Sreedhar’s CCE UNION BANK OF INDIA (LBO) - MT - 10

UNION BANK OF INDIA (LBO) - MODEL TEST - 10

REASONING AND COMPUTER APTITUDE

Direction(1-5): Study the given information carefully to answer the given questions.
Eight people - P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are sitting around a square table in

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such a way that four of them are sitting at the four corners of the table and they
are facing outside of the table while remaining four persons are sitting in the
middle of each of the four sides of the table and they are facing inside of the
table. Each of them likes different colours - Red, Yellow, Green, Orange, Blue,
White, Pink and Black.
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The one who likes Blue is not facing outside(i.e. opposite to the centre). U is
sitting fifth to the left of the one who likes Blue. Only one person is sitting
between U and the one who likes orange. P is sitting third to the right of the one
who likes Orange. Two persons are sitting between P and W. W doesn't like Orange.

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Neither W nor P is an immediate neighbour of Q. The one who likes Yellow is
sitting third to the right of Q. R and T are the immediate neighbours. R is neither
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an immediate neighbour of W nor likes Orange. The one who likes White is an
immediate neighbour of S. S is sitting third to the left of R. The one who likes Red
is sitting second to the left of the one who likes Green. R likes neither Red nor
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Black.
1. Who sits exactly between the one who likes green and T?
1) R 2) P 3) S 4) Q 5) W
2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their position as per
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the given arrangement and hence form a group. Which one of the following one
does not belong to that group?
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1) S 2) T 3) The one who likes Green

4) The one who likes White 5) P
3. What is the position of V with respect to U?
1) Third to the left 2) Immediate right 3) Second to the
right4) Third to the right 5) Immediate left
4. How many persons sit between W and the one who likes pink when counted from
the right of W?
C
1) One 2) Three 3) More than four 4) Four 5) Two
5. Who sits diagonally opposite to the one who likes orange?
1) The one who likes Blue 2) R 3) The one who likes Green
4) U 5) W
6. Ancient preservation techniques successfully preserved an Egyptian Mummy for
4000 years in country Y. However this oldest Egyptian mummy in the country,
which is currently on display at the Central Museum, is on the verge of
deterioration. The mummy-considered the museum’s top draw –is decaying faster
than anticipated.
Which of the following can be a possible reason behind the condition of this
mummy?
1) The number of tourists visiting the Central Museum has decreased owing to
extremely hot weather which is forcing them to stay indoors.
2) The preservation techniques used to preserve this mummy, will no longer be
effective in doing the same soon.
3) The Central Museum is planning to give a facelift to the entire structure before
its centennial year’s celebration next month.

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Sreedhar’s CCE UNION BANK OF INDIA (LBO) - MT - 10

4) During winter, the temperature of Country Y falls down to 5°C which makes it
difficult for people to continue with their regular chores.
5) It is essential to maintain a steady temperature of 15°C to maintain the mummy
and none of the ACs in the Central Museum has been working for the past five
days.
Direction(7-11): Study the given information carefully to answer the given
questions:
Nine friends – K, L, M, N, O, P, Q, R and S are sitting in a row and all of them
are facing North direction. Each of them likes different cars – Ford, BMW, Audi,
Nissan, Honda, Suzuki, Volvo, KIA and Fiat.

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S likes Suzuki and is not sitting at any of the extreme ends. K and M are
sitting adjacent to each other. R sits to the immediate left of Q. Q likes neither
KIA nor Fiat. The person who likes Honda sits second to the right of a person who
likes Fiat. Only two persons are sitting between L and N. N is sitting at one of the
extreme ends. The person who likes Audi sits to the right of the person who likes
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Fiat. Only one person is sitting between the persons who like Nissan and Audi.
The person who likes Volvo is sitting at one of the extreme ends, but he is not an
immediate neighbour of the person who likes Suzuki. L, likes Honda sits second

7.
Nissan.

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to the left of S. P likes BMW and is a neighbour of both K and L. O does not like

Which of the following car does Q like?

d
1) Audi 2) Nissan 3) Ford 4) Honda 5) Volvo
8. Which of the following combination is true as per the given arrangement?
1) L – Audi 2) M – Volvo 3) K – BMW 4) N – Nissan 5) P – Honda
ee

9. How many persons are there between ‘O’ and the person who likes ‘KIA’?
1) Two 2) Three 3) More than three 4) One 5) None
10. ____ sits second to the left of the one who likes Honda?
C
1) M 2) The one who likes Audi 3) S
4) The one who likes Fiat 5) R
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11. If M is related to Volvo and N is related to Audi in the same way K is related to
____.
1) Ford 2) Honda 3) KIA 4) BMW 5) Nissan
Direction(12-14): In these questions, relationship between some elements is
shown in the statement(s). These statement(s) are followed by two conclusions.
Read the statements and given answer.
C
12. Statements: D < J; D = B; J  K; A  B
Conclusions: I. J = B II. K > A
1) Only conclusion I is true 2) Only conclusion II is true
3) Either conclusion I or II is true 4) Neither conclusion I nor II is true
5) Both conclusions I and II are true
13. Statements: P  Q > M; N  Q > T
Conclusions: I. T > P II. N  P
1) Only conclusion I is true 2) Only conclusion II is true
3) Either conclusion I or II is true 4) Neither conclusion I nor II is true
5) Both conclusions I and II are true
14. Statements: A = B < C; B > D; D > E
Conclusions: I. D < C II. A > E
1) Only conclusion I is true 2) Only conclusion II is true
3) Either conclusion I or II is true 4) Neither conclusion I nor II is true
5) Both conclusions I and II are true

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Sreedhar’s CCE UNION BANK OF INDIA (LBO) - MT - 10

15. Read the following information carefully and answer the question which follows:
A recent survey suggested that the standards of higher educational institutes in
country A, as compared to international benchmarks, are very low. In fact, country
A does not have a single educational institution in the top 200 universities in the
world. As a result, students in country A prefer going abroad for higher education
thus leading to brain drain in the country.
Which of the following statements represents an appropriate course of action to
be taken by the government in order to curtail this problem?
1) The government should encourage international companies to set up shop in
country A in order to lure good students with better job opportunities.

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2) The government should improve the quality of teachers by providing better
quality training facilities to all teachers across the country.
3) The government should start new institutes which would provide higher
education comparable with the international standards.
4) The government should examine the international models of education and
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should modify the quality of education accordingly to match international
standards.
5) The government should restrict students from going abroad.

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Direction(16-18): Study the given arrangement of symbol, letter and digits carefully
to answer the given questions.
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HN4&TE3µ@5R1*JS2%9M6ALO#VU7!
16. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement each of which is
immediately preceded by a symbol and immediately followed by a letter?
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1) None 2) One 3) Three 4) Two 5) More than three

17. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their position, as per
the given arrangements and hence form a group. Which one of the following one
C
does not belong to that group?
1) 4T& 2) 51R 3) *SJ 4) 29M 5) OV#
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18. Which of the following is the sixth element to the right of the twentieth element
from the right end?
1) J 2) S 3) 2 4) % 5) @
Direction: (19-23) Study the given information carefully to answer the given
questions:
Eleven persons - A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, K, L and M are living in an eleven
C
floor building where the lowermost floor is numbered as one, the one above that
is numbered as two and so on till the topmost floor is numbered as eleven.
Only two persons live between F and G. Only four persons live between A
and G. E lives on one of the odd numbered floors but above the floor number five.
Only one person lives between E and K. As many persons live below A as above C.
As many persons live between C and G as between B and L. B lives on one of the
floors above L. K lives immediately above G. M lives on one of the even numbered
floors above L. H lives on one of the floors above D but below A. K lives on one of
the floors below E.
19. How many persons live between H and F?
1) Six 2) No one 3) Five 4) Seven 5) Four
20. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions as per
the given arrangement and hence form a group. Which one of the following one
does not belong to that group?
1) A 2) C 3) K 4) B 5) F

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Sreedhar’s CCE UNION BANK OF INDIA (LBO) - MT - 10

21. How many persons live above B?

1) None 2) One 3) Three 4) Two 5) More than three
22. On which of the following floor does D live?
1) 4th floor 2) 6th floor 3) 3rd floor 4) 7th floor 5) 2nd floor
23. ____ lives immediately below E.
1) K 2) M 3) G 4) C 5) L
Direction(24-26): In each of the questions below are given three statements
followed by two conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true
even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the
conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from

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the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.
24. Statements: Only a few pencils are pens Some pens are erasers
No eraser is sharpener
Conclusions: I. All sharpeners can be pencils II. Some pens are sharpeners.
1) Only conclusion I follows 2) Only conclusion II follows
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3) Either conclusion I or II follows
5) Both conclusions I and II follow
4) Neither conclusion I nor II follows

25. Statements: No curd is amul Only a few amul is down

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No down is rice
Conclusions: I. Some curd is rice.
1) Only conclusion I follows
II. Some down is curd.
2) Only conclusion II follows
d
3) Either conclusion I or II follows 4) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
5) Both conclusions I and II follow
26. Statements: Some liquids are juices Only a few juices are shakes
ee

All shakes are fruits

Conclusions: I. Some liquids are fruits. II. All juices being shakes is a possibility.
1) Only conclusion I follows 2) Only conclusion II follows
C
3) Either conclusion I or II follows 4) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
5) Both conclusions I and II follow
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27. Statements: Only a few Chess are Footballs All Footballs are Cricket
Some Crickets are not Koko
Conclusions: I. All Footballs can be Koko II. Some Koko are not Cricket
1) Only conclusion I follows 2) Only conclusion II follows
3) Either conclusion I or II follows 4) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
5) Both conclusions I and II follow
C
28. In this question is given a statement followed by two inferences numbered I and
II. You have to consider the statement and the following inferences and decide
which of those is/are implicit in the statement.
Statement: Company X enjoyed being the top seller in the cosmetics industry for
almost five years. Around 80% of the customer base of the cosmetics industry
was with company X. However this percentage has reduced to 40% this year after
company Y entered the industry. The prices of the products of Company X and
Company Y are comparable.
Inference I: Atleast some customers find the products of company Y better than
that of company X.
Inference II: Company X may be forced to leave the industry in the next five
years.
1) Both I and II can be interred 2) Neither I nor II can be inferred
3) Either I or II can be inferred 4) Only I can be inferred
5) Only II can be inferred

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Sreedhar’s CCE UNION BANK OF INDIA (LBO) - MT - 10

Direction(29-33): Study the given information carefully to answer the given

questions:
Eight persons of a family - P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W were born in eight
different years – 1967, 1978, 1984, 1995, 2001, 2004, 2010 and 2017. Also, each
of them is of different weight. All the ages of the given persons have been calculated
on base year 2020 and all the persons are considered to be born on same date of
same month.
P is 6 years younger than S. The one who is just heavier than P is the
youngest person of the family. U is the third lightest and third youngest member
of the family. The difference between the ages of P and W is 17 years and W is

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lighter than only one person. The difference between the ages of S and P is same
as the difference between the ages of W and T. R is older than Q and also heavier
than Q and P. R is not the oldest person. The one who is the second oldest is the
lightest member of the family. S is not the lightest member and P is not the
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fourth lightest person. V is heavier than S.
29. What is the sum of the ages of P and R (in years)?
1) 46 2) 55 3) 29 4) 35 5) 71
30.

31.

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How many persons were born between W and the one who is the heaviest person?
1) Three 2) Two 3) None
Who amongst the following person was born in 1995?
4) One 5) More than three
d
1) W 2) T 3) S 4) R 5) P
32. ____ was born immediately after the one who is the second lightest person.
ee

1) P 2) U 3) T 4) V 5) W
33. Which of the following statement(s) is/are not true as per the given arrangement?
I. Only three persons are heavier than P.
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II. The difference between the ages of the lightest person and the heaviest person
is 32 years.
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III. V was born immediately before S.

1) Only II 2) Only III 3) Only II and III
4) Only I 5) All I, II and III
Direction(34-36): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two
statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data
provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question.
C
34. Eight boxes are kept one above other in a stack. Which of the following box is kept
immediately above the box H?
Statement I: Three boxes are kept between box B and box F. Box F is kept
immediately above box L.
Statement II: Three boxes are kept between box L and box H. Box L is kept below
box H.
1) The data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
2) The data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
3) The data in both the statements I and II together is necessary to answer the
question
4) The data in either statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to
answer the question.
5) The data given in both I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

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Sreedhar’s CCE UNION BANK OF INDIA (LBO) - MT - 10

35. Among A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting in a circle facing centre. Who among the
following person sit immediate right of D?
Statement I: A faces B. Only one person sits between B and D.
Statement II: D sits second to the right of A. A sits immediate left of C.
1) The data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
2) The data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
3) The data in both the statements I and II together is necessary to answer the
question

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4) The data in either statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to
answer the question.
5) The data given in both I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
36. There are five persons in a family viz. P, Q, R, S and T. How is S related to P?
Statement I: T is the cousin of P and son of Q. Q is married to S.
ha
Statement II: R is father of P and brother of S. Q is the wife of S.
1) The data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

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2) The data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
d
3) The data in both the statements I and II together is necessary to answer the
question
4) The data in either statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to
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answer the question.

5) The data given in both I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
Direction(37-40): Study the given information carefully to answer the given
C
questions:
Nine persons are selected in either of three different departments of a
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company i.e. Marketing, HR and Finance. At least two but not more than four
persons are selected in the same department. (Note: If it is said that A select
with B means both A and B select in the same department). U selects only with
S, but not in marketing department. V and Q are selecting in the same department
but not with R. T selects in the marketing department. W and X select in the
same department. R neither selects in marketing nor HR. P does not select in
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the same department as W. X selects neither in HR department nor with P.
37. Who amongst the following person is selected in the same department as X?
1) P 2) Q 3) V 4) R 5) U
38. Which of the following statement is true about P as per the given arrangement?
1) P gets selected with R 2) P gets selected in Finance
3) P gets selected in Marketing 4) P gets selected
with U
5) Either the option 2 or option 3
39. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions as per
the given arrangement and hence form a group. Which one of the following one
does not belong to that group?
1) P - X 2) Q – T 3) R – S 4) U – V 5) W – T
40. How many persons are selected in marketing department?
1) Two 2) Four 3) Three 4) Cannot be determined
5) Same number of persons as selected in finance department

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Sreedhar’s CCE UNION BANK OF INDIA (LBO) - MT - 10

Direction(41- 44): Study the given information carefully to answer the given
questions:
Six persons – A, B, C, D, E and F are living in a family of different heights
and ages. A is taller than only two persons. B is shorter than D but taller than F.
The one who is the shortest person among all is not the eldest one. C is elder
than E. E is the tallest person. Only three persons are older than B. F is just
younger than D. A is younger than both E and B. F is just shorter than A.
41. How many persons are younger than C?
1) Three 2) Two 3) One 4) None 5) More than three

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42. Who amongst the following person is the shortest?
1) F 2) C 3) B 4) D 5) A
43. As many persons are taller than A as shorter than _____.
1) F 2) B 3) E 4) C 5) D
44. Who amongst the following is the second eldest person?

45.
1) C 2) F
ha 3) D 4) B 5) E
A teacher in AB High School announced a surprise test for class IX students
which would be based on the first three chapters of their History textbook.

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Which of the following may be assumed in the given statement ?
1) The other teachers in AB High School do not conduct such surprise tests in the
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classes they teach.
2) The class IX students of AB High School have already been taught the first
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three chapters of the history textbook.

3) The teacher has not yet taught the chapters beyond the third chapter of the
history textbook.
C
4) The first three chapters of the history textbook will not be included in the next
surprise test.
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5) The teacher who announced the surprise test to the students of class IX is the
one who has prepared the test questions.
GENERAL/ECONOMY/BANKING AWARENESS
46. In October, Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated the construction of four
compressed bio-gas plants in which state, as part of the Swachhata Hi Seva 2024
programme.
C
1) West Bengal 2) Odisha 3) Bihar 4) Gujarat 5) Assam
47. World Animal Day is observed globally on October 4th every year, coinciding with
the feast day of St. Francis of Assisi, the patron saint of animals. In 2024, the
theme ____________.
1) The World Is Their Home Too 2) Great or Small, Love Them All
3) Shared Planet
4) Forests and Livelihoods: Sustaining People and Planet
5) Man and Dog
48. The Living Planet Report 2024 revealed that the average size of monitored wildlife
populations has decreased by 73 per cent since 1970. Living Planet Report is
published by which of the following organization?
1) National Wildlife Federation 2) The Conservation Fund
3) United Nations Environment Programme
4) World Wide Fund for Nature
5) National Parks Conservation Association

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Sreedhar’s CCE UNION BANK OF INDIA (LBO) - MT - 10

49. Which of the following state launched the 'Shramik Basera' scheme to provide
rented accommodation to construction workers for Rs 5 per day with the cost of
Rs 1,500 cr, to provide temporary accommodation to nearly 15,000 construction
workers?
1) Maharashtra 2) Rajasthan 3) Gujarat
4) Uttar Pradesh 5) Karnataka
50. The Reserve Bank of India's Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) has maintained
the repo rate at 6.5% for the 10th consecutive time. The RBI aims to sustain
India's growth momentum, projected at _________for FY25, while maintaining
inflation within the target range of 4%.

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1) 6.8% 2) 6.2% 3) 6.4% 4) 7.5% 5) 7.2%
51. The World Wealth Report 2024, recently seen in the news, was released by which
one of the following organisations?
1) World Bank 2) World Meteorological Organization
3) European Union

52.
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4) World Economic Forum 5) Capgemini Research Institute
Satkosia Tiger Reserve is located in which one of the following states?
1) Rajasthan 2) Odisha 3) Assam 4) Karnataka 5) Gujarat
53.

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Which among the following became the world's first country to allow voters to
elect judges at all levels after protesters invaded the upper house and suspended
debate on the issue?
d
1) Mexico 2) Sweden 3) Belize 4) Guatemala 5) Denmark
54. A Memorandum of Understanding has been signed between Ministry of
Cooperation, Ministry of Electronics & Information Technology, ____________ and
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CSC e-Governance Services India Limited, to enable Primary Agricultural Credit

Societies (PACS) to provide more than 300 e-services being delivered by Common
Service Centres (CSCs), Including banking, insurance, Aadhar enrolment/
C
updation, health services, agricultural services, etc. in the rural areas of the
country.
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1) SEBI 2) RBI 3) NABARD 4) SIDBI 5) NHB

55. Which Programme/ scheme has recently launched the ‘Million Designers, Billion
Dreams’ initiative in collaboration with Leap Designs?
1) Mahila Samridhi Yojana 2) One Stop Centre (OSC) scheme
3) Aspirational Blocks Programme
4) PM Mahila Shakti Kendra scheme
C
5) Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana–National Rural Livelihoods Mission
56. Recently, where was the East Asia Summit (EAS) and ASEAN Regional Forum
(ARF) Senior Officials’ Meeting (SOM) held?
1) Beijing, China 2) Vientiane, Lao 3) Bangkok, Thailand
4) New Delhi, India 5) Geneva, Switzerland
57. Tactical Airborne Platform for Aerial Surveillance (TAPAS) drones, recently seen
in news is developed by which organisation?
1) Defence Research and Development Organisation
2) Central Industrial Security Force
3) Indian Space Research Organisation
4) Department of Defence Production 5) Bharat Electronics Limited
58. Ramon Magsaysay Award, which is called 'Nobel of Asia'. This award is given to
individuals and organizations in Asia who have made significant contributions to
society. Rural Doctors Movement was honored with Ramon Magsaysay Award
2024. It is related to which country?
1) Vietnam 2) Thailand 3) Singapore 4) Nepal 5) Japan

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Sreedhar’s CCE UNION BANK OF INDIA (LBO) - MT - 10

59. India and which country have implemented the Mutual Recognition Agreement
(MRA) for organic products, marking the first bilateral agreement for organic
products between the two countries?
1) Taiwan 2) Japan 3) South Korea 4) China 5) Germany
60. How much funding did the Ministry of New & Renewable Energy (MNRE) recently
(in August ‘24) allocate for the implementation of the 'Model Solar Village' scheme
under the 'Prime Minister (PM)-Surya Ghar: Muft Bijli Yojana'?
1) Rs 100 crore 2) Rs 1000 crore 3) Rs 800 crore
4) Rs 700 crore 5) Rs 500 crore
61. With reference to Pradhan Mantri Kisan Urja Suraksha evam Utthaan

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Mahabhiyaan (PM-KUSUM) Scheme, consider the following statements.
I) It is implemented by the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare to ensure
energy security for farmers in India.
II) Under the scheme, renewable energy-based power plants (REPP) can be set up
on cultivated lands.
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III) Under the scheme, the REPP will be preferably installed within a five km
radius of the substations.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

62.
1) Only (I)
4) Only (I) and (III)

E 2) Only (II) 3) Only (III)

5) All (I), (II) and (III)
RBI has announced the calendar for the premature redemption of Sovereign Gold
d
Bonds (SGBs) issued between May 2017 and May 2020. The RBI plans to redeem
30 tranches of these bonds between October 11, 2024, and February 7, 2025.
Sovereign gold bonds currently offer an interest rate of _________, payable semi-
ee

annually.
1) 1.5% 2) 2.5% 3) 3.5% 4) 4.5% 5) 5.5%
63. Recently, the 350th contract under the Innovations for Defence Excellence (iDEX)
C
was signed with SpacePixxel Technologies Pvt Ltd for miniaturised satellite.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Innovations for Defence
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Excellence (iDEX):
I) It is the flagship initiative of the Union Ministry of Defence.
II) It aims to achieve self-reliance and foster innovation and technology
development in Defence and Aerospace.
III) It will be funded and managed by a Defence Innovation Organization.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
C
1) (I) and (II) only 2) (II) only 3) (III) only
4) (I), (II) and (III) 5) (II) and (III) only
64. Which flowering shrub has been recently (in August 2024) added to the IUCN
(International Union for Conservation of Nature) Red List of threatened species
under the vulnerable category?
1) Emblica chakrabartyi 2) Strobilanthes kunthiana
3) Melanochlamys droupadi
4) Petrocosmea arunachalense
5) Phlogacanthus Sudhansusekharii
65. In September, the Pradhan Mantri Kisan Maandhan Yojana (PM-KMY) completed
five successful years, providing a pension safety net for small and marginal farmers.
Under the initiative, eligible small and marginal farmers are given a fixed monthly
pension of Rs. 3000. Farmers aged between 18 and 40 years need to contribute
between _____per month until they turn 60.
1) Rs. 100 to Rs. 200 2) Rs. 45 to Rs. 100 3) Rs. 55 to Rs. 200
4) Rs. 65 to Rs. 200 5) Rs. 55 to Rs. 100

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Sreedhar’s CCE UNION BANK OF INDIA (LBO) - MT - 10

66. Universal Account Number – UAN is a 12-digit code, and it will be allocated by
__________
1) Securities & Exchange Board of India
2) Employee State Insurance Corporation
3) Pension Fund Regulatory & Development Authority
4) Insurance Regulatory & Development Authority of India
5) Employees Provident Fund Organization
67. Which institution in India is celebrating its 90th year on April 1st, 2024?
1) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)

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2) Defence Research & Development Organisation (DRDO)
3) Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)
4) Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL)
5) National Thermal Power Corporation Limited (NTPC)
68. Recently ICICI Lombard announces its collaboration with which Bank in India, to
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introduce a dynamic Bancassurance tie-up, which aims to grant Bank's diverse
clientele access to ICICI Lombard's extensive insurance portfolio, thereby

4) Punjab National Bank

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enhancing penetration and reinforcing financial security across India?
1) Canara Bank 2) Karnataka Bank 3) Union Bank of India
5) Bank of Baroda
d
69. Which company has recently partnered with the Development Financial Institution
(DFI) for raising long-term debt funds to promote its Electric Vehicle (EV) portfolio?
ee

1) L&T Finance Limited 2) Poonawalla Fincorp Limited

3) Muthoot Capital Services Limited
4) Piramal Capital & Housing Finance Limited
C
5) Mahindra & Mahindra Financial Services Limited
70. According to Reserve Bank of India - RBI guidelines, which among the following
Sr

loan products is NOT considered as Priority Sector Lending?

1) Crop Loan 2) Loan extended to exporter
3) Education Loan 4) Car Loan 5) Home Loan
71. Which of the following is a term to describe rapid, excessive, and out-of-control
general price increases in an economy?
1) Hyperinflation 2) Subjugation 3) Recession
C
4) inflation 5) Deflation
72. Which nation has appointed former Foreign Secretary Vinay Mohan Kwatra as
India’s Ambassador?
1) Russia 2) USA 3) UK 4) Japan 5) China
73. Which bank has recently partnered with the Society for Worldwide Interbank
Financial Telecommunications (SWIFT) to launch an artificial intelligence (AI)-
driven pilot to help combat payments fraud occurring in cross-border payments?
1) Punjab and Sind Bank 2) HDFC Bank 3) Axis Bank
4) Federal Bank 5) ICICI Bank
74. The Indian women’s national volleyball team secured the gold medal at the 4th
CAVA Women’s Volleyball Nations League 2024 by defeating which country in the
final with a score of 3-2 sets.
1) Malaysia 2) Germany 3) Australia 4) Iran 5) Nepal

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Sreedhar’s CCE UNION BANK OF INDIA (LBO) - MT - 10

75. Consider the following statements about the Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana
(PMGSY). Which of the below statement(s) is/are correct?
1) The Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana was indeed launched on 25th December
2000 as a centrally sponsored scheme.
2) The scheme is implemented by the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways.
3) PMGSY covers only villages with a population of 1000 or more in plain areas.
4) The entire funding for PMGSY projects comes from the central government.
5)All the given statements are correct
76. In September 2024, The Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade

r’s
(DPIIT), Ministry of Commerce and Industry announced the launch of the BHASKAR,
a comprehensive digital platform aimed at centralizing and enhancing collaboration
between over 1,46,000 recognized startups, investors, mentors, service providers,
and government bodies. What does the letter ‘K’ represents in the acronym
‘BHASKAR’?

77.
1) Kisan
ha
2) Know 3) Knowledge 4) Key 5) knock
Punjab National Bank’s (PNB) Board has approved the initiation of process for

E
divesting ________ shareholding in its associate company Canara HSBC Life
Insurance through an initial public offering (IPO) route.
1) 20% 2) 10% 3) 30% 4) 15% 5) 23%
d
78. The United States–India Initiative on Critical and Emerging Technology (iCET)
aims to strengthen strategic partnerships in_______________.
ee

1) Military training programs 2) Healthcare research

3) Joint space exploration missions
4) Artificial intelligence and quantum computing
C
5) Weather research
79. Recently, the Union Cabinet chaired by the Prime Minister India has approved
Sr

the proposal of the Ministry of Heavy Industries (MHI) for implementation of a

scheme titled 'PM E-DRIVE Scheme'. Consider the following statements regarding
the PM E-DRIVE Scheme.
I) PM Electric Drive Revolution in Innovative Vehicle Enhancement (PM E-DRIVE)
scheme has an outlay of Rs 10,900 crore over a period of two years for promotion
C
of electric mobility in the country.
II) Under this scheme an adhaar-authenticated e-voucher will be issued to avail
demand incentives.
III) The scheme allocates Rs 3,679 crore to incentivise the purchase of electric
two-wheelers (e-2Ws), three-wheelers (e-3Ws), electric ambulances, trucks, and
other emerging EV categories.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1) (I) and (II) only 2) (II) only 3) (III) only
4) (I), (II) and (III) 5) (I) and (III) only
80. In June 2024, who among the following has won a bronze medal on the concluding
day of the International Shooting Sport Federation (ISSF) World Cup Rofle/Pistol
in Munich?
1) Apurvi Chandela 2) Heena Sidhu 3) Sift Kaur Samra
4) Shreyasi Singh 5) Gayathri Nithyanadam

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Sreedhar’s CCE UNION BANK OF INDIA (LBO) - MT - 10

81. Which organisation published its 2024 Child Nutrition Report titled “Child Food
Poverty: Nutrition Deprivation in Early Childhood," stating that globally 1 in 4
children, around 181 million children under 5 years of age, are living in severe
child food poverty in early childhood?
1) World Bank 2) United Nations3) World Health Organisation
4) International Monetary Fund
5) United Nations Children's Fund
82. What is an Indian Depository Receipt (IDR)?
1) A deposit account with a public sector bank
2) A depository account with any of the depositories in India

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3) An instrument in the form of depository receipt created by an Indian depository
against underlying equity shares of the issuing company
4) An instrument in the form of deposit receipt issued by Indian depositories
5) All of the given options are true
83. With which state, did the Ministry of Defence signed a MoU to establish three
ha
advanced testing facilities for Mechanical & Material (M&M), Communications ,
and Unmanned Aerial System (UAS) under the Defence Testing Infrastructure
Scheme (DTIS)?

84.
1) Maharashtra
4) Madhya Pradesh

E 2) Gujarat
5) Uttar Pradesh
3) Rajasthan

Which city will host the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural
d
Organization (UNESCO) General Assembly in 2025?
1) Paris, France 2) Samarkand, Uzbekistan 3) Berlin, Germany
4) Geneva, Switzerland 5) Ottawa, Canada
ee

85. The finance ministry is considering revising the Banking Companies (Acquisition
and Transfer of Undertakings) Act of which year it governs public sector banks
(PSBs)?
C
1) 1960 2) 1965 3) 1970 4) 1975 5) 1980
DATA ANALYSIS AND INTERPRETATION
Sr

Direction(86-90) : Study the table and answer the question given:

The data is regarding mentor (female + male) and trainees (female + male)
head count in five departments of an organization. In december 2022

Departments Number of % of female trainees Number of male trainees

Trainees (male + female) (out of total number of (out of total number of
C
under each mentor trainees) trainees)
A 40 30 140
B 10 20 56
C 12 25 72
D 20 15 204
E 15 12 198

86. What is the difference between total number of female trainees in departments B
and E together and the number of trainees (male+female) In department D ?
1) 187 2) 221 3) 189 4) 201 5) 199
87. Number of trainees in Department E grew by 20% in March 2023. With new
trainees joining, how many more mentors does the organization require, such
that the number of trainees under each mentor does not change ?
1) 5 2) 3 3) 1 4) 2 5) 8

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Sreedhar’s CCE UNION BANK OF INDIA (LBO) - MT - 10

88. What is the average number of mentors in departments A, B, C and D ?

1) 9 2) 12 3) 6 4) 7 5) 8
89. Number of female trainees in department D are what percent less than those in
department A ?
1) 31 2) 20 3) 40 4) 25 5) 35
90. The total number of male trainees in department B and C together is what percent
of number of trainees (male + female) in the department A ?
1) 64 2) 40 3) 72 4) 50 5) 60
Direction(91-95) : In this question two equations numbered I & II are given. You
have to solve both the equations and mark the appropriate option :

r’s
91. I. 4x2 - 17x + 18 = 0
II. 3y2 - 8y + 4 = 0
1) X > Y 2) Relationship between X and Y cannot be established
3) X  Y 3) X  Y 5) X < Y
92. I. 6x2 - 11x + 4 = 0
II. 50y2 - 25y + 3 = 0
1) X  Y
ha
2) X  Y 3) X < Y 4) X > Y
5) Relationship between x and y cannot be established
93. I. 3x2 + 8x + 4 = 0
II. 6y2 + 7y + 2 = 0
1) X  Y

E
2) Relationship between x and y cannot be established
d
3) X < Y 4) X > Y 5) X  Y
94. I. x2 - 4x - 12 = 0
II. y2 - 5y - 14 = 0
ee

1) X > Y 2) X  Y
3) Relationship between x and y cannot be established
4) X  Y 5) X < Y
C
95. I. x2 - 5x + 6 = 0
II. y2 - 9y + 20 = 0
Sr

1) X < Y 2) Relationship between x and y cannot be established

3) X  Y 4) X > Y 5) X  Y
Direction(Q.No:96-100) : Refer to the pie chart and answer the given question:
Percentage of Employees in different Departments of Branch
“LMN” in the year 2020:
Total number of employees: 550
C
F A
14% 18%

E
16%
B
20%
D
8%
C
24%

96. What is the average number of employees in Departments C, E and F ?

1) 99 2) 89 3) 87 4) 97 5) 109

13
Sreedhar’s CCE UNION BANK OF INDIA (LBO) - MT - 10

97. In department C, the respective ratio between the number of female employees
and male employees was 5:6. There were equal number of unmarried males and
unmarried females in department C. If the respective ratio between married
females and married males was 4:5, what is the number of unmarried females ?
1) 8 2) 20 3) 12 4) 16 5) 10
98. What is the central angle corresponding to the number of Employees in Department
F ? (in degrees)
1) 50.4 2) 51.6 3) 55.9 4) 56.5 5) 52.8
99. In 2020, there were 30% post graduate employees in department B. In 2021, 20
employees of the same department were shifted to Branch “PQR”. If in 2021, the

r’s
percentage of post graduate employees in department B were the same, how
many post graduate employees were shifted to Branch “PQR” ?
1) 4 2) 7 3) 8 4) 10 5) 6
5
100. In 2020, the number of female Employees in Department E was 11 of the total
ha
number of employees in the same Department. If the number of female employees
in Department D was 16 less than that in Department E, what is the number of
male employees in Department D?
1) 32 2) 20

E 3) 31 4) 28 5) 24
Direction(101-105) : What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the
d
given number series ?
101. 24 26 20 32 12 ?
1) 42 2) 64 3) 54 4) 56 5) 46
102. 6 4 5 11 ? 189
ee

1) 65 2) 39 3) 96 4) 44 5) 82
103. 19 10 11 18 38 ?
1) 110 2) 115 3) 99.5 4) 124.5 5) 97.5
C
104. 606 201 66 21 6 ?
1) 2 2) 5 3) 0.5 4) 1 5) 3
105. 18 19 24 37 66 ?
Sr

1) 219 2) 192 3) 224 4) 127 5) 158

106. At present Chan is twice the age of Ben and also seven times the age of Amy. If
after 4 years, Ben will be 25 years old, then what is Amy’s present age ?
1) 6 years 2) 2 years 3) 4 years 4) 9 years 5) 8 years
107. On giving a certain discount on MRP of an item, Shaun gains 25%, and on giving
double the discount, he loses 6.25% on the same item. If the cost of the item is
Rs. 256, how much discount (in Rs.) should he give on the MRP of the item to earn
C
a profit of Rs. 24 ?
1) 120 2) 140 3) 160 4) 125 5) 150
108. A, B and C started a business with investments in the ratio of 7:6:8 respectively
and the period for which they invested was in the respective ratio of 6:4:1. If the
annual profit received was Rs. 18,500, what was the difference between A’s share
and the total share of B and C together?
1) Rs. 2000 2) Rs. 3000 3) Rs. 3500 4) Rs.2500 5) Rs. 4000
109. The difference between the total cost of fencing, at the rate of Rs. 5 per meter, a
circular field and a square field is Rs. 160. What is the area of the circular field,
if the radius of the circular field is equal to the side of the square field ? (in meter
square)
1) 1386 2) 346.5 3) 616 4) 2464 5) 154
110. The speed of the boat upstream is 6km/h less than that downstream. If the speed
of the boat in still water is 21 km/h, what is the total time taken by the boat to
travel 108km upstream and the same distance downstream together ?
1) 11 hrs 30 mins 2) 12 hrs 3) 12 hrs 30 mins
4) 11 hrs 5) 10 hrs 30 mins

14
Sreedhar’s CCE UNION BANK OF INDIA (LBO) - MT - 10

Direction (111-115) :What approximate value will come in place of the question
mark(?) in the given question? (You are not expected to calculate exact value)
111. 224.99 + (13.01)2 - 143.99 x 4.01 = ? + 62.99
1) 69 2) 61 3) 57 4) 73 5) 79
55.99 12.01 6.01
112.   = ?
9.99 83.99 4.99
1) 6 2) 10 3) 14 4) 18 5) 1
113. (2.98)2 + 23.01 + 288.01 - 149.99 x 2.01 = ?
1) 20 2) 12 3) 32 4) 27 5) 19

r’s
1/2 2
114. (48.99) x (3.01) + ? = 10.01 x 11.01
1) 51 2) 49 3) 47 4) 37 5) 41
115. (7.99)1/3 x (9.01)1/2 = ?2 + (6.99)2 - 46.99
1) 22 2) 16 3) 2 4) 10 5) 6
Direction (116-120) :Refer to the bar graph and answer the given question
ha
Sales turnover of 6 companies (in Rs. Crore) in 2017-2018 and 2018-2019

900
820

E 2017-2018 2018-2019
d
Amounts of sales turnover (in

800 780
680 720
700
600 540
ee

520
Rs. Crore)

500 440 480

360 420
400
280 320
C
300
200
100
Sr

0
A B C D E F
Companies

116. By what percent is sales turnover of company A in 2018-2019 more than sales
C
turnover of company D in 2017-2018 ?

1) 9 7 34 % 2) 21 517 % 3) 20 10 17 % 4) 18 5 22 % 5) 21 415 %
117. What is the respective ratio between total sales turnover of companies A, B and C
together from 2017-2018 and total sales turnover of D, E and F together in 2018-
2019 ?
1) 29:36 2) 23:28 3) 17:24 4) 27:32 5) 21:32
118. Which of given companies has shown maximum percentage difference in sales
turnover from 2017-2018 to 2018-2019 ?
1) B 2) C 3) A 4) E 5) D
119. What is the approximate difference between the average sales turnover of all
companies put together in 2017-2018 and 2018-2019 ? (in Rs. Crore)
1) 62 2) 88 3) 74 4) 82 5) 68
120. What is the percent change in the sales turnover of the six companies together
from 2017-2018 to 2018-2019 ? (Rounded off to two digits after integer)
1) 13.66 2) 16.84 3) 14.86 4) 12.32 5) 15.34

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Sreedhar’s CCE UNION BANK OF INDIA (LBO) - MT - 10

ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Direction (121-125): A sentence has been given with two blanks; you have to
choose the correct pair that fills the blanks to make it grammatically correct.
If no such pair makes the sentence meaningful choose option 5 as your answer.
121. The Economist Intelligence Unit _________ its 2023 report on global liveability
index, _______ Austria’s capital Vienna as the top ranked city to live in 2023.
1) overhauled, tracing 2) released, placing 3) reported, leaving
4) rapport, undertaking 5) None of these
122. Their proposal aims to address the chronic shortage of doctors in rural regions

r’s
_____________ a significant percentage of the Indian population ________.
1) where, resides 2) where, left 3) which and where, lives on
4) whence, built 5) None of these
123. In an art gallery the fabulous paintings capture the ______ and _______ of the
ha
landscape.
1) wicked, virtuous 2) awful, atrocity 3) dictum, precept
4) beauty and grandeur 5) None of these

E
124. Despite her long ______ skirt she managed to get _____ the wall as she was
tall.
d
1) curse, on 2) clumsy, upon 3) cumbersome, over
4) clustering, up above 5) None of these
125. In a traditional classroom, changes in the physical environment and other
ee

_______ visual stimuli can easily disrupt a learner’s focus and increase ________.
1) embracing,torture 2) tickling, hype 3) distracting, anxiety 4)
C
obnoxious, pliability 5) None of these
Section-B
Sr

Direction(126-130): Choose the antonym / synonym for the given words

according to the question.
126. Exegesis (ANTONYM)
1) gloss 2) clarification 3) pain point 4) interpretation 5) None of these
127. Lout (SYNONYM)
1) genius 2) sage 3) dimwit 4) whiz 5) None of these
C
128. Predicament (ANTONYM)
1) benefit 2) crisis 3) deadlock 4) dilemma 5) None of these
129. Embezzlement (SYNONYM)
1) pay 2) reimburse 3) larceny 4) imbecile 5) None of these
130. Slammed (ANTONYM)
1)strike 2) assist 3) slap 4) marinate 5) None of these
Direction (131-140): Read the following passage carefully and answer the
questions given below it. Certain words are given in bold to help you locate
them while answering some of the questions.
European Union policymakers agreed to a sweeping new law to regulate artificial
intelligence, one of the world’s first comprehensive attempts to limit the use of a
rapidly evolving technology that has wide-ranging societal and economic
implications. The law, called the A.I. Act, sets a new global benchmark for countries
seeking to harness the potential benefits of the technology, while trying to protect

16
Sreedhar’s CCE UNION BANK OF INDIA (LBO) - MT - 10

against its possible risks, like automating jobs, spreading misinformation online
and endangering national security. The law still needs to go through /A/a few
final steps on approval, /B/but the political agreement means/C/ its key
outlines have been set./D/No error /E/
European policymakers focused on A.I.’s riskiest uses by companies and
governments, including those for law enforcement and the operation of crucial
services like water and energy. Makers of the largest general-purpose A.I. systems,
like those powering the ChatGPT chatbot, would face new transparency
requirements. Chatbots and software that creates manipulated images such as

r’s
“deepfakes” would have to make clear that what people were seeing was generated
by A.I., according to E.U. officials and earlier drafts of the law. Use of facial
recognition software by police and governments would be restricted outside of
certain safety and national security exemptions. Companies that violated the
ha
regulations could face fines of up to 7 percent of global sales.
“Europe has positioned itself as a pioneer, understanding the importance of
its role as global standard setter,” Thierry Breton, the European commissioner

E
who helped negotiate the deal, said in a statement. _____ (A) even as the law was
hailed as a regulatory breakthrough, questions remained about how effective it
d
would be. Many aspects of the policy were not expected to take effect for 12 to 24
months, a considerable length of time for A.I. development. And up until the last
ee

minute of negotiations, policymakers and countries were fighting over its language
and how to balance the fostering of innovation with the need to safeguard against
possible harm. The deal reached in Brussels took three days of negotiations,
C
including an initial 22-hour session that began Wednesday afternoon and dragged
into Thursday. The final agreement was not immediately public as talks were
Sr

expected to continue behind the scenes to complete technical details, which

could delay final passage. Votes must be held in Parliament and the European
Council, which comprises representatives from the 27 countries in the union.
Regulating A.I. gained urgency after last year’s release of ChatGPT, which
became a worldwide sensation by demonstrating A.I.’s advancing abilities. In the
C
United States, the Biden administration recently issued an executive order focused
in part on A.I.’s national security effects. Britain, Japan and other nations have
taken a more hands-off approach, while China has imposed some restrictions on
data use and recommendation algorithms. At stake are trillions of dollars in
estimated value as A.I. is predicted to reshape the global economy. “Technological
dominance precedes economic dominance and political dominance,” Jean-Noël
Barrot, France’s digital minister, said.
131. What is the name of the law that aims to regulate artificial intelligence in the
European Union?
1) A.I. Directive 2) A.I. Regulation 3) A.I. Act 4) A.I. Framework 5) A.I. Charter
132. What is the maximum fine that companies could face for violating the A.I. Act?
1) 5% of global sales 2) 7% of global sales 3) 10% of global sales
4) 15% of global sales 5) None of these

17
Sreedhar’s CCE UNION BANK OF INDIA (LBO) - MT - 10

133. What are some of the possible risks of artificial intelligence that the law tries to
protect against?
1) Automating jobs, spreading misinformation online and endangering national
security
2) Hacking personal data, creating biased algorithms and violating human rights
3) Causing environmental damage, disrupting social order and triggering wars
4) Replacing human intelligence, eroding cultural diversity and exploiting workers
5) All of the above

r’s
134. What type of software would have to make clear that it is generated by A.I. under
the law?
1) Software that generates music and art
2) Software that analyzes facial expressions and emotions
ha
3) Chatbots and software that creates manipulated images such as “deepfakes”
4) Software that plays games and solves puzzles
5) Software that writes code and program

E
135. Who is the European commissioner who helped negotiate the deal on A.I.
regulation?
d
1) Ursula von der Leyen 2) Margrethe Vestager
3) Thierry Breton 4) Josep Borrell 5) Frans Timmerman
ee

136. How long did the deal reached in Brussels take to negotiate?
1) One day 2) Three days 3) Two days 4) Four days 5) Five days
C
137. Find the error in the bolded sentence given in the passage.
1)A 2)B 3)C 4)D 5)E
Sr

138. Select the synonym of the given word in the passage.

Fostering
1)sterling 2) Prevailing 3) Discerning 4) Screening 5)promote
139. Choose the word that is opposite in meaning of the given word in the passage.
predicted
C
1)approaching 2) ignore 3)cautioned 4) forboded 5) heralded
140. Choose the best connector which fits in the blank (A) given in the passage
1) Moreover 2) Likewise 3) Yet 4) At last 5)Then
Direction (141-147): A passage has been divided into SEVEN sentences that are
labelled as A, B, C, D, E, F,G. One of those is not in line with the context of the
passage. Find the proper order of the sentences to form a meaningful paragraph
and answer the questions based on that.
A. As the food and beverage space in India takes stock of its carbon footprint,
bartenders are increasingly looking for inventive ways to raise the bar with
sustainability.
B. Later 30 Best Bars India — an initiative by MW magazine to rank and celebrate
the country’s best bars and bartenders — announced its winners in New Delhi.

18
Sreedhar’s CCE UNION BANK OF INDIA (LBO) - MT - 10

C. Hence, from sourcing ingredients locally, creating syrups from kitchen excess,
reducing plastic consumption, re-purposing bottles, bars are looking at circular
processes to circumvent conspicuous consumption.
D. This menu has been inspired by a rather unique muse — the planet.
E. Peanut chikki liqueur, a chamomile isomalt disc atop a negroni, and a bitter
gourd-infused cocktail are in the motley menu.
F. Here, a blowtorch and oven are used to remould chipped glasses, and coasters
are upcycled from plastic packaging by a local brand.

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G. One key metric for this judgement was sustainability.
141. Which of the following is the fourth sentence of combined paragraph?
1) A 2) D 3) B 4) C 5) E
142. Which of the following is the correct sequential order of the two sentences that
are followed by one another?
1) E-B 2) A-E
ha 3) F-C 4) D-C 5) B-G
143. Which of the following is the third sentence among the rearranged sentences?
1) A 2) D

E 3) B 4) C 5) F
144. Which of the following is the second sentence among the rearranged sentences?
d
1) A 2) D 3) B 4) C 5) F
145. Which of the following is the first sentence among the rearranged sentences?
ee

1) A 2) D 3) G 4) C 5) E
146. Which of the following is not in line with the paragraph?
C
1) A 2) D 3) G 4) C 5) F
Sr

147. Which of the following is the last sentence of the paragraph?

1) A 2) D 3) B 4) C 5) G
Direction (148-150): In the following questions, a word is given along with its
usage in sentences given in the options. Choose the option in which use of
the given word is contextually and grammatically correct.
148. Insuperable
C
I. The religious objection was insuperable.
II. This army is not truly insuperable given a fair chance.
III. What an insuperable inspirer you are.
1) Only I 2) Only II 3) Only III
4) All I,II, III 5) None of these
149. Brag
I. The day bragged—eventually it was time for bed.
II. Does it brags the cat’s tail.
III. He bragged that he was sure of victory
1) Only I 2) Only II 3) Only III
4) All I,II, III 5) None of these

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Sreedhar’s CCE UNION BANK OF INDIA (LBO) - MT - 10

150. Rancour
I. He spoke without rancour, he was dismissed.
II. His first marriage ended rancorously a decade ago.
III. They rancour their parents in all they did.
1) Only I 2) Only II 3) Only III
4) Both I & II 5) All I, II, IIII
Direction (151-156): In the following question, one part of the sentence may

r’s
have an error. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select
the option corresponding to it.
151. This was a crucial piece/A/ of information, because /B/ I feared she was an
unforgettable/C/ woman whose real name I never know/D/ No error /E/.
ha
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
152. I met her thirty-four years earlier /A/ in Vienna, eating sausage /B/ with

2) B

E
boiled potatoes /C/ and drinking a juice /D/ No error /E/.
1) A 3) C 4) D 5) E
d
153. She had /A/ the third of eleven children /B/ born to a prosperous /C/
shopkeeper in old Caldas /D/ No error /E/
ee

1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
154. She said, /A/ ‘I only came /B/ to tell you which I dreamed /C/ about you last
C
night.’/D/ No error /E/
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
Sr

155. After lunch, I lagged beyond /A/ with shah so that we could /B/ renew our
memories /C/ with no other ears listening /D/ No error /E/
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E

KEY
C
1.5 2.4 3.1 4.3 5.2 6.2 7.3 8.4 9.2 10.4
11.1 12.2 13.2 14.5 15.4 16.4 17.4 18.2 19.2 20.4
21.2 22.5 23.2 24.1 25.4 26.4 27.1 28.4 29.3 30.1
31.3 32.1 33.2 34.5 35.5 36.2 37.4 38.3 39.2 40.2 SCAN QR FOR
41.1 42.2 43.2 44.2 45.2 46.5 47.1 48.4 49.3 50.5 OUR RESULTS
51.5 52.2 53.1 54.3 55.5 56.2 57.1 58.2 59.1 60.3
61.1 62.2 63.4 64.2 65.3 66.5 67.1 68.2 69.3 70.4
71.1 72.2 73.3 74.5 75.1 76.3 77.2 78.4 79.4 80.3
81.5 82.3 83.5 84.2 85.3 86.5 87.2 88.5 89.3 90.1
91.3 92.4 93.5 94.3 95.1 96.1 97.3 98.1 99.5 100.2
101.1 102.2 103.5 104.4 105.4 106.1 107.1 108.4 109.3 110.5
111.4 112.5 113.1 114.3 115.3 116.3 117.4 118.1 119.3 120.3
121.2 122.1 123.4 124.3 125.3 126.3 127.3 128.1 129.3 130.2
131.3 132.2 133.1 134.3 135.3 136.2 137.1 138.5 139.2 140.3
141.3 142.5 143.1 144.2 145.5 146.5 147.4 148.4 149.3 150.4
151.4 152.5 153.1 154.3 155.1

20