TDB CENTRAL SCHOOL, CHAKKUVALLY

I PRE- BOARD EXAMINATION - 2024

STD :X Social Science MaxMarks : 80
Time : 3 Hours
General Instructions :
1. The question paper comprises Six Sections – A, B, C, D, E and F. There are 37
questions in theQuestion paper. All questions are compulsory.
2. Section A – From questions 1 to 20 are MCQs of 1 mark each.
3. Section B – Question no. 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 2
marks each.Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.
4. Section C contains Q.25 to Q.29 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks each.
Answer toeach question should not exceed 60 words.
5. Section D – Question no. 30 to 33 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each.
Answer toeach question should not exceed 120 words.
6. Section E – Questions no from 34 to 36 are case based questions with three sub questions and
are of 4 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 100 words.
7. Section F – Question no. 37 is map based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 37a from History (2
marks)and 37b from Geography (3 marks).
8. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in
few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions must be attempted.
9. A separate question has been provided for visually impaired candidates in lieu of questions having
visual inputs, maps etc. Such questions are to be attempted by Visually impaired students only. In
addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever
necessary.
SECTION - A
Section A consists of 20 questions of 1 mark each.
1. Which of the options best signifies this cartoon-

(a) Showing the fine German engineering.

(b) Problems of running the Germany’s grand coalition Government that includes the two majorparties
of the country.
(c) The two parties of the country are historically partners to each other.
(d) How smoothly the German Government is running.
2. Trace the growth of different strands of National movement in India according to their sequenceof
timing.
1. Establishment of Depressed Class-Association
2. Indian Industrial and Commercial Congress
3. “Purna Swaraj”
4. Non-Cooperation and Khilafat movement
Options :
(a) 4, 1, 2, 3 (b) 4, 2, 3, 1
(c) 2, 3, 1, 4 (d) 2, 1, 4, 3
3. The Calcutta Gazette, established in 1780, was the first newspaper published in which country?
(a) India, where it marked the beginning of a thriving press culture.
(b) Britain, as part of the British colonial government’s communication efforts.
 (c) The United States, where it promoted the abolition of slavery.
(d) France, where it was used to spread revolutionary ideas during the French Revolution.
4. In the 19th century, nationalist movements sought to unify people based on common linguistic and
cultural characteristics. Which of the following was a key demand of nationalist movements during this
period?
1. Establishment of democratic governments
2. Restoration of the feudal system
3. Strengthening of imperial rule
4. Preservation of monarchies
Options :
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 4 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 2
5. What percentage of India’s land area is considered degraded due to deforestation, overgrazing, and
industrial activities, requiring reclamation efforts?
(a) 28% of India’s total land area is degraded and in need of reclamation measures.
(b) 33% of India’s total land area is considered degraded, affecting agricultural productivity.
(c) 17% of India’s total land area has been identified as degraded, mostly due to human activities.
(d) 45% of India’s total land area is under severe degradation and needs immediate attention.
6. Biodiversity conservation in India involves several strategies and initiatives. Consider the following
statements:
1. Project Tiger was launched to protect the Bengal tiger population in India.
2. The National Wildlife Action Plan outlines strategies for wildlife conservation.
3. Habitat fragmentation is beneficial for the growth of wildlife populations.
4. Community reserves involve local communities in wildlife protection efforts.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 only
7. Water scarcity in India is caused by uneven distribution of rainfall, over-exploitation, and
pollution, affecting the availability of clean drinking water.
(a) Industrial (b) Thermal
(c) Marine (d) Radioactive
8. Which feature of Indian federalism allows the central government to intervene in state mattersunder
certain conditions?
(a) Cooperative Federalism (b) Exclusive Federalism
(c) Strong Central Control (d) Asymmetrical Federalism
9. Secularism is one of the key features of the Indian Constitution. Which of the following are
characteristics of Indian secularism?
1. Equal treatment of all religions by the state
2. Ban on religious practices in public life
3. Freedom to profess and propagate any religion
4. Support for one religion over others
Options :
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 3 and 4
10. In the context of Belgium’s power-sharing model, which is designed to accommodate its diverse
linguistic and cultural groups, which of the following statements accurately reflects the challenges and
successes of this approach?
1. The model has led to significant political stability and reduced tensions between communities.
2. It has resulted in a fragmented political landscape with multiple parties representing various
interests.
3. The power-sharing arrangement is rigid and does not allow for any changes over time.
4. The model has effectively marginalized certain linguistic groups.
Options:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, and 4
11. In Sri Lanka, the prolonged political conflict that arose over time was mainly due to the demandsof the
community, which insisted on equal recognition and rights from the government
dominated by the majority ethnic group.
(a) Sinhala (b) Tamil
(c) Buddhist (d) Christian
12. Consider the following regarding power-sharing in Sri Lanka and choose the correct answer:
Statement I : The Sri Lankan government refused to share power with the Tamil minority, leadingto
civil unrest.
Statement II : The Sinhalese majority had no influence on the creation of discriminatory policies.
(a) Only Statement I is correct
(b) Only Statement II is correct
(c) Both Statements I and II are correct
(d) Both Statements I and II are incorrect
13. Match the following and choose the correct option.
(Leader) (Role)
A. Victor Emmanuel II 1. Chief Minister of Italy
B. Guiseppe Mazzini 2. Young Italy Movement
C. Guiseppe Garibaldi 3. Conquered the Kingdom of Sicillies
D. Count Cavour 4. Proclaimed as king of Unified Italy
(a) A - 1, B - 4, C - 3, D - 2 (b) A -2, B - 1, C - 4, D - 3
(c) A - 4, B - 2, C - 3, D - 1 (d) A - 1, B - 4, C - 2, D - 3
14. Consider the following statements:
Statement I: The primary sector is decreasing in importance in India.
Statement II: The tertiary sector is growing faster than the primary and secondary sectors inIndia.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only I is correct. (b) Only II is correct.
(c) Both I and II are correct. (d) Neither I nor II is correct.
15. Which of the following is a consequence of excessive credit in an economy?
(a) Reduced inflation and increased purchasing power of consumers.
(b) Increased debt burden on individuals and businesses, potentially leading to defaults.
(c) Enhanced financial stability and reduced risk of economic downturns.
(d) Decreased levels of consumer spending and investment in the economy.
16. The Indian economy has experienced both positive and negative impacts due to globalization.Which
of the following are positive effects of globalization on India?
1. Increased foreign investment
2. Growth of the information technology (IT) sector
3. Decline in agricultural production
4. Wider availability of goods and services
Options :
(a) 1, 2, and 4 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 3
17. Match the following:

List-I (Crops) List-II (Geographical conditions)

A. Barley 1. Hot and dry climate with poor soil
B. Rice 2. Cool climate with poorer soil
C. Millets 3. Warm and moist climate with high altitude
D. Tea 4. Hot and moist climate with rich soil
Option :
(a) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3 (b) A-3, B-4, C-1,D-2
(c) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3 (d) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
18. Which sector of the Indian economy is directly involved in innovation, research, and development?
(a) Primary Sector, dealing with natural resources.
(b) Secondary Sector, focusing on manufacturing and construction.
(c) Tertiary Sector, providing various services to consumers.
(d) Quaternary Sector, specializing in information and knowledge-based services.
19. Interpret the following pie diagram and choose the correct option for the following question?

Why does 45 percent of the land in this country go under agriculture?**

(a) It provides raw materials for industries.
(b) Agriculture employs the majority of the population.
(c) Most of the land is fertile.
(d) It has abundant water resources.
20. Read the data given below and answer the question:
State Annual Rainfall (mm) Percentage of Area Irrigated
State A 1200 35%
State B 800 50%
Why does State B have a higher percentage of irrigated area despite receiving less rainfall thanState
A?
(a) State A is a highly industrialized state.
(b) State A relies on rain-fed agriculture.
(c) State B has a more developed irrigation system.
(d) State B has fewer water bodies.
SECTION - B
Very Short Answer Question (4 × 2 = 8)
21. “The Civil Disobedience Movement strengthened Indian nationalism.” Explain how the Civil
Disobedience Movement reinforced the nationalist movement.
22. “Human activities significantly impact the availability of natural resources.” Explain how.
23. “Inter-state councils facilitate cooperation among states.” Explain how inter-state councilscontribute to
federalism.
24. “The service sector is the fastest-growing sector in India.” Explain why this sector is expanding
rapidly.
OR
“The primary sector faces several challenges in India.” Discuss the main challenges faced by the
primary sector.
SECTION - C
Short Answer Based Question (5 × 3 = 15)
25. “Democracy encourages political pluralism.” Explain the statement by giving any three examples.
26. “The Atlantic slave trade was a key component of the early global economy.” Explain the statementby
giving suitable examples.
OR
“The formation of global alliances reshaped political dynamics in the 19th century.” Explain the
statement by giving suitable examples.
27. “Meena is interested in setting up a reliable electricity supply for her rural community. She is unaware
of the different sources of energy and their suitability for rural areas.” Help her identify the most
suitable energy sources for establishing a reliable electricity supply in her rural community.
28. “Religious tolerance is essential for peaceful coexistence.” Explain the statement by giving any
 three examples.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 22 Page 7
29. Between 2000 and 2020, India’s foreign exchange reserves have grown, providing economic stability
and confidence. As a result, foreign exchange management has become crucial for India’s financial
health. Why is foreign exchange management important for India? Support your answer by giving any
three reasons.
SECTION - D
Long Answer Based Question (4 × 5 = 20)
30. ‘The use of print media in propaganda was instrumental during both World Wars.’ Justify the statement
with suitable arguments.
OR
‘The role of print media in the Renaissance was fundamental to cultural transformation.’ Substantiate
the statement with key features.
31. Manoj lives in a region that is prone to water scarcity. What role can community participationplay in
water resource management to ensure sustainable access to water?
OR
Rani’s town is known for its textile industry, but many workers face poor working conditions. What are
the challenges faced by workers in the manufacturing sector, and how can their working conditions be
improved?
32. ‘Political parties serve as a link between the government and the people.’ Justify the importanceof
political parties in a democracy.
OR
‘Gender discrimination is a persistent issue in Indian society.’ Discuss the challenges faced by women
in India.
33. Mr. D is concerned about the impact of globalization on small-scale industries. How has increased
competition from foreign companies affected small industries in India, and what challenges do they
face in competing with larger multinational corporations?
OR
A multinational company outsources its customer service operations to India. How does the
globalization of services create employment in developing countries like India, and what impact
does it have on the local economy?
Case Based Questions (3 × 4 = 12)
34. Read the sources given below and answer the questions that follows:
The idea of development or progress has always been with us. We have aspirations or desires about
what we would like to do and how we would like to live. Similarly, we have ideas about what a country
should be like. What are the essential things that we require? Can life be better for all? How should
people live together? Can there be more equality? Development involves thinking about these
questions and about the ways in which we can work towards achieving these goals.
In World Development Reports, brought out by the World Bank, this criterion is used in classifying
countries. Countries with per capita income of US $ 12,056 per annum and above in 2017, are
called rich countries and those with per capita income of US $ 955 or less are called low-income
countries. India comes in the category of low middle income countries because its per capita income in
2017 was just US $ 1820 per annum.
Groundwater is an example of renewable resources. These resources are replenished by nature as
in the case of crops and plants. However, even these resources may be overused. For example, in
the case of groundwater, if we use more than what is being replenished by rain then we would be
overusing this resource.
Questions :
1. What do you mean by economic development?
2. Why India comes in the category of low middle income countries?
3. Why groundwater is the best example of renewable resources?
35. Read the sources given below and answer the questions that follows:
Ideas of national unity in early-nineteenth-century Europe were closely allied to the ideology of
 liberalism. The term ‘liberalism’ derives from the Latin root liber, meaning free. For the new middle
classes liberalism stood for freedom for the individual and equality of all before the law. Politically, it
emphasised the concept of government by consent. Since the French Revolution, liberalism had stood
for the end of autocracy and clerical privileges, a constitution and representative government through
parliament. Nineteenth-century liberals also stressed the inviolability of private property.
Following the defeat of Napoleon in 1815, European governments were driven by a spirit of conservatism.
Conservatives believed that established, traditional institutions of state and society – like the monarchy, the
Church, social hierarchies, property and the family – should be preserved. Most conservatives, however, did not
propose a return to the society of pre-revolutionary days. Rather, they realised, from the changes initiated by
Napoleon, that modernisation could in fact strengthen traditional institutions like the monarchy. It could make
state power more effective and strong. A modern army, an efficient bureaucracy, a dynamic economy, the
abolition of feudalism and serfdom could strengthen the autocratic monarchies of Europe.
Conservative regimes set up in 1815 were autocratic. They did not tolerate criticism and dissent,
and sought to curb activities that questioned the legitimacy of autocratic governments. Most of
them imposed censorship laws to control what was said in newspapers, books, plays and songs and
reflected the ideas of liberty and freedom associated with the French Revolution. The memory of the
French Revolution nonetheless continued to inspire liberals. One of the major issues taken up by the
liberal-nationalists, who criticised the new conservative order, was freedom of the press.
Questions :
1. What is the literal meaning of ‘liberalism’ ?
2. What was the belief of Conservatives?
3. Why Conservative regimes was characterised by the autocrats?
36. Read the given extract and answer the following questions.
This type of farming is practised in areas of high population pressure on land. It is labour-intensive
farming, where high doses of biochemical inputs and irrigation are used for obtaining higher
production. Though the ‘right of inheritance’ leading to the division of land among successive
generations has rendered land-holding size uneconomical, the farmers continue to take maximum
output from the limited land in the absence of alternative source of livelihood. Thus, there is
enormous pressure on agricultural land.
The main characteristic of this type of farming is the use of higher doses of modern inputs, e.g.
high yielding variety (HYV) seeds, chemical fertilisers, insecticides and pesticides in order to obtain
higher productivity. The degree of commercialisation of agriculture varies from one regionto another.
For example, rice is a commercial crop in Haryana and Punjab, but in Odisha, it is a subsistence
crop. Plantation is also a type of commercial farming. In this type of farming, a single crop is
grown on a large area. The plantation has an interface of agriculture and industry. Plantations cover
large tracts of land, using capital intensive inputs, with the help of migrant labourers. All the produce is
used as raw material in respective industries.
Questions:
1. With what objective ‘Intensive Subsistence Farming’ is practised?
2. Mention any one feature of commercial farming.
3. What is plantation farming? Name some important plantation crops which are grown in India.
SECTION-F
Map Skill Based Question (Q 37a and 37b) 2+3=5
37. (a) Two places A and B are marked on the given outline map of India. Identify them and write their
correct names on the lines drawn near them. Identify the following features marked on the map.
A. The place where the Congress Session adopted the Non-Cooperation Programme.
B. The place where the Movement of Indigo Planters took place.
(b) On the same outline map of India, locate and label any three of the following with suitable
symbols.
C. Rarnagundam Thermal Power Plant
D. Mumbai Port
E. Hyderabad International Airport
F. Tehri Dam