchdog of the press in India.
•Composition:
•It consists of a Chairman and 28 other members.
•The Chairman is nominated by a committee consisting of Chairman of Rajya Sabha, the Speaker of Lok
Sabha, and one representative of the council member.
•The Chairman, by convention, has been a retired judge of the Supreme Court.
•The term of the Chairman and the members of the Council is 3 years.
•Primary Function: To check the media practice and to keep an eye on the freedom of the press.
•Powers:
•The decision of the council is final and can not be challenged in any court of law.
Hence both statements are correct.
42. Consider the following statements regarding the CITES (the Convention on International
Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora) :

1. It is a legally binding international agreement between governments.

2. The CITES Secretariat is administered by UNEP and is located in Geneva, Switzerland.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
•CITES (the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora) is
an international agreement between governments.
•Aim: To ensure that international trade in specimens of wild animals and plants does not threaten the
survival of the species.
•It was drafted as a result of a resolution adopted in 1963 at a meeting of members of IUCN (The World
Conservation Union). It entered into force in July 1975.
•Although CITES is legally binding on the Parties – in other words, they have to implement the Convention – it
does not take the place of national laws.
•The CITES Secretariat is administered by UNEP and is located in Geneva, Switzerland.
•The Conference of the Parties to CITES is the supreme decision-making body of the Convention and
comprises all its parties.
Hence both statements are correct.
43.Consider the following statements regarding the pusa basmati 1847 variety :

1. It has an inbuilt resistance to bacterial blight and blast disease.

2. This variety was released for commercial cultivation in the 1970s.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
About pusa basmati 1847:
•It is an improved version of the popular Basmati rice variety, Pusa Basmati
1509 with inbuilt resistance to bacterial blight and blast disease.
•This variety possesses two genes each for bacterial blight resistance,
namely, xa13 and Xa21, and blast resistance, namely, Pi54 and Pi2.
•It is an early maturing and semi-dwarf basmati rice variety.
•It has an average yield of 5.7 tonnes/ ha.
•This variety was released for commercial cultivation in 2021.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
44. Consider the following statements regarding the Election Commission of India (ECI):

1. The tenure of office and the conditions of service of all the Election commissioners is determined
by the Parliament.
2. The Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) cannot be removed from his office except in the same
manner and on the same grounds as a judge of the Supreme Court.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
•The tenure of office and the conditions of service of all the commissioners
is determined by the President.
•The tenure of commissioners is 6 years or up to the age of 65, whichever is
earlier.

•The CEC is provided with security of tenure. He cannot be removed from

his office except in the same manner and on the same grounds as a judge of
the Supreme Court.
•Any other election commissioner or a regional commissioner cannot be
removed from office except on the recommendation of the CEC.

Hence only statement 2 is correct.

45. With reference to the Malabar Hill frog, consider the following statements:

1. It is endemic to the Northeastern states of India.

2. It is listed as an endangered species under the IUCN Red list.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
•It is also known as Jerdon's narrow-mouthed frog or Malabar Hill frog
•It is endemic to the Western Ghats of India.
•The typical habitat in which this frog is found in tree holes in the rainy season is in the moist
deciduous forest to evergreen forest.
•This frog is considered a montane species and is restricted to higher altitude ranges of 800-1,700
metres.
•They are distributed from near Wayanad south across the Palghat and the Shencottah gaps to the
Agasthyamalai hills.
•Its tadpoles are free-swimming and exotropic, which means they feed on other species.
•Conservation status:
IUCN: Near Threatened
Hence both statements are not correct.
46.Consider the following statements regarding the Nano Urea:

1. It is a nanotechnology-based agri-input that provides micronutrients like Iron(Fe) and Zinc(Zn) to

plants.
2. IFFCO Nano Urea is the only nano fertilizer approved by the Government of India and included in
the Fertilizer Control Order (FCO).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
About Nano Urea:

•It is a nanotechnology-based revolutionary Agri-input that provides nitrogen to plants.

•It is developed and patented by the Indian Farmers Fertiliser Cooperative Limited (IFFCO).
•IFFCO Nano Urea is the only nano fertilizer approved by the Government of India and included
in the Fertilizer Control Order (FCO).
•Features:
•Compared to conventional urea prill, Nano Urea has a desirable particle size of about 20-50
nm and more surface area (10,000 times over 1 mm urea prill) and number of particles (55,000
nitrogen particles over 1 mm urea prill).
•It contains 4.0 % total nitrogen (w/v).
•Benefits:
•It is produced by an energy-efficient, environment-friendly production process with less carbon
footprints.
•Increased availability to crop by more than 80%, resulting in higher nutrient use efficiency.
•It is expected to improve crop productivity, soil health, and nutritional quality of produce and
address the "imbalanced and excessive use" of conventional fertilizer.

Hence only statement 2 is correct.

47. Which among the following best describes ‘DART Mission’, recently seen in
the news?

A.
It is an asteroid deflection demonstration mission.

B.
It is an Arctic exploration mission.

C.
It is a space mission to study the sun’s corona.

D.
It is India’s first human space mission.
About Double Asteroid Redirection Test (DART) mission:

•NASA's DART mission was a spacecraft designed to test a method of deflecting an asteroid for
planetary defense, using the "kinetic impactor" technique (in simplest terms means smashing a
thing into another thing).
•DART was the first-ever space mission to demonstrate asteroid deflection by kinetic impactor.
•The target of the spacecraft was a 160-meter-wide asteroid known as Dimorphos, which is a
moonlet in orbit around the larger asteroid, Didymos.
•It was launched in November 2021.
•DART spacecraft successfully collided with Dimorphos on 26
September 2022, altering the asteroid's orbit by 33 minutes.
•It is the first time humanity intentionally changed the motion of a celestial object in space.

Hence option a is the correct answer.

48. With reference to the Bureau of Indian Standards, consider the following statements:

1. It is the National Standards Body of India established under the BIS Act 2016.
2. It works under the Union Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food & Public Distribution.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Recently, the Union Ministry of Consumer Affairs said that the sale of gold jewellery mandates a
Hallmark Unique Identification (HUID) from April 1, 2023.
•Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS), the National Standards Body of India established under the BIS Act
2016.
•Objective: Harmonious development of the activities of standardisation, and quality assurance of
goods and articles.
•It works under the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food & Public Distribution.
•BIS represents India in International Organization for Standardization (ISO) and International
Electrotechnical Commission (IEC).
Hence both statements are correct.
49. Consider the following statements regarding the Organisation of Islamic Cooperation (OIC):

1. It is the second-largest intergovernmental organization in the world after the United Nations.
2. India was one of the founding members of OIC.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
About the Organisation of Islamic Cooperation (OIC):
•It is the second-largest intergovernmental organization in the world after the United Nations, with
a collective population reaching over 1.8 billion.
•It has a membership of 57 states spread over four continents.
•Objective: It aims to preserve Islamic values, safeguard and defend the national sovereignty and
independence of member states, and contribute to international peace and security.
•The OIC is the collective voice of the Muslim world to ensure and safeguard their interest in economic,
socio, and political areas.
•It was established in September 1969.
•Headquarters: Jeddah, Saudi Arabia.
•Its official languages are Arabic, English, and French.
•India is not a member of OCI despite being home to approximately a tenth of the global Muslim
population.
•The OIC partners with international mechanisms (including every specialized UN agency), governments,
and civil society organizations (CSOs) to address issues of concern to its member states and Muslims
worldwide.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
50. Sultanpur National Park, recently seen in the news, lies in which state?

A.
Gujarat

B.
Haryana

C.
West Bengal

D.
Bihar
About Sultanpur National Park:
•Sultanpur National Park, formerly known as Sultanpur Bird Sanctuary, is located in the Gurgaon district
in Haryana.
•It is spread over 1.42 sq km, comprising mainly wetlands.
•This national park is a major habitat for aquatic birds, including migratory and resident birds.
•It was notified as a Ramsar site, a wetland of international importance, in 2021.
 500
Most Important MCQ for
UPSC Prelims
(Current + Static)
Part-6
51. With reference to the Mercury, consider the following statements:
1. It is a naturally occurring element that is found in air, water and soil.
2. At threshold temperature, solid mercury offers resistance to the flow of electric current.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
•n 1911, Dutch physicist Heike Kamerlingh Onnes discovered superconductivity in mercury.
•He found that at a very low temperature, called the threshold temperature, solid mercury offers
no resistance to the flow of electric current.

•These Copper pairs can move like water in a stream, facing no resistance to their flow, below a
threshold temperature.

What is Superconductivity?
•A material can conduct electricity without any resistance. It is observed in many materials when
they are cooled below a critical temperature.
What is Mercury?
•It is a naturally occurring element that is found in air, water and soil.
•It is released into the atmosphere through natural processes such as weathering of rocks, volcanic
eruptions, geothermal activities, forest fires, etc.
•Hence only statement 1 is correct.
52.With reference to the Aspirational Districts Programme, consider the following statements:
1. It was launched in 2018 to transform districts that have shown relatively lesser progress in key social
areas.
2. The ranking of these districts is based on 5 broad socio-economic themes including Financial Inclusion
& Skill Development.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Recently, the Prime Minister of India launched the Aspirational Block Programme at the second National Conference of Chief
Secretaries in Delhi.
•The Aspirational Blocks Programme is on the lines of the Aspirational District Programme that was launched in 2018 and covers
112 districts across the country.
•This new programme is aimed at improving the performance of blocks lagging on various development parameters.
•This will enable holistic development in those areas that require added assistance.
•The programme will cover 500 districts across 31 states and Union Territories initially.
•Over half of these blocks are in 6 states—Uttar Pradesh (68 blocks), Bihar (61), Madhya Pradesh (42), Jharkhand (34), Odisha (29)
and West Bengal (29).
What is Aspirational Districts Programme?
•It was launched in 2018 and aims to transform districts that have shown relatively lesser progress in key social areas.
•3C Strategy: The broad contours of the programme
•Convergence (of Central & State Schemes)
•Collaboration (of Central, State level ‘Prabhari’ Officers & District Collectors)
•Competition (among districts driven by a Mass Movement )
•Parameters for Ranking: The ranking is based on the incremental progress made across 49 Key Performance Indicators (KPIs)
under 5 broad socio-economic themes
• Health & Nutrition (30%)
• Education (30%)
• Agriculture & Water Resources (20%)
• Financial Inclusion & Skill Development (10%)
• Infrastructure (10%)
Hence both statements are correct.
53. Consider the following statements regarding the United Nations High Seas Treaty:

1. It is the first-ever treaty to protect the world's oceans that lie outside national boundaries.
2. It is a legally binding treaty that aims to place more than 50% of the seas into protected areas
by 2030.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
About UN High Seas Treaty:

•It is the first-ever treaty to protect the world's oceans that lie outside national boundaries.
•It is also known as the ‘Paris Agreement for the Ocean.’
•It is a legally binding treaty to protect marine life in international waters.
•It aims to place 30% of the seas into protected areas by 2030 (a pledge made by countries at the UN
biodiversity conference in 2022).
•It will provide a legal framework for establishing vast marine protected areas (MPAs) to protect against the loss
of wildlife and share out the genetic resources of the high seas.
•It also covers environmental assessments to evaluate the potential damage of commercial activities, such as
deep-sea mining.
•It will establish a conference of the parties (CoP) that will meet periodically and enable member states to be
held to account on issues such as governance and biodiversity.
•The treaty also includes a pledge by signatories to share ocean resources.
•The treaty is built on the legacy of the UN Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS), which is the last
international agreement on ocean protection, signed 40 years ago in 1982. UNCLOS established an area called
the high seas.

Hence only statement 1 is correct.

54. Consider the following statements regarding the Fertilizer Control Order(FCO):

1. It is administered by the Department of Fertilizers under the Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers,
Govt. of India.
2. It lays down the methods for sampling and analysis of fertilizers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
What is Fertilizer Control Order(FCO)?
•It has been issued under the Essential Commodities Act 1955.
•It is administered by Department of Agriculture Cooperation, Govt. of India.
•The FCO lays down,
•what substances qualify for use as fertilizers in the soil;
•product-wise specifications;
•methods for sampling and analysis of fertilizers;
•the procedure for obtaining a license/registration as a manufacturer/dealer in
fertilizers;
•conditions to be fulfilled for trading thereof;
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
55.Consider the following statements regarding International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA):

1. It is a United Nations proposed global alliance for the protection and conservation of
the seven major big cats.
2. Membership to the alliance will be open only to countries that contain the natural
habitat of big cats.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
About International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA):
•It is a proposed mega-global alliance that will work toward the protection and
conservation of the seven major big cats — tiger, lion, leopard, snow leopard, puma,
jaguar, and cheetah.
•Membership to the alliance will be open to 97 'range' countries, which contain the
natural habitat of these big cats, as well as other interested nations, international
organizations, etc.
•The alliance's purpose is to provide a platform for the dissemination of information
on benchmarked practices, capacity building, resources repository, research and
development, awareness creation, etc., on the protection and conservation of big
cats.

•Both wrong
56. Consider the following statements regarding the World Meteorological Organisation (WMO):

1. It is a specialized agency of the United Nations for meteorology, operational hydrology, and
related geophysical sciences.
2. Its supreme body is the World Meteorological Congress.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
About World Meteorological Organisation (WMO):
•It is a specialized agency of the United Nations (UN).
•It is the UN system's authoritative voice on the state and behavior of the Earth's atmosphere,
its interaction with the oceans, the climate it produces, and the resulting distribution of water
resources.
•It originated from the International Meteorological Organization (IMO), which was founded in
1873.
•Established in 1950, WMO became the specialized agency of the UN for
meteorology (weather and climate), operational hydrology and related geophysical sciences.
•Headquarters: Geneva, Switzerland.
•Currently it has a membership of 187 countries.
•Governance Structure:
•Its supreme body is the World Meteorological Congress, which consists of representatives of
all members. It meets at least every four years to set general policy and adopt regulations.
•A 36-member Executive Council meets annually and implements policy.

•Both correct
57.With reference to Point Calimere Wildlife Sanctuary, consider the following statements:

1. It is located in the state of Kerala.

2. It is designated as one of the Ramasar sites of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
•Point Calimere Wildlife Sanctuary was established in the year of 1967 and is situated in the
state of Tamil Nadu.
•It houses the famous bird sanctuary of Vedaranyam and the Talaignayar forests.
•It is flanked by the Bay of Bengal in the east, and Palk Strait in the south.
•It primarily focuses on the protection and conservation of the black antelopes, an endangered
and endemic species that are found in this region.
•It is designated as a Ramsar site.
•Flora: It has mangroves, tropical evergreen forests, and grassland ecosystems.
•Fauna: Wild boar, macaque, black buck, chital, Great flamingo, Painted Stork, Little Stint,
Seagull and Brown-headed gull are normally found in the sanctuary.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
58. With reference to the Mugger crocodile, consider the following statements:

1. It is mainly found in freshwater habitats.

2. It is listed as a Vulnerable species in the IUCN Red list.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
•The mugger or marsh crocodile is one of the 24 extant species of crocodilians found globally.
•It is native to freshwater and inhabits marshes, lakes, rivers and artificial ponds.
•The mugger is found in 15 Indian states, with the largest populations in the middle
Ganges (Bihar-Jharkhand) and Chambal (Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat and Rajasthan) basins.
•They are found all over south Asia — India, Pakistan, Sri Lanka, Nepal and Bangladesh — as
well as south-eastern Iran.
•Conservation status
• IUCN Red List: Vulnerable
• CITES Appendix I
Hence both statements are correct.
59. With reference to the Association of Southeast Asian Nations, consider the
following statements:

1. It was established by signing the Delhi declaration.

2. India is the founding member of this organisation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
•It is a group of the Association of Southeast Asian Nations, which was established in 1967 with
the signing of the Bangkok declaration.
•Founding members: Indonesia, Malaysia, Philippines, Singapore and Thailand.
•Presently ASEAN comprises 10 member states namely Indonesia, Malaysia, Philippines, Singapore,
Thailand, Brunei, Laos, Myanmar, Cambodia and Vietnam.
•It promotes intergovernmental cooperation and facilitates economic, political, security, military,
educational, and sociocultural integration between its members and other countries in Asia.
•India is not a founding member of this group.
Hence both statements are not correct.
60. Which of the following is not part if Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve?

A Nagarhole National Park

B. Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuaries

C. Mukurthi National Park

D NagarjunasagarSrisailam Tiger Reserve

Nilgiri Biosphere reserve includes the protected areas
Mudumalai National Park,
Mukurthi National Park,
Sathyamangalam Wildlife Sanctuary in Tamil Nadu;
Nagarhole National Park,
Bandipur National Park, both in Karnataka;
Silent Valley National Park,
Aralam Wildlife Sanctuary,
Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary, and
Karimpuzha Wildlife Sanctuary in Kerala.
 500
Most Important MCQ for
UPSC Prelims
(Current + Static)
Part-7
61. Consider the following statements regarding the Insurance Regulatory and Development
Authority of India (IRDAI):

1. It is a statutory body that supervises and regulates the insurance sector in India.
2. All the members of IRDAI are appointed by the Government of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
About IRDAI:
•It is an autonomous and statutory body established under the IRDA Act 1999.
•It is the apex body that supervises and regulates the insurance sector in India.
•Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Finance.
•Head Office: Hyderabad.
•Composition: IRDAI is a 10-member body- a Chairman, five full-time members, and four part-time
members appointed by the Government of India.
•Functions:
•To have a fair regulation of the insurance industry while ensuring financial soundness of the
applicable laws and regulations.
•Frame regulations periodically so that there is no ambiguity in the insurance industry.
•Registering and regulating insurance companies;
•Protecting policyholders' interests;
•Licensing and establishing norms for insurance intermediaries;
•Promoting professional organizations in insurance;
•Regulating and overseeing premium rates and terms of non-life insurance covers;
•Specifying financial reporting norms of insurance companies;
•Regulating investment of policyholders' funds by insurance companies;
•Ensuring the maintenance of solvency margin by insurance companies;
•Ensuring insurance coverage in rural areas and of vulnerable sections of society.
Hence both statements are correct.
62. With reference to the tropical dry evergreen forests of India, consider the following
statements:

1. It is mainly found in the states of Karnataka and Maharashtra.

2. These forests receive rainfall both during summer and winter monsoons.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
•The Tropical Dry Evergreen Forest is a unique forest found only in Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh.
•Its distribution is restricted to the narrow coastal strip from Vishakhapatnam in Andhra Pradesh in
the north to Ramanathapuram in Tamil Nadu in the south.
•The dissymmetric climatic condition of this region, where rainfall occurs both during summer and
winter monsoons and extended the dry season from March to September, favours the development
and sustenance of the Tropical Dry Evergreen forest in this narrow strip.
•The TDEF has a mixture of trees, shrubs, lianas, and herbs and forms a complete canopy in pristine
condition and provides habitat to a wide variety of animals including insects, amphibians, reptiles,
and mammals.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
63. With reference to the BrahMos missile, consider the following statements:

1. It is a joint venture between India and Japan.

2. These missiles can only be launched from submarine platforms.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
•It is a joint venture of India and Russia which makes supersonic cruise missiles.
•It has a speed of 2.8 Mach or about three times the speed of sound.
•The missiles can be launched from a range of platforms such as submarines, ships, aircraft, or
land.
•Fire and Forgets ( no guidance required after firing)
•two-stage (solid propellant engine in the first stage and liquid ramjet in second) missile.
•The BrahMos missile, an Indo-Russian joint venture, has a range of 290 km and is the fastest
cruise missile in the world with a top speed of Mach 2.8 (nearly three times the speed of
sound).
Hence both statements are not correct.
64. Consider the following statements regarding the Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha:

1. Deputy Speaker is elected by the Lok Sabha itself from amongst its members.
2. The date of election of the Deputy Speaker is fixed by the President.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
•Article 93 of the Constitution says that the House of the People (Lok Sabha) shall choose two members of the House to be, respectively, Speaker and Deputy
Speaker.
•Election of Deputy Speaker:
•Like the Speaker, the Deputy Speaker is also elected by the Lok Sabha itself from amongst its members.
•He is elected after the election of the Speaker has taken place.
•The date of election of the Deputy Speaker is fixed by the Speaker.
•Term of Office:
•Like the Speaker, the Deputy Speaker remains in the office usually during the life of the Lok Sabha. However, he may vacate his office earlier in any of the
following three cases –
•if he ceases to be a member of the Lok Sabha;
•if he resigns by writing to the Speaker; and
•if he is removed by a resolution passed by a majority of all the then members of the Lok Sabha. Such a resolution can be moved only after giving 14 days’ advance
notice.
•Role/Power of Deputy Speaker:
•The Deputy Speaker performs the duties of the Speaker’s office when it is vacant.
•He also acts as the Speaker when the latter is absent from the sitting of the House. In both cases, he assumes all the powers of the Speaker.
•Deputy Speaker is not subordinate to the Speaker. He is directly responsible to the House.
•He also presides over the joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament in case the Speaker is absent from such a sitting.
•The Deputy Speaker has one special privilege, that is, whenever he is appointed as a member of a parliamentary committee, he automatically becomes its chairman.
•When the Speaker presides over the House, the Deputy Speaker is like any other ordinary member of the House. He can speak in the House, participate in its
proceedings, and vote on any question before the House.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
65. Consider the following statements regarding the International Criminal Court (ICC):

1. It is the principal judicial organ of the United Nations, which tries individuals charged with the gravest
crimes of concern to the international community.
2. India is a founding member of the Rome Statute of the International Criminal Court.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
. About International Criminal Court (ICC):
•It is the only permanent international criminal tribunal.
•Background: It was created by the 1998 Rome Statute of the International
Criminal Court (its founding and governing document), and began functioning on
1 July 2002 when the Statute came into force.
•Mandate: It investigates and, where warranted, tries individuals charged with
the gravest crimes of concern to the international community: genocide, war
crimes, crimes against humanity, and the crime of aggression.
•HQ: Hague, Netherlands.

•Both incorrect
66. With reference to the Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic
Cooperation (BIMSTEC), consider the following statements:
1. It was established by signing the Bangkok Declaration.
2. All member countries of this organization share a border with the Bay of Bengal.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Recently, the Minister of State for External Affairs participated in the 19th The Bay of Bengal
Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC) Ministerial Meeting
virtually from Bangkok.

•It is a regional organization that was established on 06 June 1997 with the signing of the Bangkok
Declaration.
•Member countries: Bangladesh, India, Myanmar, Sri Lanka, Thailand, Bhutan and Nepal.
•The Chairmanship of BIMSTEC rotates according to the alphabetical order of the English names
of the Member States.
•During the Third BIMSTEC Summit, the Secretariat was established in Dhaka, Bangladesh.
•All member countries of this organization do not share a border with the Bay of Bengal.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
67.With reference to Coffee production, consider the following statements:

1. It requires hot and humid climate conditions for its growth.

2. The state of Karnataka is the top producer of coffee in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
•Climatic conditions required for coffee production
• It requires a hot and humid climate for its growth.
• Temperatures ranging between 15°C and 28 °C
• Rainfall: 150 to 250 cm.
• Soil: Well-drained, loamy soil containing a good deal of humus and minerals like
iron and calcium are ideal for coffee cultivation.
• It is generally grown under shady trees.
• Dry weather is necessary at the time of ripening of the berries.
• It is grown on hill slopes at elevations from 600 to 1,600 metres above sea level.
•In India coffee is largely cultivated in Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh
and Odisha, among which, Karnataka produces the most with over 70% of the total
output.

Hence both statements are correct.

68.With reference to the National Startup Advisory Council, consider the following statements:

1. It was constituted by the Union Ministry of Commerce and Industry.

2. Prime minister of India is the chairman of this council.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
•It was constituted by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT)
under the Union Ministry of Commerce and Industry.

•Composition of the council

• Chairman: Minister for Commerce & Industry.
• Ex-officio Members: Nominees of the concerned Ministries/Departments/Organisations
not below the rank of Joint Secretary.
• Besides the ex-officio members, the council has non-official members, representing
various stakeholders such as founders of successful startups, and veterans who have
grown and scaled companies in India.
•NSAC is playing an important role in identifying areas of intervention for the expansion of the
startup ecosystem and ideating and nurturing national programs under the Startup India
initiative.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
69.With reference to Sodium, consider the following statements:

1. It is an alkaline metal abundantly available on earth.

2. It does not react with water.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
•Sodium (Na) is a chemical element of the alkali metal group (Group 1 ) of the periodic table.
•It is a very soft silvery-white metal.
•It is the most common alkali metal and the sixth most abundant element on
Earth, comprising 2.8 per cent of Earth’s crust.
•It shows an exploding reaction with water.
•It occurs abundantly in nature in compounds, especially common salt—sodium chloride (NaCl)—
which forms the mineral halite and constitutes about 80 per cent of the
dissolved constituents of seawater.

Hence both statements are not correct.

70. Parambikulam Tiger Reserve, which was recently seen in the news, is
located in which state?

A.
Kerala

B.
Karnataka

C.
Maharashtra

D.
None of these
•Parambikulam is one of the premier Tiger Reserves of India and is endowed by nature in terms of
species, habitat and ecosystem diversity.
•It is located in the Palakkad District of Kerala and lies in between the Anamalai hills and Nelliampathy
hills of the Southern Western Ghats.
•Flora: It supports diverse habitat types namely; evergreen forests, moist and dry deciduous forests
and grasslands.
•Fauna: Lion-tailed macaques, Malabar giant squirrel and Flying squirrel, Tarantula (large-bodied
spiders) etc.
Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.
 500
Most Important MCQ for
UPSC Prelims
(Current + Static)
Part-8
71. Mhadei wildlife sanctuary, which was recently seen in the news, is
located in which state?

A.
Rajasthan

B.
Goa

C.
Jharkhand

D.
None of these
•Mhadei wildlife sanctuary is located in the Northern Part of Goa, near the village of
Valpoi.
•There are a number of picturesque waterfalls within the sanctuary boundaries. The
most prominent are the Vazra Sakla Falls and the Virdi Falls.
•The cliff face near the Vazra falls is notable for being the nesting grounds of
the critically endangered Long-billed vultures.
•Flora: The sanctuary is thickly forested with moist deciduous vegetation and some
evergreen species too. The sanctuary is particularly well-known for its sacred groves
that protect rare and indigenous trees.
•Fauna: Indian gaur, Barking deer, Sambar deer, Asian palm civet, small Indian civet,
Wild boar, Indian hare etc.
•The sanctuary is a huge attraction for herpetologists since it contains a large variety of
snakes including all of the ‘big four’ of Indian venomous snakes which are the Indian
krait, Russell’s viper, Saw-scaled viper and Spectacled cobra.
Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.
72. With reference to the India Meteorological Department, consider the following statements:
1. It has the responsibility of naming tropical cyclones in the Northern Indian Ocean region.
2. It works under the Ministry of Earth Sciences.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
India Meteorological Department
•It is the main agency responsible for meteorological observations, weather forecasting and
seismology in India.
•Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Earth Sciences.
•It operates hundreds of observation stations across India and Antarctica.
•Regional offices are in Chennai, Mumbai, Kolkata, Nagpur, Guwahati and New Delhi.
•It is also one of the six Regional Specialised Meteorological Centres of the World
Meteorological Organisation.
•It has the responsibility for forecasting, naming and distributing warnings for tropical
cyclones in the Northern Indian Ocean region, including the Malacca Straits, the Bay of
Bengal, the Arabian Sea and the Persian Gulf.
Hence both statements are correct.
73. With reference to the Shri Narayan Guru, consider the following statements:

1. He was a social reformer who belonged to the state of Tamil Nadu.

2. A hundred-verse spiritual poem Atmopadesa Śatakam was written by him in the
Malayalam language.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
•Narayana Guru was a philosopher, spiritual leader and social reformer in India.
•He was born into a family that belonged to the Ezhava caste.
•He led a reform movement against injustice in the caste-ridden society of Kerala to promote
spiritual enlightenment and social equality.
•He published 45 works in Malayalam, Sanskrit and Tamil languages which include Atmopadesa
Śatakam(Malayalam), a hundred-verse spiritual poem and Daiva Dasakam, a universal prayer in
ten verses.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
74. Consider the following statements regarding India’s arms imports during the period 2018-22:

1. India accounted for more than 20 percent share of total global arms imports.
2. France was the largest arms supplier to India during the period.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
About India’s Arms Imports:
•India remained the world’s largest arms importer for the five-year
period between 2018-22.
•India accounted for an 11 percent share of total global arms imports in 2018–22.
•Russia accounted for 45% is India’s imports, followed by France (29%) and the US
(11%).
•Russia was the largest supplier of arms to India in both 2013–17 and 2018–22, but its
share of total Indian arms imports fell from 64% to 45%.
•India has seen an 11 percent drop in its arms import between 2013-17 and 2018-22.
•India was the biggest arms export market to three countries — Russia, France, and
Israel and the second largest export market to South Korea.
Hence both statements are not correct.
75. Consider the following statements regarding Technology Development Fund (TDF):
1. It has been established to promote self-reliance in defense technology.
2. It is a program of the Ministry of Defence executed by the Defence Research and
Development Organisation (DRDO).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
What is the Technology Development Fund (TDF)?
•It has been established to promote self-reliance in defense technology as a part of the
'Make in India' initiative.
•It is a program of the Ministry of Defence executed by DRDO meeting the requirements of
Tri-Services, Defence Production, and DRDO.
•It supports the indigenous development of components, products, systems, and
technologies by MSMEs and start-ups.
76.Consider the following statements regarding Payments Banks:

1. It can accept time deposits and NRI deposits.

2. It cannot set up subsidiaries to undertake non-banking financial activities.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
What are“Payments Banks’?
•A payments bank is like any other bank but operates on a smaller scale without involving any credit risk.
•It was set up on the recommendations of the Nachiket Mor Committee.
•Objective: Widen the spread of payment and financial services to small businesses, low-income
households, and migrant labor workforce in a secured technology-driven environment.
•It needs to have a minimum paid-up capital of Rs. 100,00,00,000.
•Activities that can be performed:
•It can take deposits up to Rs. 2,00,000. It can accept demand deposits in the form of savings and current
accounts.
•The money received as deposits can be invested in secure government securities only in the form of
Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR). This must amount to 75% of the demand deposit balance.
•The remaining 25% is to be placed as time deposits with other scheduled commercial banks.
•It can offer remittance services, mobile payments/transfers/purchases, and other banking services
like ATM/debit cards, net banking, and third party fund transfers.
•Activities that can be performed:
•It cannot issue loans and credit cards.
•It cannot accept time deposits or NRI deposits.
•It cannot set up subsidiaries to undertake non-banking financial activities.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
77.With reference to Light Combat Aircraft Tejas, consider the following
statements:
1. It is a multi-role supersonic fighter aircraft.
2. It has a maximum payload capacity of 40000 kg.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Recently, the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO)
has successfully conducted a maiden flight test of the Power Take off (PTO)
Shaft on Light Combat Aircraft (LCA Tejas) Limited Series Production (LSP) -
3 aircraft in Bengaluru.
•It is the lightest, smallest and tailless multi-role supersonic
fighter aircraft in its class.
•This aircraft is designed to carry a range of air-to-air, air-to-surface,
precision-guided, weapons.
•It has the air-to-air refuelling capability.
•The maximum payload capacity of Tejas is 4000 kg.
•Speed: Mach 1.8.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
78.With reference to the Atal Tinkering Labs, consider the following statements:
1. It is an initiative to promote creativity and innovation in the minds of school children.
2. It is being administered under the NITI Aayog.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
NITI Aayog recently launched ATL Sarthi, a comprehensive self-monitoring
framework to strengthen the ever-growing ecosystem of Atal Tinkering Labs (ATL).
•ATL Sarthi will enable the Atal Tinkering Labs to be efficient and effective.
•The initiative has four pillars ensuring the performance enhancement of ATLs
through regular process improvements like MyATL Dashboard, Compliance SOPs,
Cluster-based Approach and Performance-Enablement (PE) Matrix.
•It is an initiative to promote creativity and innovation in the minds of school
children.
•Under this initiative Children as young as 12 years of age gain access to
technological innovation.
•The concepts of Science, Technology, Engineering and Maths are taught through
various tools and equipment of the like.
•Financial aid of Rs. 20 lakh is given to each school.
•This includes a one-time establishment cost of Rs. 10 lakh and an operation cost of
Rs. 10 lakh over a period of five years.
•It is administered under the guidance of the NITI Aayog.
Hence both statements are correct.
79. Consider the following statements regarding Eurasian Otter:
1. It is a semi-aquatic carnivorous mammal found only in Asia and
Europe.
2. It is listed as ‘Endangered’ in the IUCN Red List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
About Eurasian Otter:
•It is a semi-aquatic carnivorous mammal.
•Scientific Name: Lutra lutra
•Distribution:
•It has one of the widest distributions of all Palaearctic mammals.
•Its range covers parts of three continents: Europe, Asia, and Africa.
•In India, it occurs in northern, northeast, and southern India.
•Habitat:
•It lives in a wide variety of aquatic habitats, including highland and lowland lakes, rivers, streams,
marshes, swamp forests, and coastal areas.
•In the Indian sub-continent, Eurasian otters occur in cold hill and mountain streams.
•Features:
•It has a long lithe body with a thick tail and short legs.
•It has sensitive whiskers around the snout to help detect prey.
•It has two layers of fur: a thick waterproof outer one and a warm inner one with 50,000 hairs/cm 2
•It has an acute sense of sight, smell, and hearing.
•Conservation Status:
•IUCN: Near threatened
•Wildlife Protection Act, 1972: Schedule II
•CITES: Appendix I
Hence both statements are not correct.
80. Consider the following statements regarding the McMahon Line:
1. It is a geographical border between Ladakh and Tibet.
2. It was negotiated between India and China at the end of the Indo-China
War of 1962.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
bout McMahon Line:
•It is a geographical border between Northeast India and Tibet.
•It is the boundary between China and India, although its legal status is disputed by the
Chinese government.
•It was negotiated between Tibet and Great Britain at the end of
the Shimla Conference in 1914.
•It is named after Henry McMahon, who was the foreign secretary of British India and
the chief negotiator of the convention at Simla.
•The length of this boundary is 890 kilometers.
•It runs from the eastern border of Bhutan along the crest of the Himalayas until
it reaches the great bend in the Brahmaputra River, where that river emerges from its
Tibetan course into the Assam Valley.
•Though India considers the McMahon Line as the legal national border, China rejects it,
contending that Tibet was not a sovereign state and therefore did not have the power to
conclude treaties.
Hence both statements are not correct.
 500
Most Important MCQ for
UPSC Prelims
(Current + Static)
Part-9
81. With reference to the Rubber plantation, consider the following statements:
1. It grows in moist and humid climatic conditions.
2. It requires well-drained loamy soil.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
•Climatic conditions required for Rubber
•Rubber trees require moist and humid climates with heavy rainfall of more than 200 cm.
•It grows well in equatorial climates and temperatures above 25 degrees Celsius.
•Rubber trees require well-drained, weathered soils.

Rubber plantations in India

•India is the world’s largest producer and the third-largest user of natural rubber.
•Rubber Growing Areas in India
• Traditional Areas: Primarily in Tamil Nadu’s Kanyakumari District and Kerala.
• Non-traditional regions: Coastal Karnataka, Goa, Maharashtra’s Konkan Region,
coastal Andhra Pradesh and Orissa, the northeastern provinces, and the Andaman
and Nicobar Islands, among other places.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
82. Consider the following statements regarding the Right of Children to Free and
Compulsory Education Act, 2009 (RTE Act):
1. It provides free and compulsory education to all children of India in the 6 to 18 age
group.
2. It specifies the duties and responsibilities of appropriate Governments, local
authorities, and parents in providing free and compulsory education.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
•RTE Act is an Act of the Parliament of India enacted on 4 August 2009 as envisaged
under Article 21-A.
•Main Features of the RTE Act:
•Free and compulsory education to all children of India in the 6 to 14 age group.
•It clarifies that ‘compulsory education’ means the obligation of the appropriate
government to provide free elementary education and ensure compulsory admission,
attendance, and completion of elementary education to every child in the six to fourteen
age group.
•No child shall be held back, expelled, or required to pass a board examination until the
completion of elementary education.
•It makes provisions for a non-admitted child to be admitted to an age-appropriate class.
•It specifies the duties and responsibilities of appropriate Governments, local authorities,
and parents in providing free and compulsory education and sharing of financial and
other responsibilities between the Central and State Governments.
83. Consider the following statements regarding the Defence Acquisition Council (DAC):
1. It is the highest decision-making body of the Defence Ministry on procurement.
2. The Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) acts as the chairman of DAC.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
About Defence Acquisition Council (DAC):
•What is it? The DAC is the highest decision-making body of the defence Ministry on procurement.
•Objective: To ensure expeditious procurement of the approved requirements of the armed forces.
•Formation: It was formed after the Group of Minister's recommendations on 'Reforming the National
Security System', in 2001, post-Kargil War (1999).
•Composition:
•The defence minister is the chairman of DAC.
•Its members include the Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) and chiefs of the Army, Navy, and Air Force.
•Functions:
•Give in-principle approval of a 15 years Long Term Integrated Perspective Plan (LTIPP) for defence
forces.
•Accord of acceptance of necessity to acquisition proposals.
•Categorization of the acquisition proposals relating to ‘Buy’, ‘Buy & Make’, and ‘Make’.
•Look into issues relating to single vendor clearance.
•Take decisions regarding ‘offset’ provisions in respect of acquisition proposals above Rs 300 crore.
•Take decisions regarding the Transfer of Technology under the ‘Buy & Make’ category of acquisition
proposals.
•Field trial evaluation.
Hence only statement 1 is correct
84. Consider the following statements regarding the Zojila Pass:
1. It is a strategic pass that connects Kashmir Valley to Ladakh.
2. It is located on the Srinagar-Kargil-Leh highway (NH-1).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
About Zojila Pass:
•Zojila Pass, also known as ‘The Mountain Pass of Blizzards’, is a strategic pass
that connects Kashmir Valley to Ladakh.
•It is located on the Srinagar-Kargil-Leh highway (NH-1) at a height of 11,650 feet.
•The pass remains closed for almost half of the year due to heavy snowfall.
•History:
•It was the site of the Indo-Pakistan War of 1947-48.
•It was captured by militias aided by the Pakistan Army in 1848, with the ultimate aim of
capturing Ladakh.
•However, the pass itself was captured by the Indian Army on 1st November 1948 in an
assault codenamed Operation Bison.
What is Zojila Tunnel?
•Location: It is an under-construction tunnel situated at an altitude of 11,578 ft (around
3,500 meters) on the Srinagar-Leh Highway in Jammu and Kashmir.
•The tunnel would provide all-weather connectivity between Srinagar and Leh on NH-1.
•Total Length: 14.15 km.
•It will be India’s longest road tunnel and Asia’s longest bi-directional tunnel.
•It would be 9.5 meters wide and 7.57 meters high in the shape of a horseshoe.
Hence both statements are correct.
85. Consider the following statements regarding the Pension Fund Regulatory
and Development Authority (PFRDA):
1. It is a statutory regulatory body set up under PFRDA Act enacted in 2014.
2. It consists of a Chairperson and not more than six members appointed by the
Central Government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
About Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA):
•It is a statutory regulatory body set up under PFRDA Act enacted in 2014.
•Objective: To promote old age income security by establishing, developing, and regulating pension funds
and to protect the interests of subscribers to schemes of pension funds and related matters.
•It comes under the jurisdiction of the Ministry of Finance.
•Headquarters: New Delhi
•Composition: It consists of a Chairperson and not more than six members, of whom at least three shall be
Whole-Time Members, to be appointed by the Central Government.
•Functions:
•Regulate National Pension System (NPS) and other pension schemes to which PFRDA Act applies;
•Establish, develop and regulate pension funds;
•Protect the interest of pension fund subscribers;
•Register and regulate intermediaries;
•Laying down norms for management of corpus of pension funds;
•Establish grievance redressal mechanism for subscribers;
•Settle disputes among intermediaries and also between intermediaries and subscribers;
•Train intermediaries and educate subscribers and the general public with respect to pension, retirement
savings, and related issues;
•Call for information, conduct inquiries, investigations, and audit of intermediaries and other entities
connected with pension funds;
Hence both statements are correct.
86. Namdapha Tiger Reserve, which was recently seen in the news, is
located in which state?

A.
Gujarat

B.
Arunachal Pradesh

C.
Rajasthan

D.
None of these
•Namdapha Tiger Reserve is located in the Changlang district
of Arunachal Pradesh.
•Namdapha is the name of a river which originates from Daphabum and
meets the Noa-Dehing river.
•This river flows right across in a North-South direction of the National
Park and hence the name Namdapha has been given.
•This protected area is wedged between the Dapha Bum ridge of
Mishmi Hills, of North Eastern Himalayas and the Patkai Ranges.
•Flora: Evergreen Forests, Moist deciduous forests, sub-tropical forests,
Temperate Forests and Alpine.
•Fauna: Earthworms, Butterflies & Moths, Amphibians, Reptiles etc.
Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.
87.With reference to the Deepor Beel Lake, consider the following statements:
1. It is a Ramasar site in Assam.
2. A threatened aquatic bird Baer's Pochard is found in this lake.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
•Deepor Beel is a permanent freshwater lake and also a bird sanctuary in Kamrup
district, Assam.
•It is a riverine wetland, lying in a former channel of the Brahmaputra River, it lies
to the south of the main river channel.
•It was designated as a Ramsar site in 2002 for sustaining a range of aquatic life
forms besides 219 species of birds and it is the only Ramsar site in Assam.
•This lake is a staging site on migratory flyways and some of the largest
concentrations of aquatic birds in Assam can be seen, especially in winter.
•Some globally threatened birds are supported, including Spot-billed Pelican,
Lesser Greater Adjutant Stork and Baer's Pochard.
88. With reference to the Electronic Negotiable Warehousing Receipt(NWR),
consider the following statements:
1. It can be auctioned if the loan is not repaid by the farmers.
2. The Warehousing Development and Regulatory Authority regulates the entire
operation under NWR.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
•The negotiable warehouse receipt (NWR) system was launched in 2011 allowing the
transfer of ownership of a commodity stored in a warehouse without having to deliver it
physically.
•These receipts are issued in negotiable form, making them eligible as collateral.
•The Warehousing Development and Regulatory Authority (WDRA) regulates the entire
operation under NWR.
•All e-NWRS can be traded through off-market or on-market Commodity Exchanges
platforms.
•An e-NWR can be auctioned under certain conditions such as loan not repaid, on expiry
and delivery not taken, and on likely damage or spoilage of the commodity in the
warehouse.
•e-NWR can be transferred fully or in part.
Hence both statements are correct.
89. With reference to the planet Venus, consider the following statements:
1. It is the hottest and brightest planet in the solar system.
2. The Magellan spacecraft was launched by European Space Agency to study planet
Venus.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
•Venus the second planet from the sun, is the hottest and brightest planet in the solar system.
•Venus is highly visible from Earth due to its reflective clouds.
•Venus and Earth are often called twins because they are similar in size, mass, density,
composition and gravity.
•With respect to other planets, Venus and Uranus spin backwards which means for these two
planets, the sun rises in the west and sets in the east.
•Magellan spacecraft was one of the most successful deep space missions of NASA.
•It was the first spacecraft to image the entire surface of Venus and made several discoveries
about the planet.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
90.With reference to the Wayanad Wildlife sanctuary, consider the following
statements:
1. It is a part of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve which is located in the state of
Tamil Nadu.
2. The river Kaveri flows through this wildlife sanctuary.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Recently, a female leopard died in a suspected road kill in the Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary
(WWS).
•Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary is located in Kerala and is an integral part of the Nilgiri Biosphere
Reserve.
•This Sanctuary is contiguous to the tiger reserves of Nagarhole and Bandipur of Karnataka
and Madhumalai of Tamil Nadu.
•Kabini river which is a tributary of the Kaveri River flows through the sanctuary.
•Flora: It includes moist deciduous forests, West coast semi-evergreen forests and plantations
of teak, eucalyptus and Grewelia.
•Fauna: Elephant, Gaur, Tiger, Panther, Sambar, Spotted deer, Barking deer, Wild boar, Sloth
bear, Nilgiri langur etc.
Hence both statements are not correct.
 500
Most Important MCQ for
UPSC Prelims
(Current + Static)
Part-10
91.Consider the following statements regarding the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate
Change (IPCC):
1. It was established as a result of the Paris Agreement on climate change in 2015.
2. It directly engages in scientific research to understand human-induced climate change.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
About Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC):
•The IPCC is the United Nations body for assessing the science related to climate change.
•It was established by the World Meteorological Organization (WMO) and the United Nations
Environment Programme (UNEP) in 1988.
•Membership: It has 195 Member countries.
•Objective: To assess scientific, technical, and socio-economic information relevant to
the understanding of human-induced climate change, potential impacts of climate change, and options
for mitigation and adaptation.
•The main activity of the IPCC is the preparation of reports assessing the state of knowledge of climate
change. These include assessment reports, special reports and methodology reports.
•The assessment reports are a key input into the international negotiations to tackle climate change.
•The IPCC does not itself engage in scientific research. Instead, it asks scientists from around the
world to go through all the relevant scientific literature related to climate change and draw up logical
conclusions.
•What are the IPCC working groups? It comprises three working groups, which focus on different
aspects of climate science and climate change response.
•Working Group I: looks at the physics of climate change;
•Working Group II: examines climate change impacts and adaptation;
•Working Group III: focuses on climate change mitigation;
•The three working groups release separate reports, which are then compiled into a synthesis report.
Hence both statements are not correct.
92With reference to the Fair and remunerative price (FRP), consider the following statements:
1. It is the minimum price at which rate sugarcane is to be purchased by sugar mills from farmers.
2. It is fixed by Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
•Fair and remunerative price (FRP) is the minimum price at which rate sugarcane is to be
purchased by sugar mills from farmers.
•Who determines it? The FRP is fixed by Union government (Cabinet Committee on Economic
Affairs (CCEA)) on the basis of recommendations of Commission for Agricultural Costs and
Prices (CACP).
•Rules: The ‘FRP’ of sugarcane is determined under Sugarcane (Control) Order, 1966.
•Methodology: Recommended FRP is arrived at by taking into account various factors (cost of
production, demand-supply situation, domestic & international prices, inter-crop price parity etc.
•Benefits: FRP assures margins to farmers, irrespective of whether sugar mills generate a profit or
not.
•This will be uniformly applicable all over the country. Besides FRP, some states such as Punjab,
Haryana, Uttarakhand, UP and TN announce a State Advised Price, which is generally higher than
the FRP.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
93. Keibul Lamjao National Park lies in which state?

A.
Assam

B.
Himachal Pradesh

C.
Manipur

D.
Meghalaya
About Keibul Lamjao National Park:
•It is the world’s only floating national park.
•Location:
•It is located in the Bishnupur district in Manipur.
•The park is located in the southwestern part of the famous Loktak Lake, which is well known for
the floating biomass called phumdis.
•This is the last natural habitat of the endangered brow-antlered deer(Sangai deer), the dancing deer of
Manipur.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
Manipur: Centre advises state government to take steps for protection of Loktak Lake and Keibul
Lamjao National Park
94. With reference to the Pravasi Bharatiya Diwas, consider the following statements:
1. It is held once every two years.
2. The theme of Pravasi Bharatiya Diwas 2023 is Diaspora: Reliable partners for India’s
progress in Amrit Kaal.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
•Pravasi Bharatiya Divas (PBD) Convention is the flagship event of the Government of
India. It provides an important platform to engage and connect with overseas Indians and
to enable the diaspora to interact with each other.
•The theme of 2023 PBD? Diaspora: Reliable partners for India’s progress in Amrit Kaal.

What are the Key facts about PBD?

•9th January was chosen as the day to celebrate PBD, as it was on this day in 1915
that Mahatma Gandhi, who returned to India from South Africa, led India’s freedom
struggle.
•This convention is being held every year since 2003 but in 2015 it was revised and was
decided to be celebrated every two years. It was then a theme-based conference that was
set up every year during the interim period.
•PBD Conventions are held once every two years.
Hence both statements are correct.
95. With reference to the International Police Organisation (Interpol), consider the following
statements:
1. It is a united Nations-affiliated organization that helps in international police cooperation
against cross-border terrorism.
2. Intelligence Bureau of India is the national central bureau which represents Interpol in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Recently, Interpol has withdrawn the Red Corner Notice (RCN) issued against Mehul Choksi.

•The mandate of The International Police Organisation (Interpol): It is an international

organization facilitating international police cooperation against cross-border terrorism, trafficking, and
other crime.

•Status: It is ‘NOT’ a unit or part of a united nation system. It is an independent international organization.

•Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) represents Interpol in India as the country's national central bureau.
Hence both statements are not correct.
96. With reference to the Navroz, consider the following statements:
1. It is celebrated by the members of the Parsi community.
2. It is listed as the UNESCO Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
•Navroz is an Iranian and Persian New year. The word ‘now’ means ‘new’ and roz means
‘day’. Therefore, the word translates to a new day.’
•It marks the beginning of the spring season and is celebrated with great fervour
by members of the Parsi community across the globe.
•The festival of Nowruz is named after the Persian king, Jamshed, who is credited for
creating the Persian or the Shahenshahi calendar.
•It is said that the festival came to India courtesy of an 18th-century wealthy tradesman
from Surat, Nusservanji Kohyaji, who often travelled to Iran and began celebrating Nowruz
in India.

•It is listed in the list of UNESCO Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity of India.
•In India, the festival is observed around August 16-17 by the Parsi community following
the Shahenshahi calendar which does not account for leap years.
Hence both statements are correct.
97. With reference to the National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation of India
Ltd (NAFED), consider the following statements:
1. It is an organization which helps in marketing agricultural produce in India.
2. It works under the Union Ministry of commerce.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
•NAFED is an apex organization of marketing cooperatives for agricultural produce in India.
•It was founded on 2 October 1958 to promote the trade of agricultural produce and forest
resources across the nation.
•It is registered under Multi State Co-operative Societies Act.
•With its headquarters in New Delhi, NAFED has four regional offices in Delhi, Mumbai,
Chennai and Kolkata, apart from 28 zonal offices in capitals of states and important cities.
•It is the nodal agency to implement price stabilization measures under "Operation
Greens" which aims to double the farmers' income by 2022.
•Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Agriculture
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
98. World Happiness Report, recently seen in the news, is an annual publication
of which one of the following organizations?

A.
World Economic Forum

B.
United Nations Sustainable Development Solutions
Network

C.
World Bank

D.
Oxfam International
About World Happiness Report:
•It is an annual publication of the United Nations Sustainable Development Solutions
Network (SDSN).
•It is based on global survey data from people in more than 150 countries.
•It is based on people's own assessment of their happiness, as well as economic and
social data.
•The report considers six key factors: social support, income, health, freedom,
generosity, and absence of corruption.
•It assigns a happiness score based on an average of data over a three-year period.
•Highlights of World Happiness Report 2023:
•Finland has been named the happiest country in the world for the sixth consecutive
year.
•India is ranked 126, ten places higher than its ranking of 136 in 2022. It
remains below most neighboring counties, including Pakistan (108) and Sri Lanka (112).
Hence option b is the correct answer.
99. Consider the following statements regarding the International Telecommunication Union (ITU):
1. It is the United Nations specialized agency for information and communication technologies.
2. It allocates global radio spectrum and satellite orbits.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
About International Telecommunication Union (ITU):
•It is the United Nations specialized agency for information and communication technologies.
•It is an intergovernmental organization that coordinates between governments and private sector bodies with
respect to global telecommunication and information communication technology (ICT) services.
•It was established in 1865 as International Telegraph Union.
•In 1947 the ITU became a specialized agency of the United Nations.
•Headquarters: Geneva, Switzerland.
•Membership: It has a membership of 193 countries and nearly 800 private sector entities and academic
institutions.
•Functions:
•allocate global radio spectrum and satellite orbits;
•coordination and setting of technical standards related to telecommunication/ICT;
•strive to improve access to ICTs in underserved communities worldwide;
•India and ITU: India has been an active member of the ITU since 1869 and has been a regular member of the
ITU Council since 1952.
Hence both statements are correct.
100. With reference to the National Chambal sanctuary, consider the following statements:
1. It is located at the tri-junction of three states namely Gujarat, Uttar Pradesh and
Rajasthan.
2. It is home to the largest population of Gharials.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Recently, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh these three States have
commenced joint action to stop illegal sand mining in National Chambal Sanctuary.
•National Chambal Sanctuary lying at the tri-junction of three states Madhya Pradesh,
Uttar Pradesh and Rajasthan.
•It is home to the critically endangered Gharial, the red-crowned roof turtle and the
endangered Ganges River dolphin.
•Chambal supports the largest population of Gharials in the wild.
•Chambal River is one of the tributaries of the Yamuna River and the most pollution-free
river in India.
•It originates at the Singar Chouri peak on the northern slopes of the Vindhya mountains.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
 500
Most Important MCQ for
UPSC Prelims
(Current + Static)
Part-11
101.Nyingma and Gelug schools, which were recently seen in the news, belong to which
religion?

A.
Jainism

B.
Buddhism

C.
Zoroastrian

D.
Vaishnavism
•Tibetan Buddhism has 4 major
schools: Nyingma (8th century), Kagyu (11th century), Sakya (1073)
and Gelug (1409).
•The Janang school (12th century) is one of the smaller schools that grew as an
offshoot of the Sakya school.
Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.
102.Consider the following statements regarding the Institute Of Cost Accountants Of India:
1. It is a statutory body established by the Cost and Works Accountants Act of 1959.
2. It is under the administrative control of the Ministry of Finance.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
About Institute Of Cost Accountants Of India:
•It is a statutory body established by an act of Parliament, the Cost and
Works Accountants Act, 1959.
•Mandate: Regulation of the profession of cost and management
accountancy.
•It is the only recognised statutory professional organisation and licensing
body in India specialising exclusively in Cost and Management Accountancy.
•It is under the administrative control of the Ministry of Corporate Affairs.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
103.Polavaram Irrigation Project, recently seen in the news, lies in which
state?

A.
Karnataka

B.
Maharashtra

C.
Madhya Pradesh

D.
Andhra Pradesh
About Polavaram Irrigation Project:
•It is an under-construction multi-purpose irrigation project on the Godavari River in the Eluru
District and East Godavari District in Andhra Pradesh.
•The project has been accorded National project status by the Union Government of India.
•Objectives:
•Development of Irrigation, Hydropower and drinking water facilities in East Godavari,
Vishakhapatnam, West Godavari and Krishna districts of Andhra Pradesh.
•The project envisages the generation of 960 MW of hydropower, drinking water supply to
a population of 28.50 lacks in 611 villages
•The ultimate irrigation potential of the project is 4.368 lakh ha.
•The project implements the Godavari-Krishna link under the Interlinking of rivers project. It
envisages the transfer of 80TMC of surplus Godavari water to river Krishna which will
be shared between Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka and Maharashtra.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
104.Which one of the following countries does not have a land boundary with Egypt?

A.
Libya

B.
Syria

C.
Sudan

D.
Israel
Key Facts about Egypt:
•Location: Egypt is a transcontinental country situated in northeastern Africa and the Sinai Peninsula in
Western Asia (Middle East).
•Capital: Cairo
•Boundaries:
•The country borders the Mediterranean Sea to the north and the Gulf of Suez and the Red Sea to the east.
•It is bordered by Libya in the west, the Palestinian territory (Gaza Strip) and Israel in the northeast,
and Sudan in the south.
•It shares maritime borders with Cyprus, Turkey and Greece in the Mediterranean Sea, and with Jordan and
Saudi Arabia in the Red Sea.
Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
105.With reference to the Rubber Plantations, consider the following statements:
1. It requires moderate rainfall of less than 100cm for its growth.
2. It requires temperature of below 20 Degrees.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
•Climatic conditions required for Rubber
• Rainfall: It requires moist and humid climates with heavy rainfall of more than 200 cm.
• Temperature: It grows well in equatorial climates and temperatures above 25 degrees
Celsius.
• Soil: Well-drained, weathered soils.
•Rubber Growing Areas in India: Primarily in Tamil Nadu’s Kanyakumari District and Kerala, Coastal
Karnataka, Goa, Maharashtra’s Konkan Region, coastal Andhra Pradesh and Orissa, the
northeastern provinces, and the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, among other places.
Hence both statements are not correct.
106.Consider the following statements regarding Tactical Nuclear Weapons:
1. They are designed for use in battle as part of an attack with conventional weapon forces.
2. They can have an explosive yield of upto one thousand kilotons.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
About Tactical Nuclear Weapons:
•Nuclear weapons, just like other weapons, can be categorised into two types — strategic and tactical.
•Strategic Nuclear Weapons: They refer to nuclear weapons that have bigger objectives, such
as destroying cities or larger targets, with larger war-waging objectives in mind.
•Tactical Nuclear Weapons (TNWs):
•They are nuclear weapons used for specific tactical gains on the battlefield.
•They are intended to devastate enemy targets in a specific area without causing widespread
destruction and radioactive fallout.
•These are designed for use in battle as part of an attack with conventional weapon forces.
•These warheads can be delivered via a variety of missiles, torpedoes and gravity bombs from naval,
air or ground forces. They could even be simply driven into an area and detonated.
•The explosive yield of tactical nuclear weapons can range from under one kiloton to about 100
kilotons, whereas strategic nuclear weapons can have a yield of up to one thousand kilotons.
•Delivery systems for tactical nuclear weapons also tend to have shorter ranges, typically under 310
miles (500 kilometres), compared with strategic nuclear weapons, which are typically designed to
cross continents.
•They are the least-regulated category of nuclear weapons covered in arms control agreements.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
107.Consider the following statements regarding Marine Protected Areas (MPAs):
1. They are strictly prohibited from any human activities.
2. They currently cover about one-third of the ocean.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
bout Marine Protected Areas (MPAs):
•MPAs are areas of the ocean set aside for long-term conservation aims.
•They support climate change adaptation and mitigation while providing other ecosystem
services.
•The specific purposes, legal authority, level of protection, management approaches, and use
allowance of individual marine protected areas (MPAs) can vary greatly from site to site
•Many MPAs allow people to use the area in ways that do not damage the environment.
Some ban fishing. A few do not allow people to enter the area at all.
•MPAs currently cover about 6.35% of the ocean. However, only just over 1.89% of that area is
covered by exclusively no-take MPAs that do not allow any fishing, mining, drilling, or other
extractive activities.
Hence both statements are not correct.
108.Consider the following statements regarding the Public Provident Fund (PPF) Scheme:
1. The Government of India guarantees your investments in the PPF.
2. Investments in PPF are tax-exempt under section 80C of the Income Tax Act (ITA).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
About Public Provident Fund (PPF) Scheme:
•The PPF Scheme is a very popular long-term savings scheme in India because of
its combination of tax savings, returns, and safety.
•The PPF was first offered to the public in the year 1968 by the Finance Ministry’s National
Savings Institute.
•Objective: To help individuals make small savings and provide returns on the savings.
•It is one of the safest investment products. i.e., the government of India guarantees your
investments in the fund
•Tenure: 15 years (Can be renewed in blocks of 5 years).
•Interest rate: Interest rates currently payable on such accounts stand at 7.1%.
•Investment Amount: Minimum Rs.500, Maximum Rs.1.5 lakh p.a.
•Who is eligible for a PPF account? Any Indian citizen can open a PPF account.
•The PPF accounts cannot be held jointly, though you can make a nomination.
•Investment in PPF is tax-exempt under section 80C of the Income Tax Act (ITA), and
the returns from PPF are also not taxable.
Hence both statements are correct
109. With reference to the Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle, consider the following
statements:
1. It is a three-stage launch vehicle developed by the Indian Space Research Organisation.
2. It is designed to launch earth observation satellites.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Recently, Indian Space Research Organisation’s (ISRO) LVM3 or GSLV-Mk3
successfully put into space 36 satellites of Bharti-backed OneWeb.
•It is a 3-stage space launch vehicle developed and operated by the ISRO to launch
satellites and other space objects into Geosynchronous Transfer Orbits (GTO
~37,000 km).
•The third stage of this vehicle uses a Cryogenic engine, which uses liquefied
oxygen and hydrogen as fuel.
•It has been designed for launching communication satellites.
•GSLV delivers satellites into a higher elliptical orbit - GTO.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
110.With reference to India’s satellite launch vehicles, consider the following statements: (2018)
1.PSLVs launch the satellites useful for Earth resources monitoring whereas GSLVs are designed
mainly to launch communication satellites.

2.Satellites launched by PSLV appear to remain permanently fixed in the same position in the sky,
as viewed from a particular location on Earth.

3.GSLV Mk III is a four-staged launch vehicle with the first and third stages using solid rocket
motors; and the second and fourth stages using liquid rocket engines.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 3 only
Ans : A
 500
Most Important MCQ for
UPSC Prelims
(Current + Static)
Part-12
111. With reference to Project Elephant, consider the following statements:
1. It is a Centrally-Sponsored Scheme to protect elephants and improve their habitat.
2. Asian elephants are designated as vulnerable species under the IUCN Red List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
•Project Elephant’ was launched in 1992 as a Centrally-Sponsored Scheme to protect
elephants and improve their habitat and corridors, reduce Human-elephant conflict and
ensure their welfare.
•Under this project, financial and technical support is given to wildlife management efforts
by states for their free-ranging populations of wild Asian Elephants.
•Project elephant is mainly implemented in 16 States.
•Conservation status of Asian Elephant
• IUCN: Endangered
• Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972: Schedule I
• CITES: Appendix I
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
112. With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Van Dhan Vikas Yojna, consider the following statements:
1. It is an initiative of the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
2. It is being implanted by the NITI Aayog to enhance the livelihood of the tribal people.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
•The Van Dhan Scheme is an initiative of the Ministry of Tribal Affairs and TRIFED.
•It was launched on 14th April 2018 and seeks to improve tribal incomes through the
value addition of tribal products.
•Implementation:
• The scheme will be implemented through the Ministry of Tribal Affairs as Nodal
Department at the Central Level and TRIFED as Nodal Agency at the National
Level.
• At the State level, the State Nodal Agency for MFPs and the District collectors
are envisaged to play a pivot role in scheme implementation at the grassroots
level.
• Locally the Kendras are proposed to be managed by a Managing Committee (an
SHG) consisting of representatives of Van Dhan SHGs in the cluster.
Hence both statements are not correct.
113. Consider the following statements regarding the Earth Hour:
1. It is a global movement to promote awareness of climate change challenges and energy
conservation.
2. It is organized by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
About Earth Hour:
•It is a global grassroots movement uniting people to take action on environmental issues and
protect the planet.
•It is organized by World Wildlife Fund (WWF).
•It was started by WWF and partners as a symbolic lights-out event in Sydney in 2007.
•It takes place on the last Saturday of March every year.
•“Earth Hour” encourages people to switch off all lights for an hour, from 8:30 pm to 9:30 pm local
time to promote awareness of climate change challenges and energy conservation.
•Governments and companies also participate by turning off non-essential lights in their buildings,
monuments, and landmarks to raise awareness about the impact of energy consumption on our
planet.
•This symbolic act, known as the ‘lights off’ moment, unites people worldwide in a show of support
for the planet and serves as a reminder of the environmental issues facing us.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
114. Consider the following statements regarding the Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act
(AFSPA):
1. It gives armed forces powers to use force even to the extent of causing death.
2. Armed forces under no circumstances can be prosecuted for their actions under
AFSPA.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
About Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act (AFSPA):
•It is a law enacted by the Parliament which gives armed forces (Army, the Air Force and
Central paramilitary forces) the special powers and immunity to maintain public order in
“disturbed areas”.
•When is it applied? It can be applied only after an area has been declared “disturbed” under
section 2 of the act.
•What is a Disturbed area? An area can be considered to be disturbed due to differences or
disputes among different religious, racial, language or regional groups or castes or
communities.
•Who declares an area as disturbed? Section (3) of AFSPA empowers the governor of the
state/Union territory to issue an official notification declaring the state or a region within as
a “disturbed area”, after which the centre can decide whether to send in armed forces.
•The ‘special powers’ of armed forces under Section 4 are:
•Power to use force even to the extent of causing death, destroy arms / ammunition dumps,
fortifications/ shelters / hideouts.
•Power to arrest without a warrant.
•Power to seize and search’ without any warrant any premise.
•It stipulates that arrested persons and seized property is to be handed over to the nearest
Police Station with least possible delay.
•These armed forces are immune from prosecution unless Union Government provides
sanction to the prosecuting agencies.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
115. With reference to the Aravali Hills, consider the following statements:
1. It is one of the oldest block mountains in the world.
2. The river Narmada originates from this hill range.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
•The Aravalli Range is one of the oldest fold mountains of the world which
runs in a southwest direction, starting near Delhi, passing through southern
Haryana and Rajasthan, and ending in Gujarat.
•The highest peak of Aravali is Guru Shikhar (5,650 ft).
•Three major rivers originate from the Aravali hills,
namely Banas, Sahibi and Luni River (which flows into the Rann of Kutch).
•Narmada River rises near the Amarkantak range of mountains in Madhya
Pradesh.
Hence both statements are not correct.
116.Consider the following statements regarding Employees Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO):
1. It is a statutory body established under the Employees' Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Act,
1952.
2. The schemes offered by EPFO cover Indian workers only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
About Employees Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO):
•It is a statutory body under the Employees' Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Act, 1952.
•It is under the administrative control of the Union Ministry of Labor and Employment.
•Structure of EPFO:

•The board is chaired by the Union Minister of Labour and Employment, Government of India.
•The Central Board of Trustees operates 3 schemes:
•The Employees’ Provident Funds Scheme, 1952 (EPF)
•The Employees’ Pension Scheme, 1995 (EPS)
•The Employees’ Deposit Linked Insurance Scheme, 1976 (EDLI)
•EPFO is also the nodal agency for implementing Bilateral Social Security Agreements with other countries
on a reciprocal basis.
•Coverage: The schemes offered by EPFO cover Indian workers and international workers (from countries
with whom the EPFO has signed bilateral agreements).
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
117. OSIRIS-Rex Mission, which was recently seen in the news, is launched by which
space agency?

A.
Indian Space Research Organisation

B.
European Space Agency

C.
National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA)

D.
None of these
•The Origins Spectral Interpretation Resource Identification Security -
Regolith Explorer was launched by National Aeronautics and Space
Administration (NASA) in 2016 for the journey to Bennu.
•The spacecraft travelled to a near-Earth asteroid called Bennu and bring
back a sample to Earth for study.
•The mission will help scientists investigate how planets formed and how
life began, as well as improve our understanding of asteroids that could
impact Earth.
•Asteroid Bennu is located about 200 million miles away from the Earth.
•It was discovered by a team from the NASA-funded Lincoln Near-Earth
Asteroid Research team in 1999.
•It is a B-type asteroid, implying that it contains significant amounts of
carbon and various other minerals.
•Around 20-40 percent of Bennu’s interior is empty space and scientists
believe that it was formed in the first 10 million years of the solar system’s
creation, implying that it is roughly 4.5 billion years old.
Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.
118. With reference to the Minimum Support Price(MSP), consider the following
statements:
1. It is recommended by the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices.
2. There is currently no statutory backing for MSP in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
•A minimum support price (MSP) is a minimum price for any crop that the Government
considers as remunerative for farmers and hence deserving of “support”.
•It is also the price that Government agencies pay whenever they procure a particular crop from
the farmers.
•There is currently no statutory backing for these prices, nor any law mandating their
enforcement.
•Crops covered under MSP: At present, the Central Government sets MSP for 23 crops.
•The Government announces the MSP at the start of each cropping season (Rabi and Kharif).
•The MSP is decided after the Government exhaustively studies the recommendations made by
the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP).
•CACP is an attached office of the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
Hence both statements are correct.
119. Consider the following statements regarding the Money Bill:
1. It can only be introduced in Lok Sabha.
2. It must be passed by a special majority in the Parliament.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
What is a Money Bill?
•Under Article 110(1), a Bill is said to be a Money Bill if it only contains provisions related
to taxation, borrowing of money by the government, and expenditure from or receipt to
the Consolidated Fund of India.
•Bills that only contain provisions that are incidental to these matters would also be
regarded as Money Bills.
•Who decides if a Bill is a Money Bill? The Speaker certifies a Bill as a Money Bill, and the
Speaker’s decision is final.
•Passage of Money Bills:
•A Money Bill may only be introduced in Lok Sabha on the recommendation of the
President.
•It must be passed in Lok Sabha by a simple majority of all members present and voting.
•Following this, it may be sent to the Rajya Sabha for its recommendations, which Lok
Sabha may reject if it chooses to. If such recommendations are not given within 14 days, it
will be deemed to be passed by Parliament.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
120. Consider the following statements regarding the Monetary Policy Committee
(MPC):
1. It is entrusted with the task of fixing the repo rate required to contain inflation
within the specified target level.
2. The decision of the MPC is not binding on the RBI.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
About Monetary Policy Committee (MPC):
•The Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934 (RBI Act) has been amended by the Finance Act, 2016 to
provide for a statutory and institutionalized framework for a MPC.
•Under Section 45ZB of the amended RBI Act, 1934, the central government is empowered to
constitute a six-member MPC.
•Function: The MPC is entrusted with the task of fixing the benchmark policy rate (repo rate)
required to contain inflation within the specified target level.
•Composition:
•MPC will have six members - the RBI Governor (Chairperson), the RBI Deputy Governor in charge
of monetary policy, one official nominated by the RBI Board, and the remaining three
members would represent the Government of India.
•The external members hold office for a period of four years.
•The quorum for a meeting shall be four Members, at least one of whom shall be the Governor and,
in his absence, the Deputy Governor, who is the Member of the MPC.
•The MPC takes decisions based on a majority vote. In case of a tie, the RBI governor will have
the second or casting vote.
•The decision of the MPC would be binding on the RBI.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
 500
Most Important MCQ for
UPSC Prelims
(Current + Static)
Part-13
121. Consider the following statements regarding the Unlawful Activities Prevention Act (UAPA):
1. The act enables the Central Government to designate individuals as terrorists.
2. It also applies to citizens of India who are abroad and persons on ships and aircraft registered in
India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
About Unlawful Activities Prevention Act (UAPA):
•The UAPA was enacted in 1967.
•It lays down the definitions and rules for designating an organization as an "unlawful association" if it is
engaged in certain types of activities.
•‘Unlawful activity’ is defined as any action taken by an individual or association – through an act,
words, spoken or written, or by signs or visible representation – which is intended to, or supports a claim
to, bring about the cession of a part of the territory of India, or the secession of a part of the territory of
India from the Union, or which incites any individual or group of individuals to bring about such
cession or secession.
•It covers activities which disclaim, question, disrupt or are intended to disrupt the sovereignty and
territorial integrity of India, and which cause or intend to cause disaffection against India.
•In 2004, the UAPA was amended, and 'terrorist activities' were brought within its fold, under which 34
outfits, including the Lashkar-e-Taiba and the Jaish-e-Mohammad, were banned.
•Under the Act, the central government may designate an organization as a terrorist organization if it:
•commits or participates in acts of terrorism;
•prepares for terrorism;
•promotes terrorism;
•is otherwise involved in terrorism;
•The 2019 Amendment gave the Home Ministry the power to designate individuals as terrorists.
•The Act extends to the whole of India.
•It also applies to citizens of India who are abroad, persons in service of the Indian government, and
persons on ships and aircraft registered in India.
Hence both statements are correct.
122.Consider the following statements regarding the Securities Transaction Tax (STT):
1. It is an indirect tax charged on the purchase and sale of securities listed on the recognized stock
exchanges in India.
2. The rate of STT is different for different types of securities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
About Securities Transaction Tax (STT):
•What is it? It is a direct tax charged on the purchase and sale of securities listed
on the recognized stock exchanges in India.
•It is levied and collected by the central government of India.
•STT is governed by Securities Transaction Tax Act (STT Act), and STT Act has
specifically listed various taxable securities transactions, i.e., transactions on which
STT is leviable.
•Taxable securities include equities, derivatives, or equity-oriented mutual funds
investment units (excluding commodities and currency).
•The rate of taxation is different for different types of securities.
•STT is not applicable to off-market transactions or to commodity or currency
transactions.
•The liability of applying the STT is on the broker when the client undertakes
transactions in the stock market. The collected amount is then paid to the
government.
•The charges and rate of STT are reflected on the contract notes which a broker
provides to its clients for every execution of trades.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
123. Consider the following statements regarding the Micro Units Development and Refinance Agency
(MUDRA) Loans:
1. It provides loans of up to Rs. 1 crore to non-corporate, non-farm small/micro enterprises.
2. Any Indian Citizen who has a business plan for a non-farm sector income-generating activities are
eligible for MUDRA loans.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
About MUDRA Loans:
•MUDRA Loan is offered under the Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana (PMMY).
•PMMY was launched in 2015 with the aim to help small-scale businesses expand
and attain success.
•Support under the scheme: It provides loans of up to 10 lacks to non-corporate,
non-farm small/micro enterprises.
•Purpose of loan: To start a new business, enhance existing or meet working
capital requirements, and for business expansion purposes
•These loans are classified as MUDRA loans under PMMY.
•Eligibility: Any Indian Citizen who has a business plan for a non-farm
sector income-generating activities such as manufacturing, processing, trading, or
service sector.
•These loans are given by Commercial Banks, RRBs, Small Finance Banks, MFIs, and
NBFCs.
•Types of loans:
•Shishu - Covering loans up to Rs 50,000;
•Kishor - Covering loans above Rs 50,000 and up to Rs 5 lakh;
Tarun - Covering loans above Rs 5 lakh and up to Rs 10 lakh.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
124. With reference to the Kanha Tiger Reserve, consider the following statements:
1. It is situated in the state of Madhya Pradesh.
2. It is best known for its evergreen Sal forests.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Key facts about Kanha Tiger Reserve
•It is nestled in the Maikal range of Satpuras in Madhya Pradesh, the heart
of India that forms the central Indian highlands.
•This Tiger Reserve stretches over an area of 940 square km in the two
districts Mandla and Balaghat in the state of Madhya Pradesh.
•Kanha is best known for its evergreen Sal forests.
•Fauna: Barasingha, Tiger, Leopard, Dhole, Bear, Gaur and Indian Python
etc.

•Hence both statements are correct

125.With reference to the Seekho Aur Kamao scheme, consider the following statements:
1. It is a skill development scheme for the youth of the 18- 25 years age group.
2. It is implemented by the Union Ministry of Minority Affairs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
•Seekho Aur Kamao is a skill development scheme for the youth of the 14 - 35 years age
group.
•It aims at providing employment and employment opportunities, improving the
employability of existing workers, school dropouts etc.
•The scheme ensures 75% placement, out of which 50% should be in the organized sector.
•As per scheme guidelines, the implementing organizations will be required to establish
linkages with placement services.
•For the candidates interested in self-employment after availing the training, the organization
shall arrange easy microfinance/ loans for them through financial institutions, National
Minority Development Finance Corporation (NMDFC), banks etc.
•Post-placement support of Rs. 2000/- per month is provided to placed trainees for two
months as placement assistance.
•Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Minority Affairs.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
126.With reference to the Kashmiri Stag, consider the following statements:
1. It is found primarily in the Dachigam National Park.
2. It is designated as a critically endangered species under the IUCN Red List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
•The Kashmir stag also called hangul is a subspecies of Central Asian red deer endemic
to Kashmir and surrounding areas.
•It is found in dense riverine forests in the high valleys and mountains of Jammu and
Kashmir and northern Himachal Pradesh.
•In Kashmir, it is found primarily in the Dachigam National Park where it receives
protection.
•A small population has also been witnessed in Overa-Aru Wildlife Sanctuary in south
Kashmir.
•Conservation status
•IUCN: Critically Endangered
•CITES: Appendix I
Hence both statements are correct.
127.Solomon Islands, recently seen in the news, lies in which Ocean?

A.
Atlantic Ocean

B.
Indian Ocean

C.
Pacific Ocean

D.
Arctic Ocean
•Location:
•It is an island country consisting of six major islands and over 900 smaller
islands in Oceania.
•It is situated in the southwest Pacific Ocean, approximately 2,000 km to
the northeast of Australia.
•Capital: Its capital, Honiara, is located on the largest island, Guadalcanal.
•The terrain is mountainous and heavily forested.
•More than 90% of the islanders are ethnic Melanesians.
•Once a British protectorate, the Solomon Islands achieved independence as a
republic in 1978.
•Language:
•There are 63 distinct languages in the country, with numerous local dialects.
•English is the official language, but Pijin is the common language for the
majority of people.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
128.Which among the following best describes ‘Oumuamua’, recently seen in the news?

A.
It is an interstellar object.

B.
It is an AI-powered Chatbot.

C.
It is a tribal language spoken in Amazon forests.

D.
None of the above.
About Oumuamua:
•It is the first confirmed object from another star (interstellar object) to visit the solar system.
•The object was discovered on Oct. 19, 2017, by the NASA-funded Pan-STARRS1 telescope.
•Astronomers named the object 1I/2017 U1 (‘Oumuamua), Hawaiian for “a messenger from afar
arriving first.”
•Size and Shape: The object is believed to be at least a quarter-mile (400 meters) long and cigar-
shaped, with a length roughly ten times longer than the width.
•What was the Mystery?
•It had no bright coma or dust tail, like most comets, and a peculiar shape.
•It was accelerating away from the sun in a way that astronomers could not explain.
•Recent Finding: Researchers say the answer might be the release of hydrogen from trapped
reserves inside water-rich ice as the comet warmed up in the sunlight.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
Mystery of our first interstellar visitor may be solved
129.Haifa port, recently seen in the news lies in which of the following country?

A.
Iraq

B.
Saudi Arabia

C.
Israel

D.
Somalia
About Haifa Port:
•Location: It is located in northern Israel, adjacent to the city of Haifa along the
Mediterranean sea.
•It is also located on the busy Suez Canal shipping route.
•The Haifa port is one of the two biggest commercial ports in Israel.
•It handles nearly half of the country's container cargo and is also the nation's
principal port for passenger traffic and cruise ships.
•It has a natural deep-water harbor, which operates all year long.
•The Port of Haifa was constructed in 1933 by the British. Since 1948, it has
been rebuilt and developed by the Israeli government.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
130.Perseverance rover, recently seen in the news, is a Mars mission of which of the
following space agencies?
A.
European Space Agency

B.
NASA

C.
ISRO

D.
Canadian Space Agency
About Perseverance rover:
•It is robotic explorer to land on Mars as part of NASA’s ongoing Mars 2020 Mission.
•Main Job: Seek signs of ancient life and collect samples of rock and regolith (broken rock and
soil) for possible return to Earth.
•The rover will collect samples of rock and soil, encase them in tubes, and leave them on the
planet's surface to be returned to Earth at a future date.
•Launch: It was launched on July 30, 2020 from Cape Canaveral, Florida.
•Landing: Successfully landed on the surface of Mar's Jezero Crater on Feb. 18, 2021.
•Feautures:
•It is about 3 metres long, 2.7 metres wide, and 2.2 metres tall.
•It is about the size of a car, but weighs only about 1,025 kilograms with all instruments on board.
•Power source: Multi-Mission Radioisotope Thermoelectric Generator (MMRTG). Converts heat
from the radioactive decay of plutonium into electricity.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
 500
Most Important MCQ for
UPSC Prelims
(Current + Static)
Part-14
131. Consider the following statements Tax buoyancy and Tax Elasticity:
1. Tax Elasticity refers to the responsiveness of tax revenue growth to changes in GDP.
2. Tax buoyancy refers to changes in tax revenue in response to changes in tax rate.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
What is Tax buoyancy?
•Tax buoyancy explains the relationship between the changes in government’s tax revenue
growth and the changes in GDP.
•It refers to the responsiveness of tax revenue growth to changes in GDP.
•When a tax is buoyant, its revenue increases without increasing the tax rate.
•It depends upon:
•the size of the tax base;
•the friendliness of the tax administration;
•the rationality and simplicity of tax rates;
What is Tax Elasticity?
•It refers to changes in tax revenue in response to changes in tax rate.
•For example, how tax revenue changes if the government reduces corporate income tax
from 30 per cent to 25 per cent indicate tax elasticity.
Hence both statements are not correct.
132. With reference to the Economic Survey, consider the following statements:
1.It is prepared by the Economics Division of the Department of Economic Affairs in the Finance Ministry.
2.The first Economic Survey in India was presented in the year 1991-92.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
•When was the first Economic Survey of India presented?
•The first Economic Survey in India was presented in the year 1950-51.
•Up to 1964, it was presented along with the Union Budget.
•From 1964 onwards, it has been delinked from the Budget.
•When and who present it? It is presented normally a day before the presentation of the Union Budget in
the Parliament by the Finance Minister.
•Who prepares it? It is prepared by the Economics Division of the Department of Economic Affairs in the
Finance Ministry under the overall guidance of the Chief Economic Adviser and is released after it
is approved by the finance minister.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
133.With reference to the Red-headed vulture, consider the following statements:
1. It is categorized as a critically endangered species under the IUCN Red List.
2. It is only found in the Himalayan Region.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Recently, The Red-headed vulture was spotted in the Asola Bhatti Wildlife Sanctuary.
•This is one of the 9 species of Vulture which are found in India.
•It is also called the Asian King vulture or Pondicherry Vulture was extensively found in India
but its numbers drastically reduced after diclofenac poisoning.
•Conservation status
•IUCN Red List: Critically Endangered
•Wildlife Protection Act, 1972: Schedule 1
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
134.Consider the following statements regarding Municipal Bond:
1. It is a debt instrument issued by municipal corporations or associated bodies in India.
2. It was first issued in the year 1997 by the Bangalore Municipal Corporation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
About Municipal Bonds:
•What is it? A municipal bond or muni bond is a debt instrument issued by municipal
corporations or associated bodies in India.
•Purpose: The funds raised are used to finance socio-economic development projects.
•History: It was first issued in the 1997 by Bangalore local body for infrastructure development
projects 4 years after decentralization of powers and authorities to the Municipal bodies by the
74th constitutional amendment.
•Tax Exemption: Municipal bonds are exempted from tax provided the buyer adheres to the rules
laid by the municipal corporations. The interest is also exempted from taxes.
Hence both statements are correct.
Budget: BBMP official hails municipal bonds, expert has doubts
135. Consider the following statements regarding Ekalavya Model Residential Schools (EMRS):
1. EMRS are co-educational residential schools from Class I to XII.
2. Non-Scheduled Tribe (ST) students can be admitted in these schools on seats up to 10% of the
total seats.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
About Ekalavya Model Residential Schools (EMRS)
•EMRS started in the year 1997-98 to impart quality education to ST children in remote
areas to enable them to access the best opportunities in education and to bring them at par
with the general population.
•EMRS are established in the States/UTs from the grants received under Article 275(1) of the
Constitution of India.
•Features:
•EMRS are co-educational residential schools from Class VI to XII.
•Eklavya schools will be on par with Navodaya Vidyalayas and will have special facilities for
preserving local art and culture besides providing training in sports and skill development.
•Each school has a capacity of 480 students with equal number of seats for boys and girls.
•Non-ST students can be admitted in these schools on seats up to 10% of the total seats.
•CBSE curriculum is followed in these schools, and education is completely free.
•The National Education Society for Tribal Students (NESTS), an autonomous organization has
been set up under the Ministry of Tribal Affairs to establish and manage EMRS across the
country.
•Government Target: As per the Budget 2018-19, every block with more than 50% ST
population and at least 20,000 tribal population will have an EMRS by the year 2022.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
136. Consider the following statements with
respect to Freedom of Religion enshrined in the Constitution:
1. It includes the freedom to not follow any religion.
2. It bars all religious conversions.
3. It is not applicable to foreign nationals.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
1. Freedom of Religion is a Fundamental Right provided under Articles 25-28 of the Constitution.
Freedom
of religion also includes the freedom of conscience. This means that a person may choose any
religion or
may choose not to follow any religion. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

2. Freedom of Religion includes the right to not just practice one’s religion but also to
propagate it. This
includes persuading people to join one’s religion and willful conversion from one religion to
another. The
Constitution bars forceful conversions and conversions done by inducements. Hence, statement
2 is not
correct.

3. Freedom of Religion is available to not just Indian citizens but also to foreign nationals residing
within
Indian territory. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
137.Indian form of government is described as a federation with
centralizing tendency. Which among the following provisions of the
constitution supports this tendency?
1. A single and flexible constitution
2. Provision of All India Services
3. Appointment of State Governor by the Center.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Statement 1 correct: Unlike the USA, where it has two sets of constitutions for center and states, India
has a single constitution for both states and center. The Indian constitution is also flexible unlike the
case
of a true federation where it will be rigid. This is a centralizing tendency as states boundaries can be
altered by the center.
• Statement 2 correct: The candidates selected for All India services were recruited and trained by
the
center but are to be served in the states, which do not have the capacity to 'remove' them.
• Statement 3 correct: The governor having many discretionary powers at the state is appointed by
the
center. This is one of the major centralizing tendencies.
138.Consider the following statements regarding Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs):
1. Pre-agricultural level of technology is one of the criteria for the identification of PVTGs.
2. More than 40 per cent of all the tribal groups in India are classified as PVTGs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Who are PVTG (Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups)?
•PVTGs are more vulnerable among the tribal groups who are in need of greater support and development.
•Out of the 705 Scheduled Tribes in India, 75 have been identified as PVTGs and are spread across 17 states
and one Union Territory.
•Government of India follows the following criteria for identification of PVTGs
•Low level of literacy
•Economic backwardness
•Pre-agricultural level of technology
•A declining or stagnant population.
•In 1975, the Government of India initiated to identify the most vulnerable tribal groups as a separate category
called PVTGs and declared 52 such groups.
•An additional 23 groups were added to the category in 1993.
•Some Examples: Cholanaikayan (Kerala), Kathodi (Gujarat), Jarawas (Andaman & Nicobar Islands), Koraga
(Karnataka)
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
139. With reference to the Circuit breaker in trading, considers the following statements:
1. It is implemented by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI).
2. It effectively limits how much a stock's value can fall in a trading session.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
•The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) implemented index-based market-wide circuit
breakers in June 2001.
•Circuit breakers are triggered to prevent markets from crashing due to a panic-induced sale of
stocks.
•This can occur for a variety of reasons, leading to stockholders in the market believing that their
stocks are overvalued. As a result, they engage in a sell-off.
•Circuit breakers temporarily halt trading, thereby halting the sell-off.
•Circuit-breakers effectively limit how much a stock's value can fall in a single day/trading session,
resulting in a more stable market overall.
Hence both statements are correct.
140.With reference to the Juno Probe, consider the following statements:
1. It was launched by the European Space agency.
2. The main goal of this probe is to study the origin and evolution of Jupiter.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Recently, NASA's Juno spacecraft experienced a glitch that caused it to lose over 200 images
taken during a Jupiter flyby.
•JUNO is an acronym for Jupiter Near-polar Orbiter.
•It was launched in 2011, the Juno spacecraft initially embarked on a 5-year journey to the
largest planet in our solar system.
•Towards the end of its primary mission, the spacecraft’s objectives evolved, and it transitioned
into a full Jupiter system explorer with flybys of Jovian moons.
•Goal: Understand the origin and evolution of Jupiter, look for a solid planetary core, map the
magnetic field, measure water and ammonia in the deep atmosphere, and observe auroras.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
141.With reference to the Red Sanders, consider the following statements:
1. It is endemic to the Western Ghats.
2. It is categorized as endangered under the IUCN Red List of threatened species.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
•It is a flora species that are endemic to a distinct tract of forests in the Eastern
Ghats region of Andhra Pradesh.
•Geographical conditions required: It usually grows in rocky, degraded and fallow
lands with Red Soil and a hot and dry climate.
•Protection Status:
• IUCN Red List: Endangered
• CITES: Appendix II
• Wildlife (Protection) Act 1972: Schedule IV
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
Which of the following are the reasons for creating Union Territories in
India?
1. Cultural distinctiveness
2. Strategic importance
3. The interest of tribal people
4. Administrative consideration
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
The Union Territories in India have been created for a variety of reasons. These are
mentioned below:
• Political and administrative consideration-Delhi and Chandigarh.
• Cultural distinctiveness-Puducherry, Dadra and Nagar Haveli, and Daman and Diu.
• Strategic importance-Andaman and the Nicobar Islands and Lakshadweep.
• Special treatment and care of the backward and tribal people-Mizoram, Manipur,
Tripura, and Arunachal Pradesh which later became states.

• Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

143. With reference to the Orang National Park, consider the following statements:
1. It is located on the north bank of the river Ganga.
2. It is home to the Great Indian One-Horned Rhinoceros.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
•It is located on the north bank of the Brahmaputra River in the state of Assam.
•It was established as a sanctuary in 1985 and declared a National Park on 13 April 1999.
•It is also known as the mini Kaziranga National Park (IUCN site) since the two parks have a similar
landscape made up of marshes, streams and grasslands and are inhabited by the Great Indian One-
Horned Rhinoceros.
•It is also a Tiger Reserve of the country which was notified in 2016.
•Fauna: Rhinoceros, Tiger, Elephants, Hog Deer, Wild Pig, Civet Cat, One-Horned Rhinoceros.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
144. With reference to the Irula Tribe, consider the following statements:
1. They mainly located in the state of Tamil Nadu
2. Snake catching and handling is one of their primary occupations.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Recently, Mr Vadivel Gopal and Mr Masi Sadaiyan, both from the Irula community, were
awarded the Padma Shri.
•Irulas are one of India’s oldest indigenous communities and they are a particularly vulnerable
tribal group.
•They live primarily in the northern districts of Tamil Nadu, as well as in parts of Kerala and
Karnataka.
•They speak Irula, which is related to Dravidian languages like Tamil and Kannada.
•Irulas have traditionally caught snakes and rats, but they also work as labourers.
•Irulas' knowledge of snakes and snake venom is legendary.
•From experience and instinct, the tribal people know where snakes hide.
•They can even locate snakes based on their tracks, smell, and droppings.
•The Irula Snake Catchers' Industrial Cooperative Society is a major producer of anti-snake
venom (ASV) in the country.

•Jai Bhim
Hence both statements are correct.
145. Dholavira, an archaeological site associated with the Indus Valley Civilization lies in which
state?

A.
Gujarat

B.
Bihar

C.
Rajasthan

D.
Maharashtra
About Dholavira:
•Dholavira is an archaeological site of immense importance associated with the Indus
Valley Civilization.
•It represents the ruins of an ancient city of the Harappan civilization that was inhabited
over a period of 1,200 years from 3000 BCE through 1800 BCE.
•Location: The site is located near the village of Dholavira, in the Kutch District of the
Indian state of Gujarat.
•Dholavira is the fifth largest site of the Indus Valley Civilization in the sub-continent.
•It lies between two seasonal streams, the Mansar in the north and Manhar in the south.
•It was declared a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 2021.
•Dholavira’s location is on the Tropic of Cancer.
•It is located on Khadir bet island
Hence option a is the correct answer.
146. Consider the following statements regarding the Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-
DAC):
1. It is the apex research and development wing of the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology.
2. C-DAC built India’s first indigenously built supercomputer Param 8000.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
About Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC):
•It is the apex research and development wing of the Ministry of Electronics and Information
Technology.
•It was established in the year 1988.
•Its main purpose was to carry out research and development in Electronics, IT and other
associated areas.
•It was setup to build Supercomputers in context of denial of import of Supercomputers by USA.
•C-DAC built India’s first indigenously built supercomputer Param 8000 in 1991.
Hence both statements are correct.
147.Consider the following statements regarding the Agra Fort:
1. It is a 16th-century fortress of red sandstone located on the Yamuna River.
2. It was built under the commission of Mughal emperor Shah Jahan.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
About Agra Fort:
•It is a large 16th-century fortress of red sandstone located on the Yamuna River in the historic
city of Agra, west-central Uttar Pradesh.
•It is about 2.5 km northwest of its more famous sister monument, the Taj Mahal.
•It was built under the commission of Emperor Akbar in 1565.
•It was only during the reign of Akbar’s grandson, Shah Jahan, that the site took on its current
state.
•It was the main residence of the emperors of the Mughal Dynasty till 1638, when the capital
was shifted from Agra to Delhi.
•Features:
•The fort is crescent-shaped, with a long, nearly straight wall facing the Yamuna river on the
east side.
•The fort houses a maze of buildings, including vast underground sections.
•The outer wall is surrounded by a wide and deep moat on three sides.
•The Agra Fort has four main gateways- the Khizri Gate, Amar Singh Gate, Delhi Gate and
Ghazni Gate.
•The fort complex was designated a UNESCO World Heritage site in 1983.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
148. Consider the following statements,
1] The Ten Degree Channel is a channel that separates the Andaman and Nicobar in the Bay of
Bengal.
2] Lakshadweep island group is separated from Maldives by the Eight Degree Channel.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans c) Both the statements are correct.

Explanation: The Ten Degree Channel is a channel that separates the

Andaman and Nicobar in the Bay of Bengal

Lakshadweep island group is separated from Maldives by the Eight

Degree Channel.
149.With reference to the Rice bran, consider the following statements:
1. It is one of the main byproducts in the process of the rice milling.
2. It is a good source of unsaturated fats, vitamin E, and other important nutrients.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
About Rice bran:
•Rice bran is one of the main byproducts in the process of the rice milling.
•It is the outer brown layer of brown rice and is separated during the milling process.
•The bran fraction contains 14-18% oil.
•Rice bran oil is a good source of unsaturated fats, vitamin E, and other important nutrients.
•It is currently mostly used as animal feed.
•The health effects of RB including antidiabetic, lipid-lowering, hypotensive, antioxidant, and anti-
inflammatory effects, while its consumption also improves bowel function.
Hence both statements are correct.
150.Consider the following statements regarding the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and
Development (OECD)?
1. It is an international organisation of 38 countries committed to democracy and the market economy.
2. India became a member of OECD in 2019.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Key facts about Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD):
•It is an international organisation of 38 countries committed to democracy and
the market economy.
•Headquarters: Paris, France.
•India is one of the many non-member economies with which the OECD has working
relationships in addition to its member countries.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
151.With reference to the Hubble Space Telescope, consider the following statements:
1. It was launched by the European Space agency.
2. It was launched into low Earth orbit.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
•It is named in honour of the trailblazing astronomer Edwin Hubble and was launched by
NASA. Hubble lies in a circular Low Earth Orbit at roughly 559 km altitude.
•It is a large, space-based observatory, which has revolutionized astronomy since its launch and
deployment by the space shuttle Discovery in 1990.
•Hubble’s domain extends from the ultraviolet through the visible (which our eyes see) and into the
near infrared.
•It is one of NASA's Great Observatories Programs. The other missions in the program include the
visible-light Spitzer Space Telescope, Compton Gamma-Ray Observatory (CGRO), and the Chandra
X-Ray Observatory (CXO).
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
152.Shendurney wildlife sanctuary, recently seen in the news lies in which state?

A.
Karnataka

B.
Kerala

C.
Assam

D.
None of these
Recently the annual faunal survey was held in the Shendurney wildlife sanctuary.
•Shendurney Wildlife Sanctuary is a protected area located in the Western Ghats of India,
in the Kollam district of Kerala.
•This Sanctuary derives its name from Chenkurinji (Gluta travancorica), a species endemic
to this region.
•It comes under the control of Agasthyamalai Biosphere Reserve.
•Flora: Tropical evergreen and semi-evergreen forests cover a major area of the sanctuary.
•Fauna: Includes tigers, gaurs, elephants, sambar deers, sloth bears, Malabar Raven,
Malabar banded swallowtail, Red-disc Bushbrown, etc.
Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.
153. With reference to the Asiatic black bear, consider the following statements:
1. It is only found in the state of Arunachal Pradesh.
2. It is categorized as vulnerable species under the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
•The Asiatic black bear is known as the Moon bear.
•The Asiatic black bear has 7 subspecies, out of which we find the Himalayan Black
Bear subspecies in India.
•Features: The Asiatic Black Bear has a coat of smooth black fur and can be distinguished by a
V of white fur on its chest.
•Range: The Asiatic black bear lives in a narrow band stretching from south-eastern Iran to
Myanmar, across the Himalayan foothills.
•In India, it is found in Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Sikkim, and the union territory of Jammu and
Kashmir.
•Conservation status
•IUCN Red List: Vulnerable
•CITES: Appendix I
•Wild Life Protection Act 1972: Schedule II
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
154.With reference to Polio, consider the following statements:
1. It is a deadly viral infectious disease that affects the nervous system.
2. The Oral polio vaccine contains a live, weakened form of poliovirus.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
•Polio is a crippling and potentially deadly viral infectious disease that affects the
nervous system.
•There are three individual and immunologically-distinct wild poliovirus strains
•Wild Poliovirus type 1 (WPV1)
•Wild Poliovirus type 2 (WPV2)
•Wild Poliovirus type 3 (WPV3)
•Symptomatically, all three strains are identical, in that they cause irreversible paralysis
or even death.
•However, there are genetic and virological differences, which make these three strains
separate viruses which must each be eradicated individually.
•How does it Transmit?: The virus is transmitted by person-to-person spread mainly
through the faecal-oral route or, less frequently, by a common vehicle (e.g.
contaminated water or food) and multiplies in the intestine, from where it can invade
the nervous system and cause paralysis.
•It largely affects children under 5 years of age.
•The oral polio vaccine (OPV) contains a live, weakened form of poliovirus that
replicates in the intestine for a limited period, thereby developing immunity by building
antibodies.
Hence both statements are correct.
155. With reference Indian National Congress (INC), consider the following statements:
1. AO Hume is credited as the founder of the organisation.
2. The first session of the INC was held at Gokuldas Tejpal Sanskrit College, Bombay.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
How the Congress was founded?
•The English bureaucrat Allan Octavian Hume or AO Hume is credited as the founder of the
organisation.
•On December 28, 1885, 72 social reformers, journalists and lawyers congregated for the first session
of the INC at Gokuldas Tejpal Sanskrit College, Bombay.
•At that point, the aim of this group was not to demand independence from the ongoing colonial rule
but to influence the policies of the British government in favour of Indians.
156.With reference to Coking coal, consider the following statements:
1. It is a high-quality coal that is low in impurities and has a high carbon content,
2. India is the largest coal-producing country in the world.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
•Coal is a fossil fuel and is the altered remains of prehistoric vegetation that originally accumulated
in swamps and peat bogs.
•The quality of each coal deposit is determined by: varying types of vegetation from which the coal
originated; depths of burial; temperatures and pressures at those depths; and length of time the coal
has been forming in the deposit.
•Coking coal is a high-quality coal that is low in impurities and has a high carbon content, which
makes it ideal for use in the metallurgical process.
•Coking coal is used to produce coke, which is a porous, solid carbon material that is used as a fuel
and a reducing agent in the production of iron and steel.
•Largest coal-producing countries in the world: China (3.7 billion tonnes), India (783 million tonnes),
United States (640 million tonnes), Indonesia (616 million tonnes).
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
157.With reference to the Deendayal Port, consider the following statements:
1. It is situated in the Kandla Creek near the mouth of Gulf Of Kachch in Gujarat.
2. It is an artificial port constructed in the 1950s.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
About Deendayal Port:
•Deendayal Port (previously called Kandla port) is situated in the Kandla Creek and is 90 kms from
the mouth of the Gulf Of Kachch in Gujarat.
•It is a protected natural harbour.
•It is recognized as one of major ports in India.
•It was constructed in the 1950s as the chief seaport serving western India, after the partition of
India from Pakistan left the port of Karachi in Pakistan.
•Deendayal Port is hub for major imports like petroleum, chemicals and iron also export grains, salt
and textiles.
•It remains India’s biggest state-owned cargo handler by volume, but it has steadily lost market
share to privately owned Mundra Port (India’s largest private port) 60km to the southwest.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
158. Charru mussel recently seen in the news is:

A.
An invasive species

B.
A new organic fungicide

C.
An algae

D.
a type of moss
•The marine biologists identified these species as Mytella strigata or Charru mussels which
are Native to South America.
•These mussels have invaded tidal wetlands in several parts of the world, including Vembanad
in Kerala.
•This is spreading due to the discharge of ballast waters from ships visiting the ports of
Kattupalli.
•After Cyclone Vardah in December 2016, the mussels began to intensify and spread far north
towards the Pulicat waters.
•Human interference in the wetlands, pollution and nature’s actions have triggered the rapid
spread of the species.
•Threats: These mussels spread like a carpet over the river bottoms and thus preventing
prawns from grazing or burying themselves in the sediment.
•Its spread is wiping out the locally prevalent yellow clams and green mussels.
Hence, only option (a) is the correct answer.
159. With reference to Ramappa Temple, consider the following statements:
1. It is a Kakatiya style Hindu temple dedicated to the god Shiva, located in Telangana.
2. It is inscribed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
About:
•Ramappa Temple, also known as the Rudreshwara temple, is a Kakatiya style Hindu
temple dedicated to the god Shiva, located in Telangana.
•The medieval Deccan Ramappa Temple which dates back to 1213 AD, was built by the
patronage of the Kakatiya ruler Kakati Ganapathi Deva under the authority of his Chief
Commander Rudra Samani.
•The temple got its name Ramappa because of its chief sculptor Ramappa. Ramappa
Temple is probably the only temple in India that is named after the architect.
•In 2021, the temple was inscribed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site as "Kakatiya
Rudreshwara (Ramappa) Temple, Telangana".
•Architectural features:
• Earthquake-proof: Made out of clay mixed with acacia wood, chaff and
myrobalan fruit (a family of amla), the bricks used in building the gopuram of the
temple are light enough to float on water. Using this technique has made the
temple light, meaning, in case of a natural event like an earthquake, the
probability of it collapsing would be very low.
• Sandbox technique: The temple construction was done using the sandbox
technique. This is a technique where the foundation pit is filled with a mixture of
sand-lime, jaggery and black myrobalan fruit. This mix acts as a cushion in case
of earthquakes.
• The temple’s many carved pillars are positioned in such a way that when the
sunlight hits these pillars. One of the pillars has a Lord Krishna carved into it.
When gently hit, the pillar produces musical notes.
Hence both statements are correct.
160.Consider the following statements regarding Follow on Public Offer (FPO):
1. It is the first sale of shares to the public by a privately owned company.
2. Companies use FPOs to diversify their equity base and raise capital for business.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
About Follow on Public Offer (FPO):
•What is it? FPO is a process wherein a company already listed on a stock exchange issues new shares
to existing investors or shareholders.
•It is also known as a secondary offering.
•Purpose:
•FPO allows a company to raise additional funds through the issuance of new shares.
•Companies use FPOs to diversify their equity base and raise capital for business.
•This capital can be used for multiple purposes, such as to meet the company's expenses, business
expansion, debt reduction, etc.
What is Initial Public Offer (IPO)?
•When a private company first sells shares of stock to the public, this process is known as an initial
public offering (IPO).
•An IPO means that a company's ownership is transitioning from private ownership to public
ownership.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
Explained | What made the Adani Group call off its FPO?
161.With reference to Ramsar Sites, consider the following statements:
1. India has the largest network of Ramsar Sites in Asia.
2. In India the state of Maharashtra has a maximum number of Ramsar sites.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
•World Wetlands Day is observed on 2nd February every year all over the world
to commemorate the signing of the Ramsar Convention on Wetlands of International Importance
in 1971.
•India is a party to the Convention since 1982 and has so far declared 75 wetlands as Ramsar
sites covering 23 states and Union Territories.
•At present, the state of Tamil Nadu has a maximum number of Ramsar sites (14), followed by UP
which has 10 numbers of Ramsar sites.
•The 2023 theme for World Wetlands Day is Wetland Restoration.
•The theme of 2023 highlights the urgent need to prioritize wetland restoration. It is a call on an
entire generation to take proactive action for wetlands, by investing financial, human and political
capital to save the wetlands from disappearing and to revive and restore those that have been
degraded.
•India has the largest network of Ramsar Sites in Asia, making these sites a critical ecological
network for the conservation of global biological diversity and supporting human well-being.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
162.With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Kisan Urja Suraksha Evam Uttham Mahabhiyan scheme,
consider the following statements:
1. It envisages income generation for farmers from their infertile land with the establishment of solar
power plants.
2. It is launched by the Ministry of Power.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
•PM-KUSUM Scheme was launched in 2019.
•The scheme envisages income generation for farmers from their infertile land with the establishment of
solar power plants.
•Aim: To help farmers access reliable daytime solar power for irrigation, reduce power subsidies, and
decarbonise agriculture.
•The Scheme consists of three components
• Component A: 10,000 MW of solar capacity through the installation of small Solar Power Plants of
individual plants of capacity up to 2 MW.
• Component B: Installation of 20 lakhs standalone Solar Powered Agriculture Pumps.
• Component C: Solarisation of 15 Lakh Grid-connected Agriculture Pumps.
•Nodal Ministry: Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE).
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
163.Consider the following statements regarding Perform, Achieve & Trade (PAT) Scheme:
1. PAT scheme aims at reducing Specific Energy Consumption(SEC) in energy-intensive sectors.
2. It is implemented by the National Thermal Power Corporation Limited (NTPC) under the aegis of
the Ministry of Power.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
About Perform, Achieve & Trade (PAT) Scheme:
•PAT Scheme is a flagship program under the National Mission for Enhanced Energy Efficiency (NMEEE).
•Implementing Agency: It is implemented by the Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) under the aegis of the
Ministry of Power.
•Objective: PAT scheme aims at reducing Specific Energy Consumption (SEC), i.e., energy use per unit of
production for Designated Consumers (DCs) in energy-intensive sectors, with an associated market
mechanism to enhance the cost-effectiveness through certification of excess energy saving, which can be
traded.
•Energy Saving Certificates (ESCerts):
•The excess energy savings are converted into tradable instruments called Energy Saving Certificates
(ESCerts) that are traded at the Power Exchanges.
•Trading Platform: The two Power Exchanges, India Energy Exchange (IEX) and Power Exchange India
Limited (PXIL) provide the trading platform for ESCerts.
•Central Electricity Regulatory Commission (CERC) is the market regulator for the trading of ESCerts.
•PAT Scheme is implemented in cycles of 3 years each, where the Designated Consumers (DCs)
are assigned SEC reduction targets.
•Designated Consumers (DCs) who fall short of their targets bid for the purchase of ESCerts.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
164.Consider the following statements regarding the Agricultural and Processed Foods Export
Development Authority (APEDA):
1. APEDA was established under the Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development
Authority Act of 1985.
2. Exporters of scheduled products specified under the APEDA ACT are required to register under
APEDA.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
About Agricultural and Processed Foods Export Development Authority (APEDA):
•APEDA was established by the Government of India under the Agricultural and Processed Food
Products Export Development Authority Act of 1985.
•Objective: To develop and promote the export of scheduled products.
•The products specified under the APEDA ACT are called scheduled products, and exporters of such
scheduled products are required to register under APEDA.
•It provides financial assistance, information, and guidelines for the development of scheduled
products.
•Headquarters: New Delhi
•Examples of scheduled products: Fruits, Vegetable, Meat, Poultry Products. Dairy Products,
Confectionery, Biscuits, Bakery Products, Honey, Jaggery, etc
Hence both statements are correct.
Consider the following statements regarding the Old Pension Scheme (OPS):
1. Both government and private sector employees were eligible to receive a pension under the OPS.
2. An employee is entitled to a 50% amount of the last drawn salary as pension under the scheme.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
About Old Pension Scheme (OPS):
•Under the OPS, employees get a defined pension.
•Only government employees were eligible to receive a pension under the OPS after retirement.
•Under this, an employee is entitled to a 50% amount of the last drawn salary as pension.
•The pension amount is not deducted from the salary of the employee during the period of
employment.
•The entire pension amount to a government employee is paid by the government.
•Under the OPS, a retired government employee used to get the benefit of the revision of Dearness
Relief (DR) twice a year.
•The scheme was discontinued in 2004.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
165.With reference to the Keoladeo National Park, consider the following statements:
1. It is located in the western part of Rajasthan.
2. It is designated as a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
•The Keoladeo National Park formerly known as the Bharatpur Bird Sanctuary hosts
thousands of birds, especially during the winter season.
•It is Located in the eastern part of Rajasthan.
•It attracts several migratory birds that make the region their breeding and wintering
grounds.
•It is strategically located in the middle of the Central Asian migratory flyway.
•The Siberian crane is one of the rare species that was spotted here till about the turn of
the century.
•Fauna: Sambar, Nilgai, wild cats, hyenas, wild boar, birds, including raptors and
waterfowl, and Jackals.
•It is a Ramsar site and also a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
166.With reference to Core Inflation, consider the following statements:
1. It is the change in the costs of goods and services, including those from the food
and energy sectors.
2. It is used to determine the impact of rising prices on consumer income.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
About Core Inflation:
•What is it? Core inflation is the change in the costs of goods and services but does not include those
from the food and energy sectors.
•Food and energy prices are exempt from this calculation because their prices can be too volatile or
fluctuate wildly.
•Why is it important?
•Core inflation is used to determine the impact of rising prices on consumer income.
•If the increase in the price index is due to temporary shocks that could soon reverse themselves,
it may not require any monetary policy action.
•To deal with such situations, many central banks use measures of core inflation that are designed to
filter the transitory price movements.
•Core inflation by eliminating the volatile components from the headline helps in identifying the
underlying trend in headline inflation and is believed to predict future inflation better.
•Core inflation is a convenient guide to help the central bank achieve its objective of controlling total
inflation.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
167.Which of the following countries does not share its border with Turkey?

A.
Irans

B.
Iraq

C.
Israel

D.
Azerbaijan
About Turkey:
•Turkey, also called Türkiye, lies partly in Asia and partly in Europe.
•It is surrounded on three sides by the Black Sea, the Mediterranean Sea, and the
Aegean Sea.
•The main portion of the Turkish state is located on the Anatolia peninsula, also
known as Asia Minor, the westernmost part of Asia.
•Turkey covers an area of 783,562 km² and has a population of 83.2 million
people.
•There are two narrow straits in northwestern Turkey, the Bosporus,
which connects the Black Sea with the Sea of Marmara, and the Dardanelles,
which connect the Aegean arm of the Mediterranean Sea with the Sea of
Marmara.
•Capital: Ankara
•Largest city: Istanbul
•Bordering countries: It is bordered by Bulgaria and Greece to the
west; Armenia, Azerbaijan, and Iran to the east; Georgia to the northeast; Syria to
the south; and Iraq to the southeast.
•Religion: More than 99 percent of the population is Muslim, mostly Sunni.
•Spoken Languages: Turkish (official), Kurdish, and Arabic.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
168.With reference to the Wildlife Protection Act 1972, consider the following statements:
1. The plants, trees and crops mentioned in Schedule VI are banned from Cultivation and
Planting.
2. The vermins are listed under the Schedule III of this act.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A.
1 Only

B.
2 Only

C.
Both 1 and 2

D.
Neither 1 nor 2
•There are Six Schedules in the Wildlife Protection Act,1972. These Schedules give a different
standard of protection.
•The Listed breeds and types of animals in Schedule I and part II of Schedule II get supreme
protection. Offences under these are prescribed the highest penalties.
•For example Himalayan Brown Bear, Indian Elephant etc.
•The Listed breeds and types of animals in Schedule III and Schedule IV are also secured, but
the penalties are comparatively much lower.
•For example, Barking Deer, Falcons, Kingfisher, Tortoise etc.
•Schedule V includes the animals which can be hunted.
•For example, Common Crow, Mice, Rats, Fruit Bats etc.
•The plants, trees and crops mentioned in Schedule VI are banned from Cultivation and Planting. For
example, Kuth, Red Vanda, Pitcher Plant etc.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
169. Which of the following Directive Principles was added by the 42nd
Constitution amendment?
1. To secure opportunities for the healthy development of children.
2. To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor.
3. To minimize inequalities in income, status, facilities, and opportunities.
4. To promote the development of the Hindi language.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2, and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
42nd CAA
To secure opportunities for healthy development of children (Article 39)
To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor (Article 39 A)
To take steps to secure the participation of workers in the management of industries (Article 43 A)
To secure opportunities for healthy development of children (Article 39)To protect and
improve the environment and to safeguard forests and wild life (Article 48 A).

Ans A
170.With reference to the Corbet Tiger Reserve, consider the following statements:
1. The river Ganga flows through this reserve.
2. The Sonanadi Wildlife Sanctuary is part of its buffer area.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
•It is located in the Nainital district of Uttarakhand. This reserve encompasses the Patli Dun valley.
•The Ramganga, Sonanadi, Palain and Mandal, and Kosi rivers form the prominent hydrological resource for
the Corbett.
•The core area of the reserve contains the Corbett National Park and the Sonanadi Wildlife Sanctuary is part
of its buffer area.
•Flora: The trees which contribute to the Flora of Corbett consist of evergreen Sal and its combined trees, the
Sheesham, and the Kanju found extensively on the ridges.
•Fauna: Tiger, Leopard, Elephant, Hog deer, spotted deer, Samber etc.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
171.With reference to the Bru Tribes, consider the following statements:
1. They belong to the Indo-Mongoloid race and reside in the state of Tripura.
2. They are a nomadic tribe and a large number among them maintain their livelihood
involving Hilltop Jhum Cultivation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Over 14,000 Brus displaced from Mizoram have been registered to vote in Tripura since
their rehabilitation process began in April 2021.
•Bru or Reang is a community indigenous to the Northeast, living mostly in Tripura,
Mizoram, and Assam.
•In Tripura, they are recognised as a Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group.
•They belong to Indo-Mongoloid racial stock. Their languages have an affinity with Austro-
Asiatic groups under the Tibeto-Burman family.
•Ethnically they are divided into 2 major clans namely Meska and Molsoi.
•Their language is known as “Kaubru” which has a tonal effect on the Kuki language though
broadly it is the Kok-Borok dialect.
•Occupation: They are still a nomadic tribe and a large number among them maintain their
livelihood involving Hilltop Jhum Cultivation and other food gathering activities.
Hence both statements are correct.
172.With reference to the Quality Council of India, consider the following statements:
1. It was jointly established by the Department for Promotion of Industry & Internal Trade (DPIIT) and the
Indian industry.
2. The Chairman of this organisation is appointed by the President of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
•It was established in 1997 jointly by the Department for Promotion of Industry & Internal
Trade (DPIIT), the Ministry of Commerce & Industry, and the Indian industry.
•It is registered as a non-profit organization under the Societies Registration Act XXI of 1860.
•It is governed by a Council of 38 members with equal representations of government, industry
and consumers.
•The Chairman of QCI is appointed by the Prime Minister on the recommendation of the industry
to the government.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
173.With reference to Lithium, consider the following statements:
1. Lithium is a silver-white metal belonging to the alkali metal group of chemical elements.
2. It has the highest density of all metals.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Key facts about Lithium:
•It is a soft, silvery-white metal that heads group 1, the alkali metals group, of the periodic table of the
elements.
•Features:
•It has the lowest density of all metals.
•It is the lightest of the solid elements.
•It reacts vigorously with water.
•It has a body-centered cubic crystal structure.
•Occurrence:
•Lithium does not occur as a metal in nature but is found combined in small amounts in igneous rocks.
•Lithium is found in brine deposits and as salts in mineral springs. Its concentration in seawater is 0.1 part
per million (ppm).
•Major Reserves: Lithium reserves are concentrated in the lithium triangle in South America – Argentina,
Bolivia & Chile, with 50% of the deposits concentrated in these regions.
•Uses: Lithium is important in rechargeable batteries for mobile phones, laptops, digital cameras,
and electric vehicles.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
174.With reference to the Baiga Tribe, consider the following statements:
1. They're one of the Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs).
2. Bewar is a type of shifting cultivation is practiced by this tribe.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
•The Baiga Tribe is one of the Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs).
•They reside in Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Bihar, Odisha, West Bengal, Madhya
Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh.
•Occupation: Traditionally, the Baiga lived a semi-nomadic life and practised
slash-and-burn cultivation. Now, they are mainly dependent on minor forest
produce for their livelihood.
•They practice a form of shifting cultivation called, "Bewar."
•Mahua is another important aspect of Baiga's food and drink. It is an
intoxicant prepared from the fermentation and distillation of the flowers of
the Mahua tree.
•Tattooing is an integral part of Baiga culture, every age and body part has a
specific tattoo reserved for the occasion.
Hence both statements are correct.
175. With reference to the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN),
consider the following statements:
1. It was established by signing the Bangkok declaration.
2. India is the founding member of this group.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
•ASEAN is a group of the Association of Southeast Asian Nations, which was established in 1967
with the signing of the Bangkok declaration.
•Founding members: Indonesia, Malaysia, Philippines, Singapore and Thailand.
•Presently ASEAN comprises 10 member states namely Indonesia, Malaysia, Philippines,
Singapore, Thailand, Brunei, Laos, Myanmar, Cambodia and Vietnam.
•It promotes intergovernmental cooperation and facilitates economic, political, security, military,
educational, and sociocultural integration between its members and other countries in Asia.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
 176.With reference to the Sundarban Biosphere Reserve, consider the following statements:
1. It is located at the confluence of the river Baitarani and Brahmani.
2. It is designated as the UNESCO world heritage site.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
•The Sundarbans is located on the delta of the Ganga, Brahmaputra and Meghna rivers in the
Bay of Bengal.
•This Biosphere Reserve includes Sundarban Tiger Reserve, Sundarban National Park (core
area), Halliday Island and Lothian Island Wildlife Sanctuaries with Sajnakhali Wildlife
Sanctuary forming its buffer area.
•It is designated as a UNESCO World Heritage site.
•Flora: The vegetation of the area is moist tropical forests and tidal forests.
•Fauna: It is home to Royal Bengal Tiger, Estuarine Crocodile, Gangetic Dolphin, Water
Monitor Lizard etc.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
177. Consider the following statements regarding Article 105 of the constitution:
1. It deals with the powers, privileges, etc. of the Houses of Parliament and of the members and committees
thereof.
2. These privileges are available only for Members of Parliament.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
About Article 105:
•Article 105 deals with “powers, privileges, etc of the Houses of Parliament and of the members and
committees thereof”, and has four clauses. These are
•Freedom of speech is guaranteed in Parliament, subject to the provisions of this constitution and the rules
and standing orders governing its conduct.
•No member of Parliament shall be subject to proceedings in any court with respect to anything said or any
vote cast by him in the House of Commons or any of its committees, and no person shall be subject to such
liability with respect to the publication of any report, paper, votes, or proceedings by or under the authority
of either House of Parliament.
•In all other respects, each House of Parliament’s members, committees, and powers, privileges, and
immunities shall have such powers, privileges, and immunities as may from time to time be determined.
•The provisions of sections (1), (2), and (3) shall apply to individuals who, pursuant to this constitution, have
the right to speak in and otherwise participate in proceedings of a House of Parliament or any committee
thereof, in the same manner as they do for members of Parliament.
•Article 105 envisages Parliamentary Privileges of a House in two different aspects—
•Collective Privileges: Various privileges such as internal autonomy, power to punish for contempt in case
of breach of privileges and also external interferences by strangers, freedom of speech in the debates, and
the passing of resolutions expressing the collective opinion of the members for the public interest, rule-
making powers, etc. can be enjoyed collectively by the House itself.
•Individual Privileges: Privileges such as conferring protection from arrests of the members of both Houses
in civil proceedings, freedom of speech and expressions in a much broader manner than that is guaranteed
as a fundamental right to every citizen by the Constitution, etc. can be enjoyed by the individual members of
the both Houses.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
178.Similipal Tiger Reserve recently seen in news, lies in which state?

A. Odisha

B. Jharkhand

C. Uttar Pradesh

D. BIhar
About Similipal Tiger Reserve (STR):
•Location: STR is located within the Mayurbhanj District, in the Northern-most part of Odisha.
•Area: It is spread over 2750 sq km.

•It was declared a 'Tiger Reserve' in the year 1956 and included under the national conservation
programme 'Project Tiger' in 1973.

•The STR along with a 'transitional area' of 2250 sq. km has been included as a part of the World
Network of Biosphere Reserves by UNESCO in the year 2009.
•It is the only landscape in the world that is home to melanistic tigers.
Flora:
•An astounding 1078 species of plants including 94 species of orchids are found here.
•Eucalyptus, are also the major floral attraction in the area.
•Fauna: Leopard, Gaur, Elephant, Langur, Barking and Spotted Deer, Sloth Bear Mongoose, Flying
Squirrel, Porcupine, Turtle, Monitor Lizard, Python, Sambar, Pangolin etc
Hence option A is the correct answer.
179. Consider the following statements regarding Indian white-backed vulture:
1. They are medium-sized, dark vultures endemic to Western Ghats.
2. They are classified as Critically Endangered under IUCN Red list of threatened species.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
About Indian white-backed vulture:
•They are medium-sized, dark vultures.
•Distribution: Pakistan, India, Bangladesh, Nepal, Bhutan, Myanmar (Burma), Thailand, Laos,
Cambodia, and southern Vietnam.
•Habitat: Found mostly in plains and less frequently in hilly regions. Can also be seen in villages and
cities near to cultivation.
•Features:
IUCN Status: Critically Endangered
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
180.With reference to Dayanand Saraswati, consider the following statements:
1. He wrote the Satyarth Prakash book.
2. He established the Brahmo samaj to reform the Vedic dharma.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
•Swami Dayanand Saraswati was a philosopher, social leader and founder of the Arya Samaj, a
reform movement of Vedic dharma.
•He established the Arya Samaj on April 7, 1875, in Bombay -- with 10 principles that are beautifully
based purely on God, soul and nature.
•This organisation brought about immense changes in the religious perceptions of Indians.
•He was the first to give the call for Swaraj as "India for Indian" in 1876.
•One of his most influential works is the book Satyarth Prakash, which contributed to the Indian
independence movement.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
181.With reference to the Geological Survey of India, consider the following statements:
1. The main functions of this organization is to update national geo-scientific information and mineral
resource assessment.
2. It works under the Ministry of Mines.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
•It was set up in 1851 primarily to find coal deposits for the Railways.
•Over the years, it has grown into a repository of geo-science information required in various fields in the
country.
•The main functions of the GSI relate to the creation and updation of national geoscientific information and
mineral resource assessment.
•Presently, GSI is an attached office to the Ministry of Mines.
•It is headquartered in Kolkata and has six regional offices located at Lucknow, Jaipur, Nagpur, Hyderabad,
Shillong and Kolkata. Every state has a state unit.
Hence both statements are correct.
182. Consider the following statements regarding the Organization of the Petroleum Exporting
Countries(OPEC):
1. It was established as a consequence of the 1973 oil crisis.
2. Both Iran and Saudi Arabia were among the founding members of OPEC.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
About the Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries(OPEC):
•What is it? It is a permanent intergovernmental organization of oil-exporting countries.
•Mission:
•To coordinate and unify the petroleum policies of its Member Countries.
•Ensure the stabilization of oil prices in the international oil markets, with a view to
eliminating harmful and unnecessary fluctuations.
•Formation: It was established in 1960 by the five founding members Iran, Iraq, Kuwait, Saudi
Arabia, and Venezuela.
•Currently, it has 13 members, including Algeria, Angola, Congo, Equatorial Guinea, Gabon,
Libya, Nigeria, and the United Arab Emirates
•Headquarters: Vienna, Austria.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
183. Consider the following statements regarding Pangong lake:
1. It is a landlocked lake situated in the Sikkim Himalayas.
2. It is a very deep freshwater lake.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
About Pangong Tso:
•Pangong Lake or Pangong Tso is a long narrow, endorheic (landlocked) lake situated at a height of
more than 14,000 ft (4,350 meters) in the Ladakh Himalayas.
•The lake is 5 kilometers wide and 134 kilometers long, with one-third of it lying in India & the
other two-thirds in China.
•It is the world's highest saltwater lake.
•The lake is also very deep and reaches a maximum depth of almost 328 feet.
•It is also known to change colors, appearing blue, green, and red at different times.
Hence both statements are not correct.
184. Nagarahole Tiger Reserve, which was recently seen in the news is located in which state?

A.
Rajasthan

B.
Karnataka

C.
Maharashtra

D.
None of these
•Nagarahole is an important Tiger Reserve in Karnataka and is a major hub of conservation under
Project Tiger and Project Elephant.
•Nagarahole Tiger Reserve previously known as Rajiv Gandhi National Park was named after the river
Nagarahole.
•This tiger reserve forms a critical connecting habitat for tigers and elephants to other areas of the
Western Ghats through the Brahmagiri wildlife sanctuary and to the Eastern Ghats through
the Bandipur Tiger reserve.
Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.
185. With reference to the Cholera disease, consider the following statements:
1. It is caused by the bacterium Vibrio cholera.
2. There are no vaccines available for this disease.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
According to the World Health Organization, the African continent is likely to see its worst cholera
crisis this decade, driven by extreme weather events and poor water supply and sanitation
infrastructure.
•It is an acute, diarrheal illness caused by infection of the intestine with the bacterium Vibrio cholera.
•Symptoms: Profuse watery diarrhoea, Vomiting, Leg cramps etc.
•It is transmitted to humans through water or food which is contaminated with the cholera bacterium.
•Currently, there are three WHO pre-qualified oral cholera vaccines (OCV), Dukoral, Shanchol, and
Euvichol-Plus. All three vaccines require two doses for full protection.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
186. Consider the following statements regarding the Indian Council of Historical Research (ICHR):
1. It is an autonomous organization under the Ministry of Culture.
2. It disburses funds for carrying out research to Indian as well as foreign scholars.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
About the Indian Council of Historical Research (ICHR):
•ICHR is an autonomous organization under the Ministry of Education, Government of India.
•It was established in 1972 by an Administrative Order.
•ICHR was registered under the Societies Registration Act (Act XXI of 1860) as a literary and charitable
society.
•The ICHR is based in Delhi, with regional centers in Pune (Maharashtra), Bengaluru (Karnataka),
and Guwahati (Assam).
•The ICHR receives grants-in-aid from the Department of Higher Education, grants-in-aid from various Indian
states, private donations, and the proceeds of revenues from the sale of publications of the ICHR.
•ICHR disburses funds for carrying out research to Indian as well as foreign scholars on their applications for
fellowships, grants, and symposia, made to the ICHR or through the Ministry of Human Resource Development.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
187.With reference to the Labour Bureau, consider the following statements:
1. It publishes Consumer Price Index for Industrial Workers.
2. It works under the Ministry of Labour and Employment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
•Labour Bureau is an attached office under the Ministry of Labour and Employment, which was set up on
1st October 1946.
•It is entrusted with the work of compilation, collection, analysis and dissemination of statistics on
different aspects of labour.
•It releases Consumer Price Index Numbers for Industrial Workers, Agricultural/Rural Labourers, Retail
Price Index of Selected Essential Commodities in Urban Areas etc.
Hence both statements are correct.
188.With reference to the Tribal Cooperative Marketing Development Federation of India,
consider the following statements:
1. It is established under the Multi-State Cooperative Societies Act, of 1984.
2. It works under the Ministry of commerce.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Prime Minister of India will inaugurate the Aadi Mahotsav festival of the Tribal
Cooperative Marketing Development Federation of India Ltd. (TRIFED) on February
16 in New Delhi’s Major Dhyan Chand Stadium.
•TRIFED came into existence in 1987 under the Multi-State Cooperative Societies
Act, of 1984.
•It is a national-level apex organization functioning under the administrative control of
the Ministry of Tribal Affairs.
•Objectives of the Organisation: Socio-economic development of tribal people in the
country by way of marketing development of tribal products.
•The organisation assists tribal people in exploring and creating opportunities to
market the developed products in national and international markets on a sustainable
basis.
•Under the TRIBES India brand, the sourced handcrafted products from the tribal
people are sold.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
189. Saman Bird sanctuary, which was recently seen in the news is in which
state?

A.
Uttar Pradesh

B.
Odisha

C.
Kerala

D.
None of these
•The Saman Bird Sanctuary in the Mainpuri district of Uttar Pradesh is a seasonal oxbow lake
on the Ganges floodplain.
•It is designated as Ramasar wetland in 2019.
•It is heavily reliant on the arrival of the south-westerly monsoon in July and August, which
provides the vast majority of annual rainfall.
•The Sanctuary regularly provides refuge to over 50,000 waterbirds.
•It is an important wintering site for many migrating birds including the greylag goose (Anser
anser), with over 1% of the South Asian population present during winter.
Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.
190.With reference to the Meghalaya’s Living Root Bridge, consider the following statements:
1. Meghalaya is known for its living root bridges, locally known as jingkieng jri.
2. They are on the UNESCO’s World Heritage sites.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
•Meghalaya is known for its living root bridges, locally known as jingkieng jri.
•They are on the tentative list of UNESCO’s World Heritage sites.
•Many bridges across the State are over a century old.
•A living root bridge is like a suspension bridge formed by guiding the pliable roots of the rubber
fig tree (Ficus elastica) across a stream or river and allowing the roots to grow and strengthen
over time.
•They are common in the southern part of the Northeast Indian state of Meghalaya.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
191.Apatani Tribe, which was recently seen in the news resides in which
state?
A.
Telangana

B.
Arunachal Pradesh

C.
Kerala

D.
None of these
•The Apatani are a tribal group of people living in the Ziro valley in Arunachal Pradesh.
•They speak a local language called Tani and worship the sun and the moon.
•They have major festivals like Dree, Myoko, Yapung and Murung.
•Dree is celebrated with prayers for a bumper harvest and prosperity of all humankind and Myoka
celebrates friendship similar to modern friendship day.
•They have been practising integrated rice-fish farming in their mountain terraces of Arunachal
Pradesh.
Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.
192.With reference to Countervailing duty (CVD), consider the following statements:
1. It is imposed to protect domestic producers by countering the negative impact of import subsidies.
2. World Trade Organization (WTO) does not permit the imposition of CVD as it is trade distorting.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
About Countervailing duty (CVD):
•It is a specific form of duty that the government imposes to protect domestic producers by
countering the negative impact of import subsidies.
•CVD is thus an import tax by the importing country on imported products.
•Why is CVD imposed?

•Foreign governments sometimes provide subsidies to their producers to make their products cheaper
and boost their demand in other countries.
•To avoid flooding the market in the importing country with these goods, the government of the
importing country imposes CVD, charging a specific amount on the import of such goods.
•The duty nullifies and eliminates the price advantage enjoyed by an imported product.
•The duty raises the price of the imported product, bringing it closer to its true market price
•The World Trade Organization (WTO) permits the imposition of CVD by its member countries.
•Who administers CVD in India?
•The countervailing measures in India are administered by the Directorate General of Anti-dumping
and Allied Duties (DGAD), in the commerce and industry ministry’s department of commerce.
•While the department of commerce recommends the CVD, the department of revenue in the finance
ministry acts upon the recommendation within three months and imposes such duties.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
Which of the following species has the ability to attain transparency?
1. Glass frogs
2. Ice fish
3. Larval eels
Select the correct answer using the code given below

A.
1 and 2 only

B.
2 and 3 only

C.
1 and 3 only

D.
1 , 2 and 3
Glass frogs
Larval eels
Ice fish
194. With reference to the Yakshagana, consider the following statements:
1. It is a traditional folk dance form of Karnataka.
2. The themes of this dance form include Ramayana and Mahabharata.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
•Yakshagana is a traditional folk dance form popular in Coastal Karnataka districts.
•It is a rare combination of dance, music, song, scholarly dialogues and colourful costumes.
•Traditionally, men portray all roles, including the female ones, though women are now part of
Yakshagana troupes.
•A typical troupe consists of 15 to 20 actors and a Bhagawatha, who is the master of ceremonies
and the main storyteller.
•Each performance typically focuses on a small sub-story (known as ‘Prasanga’) from ancient Hindu
epics of Ramayana or Mahabharata.
Hence both statements are correct.
195.With reference to the National Green Tribunal, consider the following statements:
1. It was established under the National Green Tribunal Act 2010.
2. The chairperson of this tribunal is appointed by the President of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
The National Green Tribunal (NGT) has recently imposed a fine of ₹2,232 crore on the
Delhi government for damage caused to the environment due to improper solid and liquid
waste management.
•The National Green Tribunal has been established under the National Green Tribunal Act
2010.
•The Tribunal comprises the Chairperson, the Judicial Members, and Expert Members.
•They shall hold office for a term of 5 years and are not eligible for reappointment.
•The Chairperson is appointed by the Central Government in consultation with the Chief
Justice of India (CJI).
•A Selection Committee shall be formed by the central government to appoint the Judicial
Members and Expert Members.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
196.With reference to the Sangeet Natak Akademi, consider the following statements:
1. It is India’s premier institute which promotes music, dance and drama.
2. It works under the Union Ministry of Culture.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
•The award is presented by Sangeet Natak Akademi.
•It carries award money of Rs 25,000/- an Angavastram and a plaque.
•Sangeet Natak Akademi is India’s national academy of music, dance and drama.
•It was created by a resolution of the Ministry of Education, with Dr P.V. Rajamannar as
its first Chairman.
•Presently it is an Autonomous Body of the Ministry of Culture and is fully funded by the
Government for the implementation of its schemes and programmes.
Hence both statements are correct.
197.Consider the following statements regarding the Indian Pangolin:
1. Currently, the distribution of Indian pangolin is limited only to Northeast India.
2. It is classified as ‘Vulnerable’ under the IUCN Red List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Key facts about Indian Pangolin:
•The Indian pangolin, also called thick-tailed pangolin and scaly anteater is native to the Indian
subcontinent.
•It is one of the eight species of pangolins found.
•They are one of the most trafficked mammals in the world, despite an international ban on their trade.
•Distribution: It lives in India (south of the Himalayas), Bangladesh, Southern Nepal, Sri Lanka, and small
parts of Pakistan.
•Habitat: It occurs in tropical forests, open land, grasslands, and degraded habitat, including in close
proximity to villages.
•Features:
•Like other pangolins, it has large, overlapping scales on its body, which act as armor.
•It can also curl itself into a ball as self-defense against predators.
•It is an insectivore feeding on ants and termites.
•It is nocturnal and rests in deep burrows during the day.
•Conservation status:
•IUCN Red List: Endangered
•Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972: Schedule I
•CITES: Appendix I
Hence both statements are not correct.
198.Consider the following statements regarding the National Electronic Funds
Transfer (NEFT):
1. Transactions made through NEFT take place in real-time without any delay.
2. Minimum transfer value under NEFT is Rs. 2 lakh.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
About NEFT:
•NEFT, which stands for National Electronic Funds Transfer, is an electronic method
of transferring money online.
•Most Indian banks provide the NEFT feature on internet banking and mobile
banking.
•It enables transferring funds from the account maintained with any bank to any
other bank branch, provided the transaction is attempted between the banks that
participate in the NEFT payment system.
•Transactions made through NEFT do not take place in real-time.
•As per Reserve Bank of India (RBI) guidelines, the payments made via NEFT are
processed and settled half hourly batches.
•NEFT transactions can be performed 24*7.
•Minimum Transfer Value: Rs. 1
•Maximum transfer value: No limit
•Money transfer made through NEFT does not require any additional transaction
costs.
Hence both statements are not correct.
Category NEFT RTGS IMPS

Minimum transfer value Rs.1 Rs.2 lakh Rs.1

Depends on the customer

Maximum transfer value No upper limit Rs.2 lakh
segment

Type of settlement Batches One-on-one settlement One-on-one settlement

2 hours (subject to cut-off

Speed of settlement Immediately Immediately
timings and batches)

Service availability 24/7 Depends on the bank 24/7

Online/Offline Both Both Online

199.Consider the following statements regarding the Sarus Crane:
1. It is the fastest flying bird in the world.
2. It is classified as ‘Endangered’ under the IUCN Red List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
About Sarus Crane:
•It is the tallest flying bird in the world.
•Distribution: They live in Southeast Asia, northern India and in northern Australia.
•Habitat: They live mainly in wetlands such as canals, marshes and ponds, sometimes near
humans.
•Features:
•It is 152-156 cm tall with a wingspan of 240cm.
•It has a predominantly grey plumage with a naked red head and upper neck and pale red
legs.
•It weighs 6.8-7.8 Kgs.
•They are regarded as the least social crane species, found mostly in pairs or small groups of
three or four.
•They are monogamous birds and pairs mate for life.
•Conservation Status:
•IUCN Red List: Vulnerable
•Wildlife (Protection) Act 1972: Schedule IV
Hence both statements are not correct.
200.Consider the following statements regarding Rhododendrons:
1. They are a diverse genus of about 1,000 species of woody flowering plants.
2. They are found only in alpine regions of Asia and Europe.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 Only

B. 2 Only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Key facts about Rhododendrons:
•What is it? They are a diverse genus of about 1,000 species of woody flowering
plants in the heath family (Ericaceae), notable for their attractive flowers and
handsome foliage.
•Distribution: They are native to the temperate regions of Asia, North America, and
Europe, as well as to the tropical regions of southeast Asia and northern Australia.
•Habitat: They occur in a variety of habitats, including alpine regions, coniferous and
broadleaved woodlands, temperate rain forests, and even tropical jungle conditions.
•They also require a slightly acid soil to grow well.
•They exhibit an enormous diversity of size and shape, from prostrate ground covers
growing no more than a few inches high to trees more than 100 feet tall.
•There are 132 taxa (80 species, 25 subspecies and 27 varieties)
of rhododendrons found in India.
Rhododendron, also known as "Lali Guras" in local language, is the national flower of
Nepal and the state tree of the state of Uttarakhand in India.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.