1

A SPOTLIGHT ON MCQs AND FIBs-2022-23

01. THE SOLID STATE (Question no.1)
1. Among the following statements the correct statement with respect to amorphous
solids is;
a) They are anisotropic in nature b) They are isotropic in nature
c) They have sharp melting point d) They have definite enthalpy of fusion
2. In non-polar molecular solids, the particles are held together by;
a) Hydrogen bond b) ionic bond c) covalent bond d) London forces
3. A unit cell contains 8 corner atoms & one body centred atom. The contribution of each
corner atom to that particular unit cell is;
1 1 1
a) b) c) 1 d)
2 8 4
4. In a two-dimensional square close packing of spheres, each sphere is in direct contact
with;
a) two neighbouring spheres b) three neighbouring spheres
c) four neighbouring spheres d) five neighbouring spheres
𝑧𝑀
5. In the calculation of density of a unit cell by using formula, 𝑑 = , the value of ‘z’ for
𝑎 3 𝑁𝐴
a simple cubic unit cell is;
a) one b) two c) three d) four
6. If in a crystalline solid, a deviation from ideal arrangement of particles is observed only
around an atom, then the defect is called;
a) Line defect b) Point defect
c) Both line & point defect d) Neither line nor point defect
7. A crystalline solid which exhibits both Schottky & Frenkel defects is;
a) CsCl b) NaCl c) AgBr d) ZnS
8. A molten NaCl containing a little amount of SrCl2 is crystallised. In that crystal each Sr2+
ion replaces;
a) One Na+ ion b) Two Na+ ions c) Three Na+ ions d) Four Na+ ions
9. A solid exhibits an electrical conductivity ranging between 10-6 to 10+4 ohm-1m-1. Then
the solid is a;
a) Conductor b) Insulator c) Semiconductor d) Super conductor
10. The conductivity of an intrinsic semiconductor is increased by adding an appropriate
amount of impurity & the process is called;
a) Doping b) F-centre c) Crystallization d) Condensation
11. In ccp crystal, if number of octahedral voids is ‘N’ then the number of tetrahedral voids
is;
a) 2N b) N/2 c) 3N d) N2
12. O2 is a paramagnetic substance & the paramagnetism in O2 is due to;
a) Protons b) Neutrons c) Unpaired electrons d) Paired electrons
13. When a metal oxide is placed in an applied magnetic field, it experiences a weak
attraction by the magnetic field, then it is a;
a) Diamagnetic substance b) Paramagnetic substance
c) Ferromagnetic substance d) Ferrimagnetic substance
 2

14. If all the domains of a substance are oriented in the same direction of an applied
magnetic field, then the substance is;
a) Ferrimagnetic substance b) Antiferromagnetic substance
c) Diamagnetic substance d) Ferromagnetic substance
15. A unit cell which has particles at corners and centres of two opposite faces is called:
a) end-centred b) face centred c) body centred d) primitive
16. In two-dimensional hexagonal close packed arrangement of particles, the co-ordination
number is;
a) Two b) Four c) Six d) Twelve
17. Among the following solids, an example for an Amorphous solid is;
a) Sodium Chloride b) Quartz c) glass d) Zinc Chloride
18. When a solid is cut with sharp edged tool, it forms two pieces with irregular surfaces
then the solid is;
a) Amorphous solid b) Crystalline solid c) Conductor d) Semi-conductor
19. Among the following, the one which is not a type of a crystalline solid;
a) Network solids b) Metallic solids c) Ionic solids d) Pseudo solids
20. n-type semiconductor is obtained when Silicon is doped with
a) divalent atom b) trivalent atom c) tetravalent atom d) pentavalent atom

SOLIDS ANSWER KEY

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
B D B C A B C B C A
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A C B D A C C A D D

02. SOLUTIONS (Question no. 2 and 3)

1. Which of the following is a colligative property?
a) Osmosis b) Osmotic pressure c) Optical activity d) Boiling point
2. Osmotic pressure of the solution can be increased by;
a) Increasing the temperature of the solution
b) Decreasing the temperature of the solution
c) Increasing the volume of the vessel
d) Adding more solvent.
3. Addition of a non-volatile solute in a volatile solvent;
a) Increases the freezing point of the solvent
b) Decreases the vapour pressure of the solvent
c) Decreases the boiling of the solvent
d) Increases the vapour pressure of the solvent
4. Desalination of sea water can be done by;
a) Reverse osmosis b) Osmosis c) Filtration d) Diffusion
5. When a particular solution has higher osmotic pressure than a given standard solution,
it is most appropriately called as ..........with respect to the standard solution;
a) Hypotonic b) Hypertonic c) Isotonic d) Per tonic
 3

6. for a solution of volatile liquids, the vapour pressure of a solution a component is

directly proportional to its mole fraction it in solution. This statement is called;
a) Henry’s Law b) Kohlrausch law c) Raoult's law d) Faraday’s law
7. What happens to freezing point of benzene when naphthalene is dissolved?
a) Increases b) Decreases
c) Remains unchanged d) First decreases and then increases
8. Unit of molarity is;
a) moles/litre b) moles/kg c) kg/moles d) millimoles/gram
9. Which of the following is not affected by temperature change?
a) Molarity b) W/V % c) Molality d) V/V %
10. Camphor dissolved in nitrogen gas is an example for solution of the type;
a) Liquid in liquid b) Solid in liquid c) Solid in solid d) Solid in gas
11. What happens when blood cells are placed in pure water?
a) The fluid in blood cells rapidly moves into water.
b) The water molecules rapidly move into blood cells.
c) The blood cells dissolve in water.
d) No change takes place.
12. A binary solution is;
a) a heterogeneous mixture of two components
b) a compound of two components
c) a homogeneous mixture of two components
d) a colloid
13. Van’t Hoff factor for K2SO4 when dissolved in water (assume complete dissociation) is;
a) 3 b) 1 c) 2 d) 0
14. The dissolution of a gas in a liquid is governed by;
a) Raoult's law b) Henry's law c) Boyle's law d) van't Hoff factor.
15. The van't Hoff factor ‘i’ for a dilute aqueous solution of sucrose is;
a) 1.0 b) 0 c) 1.5 d) 2.0
16. One part of solute in one million parts of solvent is expressed as;
a) ppm b) milligrams/100 cc c) grams/litre d) grams /100 cc
17. Which of the following is true for an ideal solution?
a) ∆𝐻𝑚𝑖𝑥 = 0 b) ∆𝑆𝑚𝑖𝑥 = 0 c) ∆𝐺𝑚𝑖𝑥 = 0 d) ∆𝐻𝑚𝑖𝑥 < 0
18. Which of the following will show a negative deviation from Raoult’s law?
a) Acetone-benzene b) Acetone-CS2
c) Benzene-methanol d) Acetone-chloroform
19. Which of the following is an example of maximum boiling azeotrope?
a) 95% Ethanol + 5% Water b) Benzene + Toluene
c) 68% HNO3 + 32% Water d) n-Hexane + n-Heptane
20. Osmosis is the flow, through semipermeable membrane, of
a) Solvent molecules from pure solvent to solution
b) Solvent molecules from a solution of lower concentration to that higher
concentration
c) Solute molecules from a solution of higher concentration to that at lower
 4

concentration
d) Both a) and b) above
FILL IN THE BLANKS
1. Alloy of copper and gold is an example for solid dissolved in______________ (solid).
2. If solute is present in trace amounts, then concentration is expressed in
__________(ppm).
3. The maximum amount of a solute that can be dissolved in a given amount of solvent at
a given temperature is called ___________________ (solubility).
4. p = KH x is the mathematical form of _____________ law (Henry’s law).
5. The plot of vapour pressure of a liquid and mole fraction is linear for an _________
solution (ideal).
6. Colligative properties do not depend upon the nature of ____________ (solute).
7. _____________ is an example for a synthetic semipermeable membrane.
8. At a given temperature osmotic pressure of a solution proportional to the ___________
(molarity)
9. Abnormal molar mass of solute is due to association or __________ of its
particles(dissociation).
10. Low oxygen level in blood in high altitude regions causes _______(anoxia).
Solution-Answer key
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
B A B A B C B A B C
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
B C A B B A A D C D

03. ELECTROCHEMISTRY (Question no.4)

1. Which of the following is the best conductor of electricity in aqueous solution?
a) HCl b) Cane sugar c) Glycerine d) Urea
2. NaCl is a strong electrolyte because it;
a) Conducts electricity only in molten state
b) Dissociates completely into ions at all concentrations in water
c) Dissolves readily in water
d) Dissociates into its constituent ions only at infinite dilution
3. Faraday constant is equal to;
a) 96487 b) 96487 C c) 96487 C mol-1 d) 96487 mol C-1
4. The quantity of electricity required to deposit 1 mol Na at cathode is;
a) 2F b) 96500 F c) 96500 C d) 1 coulomb
5. How many faradays are required to reduce a mole of MnO4 - to Mn+2?
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5
6. Standard electrode potential refers to the electrode potential of;
a) The metal in combination with 1 mol L-1 solution of its ions.
b) The metal in combination with its ions of any concentration.
 5

c) The metal in combination with 1kg L-1 solution of its ions.

d) The metal alone.
7. Which of the following metals cannot displace copper from copper sulphate solution?
a) silver b) Magnesium c) Iron d) Aluminium
8. Cell reaction for Cu(s)│Cu (aq)║Ag (aq)│Ag(s) is;
+2 +

a) Cu(s) + Ag+ (aq) →Cu+2(aq) + Ag(s) b) Cu+2(aq) + 2Ag(s) → Cu(s) + 2Ag+(aq)

c) Cu(s) + 2Ag(s) →Cu+2(aq) + 2Ag+(aq) d) Cu(s) + 2Ag+ (aq) →Cu+2(aq) + 2Ag(s)
9. If the half–cell reaction, F + e- → F ⁻ (aq) has a large negative reduction potential, it
means that;
a) F is readily oxidised b) F⁻ is readily reduced
c) F is readily reduced d) F⁻ is readily oxidised
10. The e.m.f. of the cell Zn(s)│Zn (1.0M) ║ Cu+2 (1.0 M) │Cu(s) at 298 K is;
+2
0
Given: Zn+2 (aq) + 2e- →Zn(s) 𝐸𝑍𝑛 = - 0.76 V
+2 - 0
Cu (aq) + 2e → Cu(s) 𝐸𝐶𝑢 = +0.34 V
a) -1.10 V b) +1.10 V c) -0.42 V d) +0.42 V
11. Which of these is NOT related to standard hydrogen electrode?
a) pressure of H2 = 1 bar b) concentration of H+ =1M
c) temperature = 273K d) potential is taken as = 0 volt.
12. Which of the following ion will be oxidised at the anode when we electrolyze dilute
sulphuric acid?
a) H3O+ b) OH⁻ c) 𝑆𝑂42− d) H2O
13. H2-O2 fuel cell will use H2 and O2 in the ratio _____ by mole;
a) 2 : 1 b) 1 : 2 c) 1 : 4 d) 1 : 16
14. Electrolysis of aqueous sodium chloride (NaCl) will produce;
a) Na at cathode and H2 gas at anode b) Cl2 at anode and H2 gas at cathode
c) both Na and Cl2 produced at the cathode d) Na at cathode and Cl2 gas at anode
15. The SI unit of molar conductivity is;
a) S b) m⁻1 c) Sm⁻1 d) Sm2mol⁻1
16. According to Faraday’s first law, the amount of a reaction at an electrode is
proportional to;
a) 𝐼 .𝑡 b) I only c) t only d) 𝐼 𝑡
17. Consider, (1) dry cell, (2) Ni-Cd cell and (3) Lead storage cell. Which among them is a
primary battery?
a) 3 only b) all the three c) 1only d) both (2) and (3)
18. In H2-O2 fuel cell (identify the correct statement)
a) Pt or Pd is used as catalyst b) acidic conditions are maintained
c) water is electrolysed d) Pt or Pd is used as electrode

Electrochemistry-Answer key
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
A B C C D A A D C b
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
D D A B D A C A
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04. CHEMICAL KINETICS (Question no.5)

1. If concentration is in mol L-1 and time in seconds, the unit for the rate of a
second order reaction is;
a) mol L-1s -1 b) s -1 c) mol2L-2s -1 d) mol-1Ls-1
2. For a reaction 2HI → H2 + I2, the rate of reaction at a given instant can be
represented by;
𝑑[𝐻𝐼] 2𝑑[𝐻2 ] 𝑑[𝐼2 ]
a) =− =−
𝑑𝑡 𝑑𝑡 𝑑𝑡
1 𝑑[𝐻𝐼] 𝑑[𝐻2 ] 𝑑[𝐼2 ]
b) − 2 =− =−
𝑑𝑡 𝑑𝑡 𝑑𝑡
1 𝑑[𝐻𝐼] 𝑑[𝐻2 ] 𝑑[𝐼2 ]
c) − 2 = =
𝑑𝑡 𝑑𝑡 𝑑𝑡
𝑑[𝐻𝐼] 1 𝑑[𝐻2 ] 1 𝑑[𝐼2 ]
d) − =2 =2
𝑑𝑡 𝑑𝑡 𝑑𝑡
3. In the reaction Hg(l) + Cl2(g) → HgCl2, the rate of appearance of the product will
be;
a) The same as the rate of disappearance of Hg only
b) Twice the rate of disappearance of Cl2
c) Half the rate of disappearance of Cl2
d) Same as the rate of disappearance of any of the reactant
4. The molecularity of a reaction cannot be;
a) Zero b) Fraction c) Both a and b d) Whole number
5. A first order reaction is 50 percent completed in ‘t’ seconds. The rate constant in
s-1 is;
0.693 𝑡
a) 0.693  t b) 6.93  t c) d) 0.693 × 2
𝑡
6. For the reaction, CHCl3 + Cl2 → CCl4 + HCl, the rate = k [CHCl3] [Cl2]1/2. Hence the
rate;
a) depends only on the concentration of CHCl3
b) depends only on the concentration of Cl2
c) independent of the concentrations of the reactants
d) depends on the concentration of both CHCl3 & Cl2
7. If concentration is given in molL-1 and time in s, the unit of half-life of the 1st
order reaction is;
a) molL-1s-1 b) s c) mol2L-2 min-1 d) s-1
8. Half-life of a zero-order reaction is given as;
1 𝑅0 𝑅 𝑅0
a) 𝑅 b) c) 2𝑘0 d)
0 2 𝑘
9. The rate constant of a zero-order reaction is given as;
[𝑅0 ]−[𝑅] [𝑅0 ] [𝑅0 ] [𝑅0 ]
a) b) c) d)
𝑡 2 𝑡 𝑘
10. Which of the following is a correct regarding the rate of a first order reaction?
a) varies inversely as t b) independent of t
c) proportional to [𝑅]0 d) varies inversely as [𝑅]0
11. For which order reaction the rate constant will have the same units as the rate
of reaction?
a) Fraction b) One c) Zero d) Three
12. The acid–catalysed hydrolysis of an ester;
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𝑎𝑐𝑖𝑑 𝐻 +
CH3COOC2H5(l) + H2O(l) → CH3COOH(l) + C2H5OH(l), rate=k [ester] [H2O],
What is the overall order of the reaction if water is present in large excess?
a) Zero b) One c) Two d) Three
13. The Arrhenius equation accounts for the rate of a chemical reaction in terms of
the;
a) concentration of reactants b) activation energy
c) physical states of the reactants d) order of reaction
14. For a chemical reaction, for a 10 degree rise in temperature, the rate
constant(k);
𝑘
a) Becomes 2 b) Remains same c) Becomes 10.k d) Almost doubles
15. While studying the decomposition of ammonia on
hot platinum surface, according to the equation,
2NH3(g) → N2(g) + 3H2(g), it is observed that a plot
of its concentration versus time is as given below, which
of the following statement is CORRECT?
a) Slope of the line is -k b) Order of the reaction is 1.
c) Unit of k is s-1 d) Rate is proportional to [R]o
1
16. For Arrhenius equation, the plot of ln k versus 𝑇 is a straight line with slope
equals to;
𝐸𝑎
a) −𝐸𝑎 𝑥 𝑅 b) Ea x 2.303 x R c) − d) 𝐸𝑎 2.303𝑅
𝑅
17. With respect to a catalyst, which of the following is correct?
(A)It is required in large amounts,
(B) it reduces activation energy,
(C) it provides a different pathway for a reaction
a) All are correct b) Only A c) Only B d) Both B and C
Kinetics-Answer key
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
D C D C C D B C A A
11 12 13 14 15 16 17
C B B D A C D

05. SURFACE CHEMISTRY (Question no.6)

1. Free energy change (G) and entropy change(S) for adsorption are;
a) Both positive b) Both negative
c) Both are zero d) G positive, S negative
2. Which is correct in case of physisorption?
a) Not specific b) High temperature
c) High enthalpy change d) Irreversible
𝑥
3. For adsorption of a gas on a solid, the plot of log 𝑚 vs log P is linear with slope
equal to (n is a whole number);
1
a) k b) log k c) n d) 𝑛
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4. Which of the following is not correct regarding the physical adsorption of a gas
on the solid surface?
a) On increasing surface area, extent of adsorption increases
b) Easily liquifiable gases are easily adsorbed
c) Adsorption is more for specific substance
d) It is a reversible
5. Which of the following is not correct regarding chemisorption?
a) Requires high energy of activation
b) Multilayer adsorption
c) High enthalpy of adsorption
d) Irreversible
1
𝑥
6. In Freundlich adsorption isotherm 𝑚 = 𝑘𝑝𝑛 , the value of n at low pressure is;
a) More than one b) Less than one
c) Equal to one d) From zero to one
7. The catalyst remains unchanged at the end of the reaction in;
a) Quality b) Chemical composition
c) Quality and chemical composition d) Chemical composition and quantity.
8. A finely divided state of the catalyst is more effective as in this state;
a) More surface area is available b) More energy is stored in the catalyst
c) Catalyst shows variable oxidation state d) More enthalpy of adsorption.
9. One of the following is an example of heterogeneous catalysis.
a) Formation of SO3 in lead chamber process
b) Formation of SO3 in contact process
c) Acid hydrolysis of ester
d) Acid hydrolysis of sucrose
10. According to adsorption theory of catalysis, which of the following is WRONG?
a) The concentration of the reactant molecules on the surface of the catalyst
becomes high
b) Desorption of products is very difficult
c) Adsorption produces heat which increases the speed of the reaction
d) Adsorption lowers the action energy of the reaction.
11. Which shape selective catalyst is used to convert alcohol to gasoline?
a) Trypsin b) Calgon c) ZSM-5 d) Zeigler-Natta catalyst.
12. The size of the colloidal particle is;
a) 10-9– 10-6m b) 10-9 – 10 –12m c) 10-3– 10-9m d) 10-3–10-6 m
13. When a small amount of FeCl3 is added to a freshly prepared Fe(OH)3, A reddish
brown colloidal solution is obtained. This phenomenon is known as;
a) Dialysis b) Peptization c) Protection d) Dissolution
14. Which of the following sols, can be prepared by Bredig’s arc method?
a) As2S3 b) Fe(OH)3 c) Sulphur sol d) Gold sol
15. At high concentration of soap in water, soap behaves as………….colloid;
a) Molecular b) Associated c) Macromolecular d) Lyophilic
 9

16. Micelle is formed;

a) Above Kraft temperature and above CMC
b) Above Kraft temperature and below CMC
c) Below Kraft temperature and above CMC
d) Below Kraft temperature and below CMC
17. In the preparation of negatively charged AgI sol, which of the following to be
added?
a) KI b) AgCl c) AgNO3 d) AgCN
18. Reversible sols are;
a) Lyophobic colloid b) Lyophilic colloid
c) Difficult to prepare d) Coagulated easily
19. Colloidal particles carry same charge. This can be shown by;
a) Electrophoresis b) Dialysis
c) Tyndall effect d) Brownian movement
20. Random zig-zag motion of colloidal particles is known as;
a) Dialysis b) Tyndall effect
c) Electrodialysis d) Brownian movement
Surface chemistry-Answer key

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
B A D C B A D A D B
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
C A B D B A A B A D

06. GENERAL PRINCIPLES AND PROCESSES OF ISOLATION OF ELEMENTS

(Question no.7)
1. The common depressant used in froth floatation process for separation of ZnS
and PbS is;
a) Sodium cyanide b) Cresols c) Xanthates d) Pine oil
2. In the blast furnace, the highest temperature is in;
a) Slag zone b) Reduction zone
c) Combustion zone d) Fusion zone
3. The process for concentration of sulphide ore is;
a) Smelting b) Roasting c) Calcination d) froth flotation
4. The process of zone refining is used in the purification of;
a) Al b) Si c) Ag d) Cu
5. Which of the following is NOT an ore?
a) Pig iron b) Zinc blend c) Bauxite d) Malachite
6. Which is an oxide ore of iron?
a) Haematite b) Magnetite c) Iron pyrites d) Both a and b
7. In Hall-Heroult process, Na3AlF6 or CaF2 is added to alumina to;
a) Lower the melting point of mix b) Increase the conductivity
c) Reduce the ore d) Both a and b
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8. ZnO is reduced using;

a) Coke b) H2 c) ZnS d) CO
9. The process by which carbonate ore can be converted into oxide;
a) Roasting b) Zone refining
c) Vapour phase refining d) Calcination
10. In the leaching of gold from its native ore, a cyanide complex is formed, which is
reduced by;
a) Coke b) CO c) H2 d) Zn
11. Tin is refined by;
a) Distillation b) Liquation c) Electrolytic method d) Vapour phase refining
12. Mond’s process is used to refine;
a) Gold b) Al c) Ni d) Zn
13. With respect to the metallurgy of copper, which of the following is WRONG?
a) Copper matte contains Cu2S and FeS
b) Solidified copper has blistered appearance due to evolution of SO 2
c) Cu2O is reduced by Cu2S
d) Silica is added to remove any other metal
14. Gravity separation is applied for;
a) Ores and gangue having difference in gravities
b) Ores and gangue having difference in magnetic properties
c) Mixture of sulphide ores
d) Both a and b
15. Which of the following is collected as anode mud during electrolytic refining of
copper?
a) Mg and Ba b) Si and Ge c) Au, Ag and Pt d) Zn and Al

General principles & Processes of isolation of elements-Answer key:

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
A C D B A D A A D D
11 12 13 14 15
B C D A C

06. p-BLOCK ELEMENTS-NOBLE GASES (from GROUP 18) (Question No. 8)

1. Identify the wrong statement with respect to the noble gases;
a) Soluble in water b) Mono atomic
c) Have low boiling points d) Occur in very small amounts in air
2. A noble gas that can penetrate through rubber and glass is;
a) Ne b) Kr c) He d) Ar
3. Interatomic interaction among noble gases is;
a) Ionic b) Dipole-dipole
c) Covalent d) Weak dispersion forces
4. Which of the following is NOT correct?
a) Except He all others have ns2np6 valence shell configuration
b) Highly reactive
 11

c) Have high positive electron gain enthalpy

d) Have high ionization enthalpy
5. A WRONG match is;
a) XeF2-linear b) XeF4-square planar
c) XeF6-distorted octahedral d) XeO3-trigonal planar
6. A radioactive noble gas is
a) Ne b) Ra c) He d) Ar

FILL IN THE BLANKS (question no.18)

1. Excess Xenon reacts with F2 at 673K and 1bar pressure to give _________(XeF 2)
2. XeF6 + 3H2O → _________ + 6HF (XeO3)
3. XeF6 + 2H2O → _________ + 4HF (XeO2F2)
4. XeF6 + H2O → _________ + 2HF (XeOF4)
5. First ionization enthalpy of ________ is nearly same as that of Xe. (O2)
6. Xe reacts with PtF6 to give ___________ (Xe⁺PtF6⁻)
7. Xe + 2F2 →_______ at 873K, 7 bar, (XeF4)
p-Block elements (group 18 only) - Answer key
1 2 3 4 5 6
A C D B D B

08. d and f BLOCK ELEMENTS (Question no.9)

1. General electronic configuration of transition metals is;
a) (n-1) d1-10ns2 b) nd10 ns1-2
c) (n-1) d10 ns1-2 d) (n-1) d1-10 ns1-2
2. Which of the following transition metal ions is colourless;
a) V2+ b) Cr+3 c) Zn+2 d) Ti3+
3. Which of the following is used calculate the magnetic moment(μ)?
a) √𝑛 (𝑛 + 2) b) √𝑛 (𝑛 + 1) c) √𝑛 + 2 d) √𝑛 + 1
4. Manganese exhibits maximum oxidation state of;
a) +6 b) +5 c) +7 d) +2
5. Transition metals make the most efficient catalysis because of their ability to;
a) Decrease the energy of activation of the reaction
b) They adsorb and weaken bond within the reactants
c) Adopt multiple oxidation states and to form intermediates
d) All the above
6. A transition metal of 3d-series which does not show variable oxidation state is;
a) Ti b) Sc c) Fe d) Co
7. Colour of transition metal ions are due to absorption of some wavelength, this
results in;
a) d-s transition b) s-s transition
c) s-d transition d) d-d transition
 12

8. Lanthanoid contraction is caused due to;

a) The appreciable shielding on outer electrons by 5d electrons from the nuclear
charge
b) The same effective nuclear charge from Ce to Lu
c) The imperfect shielding of outer electrons by 4f electrons from the nuclear
charge
d) The appreciable shielding of outer electrons by 4f electrons from the nuclear
charge
9. In aqueous solution cuprous ions undergo;
a) Oxidation b) Reduction c) Sublimation d) Disproportionation
10. The gas liberated when lanthanoids are treated with acids is;
a) H2 b) Cl2 c) O2 d) N2
11. A WRONG statement about actinoids is;
a) They are radioactive b) They are found in huge amounts in earth’s crust
c) +7 is the maximum oxidation state d) 5f is progressively filled
12. The element which shows oxidation state of +1 is;
a) Cu b) Sc c) Zn d) Cr
13. Cerium shows oxidation state of +4 because;
a) It resembles alkali metals b) It has very high I.E.
c) It has tendency to attain noble gas configuration
d) It has tendency to attain ns2 configuration
14. Which of the following transition metal will have magnetic moment > 0?
a) Sc3+ b) Ti3+ c) Cu+ d) Zn2+
15. A compound of a metal ion Mx+ (Z = 24) has a spin only magnetic moment of √15
Bohr Magnetons. The number of unpaired electrons in the compound are;
a) 2 b) 4 c) 5 d) 3
16. Potassium dichromate is manufactured from an ore named;
a) Chromite b) Pyrites c) Magnetite d) Siderite
17. Mischmetal is-
a) An alloy of aluminium b) A mixture of chromium and lead chromate
c) An alloy of lanthanoid metals d) An alloy of copper
18. The elements in which electrons are progressively filled in 4f orbital are called;
a) Lanthanoids b) Halogens c) Actinoids d) Transition elements

d& f block Elements-Answer key

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
D C A C D B D C D A
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
B A C B D A C A

09. CO-ORDINATION COMPOUNDS (Question no. 10)

1. A double salt among the following is;
a) NaCl b) K4[Fe (CN)6] c) Mohr’ salt d) Mixture NaCl & NaBr
 13

2. Which among the following is the di dentate ligand?

a) CN- b) NH3 c) CO d) en
3. Which of the following is WRONG regarding the geometry?
a) dsp2 – square planar b) sp3d – square planar
c) sp3d2 – octahedral d) d2sp3 – octahedral
4. Which among the following is an ambidentate ligand?
a) CO b) NH3 c) SCN- d) Cl⁻
5. Which among the following has a denticity of 6 ligating atoms?
a) SCN⁻ b) en c) EDTA4- d) Cl⁻
6. Synergic bonding is found in;
a) [Fe(CN)6]4- b) [CoCl4]2- c) [NiCl4]-2 d) [Fe(CO)5]
7. [Cr (NH3)5SO4] Br and [Cr (NH3)5Br]SO4, exhibit-
a) Linkage isomerism b) Ionisation isomerism
c) Cis-trans isomerism d) Hydrate isomerism
8. Linkage isomerism is exhibited if one of the following ligand is present;
a) H2O b) -ONO c) CO d) Br⁻
9. Which one of the following complexes shows optical isomerism?
a) cis-[Pt(Cl)2(en)2]2+ b) trans-[Pt(Cl)2(en)2]2+
c) [Co(en)3]3- d) Both (a) and (c)
10. Colour in coordination compounds is explained by;
a) Werner’s theory b) VBT c) CFT d) Synergic bonding
11. Isomers of [Pt (NH3)2(Cl)2] are-
a) one cis and one trans b) one trans and two cis
c) optical d) linkage
12. Which of the following is a homoleptic complex?
a) [Co(H2O)6] Cl3 b) [Co (H2O)5Cl] Cl2 H2O
c) [Co(H2O)4Cl2]Cl.H2O d) [Co(H2O)3Cl3] 3H2O
13. The number of moles of AgCl formed when AgNO3 in excess is treated with the
CoCl3.6NH3 is;
a) 1 b) 3 c) 2 d) 6
14. [Fe(NO2)Cl3] and [Fe(O-NO)Cl3] shows;
a) Linkage isomerism b) Geometrical isomerism
c) Optical isomerism d) Hydrate isomerism
15. The geometry and magnetic behaviour of the complex [Ni(Cl)4]2- are;
a) Square planar geometry and diamagnetic
b) Tetrahedral geometry and paramagnetic
c) Square planar geometry and paramagnetic
d) Tetrahedral geometry and diamagnetic
16. The type of isomerism shown by the complex [CoCl2(en)2] is;
a) Geometrical isomerism b) Linkage isomerism
c) Ionisation isomerism d) Co-ordination isomerism
17. The IUPAC name of the [Pt(NH3)2(Cl)2];
a) Diamminedichloridoplatinum(III) b) Diamminedichloridoplatinum(II)
c) Diamminedichloridoplatinum(IV) d) Diamminedichloridoplatinum(0)
 14

18. Which among the following is the strongest ligand?

a) CN- b) NH3 c) CO d) en
19. A WRONG match in accordance with Werner’s theory is;
a) Primary valency-spatial arrangements
b) Secondary valency- non-ionisable
c) Primary valency-satisfied by negative ions
d) Secondary valency- fixed
20. Which of the following statements is correct about metal carbonyls?
a)  - bonded organometallic complexes
b)  - bonded organometallic complexes
c) Involve both  - and  bonds between metal and oxygen of carbonyl group
d) Involve both  - and  - bonds between metal and carbon of carbonyl group –

Coordination compounds-Answer key

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
C D B C C D B B A C
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A A C A D B B A A d

10. Haloalkanes and Haloarenes (Question no.11)

1. A vinyl halide is;
a) CH3CH2Br b) CH2═CH─Br c) CH3─CHBr2 d) Br─CH2─CH2─Br
2. 2° halide among the following is;
a) Isopropyl chloride b) Isobutyl chloride
c) n-Propyl chloride d) n-Butyl chloride
3. Density is highest for;
a) CH3Cl b) CH2Cl2 c) CHCl3 d) CCl4
4. The alkene which gives only primary alkyl halides on adding HX is;
a) C2H4 b) C3H6 c) C4H8 d) C5H10
𝑎𝑐𝑒𝑡𝑜𝑛𝑒
5. The name of this reaction is; RCl + NaI → RI + NaCl
a) Wurtz reaction b) Fittig reaction
c) Finkelstein reaction d) Swarts reaction
6. Which one of the following has the lowest boiling point?
a) CH3Cl b) C2H5Cl c) C2H5Br d) C2H5I
7. IUPAC name of allyl chloride is;
a) 1-chloroethane b) 3-chloro-1-propyne
c)3-chloropropene d) 1-chloropropene
8. Isomerism shown by 2-bromo-3-chlorobutane is;
a) Diastereomerism b) Optical isomerism
c) Geometric isomerism d) Structural isomerism
 15

9. In the given reaction, products X, Y and Z are;

a) C2H4Cl2, SO2, HCl b) C2H5Cl, SO2, HCl
c) C2H5Cl, SOCl2, HCl d) C2H4, SO2, Cl2
10. Chlorination of methane proceeds by;
a) Electrophilic substitution b) Free radical substitution
c) Nucleophilic substitution d) Electrophilic addition
11. Which of the following has the highest melting point?
a) o-dichlorobenzene b) m-dichlorobenzene
c) p-dichlorobenzene d) chlorobenzene
12. The product B in the given reaction is;
a) CH3Cl b) CH3MgCl c) CH3-O-CH3 d) CH4
𝑑𝑟𝑦 𝑒𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑟
13. The following reaction represents; ArX + 2Na + RX → Ar-R + 2NaX
a) Wurtz Reaction b) Fittig Reaction
c) Wurtz-Fittig Reaction d) Sandmeyer Reaction
14. Methyl chloride can be converted to ethane using;
a) Ni/H2 b) Zn-Cu/C2H5-OH c) Na/C2H5-OH d) Na/dry ether
15. Reactivity of chlorobenzene towards nucleophilic substitution reactions can be
increased by Introducing;
a) -CH3 group at para position b) -Cl atom at para position
c) -OCH3 group at para position d) -NO2 group at para position
Fill in the Blanks:
1. Haloalkanes are the compounds obtained from alkanes by the replacement of
one or more hydrogens by corresponding number of ___________ (Halogen
atoms)
2. ________ is the poisonous gas formed if chloroform reacts with air in presence
of light (Phosgene).
3. An atom or a group is replaced by another atom or group is called ___________
(Substitution reactions)
4. Racemization occurs in ___________ reactions. (SN1 Reactions)
5. The best reagent to prepare alkyl chloride from an alcohol is ________ (SOCl2)
6. SN1 Reactions are favoured by _________ solvents. (polar)
7. CH3-Br + AgF → CH3-F + AgBr is an example for ________ (Swarts reaction)
8. The coordination number of carbon in the transition state formed when
haloalkane undergo SN 2 reaction is ___________. (5)
9. Diethyl ether is obtained by heating ethyl bromide with _________(Sodium
ethoxide)
10. The angle by which plane polarised light is rotated is measured by using
___________ (Polarimeter)
11. A non-biodegradable pollutant is ________ (DDT)
12. __________ is the major product forms when elimination of HBr from 2-
bromobutane. (2-butene)
13. An SN2 reaction at an asymmetric carbon of a compound always gives ________
(a single stereo isomer)
 16

14. C─Cl bond in chlorobenzene as compared to that in methyl chloride is

_________ (shorter and stronger)

11. Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers (Question no.12)

1. The number of hydroxy groups in a trihydric alcohol is;

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
2. An example for a secondary alcohol is;
a) Propan-2-ol b) Propan-1-ol c) Methanol d) Ethanol
3. In the following sequence of reactions, the compound Q formed will be;
i) NaOH ii) H + Oleum P Q Sulphonation
a) Aniline b) Phenol c) Benzaldehyde d) Benzene sulphonic acid
4. An alkene CH3CH═CH2, is subjected to hydroboration –oxidation reaction. The
final product formed is;
a) CH3CH2CHO b) CH3CH(OH)CH3
c) CH3CH2CH2OH d) (CH3CH2CH2)3B
5. Which reducing agent is used for the following conversion?
a) LiAlH4 b) NaBH4 c) K2Cr2O7 d) KMnO4
6. For the reaction; , the order of reactivity is;
a) HCl ˃ HBr ˃ HI b) HI ˃ HBr ˃ HCl
c) HBr ˃ HCl ˃ HI d) HI ˃ HCl ˃ HBr
7. Which of the following alcohols will give the most stable carbocation during
dehydration?
a) 2-methyl-1-propanol b) 2-methyl-2-propanol
c) 1-butanol d) 2-butanol
8. R-X + R`-O-Na → R-O-R` + Na-X, represents;
a) Cumene process b) Kolbe’s reaction
c) Williamson synthesis d) Reimer-Tiemann reaction
9. Tertiary alcohol can be prepared by the reaction of a Grignard reagent with;
a) Ethanal b) Propanone c) Methanal d) Ethanol
10. Order of esterification of alcohols is;
a) 3° ˃ 1° ˃ 2° b) 2° ˃ 3° ˃ 1° c) 1° ˃ 2° ˃ 3° d) 3° > 2° ˃ 1°
11. The product obtained when tertiary butyl alcohol is passed over heated copper
at 300 °C?
a) Aldehyde b) Alkene c) Ketone d) Carboxylic acid
12. Carbolic acid is-
a) Salicylic acid b) Ethanol c) Salicylaldehyde d) Phenol
13. The decreasing order of boiling points of ethanol, propane and diethyl ether are;
a) ethanol ˃ dimethyl ether ˃ propane
b) ethanol ˃ propane ˃ dimethyl ether
c) propane ˃ dimethyl ether ˃ ethanol
d) propane ˃ ethanol ˃ dimethyl ether
14. Which of the following alcohols reacts most readily with Lucas reagent?
a) Methanol b) Tert-butyl alcohol c) Propan-2-ol d) Ethanol
 17

15. Which of the following cannot be used to oxidize primary alcohol to aldehyde;
a) CrO3 in anhydrous medium b) PCC
c) Acidified KMnO4 d) Cu at 300° C
16. The IUPAC name of picric acid is;
a) m-Nitrobenzoic acid b) 2, 4, 6-Trinitrophenol
c) 2, 4, 6-Tribromophenol d) p-Nitrophenol
17. The best reagent to convert CH3─CH═CH─CH2OH into CH3─CH═CH─CHO is;
a) Acidic permanganate b) Acidic dichromate
c) CrO3 in glacial acetic acid d) Pyridinium chlorochromate
18. Tertiary butyl alcohol gives tertiary butyl chloride on treatment with;
a) Conc. HCl / anhydrous ZnCl2 b) alc. KCN
c) alc.NH3 d) Cl2
19. Conversion of phenol to salicylic acid and to salicylaldehyde are known as
(respectively);
a) Reimer-Tiemann reaction and Kolbe's reaction
b) Williamson's synthesis and hydroboration-oxidation
c) Kolbe's reaction and Williamson's synthesis
d) Kolbe's reaction and Reimer-Tiemann reaction
20. Phenol is treated with dilute HNO3 at low temperature and the products are
separated by;
a) simple distillation b) sublimation
c) steam distillation d) reduced pressure distillation –

Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers-Answer Key

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
C A B C A B B C B C
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
B D A C C B D A D C

12. ALDEHYDES, KETONES AND CARBOXYLIC ACIDS (Question no.13)

1. The IUPAC name of CH3CH2CH2COCH3 is;
a) n-Pentanone b) Methyl n-propyl ketone
c) Pentan-2-one d) Penatn-3-one
2. Hybridization of carbon of carbonyl group is;
a) sp b) sp2 c) sp3 d) sp3d
3. The given reaction is known as;
a) Wolff – Kishner reduction b) Clemmensen reduction
c) Rosenmund reduction d) Stephen reduction
4. Oxidising agent used in Etard reaction is;
a) CrO2Cl2 b) CrO3 c) K2Cr2O7 d) KMnO4
 18

5. The following reactions is named after;

a) Etard b) Stephen c) Rosenmund d) Gattermann-Koch

6. Which of the following forces explain the boiling point of aldehydes and
ketones?
a) Hydrogen bonding b) van der Waals forces
c) Dipole – Dipole attraction d) Ionic bonding
7. CH3COCH3→ CHI3 + CH3COONa, This reaction requires;
a) [Ag(NH3)2] + OH¯ b) NaOI c) KI d) HI
𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐻
8. CH3CHO + CH3CHO → CH3CH ═ CHCHO, this reaction is known as;
a) Clemmensen reduction b) Aldol condensation
c) Stephen reduction d) Cannizzaro’s reaction
9. Reducing agent for Clemmensen reduction is;
a) Na-Hg and conc.HCl b) ZnCl2 and conc.HCl
c) Al-Hg and conc.HCl d) Zn-Hg and conc.HCl
10. When an aldehyde is warmed with Tollen’s reagent, the observation is;
a) Silver mirror b)Pink colour
c) Orange precipitate d) Brown precipitate
11. When a ketone reacts with hydroxyl amine, the product obtained is;
a) Hydrazone b) Semicarbazone c) Oxime d) Imine
12. Which of the following to gives Cannizaro’ s reaction?
a) C6H5CHO b) CH3COCH3 c) CH3CHO d) CH3CH(OH)CH3
13. Most reactive among the following towards HCN is;
a) CH3-CHO b) C6H5CHO c) H-CHO d) CH3COCH3
14. One of the following compounds gives brisk effervescence with sodium
hydrogen carbonate;
a) Ethanol b) Phenol c) Acetone d) Ethanoic acid
15. Acetic acid on treatment with ammonia followed by heating gives;
a) Ethanamide b) Ethylamine
c) Methylamine d) Ammonium acetate
16. Which of the following is strongest and weakest acid?
A) F-CH2COOH B) CH3COOH C) Cl-CH2COOH D) Br-CH2COOH
a) B & C b) A & B c) D & B d) A & C
17. The final product in the given reaction is;
a) 3-Chloropropanoic acid b) 2-Chloropropanoic acid
c) 3,3-Dichloropropanoic acid d) Propanoyl chloride
18. This reaction is called-
 19

a) Wolff-Kishner reduction b) Hell-Volhard-Zelinsky reaction

c) Clemmensen reduction d) Etard reaction
19. Carboxylic acids have a higher boiling point than the corresponding alcohols.
This is due to the presence of;
a) Dipole – dipole interactions
b) Stronger van der Waals forces
c) Extensive hydrogen bonding & dimer structure
d) Stronger covalent bonds
20. Preparation of propane from propanone can be achieved by;
a) Wolff-Kishner reduction b) Hell-Volhard-Zelinsky reaction
c) Clemmensen reduction d) both (a) and (c)

Aldehydes, ketones & carboxylic acids-Answer key

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
C B C B D C B B D A
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
C A C D A B B B C D
13. AMINES & DIAZONIUM SALTS (Question no.14)
1. The state of hybridization of orbitals of N atom in amines is;
a) sp2 b) sp3 c) sp d) dsp2
2. The IUPAC name of an amine (H3C)2N─CH2─CH3
a) N,N-Dimethylethanamine b) 1,1-Dimethylethanamine
c) N-Dimethylethanamine d) N-Ethyl-N-methylmethanamine
+ ─
3. For the conversion of A R4N X , three moles of R─X is required. Then the
reactant A is;
a) R─N─R b) R3N c) R─NH2 d) Ar─NH2
4. During the catalytic hydrogenation of nitriles to amines, the product
obtained is;
a) only 10 amine b) only 20 amine
c) only 30 amine d) mixture of 10, 20, 30 amines
5. The only amine that can be synthesised by the Gabriel- pthalimide synthesis
is;
a) only aromatic 10 amine b) only aliphatic 10 amine
c) both aromatic and aliphatic 10 amines d) all types of aliphatic amines
6. In the Hoffmann bromamide degradation reaction of benzamide, the amine
produced is;
a) Methanamine b) Ethanamine c) Propanamine d) Aniline
7. Among the following amines, the one with highest boiling point is;
a) CH3NH2 b) (CH3)2N-C2H5
c) C2H5─NH─C2H5 d) n-C4H9─NH2
8. Among the isomeric amines, the correct decreasing order of boiling point is;
a) 20 > 10 > 30 b) 30 > 20 > 10 c) 10 > 20 > 30 d) 30 > 10 > 20
 20

9. The pKb values for Methanamine, N-Methylmethanamine, Ethanamine and

Aniline are 3.38, 3.27, 3.29, 9.38 respectively. Among these, the most basic
amine is;
a) Methanamine, b) N-Methylmethanamine
c) Ethanamine d) Aniline
10. During acylation of amines, the base stronger than amines like Pyridine is
used to;
a) Increase speed of the reaction
b) Increase the quantity of product formed
c) Remove HCl formed immediately
d) None of the above
11. The chemical name of Hinsberg’s reagent is;
a) Benzenesulphonyl chloride b) p-Toluenesulphonyl chloride
c) Methylsulphonyl chloride d) Ethylsulphonyl chloride
12. The general formula of a Diazonium salt is;
a) R-NH2 b) RN2+X─ c) R─X d) R─OH
13. The benzenediazonium salt is stable for a short time in solution at low
temperature is due to;
a) Inductive effect b) Electromeric effect
c) Resonance effect d) Formation of H bonding with solvent
14. During the reaction of benzenediazonium bromide with CuCN in presence of
HBr, the gas produced is:
a) Oxygen b) carbon monoxide c) Carbon dioxide d) Nitrogen
0 0 0
15. The reagent which can be used to distinguish the 1 , 2 and 3 amines is;
a) Br2/H2O b) C6H5SO2Cl
c) Mixture of HNO3 and H2SO4 d) HNO3
16. The reagent used for the conversion of C6H5N2 +Cl─ to iodobenzene is;
a) H3PO2 b) HBF4 c) KI d) CH3─CH2─I
17. The IUPAC name of an amine, (CH3)3N is;
a) N,N,N─trimethylamine b) N,N─dimethylmethanamine
c) N─Methylethanamine d) Trimethylamine
+ ─
18. In the coupling reaction of C6H5N2 Cl with phenol, the coupling takes place
at;
a) meta position of phenol b) ortho position of diazonium salt
c) para position of phenol d) meta position of diazonium salt
19. Among these the reagent which can be used for acylation of an amine is;
a) CH3COOH b) (CH3CO)2O c) CH3COOCH3 d) CH3Cl
20. The decreasing order of basic strength of C2H5NH2, (C2H5)3N, (C2H5)2NH in
aqueous solution is;
a) (C2H5)2NH > (C2H5)3NH > C2H5NH2 b) C2H5NH2 > (C2H5)3N > (C2H5)2NH
c) (C2H5)3N > (C2H5)2NH > C2H5NH2 d) C2H5NH2 > (C2H5)2NH > C2H5NH2

Amines – Answer Key

 21

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
B A C A B D D C B C
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A B C D B C B C B A

14. BIOMOLECULES (Question no 15)

1. The general formula for most of the carbohydrates is;
a) CxHy(H2O)y b) Cx(H2O)y c) Cx(OH)y d) CxH2Oy
2. Among these, the carbohydrate which cannot be hydrolysed to further
simple carbohydrate is;
a) Sucrose b) Maltose c) Glucose d) Starch
3. The two compounds, α-D(+)-Glucopyranose and β-D(+)-Glucopyranose are;
a) Anomers b) Epimers c) Enantiomers d) Optical isomers
4. The water insoluble component of starch is;
a) Amylose b) Amylopectin
c) Both Amylose & Amylopectin d) Neither Amylose nor Amylopectin
5. On acid hydrolysis, sucrose produces equimolar mixture of;
a) α-D(+)-Glucose & β-D(-)-Fructose b) β -D(-)-Glucose & α-D(+)-Fructose
c) α-D(-)-Glucose & β-D(+)-Fructose d) β -D(+)-Glucose & α-D(-)-Fructose
6. The number of peptide bonds present in a tetrapeptide is;
a) One b) Two c) Three d) Four
7. Among the following statements, the incorrect statement with respect to
Fibrous proteins is;
a) They have thread (fibre) like structure.
b) The peptide chains run parallel
c) They are soluble in water
d) The peptide chains are held by hydrogen bonds.
8. During denaturation of proteins, the structure which remains intact is;
a) Primary structure b) Secondary structure
c) Tertiary structure d) All the above
9. The molecules that are produced by endocrine glands & act as intercellular
messengers are;
a) Vitamins b) Proteins c) Hormones d) Nucleic acids
10. Which of the following is involved in regulation of blood sugar level?
a) Mineral corticoid b) Testosterone c) Estradiol d) Insulin
11. Ascorbic acid is a chemical name of;
a) Vitamin A b) Vitamin D c) Vitamin C d) Vitamin K
12. Complete hydrolysis of DNA or RNA yields a pentose sugar, a nitrogenous
base and;
a) Phosphorous acid b) Phosphoric acid
c) Acetic acid d) Formic acid
13. A unit formed by the attachment of a nitrogenous base to 1′ position of a
pentose sugar is;
a) Nucleoside b) Nucleotide c) Polynucleotide d) Disaccharide
 22

14. Among the given statements, the incorrect one with respect to DNA is;
a) It acts as genetic material
b) pentose sugar present is β-D-2-Deoxyribose
c) It has double stranded helical structure
d) It synthesizes the required protein
15. The correct Pyranose (Haworth) structure of β-D(+)-Glucopyranose is;
16. Night blindness is caused due to the deficiency of;
a) Vitamin K b) Vitamin E c) Vitamin B12 d) Vitamin A
17. In a polynucleotide chain, the nucleotide units are joined together through;
a) Glycosidic Linkage b) Phosphodiester Linkage
c) Peptide Linkage d) Covalent Bond 18. In the following
18. hormones, the one which is not a sex hormone is;
a) Testosterone b) Progesterone c) Thyroxine d) Estradiol
19. The enzyme which catalyses the oxidation of one substrate with
simultaneous reduction of another substrate is;
a) Oxidoreductase b) Invertase c) Maltase d) Lactase
20. The correct structure of an optically inactive amino acid, Glycine is; -

Biomolecules-Key Answers: -

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
B C A B A C C A C D
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
C B A D B D B C A B

16. CHEMISTRY IN EVERYDAY LIFE [Q.NO 20, PART-A (II)]

1. Use of chemicals for the treatment of diseases is called _____________
(Chemotherapy)
2. Chemical substances which neutralize the acid in stomach are called as ________
(Antacids)
3. Barbiturates are important class of__________________. (Tranquilizers)
4. ____________are used for treatment of stress and mental diseases. (Tranquilizers)
5. A drug used in controlling depression and hypertension is ________________
(equanil)
6. ___________is non-narcotic analgesic. (paracetamol)
7. The drugs used to relieve postoperative pain, cardiac pains and labour pain are
_____ (narcotic analgesics)
8. Chemical substances produced wholly or partly by chemical methods to kill inhibit
the growth of other microorganisms are called ____________(Antibiotics)
9. Antibiotic effective against single microorganism are called ______ (Narrow
spectrum antibiotic)
10. __________ is applied to cuts and wounds on skin surface. (Antiseptics)
11. ___________is a mixture chloroxylenol and terpineol. (Dettol)
 23

12. 2-3% of iodine solution in alcohol-water mixture is __________ (Tincture Iodine)

13. The chemical substances which kill microorganism but cannot be applied on living
tissues are called ________________(Disinfectant)
14. The drugs which prevent pregnancy are called __________ (Antifertility drug)
15. Salvarsan is used to treat ___________ (syphilis)
16. __________ stimulates secretion of pepsin and HCl in stomach (histamine)
17. A chemical responsible for allergic response in bronchi is _______ (histamine)
18. _________is an antifertility drug (Novestrol)
19. ___________are used as food preservative (or any other can be given) (Ans: Sodium
benzoate)
20. ____________ are used to avoid the problems of high calorie intake (Artificial
sweeteners)
21. ___________are artificial sweetening agents. (Aspartame/ Saccharin)
22. The substances which prevent the oxidation of food are called
_________(Antioxidant)
23. Shaving soaps contain a gum called ______ to produce rich lather (rosin)
24. Soaps are ___________salts of long chain fatty acids. (Sodium/potassium)
25. _____________is an anionic detergent (sodium lauryl sulphate)
26. A cationic detergent is _____________ (Cetyl trimethyl ammoinium chloride).
27. Liquid dish wash detergents are ___________(non-ionic)

FILL IN THE BLANKS BY CHOSING THE APPROPRIATE WORD FROM THOSE GIVEN IN
THE BRACKETS SET-I
[ Swarts , Helium, most probable kinetic energy, paracetamol, p= KH.x]
1. Mathematical form of Henry’s law is _____________.
2. Kinetic energy of maximum fraction of molecules is ___________ .
3. Balloons are filled with _______ for meteorological studies.
4. CH3Br + AgF → CH3-F + AgBr, this is___________ reaction
5. An analgesic which is also antipyretic is ___________.
SET-II
[ collision frequency, XeO2F2, polar, cationic, ideal solution]
1. Solute-solute, solvent-solvent and solute-solvent interactions are same in
__________.
2. Number of collisions per second per unit volume is called ___________.
3. XeF6 + 2H2O → _________ + 4 HF
4. SN1 reaction is favoured by __________ solvents.
5. Cetyl trimethyl ammonium bromide is a __________ detergent.
SET-III
[increases, radon, 2-butene, pseudo, ofloxacin]
1. When glucose is dissolved in water, the boiling point of water ________.
2. Acid hydrolysis of sucrose is a ___________ first order reaction.
3. A radioactive element of group 18 is ____________.
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4. __________ is the major product forms when elimination of HBr from 2-

bromobutane.
5. A broad-spectrum antibiotic is ____________.
SET-IV
−𝐸𝑎
[polarimeter, aspirin, 𝐴𝑒 𝑅𝑇 , homogeneous, Helium]
1. A mixture of gases is always ____________.
2. Arrhenius equation is ____________.
3. A very low temperature conditions are created using liquid __________
4. The angle by which plane polarised light is rotated is measured by using
___________.
5. A non-narcotic analgesic is ___________.
SET-V
[stronger, Argon, directly, aspartame, rate law]
1. Partial vapour pressure of gas on its solution is _______ proportional to its mole
fraction in solution.
2. Experimentally determined rate equation is called ______.
3. Most abundant noble gas in air is ___________.
4. C-Cl bond in chlorobenzene as compared to that in methyl chloride is ___________.
5. An artificial sweetener added to cold food is __________.
SET-VI
[DDT, 2, BHA, Helium, molecularity]
1. For a dilute solution of NaCl in water, the van’t Hoff factor is _________.
2. Order can be zero or a fraction but not _________.
3. Natural gas a chief source of ____________.
4. First organic insecticide is __________.
5. An antioxidant is ____________.