Solutions

1. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R
[NC17003]

Assertion A : Helium is used to dilute oxygen in diving apparatus. (NEET 2023)

Reason R : Helium has high solubility in O2.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
(a) A is true but R is false
(b) A is false but R is true
(c) Both A and R are true and R correct explanation of A
(d) Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct explanation of A

Answer (d)
Sol. • Helium is used as diluent for oxygen in modern diving apparatus because of its very low solubility
in blood.
Gases diffuses easily with each other.

Electrochemistry
1. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
(NEET 2023)
Reason R [NC18006]
Assertion A : In equation rG = –nFEcell’ value of rG depends on n.
Reasons R : Ecell is an intensive property and rG is an extensive property.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
(a) A is true but R is false
(b) A is false but R is true
(c) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(d) Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct explanation of A

Answer (c)
Sol. The value of∆ r G=−nF Ecell value of ∆ r G depends on n .
Where E is the emf of the cell and nF is the amount of charge passed.
So, assertion statement is correct
Ecell is an intensive property while ∆ r Gis an extensive thermodynamic property
So, reason is correct and explaining the assertion
2. The conductivity of centimolar solution of KCl at 25°C is 0.0210 ohm−1 cm−1 and the resistance of the
cell
containing the solution at 25°C is 60 ohm. The value of cell constant is

(NEET 2023) [NC18007]

(a) 1.26 cm−1 (b) 3.34 cm−1
(c) 1.34 cm−1 (d) 3.28 cm−1

Answer (a)
Sol. Conductivity = conductance × cell constant
 ¿
K=GG
1 ¿
¿ G
R
¿ −1
G =k × R=0.0210 ×60=1.26 cm

(a): For the liberation of O 2, the required reaction is

+¿ +O ¿
2

−¿+ 4 H 2 O → Mn2+ ¿+ H ¿
¿
Mn O 4
o
For the reaction to be spontaneous, the E cell is to be positive
o o
E cell =E Mn O−¿/Mn
4
+2

+ EoH O /O ¿
2 2

= 1.510 + (–1.223) = 0.287 V

Therefore, correct option is (a)

Chemical Kinetics
3. The increase in the rate constant of a reaction when its temperature is increased from 298 K to
308 K is nearly ( E a=12.68 kcal/mol )
[pg no. 157, Q. 17]

a) 63% b) 50%
c) 100% d) 10%

Ans:(a)
4. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as (NEET
2023)
Reason R : [NC19006]
Assertion A : A reaction can have zero activation energy.
Reasons R : The minimum extra amount of energy absorbed by reactant molecules so that their
energy
becomes equal to threshold value, is called activation energy.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(a) A is true but R is false
(b) A is false but R is true
(c) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(d) Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct explanation of A

Answer (d)
Sol. • Few reactions can have zero activation energy.
• Activation energy is defined as the minimum amount of extra energy absorbed by reactants to
achieve threshold energy.

5. For a certain reaction, the rate = k[ A ¿ ¿2[B], when the initial concentration of A is tripled keeping
concentration of B constant, the initial rate would (NEET 2023) [NC19007]
(a) Increase by a factor of nine (b) Increase by a factor of three
(c) Decrease by a factor of nine (d) Increase by a factor of six
 Answer (a)
Sol. Rate (r) ¿ k ¿
When concentration of A is tripled
[ A' ] = [ 3 A ]
2
New rate,r ' =k [ A ' ] [ B ] =k [ 3 A ]2 [ B ] =9 k [ A ] 2 [ B ]
6. Assertion (A): Rate of reaction increases with increase in temperature. (ARC18Q10)
Reason (R): Number of effective collisions increases with increase in temperature.
Ans: (a)

The d – and f – Block Elements

1. The electrode potentail of M 2+¿/ M ¿ of 3d-series elements shows positive value for:
(JEE Main Feb 2021)
a) Fe b) Co c) Zn d) Cu

(d): Only copper shows positive value for electrode pontentail of M 2+¿/ M ¿ of 3d-series elements.
⊖
E /V ¿ ¿
2. Fex 2and Fey 3 are known when x and y are;
(JEE Main March 2021)
a) x=F ,CI , Br , I ∧ y=CI , Br , I
b) x=F ,CI , Br , I ∧ y=F , CI , Br
c) x=F ,CI , Br , I ∧ y=F , CI , Br , I
d) x=CI , Br , I ∧ y=F , CI , Br , I

(b): FeI3, does not form because of I– being a very good reducing agent.
3. Consider the hydrated ions of Ti 2+, V2+, Ti3+, and Sc3+. The correct order of their spin-only
magnetic moments is:
(JEE Main April. 2019)
a) V2+< Ti2+ < Ti3+ < Sc3+
b) Sc3+< Ti3+ < Ti2+ < V2+
c) Ti3+ < Ti2+ < Sc3+ < V2+
d) Sc3+< Ti3+ < V2+ < Ti2+

(b): Electronic configuration of the given transition metal ions are:

Sc3+ (Z = 21) 1s22s22p63s23p6
Ti2+ (Z = 22) 1s22s22p63s23p6
Ti3+ (Z = 22) 1s22s22p63s23p63d1
V2+ (Z = 23) 1s22s22p63s23p63d3
 Since, magnetic moment is directly proportional to the number of unpaired electrons. The correct
increasing order of magnetic moment is Sc 3+ < Ti3+ < Ti3+ < V2+ 0, 1, 2 and 3 unpaired electrons
respectively.
4. Arrange the following metal complex/ compounds in the increasing order of spin only magnetic
moment. Presume all the three, high spin system.
(Atomic numbers Ce =58, Gd =64 and Eu =63.)
(A) ( NH 2 )2 [ Ce ( NO 3 )6 ]
(B) Gd ( NO 3 )3∧¿
(C) Eu ( NO3 )3
(JEE Main March 2021)
a) (A) < (B) < (C) b) (A) < (C) < (B)
c) (B) < (A) < (C) d) (C) < (A) < (B)

(NH4)2 [Ce(NO3)6] (n = 0) ⇒ µ = 0 B.M

(b):

Eu (NO3)3 (n = 6) ⇒ µ = 6.93 B.M

Gd(NO3)3 (n = 7) ⇒ µ = 7.94 B.M
5. The effect of lanthanoid contraction in the lanthanoid series of elements by and large means:
(JEE Main Jan. 2019)
a) increase in both atomic and ionic radii
b) decrease in atomic radii and increase in ionic radii
c) decrease in both atomic and ionic radii
d) increase in atomic radii and decrease in ionic radii

(c): Due to lanthanoid contraction, size of atoms as well as ions of lanthanoid decreases.
6. Which of the following oxidation state is common for all lanthanoids?
a) +2 b) +3 c) +4 d) +5

7. The stability of Cu2 +¿¿ is more than Cu+ salts in aqueous solution due to(NEET 2023) [NC23005]
(a) Hydration energy (b) Second ionisation enthalpy
(c) First ionisation enthalpy (d) Enthalpy of atomization

Answer (a)
0
Sol. The stability of Cu2 +¿¿ aq) is more than Cu+ (aq) is due to the much more negative ∆ hyd H
Of Cu2 +¿(aq )¿ than Cu2 +¿(aq )¿ which more than compensates for second ionisation enthalpy of Cu
0 −1
∆ hyd H of Cu2 +¿ (aq )=−2121kJ mol ¿
o −1
∆ i H 1 of Cu=+745 kJ mol
o −1
∆ i H 2 of Cu=+1960 kJ mol

8. Which of the following statements are INCORRECT? (NEET 2023)

All the transition metals except scandium form MO oxides which are ionic. [NC23006]
B. The highest oxidation number corresponding to the group number in transition metal oxides is attained
 In S c 2 O 3 ¿ Mn2 O 7
C. Basic character increases fromV O O 3 ¿ V 2 O 4 ¿ V 2 O 5
¿
¿
D. V 2 O 4dissolves in acids to giveVO 3− ¿ salts.
4
E. CrO is basic but Cr 2 O 3 is amphoteric
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) C and D only
(b) B and C only
(c) A and E only
(d) B and D only

Answer: (a)
Sol.
 all transitions metals except Sc from MO oxides which are ionic.
 The highest oxidation number corresponding to the group number in transition metal oxides in
attained in S c 2 O 3 ¿ Mn2 O 7
 Acidic character increases from V O O 3 ¿ V 2 O 4 ¿ V 2 O 5
¿
 V 2 O4 dissolves in acids to give VO2 +¿¿
 CrO is basic butCr 2 O 3 is amphoteric
9. Assertion (A) : K2Cr2O7 is used as a primary standard solution in Titration. (ARC22Q01)
Reason (R) : It is not a hygroscopic in nature.

Sol: (a)
10. Assertion (A) : The 3rd ionisation energy of Gd is abnormally low. (ARC22Q02)
Reason (R) : Exchange energy of 4f subshell is hight.

Sol: (a)
11. Assertion (A) : Ce+4 can oxidise water and it is a good analytical reagent. (ARC22Q03)
Reason (R) : The E0 value for Ce+4/Ce+3 is +1.74V.

Sol: (a)
12. Assertion (A) : Eu+2 & Yb+2 are reducing agent. (ARC22Q04)
Reason (R) : Both ions have strong tendency to convert into stable +3 in its aq. solution.

Sol: (a)
13. Assertion : Cuprous ion (Cu+) has paired electrons while cupric ion (Cu++) does not.
(ARC22Q05)
Reason : Cuprous ion (Cu+) is colourless whereas cupric ion (Cu++) is blue in the aqueous
solution

Sol: (c)
14. Statement-I : Ag is a transition element. (STC22Q06)
Statement-II : Ag atom has completely filled d-orbital (4d10) in it's ground state.

Sol: (b)
15. Statement-I : All the transition elements show typical metallic properties such as high tensile
strength, ductility but low thermal and electrical conductivity. (STC22Q07)
Statement-II : Zn, Cd & Hg are very hard and have low volatility.

Sol: (a)
16. Statement-I : Transition elements exhibit higher enthalpies of atomisation. (STC22Q08)
Statement-II : Transition elements have stronger inter atomic interaction.

Sol: (b)
17. Statement-I : Cr+2 act as reducing agent and Mn+3 act as oxidising agent. (STC22Q09)
Statement-II : E0(M+2/M) value for all 3d-series element's are negative.

Sol: (c)
18. Statement-I : All Cu(II) halides are known except the iodide. (STC22Q10) −¿ ¿
2−¿< MnO 4 ¿
+¿<Cr O ¿
Statement-II : Increasing order of oxidising power is V O 2 2 7
.

Sol: (d)
19. Mark the correct statement(s). (STC22Q01)
(i) Manganese exhibits +7 oxidation state
(ii) Zinc forms coloured ions
(iii) [CoF6]3– is diamagnetic
(iv) Sc forms +4 oxidation state
(v) Zn exhibits only +2 oxidation state

(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i) and (v)

(c) (ii) and (iv) (d) (iii) and (iv)

Sol: (b)
20. Which of the following statements are correct ? (STC22Q02)
(i) The maximum oxidation state of Mn with the oxygen is +VII while with fluorine is +IV.
(ii) Fluorine is more oxidizing in nature than oxygen.
(iii) Fluorine exhibit an oxidation state of –1.
(iv) Seven fluorine cannot be accommodated around Mn.

(a) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(b) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i) and (iv)
(d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

Sol: (d)

21. Which of the following statements are correct ? (STC22Q03)

(i) Chromium has the highest melting point among the series 1 metals.
(ii) Number of unpaired electrons is greater in Cr than other elements of series 1.
(iii) In any row the melting point of transition metal increases as the atomic number increases.

(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (i) and (ii)

(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (i), (ii) and (iii)

Sol: (b)

22. Read the following statements? (STC22Q04)

(i) Aqueous solutions formed by all ions of Ti are colourless.
(ii) Aqueous solution of ferrous ions is green in colour.
(iii) Small size and presence of vacant d-orbitals make transition metal ions suitable for formation of
complex compounds.
(iv) Catalytic action of transition metals involves the increase of reactant concentration at catalyst
surface
and weakening of the bonds in the reacting molecules.
Which of the following is the correct code for above statements?
(a) FTTT (b) TFFT
(c) TFTT (d) FFTT
Sol: (a)
Aqueous solution formed by Ti3+ ions has purple colour.

23. Which of the following statements are correct? (STC22Q05)

(i) Interstitial compounds contain non-metal atoms trapped inside the metal crystal whereas alloys are
homogeneous blend of metals.
(ii) Steel and bronze are alloys of transition and nontransition metals.
(iii) Some boride containing interstitial compounds are very hard comparable to that of diamond.
(iv) Interstitial compounds are chemically more reactive than parent metal.
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (ii) and (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (i), (ii) and (iii)

Sol: (a)
Steel is an alloy of Fe and C (non-metal). Interstitial compounds are chemically inert.
24. Match the column: (MFC22Q01)
Column I Column II
(Catalysis) (Process)
(i) Ni in the presence (a) Zieglar-Natta catalyst
of Hydrogen
(ii) CuCl2 (b) Contact process
(iii) V2O5 (c) Vegetable oil to vegetable ghee
(iv) TiCl4+Al(CH3)3 (d) Decon process
(a) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d
(b) i-c, ii-d, iii-b, iv-a
(c) i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b
(d) i-b, ii-c, iii-d, iv-a

Sol: (b) i-c, ii-d, iii-b, iv-a

25. Match the column : (MFC22Q02)

Column I Column II
(Property) (Element)
(i) Lanthanoid which show +4 (a) Pm
oxidation state
(ii) Lanthanoid which can (b) Gd
show +2 oxidation state
(iii) Radioactive lanthanoid (c) Ce
(iv) Lanthanoid which has 4f7 (d) Eu
configuration in +3 oxidation
state
(a) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d
(b) i-c, ii-d, iii-b, iv-a
(c) i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b
(d) i-b, ii-c, iii-d, iv-a

Sol: (c) i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b

26. Match the column : (MFC22Q03)

Column I Column II
(a) FeSO4.7H2O (p) Green vitriol
(b) MgSO4.7H2O (q) Blue vitriol
(c) ZnSO4.7H2O (r) Eupsum salt
(d) CuSO4.5H2O (s) White vitriol
(a) a-p, b-v, c-s, d-q
(b) a-q, b-r, s-s, d-p
(c) a-r, b-s, c-p, d-q
(d) a-q, b-p, c-s, d-r

Sol: (a) a-p, b-v, c-s, d-q

27. Match the column : (MFC22Q04)

Column I Column II
(Composition) (Alloy)
(a) Cu + Ni (p) Silver UK coins
(b) Ni+Cu+ Zn (q) German silver
(c) Cu+ Zn+ Sn (r) Gun metal
(d) Ln(95%)+Fe (s) Misch metal
(a) a-p, b-q, c-r, d-s
(b) a-q, b-r, s-s, d-p
(c) a-s, b-q, c-r, d-p
(d) a-q, b-p, c-s, d-r

Sol: (a) a-p, b-q, c-r, d-s

28. Match the column : (MFC22Q05)

Column I Column II
(Compound) (Properties)
(i) K2MnO4 (a) Amphoteric
(ii) KMnO4 (b) Paramagnetic & green coloured
(iii) K2Cr2O7 (c) Diamagnetic & purple coloured
(iv) V2O5 (d) Diamagnetic & orange coloured

(a) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d

(b) i-c, ii-d, iii-b, iv-a
(c) i-b, ii-c, iii-d, iv-a
(d) i-d, ii-a, iii-b, iv-c

Sol: (c) i-b, ii-c, iii-d, iv-a

Coordination Compounds
1. Which of the following pairs represents linkage isomers?
a) [Cu ( NH 3 )4 ][PtCl 4 ]∧[Pt ( NH 3 )4 ][CuCl 4 ]
b) [ Pd ( PPh 3 )2 ( NCS )2 ] ∧[ Pd ( PPh 3 )2 ( SCN )2 ]
c) [ Co ( NH 3 )5 ] NO 3 SO 4 ∧[ Co ( NH 3 )5 SO 4 ] NO3
d) ¿

Ans: (b)
Sol: Linkage isomerism is caused due to presence of ambidentate ligands. [ Pd ( PPh 3 )2 ( NCS )2 ]
and [Pd ( PPh3 ) 2 ( SCN )2 ]are linkage isomers due to SCN, ambidentate ligand.
2. The IUPAC name of the compound [CuCl2 ( CH 3 NH 2 )2 ] is
a) Dichloro bis (dimethyl amine) copper(II)
b) Dichloro bis (methyl amine) copper(II)
c) Dimethyl amine copper (II) chloride
d) Bis (dimethyl amine ) copper (II) chloride

Ans: (b)
Sol: The IUPAC name of the compound [CuCl2 ( CH 3 NH 2 )2 ] is dichloro bis-(methyl amine)
copper (II).
2−¿¿
2+¿, [ PtCl 4]
3. The name of [ Pt ( NH 3 )4 Cl 2 ]
¿
is
a) Tetramminedichloroplatinum(IV) tetrachloro platinate(II)
b) Dichloroplatinum (IV) tetrachloroplatinate
c) Tetrachloroplatinum (II) tetrammineplatinate
d) Tetrachloroplatinum (II) dichlorotetraammine palatinate

Ans: (a)
2−¿¿
2+¿, [ PtCl 4]
[ Pt ( NH 3 )4 Cl 2 ]
¿
Sol: The name of is tetraamminedichloroplatinum (IV)
tetrachloroplatinate (II). Since, positive ion is written first and negative ion later.
4. The correct order of the spin-only magnetic moments of the following complexes is:
(A) [Cr(H2O)6]Br2 (B) Na4[Fe(CN)6]
(C) Na2[Fe(C2O4)] (0 > P)
(D) (Et4 N)2 [CoCl4]
(JEE Main Jan. 2020)
a) (C) > (A) > (D) > (B) b) (C) > (A) > (B) > (D)
c) (A) > (D) > (C) > (B) d) (B)  (A) > (D) > (C)
 (c): As,  = √ n(n+ 2)
Na4[Fe(CN)6]  Fe2+
 S.F.L.  t 62 g e0g  s = 0
[Cr(H2O)6]Br2  Fe2+
3 1
 W.F.L.  t 2 g e g  8 = √ 24 B.M.
(Et4N)2[CoCl4]  Co2+
 W.F.L.  e4 t 32  8 = √ 15 B.M.
Na4[Fe(C2O4)3]  Fe3+
5 0
 S.F.L.  t 2 g e g  s = 3
5. Homoleptic complex from the following complexes is(NEET 2023) [NC24005]
(a) Pentaamminecarbonatocobalt (III) chloride (b) Triamminetriaquachromium (III) chloride
(c) Potassium trioxalatoaluminate (III) (d) Diamminechloridonitrito-N-platinum (II)

Answer (c)
Sol. • Complexes in which a metal is bound to only one kind of donor groups are called as homoleptic
complexes
• Potassium trioxalatoaluminate (III)
K3[Al(ox)3]
It is a homoleptic complex

6. Which complex compound is most stable? (NEET 2023) [NC24006]

(a) [ C O Cl 2 ( en )2 ] NO 3 [
(b) Co ( N H 3 )6 ]2 ( SO4 )3
[ ]
(c) Co ( N H 3 )4 ( H 2 O ) Br ( NO3 ) 2 [
(d) Co ( NH 3 )3 ( NO 3 )3 ]

Answer (a)
Sol. Chelating ligands in general form more stable complexes than their monodentate analogs
∴ The most stable complex is
[ C O Cl 2 ( en )2 ] NO 3

7. Assertion : EDTA ligand forms complex with metal ion of 3d series in the ratio of 1 : 1 (ARC23Q01)
Reason : EDTA ligand has four –COOH group's.

Sol: (c)

8. Assertion : The correct order of the wavelength of absorption in the visible vision is (ARC23Q02)
[Ni(NO2)6]4– < [Ni(NH3)6]+2 < [Ni(H2O)6]+2
Reason : The stability of different complexes depends on the strength of the ligand field of the various ligand.
Sol: (b)

9. Assertion : KMnO4 & K2Cr2O7 both are coloured compound. (ARC23Q03)

Reason : The colour of the compound is due to d–d transition.

Sol: (c)

10. Assertion : Cu+2 ion never form complex with CN– & I– ions. (ARC23Q04)
Reason : Cu+2 is a stronger oxidising while CN– & I– both are stronger reducing agent.

Sol: (a)

11. Assertion : The colour of [Co(NH3)5NO2]+2 and [Co(NH3)5ONO]2+ is different. (ARC23Q05)

Reason : Both are linkage isomers.

Sol: (a)

12. Assertion: Toxic metal ions are removed by the chelating ligands.
Reason: Chelate complexes tend to be more stable.

Sol: (a): When a solution of chelating ligand is added to solution containing toxic metals ligands che-
lates the metal ions by formation of stable complex.

13. Assertion: [Cr(H2O)6]Cl2 and [Fe(H2O)6]Cl2 are reducing in nature.

Reason: Unpaired electrons are present in their d-orbitals.

Sol: (b): In the complexes, Coexists as Co2+¿ ¿ and Fe as Fe2 +¿¿. Both of the complexes become stable
by oxidation of metal ion to Co3+ ¿¿ and Fe3 +¿¿.

14. Assertion: Linkage isomerism arises in coordination compounds containing ambidentate ligand.
Reason: Ambidentate ligand has two different donor atoms.

Sol: (a): Linkage isomerism arises due to two different donor atoms in ambidentate ligand.

15. Assertion: Complexes of MX6 and MX5L type (X and L are unidentate) do not show geometrical
isomerism.
Reason: Geometrical isomerism is not shown by complexes of coordination number 6.
Sol: (c): For complexes of MX 6 and MX 5 L type, different geometric arrangements of the ligands are
not possible. MA 4 B2 , M ( AA )2 B2∧MA 3 B3 type of complexes are the complexes with coordination
number 6 which show geometrical isomerism.

16. Assertion: ([Fe(CN)6] 3– ion shows magnetic moment corresponding to two unpaired electrons.
Reason: Because it has d2sp3 type hybridisation

3−¿¿
Sol: (d):[ Fe ( CN )6 ] ion shows magnetic moment corresponding to one unpaired electrons.

17. Statement-I : Complex [Fe(H2O)5(NO)]SO4 is paramagnetic. (STC23Q06)

Statement-II : The Fe in Complex [Fe(H2O)5(NO)]SO4 has three unpaired electrons.

Sol: (b)
18. Statement-I : All the geometrical formers of the complex [M(NH3)4Cl2] are optically inactive.
Statement-II : Both geometrical isomers of the complex [M(NH3)4Cl2] does not posses plane of
symmetry. (STC23Q07)

Sol: (c)

19. Statement-I : [Cr(H2O)6]Cl2 and [Fe(H2O)6]Cl2 are oxidising in nature. (STC23Q08)

Statement-II : [Fe(CN)6]4– ion is an outer orbital complex.

Sol: (a)

20. Statement-I : Cis-platin is used in the treatment of Cancer. (STC23Q09)

Statement-II : EDTA is used for treatment of lead poisoning.

Sol: (b)

21. Statement-I : The metal to ligand bonding creates a synergic effect which strength the bond
between CO and the metal. (STC23Q10)
Statement-II : The complex with d0 and d10 configuration show d–d transition.
Sol: (c)

22. Identify the correct statements for the behaviour of ethane- 1, 2-diamine as a ligand.
(STC23Q01)
(i) It is a neutral ligand.
(ii) It is a didentate ligand.
(iii) It is a chelating ligand.
(iv) It is a unidentate ligand.

a) (i), (ii) and (iii)

b) (ii) and (iii)
c) (iii) and (iv)
d) (i), (iii) and (iv)

Sol: (a)

23. Read the following statements (STC23Q02)

(i) Macromolecules cannot behave as a ligand.
(ii) [EDTA]4– can bind through two oxygen and four nitrogen atom.
(iii) Chelate complexes are more stable than similar complexes containing unidentate ligands.
(iv) Coordination number of the central atom/ion is determined only by the number of sigma bonds
formed by the ligand with central atom/ion
Which of the following is the correct code for statements above?
(a) FFTT (b) FTFT
(c) TFTF (d) FFFT

Sol: (a) Macromolecules like proteins can acts as ligand. [EDTA]4– can bind through two nitrogen
and four oxygen atoms.

24. Which of the following statements regarding formulas and naming of coordination compounds
are correct? (STC23Q03)
(i) During nomenclature names of neutral ligands are kept same except for H 2O, NH3 and CO.
(ii) If the complex is anion, the name of the metal ends with the suffix–ate.
(iii) While writing formula of coordination compounds polydentate ligands are listed alphabeticaly.
(iv) The cation is named first in both positively and negatively charged coordination entities.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i), (iii) and (iv) (d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

Sol: (d)
25. Which of the following statements are correct? (STC23Q04)
(i) Square planar complexes of MABXL type show three isomers-two cis and one trans.
(ii) Complexes of Ma3B3 type show three isomers-two cis and one trans.
(iii) Optical isomerism is common in octahedral complexes involving bidentate ligands.
(iv) [Co(NH3)4Cl (NO2)]Cl show linkage isomerism.
(v) Hydrate isomerism is another name of solvate isomerism.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(c) (ii), (iii) and (v) (d) (iii), (iv) and (v)

Sol: (b) Complexes of Ma3B3 type shows fac– meridional isomerism.

Solvate isomerism is refered to as a hydrate isomerism when solvent is water.

26. Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect? (STC23Q05)

(i) In metal carbonyls M–C σ bond is formed by the donation of lone pair of electrons on the carbonyl
carbon into a vacant orbital of metal.
(ii) M—C π bond is formed by the donation of a pair of electrons from a filled d orbital of metal into
the vacant antibonding π * orbital of CO.
(iii) Bonding in metal carbonyls is called synergic bonding.
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (iii) only
(c) (ii) only (d) None of these

Sol: (d)

27. Match the column : (MFC23Q01)

Column-I Column-II
[Complex Ion] [Hybridisation & no.
of unpaired electron]
(1) [Co(H2O)6]+3 (a) dsp2, 0
(2) [Fe(CN)6]3– (b) dsp2, 1
2–
(3) [Ni(CN)4] (c) d2sp3, 0
2–
(4) [Co(CN)4] (d) d2sp3, 1

a) 1 → c, 2 → a, 3 → d, 4 → b
b) 1 → c, 2 → d, 3 → b, 4 → a
c) 1 → c, 2 → d, 3 → a, 4 → b
d) 1 → a, 2 → c, 3 → d, 4 → b

Sol: c) 1 → c, 2 → d, 3 → a, 4 → b

28. Match the column : (MFC23Q02)

Column-I Column-II
[Complex Ion] [No. of geometrical Isomer]
(1) [Co(NH3)6]+3 (a) 5
(2) [Co(NH3)2Cl2Br2]– (b) 0
(3) [Pt(NH3)3Cl3]+ (c) 15
(4) [Pt(NH3)(H2O)(Py)ClBr I]+ (d) 2

a) 1 → b, 2 → d, 3 → a, 4 → c
b) 1 →b, 2 → a, 3 → d, 4 → c
c) 1 → a, 2 → b, 3 → d, 4 → c
d) 1 → c, 2 → a, 3 → d, 4 → b

Sol: b) 1 - b, 2 - a, 3 - d, 4 - c

29. Match the column : (MFC23Q03)

Column-I Column-II
(Complexion) (Type of complex with
magnetic moment)
(1) [Co(OX)3]3– (a) Inner orbital, complex, μ= √ 3
(2) [Fe(EDTA)]– (b) Outer orbital, complex, μ= √ 24
(3) [MnF6]3– (c) Outer orbital, complex, μ= √ 8
(4) [Ni(H2O)6]+2 (d) Inner orbital, complex, μ = 0

a) 1 →d, 2 → a, 3 → b, 4 → c
b) 1 → c, 2 → a, 3 → b, 4 → d
c) 1 → d, 2 → b, 3 → a, 4 → c
d) 1 → a, 2 → d, 3 → b, 4 → c

Sol: a) 1 →d, 2 → a, 3 → b, 4 → c

30. Match the column : (MFC23Q04)

Column-I Column-II

[Confiscation in [Magnetic moment]

octahedral complex]
(1) d4 [Low spin] (a) μ= √ 3 BM

(2) d4 [High spin] (b) μ= √ 35 BM

(3) d5 [Low spin] (c) μ= √ 8 BM

(4) d5 [High spin] (d) μ= √ 24 BM

a) 1 → b, 2 → d, 3 → a, 4 → c
b) 1 → a, 2 → d, 3 → d, 4 → b
c) 1 → d, 2 → c, 3 → a, 4 → b
d) 1 → c, 2 → d, 3 → a, 4 → b
Sol: d) 1 → c, 2 → d, 3 → a, 4 → b

31. Match the column : (MFC23Q05)

Column-I Column-II
[Complex Ion] [Total no. of chelate ring]
(1) [Fe(EDTA)]– (a) 2
(2) [Ni(dmg)2] (b) 3
(3) [Fe(en)3]+3 (c) 4
+
(4) [Co(en)2Cl2] (d) 5

a) 1 → a, 2 → c, 3 → b, 4 → d
b) 1 → d, 2 → c, 3 → b, 4 → a
c) 1 →b, 2 → c, 3 → d, 4 → a
d) 1 → c, 2 → d, 3 → b, 4 → a

Sol: b) 1 → d, 2 → c, 3 → b, 4 → a

Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

1. Identify the reagent(s) ‘A’ and condition(s) for the reaction

(JEE Main March 2021)

a) A=CI 2 ; dark , Anhydrous AI CI 3
b) A=HCI , ZnCI 2
c) A=CI 2 ; UV light
d) A=HCI ; Anhydrous AI CI 3

(c):

2. t-butyl chloride preferably undergo hydrolysis by

 a) S N 1mechanism b) S N 2 mechanism
c) Any of (a) and (b) d) None of the above

Ans:(a)
Sol: Tertiary halide preferentially undergo S N 1 substitution as they can give stable carbocation.
C H3
| −¿
+ ¿+O H ( H 3 C )3 COH ¿ ¿
H 3 C−C−Cl Slow ( H 3 C )3 C ¿

¿
| carbocation t-butyl alcohol
C H3
t-butyl chloride

3. Consider the reaction

(i) (CH3)2CH – CH2Br C 2 H 5 OH (CH3)2CH – CH2OC2H5 + HBr
→

(ii) (CH3)2CH – CH2Br C 2 H 5 O – (CH3)2CH – CH2OC2H5 + Br–

→
The mechanisms of reactions (i) and (ii) are respectively.
(AIPMT (Mains) 2011)
a) SN1 and SN2 b) SN1 and SN1
c) SN2 and SN2 d) SN2 and SN1

(c): If reaction is SN1, there will be the formation of carbocation and the rearrangement takes
place.
In these reactions there is no rearrangement hence both are SN2 mechanism.
4. The product formed in the first stepb of the reaction of

With exess Mg/Et2O(Et = C2H5) is:

(JEE Main Feb. 2021)

a)

b)

c)

d)
 (d):

5. Arrange the following compounds in the increasing order of their densities.

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

a) (A) < (B) < (C) < (D)

b) (A) < (C) < (D) < (B)
c) (D) < (C) < (B) < (A)
d) (B) < (D) < (C) < (A)

6. Chlorobenzene is formed by reaction of chlorine with benzene in the presence of AlCl 3. Which of
the following species attacks the benzene ring in this reaction?
a) Cl– b) Cl+
c) AlCl3 d) [AlCl4] –

7. The given compound (NEET 2023) [NC25005]

is an example of ______.
(a) Allylic halide (b) Vinylic halide
(c) Benzylic halide (d) Aryl halide

Answer (a)
Sol. ∝-carbon is Sp3 carbon which is right next to ¿ C=C< ¿
This ∝-position is known as allylic position
Hence,
 is allylic halide

8. Consider the following reaction and identify the product (P). (NEET 2023) [NC25006]

(a) (b)

(c) (d)

Answer (c)
Sol:
9. Which of the following sequence of reactions is suitable to synthesize chlorobenzene?
(NEET 2022)
C l
a) Benzene, 2, anhydrous Fe Cl3
b) Phenol, NaN O 2 , HCl, CuCl
c) HCl

d) ,HCl, Heating

(a):

10. Assertion : Alkyl chlorides are best prepared from alcohols by reaction of SOCl2. (ARC24Q01)
Reason : The other two products are easily escapable. So reaction gives pure Alkyl chlorides.

Sol: (a)
11. Assertion : Boiling points of chlorides, bromides and iodides are considerably higher than those
of the parent hydrocarbons. (ARC24Q02)
Reason : Due to greater polarity as well as higher molecular mass as compared to parent
hydrocarbon, the intermolecular forces of attraction are stronger in hologen derivatives.

Sol: (a)
12. Statement-I : 2-Bromo pentane on reaction with alcoholic KOH gives 1-pentene as a major
product. (STC24Q06)
Statement-II : In dehydrohalogenation reactions the preferred product is always that alkene which
has lesser number of alkyl groups attached to the doubly bonded c-atoms.

Sol: (a)
13. Statement-I : Boiling point of isomeric dihalo benzenes are very nearly the same, However, the
para isomers has high melting point as compared to their ortho and meta isomers. (STC24Q07)
Statement-II : It is due to symmetry of ortho isomers that fits in crystal lattice better as compared to
para and meta-isomers.

Sol: (c)
14. Statement-I : Compound which are Non superimposable on their mirror images are called chiral
& property is knows as chirality. (STC24Q08)
Statement-II : All compounds which are superimposable mirror images of each other are called meso
compounds.

Sol: (c)
15. Statement-I : Solubility of halo alkanes in water is low. However halo alkane tend to dissolve in
organic solvents. (STC24Q09)
Statement-II : The new intermolecular attractions between halo alkanes & solvent molecules have
different strength as the ones being broken in separate halo alkanes & solvent molecules.

Sol: (c)
16. Statement-I : Isobutyraldehyde does not give iodoform test with I2 in alkaline medium (NaOH).
(STC24Q10)
Statement-II : Aldehydes and ketones having at least one methyl group linked to carbonyl carbon
atom are oxidised by sodium hypoiodite, to sodium salts of corresponding carboxylic acid having one
carbon atoms less than that of carbonyl compound.

Sol: (b)
17. Read the following statements and choose the correct option. (STC24Q01)
(i) The general formula of alkyl halides is CnH2n+1 X
(ii) The general formula of aryl halides is CnHn–1 X
(iii) In alkyl halides halogen atom(s) is attached to sp2 hybridised carbon atom
(iv) In aryl halides halogen atom(s) is attached to sp2 hybridised carbon atom.

(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct

(b) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
(c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct

Sol: (b)
18. Following statements are given regarding the preparation of aryl halides from toluene. Read the
following statements and choose the correct option. (STC24Q02)
(i) Aryl chlorides and bromides can be easily prepared by this method.
(ii) The ortho and para isomers formed in the reaction can not be separated easily due to small
difference in their melting point.
(iii) Reactions with iodine are reversible in nature and require the presence of an oxidising agent.
(iv) Fluoro compounds are not prepared by this method due to low reactivity of fluorine.
(a) (i) and (iii) are correct
(b) (ii) and (iv) are correct
(c) (i), (ii), and (iii) are correct
(d) All statements are correct

Sol: (a)

19. Read the following statements and choose the correct option. (STC24Q03)
(i) For the same alkyl group, the boiling points of alkyl halides decreases in the order.
RI > RBr > RCl > RF
(ii) With the increases in size and mass of halogen atom, the magnitude of van der Waal’s forces
increases.
(a) Both statements (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) Statement (i) is correct and (ii) is incorrect
(c) Statement (ii) is correct and (i) is incorrect
(d) Both statement (i) and (ii) are incorrect

Sol: (a)

20. Read the following statements and choose the correct answer (STC24Q04)
(i) The boiling points of isomeric haloalkanes decrease with increase in branching.
(ii) Among isomeric dihalobenzenes the para-isomers have higher melting point than their ortho and
metaisomers.
(iii) The isomeric dihalobenzene have large difference in their boiling and melting points
(iv) The isomeric dihalobenzene have nearly same boiling point.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
(b) (i) and (iii) are correct
(c) (ii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct

Sol: (d)

21. Read the following statements and choose the correct code (STC24Q05)
(i) SN2 reactions follows a second order kinetics whereas SN1 reactions follows the first order kinetics
(ii) SN1 reactions follows the second order kinetics whereas SN2 follows the first order kinetics
(iii) SN2 reactions take place in a single step whereas SN1 reactions take place in a two steps
(iv) Tertiary alkyl halides are least reactive towards SN2 reactions but we show high reactivity towards
SN1 reaction.
(a) (ii) and (iv) are correct
(b) (i) and (iii) are correct
(c) (i), (ii) and are correct
(d) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct

Sol: (b)
22. Match the column :- (MFC24Q01)
Column-I Column-II
(Conversion) (Reagent)
(a) 1–Butene→ 2–Butanol (p) BH3/THF, CH3COOH
(b) 1–Butene → 1–Butanol (q) HBr, aq KOH
(c) Propene → Propane (r) AlcKOH, HBr/R2O2
(d) 2–Bromopropane →1–Bromo propane (s) HBr/H2O2, aq KOH

a) a – q, b – p, c – s, d – r
b) a – p, b – s, c – q, d – r
c) a – q, b – r, c – s, d – p
d) a – q, b – s, c – p, d – r

Sol: d) a – q, b – s, c – p, d – r

23. Match the column :- (MFC24Q02)

Column-I Column-II
(compounds) (Uses)
(a) Triiodomethane (p) Fire Extinguisher
(b) Tetra chloromethane (q) Antiseptic
(c) Chlorofluoro carbon (r) Insecticide
(d) p,p'-Dichloro diphenyl trichloro ethane (s) Aerosol propellants

a) a – p, b – r, c – s, d – q
b) a – q, b – p, c – s, d – r
c) a – q, b – s, c – r, d – p
d) a – s, b – r, c – q, d – p

Sol: b) a – q, b – p, c – s, d – r

24. Match the column :- (MFC24Q03)

Column-I Column-II
(Carbon Halogen bond) (Bond length)
(a) CH3–F (p) 214 pm
(b) CH3–Cl (q) 193 pm
(c) CH3–Br (r) 178 pm
(d) CH3I (s) 139 pm

a) a – r, b – s, c – p, d – q
b) a – r, b – p, c – q, d – s
c) a – s, b – p, c – r, d – q
d) a – s, b – r, c – q, d – p

Sol: d) a – s, b – r, c – q, d – p

25. Match the the compounds given in Column I with the effects given in Column II. (MFC24Q04)
Column I Column II
(i) Chloramphenicol (a) Malaria
(ii) Thyroxine (b) Anaesthetic
(iii) Chloroquine (c) Typhoid fever
(iv) Chloroform (d) Goiter
(e) Blood substituent

a) (i →d), (ii →b), (iii →c), (iv → a)

b) (i →b), (ii →a), (iii →c), (iv → d)
c) (i →c), (ii →d), (iii →a), (iv → b)
d) (i →a), (ii →c), (iii →d), (iv → b)

Ans: c) (i →c), (ii →d), (iii →a), (iv → b)

26. Match the items of Column I and Column II. (MFC24Q05)

Column I Column II
(i) S N 1 reaction (a) vic-dibromides
(ii) Chemicals in fire extinguisher (b) gem-dihalides
(iii) Bromination of alkenes (c) Racemisation
(iv) Alkylidene halides (d) Saytzeff rule
(v) Elimination of HX from alkylhalide (e) Chlorobromocarbons

a) (i → e), (ii → a), (iii → b), (iv → c), (v → d)

b) (i → c), (ii → e), (iii → a), (iv → b), (v → d)
c) (i → a), (ii → d), (iii → b), (iv → c), (v → e)
d) (i → d), (ii → b), (iii → c), (iv → a), (v → e)

Ans: b) (i → c), (ii → e), (iii → a), (iv → b), (v → d)

 Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers
1. 1-propanol and 2-propanol can be distinguished by
a) Oxidation with alkaline KMn O 4 followed by reaction with Fehling solution
b) Oxidation with acidic dichromate followed by reaction with Fehling solution
c) Oxidation by heating with copper followed by reaction with Fehling solution
d) Oxidation with concentrated H 2 S O 4followed by reaction with Fehling solution

Ans: (c)
Sol: Catalytic dehydrogenation involves the passing of vapours of alcohol over reduced copper at
300 ℃ and the product thus formed is identified.
Primary alcohols gives aldehyde while secondary alcohols give ketones
2. The order of reactivity of the following alcohols
CH3 CH3 CH3
F CH3

F OH OH OH Ph OH
(I) (II) (III) (IV)

a) I > II > III > IV b) I > III > II > IV

c) IV > III > II> I d) IV > III > I > II

Ans: (c)
Sol: Here we have to check for the stability of carbocation to find the rate of reaction. Higher the
stability more is the reactivity
(I) Will form least stable due to presence of electron withdrawing-F atom
(II) Will form more stable carbocation then (I) since electron withdrawing-F atom is further
away
(III) Will form more stable than I and II due to presence of two electron donating methyl group.
(IV) Most stable in this case due to resonance (benzyl carbocation )

3. In the reaction,
C H3
¿
C H 3 −C−C H 2 Conc . H 2 S O 4 A the product A is
→
¿∨¿
OH OH
C H3 HH
¿ ¿ ¿
a) C H 3 −C=C H 2 b) C H 3 −C=C−C H 3

C H3 C H3
¿ ¿
c) C H 3 −C H 2−C=O d) C H 3 −CH −CHO
 Ans: (c)
4. What is the final product (major) ‘A’ in the given reaction?

(JEE Main Feb. 2021)

a) b)

c) d)

Ans: (d)
5. Which of tahe following compound givesw pink colour on reaction with phthalic anhydride in
conmc. H 2 SO 4 follwed by treatment with NaOH ?
(JEE Main 24 Feb 2021 I)

a) b)

c) d)

6. Consider the following reaction : (NEET 2023) [NC26004]

Identify products A and B.

(a)

(b)

(c)
 (d)

Answer (a)
Sol.

7. Which amongst the following will be most readily dehydrated under acidic conditions? (NEET
2023) [NC26005]

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer : (d)
Sol:
8. Statement-I : The reaction of alcohol with carboxylic acid is carried out in presence of small
amount of concentrated sulphuric acid. This reaction is reversible and therefore, water is removed
as soon as it formed. (STC25Q06)
Statement-II : Reaction of alcohol with acid chloride is carried in presence of base (pyridine) which
do not neutralize HCl which is formed during the reaction.

Sol: (c)
9. Statement-I : The ortho and meta isomers of nitrophenol can be separated by steam distillation.
(STC25Q07)
Statement-II : O-nitrophenol is steam volatile due to intra molecular hydrogen bonding while m-
nitrophenol is less volatile due to inter molecular hydrogen bonding which couses the association of
molecules.

Sol: (a)
10. Statement-I : In ether formation by Williamson synthesis, if a primary alkyl halide is used, an
alkene is the only reaction product and no ether is formed. (STC25Q08)
Statement-II : Alkoxides are not only nucleophiles but strong bases as well. They react with alkyl
halides leading elimination reactions as well as substitution reactions.

Sol: (d)
11. Statement-I : Both ethoxy ethane and butan-1-ol are miscible to almost same extent i.e. 7.5 and
9g per 100 mL water respectively while pentane is essentially immiscible with water.
(STC25Q09)
Statement-II : This is due to the fact that just like alcohols, oxygen of ether can also form hydrogen
bonds with water.
Sol: (b)
12. Statement-I : Phenol reacts with carbon dioxide directly by electrophilic aromatic substitution
and gives ortho hydroxybenzoic acid as main reaction product. (STC25Q10)
Statement-II : Phenoxide ion generated by treating phenol with sodium hydroxide is even more
reactive than phenol towards electrophilic aromatic substitution.

Sol: (d)

13. When an alcohol is prepared by reaction of ethylmagnesiumbromide with 2–pentanone, product

formed does not rotate plane polarised light. For this reaction which of the following statement(s)
is/are correct? (STC25Q01)
(i). Product formed is achiral.
(ii) Racemic mixture is formed.
(a) Both statements (i) and (ii) are correct.
(b) Statement (i) is correct only.
(c) Statement (ii) is correct only.
(d) Both statements (i) and (ii) are incorrect.

Sol: (c)
14. Which of the following statements are correct? (STC25Q02)
(i) Alcohols react as nucleophiles in the reactions involving cleavage of O–H bond.
(ii) Alcohols react as electrophiles in the reactions involving cleavage of O–H bond.
(iii) Alcohols react as nucleophile in the reaction involving cleavage of C–O bond.
(iv) Alcohols react as electrophiles in the reactions involving C–O bond.
(a) (i) only (b) (i) and (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (ii) only

Sol: (b)
15. Which of the following are correct statement(s)? (STC25Q03)
(i) Polar nature of O–H bond is responsible for acidic character of alcohols.
(ii) Acidic strength of alcohols follow the order 1° > 2° > 3°.
(iii) Alcohols are stronger acids than water.
(iv) Alcohols also react as Bronsted base.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (d) (i), (iii) and (iv)
Sol: (b)
16. Read the following statements and choose the correct option. (STC25Q04)
(i) Ethanol on dehydration at 443 K gives ethene
(ii) Ethanol on dehydration at 413 K gives diethyl ether
(iii) Only primary alcohols on dehydration give ethers.
(iv) Secondary and tertiary alcohols on dehydration give ethers having 2° and 3° carbon attached with
O atom.
(a) TTFF (b) TFTF
(c) TTTF (d) FTTF

Sol: (c)
17. Which of the following statements are correct ? (STC25Q05)
(i) Ethanol mixed with methanol is called denatured alcohol.
(ii) Excess of methanol in body may cause blindness.
(iii) In the body methanol is oxidised to methanoic acid.
(iv) A methanol poisoned patient is treated by giving intravenous injections of ethanoic acid.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i) and (iv) (d) (i), (iii) and (iv)

Sol: (a)
18. Match the column (MFC25Q01)
Column-I Column-II
(Reactions) (Products)

(a) (p) Aspirin

(b) (q) Picric acid

(c) (r) Salicylic acid

(d) (s) Benzoquinone

 a) a-q, b-r, c-s, d-p
b) a-q, b-s, c-r, d-p
c) a-s, b-r, c-p, d-q
d) a-r, b-s, c-q, d-p

Sol: a) a-q, b-r, c-s, d-p

19. Match the column (MFC25Q02)

Column-I Column-II
(Compounds) (pKa values)
(a) C2H5OH (p) 8.3
(b) C6H5OH (q) 10.2
(c) p–CH3–C6H4–OH (r) 15.9
(d) m–NO2–C6H4–OH (s) 10.0

a) a-r, b-s, c-p, d-q

b) a-r, b-s, c-q, d-p
c) a-s, b-r, c-p, d-q
d) a-s, b-p, c-q, d-r

Sol: b) a-r, b-s, c-q, d-p

20. Match the column (MFC25Q03)

Column-I Column-II
(Compounds) (Boiling Point)
(a) Ethanol (p) 309.1 K
(b) Methoxy methane (q) 231 K
(c) Propane (r) 351 K
(d) n-pentane (s) 248 K

a) a-p, b-q, c-r, d-s

b) a-r, b-s, c-p, d-q
c) a-r, b-s, c-q, d-p
d) a-s, b-r, c-q, d-p

Sol: c) a-r, b-s, c-p, d-q

21. Match the items of column I with items of column II. (MFC25Q05)
Column I Column II
(a) Methanol (p) Conversion of phenol to o-hydroxysalicylic
acid
(b) Kolbe’s reaction (q) Ethyl alcohol
(c) Williamson’s synthesis (r) Conversion of phenol to salicylaldehyde
(d) Conversion of 2° alcohol to ketone (s) Wood spirit
 (e) Reimer-Tiemann reaction (t) Heated copper at 573K
(f) Fermentation (u) Reaction of alkyl halide with sodium
alkoxide
a) a→r, b →t, c → q, d → p, e → t,f →s
b) a→q, b →v, c → p, d → r, e → s,f →t
c) a →s, b → p, c → u, d → t, e → r, f → q
d) a→t, b →u, c → s, d → r, e → p,f →q

Ans: c) a →s, b → p, c → u, d → t, e → r, f → q

22. Match the items of column I with items of column II. (MFC25Q04)
Column I Column II
(a) Antifreeze used in car engine (p) Neutral ferric chloride
(b) Solvent used in perfumes (q) Glycerol
(c) Starting material for picric acid (r) Methanol
(d) Wood spirit (s) Phenol
(e) Reagent used for detection of phenolic (t) Ethleneglycol
group
(f) By product of soap industry used in (u) Ethanol
cosmetics

a) a→p, b →s, c → u, d → q, e → p,f →r

b) a→r, b →t, c → q, d → p, e → t,f →s
c) a→q, b →v, c → p, d → r, e → s,f →t
d) a→t, b →u, c → s, d → r, e → p,f →q

Ans: d) a→t, b →u, c → s, d → r, e → p, f →q

Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids

1. The structure of X is :

(JEE Main March 2021)

 a) b)

c) d)

Ans: (a)

Sol:
2. The major product of the following reaction are:

(JEE Main Sep. 2020)

a)

b)

c)

d)
 Ans: (d)

Sol:
3. The major product [R] is the following sequence of reaction is:

(JEE Main Sep. 2020)

a)

b)

c)

d)

Ans: (c)
 Sol:
4. In the following reaction A is

(JEE Main Jan. 2020)

Ans: (a)

Sol:

5. The major products of the following reaction is:

 (JEE Main Jan. 2019)

Ans: (d)
Sol:

6. The major product in the following reaction is:

(JEE Main April 2019)

Ans: (a)
7. The increasing order of the reactivity of the following compounds in nuleophilic addition
reaction is: Propanal, Benzaldehyde, Propanone, Butanone
(JEE Main Sep. 2020)
a) Benzaldehyde < Butanone < Propanone < Propanal
b) Butanone < Propanone < Benzaldehyde < Propanal
c) Propanal < Propanone < Butanone < Benzaldehyde
 d) Benzaldehyde < Propanal < Propanone < Butanone

Ans: (b)
Sol: Rate of nucleophilic addition reaction is directly proportional to the –1 and –M effect of the
substituents present in the substrate. Ketones are less susceptible to the nucleophilic addition, due
to the presence of alkyl (R) group which has +1 effect. Thus reactivity order is
8. The increasing order of the following compounds towards HCN addition is:

(JEE Main Sep. 2020)

a) (i) < (ii) < (iv) < (ii) b) (iii) < (iv) < (i) < (ii)
c) (iii) < (i) < (iv) < (ii) d) (iii) < (iv) < (ii) < (i)

Ans: (c)
Sol: –1 effect of NO2 increases reactivity towards nucleophilic addition reaction with HCN –
OCH3 group is electron donating due to resonance effect which decreases the reactivity towards
nucleophilic addition.
9. The increasing order of the acidity of the -hydrogen of the following compounds is:

(JEE Main Sep. 2020)

a) (C) < (A) < (B) < (D)
b) (B) < (C) < (A) < (D)
c) (A) < (C) < (D) < (B)
d) (D) < (C) < (A) < (B)

Ans: (a)
Sol:

This increasing order of acidity is D < C < A < B.

10. An unsaturated hydrocarbon X absorbs two hydrogen molecules on catalytic hydrogenation, and
also gives following reaction: X O 2 A ¿ ¿ ¿
¿
(3-oxo-hexanedicarboxylic acid) X will be:
(JEE Main Jan. 2020)

a) b)

c) d)

Ans: (c)
Sol:

11. In the following reaction

Aldehyde + Alcohol HCl
→
Acetal Aldehyde Alcohol
1
HCHO BuOH
CH3CHO MeOH
The best combination is:
a) CH3CHO and 1BuOH
b) HCHO and MeOH
c) CH3CHO and MeOH
d) HCHO and 1BuOH

Ans: (b)
Sol: Best combination is HCHO (more-reactive aldehyde) and MeOH (less sterically hindred
alcohol).
12. The major product [C] of the following reaction sequence will be:

(JEE Main Sep. 2020)

a) b)

c) d)

Ans: (a)
Sol:

13. The compound A in the following reactions is:

(JEE Main Sep. 2020)

a)

b)
 c)

d)

Ans: (c)
Sol:

14. Identify (A) in the following reaction sequence

(JEE Main Jan. 2020)

a) b)

c) d)
 Ans: (b)
Sol:

(A)

15. The major product in the following reaction is

(JEE Main Jan. 2020)

a) b)

c) d)

Ans: (d)
Sol:

16. Which of the following derivatives of alcohols is unstable in an aqueous base?

(JEE Main Sep. 2020)

a) b)

c) d) RO – CMe3

Ans: (a)
Sol: Easters are hydrolysed in basic medium (saponification) so it is unstable in aqueous base.
17. The major products of the following reaction are:
OH

(JEE Main April 2019)

a)

b)

c)

d)

Ans: (d)
Sol:

18. Major products of the following reactions are:

 (JEE Main April 2019)

d) CH3OH and HCO2H

Ans: (c)
Sol:

19. Major products of the following reactions are:

(JEE Main April 2019)

a) b)

c) d)
 Ans: (c)

Sol:
20. An organic compound neither reacts with neutral ferric chloride solution nor with Fehling
solution. It however, reacts with Grignard reagent and gives positive iodoform test. The
compound is:
(JEE Main April 2019)

Ans: (d)

Test Observations Reason

Reaction with +ve Electrophilic
Gregnard centre or
reagent acidic
hydrogen is
present
Fehling –ve CHO group is
solutionntest absent
Neutral FeCl3 –ve Phenolic
test group is
absent
Iodoform test +ve –COCH3 or –
COCH) – CH3
is present

21. The major products of the following reaction is:

CH3CH = CHCO2CH3 LiA H 4
→
(JEE Main April 2019)
a) CH3CH2CH2CO2CH3
b) CH3CH = CHCH2OH
c) CH3CH2CH2CH2OH
 d) CH3CH2CH2CHO

Ans: (b)
Sol: LiAlH4 reduces esters to alcohols but does not reduce C = C.
CH3CH = CH – CO2Me LiA H 4 CH3CH = CHCH2CH
→
22. The correct decreasing order for acid strength is:
(JEE Main Jan. 2019)
a) NO2CH2COOH > FCH2COOH > CNCH2COOH > ClCH2COOH
b) FCH2COOH > CNCH2COOH > NO2CH2COOH > ClCH2COOH
c) CNCH2COOH > NO2CH2COOH > FCH2COOH > ClCH2COOH
d) NO2CH2COOH > CNCH2COOH > FCH2COOH > ClCH2COOH

Ans:
Sol: The acidic strength of a compound or an acid depends on the inductive effect (–1). Higher
the (–1) effect of a substituent higher will be acidic strength. Now, the decreasing order of the (–
1) effect of the given substituents is NO2 > CN > F > Cl.
 The correct decreasing order of acidic strength amongst the given carboxylic acids is:
NO2CH2COOH > CNCH2COOH > FCH2COOH > ClCH2COOH
HCl
23. In the following reaction Carbonyl compound + MeOH acetal
Rate of the reaction is the highest for:
(JEE Main April 2019)
a) Acetone as substrate and methanol in excess.
b) Propanal as substrate and methanol in stoichiometric amount.
c) Propanal as substrate and methanol in excess
d) Acetone as substrate and methanol in stoichiometric amount.

Ans: (c)

Generally, aldehydes are more reactive than ketones in necleophilic addition reaction.
 Rate of reaction with alcohol to form acetal and ketal is

24. The major product of the given reaction is

 (JEE Main April 2018)

Ans: (b)
Sol: Acid chloride is more reactive than aldehyde. Hence, phenolic –OH will react with –COCl
group first to form ester. This is followed by cyclisation in presence of conc. sulfuric acid.

25. In the below reaction , the reagent “A” is:

(JEE Main March 2021)

a) LiAI H 4
+¿¿
b) Alkaline KMnO 4 , H
c) HCl , Zn−Hg
+¿ ¿
d) Na BH 4 , H 3 O

Ans: (b)
+¿¿
Sol: Alkaline KMnO 4 , H

26. What is the product of following reaction?

 (JEE Main Jan. 2020)

a)

b)

c)

d)

Ans: (d)

Sol:

27. The most suitable reagent for the given conversion is

(JEE Main Jan. 2020)

a) B2H6 b) NaBH4
c) LiAlH4 d) H2/Pd

Ans: (a)
Sol: B2H6 is a very selective reducing agent and usually used to reduce acid to alcohol.
28. The decreasing order of ease of alkaline hydrolysis for the following esters is:

(JEE Main Jan. 2019)

a) III > II > IV > I b) III > II > I > IV
c) IV > II > III > I d) II > III > I > IV
 Ans: (b)
Sol: Rate of reaction  Electrophilicity of carbonyl carbon, so E, W, G increases the rate, while
E, R, G decrease the rate.

29. The major product obtained in the following reaction is:

CO2Et

O NaOEt / ¿ ¿
→
O
(JEE Main Jan. 2019)

Ans: (d)
Sol: Reaction involved:
Sol:

30. An organic compound (A) (molecular formula (C 6H12O2), was hydrolysed with dil. H2SO4 to give
a carboxylic acid (B) and an alcohol (C), ‘C’ gives white turbidity immediately when treated
with anhydrous ZnCl2 and conc. HCl. The organic compound (A) is:
(JEE Main Sep. 2020)

a)
 b)

c)

d)

Ans: (a)
Sol:

30 Alcohol
(Give Lacas test immediately)
31. [P] On treatment with Br2/FeBr3 in CCl4 produced a single isomer C8H7O2Br while heating [P]
with sodalime gave toluene. The compound [P] is:
(JEE Main Sep. 2020)

a) b)

c) d)

Ans: (a)
Sol:

32. An organic compound [A], molecular formula C 10H20O2 was hydrolysed with dilute sulphuric
acid to give a carboxylic acid [B] and an alcohol [C]. Oxidation of [C] with CrO 3 – H2SO4
produced [B]. Which of the following structures are not possible for [A]?
 (JEE Main Sep. 2020)
CH3
|
a) CH3 – CH2 – CH – OCOCH2O – CH2CH3
|
CH3
CH3
|
b) CH3 – CH2 – CH – COOCH2 – CH – CH2CH3
|
CH3
c) CH3CH2 CH2 COOCH2CH2CH2CH3
d) (CH3)2 – C – COOCH2C(CH3)2

Ans: (a)

33. Arrange the following labelled hydrogens in decreasing order of acidity:

(JEE Main Sep. 2020)

a) (ii) > (i) > (iii) > (iv) b) (iii) > (ii) > (iv) > (i)
c) (ii) > (iii) > (iv) > (i) d) (iii) > (ii) > (i) > (iv)

Ans: (a)
Sol: Acidic strength  Stability of conjugate base. General order of acidic strength is
R – COOH > Ph – OH > R – C  CH
In between (iii) and (iv), (ii) is more acidic due to –M effect of –NO 2.
Thus, decreasing order of acidity is (ii) < (iii) > (iv) > (i).
34. The correct order of strength of the following carboxylic acid is:
 (JEE Main 2019)
a) I > II > III > IV b) II > I > IV > III
c) I > III > II > IV d) III > II > I > IV

Ans: (a)
Sol: Acidic strength depends upon the stability of anion formed higher the stability of the anion,
higher will be acidic strength of the parent acid. Thus anion:
HC  CCOO– > H2C = CHCOO– > p-C6H4(OMe) COO– > H3CCH2COO–
Therefore,

35. Identify the product (A) in the following reaction. (NEET 2023) [NC27009]

(a) (b)

(c) (d)

Answer: (c)
Sol: This reaction is Clemmensen reduction
36. Weight (g) of two moles of the organic compound, which is obtained by heating sodium ethanoate with
Sodium hydroxide in presence of calcium oxide is : (NEET 2023) [NC27010]
(a) 30 (b) 18
(c) 16 (d) 32

Answer (d)
Sol. This reaction is called soda lime decarboxylation
+ ¿NaOH CH 4 ( g) + Na2 CO3 (s )¿
−¿ Na ¿
¿ Methane ¿

CH 3− C −O
∥
O
Sodium
ethanoate

Molar mass of CH 4 = 16 g/mol

Weight of 2 moles of CH 4 ¿ 16 ×2
=32g

37. Complete the following reaction (NEET 2023) [NC27011]

[C] is ________

(a) (b)

(c) (d)
 Answer (b)
Sol.

38. Identify the final product [D] obtained in the following sequence of reactions. (NEET 2023) [NC27012]
+¿
CH 3 CHO i ¿ LiAI H 4 ¿ H 3 O [ A ] H 2 S O 4 [B]
¿
¿

(a) C 4 H 10 (b) HC=C ⊖ N a+ ¿¿

Answer(c)
Sol.

39. Identify the major product obtained in the following reaction: (NEET 2023) [NC27013]
 (a) (b)

(c) (d)

Answer (a)
Sol. Ammoniacal silver nitrate solution is Tollens’ reagent. Tollens’ reagent can be used to distinguish
aldehyde & ketone as aldehyde upon warming with Tollens’ reagent produces a silver mirror due to
formation of silver metal in alkaline medium. Aldehyde is oxidised to corresponding carboxylate anion.

40. The product formed in the following chemical reaction is (NEET 2021)

a) b)
 c) d)

(b):

41. Assertion: Ketones react with ethylene glycol to form cyclic products known as ethylene glycol ketals in
presence of dry HCl. (ARC26Q01)
Reason: Dry hydrogen chloride protonates the oxygen of the carbonyl compounds and therefore, increases
the electrophilicity of the carbonyl carbon facilitating the nucleophilic attack of glycol.

Sol: (a)
42. Assertion: All ketones on reaction with Grignard reagent, followed by hydrolysis yield tertiary alcohols.
(ARC26Q02)
Reason: All aldehydes on reaction with Grignard reagent followed by hydrolysis yield secondary alcohols.

Sol: (c)

43. Assertion: Mixture of benzaldehyde and acetaldehyde in hot alkaline medium gives cinnamaldehyde.
Reason: Benzaldehyde is strong electrophile than acetaldehyde. (ARC26Q03)

Sol: (c)

44. Assertion : The boiling points of aldehydes and ketones are higher than hydrocarbons and ethers
of comparable molecular masses. (ARC26Q04)
Reason : There is a weak molecular association in aldehydes and ketones arising out of the
dipole-dipole interactions.

Sol: (a)

45. Assertion : The molecular mass of acetic acid in benzene is 120 instead of 60. (ARC26Q05)
Reason : The carboxylic acids exist as cyclic dimers in which the two molecules of the acid are
held together by two strong hydrogen bonds.

Sol: (a)
46. Statement-I: The higher acids are wax like solids and are practically odourless due to their low
volatility. (STC26Q06)
Statement-II: Carboxylic acids upto nine carbon atoms are higher boiling point liquids than carbonyl
compounds and even alcohols of comparable molecular masses.

Sol: (b)
47. Statement-I: In Aldol reaction, name aldol is derived from the names of the two functional
groups, aldehyde & alcohol, present in the products. (STC26Q07)
Statement-II: The aldol & ketol do not readily lose water to give aldol condensation product.

Sol: (c)

48. Statement-I: The carbon-oxygen double bond is polarised due to less electronegativity of oxygen
relative to carbon. (STC26Q08)
Statement-II: Carbonyl carbon is an electrophilic & carbonyl oxygen is a nucleophilic center.

Sol: (d)

49. Statement-I: Carbonyl compounds have substantial dipole moments and are polar than ethers.
Statement-II: The high polarity of the carbonyl group is explained on the basis of resonance
involving a neutral & a dipolar structures. (STC26Q09)

Sol: (b)
50. Statement-I: Electronically, Aldehydes are less reactive than ketones towards Nucleophilic
Addition Reaction. (STC26Q10)
Statement-II: Two Alkyl groups increase the electrophilicity of the carbonyl more effectively.

Sol: (a)

51. Read the following statements and choose the correct option (STC26Q01)
(i) The carbonyl carbon atom is sp2 -hybridised
(ii) The carbonyl carbon is an electrophilic (Lewis acid)centre
(iii) The carbonyl oxygen is a nucleophilic (Lewis base)centre
(iv) Carbonyl compounds are non- polar in nature.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
(b) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (ii) and (iv) are correct

Sol: (b)
52. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true regardingpreparation of aldehydes and
ketones? (STC26Q02)
(i) Both can be prepared by the oxidation of the concernedalcohol with copper at about
250ºC.
(ii) Both can be prepared by the oxidation of the concernedalcohol by Oppenauer oxidation.
(iii) Both can be prepared by the oxidation of respectivealcohol with acidic dichromate.
(a) (i) only (b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iii) (d) All the three

Sol: (a)
53. Which of the following statements are false? (STC26Q03)
(i) No aldehyde can be prepared by the oxidation of primary alcohol with acidic KMnO4.
(ii) Aldehydes having a boiling point less than 100°C can be prepared by the oxidation of
primary alcohol with acidic dichromate.
(iii) Secondary alcohols on oxidation with PCC in dichloromethane give carboxylic acids
having lesser number of carbon atoms
(iv) Tertiary alcohols can't be oxidised at all
(a) (ii) and (iii) (b) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i), (iii) and (iv) (d) (i), (ii) and (iii)

Sol: (c)

54. Read the following statements and choose the correct option (STC26Q04)
(i) The boiling points of aldehydes and ketones are lower than those of alcohols of similar
molecular masses
(ii) Alcohols show intermolecular hydrogen bonding whereas aldehydes and ketones do not
show
intermolecular hydrogen bonding.
(iii) The lower members of aldehydes and ketones are miscible with water in all proportions,
because they form hydrogen bond with water.
(iv) The solubility of aldehydes and ketones increases rapidly on increasing the length of
alkyl chain
(a) TTFF (b) TFFT
(c) FTTT (d) TTTF

Sol: (d)
55. Aldehydes are generally more reactive than ketones in nucleophilic addition reactions.
Which of the following statements accounts for this? (STC26Q05)
(i) Sterically, the presence of two relatively large substituents in ketones hinders the approach
of
nucleophile to carbonyl carbon
(ii) Aldehydes show resonance whereas ketones do not
(iii) Electronically, the presence of two alkyl groups reduce the electrophilicity of the
carbonyl carbon more effectively.
(iv) Electronically carbonyl carbon atom in ketones is more electrophilic than in aldehydes
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (i) and (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (ii) and (iv)

Sol: (a)
56. Match the column (MFC26Q01)
Column-I Column-II
(Transformations) (Reagents)
(a) Allyl alcohol to propenal (p) K2Cr2O7/H⊕
(b) Ethane nitrile to ethanal (q) O3/H2O-Zn dust
(c) 1-hexanol to hexanoic acid (r) PCC
(d) 2-Butene to ethanal (s) DIBAL-H

a) a = p, b = s, c = r, d = q
b) a = r, b = p, c = s, d = q
c) a = r, b = s, c = p, d = q
d) a = s, b = p, c = q, d = r

Sol: c) a = r, b = s, c = p, d = q

57. Match the column (MFC26Q02)

Column-I Column-II
(Compounds) (Common Name)

(a) (p) Isobutyraldehyde

(b) (CH3)2C=CHCOCH3 (q) Acrolein
(c) (CH3)2CHCHO (r) Mesityl oxide
(d) CH2=CH–CHO (s) o-Phthalaldehyde
a) a = r, b = p, c = q, d = s
b) a = s, b = r, c = p, d = q
c) a = r, b = s, c = p, d = q
d) a = s, b = p, c = q, d = r

Sol: b) a = s, b = r, c = p, d = q

58. Match the column (MFC26Q03)

Column-I Column-II
(Aldol Reaction) (Products)
(a) 2CH3CHO dil . NaOH (p) CH3C(OH)CH3.CH2COCH3
→

(b) 2CH3COCH3 dil . NaOH

→
(q) CH3CH(OH)CH2CHO

(c) 2HCHO Conc .→NaOH (r) C6H5CH2OH+HCOONa

(d) C6H5CHO+HCHO Conc .→NaOH (s) CH3OH + HCOONa

a) a = r, b = s, c = q, d = p
b) a = q, b = p, c = s, d = r
c) a = q, b = s, c = r, d = p
d) a = r, b = p, c = s, d = p

Sol: b) a = q, b = p, c = s, d = r
59. Match the column (MFC26Q04)
Column-I Column-II
(Compound) (pKa)
(a) Benzoic acid (p) 4.76
(b) Acetic acid (q) 0.23

(c) (r) 4.19

(d) Trifluoro acetic acid (s) 4.46

a) a = s, b = p, c = q, d = r
b) a = s, b = q, c = r, d = q
c) a = r, b = p, c = s, d = q
d) a = r, b = q, c = p, d = s

Sol: c) a = r, b = p, c = s, d = q

60. Match the column (MFC26Q05)

Column-I Column-II
(Compound) (Boiling point)
(a) Propanal (p) 370
(b) Acetone (q) 322
(c) 1-Propanol (r) 273
(d) n-Butane (s) 329

a) a = q, b = s, c = p, d = r
b) a = q, b = p, c = s, d = r
c) a = p, b = q, c = r, d = s
d) a = p, b = q, c = s, d = r

Sol: a) a = q, b = s, c = p, d = r

Amines
1. Identify the product in the following reaction: (NEET 2023) [NC28005]

Answer (d)
Sol:
 2. Which of the following reactions will NOT give primary amine as the product? (NEET 2023) [NC28006]
( i ) LiAI H 4
(a) CH 3 NC ¿ Product
¿
¿
(b) CH 3 CON H 2 ( i ) LiAI H 4 Product
¿

(c) CH 3 CON H 2 Br 2 / KoH Product

→

(d) CH 3 CN ( i ) LiAI H 4 Product

¿

Answer (c)
Sol.
(I) CH 3 NC ( i ) LiAI H 4
¿
O
∥
(II)
CH 3−C −NH 2 ( i ) LiAI H 4
¿

(III) CH 3−C ≡ N (i ) LiAI H 4

¿
O

(IV)CH −C −NH Br2 CH −NH

∥

3 2 3 2
KoH ¿
¿
3. Statement-I : Aromatic amines are less basic than ammonia and aliphatic amine. (STC27Q06)
Statement-II : Generally in substituted aniline, it is observed that electron releasing groups increase
basic strength whereas electron withdrawing groups decrease it.

Sol: (b)
4. Statement-I : Out of Butan-1-ol and butan-1-amine, Butan-1-ol is more soluble in water.
(STC27Q10)
Statement-II : Alcohols are more polar than Amine so Amines form stronger intermolecular
hydrogen bonds than alcohol.

Sol: (c)
5. Which of the following statements are correct ? (STC27Q02)
(i) Lower aliphatic amines are soluble in water.
(ii) Solubility increases with decrease in molar mass of amines.
(iii) Higher amines are insoluble in water.
(iv) Amines are soluble in organic solvents.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iv)
Sol: (b)
6. Which of the following is/are correct regarding nitration of aniline with conc. HNO 3 and conc.
H2SO4 ? (STC27Q04)

(i)

(ii)
(iii) The substitution can be explained on the basis of inductive effect (– I)
(iv) The substitution can be influenced by +M and +E effects.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iii)

Sol: (b)

Biomolecules
1. Which of the following statement is not true for glucose?
(JEE Main Jan. 2020)
a) Glucose exists in two crystalline forms  and 
b) Glucose gives Schiff’s test for aldehyde
c) Glucose reacts with hydroxylamine to form oxime.
d) The pentaacetane of glucose does not react with hydroxylamine to give oxime.

Ans: (b)
Sol: Glucose exists in cyclic form in which aldehyde group is not free, therefore it does not give
Schiff’s test.
2. The correct observation in the following reaction is:
'
Sucrose Glycosidic
→
bond A + B Seliwanof f s reagent ?
→
(JEE Main Sep. 2020)
a) Formation of blue colour
b) Gives no colour
c) Formation of red colour
d) Formation of voilet colour

Ans: (c)
 Sol: Schiwanoff reagent  [Resorcinol + Conc. HCl]. It is used to distinguish aldoses and
ketones. Ketones show red colour whereas aldoses show light pink colour with Schiwanoff
reagent.
3. Out of the following , which type of interaction is responsible for the stabilisation of α -helix
structure of proteins?
(JEE Main Feb. 2021)
a) vander waals forces b) Covalent bonding
c) Ionic bonding d) Hydrogen bonding

Ans: (d)
Sol:

α−helix structure of proteins is stabilized by H−bonds between hydrogen of −NH & oxygen of −C=O.
4. The secondary structure of protein is stabilized by:
(JEE Main March 2021)
a) van der Waals forces b) Peptide bond
c) Hydrogen bonding d) glycosidic bond

Ans: (c)
Sol: The secondary structure of protein is stabilized by H-bonding.
5. Among the following compounds most basic amino acid is:
(JEE Main Jan. 2019)
a) Asparagine b) Lysine
c) Serine d) Histidine

Ans: (b)
Sol: Lysine
6. Given below are two statements : (NEET 2023) [NC29003]
Statement I : A unit formed by the attachment of a base to 1' position of sugar is known as
nucleoside.
Statement II : When nucleoside is linked to phosphorous acid at 5' -position of sugar moiety, we get
nucleotide.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(a) Statement I is true but Statement II is false (b) Statement I is false but Statement II
is true
 (c) Both Statement I and Statement II are true (d) Both Statement I and Statement II
are false

Answer (a)
Sol. A unit formed by the attachment of a base to 1' position of sugar is known as nucleoside. In
nucleosides, the sugar carbons are numbered as 1 ,′2 ,′3′, etc. in order to distinguish these from the
bases (Fig.(a)). When nucleoside is linked to phosphate group at 5′ -position of sugar moiety, we
get a nucleotide (Fig.(b)).

Fig. : Structure of (a) a nucleoside and (b) a nucleotide

7. Assertion :- Glucose gets oxidised to six carbon carboxylic acid (gluconic acid) on reaction with
a mild oxidising agent like Br2 water. (ARC28Q01)
Reason :- This indicates the presence of a primary alcoholic (–OH) group in glucose.

Sol: (c)
8. Assertion : Amino acids are water soluble, high melting solids & behave like salts rather than
simple amines or carboxylic acids. (ARC28Q02)
Reason : This behaviour is due to presence of both acidic (–COOH) & basic (–NH2) groups in the
same molecule.

Sol: (a)
9. Assertion : Sucrose is called an invert sugar. (ARC28Q03)
Reason : On hydrolysis, sucrose bring the change in the sign of rotation from dextro (+) to
laevo(–).

Sol: (a)
10. Statement-I: the pentaacetate of glucose does not react with hydroxylamine indicating the
absence of free –CHO group. (STC28Q06)
Statement-II: Despite having the aldehyde group, glucose does not give schiff's test and it does not
form the hydrogen-sulphite addition product with NaHSO3.

Sol: (b)
11. Statement-I: All carbohydrates which reduce Fehling's solution and Tollen's reagent are refered
to as reducing sugars. (STC28Q07)
Statement-II: All disaccharides whether aldose or ketose are reducing sugares.

Sol: (c)
12. Statement-I: Sucrose is laevorotatory but after hydrolysis gives dextrorotatory glucose and
laevorotatory fructose. (STC28Q08)
Statement-II: Hydrolysis of sucrose brings about a change in the sign of rotation, from dextro (+) to
laevo (–) and the product is named as invert sugar.

Sol: (d)
13. Statement-I: Only α–Amino acids are obtained on hydrolysis of proteins. (STC28Q09)
Statement-II: The amino acids which can be synthesised in body are known as essential amino acids.

Sol: (c)
14. Statement-I: In Zwitter ionic form, Amino acids show amphoteric behaviour as they react both
with acid & bases. (STC28Q10)
Statement-II: Most natural occurring amino acids have D-configuration.

Sol: (c)
15. Read the following statements and choose the correct answer? (STC28Q01)
(i) All monosaccharides are reducing sugars.
(ii) All monosaccharides are not reducing sugars.
(iii) In disaccharides if aldehydic or ketonic groups are bonded, these are non– reducing sugars.
(iv) In disaccharides if aldehydic or ketonic groups are free, these are reducing sugars.
(a) (i), (iii) and (iv) (b) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iv)
Sol: (a)
16. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? (STC28Q02)
(i) Glucose is reducing sugar
(ii) Sucrose is reducing sugar
(iii) Maltose is non reducing sugar
(iv) Lactose is reducing sugar
(a) (i) and (ii) only (b) (i) and (iii) only
(c) (i) and (iv) only (d) All of these

Sol: (c)
17. Which of the following statements regarding carbohydrates are correct? (STC28Q03)
(i) Lactose is the carbohydrate found in milk.
(ii) More than 25 monosaccharides occur naturally.
(iii) Sucrose on hydrolysis gives one molecule each of glucose and fructose.
(iv) Maltose is a non-reducing sugar whereas sucrose is a reducing disaccharide sugar.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (d) (iii) and (iv)

Sol: (b)
18. Read the following statements. (STC28Q04)
(i) Pyran is a cyclic organic compound with one oxygen atom and five carbon atom.
(ii) The cyclic structure of glucose is correctly represented by Haworth strucure.
(iii) Five membered cyclic structure of glucose is called pyranose structure.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are true?
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (i) and (ii)
(c) Only (iii) (d) (i), (ii) and (iii)

Sol: (b)
19. Consider the following statements. (STC28Q05)
(i) Linkage between two monosaccharide units through oxygen atom is called glycosidic linkage.
(ii) Sucrose on hydrolysis gives an equimolar mixture of fructose and glucose which is dextrorotatory.
(iii) Lactose consists of linkage between C1 of galactose and C4 of glucose.
(iv) Out of two components of starch the component present in greater proportion is insoluble in
water.
(v) Glycogen is also known as animal starch because it is structurally similar to amylose a component
of starch.
Which of the following is the correct code for statements above?
(a) FFFTT (b) FTTTF
(c) TFTFT (d) TFTTF
Sol: (d)
20. Match the column. (MFC28Q01)

Column-I Column-II
(Carbohydrates) (Source or name)
(a) Sucrose (p) Animal starch
(b) Lactose (q) Cereals, roots, tubers
(c) Glycogen (r) Milk sugar
(d) Starch (s) Cane sugar
a) a – r, b – s, c – q, d - p
b) a – s, b – r, c – p, d - q
c) a – s, b – p, c – r, d - q
d) a – p, b – q, c – r, d – s

Sol: b) a – s, b – r, c – p, d - q

21. Match the column. (MFC28Q02)

Column-I Column-II
(Reaction of Glucose) (Product)
(a) Glucose HI , ∆ (p) Osazone
→

(b) Glucose
Br 2 water (q) n-Hexane
→

(c) Glucose Nitric

→
acid (r) Gluconic acid
¿
(d) Glucose H ⊕ s) Saccharic acid
a) a – q, b – s, c – p, d - r
b) a – q, b – p, c – r, d - s
c) a – q, b – s, c – r, d - p
d) a – q, b – r, c – s, d – p

Sol: d) a – q, b – r, c – s, d – p

22. Match the column. (MFC28Q03)

Column-I Column-II
(Carbohydrates) (Monosaccharide unit)
(a) Maltose (p) β-D-Glucose
(b) Lactose (q) Two α-D-Glucose
(c) Cellulose (r) β-D-Galactose & β-D-Glucose
(d) Sucrose (s) α-D-Glucose & β-D-Fructose
a) a – q, b – s, c – r, d - p
b) a – q, b – r, c – p, d - s
c) a – r, b – s, c – p, d - q
d) a – r, b – p, c – q, d – s
 Sol: b) a – q, b – r, c – p, d - s

23. Match the column. (MFC28Q04)

Column-I Column-II
(Vitamins) (Sources)
(a) Vitamin-A (p) Exposure to sunlight
(b) Vitamin-B12 (q) Yeast, milk
(c) Vitamin-B6 (r) Meat
(d) Vitamin-D (s) Fish liver oil
a) a - s, b - r, c - q, d - p
b) a - s, b - q, c - p, d - r
c) a - q, b - s, c - r, d - p
d) a - r, b - p, c - q, d – s

Sol: a) a - s, b - r, c - q, d - p

24. Match the column. (MFC28Q05)

Column-I Column-II
(Vitamins) (Disease)
(a) Vitamin-B1 (p) Scurvy
(b) Vitamin-B6 (q) Blood clotting delay
(c) Vitamin-C (r) Beri-Beri
(d) Vitamin-K (s) Convulsions
a) a - r, b - p, c - q, d - s
b) a - s, b - q, c - p, d - r
c) a - r, b - s, c - p, d - q
d) a - q, b - r, c - s, d – p

Sol: c) a - r, b - s, c - p, d - q