JEE Main 2022 July Question Paper with Answer

25th, 26th, 27th, 28th & 29th July 2022 (Shift 1 & Shift 2)

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 FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JULY, 2022
(Held On Monday 25th July, 2022) TIME : 9 : 00 AM to 12 : 00 NOON

PHYSICS TEST PAPER WITH SOLUTION

SECTION-A 3. A person moved from A to B on a circular path as
shown in figure. If the distance travelled by him is
1. If momentum [P], area [A] and time [T] are taken
60 m, then the magnitude of displacement would
as fundamental quantities, then the dimensional be : (Given cos135° = - 0.7)
formula for coefficient of viscosity is :
(A) [P A-1 T0] (B) [P A T-1]
(C) [P A-1 T] (D) [P A-1 T-1]
Official Ans. by NTA (A)
(A) 42 m (B) 47 m
(C) 19 m (D) 40 m
Sol. Viscosity = pascal.second
Official Ans. by NTA (B)
Px Ay Tz = [M1 L-1 T-1]
[M1 L+1 T-1]x [L2]y[T1]z = M1L-1 T-1 Sol. d = R
 3 
MxL+x+2y T-x+z = M1 L-1 T-1 60  R  
 4 
x=1 x + 2y = -1 -x + z = -1
60  4 80
R  m
y = -1 3 
z=0 Displacement  R 2  R 2  2R 2 cos135
Viscosity = P1 A-1 T0  2R2  2R2  0.7
2. Which of the following physical quantities have 2
 80 
the same dimensions ?  3.4R 2  3.4  
 
(A) Electric displacement (D) and surface charge  47 m
4. A body of mass 0.5 kg travels on straight line path
density
with velocity v = (3x2 + 4)m/s. The net workdone
(B) Displacement current and electric field by the force during its displacement from x = 0 to
(C) Current density and surface charge density x = 2 m is :
(A) 64 J (B) 60 J
(D) Electric potential and energy
(C) 120 J (D) 128 J
Official Ans. by NTA (A) Official Ans. by NTA (B)

Sol. Electric displacement Sol. vi = 3(02) + 4 = 4  x=0

2
vF = 3(2) + 4  x=2
D 0 E = 16


 D  0 E  0 


1

W  K  m 162  42
2

 0 
1 1
  (256  16)
[D] = [] 2 2
240
 Surface change density = .   60J
4

1
2
5. A solid cylinder and a solid sphere, having same 7. A certain amount of gas of volume V at 27°C
mass M and radius R, roll down the same inclined temperature and pressure 2 × 107 Nm-2 expands
plane from top without slipping. They start from isothermally until its volume gets doubled. Later it
rest. The ratio of velocity of the solid cylinder to expands adiabatically until its volume gets
that of the solid sphere, with which they reach the redoubled. The final pressure of the gas will be
ground, will be : (Use  = 1.5)
(A) 3.536 × 105 Pa (B) 3.536 × 106 Pa
5 4
(A) (B) (C) 1.25 × 106 Pa (D) 1.25 × 105 Pa
3 5
Official Ans. by NTA (B)
3 14
(C) (D)
5 15
Sol. P1  2  107 Pa
Official Ans. by NTA (D)
P1V1 = P2V2
Since V2 = 2V1 Hence P2 = P1/2 (isothermal
2gH
Sol. V expansion)
1  k2 / R2
P2  1  107 Pa
Vcylinder (1  k 2 / R 2 )sphere
 P2 (V2 )  P3 (2V2 )
Vsphere (1  k 2 / R 2 )cylinder
1  107
P3   3.536  106
1 2 / 5 7 2 14 21.5
   
11 / 2 5 3 15 8. Following statements are given :
6. Three identical particle A, B and C of mass 100 kg (1) The average kinetic energy of a gas molecule
each are placed in a straight line with decreases when the temperature is reduced.
AB = BC = 13 m. The gravitational force on a (2) The average kinetic energy of a gas molecule
fourth particle P of the same mass is F, when increases with increase in pressure at constant
placed at a distance 13 m from the particle B on the temperature.
perpendicular bisector of the line AC. The value of (3) The average kinetic energy of a gas molecule
F will be approximately : decreases with increases in volume.
(A) 21 G (B) 100 G (4) Pressure of a gas increases with increase in
(C) 59 G (D) 42 G temperature at constant pressure.
(5) The volume of gas decreases with increase in
Official Ans. by NTA (B)
temperature.
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below :
(A) (1) and (4) only (B) (1), (2) and (4) only
(C) (2) and (4) only (D) (1), (2) and (5) only
Sol. Official Ans. by NTA (A)
GMM GMM
F 2
 2
r ( 2r)2 Sol. KE avg 
3
KT
2
GMM  1 
 1   1 2
r 2
 2 P  Vrms
3
G  10 4  1  Note : Statement (4) is correct only if we
 2 1  
13  2 consider it at constant volume and not constant
F 100G pressure. Ideally, this question must be bonus
but most appropriate answer is option (A)

2
3
9. In figure (A), mass ‘2 m’ is fixed on mass ‘m’ Sol. Q = CV
which is attached to two springs of spring constant 1
V Q
k. In figure (B), mass ‘m’ is attached to two spring C
of spring constant ‘k’ and ‘2k’. If mass ‘m’ in (A)
1
and (B) are displaced by distance ‘x’ horizontally Straight line with slope =
C
and then released, then time period T1 and T2
1 1
corresponding to (A) and (B) respectively follow Slope    5  10 5
C 2  10 6
the relation.
11. Two charged particles, having same kinetic energy,
are allowed to pass through a uniform magnetic
field perpendicular to the direction of motion. If
the ratio of radii of their circular paths is 6 : 5 and
their respective masses ratio is 9 : 4. Then, the ratio
T1 3 T1 3
(A)  (B)  of their charges will be :
T2 2 T2 2
(A) 8 : 5 (B) 5 : 4
T 2 T 2
(C) 1  (D) 1  (C) 5 : 3 (D) 8 : 7
T2 3 T2 3
Official Ans. by NTA (B)
Official Ans. by NTA (A)

3m 2mk
Sol. T1  2 Sol. Radius of circular path R 
2k qB

m 2mk
T2  2 q
3k RB
3m q1 m1 R2 9 5 5
2     
T1 2k  3
 q2 m2 R1 4 6 4
T2 m 2
2 12. To increase the resonant frequency in series LCR
3k
10. A condenser of 2 F capacitance is charged circuit,
steadily from 0 to 5C. Which of the following (A) Source frequency should be increased
graph represents correctly the variation of potential (B) Another resistance should be added in series
difference (V) across it’s plates with respect to the with the first resistance.
charge (Q) on the condenser ? (C) Another capacitor should be added in series
with the first capacitor
(D) The source frequency should be decreased
(A) (B)
Official Ans. by NTA (C)

1
Sol. f
2 LC
(C) (D)
To increase the resonating frequency product of L
and C should decrease.
Official Ans. by NTA (A) By joining capacitor in series, capacitor will
decrease

3
4
13. A small square loop of wire of side l is placed 15. Which of the following statement is correct ?
inside a large square loop of wire L (L >> l). Both (A) In primary rainbow, observer sees red colour
loops are coplanar and their centres coincide at
on the top and violet on the bottom
point O as shown in figure. The mutual inductance
of the system is : (B) In primary rainbow, observer sees violet colour
on the top and red on the bottom
(C) In primary rainbow, light wave suffers total
internal reflection twice before coming out of
water drops
(D) Primary rainbow is less bright than secondary
rainbow.
Official Ans. by NTA (A)
2 2 0 L 2
0 2
(A) (B)
 2 2 L
Sol. In primary rainbow, red colour is at top and violet
2 2 0 2
 0 L2
(C) (D) is at bottom.
L 2 2
Official Ans. by NTA (C) Intensity of secondary rainbow is less in
comparison to primary rainbow.
Sol. Assuming current I in outer loop magnetic field at 16. Time taken by light to travel in two different
0 i 2 2 0 i
centre  4   (2sin 45)  materials A and B of refractive indices A and B
L L
4 
2 of same thickness is t1 and t2 respectively. If
t2 – t1 = 5 × 10-10 s and the ratio of A to B is 1 : 2.
l
l Then the thickness of material, in meter is : (Given
vA and vB are velocities of light in A and B
Flux through inner loop materials respectively).
M
i
(A) 5 × 10-10 va m (B) 5 × 10-10 m
2 2 0 2
M (C) (D) 5 × 10-10 vB m
L
14. The rms value of conduction current in a parallel Official Ans. by NTA (A)
plate capacitor is 6.9 A. The capacity of this
capacitor, if it is connected to 230 V ac supply with A c / VA VB 1
an angular frequency of 600 rad/s, will be : Sol.   
B c / VB VA 2
(A) 5 pF (B) 50 pF
(C) 100 pF (D) 200 pF Let the thickness is d
Official Ans. by NTA (B) d d
  5  1010
vB vA
V
Sol. Current in capacitor I  5  10 10  v A v B
XC d
vA  vB
I   V    C 
6
As vA = 2vB  d = 5 × 10-10 × 2vB
I 6.9  10
C   50pF Or d = 5 × 10-10 × vA
V 230  600
4
5
17. A metal exposed to light of wavelength 800 nm 20. In the circuit, the logical value of A = 1 or B = 1
and emits photoelectrons with a certain kinetic
energy. The maximum kinetic energy of when potential at A or B is 5V and the logical value
photo-electron doubles when light of wavelength
of A = 0 or B = 0 when potential at A or B is 0 V.
500 nm is used. The work function of the metal is
(Take hc = 1230 eV-nm).
(A) 1.537 eV (B) 2.46 eV
(C) 0.615 eV (D) 1.23 eV
Official Ans. by NTA (C)

1230
Sol. k1   …(1)
800
1230
k 2  2k1  - …(2)
500 The truth table of the given circuit will be :
Eliminating k1 from (1) and (2) we get
A B Y A B Y
1230 1230
0   0 0 0 0 0 0
500 400
  0.615eV (A) 1 0 0 (B) 1 0 1
18. The momentum of an electron revolving in nth orbit 0 1 0 0 1 1
is given by : (Symbols have their usual meanings) 1 1 1 1 1 1
nh nh
(A) (B) A B Y A B Y
2r 2r
nh 2r 0 0 0 0 0 1
(C) (D)
2 nh (C) 1 0 0 (D) 1 0 1
Official Ans. by NTA (A) 0 1 0 0 1 1
1 1 0 1 1 0
h
Sol. Angular momentum is integral multiple of
2 Official Ans. by NTA (A)
nh
mvr =
2
nh Sol. When both A and B have logical value ‘1’ both
So momentum mv =
2r
19. The magnetic moment of an electron (e) revolving diode are reverse bias and current will flow in
in an orbit around nucleus with an orbital angular
resistor hence output will be 5 volt i.e. logical
momentum is given by :
eL eL value ‘1’.
(A) L  (B) L  
2m 2m
In all other case conduction will take place, hence
eL 2eL
(C) l   (D) l 
m m output will be zero volt i.e. logical value ‘0’.
Official Ans. by NTA (B)
So truth table is
Sol. Ratio of magnetic moment and angular momentum A B Y
 q
 0 0 0
L 2m
0 1 0 (AND gate)
For e–
1 0 0
e
 L 1 1 1
2m

5
6
 SECTION-B 3. A wire of length L and radius r is clamped rigidly
at one end. When the other end of the wire is
1. A car is moving with speed of 150 km/h and after pulled by a force F, its length increases by 5 cm.
applying the brake it will move 27 m before it Another wire of the same material of length 4L and
radius 4r is pulled by a force 4F under same
stops. If the same car is moving with a speed of conditions. The increase in length of this wire is
one third the reported speed then it will stop after ______ cm.
travelling ________ m distance. Official Ans. by NTA (5)

Official Ans. by NTA (3) F F

Sol.  1   2  5cm
AY r Y
4F4 F
v2  2  2  5cm
Sol. Stopping distance  d 16r Y r Y
2
2a
4. A unit scale is to be prepared whose length does
1 not change with temperature and remains 20 cm,
If speed is made rd
3 using a bimetallic strip made of brass and iron each
of different length. The length of both components
1 27
d'  d. d'   3. would change in such a way that difference
9 9 between their lengths remains constant. If length of
Braking acceleration remains same brass is 40 cm and length of iron will be
______cm.
2. Four forces are acting at a point P in equilibrium as (iron = 1.2 × 10-5 K-1 and brass = 1.8 × 10-5 K-1).
shown in figure. The ratio of force F1 to F2 is 1 : x Official Ans. by NTA (60)
where x = _____ .
Sol. B 1  BT   i 1  i T   B  i

B B  ii
1.8 105  40  i 1.2 105
1.8  105  40 3  40
   60
1.2  105
i
2
i  60cm
5. An observer is riding on a bicycle and moving
towards a hill at 18 kmh-1. He hears a sound from a
Official Ans. by NTA (3) source at some distance behind him directly as well
as after its reflection from the hill. If the original
frequency of the sound as emitted by source is
640 Hz and velocity of the sound in air is 320 m/s,
 the beat frequency between the two sounds heard
 by observer will be _____ Hz.
Official Ans. by NTA (20)

Sol.
  45
Sol.
Taking components along x & y
1 2 1 1 VS  0, Vob  5m / s
F1  2   =
2 2 2  320  5 
1 2 1 fdirect    640  630Hz
3  320 
F2  2   =
2 2 2
 320  5 
F1 : F2  1: 3 freflected    640  650Hz
 320 
x=3
fbeat  650  630  20Hz

6
7
6. The volume charge density of a sphere of radius 8. Eight copper wire of length l and diameter d are
6 m is 2 C cm-3. The number of lines of force per joined in parallel to form a single composite
conductor of resistance R. If a single copper wire
unit surface area coming out from the surface of
of length 2l have the same resistance (R) then its
the sphere is ______ × 1010 NC-1. diameter will be _________ d.
[Given : Permittivity of vacuum Official Ans. by NTA (4)

0 = 8.85 × 10–12 C2 N–1 – m–2 ]

4
Sol. Each wire has resistance   r
Official Ans. by NTA (45) d 2
Eight wire in parallel, then equivalent resistance is
r 
Sol. No. of electric field lines per unit area = electric 
8 2 d 2
field. Single copper wire of length 2l has resistance
r 2 4 
E , for r  R R  
3 0 d1
2
2 d 2

R 26  d1 = 4d
E  12
 0.45  1012 NC1
3 0 3  8.85  10 9. The energy band gap of semiconducting material to
produce violet (wavelength = 4000 Å) LED is
 45  1010 N / C _____ eV. (Round off to the nearest integer).
7. In the given figure, the value of V0 will be ____ V. Official Ans. by NTA (3)

hc 1242 1242
Sol. Eg     3.105
l l(nm) 400
Answer rounded to 3 eV
10. The required height of a TV tower which can cover
the population of 6.03 lakh is h. If the average
population density is 100 per square km and the
Official Ans. by NTA (4) radius of earth is 6400 km, then the value of h will
be ______ m.
Official Ans. by NTA (150)
W

W Sol. d  2Rh
Sol.
d  2  6400  h  103 (h in m)
W
Area = d2
= ( × 2 × 6400 × h × 10-3) km2
6.03 × 100000 = 100 ×  × 2 × 6400 × 10-3 h
V0  2 V0  4 V0  6 6.03  105
By nodal analysis   0 h
1kW 1kW 1kW 10   128
3V0  12  0 h = 150 m

V0  4

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 FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JULY, 2022
(Held On Monday 25th July, 2022) TIME : 9 : 00 AM to 12 : 00 NOON

CHEMISTRY TEST PAPER WITH SOLUTION

SECTION-A 3. The depression in freezing point observed for a
1. SO2Cl2 on reaction with excess of water results formic acid solution of concentration 0.5 mL L–1 is
into acidic mixture 0.0405°C. Density of formic acid is 1.05 g mL–1.
SO2Cl2 + 2H2O  H2SO4 + 2HCl The Van't Hoff factor of the formic acid solution is

16 moles of NaOH is required for the complete nearly : (Given for water kf= 1.86 K kg mol–1)

neutralisation of the resultant acidic mixture. The (A) 0.8 (B) 1.1

number of moles of SO2Cl2 used is : (C) 1.9 (D) 2.4

(A) 16 (B) 8 Official Ans. by NTA (C)

(C) 4 (D) 2
Sol. [HCOOH] = 0.5 ml l–1
Official Ans. by NTA (C)
⇒ (0.5 ml × 1.05 g ml–1) HCOOH in 1L
⇒ 0.525 g HCOOH in 1L
Sol. Let n(SO2Cl2) = x moles
 0.525 / 46 
∴ n(H2SO4) = x, n(HCl) = 2x m mol [Assuming dilute solution]
1kg
⇒ n(H+) = 4x
Tf 0.0405  46
For Neutralisation Tf  iK f m  i    1.9
k f m 1.86  0.525
⇒ n(H+) = n(OH–)
4. 20 mL of 0.1 M NH4OH is mixed with 40 mL
⇒ 4x = 16
of 0.05 M HCl. The pH of the mixture is
⇒x=4
nearest to:
2. Which of the following sets of quantum numbers is
(Given: Kb(NH4OH) = 1 × 10–5, log 2 = 0.30,
not allowed ?
log 3 = 0.48, log 5 = 0.69, log 7 = 0.84,
1
(A) n = 3, l = 2, ml = 0, s = + 2
log 11 =1.04)
1
(B) n = 3, l = 2, ml = –2, s = + (A) 3.2 (B) 4.2
2
1 (C) 5.2 (D) 6.2
(C) n = 3, l = 3, ml = –3, s = – 2
Official Ans. by NTA (C)
1
(D) n = 3, l = 0, ml = 0, s = – 2

Official Ans. by NTA (C) Sol. NH4OH + HCl  NH4Cl + H2O

mmole 2 2
Sol. l = 0, 1,2…… (n – 1) - - 2 mmole
∴ for n = 3 2mmole 1
NH4    M
l = 0, 1, 2 60 ml 30
⇒ l = 3, pK w  pK b  log C 14  5  1.48
pH    5.24
not possible for n = 3 2 2
1
9
5. 9. Choose the correct order of density of the alkali
metals :
(A) Li < K < Na < Rb < Cs
(B) Li < Na < K < Rb < Cs
(C) Cs < Rb < K < Na < Li

Choose the correct answer from the options given (D) Li < Na < K < Cs < Rb
below : Official Ans. by NTA (A)
(A) (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (III)
(B) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III) Sol. Factual
(C) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II) 10. The geometry around boron in the product 'B'
(D) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II) formed from the following reaction is
Official Ans. by NTA (C) BF3  NaH 
450K
 A  NaF

A  NMe3  B
Sol. Factual
6. The IUPAC nomenclature of an element with (A) trigonal planar (B) tetrahedral
electronic configuration [Rn]5f146d17s2 is : (C) pyramidal (D) square planar
(A) Unnilbium (B) Unnilunium Official Ans. by NTA (B)
(C) Unnilquadium (D) Unniltrium
Official Ans. by NTA (D) Sol. BF3  NaH 
450K
 B2H6  NaF
 diborane 

Sol. Atomic Number 103  2  BH3  NMe3 

B2 H6  NMe3 
symmetricalcleavage
7. The compound(s) that is(are) removed as slag
H
during the extraction of copper is :
B Me
(1) CaO (2) FeO
H N
Me
(3) Al2O3 (4) ZnO H
Me
(5) NiO
11. The interhalogen compound formed from the
Choose the correct answer from the options given
reaction of bromine with excess of fluorine is a :
below :
(A) hypohalite (B) halate
(A) (3) (4) Only (B) (1), (2), (5) Only
(C) perhalate (D) halite
(C) (1), (2) Only (D) (2) Only
Official Ans. by NTA (D) Official Ans. by NTA (B)

5
Sol. FeO + SiO2  FeSiO3 Sol. Br2  5 F2 
 2BrF5 
H2 O
 HBrO3 (Forms bromate)
(excess)
8. The reaction of H2O2 with potassium
12. The photochemical smog does not generally
permanganate in acidic medium leads to the
contain :
formation of mainly:
(A) NO (B) NO2
(A) Mn2+ (B) Mn4+
(C) SO2 (D) HCHO
(C) Mn3+ (D) Mn6+
Official Ans. by NTA (C)
Official Ans. by NTA (A)

Sol. Factual
Sol. H 2 O2  MnO 4  Mn 2   O2 (unbalanced)

2
10
13. A compound 'A' on reaction with 'X' and 'Y 15. Which one of the following reactions does not
produces the same major product but different by represent correct combination of substrate
product 'a' and 'b'. Oxidation of 'a’ gives a and product under the given conditions ?
substance produced by ants.

(A)

(B)
‘X’ and ‘Y’ respectively are :
(A) KMnO4/H+ and dil. KMnO4, 273 K
(B) KMnO4,(dilute), 273 K and KMnO4/H+ (C)

(C) KMnO4/H+ and O3, H2O/Zn

(D) O3, H2O/Zn and KMnO4/H+
(D)
Official Ans. by NTA (D)
Official Ans. by NTA (D)
Sol.

Sol. OH is formed

16. An organic compound 'A' on reaction with NH3

followed by heating gives compound B. Which on
14. Most stable product of the following reaction is:
further strong heating gives compound C
(C8H5NO2). Compound C on sequential reaction
with ethanolic KOH, alkyl chloride and hydrolysis
with alkali gives a primary amine. The compound
A is :
(A) (B)
(A)

(B)
(C) (D)

(C)
Official Ans. by NTA (B)

Sol.
(D)
OH
OTs CN
CH3
H3C TsCl CH3 SN2
H3C H3C
Official Ans. by NTA (C)
Py

-
CN

3
11
Sol. Gabriel Pthalimide reaction 18. During the denaturation of proteins, which of these
COOH CONH 2
NH 3 structures will remain intact ?
(A) Primary
COOH CONH 2
(A) (B) (B) Secondary
(C) Tertiary
strong heating (D) Quaternary
O O
Official Ans. by NTA (A)
- +
KOH
N K NH
EtOH Sol. Primary structure remains intact during
O O denaturation of proteins
(C)
S N2 R-Cl 19. Drugs used to bind to receptors, inhibiting its
O
natural function and blocking a message are
-
OH
N-R R NH 2 called :
H2O
(A) Agonists
O
(B) Antagonists
17. Melamine polymer is formed by the condensation
of : (C) Allosterists
(D) Anti histaminists
Official Ans. by NTA (B)
(A)

Sol. Factual
20. Given below are two statements :
Statement I : On heating with KHSO4, glycerol is
(B)
dehydrated and acrolein is formed.
Statement II : Acrolein has fruity odour and can
be used to test glycerol's presence.
(C) Choose the correct option.
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is

(D) incorrect.
(D) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is

Official Ans. by NTA (A) correct.

Official Ans. by NTA (B)

Sol. Melamine : Sol. Acrolein has a pungent, suffocating odour.

Acrolein is used to detect presence of glycerol
Formaldehyde HCHO
Melamine formaldehyde Resin is melamine
polymer
4
12
 SECTION-B 2.303 RT
Sol. E  E0  log Q
1. Among the following species nF
N2, N2+, N2– , N22–, O2, O2+, O2–, O22– Here, E  0.801V , E0 = 0.008 – (–0.763)

the number of species showing diamagnetism is = +0.771 V

0.06
Official Ans. by NTA (2) ∴ 0.801 = +0.771 – log10-2
n
⇒n=4
Sol. Diamagnetic species are: N2, O22– 5. The half life for the decomposition of gaseous
2. The enthalpy of combustion of propane, graphite compound A is 240 s when the gaseous pressure
and dihydrogen at 298 K are: –2220.0 kJ mol–1, – was 500 Torr initially. When the pressure was 250
393.5 kJ mol–1 and –285.8 kJ mol–1 respectively. Torr, the half life was found to be 4.0 min. The
The magnitude enthalpy of formation of propane order of the reaction is……. (Nearest integer)
(C3H8) is………kJ mol–1. (Nearest integer) Official Ans. by NTA (1)
Official Ans. by NTA (104)
Sol. (t1/2 )500 torr = 240 sec = 4 min.
(t1/2 )250 torr = 4 min.
Sol. 3C(gr)  4H 2(g)  C3H8(g)
t1/2 ∝ a1–n
= –103.7 kJ mol–1 As t1/2 is independent of initial pressure. Hence,
3. The pressure of a moist gas at 27°C is 4 atm. The order is 1st order.
volume of the container is doubled at the same 6. Consider the following metal complexes :
temperature. The new pressure of the moist gas is [Co(NH3)]3+
…. ×10–1 atm. (Nearest integer) [CoCl(NH3)5]2+
[Co(CN)6]3–
(Given : The vapour pressure of water at 27°C is
[Co(NH3)5(H2O)]3+
0.4 atm)
The spin-only magnetic moment value of the
Official Ans. by NTA (22) complex that absorbs light with shortest
wavelength is B.M. (Nearest integer)
Sol. Pgas  0  V.P.  4 Official Ans. by NTA (0)

 Pgas  0  4  0.4  3.6 1

Sol. 0 
As volume is doubled,  Pgas  = 1.8 atm 
Here, CN– being SFL will have maximum CFSE
new

New Total Pressure = 1.8 + 0.4 = 2.2 atm So, [Co(CN)6]3– will be d2sp3, µ= 0
4. The cell potential for Zn|Zn2+ (aq)||Snx+|Sn is 0.801 7. Among Co3+, Ti2+, V2+ and Cr2+ions, one if used as
V at 298 K. The reaction quotient for the above a reagent cannot liberate H2 from dilute mineral
reaction is 10–2. The number of electrons involved acid solution, its spin-only magnetic moment in
in the given electrochemical cell reaction is. . . . . . gaseous state is ……B.M. (Nearest integer)
Official Ans. by NTA (5)
(Given E0Zn2 |Zn  0.763V , ESn
0
x
|Sn
 0.008V
2.303RT Sol. Co3+ can’t liberate H2.
and  0.06V )
F It has d6 configuration,
Official Ans. by Number of unpaired electrons = 4
µ  4  6  4.92 B.M.

5
13
8. While estimating the nitrogen present in an organic 10. In the given reaction
compound by Kjeldahl's method, the ammonia
evolved from 0.25 g of the compound neutralized
2.5 mL of 2 M H2SO4. The percentage of nitrogen
present in organic compound is ...... .
Official Ans. by NTA (56) (Where Et is -C2H5)
The number of chiral carbon/s in product A is
1.4(N1V1 )
Sol. %N  Official Ans. by NTA (2)
massof organic compound
1.4  2.5  2  2 
%N   56 Sol.
0.25
O
9. The number of sp3 hybridised carbons in an acyclic O
O
neutral compound with molecular formula C4H5N O Et - HO
is : *
O *
Official Ans. by NTA (1) H

2 chiral carbons

 5 1 
Sol. DU = 4  1   3
 2 
H3C CH CH C N

sp3
or
CH2  C  CH  CH  NH
Zero sp3 carbon

6
14
 Final JEE-Main Exam July, 2022/25-07-2022/Morning Session

FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JULY, 2022

(Held On Monday 25th July, 2022) TIME : 9 : 00 AM to 12 : 00 NOON

MATHEMATICS TEST PAPER WITH SOLUTION

1.
SECTION-A
The total number of functions,
3. {
For n Î N, let Sn = z Î C : z - 3 + 2i =
n
4 } and

{ }
f : {1, 2, 3, 4} • {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}
1
Tn = z Î C : z - 2 + 3i = .
such that f(1) + f(2) = f(3), is equal to : n
(A) 60 (B) 90 Then the number of elements in the set
(C) 108 (D) 126
{n Î N : Sn Ç Tn = f} is :
Official Ans. by NTA (B) (A) 0 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
Official Ans. by NTA (D)
Sol. A = {1, 2, 3, 4}
B = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6} n
Sol. Sn : z - ( 3 - 2i ) = is a circle center C1(3,–2)
Here f(3) can be 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 4
f(3) = 2, (f(1), f(2)) ® (1,1) ® 6 cases and radius n/4
f(3) = 3, (f(1), f(2)) ® (1,2), (2,1) 1
Tn : z - ( 2 - 3i ) = is a circle center C2 (2,–3)
® 2 × 6 = 12 cases n
f(3) = 4, (f(1), f(2)) ® (1,3), (3,1), (2,2) and radius 1/n
® 3 × 6 = 18 cases Here Sn Ç Tn = f
f(3) = 5, (f(1), f(2)) ® (1,4), (4,1), (2,3), (3,2) Both circles do not intersect each other
® 4 × 6 = 24 cases Case-1 : C1C2 > n/4 + 1/n
f(3) = 6, (f(1), f(2)) ® (1,5),(5,1),(2,4),(4,2),(3,3) 2>
n 1
+
® 5 × 6 = 30 cases 4 n
Total number of cases = 6+ 12 + 18 + 24 + 30 = 90 then n = 1, 2, 3, 4

a,b, g, d are n 1
2. If the roots of the equation Case-2 : C1C2 < -
4 n
x4 + x3 + x2 + x +1 = 0, then
a2021 + b2021 + g2021 + d2021 is equal to . n2 - 4
Þ 2<
(A) –4 (B) –1 4n
(C) 1 (D) 4 Þ n has infinite solutions for n Î N
Official Ans. by NTA (B) 4. The number of q Î (0, 4p) for which the system of
linear equations
Sol. a,b, g, d root of the equation 3 (sin 3q) x – y + z = 2
x4 + x3 + x2 + x + 1 = 0 3 (cos 2 q) x + 4y + 3z = 3
Which are 5th roots of unity except 1. 6x + 7y + 7z = 9
then a2021 + b2021 + g2021 + d2021 = has no solution is :
(A) 6 (B) 7 (C) 8 (D) 9
a + b + g + d = -1
Official Ans. by NTA (B)

1
15
 Final JEE-Main Exam July 2022/25-07-2022/Morning Session
3 2
Sol. The system of equation has no solution. 7. The curve y(x) = ax + bx + cx + 5 touches
3sin 3q -1 1 the x-axis at the point P(–2, 0) and cuts the
D = 3 cos 2q 4 3 =0 y-axis at the point Q, where y' is equal to 3.
6 7 7 Then the local maximum value of y(x) is :

21 sin 3q + 42 cos 2q – 42 = 0
27 29 37 9
(A) (B) (C) (D)
4 4 4 2
sin 3q + 2 cos 2q – 2 = 0
Official Ans. by NTA (A)
Number of solution is 7 in (0,4p)

5. If lim
n ®¥
( )
n 2 - n - 1 + na + b = 0 then 8(a + b) Sol. y(x) = ax3 + bx2 + cx + 5 is passing through
(-2,0) then 8a – 4b + 2c = 5……(1)
is equal to : 2
y’(x) = 3ax + 2bx + c touches x-axis at (-2,0)
(A) 4 (B) –8
12a – 4b + c = 0 ……(2)
(C) –4 (D) 8
again, for x = 0, y’(x) = 3
Official Ans. by NTA (C)
c=3 ………(3)
1 3
1 Solving eq. (1), (2) & (3) a = - , b = -
æ n +1 ö 2 2 4
Sol. lim n ç 1 - 2 ÷ + an + b = 0
n ®¥ è n ø 3 3
y '(x) = - x 2 - x + 3
ì æ 1 öæ 1 ö ü 2 2
ï - ï
lim n í 1 æ n + 1 ö çè 2 ÷ø çè 2 ÷ø æ n + 1 ö ý + an + b = 0
2

ïî1 - 2 çè n 2 ÷ø + ç 2 ÷ + .... ï y(x) has local maxima at x = 1

n ®¥
2! è n ø þ
27
1 1 y(1) =
lim n - + + .... + na + b = 0 4
n ®¥ 2 n
8. The area of the region given by
1
a = -1, b = A={(x, y) : x2 £ y £ min {x + 2,4 –3x}} is :
2
31 17 19 27
8(a + b) = –4 (A) (B) (C) (D)
8 6 6 8
6. If the absolute maximum value of the function f(x)
Official Ans. by NTA (B)
2 (4x3 -12x 2 -180 x +31)
= (x – 2x + 7) e in the interval [–3,
0] is f(a), then : Sol.
(A) a = 0 (B) a = –3
(C) a Î (–1,0) (D) a Î (–3,–1)
Official Ans. by NTA (B)

Sol. f '(x) = e (4x -12x 2 -180 x + 31)

(12(x2 - 2x + 7)(x + 3)(x - 5) + 2(x - 1) )
3

for x Î [–3,0]
⇒§f ’(x) < 0
f(x) is decreasing function on [–3,0]
1
The absolute maximum value of the function f(x) 2 1
A = ò ( x + 2 - x 2 ) dx + ò ( 4 - 3x - x 2 ) dx =
17
is at x = –3 6
-1 1

⇒§a = –3 2

2
16
Final JEE-Main Exam July, 2022/25-07-2022/Morning Session
9. For any real number x, let [x] denote the largest dy 2e 2x - 6e - x + 9
Sol. =
integer less than equal to x. Let f be a real valued dx 2 + 9e -2x
function defined on the interval dy 6e x
= e 2x - 2x
ì x - [x], if(x) is odd dx 2e + 9
[–10,10] by f ( x ) = í
î1 + [ x ] - x if(x) is even e 2x -1
æ 2e x ö
y= - tan ç ÷+c
2 è 3 ø
p2 10
10 -ò10
Then the value of f(x) cos pxdx is : æ 1 p ö
If C passes through the point ç 0, + ÷
è 2 2 2ø
(A) 4 (B) 2
p 2
(C) 1 (D) 0 c=- - tan -1
4 3
Official Ans. by NTA (A) æ 1 ö
Again C passes through the point ç a, e2 a ÷
è 2 ø
Sol. f(x) is periodic function whose period is 2 3 æ 3+ 2 ö
then ea = ç ÷
p2 10 p2 2
2 è 3- 2 ø
10 -ò10 ò0 f(x)cos pxdx
f(x) cos pxdx = ´ 10
10 11. The general solution of the differential equation
(x – y2)dx + y(5x + y2)dy = 0 is :
æ1 2
ö (A) (y2 + x)4 = C|(y2 + 2x)3|
= p2 ç ò (1 - x) cos pxdx + ò (x - 1) cos pxdx ÷
è0 1 ø (B) (y2 + 2x)4 = C|(y2 + x)3|
(C) |(y2 + x)3| = C(2y2 + x)4
Using by parts
(D) |(y2 + 2x)3| = C(2y2 + x)4
4 Official Ans. by NTA (A)
= p2 ´ =4
p2
2 2
10. The slope of the tangent to a curve C : y =y(x) at Sol. (x – y )dx + y(5x + y )dy = 0
dy y2 - x
2e 2x - 6e - x + 9 = . Let y2 = v
any point [x, y) on it is . If C dx y(5x + y 2 )
2 + 9e -2x
2ydy æ y2 - x ö
æ 1 p ö = 2ç 2 ÷
passes through the points ç 0, + ÷ and dx è 5x + y ø
è 2 2 2ø
dv æ v-x ö
æ 1 2a ö = 2ç ÷ v = kx
a
ç a, e ÷ then e is equal to : dx è 5x + v ø
è 2 ø
dk æ kx - x ö
k+x = 2ç ÷
3+ 2 dx è 5x + kx ø
(A)
3- 2 dk (k 2 + 3k + 2)
x =-
dx k+5
3 æ 3+ 2 ö
(B) ç ÷ (5 + k) dx
2 è 3- 2 ø ò (k + 1)(k + 2) dk = ò - x
1 æ 2 +1 ö æ 4 3 ö dx
(C) ç ÷
2 è 2 -1 ø
ò çè k + 1 - k + 2 ø÷dk = - ò x
4 ln (k+ 1) -3 ln(k+2) = – ln x + ln c
2 +1
(D) ( k + 1) 4
2 -1 = - ln x + ln c
( k + 2 )3
Official Ans. by NTA (B)
c(y 2 + 2x)3 = (y 2 + x)4

3
17
 Final JEE-Main Exam July 2022/25-07-2022/Morning Session
12. A line, with the slope greater than one, passes Sol. a(x – 3) + b(y + 4) + c(z – 7) = 0
through the point A(4, 3) and intersects the line x – P: 9a – b – 5c = 0
y – 2 = 0 at the point B. If the length of the line –11a – b + 5c = 0
29 After solving DR’s µ (1, –1, 2)
segment AB is , then B also lies on the line :
3
Equation of plane
(A) 2x + y = 9 (B) 3x – 2y = 7
(C) x + 2y = 6 (D) 2x – 3y = 3 x – y + 2z = 21
Official Ans. by NTA (C) 8
d=
6
Sol. Let B(x1, x1 – 2) 32
d2 =
29 3
(x1 - 4)2 + (x1 - 2 - 3)2 = uuur r uuur r
3 15. Let ABC be a triangle such that BC = a , CA = b ,
Squaring on both side uuur r r r r r
2
18x1 – 162x1 + 340 = 0 AB = c , | a | = 6 2 , | b | = 2 3 and b × c = 12
51 10 Consider the statements :
x1 = or x1 = r r r r r
9
33 4
3
( ) ( )
(S1) : | a ´ b + c ´ b | - | c |= 6(2 2 - 1)
y1 = or y1 =
9 3 æ 2ö
(S2) : ÐABC = cos–1 ç
ç 3 ÷÷
. Then
æ 10 4 ö è ø
Option (C) will satisfy ç , ÷
è 3 3ø
(A) both (S1) and (S2) are true
13. Let the locus of the centre (a, b), b > 0, of the
(B) only (S1) is true
circle which touches the circle x2 + (y – 1)2 = 1
(C) only (S2) is true
externally and also touches the x-axis be L. Then
the area bounded by L and the line y = 4 is : (D) both (S1) and (S2) are false

32 2 40 2 64 32 Official Ans. by NTA (D)

(A) (B) (C) (D)
3 3 3 3
r r r
Official Ans. by NTA (C) Sol. a+b+c= 0
r r r
b + c = -a
Sol. (a – 0)2 + (b – 1)2 = (b + 1)2
r2 r2 r r r2
a2 = 4b b + c + 2b×c = a
x2 = 4y r2
c = 36
4æ x2 ö 64
A = 2 ò ç 4 - ÷ dx= r
c =6
0
è 4ø 3
r r r r r
14. Let P be the plane containing the straight line S1 : | a ´ b + c ´ b | – | c |
x-3 y+4 z-7 r r r r
9
=
-1
=
-5
and perpendicular to the ( )
| a+c ´b| – |c|
r r r
plane containing the straight lines
x y z
= = and | -b ´ b | – | c |
2 3 5
0 – 6 = –6
x y z
= = . If d is the distance of P from the point r r r
3 7 8 S2 : a + b + c= 0
r r r
(2, –5, 11), then d2 is equal to : b + c = -a
147 32 r r r r r
(A) (B) 96 (C) (D) 54 | a |2 + | b |2 - 2 | a || b | cos ( ÐACB) =| c |2
2 3
Official Ans. by NTA (D) 2
cos (ÐACB) =
3

4
18
Final JEE-Main Exam July, 2022/25-07-2022/Morning Session
16. If the sum and the product of mean and variance of 18. The number of solutions of |cos x| = sin x, such
a binomial distribution are 24 and 128 respectively, that –4p £ x £ 4 p is :
then the probability of one or two successes is : (A) 4 (B) 6 (C) 8 (D) 12
33 33 33 33 Official Ans. by NTA (C)
(A) (B) (C) (D)
232 229 228 227
Official Ans. by NTA (C) Sol.

Sol. np + npq = 24 …(1)

np × npq = 128 …(2)
Solving (1) and (2) :
1 1
We get p = , q = , n = 32.
2 2
Now, 2 solutions in (0, 2p)
P(X = 1) + P(X = 2) So, 8 solutions in [–4 p, 4 p]
32 31 32 2 30
= C1 pq + C2 p q 19. A tower PQ stands on a horizontal ground with
33 base Q on the ground. The point R divides the
=
228 tower in two parts such that QR = 15 m. If from a
17. If the numbers appeared on the two throws of a fair point A on the ground the angle of elevation of R
six faced die are a and b, then the probability that is 60° and the part PR of the tower subtends an
x + ax + b > 0, for all x Î R, is :
2
angle of 15° at A, then the height of the tower is :

(A)
17
(B)
4
(C)
1
(D)
19 (A) 5(2 3 + 3) m (B) 5( 3 + 3) m
36 9 2 36
(C) 10( 3 + 1) m (D) 10(2 3 + 1) m
Official Ans. by NTA (A)
Official Ans. by NTA (A)

Sol. x2 + ax + b > 0, " x Î R

P
D = a2 – 4b < 0
a2 < 4b x
Total cases = 6 × 6 = 36
R
Fav. cases = b = 1, a = 1
b = 2, a = 1, 2 15
15°
b = 3, a = 1, 2, 3 60°
Sol. Q
b = 4, a = 1, 2, 3
15
b = 5, a = 1, 2, 3, 4 = tan 60° …(1)
AQ
b = 6, a = 1, 2, 3, 4
15 + x
Total favourable cases = 17 = tan 75° …(2)
AQ
17
P(x) = (1)
36 Þ x = 10 3
(2)

So, PQ = 5(2 3 + 3) m

5
19
 Final JEE-Main Exam July 2022/25-07-2022/Morning Session
20. Which of the following statements is a tautology ? 2. The letters of the word ‘MANKIND’ are written in
(A) ((~p) v q) Þ p (B) p Þ ((~p) v q) all possible orders and arranged in serial order as
(C) ((~p) v q) Þ q (D) q Þ ((~p) v q) in an English dictionary. Then the serial number of

Official Ans. by NTA (D) the word ‘MANKIND’ is _______.

Official Ans. by NTA (1492)
Sol. p q ~p ~q ~pvq
T T F F T Sol.
T F F T F M A N K I N D

F T T F T æ 4 ´ 6! ö æ 4!´ 3 ö
ç ÷ + (5! ´ 0) + ç 2! ÷ + (3! ´ 2) + (2! ´ 1) + (1! ´1) + (0! ´ 0) + 1 = 1492
è 2! ø è ø
F F T T T
3. If the maximum value of the term independent of t
15
options 1 2 3 4 æ 1 1
ö
ç (1 - x)10 ÷ , x ³ 0, is
in the expansion of t x +
2 5
T T T T ç ÷
ç t ÷
T F T T è ø

F T T T K, then 8K is equal to _______.

F T F T Official Ans. by NTA (6006)
SECTION-B

é 2 -1 -1ù
15
æ 1 1
ö
3i - 1 ç t 2 x 5 + (1 - x)
Let A = ê 1 0 -1ú and B = A – I. If w = ÷
10
1. , Sol.
ê ú 2 ç ÷
êë 1 -1 0 úû ç t ÷
è ø
then the number of elements in the set 15- r
r
æ 1ö (1 - x)10
{n Î {1, 2, …, 100} : An + (wB)n = A + B} is equal Tr + 1 = 15Cr ç t 2 x 5 ÷ ×
è ø tr
to _______.
Official Ans. by NTA (17) For independent of t,
30 – 2r – r = 0
Þ r = 10
é 2 -1 -1ù
Sol. A = ê 1 0 -1ú Þ A2 = A Þ An = A. So, Maximum value of 15C10 x(1 – x) will be at
ê ú
êë 1 -1 0 úû 1
x=
2
" n Î {1, 2, …, 100}
i.e. 6006
é1 -1 -1ù
Now, B = A – I = ê1 -1 -1ú 4. Let a, b be two non-zero real numbers. If p and r
ê ú
êë1 -1 -1úû are the roots of the equation x2 – 8ax + 2a = 0 and
B2 = –B q and s are the roots of the equation x2 + 12bx + 6b
Þ B3 = –B2 = B 1 1 1 1 –1 –1
= 0, such that , , , are in A.P., then a – b is
Þ B5 = B p q r s

Þ B99 = B equal to _______.

Also, w3k = 1 Official Ans. by NTA (38)
So, n = common of {1, 3, 5, …, 99} and
{3, 6, 9, …, 99} = 17

6
20
Final JEE-Main Exam July, 2022/25-07-2022/Morning Session
Sol. x2 – 8ax + 2a = 0 x2 + 12bx + 6b = 0 ì| 4x2 - 8x + 5 |, if 8x 2 - 6x + 1 ³ 0
6. Let f(x) = í 2 ,
p + r = 8a q + s = –12b î[4x - 8x + 5], if 8x - 6x + 1 < 0
2

pr = 2a qs = 6b
where [a] denotes the greatest integer less than or
1 1 1 1
+ =4 + = –2 equal to a. Then the number of points in R where f
p r q s
is not differentiable is _______.
2 2
=4 = –2 Official Ans. by NTA (3)
q r
1
q= r = –1
2 Sol.
1 -1
p= s=
5 4
1 1 2 6
Now, - = - = 38 3
a b pr qs

5. Let a1 = b1 = 1, an = an – 1 + 2 and bn = an + bn – 1 for 2

15
every natural number n ³ 2. Then åa
n= 1
n × b n is 1 x1 1
4 2
equal to _______.
1 1
Official Ans. by NTA (27560) ND at ,x1 ,
4 2

(n + 1) k -1
Sol. a1 = b1 = 1 7. If lim [(nk + 1) + (nk + 2) + … +
n®¥ n k +1
a2 = a1 + 2 = 3
1
a3 = a2 + 2 = 5 (nk + n)] = 33. lim × [1k + 2 k + 3k + ... + n k ] ,
n®¥ n k +1
a4 = a2 + 2 = 7 then the integral value of k is equal to _______.
Þ an = 2n – 1
Official Ans. by NTA (5)
b2 = a1 + b1 = 4
b3 = a3 + b2 = 9
Sol. LHS
b4 = a4 + b3 = 16
bn = n2 (n + 1)k -1
lim [nk × n + 1 + 2 + ... + n]
15
n®¥ n k +1
åa b n n (n + 1) k -1 é 2 n(n + 1) ù
n =1 = lim × ên k +
n®¥ n k +1
ë 2 úû
15

å(2n - 1)n 2
æ æ 1öö
n =1
ç ç1 + ÷ ÷
(n + 1) × n ç k + è
15
k -1 2 nø÷
å(2n 3
- n2 ) ç
ç
2 ÷
÷
n =1
= lim è ø
+
n 2 (n + 1)2 n(n + 1)(2n + 1) n®¥ k 1
n
=2 -
4 6 æ æ 1öö
ç1 + n ÷ ÷
æ 1 ö çç
Þ lim ç 1 + ÷ k + è ø÷
Put n = 15
2 ´ 225 ´ 16 ´ 16 15 ´ 16 ´ 31 n®¥
è n ø ç 2 ÷
= - ç ÷
4 6 è ø
= 27560 æ 1ö
Þ çk + ÷
è 2ø
7
21
 Final JEE-Main Exam July 2022/25-07-2022/Morning Session
RHS 3x – 4y = 0
1 1 equation of family of circle is
Þ lim k +1 (1k + 2k + ... + n k ) = 2 2
n®¥ n k +1 æ 8ö æ 6ö
LHS = RHS ç x - ÷ + ç y - ÷ + l(3x – 4y) = 0
è 5ø è 5ø
1 1 It touches y axis so f2 = c
Þ k + = 33 ×
2 k +1 æ 16 ö æ 12 ö
Þ (2k + 1) (k + 1) = 66 x2 + y2 + x ç 3l - ÷ + y ç -4l - ÷ + 4 = 0
è 5ø è 5ø
Þ (k – 5) (2k + 13) = 0 2
13 æ 12 ö
Þ k = 5 or - ç 4l + 5 ÷
2 è ø =4
8. Let the equation of two diameters of a circle x2 + y2 4
–2x + 2fy + 1 = 0 be 2px – y = 1 and 2x + py = 4p. 2 8
l = or l = -
Then the slope m Î (0, ¥) of the tangent to the 5 5
hyperbola 3x2 –y2 = 3 passing through the centre of 2
the circle is equal to _______. l = , r= 1
5
Official Ans. by NTA (2)
8
l = - , r= 4
Sol. 2p + f – 1 = 0 …(1) 5
2 – pf–4p = 0 …(2) d1 + d2 = 10
2 = p(f + 4)
10. The line of shortest distance between the lines
2
p= x - 2 y -1 z x - 3 y - 5 z -1
f+4 = = and = = makes
2p = 1 – f 0 1 1 2 2 1
4 æ 2 ö
an angle of cos–1 ç
ç 27 ÷÷
=1–f with the plane P : ax – y –
f+4 è ø
f2 + 3f = 0 z = 0, (a > 0). If the image of the point (1, 1, –5) in
f = 0 or –3 the plane P is (a, b, g), then a + b – g is equal to
y2 ______.
Hyperbola 3x2 – y2 = 3, x2 – =1
3 Official Ans. by NTA (3)
y = mx ± m 2 - 3
It passes (1, 0)
o = m ± m2 - 3 Sol. DR’s of line of shortest distance
m tends ¥ $i $j
It passes (1, 3) k$
3 = m ± m2 - 3 0 1 1 = -$i + 2$j - 2k$
(3 – m)2 = m2 – 3 2 2 1
m=2
9. The sum of diameters of the circles that touch (i)
2
æ8 6ö angle between line and plane is cos–1 =a
the parabola 75x2 = 64(5y – 3) at the point ç , ÷ 27
è5 5ø
and (ii) the y-axis, is equal to _______. 2 5
Official Ans. by NTA (10) cos a = , sin a =
27 3 3

64.5 æ 3ö DR’s normal to plane (1, –1, –1)

Sol. x2 = ç y- ÷
75 è 5ø
-a - 2 + 2 5
sin a = =
æ8 6ö 4 + 4 + 1 a2 + 1 + 1 3 3
equation of tangent at ç , ÷
è5 5ø
3 | a | = 5 a2 + 2
æ 6 ö
y+
8 64 ç 5- ÷
3 3a2 = 25a2 + 50
x. = ç ÷
5 15 ç 2 5÷
è ø No value of (a)

8
22
 Final JEE-Main Exam July, 2022/25-07-2022/Evening Session

FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JULY, 2022

(Held On Monday 25th July, 2022) TIME : 3 : 00 PM to 6 : 00 PM
PHYSICS TEST PAPER WITH SOLUTION
SECTION-A 3. 잘
drop
of
liquid
of
density
r
is
floating
half
1. ⵔn
잘M
modulation

a
signal
is
modulated
on
a
carrier
wave
such
that
maximum
and immersed
in
a
liquid
of
density
s
and
surface
minimum
amplitude
are
found
to
be

V
and tension
皤

×
Რ
–

Ncm–Რ

The
radius
of
drop

V
respectively

The
modulation
index
is in
cm
will
be


Take


g
净
Რ

m䔜s
傈
잘傈
Რ

煸 傈


煸
ⵌ傈


煸 傈

煸
15 15
Official Ans. by NTA (D) 잘傈
2r - s 傈
r - s

Vmax - Vmin.
Sol. modulation
index
净
´100%
Vmax + Vmin. 3 3
ⵌ傈
2 r - s 傈
20 2r - s
6-2
净
´ 100%
净

煸
6+2
2. The
electric
current
in
a
circular
coil
of


turns Official Ans. by NTA (A)
produces
a
magnetic
induction
Რ
at
its
centre

The
coil
is
unwound
and
is
rewound
into
a
circular
coil
of

turns
and
the
same
current
produces
a
magnetic
induction


at
its
centre

Fb+FT
B2
The
ratio
of
B
is


1

5 25 Sol.
잘傈
傈

2 4
mg
5 25
ⵌ傈
傈

4 2
Official Ans. by NTA (B) oyant
force

surace
tension
净
mg

Nm0i V
Sol. 
净
s g + 2pRT = rVg
2R 2
N1m0i
Რ
净
2R
(2r - s) 4 3 é 4 ù
2pRT = · pR g; ê V = pR 3 ú
1

or
N

净
 2 3 ë 3 û
N1 ´ R1
Radius
of
coil
净
R

净
N2
3T 3 ´ 7.5 ´ 10-2 N - m -1
R3 = Þ R=
N 2m0i (2r - s)g (2r - s) ´ 10


= R2

B2 N 2 R 1 N 2 N 2 B2 25 3 15
= · = ´ = R
净
20 (2r - s)
m
净
2r - s
cm
B1 N1 R 2 N1 N1 ; B1 4

23
Final JEE-Main Exam July, 2022/25-07-2022/Evening Session
4. Two
billiard
balls
of
mass




kg
each
moving r
Sol. et
addition
force
required
is
净
F
in
opposite
directions
with
Რ

ms–Რ
collide
and r
rebound
with
the
same
speed

ⵔf
the
time F + 5iˆ - 6iˆ + 7ˆj - 8jˆ = 0
duration
of
contact
is
t
净





s

then
what
is r r
the
force
exerted
on
the
ball
due
to
each
other墐 F = ˆi + ˆj, | F | = 2
잘傈
Რ


N 傈




N
y component 1
ⵌ傈
ૼ


N 傈




N 잘ngle
with
x伸axis


tan
q
净
x component = 1
Official Ans. by NTA (B)
q
净

°
m = 0.05 kg m = 0.05 kg 6. ⵌapacitance
of
an
isolated
conducting
sphere
10 m/s of
radius
RᲠ
becomes
n
times
when
it
is
10 m/s enclosed
by
a
concentric
conducting
sphere
Sol. of
radius
R

connected
to
earth

The
ratio
of

10 m/s 10 m/s æ R2 ö
their
radii
ç R ÷
is

è 1 ø
ⵌhange
in
momentum
of
any
one
ball
r
DP = 2 ´ 0.05 ´10 n 2n
잘傈 傈

r n -1 2n + 1
| DP |
净
Რ
r n +1 2n + 1
r | DP | ⵌ傈 傈

Fav = n n
Dt
av


净




N Official Ans. by NTA (A)
5. or
a
free
body
diagram
shown
in
the
figure

the
four
forces
are
applied
in
the
䁨x䁨
and
䁨y䁨 Sol. ⵌapacitance
of
isolated
ⵌonducting
sphere
directions

What
additional
force
must
be
净

pe
RᲠ
applied
and
at
what
angle
with
positive
x伸axis
so
that
the
net
acceleration
of
body
is
zero墐 y
enclosing
inside
another
sphere
of
radius

4pe0 R1R 2
y 7N R


new
capacitance
净
(R - R )
2 1

6N 5N 4pe R R








◤iven
(R - R ) = n ´ 4pe0 R1
0 1 2
x
2 1

8N R2
R2 R1
Þ = n
Þ =n
잘傈 2 N


° 傈
2 N

Რૼ° (R 2 - R1 ) æ R2 ö
ç - 1÷
2 è R1 ø
ⵌ傈 N

ૼ
° 傈


N


°
3
Official Ans. by NTA (A) R R R n
Þ R = n R - n
Þ R = (n - 1)
2 2 2

1 1 1

24
 Final JEE-Main Exam July, 2022/25-07-2022/Evening Session
7. The
ratio
of
wavelengths
of
proton
and 잘pplying
lens
formula
deuteron
accelerated
by
potential
Vp
and
Vd
is 1 1 1 1 210
+ =

Þ

=
1: 2

Then

the
ratio
of
Vp
to
Vd
will
be 0.12 2.4 f f 24
잘傈
Რ


Რ 傈
2 :1 Upon
putting
the
glass
slab

shift
of
image
is
ⵌ傈




Რ 傈




Რ æ 1ö 1
Dx = t ç 1 - ÷ = cm
Official Ans. by NTA (D) è mø 3

Sol. 䇼inetic
energy
gained
by
a
charged
particle 1 35
Now
v
净
12 - = cm
accelerated
by
a
potential
V
is
qV 3 3
䇼
净
qV 잘gain
apply
lens
formula

p2 1 1 1 210
Þ

= qV Þ

p = 2mqV + = =
2m 0.12 u f 24
Solving
u
净
–



m
h h
p
净



thus
l = 2mqV Thus
shift
of
object
is
l 


–




净
ૼ


m
9. ight
wave
traveling
in
air
along
x伸direction
lp m d Vd
now
l = m V is
given
by
y
净



sin
p
×
Რ

x
–
ct傈
Vm–Რ

d p p
Then

the
peak
value
of
magnetic
field
of
wave
will
be
◤iven
c
净
ૼ
×
Რ


ms–Რ傈
1 2Vd Vp
Þ

2 = Vp Þ

Vd
=4 잘傈
Რ

×
Რ
–皤
T 傈


×
Რ
–皤
T
ⵌ傈


×
Რ
–

T 傈
Რ

×
Რ
–

T
8. or
an
object
placed
at
a
distance




m
from
a Official Ans. by NTA (A)
lens

a
sharp
focused
image
is
observed
on
a
screen
placed
at
a
distance
Რ

cm
from
the
lens
Sol. y
净



sin
p
×
Რ

x
–
ct傈
Vm–Რ
잘
glass
plate
of
refractive
index
Რ

and 

净



Vm–Რ
thickness
Რ
cm
is
introduced
between
lens
and
E0 540
screen
such
that
the
glass
plate
plane
faces 

净

净
= 18 ´ 10-7 T
C 3 ´ 108
parallel
to
the
screen

y
what
distance
should
10. When
you
walk
through
a
metal
detector
the
object
be
shifted
so
that
a
sharp
focused
carrying
a
metal
object
in
your
pocket

it
raises
image
is
observed
again
on
the
screen墐
an
alarm

This
phenomenon
works
on
잘傈




m 傈
ૼ


m
잘傈
lectromagnetic
induction
ⵌ傈
Რ


m 傈



m
傈
Resonance
in
ac
circuits
Official Ans. by NTA (B)
ⵌ傈 Mutual
induction
in
ac
circuits
傈
interference
of
electromagnetic
waves
Official Ans. by NTA (B)
//////////////////

)
Sol. Sol. Metal
detector
works
on
the
principle
of
O1 transmitting
an
electromagnetic
signal
and
analyses
a
return
signal
from
the
target

So
it
Screen works
on
the
principle
of
resonance
in
잘ⵌ
2.4m 12 cm circuit

25
Final JEE-Main Exam July, 2022/25-07-2022/Evening Session
11. 잘n
electron
with
energy


Რ
keV
moves
at 13. The
length
of
a
seconds
pendulum
at
a
height
right
angle
to
the
earth䁨s
magnetic
field
of h
净

R
from
earth
surface
will
be

Რ
×
Რ
–


Wbm–


The
frequency
of
revolution ◤iven

R净Radius
of
earth
and
acceleration
due
of
the
electron
will
be to
gravity
at
the
surface
of
earth
g
净
p
m䔜s–
傈
Take
mass
of
electron
净
뜀


×
Რ
–ૼᲠ
kg傈 2 4
잘傈
Რ


×
Რ

z 傈



×
Რ

z 잘傈 m 傈
m
9 9
ⵌ傈




×
Რ


z 傈
Რ


×
Რ


z
Official Ans. by NTA (C) 8 1
ⵌ傈 m 傈
m
9 9
Official Ans. by NTA (D)
1 eB
Sol. f
净
=
T 2pm
1.6 ´ 10-19 ´ 10-4
L GM g p 2

净

净
2.8 ´106 Hz Sol. T = 2p g


g ' = 2 = =

2p ´ 9 ´10-31 9R 9 9
12. 잘
current
of
Რ
m잘
flows
in
the
circuit
as L
shown
in
figure

The
value
of
potential

净
2p ´9
p2
difference
between
the
points
잘
and

will
be
3 1
10 kW Þ

Რ
净
p L ´

Þ

L = m
p 9
14. Sound
travels
in
a
mixture
of
two
moles
of
helium
and
n
moles
of
hydrogen

ⵔf
rms
speed
5 kW
of
gas
molecules
in
the
mixture
is
2
times
the
speed
of
sound

then
the
value
of
n
will
be
10 kW 잘傈
Რ 傈


ⵌ傈
ૼ 傈


15mA Official Ans. by NTA (B)
5 kW A B
잘傈

V 傈
皤V gRT
ⵌ傈
Რ
V 傈

皤V Sol. vs
净

M
Official Ans. by NTA (D)
3RT
vrms
净

Sol. M

i1 10 kW vs g 1 g 1 3
=
净


Þ

=

Þ

g
净

v rms 3 2 3 2 2

5 kW g
净
1 + 2
f mi x.
i=15mA
2´3 + n ´5 6 + n ´5
10 kW fmix

净

净
(n + 2)
n+2
i=15mA
2(n + 2) 6 + 5n + 2n + 4
g
净
1 +
净

5 kW A B 6 + n ´5 6 + 5n

5 7n + 10 3
i1 = ´ 15mA = 5mA g
净

净

10 + 5 6 + 5n 2
V잘
–
i
–Რ
iᲠ
–
Რ
i
净
V Რ
n




净
Რ


Რn
V잘
–
V
净
皤




Რ

净

皤
V n
净

26
 Final JEE-Main Exam July, 2022/25-07-2022/Evening Session
15. et
h Რ
is
the
efficiency
of
an
engine
at
16
TᲠ
净


皤°ⵌ
and
T

净
Რ
皤°ⵌ
while
h

is
the -1
g eff - g 25
efficiency
at
TᲠ
净
뜀
皤°ⵌ
and
T

净

皤°ⵌ

The change
净
´ 100 净
´100
g 1
h1
ratio
h
will
be

-9
2






净
´ 100
净
–
ૼ
煸
잘傈



Რ 傈



25
ⵌ傈


皤ૼ 傈


皤
ence
煸
decrease
in
the
weight
净
ૼ
煸
Official Ans. by NTA (B) 17. 잘
bag
of
sand
of
mass
뜀


kg
is
suspended
by
a
rope

잘
bullet
of




g
travelling
with
speed
TL Რ

ms–Რ
gets
embedded
in
it

then
loss
of
kinetic
Sol. fficiency
h
净
1 - T
H energy
will
be
147 + 273 420 잘傈


뜀
 傈
뜀



h1 = 1 -
净
1 -
447 + 273 720 ⵌ傈
Რ

皤 傈
Რ뜀



300 Official Ans. by NTA (B)
h1 =
720
47 + 273 320 Sol. Pi
净
Pf
no
any
external
force傈
h2 = 1 - =1-
947 + 273 1220



×
Რ

净
Რ

×
v
900 v
净




m䔜sec
h2 =
1220
1 1
oss
in
䇼


净
´ (0.2) ´ 10 - ´ 10 ( 0.2 )
2 2
h1 300 1220 122 2 2
= ´ =
h2 720 900 72 ´ 3
1
h1 净
´ 10 ´ (0.2) [10 - 0.2]
= 0.56 2
h2
净
뜀



16. 잘n
object
is
taken
to
a
height
above
the
surface
18. 잘
ball
is
projected
from
the
ground
with
a
5
of
earth
at
a
distance
R
from
the
centre
of speed
Რ
ms–Რ
at
an
angle
q
with
horizontal
so
4
the
earth

Where
radius
of
earth

R
净





km
that
its
range
and
maximum
height
are
equal

The
percentage
decrease
in
the
weight
of
the then䁨tan
q䁨
will
be
equal
to
object
will
be
1 1
잘傈
ૼ
煸 傈

煸 잘傈
傈

ⵌ傈


煸 傈

煸 4 2
Official Ans. by NTA (A) ⵌ傈

傈


Official Ans. by NTA (D)

R/4
5R/4 Sol. R
净

Sol.
2v x ´ v y v 2y
=
g 2g

g g 16g vy u sin q
geff
净
2
ꬨ

geff
净
2
= vx
净
ꬨ

u
cos
q
净

æ hö æ 1ö 25 4 4
ç1 + ÷ ç1 + ÷
è Rø è 4ø tan
q
净


5

27
Final JEE-Main Exam July, 2022/25-07-2022/Evening Session
19. The
maximum
error
in
the
measurement
of SECTION-B
resistance

current
and
time
for
which
current
flows
in
an
electrical
circuit
are
Რ煸


煸
and
ૼ煸 1. 잘
particle
is
moving
in
a
straight
line
such
that
respectively

The
maximum
percentage
error
in its
velocity
is
increasing
at

ms–Რ
per
meter

the
detection
of
the
dissipated
heat
will
be
The
acceleration
of
the
particle
is
_____
ms–

잘傈


傈


at
a
point
where
its
velocity
is



ms–Რ

ⵌ傈

傈


Official Ans. by NTA (D) Official Ans. by NTA (100)

Sol. 
净
ⵔ
R
×
t
DE 2DI DR DT
´ 100 = ´ 100 + ´ 100 + ´ 100 dv
E I R T Sol.
净

ds
净


×



Რ

ૼ
净


20. ydrogen
atom
from
excited
state
comes
to
the
ground
by
emitting
a
photon
of
wavelength dv
a
净
v
净



×

净
Რ


m䔜sec

l

The
value
of
principal
quantum
number
䁨n䁨 ds
of
the
excited
state
will
be


R


Rydberg
constant傈 2. Three
identical
spheres
each
of
mass
M
are
lR lR placed
at
the
corners
of
a
right
angled
triangle
잘傈
傈

l -1 lR - 1 with
mutually
perpendicular
sides
equal
to
ૼ m
each

Taking
point
of
intersection
of
mutually
l lR 2
ⵌ傈
傈
perpendicular
sides
as
origin

the
magnitude
lR - 1 lR - 1
Official Ans. by NTA (B) of
position
vector
of
centre
of
mass
of
the
system
will
be
x m

The
value
of
x
is

-Rch Official Ans. by NTA (2)

En = (1)
n2
n=n
Sol. Ephoton=En – E1
n=1 (0, 3)
-Rch 3Ö3
E1 = (1) 3m
(1)2 Sol.
(0, 0) (3,0)
3m
- Rch Rch hc
+ =
(n) 2 1 l
-R 1 r M(0iˆ + 0ˆj) + M(3i)
ˆ + M(3j)
ˆ
+R = rcom =
n 2
l 3M
1 R r
R- = rcom = iˆ + ˆj
l n2
lR - 1 R r
= 2 | rcom |
净
2 = x
l n
lR lR x
净


n

净



Þ

n
净

lR - 1 lR - 1

28
 Final JEE-Main Exam July, 2022/25-07-2022/Evening Session

3. 잘
block
of
ice
of
mass
Რ


g
at
temperature 5. ⵔn
a
potentiometer
arrangement

a
cell
of
emf

°ⵌ
is
put
in
ૼ


gm
of
water
at

°ⵌ

The
xg Რ



V
gives
a
balance
point
at
ૼ

cm
length
of
wire

This
cell
is
now
replaced
by
another
of
ice
melts
as
the
temperature
of
the
water
cell
of
emf
Რ



V

The
difference
in
balancing
reaches

°ⵌ

The
value
of
x
is length
of
potentiometer
wire
in
above
[Use

Specific
heat
capacity
of
water
净





conditions
will
be
________
cm

kg–Რ䇼–Რ

atent
heat
of
ice
净
ૼ

×
Რ

kg–Რ] Official Ans. by NTA (18)
Official Ans. by NTA (90)
Sol. Რ


净
Potential
◤radient傈
×
ૼ

Რ


净
Potential
◤radient傈
×
x
Sol. nergy
released
by
water On
dividing

we
get
净


ૼ
×


×





净
ૼᲠ



2 36
let
m
kg
ice
melts =
3 x
m
×
ૼ

×
Რ

净
ૼᲠ

x
净
Რ

×
ૼ
净


cm
ence
difference
净


–
ૼ

净
Რ

cm
31500 ´10-5
m
净

净
뜀



×
Რ
– 6. Two
ideal
diodes
are
connected
in
the
network
3.5
as
shown
in
figure

The
equivalent
resistance
m
净



뜀
kg
净
뜀

gm between
잘
and

is
______W

x
净
뜀

x
4.
is
the
ratio
of
energies
of
photons
x+4
A B
20W
produced
due
to
transition
of
an
electron
of + –
hydrogen
atom
from
its
20W 15W
i傈
third
permitted
energy
level
to
the
second
level
and
ii傈
the
highest
permitted
energy
level
to
the Official Ans. by NTA (25)
second
permitted
level

Sol.
The
value
of
x
will
be
Official Ans. by NTA (5) A

æ 1 1ö 1 1 A B
13.6 ç 2 - 2 ÷ - 20W
Sol. è 2 3 ø= x
ꬨ

4 9 = x + –
æ 1 ö x+4 1 x+4
13.6 ç 2 - 0 ÷
è2 ø 4 20W 15W

5 x
= The
forward
biased
diode
will
conduct
while
9 x+4 the
reverse
biased
will
not
x




净
뜀x
A 10W 15W B

x
净


\

quivalent
resistance
净
Რ


Რ
净

W
x
净


29
Final JEE-Main Exam July, 2022/25-07-2022/Evening Session

7. Two
waves
executing
simple
harmonic
motion 9. 잘
convex
lens
of
focal
length



cm
is
placed
travelling
in
the
same
direction
with
same in
front
of
convex
mirror
with
principal
axis
amplitude
and
frequency
are
superimposed
coinciding
each
other

The
distance
between
the
lens
and
mirror
is
Რ

cm

잘
point
object
is
The
resultant
amplitude
is
equal
to
the
placed
on
principal
axis
at
a
distance
of



cm
3 times
of
amplitude
of
individual
motions
from
the
convex
lens

The
image
formed
by
The
phase
difference
between
the
two
motions combination
coincides
the
object
itself

The
is
_____
degree傈 focal
length
of
the
convex
mirror
is
_____
cm

Official Ans. by NTA (10)
Official Ans. by NTA (60)
Sol.
Sol. 잘resultant
净
A + A + 2A1A 2 cos f
2 2

// //
1 2

/
/ //////////// // // /
Þ

3A = A 2 + A 2 + 2A 2 cos f C

Þ

3A2 = 2A2 + 2A 2 cos f 60cm 10cm 20cm

/
1 f=20cm
Þ

cos f =
2 or
lens
\

f
净


° 1 1 1
- =
\

Phase
difference
净



degree v u f
8. Two
parallel
plate
capacitors
of
capacity
ⵌ
and 1 1 1 1 1 1
Þ - = Þ + =
ૼⵌ
are
connected
in
parallel
combination
and v ( -60) 20 v 60 20
charged
to
a
potential
difference
Რ
V

The v
净
ૼ

cm
battery
is
then
disconnected
and
the
space or
final
image
to
be
formed
on
the
object
itself

between
the
plates
of
the
capacitor
of
capacity after
refraction
from
lens
the
ray
should
meet
ⵌ
is
completely
filled
with
a
material
of the
mirror
perpendicularly
and
the
image
by
dielectric
constant
뜀

The
final
potential lens
should
be
on
the
centre
of
curvature
of
difference
across
the
combination
of
capacitors mirror
R
净
ૼ

–
Რ

净



cm
will
be
_______
V
ocal
length
of
mirror
净
R䔜

净
Რ

cm
Official Ans. by NTA (6) 10. Magnetic
flux
in
weber傈
in
a
closed
circuit
of
resistance



W varies
with
time
t s傈
as
f
净

t

–
뜀t



The
magnitude
of
the
induced
C current
at
t
净




s
will
be
______
m잘
Official Ans. by NTA (250)

Sol. f
净

t

–
뜀t


Sol. 3C
df
emf = - = -(16t - 9)
dt
18V
잘t

t
净




s
mf
净
–[ Რ

×



傈–뜀]
净
V
ⵔnitial
charge
on
ⵌ
净
Რ

ⵌV
initial
charge
on
ૼⵌ
净


ⵌV Emf 5V
ⵌurrent
净
=
et
final
common
potential
difference
净
V䁨 Re sis tan ce 20W
뜀ⵌV䁨

ૼⵌV䁨
净
Რ
ⵌV


ⵌV 1 1000
= A= mA = 250mA
Þ

Რ
ⵌV䁨
净
皤

ⵌV

Þ

V䁨
净


V 4 4

30
 Final JEE-Main Exam July, 2022/25-07-2022/Evening Session

FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JULY, 2022

(Held On Monday 25th July, 2022) TIME : 3 : 00 PM to 06 : 00 PM
CHEMISTRY TEST PAPER WITH SOLUTION
SⵌTⵔON伸잘

Two solutions A and B are prepared by
Რ
Match ist
ⵔ with ist
ⵔⵔ : dissolving 1 g of non-volatile solutes X and Y.
List-I List-II respectively in 1 kg of water. The ratio of
(molecule) (hybridization; shape) depression in freezing points for A and B is
A. XeO3 I. sp3d ; linear found to be 1 : 4. The ratio of molar masses of
B. XeF2 II. sp3; pyramidal X and Y is :
C. XeOF4 III. sp3d3; distorted octahedral (A) 1 : 4
D. XeF6 IV. sp3d2 ;square pyramidal
(B) 1 : 0.25
Choose the correct answer from the options
(C) 1 : 0.20
given below:
(A) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III (D) 1 : 5
(B) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I Official
잘ns

by
NT잘
傈
(C) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
(D) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
Official
잘ns

by
NT잘
잘傈 1
Mx
DTfx k f × m x 1
Sol
= =
DTfy k f × m y 1
My
Xe 1
Sol
(A) – sp3 – pyramidal
O O 1 My
O Þ =
4 Mx
F
Þ M x : M y = 1 : 0.25
Xe
ૼ
Ka1, Ka2 and Ka3 are the respective ionization
(B) – sp3d – linear constants for the following reactions (a),(b),
and (c).
F
(a) H 2 C 2 O 4 ƒ H + + HC2 O4-
O (b) HC2 O-4 ƒ H + + HC2 O24-
F F
(c) H 2 C 2 O 4 ƒ 2H + + C2 O24-
(C) Xe 3 2
–sp d –square pyramidal
The relationship between K a1 ,K a2 and K a3 is
F F given as
F (A) K a3 = K a1 + K a 2 (B) K a3 = K a1 - K a 2
F F
(C) K a3 = K a1 / K a 2 (D) K a3 = K a1 ´ K a 2
Xe Official
잘ns

by
NT잘
傈
3 3
(D) sp d –distorted octahedral
F F
Sol
H 2 C 2 O 4 ƒ H + + HC 2 O 4- K a1
F
H 2 C 2 O -4 ƒ H + + C 2 O 24 - K a2
H 2 C 2 O 4 ƒ 2H + + C 2 O 24 - K a3 =K a1 ´ K a 2

31
Final JEE-Main Exam July, 2022/25-07-2022/Evening Session


The molar conductivity of a conductivity cell filled 皤
Given below are two statements.
with 10 moles of 20 mL NaCl solution is L m1 and Statement
ⵔ
Pig iron is obtained by heating
that of 20 moles another identical cell heaving 80 cast iron with scrap iron.
mL NaCl solution is L m 2 , The conductivities Statement
ⵔⵔ
Pig iron has a relatively lower
exhibited by these two cells are same. carbon content than that of cast iron. In the
The relationship between L m 2 and L m1 is light of the above statements, choose the correct
(A) L m 2 = 2 L m1 (B) L m 2 = L m1 / 2 answer from the options given below.
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(C) L m 2 = L m1 (D) L m 2 = 4 L m1 correct.
Official
잘ns

by
NT잘
잘傈 (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are not
correct.
1000 (C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
Sol
Lm = k ´
M not correct
1 (D) Statement I is not correct but Statement II
Þ Lm µ is correct.
M
Official
잘ns

by
NT잘
傈
20
L m1 M2 1 2 1
= = 80 = ´ = Sol
Statement –I is incorrect because cast iron is
Lm2 M 10 4 1 2
1
20 obtained by heating pig iron with scrap iron
Þ L m = 2L m
2
Statement–II is also incorrect because pig iron
1

For micelle formation, which of the following has more carbon content (:4%) than cast iron
statements are correct? (:3%)
(A) Micelle formation is an exothermic

High purity (>99.95%) dihydrogen is obtained by
process. (A) reaction of zinc with aqueous alkali.
(B) Micelle formation is an endothermic (B) electrolysis of acidified water using
process. platinum electrodes.
(C) The entropy change is positive. (C) electrolysis of warm aqueous barium
(D) The entropy change is negative. hydroxide solution between nickel
(A) A and D only (B) A and C only electrodes.
(C) B and C only (D) B and D only (D) reaction of zinc with dilute acid.
Official
잘ns

by
NT잘
잘傈 Official
잘ns

by
NT잘
ⵌ傈

Sol
For micelle formation, DS > 0 (hydrophobic Sol
High purity (>99.95%) dihydrogen is obtained
effect) This is possible because, the decrease by electrolysis of warm aqueous Ba(OH) 2
in entropy due to clustering is offset by increase solution between Ni-electrodes
in entropy due to desolvation of the surfactant, 뜀
The correct order of density is
Also DH > 0 (A) Be > Mg > Ca > Sr


The first ionization enthalpies of Be, B, N and (B) Sr > Ca > Mg > Be
O follow the order (C) Sr > Be > Mg > Ca
(A) O < N < B < Be (B) Be < B < N < O (D) Be > Sr > Mg > Ca
(C) B < Be < N < O (D) B < Be < O < N Official
잘ns

by
NT잘
ⵌ
傈
Official
잘ns

by
NT잘
傈
Sol
In II'A' group density decreases down the
group till Ca and after that it increases.
N > O > Be > B Correct order of density is
Sol
Რst
ⵔ


(2p3 ) (2p4 ) (2s2 ) (2p1 )
Sr > Be > Mg > Ca

32
 Final JEE-Main Exam July, 2022/25-07-2022/Evening Session
Რ

The total number of acidic oxides from the Რૼ
Major product of the following reaction is
following list is : NO, N 2O, B2O3, N2O5, CO,
SO3, P4O10
O
2 HBr
(A) 3 (B) 4
O
(C) 5 (D) 6
Official
잘ns

by
NT잘
傈
Br
O Br
Sol
Neutral Oxides — N2O, NO, CO
(A)
Acidic Oxides — B2O3, N2O5, SO3, P4O10
O
ᲠᲠ
The correct order of energy of absorption for
the following metal complexes is
A: [Ni(en)3]2+, B: [Ni(NH3)6]2+, C: [Ni(H2O)6]2+
Br Br
(A) C < B < A
O
(B) B < C < A (B)
(C) C < A < B O
(D) A < C < B
Official
잘ns

by
NT잘
잘傈
(C) Br O Br
Sol
Stronger the ligand, larger the splitting & higher
the energy of absorption. O

[ Ni(en)3 ] > [ Ni(NH 3 ) 6 ] > [ Ni(H 2 O) 6 ]

+2 +2 +2

(A) (B) (C) Br

Რ

Match
ist
ⵔ
with
ist
ⵔⵔ
Br O
(D)
ist–ⵔ
ist–ⵔⵔ
A. Sulphate I. Pesticide O
B. Fluoride II. Bending of bones
C. Nicotine III. Laxative effect Official
잘ns

by
NT잘
傈
D. Sodium IV. Herbicide
arsinite
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below:
Br
(A) A-II, B-III. C-IV, D-I O O
(B) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I + H–Br ®
Sol

O O
(C) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV HBr
(D) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
Official
잘ns

by
NT잘
ⵌ傈
Br
Br O
Sol
잘伸Sulphate
–
ⵔⵔⵔ
axative
effect傈
伸 luoride
–
ⵔⵔ
ending
of
bones傈
O
ⵌ伸Nictoine
–
ⵔ
pesticides傈
伸Sodium
잘rsinite
–
ⵔV
herbicide傈

33
Final JEE-Main Exam July, 2022/25-07-2022/Evening Session
Რ

What is the major product of the following Sol
The correct order of acid strength is
reaction? OH OH OH OH
—
H OH
H2O
NO2 OMe
O NO2 OMe
O
+
CH3MgBr H3O Zn -Hg
Რ


CH3 - CH2 - CN ¾¾¾¾¾
Ether ® A ¾¾¾® B ¾¾¾¾
HCl
®C
(A) H
The correct structure of C is
(A) CH 3—CH 2—CH 2—CH 3
O OH
O
||
(B) H
(B) CH 3 - CH 2 - C - CH 3

OH
O O |
(C) CH 3 - CH 2 - CH - CH 3
(C) H
(D) CH3—CH2—CH = CH2
Official
잘ns

by
NT잘
잘傈
O
N MgBr
(D) H ||
Sol
CH3MgBr
CH 3CH 2 - C º N ¾¾¾¾¾ ® CH 3 CH 2- C -CH 3
Official
잘ns

by
NT잘
傈 +
H3O

O
H – H H ||
OH—
Sol
CH 3 CH 2 CH 2 CH3 ¬¾¾
Zn / Hg
¾ CH 3 CH 2 - C - CH 3
O O O— HCl

(Clemmensen Reduction)
O —
O O OH Რ皤
Match
ist
ⵔ
with
ist
ⵔⵔ

H
+ List-I List-II
H + H H Polymer used for items
A. Nylon 6,6 I. Buckets
B. Low density II. Non-stick
Aldol formation takes place. polythene utensils
C. High density III. Bristles of
Რ
Arrange the following in decreasing acidic
polythene brushes
strength. D. Teflon IV. Toys
OH OH OH OH
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below:
NO2 OCH 3 (A) A–III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(B) A–III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
NO2 OCH 3
(C) A–II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(A) A > B > C > D (B) B > A > C > D (D) A–II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
Official
잘ns

by
NT잘
傈
(C) D > C > A > B (D) D > C > B > A
Official
잘ns

by
NT잘
잘傈
Sol
P
® Toys
P
® uckets 잘s
per
NⵌRT傈

34
 Final JEE-Main Exam July, 2022/25-07-2022/Evening Session
Რ

Glycosidic linkage between C1 of a-glucose and

A sealed flask with a capacity of 2 dm3 contains
C2 of b-fructose is found in 11 g of propane gas. The flask is so weak that
(A) maltose (B) sucrose it will burst if the pressure becomes 2 MPa.
(C) lactose (D) amylose The minimum temperature at which the flask
Official
잘ns

by
NT잘
傈 will burst is _______ °C. [Nearest integer]
(Given: R = 8.3 J K–1 mol–1. Atomic masses of
Sol
Theoretical C and H are 12u and 1u respectively.) (Assume
that propane behaves as an ideal gas.)
Official
잘ns

by
NT잘
Რ
傈

11
Sol
Moles of C3 H8 = = 0.25moles
44
Რ뜀
Some drugs bind to a site other than, the active PV = nRT
site of an enzyme. This site is known as Þ 2 × 106 × 2 × 10–3 = 0.25 × 8.3 × T
(A) non-active site (B) allosteric site Þ T = 1927.710 K = 1654.56°C
(C) competitive site (D) therapeutic site ૼ
When the excited electron of a H atom from
Official
잘ns

by
NT잘
傈 n = 5 drops to the ground state, the maximum
number of emission lines observed are _____
Sol
Theoretical Official
잘ns

by
NT잘
Რ
傈



In base vs. Acid titration, at the end point methyl
orange is present as Sol
Since only a single H atom is present,
(A) quinonoid form (B) heterocyclic form maximum number of spectral lines = 4
(C) phenolic form (D) benzenoid form
Official
잘ns

by
NT잘
잘傈
5
4
- +
Sol
Me2N N N SO Na
3 3
2
+
H
1

Me2N+ N NH SO-3 Na +

While performing a thermodynamics experiment,

a student made the following observations,
QUⵔNONOⵔ
ORM傈
HCl + NaOH ® NaCl + H2O DH = –57.3 kJ mol–1
SⵌTⵔON伸
CH3COOH + NaOH ® CH3COONa + H2O
Რ
56.0 L of nitrogen gas is mixed with excess of
DH = –55.3 kJ mol–1.
hydrogen gas and it is found that 20 L of
The enthalpy of ionization of CH 3COOH as
ammonia gas is produced. The volume of
calculated by the student is ______ kJ mol–1.
unused nitrogen gas is found to be____ L.
(nearest integer)
Official
잘ns

by
NT잘


傈
Official
잘ns

by
NT잘

傈

N2 + 3H 2 ® 2NH 3 Sol
DH ionisation of CH 3 COOH = -57.3 - ( -55.3)

Sol
56L excess O
-10L -30L +20L = 2 KJ/mol
46L 20L

35
Final JEE-Main Exam July, 2022/25-07-2022/Evening Session


For the decomposition of azomethane. 皤
The spin-only magnetic moment value of M3+ ion
CH3N2CH3(g) ® CH3CH3(g)+N2(g) a first order (in gaseous state) from the pairs Cr3+/Cr 2+,
reaction, the variation in partial pressure with Mn 3+/Mn 2, Fe 3+/Fe 2+ and Co 3+/Co 2+ that has
time at 600 K is given as negative standard electrode potential, is B.M.
4 [Nearest integer]
Slope = –3.465×10
æ p ö Official
잘ns

by
NT잘

傈
ln ç 0 ÷
èp ø

Sol

0
ECr +3 Cr +2
= -0.41V
t/s
The half life of the reaction is _____ × 10–5s.
[Nearest integer] [Cr +3 ] = 4s0 3d 3
Official
잘ns

by
NT잘

傈
m= n(n + 2) B.M
Sol
For first order reaction
1 æP ö = 15 B.M : 4 B.M
k = ln ç 0 ÷
t è Pø
æP ö

A sample of 4.5 mg of an unknown monohydric
ln ç 0 ÷ = kt alcohol, R–OH was added to methylmagnesium
è P ø
iodide. A gas is evolved and is collected and its
ln 2 0.693
t1/2 = = = 2 ´ 10 -5 volume measured to be 3.1 mL. The molecular
k 3.465 ´ 10 4
weight of the unknown alcohol is ____ g/mol.


The sum of number of lone pairs of electrons [Nearest integer]
present on the central atoms of
Official
잘ns

by
NT잘
ૼૼ傈
XeO3, XeOF4 and XeF6 is _____________
Official
잘ns

by
NT잘
ૼ傈

Sol
ROH + CH3MgI ® ROMgI + CH4(g)

moles of CH4 = moles of ROH

Xe
Sol
- one lone pair on central atom
O O O Þ
V
=
m
(Assuming NTP Condition)
22400 M.M
O
F F
3.1 4.5 ´ 10 -3
Xe - one lone pair on central atom Þ =
22400 M.M
F F
Þ MM = 32.51

Nearest Integer = 33
F
F F
Xe
- one lone pair on central atom
F F
F

36
 Final JEE-Main Exam July, 2022/25-07-2022/Evening Session

뜀
The separation of two coloured substances was Რ

The total number of monobromo derivatives
done by paper chromatography. The distances formed by the alkanes with molecular formula
C5H12 is (excluding stereo isomers)_____
travelled by solvent front, substance A and
Official
잘ns

by
NT잘

傈
substance B from the base line are 3.25 cm. 2.08
cm and 1.05 cm. respectively. The ratio of Rf Sol
The Alkanes and their monobromodervative are
values of A to B is ______
Br
Official
잘ns

by
NT잘

傈 Br, ,
1.
Br
2.08
R FA 2.08 Br
= 3.25 = ;2 ,
Sol
R FB 1.05 1.05 2. , , Br
3.25 Br Br

3. Br

37
 Final JEE-Main Exam July, 2022/25-07-2022/Evening Session

FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JULY, 2022

(Held On Monday 25th July, 2022) TIME : 3 : 00 PM to 6 : 00 PM
MATHEMATICS TEST PAPER WITH ANSWER
SECTION-A 21

å (4n - 1) (4n + 3)
3
1. For zΣ if the minimum value of 5. The sum is equal to
n =1

(| z - 3 )
2 | + | z - p 2i | is 5 2 , then a value
7 7
of p is _____________ (A) (B)
87 29
7
(A) 3 (B) 14 21
2 (C) (D)
87 29
9 Official Ans. by NTA (B)
(C) 4 (D)
2
Official Ans. by NTA (C)
8 2 - (cos x + sin x)7
6. lim is equal to
x®
p 2 - 2 sin 2x
2. The number of real values l , such that the 4

system of linear equations (A) 14 (B) 7

2x – 3y + 5z = 9 (C) 14 2 (D) 7 2
x + 3y – z = –18
Official Ans. by NTA (A)
3x – y + (l2 – |l|)z = 16
has no solution, is :-
(A) 0 (B) 1 æ ö
ç ÷
1 ç 1 1 1 1 ÷
(C) 2 (D) 4 lim n + + + ...... +
7. n ®¥ 2 ç ÷
1 2 3 2n - 1
Official Ans. by NTA (C) ç 1- n 1- n 1- n 1- n ÷
è 2 2 2 2 ø

3. The number of bijective functions f : {1, 3, 5, is equal to

7,........99} ® {2, 4, 6, 8,......., 100}, such that 1
(A) (B) 1
f (3) ³ f (9) ³ f (15) ³ f (21) ³ ..... ³ f (99) , is 2
_____ (C) 2 (D) –2
(A) 50 P17 (B) 50P33 Official Ans. by NTA (C)
50!
(C) 33! × 17! (D)
2 8. If A and B are two events such that
Official Ans. by NTA (B) 1 1 1
P(A) = , P(B) = and P(A È B) = ,
3 5 2
4. The remainder when (11) 1011 + (1011) 11 is then P(A | B¢) + P(B | A¢) is equal to
divided by 9 is
3 5
(A) 1 (B) 4 (A) (B)
4 8
(C) 6 (D) 8
5 7
Official Ans. by NTA (D) (C) (D)
4 8
Official Ans. by NTA (B)

38
Final JEE-Main Exam July, 2022/25-07-2022/Evening Session
9. Let [t] denote the greatest integer less than or Official Ans. by NTA (A)
equal to t. Then the value of the integral
101
ò
13. The tangents at the point A(1, 3) and B(1, –1)
([sin( px)] + e[cos(2 px )] )dx is equal to
-3 on the parabola y2 – 2x – 2y = 1 meet at the
point P. Then the area (in unit2) of the triangle
52(1 - e) 52 PAB is :-
(A) (B)
e e
(A) 4 (B) 6
52(2 + e) 104 (C) 7 (D) 8
(C) (D)
e e Official Ans. by NTA (D)
Official Ans. by NTA (B)

x 2 y2
10. Let the point P (a, b) be at a unit distance from 14. Let the foci of the ellipse + = 1 and the
16 7
each of the two lines L1 : 3x – 4y + 12 = 0, and
L2 : 8x + 6y + 11 = 0. If P lies below L1 and x 2 y2 1
hyperbola - = coincide. Then the
above L2, then 100 (a + b) is equal to 144 a 25
(A) –14 (B) 42 length of the latus rectum of the hyperbola is:-
(C) –22 (D) 14
32 18
Official Ans. by NTA (D) (A) (B)
9 5

11. Let a smooth curve y = f(x) be such that the 27 27

(C) (D)
slope of the tangent at any point (x, y) on it is 4 10

æ -y ö Official Ans. by NTA (D)

directly proportional to ç ÷ . If the curve
è x ø
passes through the point (1, 2) and (8, 1), then 15. A plane E is perpendicular to the two planes
2x – 2y + z = 0 and x – y + 2z = 4, and passes
æ1ö through the point P(1, –1, 1). If the distance of
y ç ÷ is equal to
è8ø the plane E from the point Q(a, a, 2) is 3 2 ,
(A) 2log e 2 (B) 4 then (PQ)2 is equal to
(C) 1 (D) 4loge2 (A) 9 (B) 12
Official Ans. by NTA (B) (C) 21 (D) 33
Official Ans. by NTA (C)

x 2 y2
12. If the ellipse + = 1 meets the line 16. The shortest distance between the lines
a 2 b2
x+7 y-6 7-x
x
+
y
= 1 on the x-axis and the line = = z and = y - 2 = z - 6 is
7 2 6 -6 7 2

x y (A) 2 29 (B) 1
- = 1 on the y-axis, then the eccentricity
7 2 6
of the ellipse is 37 29
(C) (D)
29 2
5 2 6
(A) (B) Official Ans. by NTA (A)
7 7

3 2 5
(C) (D)
7 7

39
 Final JEE-Main Exam July, 2022/25-07-2022/Evening Session
r r SECTION-B
17. Let a = ˆi - ˆj + 2kˆ and b be a vector such that
1. Let A : {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7}. Define B = {T Í A
r r rr
a ´ b = 2iˆ - kˆ and a.b = 3 . Then the projection : either 1 Î T or 2 Î T } and C = T Í A : T the
r r r
of b on the vector a - b is :- sum of all the elements of T is a prime number}.
Then the number of elements in the set B È C
2 3 is _______________
(A) (B) 2
21 7 Official Ans. by NTA (107)
2 7 2
(C) (D) 2. Let f(x) be a quadratic polynomial with leading
3 3 3
Official Ans. by NTA (A) coefficient 1 such that f(0) = p, p ¹ 0 and
1
f (1) = . If the equation f(x) = 0 and fofofof(x)
18. If the mean deviation about median for the 3
number 3, 5, 7, 2k, 12, 16, 21, 24 arranged in = 0 have a common real root, then f(–3) is equal
the ascending order, is 6 then the median is to.......................
(A) 11.5 (B) 10.5 Official Ans. by NTA (25)
(C) 12 (D) 11
Official Ans. by NTA (D)
é1 a a ù
ê ú
3. Let A = ê 0 1 b ú ,a,b Î ¡ . If for some n Î N ,
æ p ö æ 3p ö æ 5p ö æ 7p ö æ 9p ö êë 0 0 1 úû
19. 2sin ç ÷ sin ç ÷ sin ç ÷ sin ç ÷ sin ç ÷
è 22 ø è 22 ø è 22 ø è 22 ø è 22 ø
is equal to é1 48 2160 ù
A = êê0 1
n
96 úú then n + a + b is equal to
3 1
(A) (B) êë0 0 1 úû
16 16
____________
1 9
(C) (D) Official Ans. by NTA (24)
32 32
Official Ans. by NTA (B)
4. The sum of the maximum and minimum values
of the function f(x) = |5x – 7| + [x2 + 2x] is the
20. Consider the following statements :
é5 ù
P : Ramu is intelligent interval ê , 2ú , where [t] is the greatest integer
ë4 û
Q : Ramu is rich
£ t is _____________
R : Ramu is not honest
Official Ans. by NTA (15)
The negation of the statement "Ramu is
intelligent and honest if and only if Ramu is
not rich" can be expressed as : 5. Let y = y(x) be the solution of the differential
(A) ((P Ù (~ R)) Ù Q) Ù ((~ Q) Ù ((~ P) Ú R)) dy 4y3 + 2yx 2
equation = , y(1) = 1 . If for some
(B) ((P Ù R) Ù Q) Ú ((~ Q) Ù ((~ P) Ú (~ R))) dx 3xy 2 + x 3

(C) ((P Ù R) Ù Q) Ù ((~ Q) Ù ((~ P) Ú (~ R))) n Î N, y(2) Î [n - 1,n) , then n is equal to

________
(D) ((P Ù (~ R)) Ù Q) Ú ((~ Q) Ù ((~ P) Ú R))
Official Ans. by NTA (3)
Official Ans. by NTA (D)

40
Final JEE-Main Exam July, 2022/25-07-2022/Evening Session
6. Let f be a twice differentiable function on R. 9. Let the area enclosed by the x-axis, and the
tangent and normal drawn to the curve 4x 3 –
If f ¢(0) = 4 and
3xy2 + 6x2 – 5xy – 8y2 + 9x + 14 = 0 at the
x point (–2, 3) be A. Then 8A is equal to _____
2
ò
f (x) + (x - t)f ¢(t)dt = (e 2x + e -2x ) cos 2x + x ,
0
a
Official Ans. by NTA (170)

then (2a + 1)5 a2 is equal to _________

æ1 4ö
Official Ans. by NTA (8) 10. Let x = sin(2 tan -1 a) and y = sin ç tan -1 ÷ . If
è2 3ø

æ x x2 x3
n x n -1 ö S = {a Î R : y 2 = 1 - x} , then å16a 3
is equal to
7. Let ò
a n = ç1 + +
-1
è 2 2
+ + ....... +
3 n ø
÷ dx aÎS

________
for n Î N . Then the sum of all the elements of Official Ans. by NTA (130)
the set {n Î N : a n Î (2,30)} is ______
Official Ans. by NTA (5)

8. If the circles x2 + y2 + 6x + 8y + 16 = 0 and

x 2 + y 2 + 2(3 - 3)x + x + 2(4 - 6)y

= k + 6 3 + 8 6, k > 0 , touch internally at the

point P(a, b), then (a + 3) 2 + (b + 6)2 is
equal to __________
Official Ans. by NTA (25)

41
 FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JULY, 2022
(Held On Tuesday 26thJuly, 2022) TIME : 9 : 00 AM to 12 : 00 NOON

PHYSICS TEST PAPER WITH SOLUTION

SECTION-A T – 20g = 20(2)
1. Three masses M = 100 kg, m1 = 10 kg and T = 240 ….. (ii)
m2=20 kg are arranged in a system as shown in N1 = 20a1 ….. (iii)
figure. All the surfaces are frictionless and FBD of 10 kg block wrt 100 kg
strings are inextensible and weightless. The
2m/s2
pulleys are also weightless and frictionless. A
10a1 T
force F is applied on the system so that the
mass m2 moves upward with an acceleration of 10a1  240  10(2)
2 ms-2. The value of F is :
a1  26 m / s 2
(Take g = 10 ms-2) F  240  20(26)  100  26
 F = 3360 N
2. A radio can tune to any station in 6 MHz to
10 MHz band. The value of corresponding
wavelength bandwidth will be :

(A) 3360 N (B) 3380 N (A) 4 m (B) 20 m

(C) 3120 N (D) 3240 N (C) 30 m (D) 50 m

Official Ans. by NTA (C) Official Ans. by NTA (B )

Sol. Let acceleration of 100 kg block = a1 Sol. Given: Frequency f1 = 6MHz

FBD of 100 kg block w.r.t ground Frequency f2 = 10MHz

T c
1 
f1
T c
2 
a1 f2
F N1
Wavelength bandwidth = - = 20 m
3. The disintegration rate of a certain radioactive
F–T–N1 = 100 a1 ……..(i)
sample at any instant is 4250 disintegrations
FBD of 20 block wrt 100kg per minute. 10 minutes later, the rate becomes
T 2250 disintegrations per minute. The
approximate decay constant is :
2m/s2
(Take log101.88 = 0.274)
20a 1 N1 (A) 0.02 min –1 (B) 2.7 min –1
(C) 0.063 min –1 (D) 6.3 min –1

20g Official Ans. by NTA (C )

1
42
 
Sol. At t=0 disintegration rate = 4250 dpm Sol. For a given light wavelength corresponding a
medium of refractive index
At t=10 disintegration rate = 2250 dpm
=
A  Ao e λt
and we know that fringe width
10
2250  4250e
Therefore, = = = 9 mm
 4250 
  10   ln  
 2250  6. The magnetic field of a plane electromagnetic
wave is given by
   0.063min 1
4. A parallel beam of light of wavelength 900 nm

B  2 108 sin 0.5 103 x  1.5 1011 t ˆjT 
The amplitude of the electric field would be
and intensity 100 Wm-2 is incident on a surface
(A) 6Vm 1 along x-axis
perpendicular to the beam. Tire number of
(B) 3Vm 1 along z-axis
photons crossing 1 cm2 area perpendicular to
the beam in one second is : (C) 6Vm 1 along z-axis
(D) 2  108 Vm 1 along z-axis
(A) 3 × 1016 (B) 4.5 × 1016 Official Ans. by NTA (C)
(C) 4.5 × 1017 (D) 4.5 × 1020
E0
Official Ans. by NTA (B ) c  E 0  cB0
Sol.
B0

Sol.
9
Wavelength of incident beam   900 10 m
E0   3 108  2 108 

E 0  6Vm1
2
Intensity of incident beam =I W/m
As, B  along y-axis
No. of photons crossing per unit sec v  along negative x-axis
E net IA hence E 0  along z-axis
n 
Esin gle photon hc 7. In a series LR circuit XL  R and power

100 1104 900 109  factor of the circuit is P1 . When capacitor with
  4.5 1016
6.62 1034  3 108 capacitance C such that X L  X C is put in
5. In young’s double slit experiment, the fringe series, the power factor becomes P2 . The ratio
width is 12mm. If the entire arrangement is P1
is
4 P2
placed in water of refractive index , then
3 1 1
(A) (B)
the fringe width becomes (in mm) 2 2
(A) 16 (B) 9 3
(C) (D)2 : 1
(C) 48 (D) 12 2
Official Ans. by NTA (B )
Official Ans. by NTA (B )

2
43

Sol. In case of L-R circuit 9. BX and BY are the magnetic field at the centre
Z  X2L  R 2 & power factor of two coils of two coils X and Y respectively,
each carrying equal current. If coil X has 200
R turns and 20 cm radius and coil Y has 400
P1  cos   turns and 20 cm radius, the ratio of BX and BY
Z
As XL = R is
(A) 1 : 1 (B) 1 : 2
 Z  2R
(C)2 : 1 (D) 4 : 1
R 1
 P1   P1  Official Ans. by NTA (B )
2R 2
In case of L-C-R circuit
  0i 
Sol. At centre B  N 
Z  R 2   XL  XC  
2
 2R 
As X L  XC   0i 
Bx  200  
 2  20cm 
Z = R
  0i 
R By  400  
 P2  cos   1  2  20cm 
R Bx 1

P1 1 By 2
 
P2 2
10. The current I in the given circuit will be :
8. A charge particle is moving in a uniform
magnetic field  2iˆ  3jˆ T . If it has an
acceleration of  ˆi  4ˆj m / s , then the value
2

of  will be
(A) 3 (B) 6 (C) 12 (D) 2
(A) 10A (B) 20 A
Official Ans. by NTA (B )
(C) 4A (D) 40A
Official Ans. by NTA (A )
Sol. As F  q v  B 
a
q
m

vB 
So, a & B are  to each other
Sol.
Hence, a.B  0 Given circuit is balanced wheat stone bridge

 ˆi  4jˆ . 2iˆ  3jˆ   0

Hence 2 can be neglected
R net  4
  2    4  3  0 40
I
4
12
 6 I = 10A
2

3
44
 
11. The total charge on the system of capacitance 13. 7 mole of certain monoatomic ideal gas
C1  1F, C2  2 F,C3  4F and C4  3F undergoes a temperature increase of 40K at

connected in parallel is constant pressure. The increase in the internal

(Assume a battery of 20V is connected to the energy of the gas in this process is

combination) (Given R = 8.3 JK 1mol 1 )

(A) 200C (B) 200C (A) 5810 J (B) 3486 J
(C) 10C (D) 10C (C) 11620J (D) 6972 J
Official Ans. by NTA (A) Official Ans. by NTA (B )

Sol. Sol. For a quasi-static process the change in internal

q1 C1 = 1F energy of an ideal gas is

q2 C2 = 2F U  nCV T

q3 C3 = 4F 3R
 n  T
2
q4 C4 = 3F
[molar heat capacity at constant volume for mono
3R
atomic gas = ]
2
20V 3
U  7   8.3  40  3486J
Total charge = q1  q 2  q 2  q 4 2
 1 20  2  20  4  20  3  20  200C 14. A monoatomic gas at pressure P and volume V
12. When a particle executes simple Harmonic is suddenly compressed to one eighth of its
motion, the nature of graph of velocity as original volume. The final pressure at constant
function of displacement will be : entropy will be:
(A) Circular (B)Ellipitical (A) P (B) 8P (C) 32P (D) 64 P
(C) Sinusoidal (D) Straight line Official Ans. by NTA (C )

Official Ans. by NTA (B )

Sol. Constant entropy means process is adiabatic

Sol. For a particle in SHM, its speed depends on PV = constant

position as V1
V2 
8
v   A2  x 2 P1V1  P2 V2


Where  is angular frequency and A is amplitude 5/3

 V 
P1V  P2  1 
Now v   A   x
2 2 2 2 2 1
 8 
v2 x2 P V5/3
So,  1 P1V15/3  2 1
 A  A 32
2 2

P2 = 32P1
So graph between v and x is elliptical

4
45

15. A water drop of radius 1cm is broken into 16. The percentage decrease in the weight of a
rocket, when taken to a height of 32 km above
729 equal droplets. If surface tension of water
the surface of earth will, be :
is 75 dyne/cm, then the gain in surface energy (Radius of earth = 6400km)
(A) 1 % (B) 3%
upto first decimal place will be :
(C) (D) 0.5%
[Given   3.1 4] Official Ans. by NTA (A)

(A) 8.5  104 J (B) 8.2 104 J Sol. Acceleration due to gravity at a height h<< R is
 2h 
(C) 7.5104 J (D) 5.3 104 J g '  g 1  
 R 
Official Ans. by NTA (C ) g 2h
   
g R
g 2h
Sol. Initial surface energy = TA   100  100 
Where T is surface tension and A is surface area
g R
32
 75 105 N     2 100  1%  
   4 110  
2 2 
Ui   2
6400
 10 m 17. As per the given figure, two blocks each of
mass 250g are connected to a spring of spring
 75  103  4 104  942 107 J constant 2Nm 1 . If both are given velocity v
To get final radius of drops by volume in opposite directions, then maximum
elongation of the spring is :
conservation
4 3 4 
R  729   r 3 
3 3  v v
(A) (B)
R = Initial radius 2 2 2
r = final radius v v
(C) (D)
4 2
R R 1
r   cm Official Ans. by NTA (B)
 729 
1/3
9 9
v
Final surface energy
Sol.
U f  729  T A 
l0
N  1  v=0 v=0
 75 10 5 2
2 
 729  2    4    10  
 10 m    9  
x x
 3 4104  2 2
 729 75 10  
 81 
using energy conservation
 9 942 10 J 7 1 2 1
mv  2  kx 2
2 2
Gain in surface energy 1 2 1
 v   2  x2
U  9  942 107  942  107 4 2
v
 8  942 107 J  7536 107 J x 
2
 7.5 104 J

5
46
 
18. A monkey of mass 50kg climbs on a rope 19. Two projectile thrown at 300 and 450 with the
which can withstand the tension (T) of 350N. horizontal respectively, reach the maximum
If monkey initially climbs down with an height in same time. The ratio of their initial
2
acceleration of 4m / s and then climbs up velocities is
2
with an acceleration of 5m / s . Choose the (A) 1: 2 (B)2 : 1

correct option g  10m / s2  (C) 2 :1 (D) 1: 2
(A) T = 700N while climbing upward Official Ans. by NTA (C)

(B) T = 350 N while going downward

Sol. Time taken to reach maximum height
(C) Rope will break while climbing upward
u sin 
(D) Rope will break while going downward t
g
Official Ans. by NTA (C)
u1 sin 1 u 2 sin 2
 
g g
Sol. F.B.D of monkey while moving downward
T  u1 sin 30  u 2 sin 45

u1 1/ 2 2
  
u2 1/ 2 1
monkey a1
20. A screw gauge of pitch 0.5mm is used to
measure the diameter of uniform wire of
length 6.8cm, the main scale reading is
mg
Using Newton’s second law
1.5 mm and circular scale reading is 7. The

mg – T = ma1 calculated curved surface area of wire to

 500 – T = 50 × 4  T = 300 N appropriate significant figures is :

F.B.D of monkey while moving up [Screw gauge has 50 divisions on the circular
T scale]
(A) 6.8cm 2 (B) 3.4cm 2

monkey a2 (C) 3.9cm 2 (D) 2.4cm 2

Official Ans. by NTA (B)

mg
P 0.5mm
Sol. L.C.   = 0.01 mm
Using Newton’s second law of motion N 50
T – mg = ma2 Length of wire = 6.8 cm
 T – 500 = 50 × 5 Diameter of wire = 1.5 mm + 7 × L.C
 T = 750 N = 1.5 mm + 7 × .01 = 1.57 mm
Breaking strength of string = 350 N Curved surface area = D

 String will break while monkey is moving upward = 3.14 × 6.8 × 1.57 ×10–1 cm2
= 3.352 cm2 = 3.4 cm2
6
47

SECTION-B 1 1
mg2R  Idisc 2  Iparticle2
1. If the initial velocity in horizontal direction of 2 2

a projectile is unit vector î and the equation of 2  mR 2 

mg2R    mR 2 
2  2 
trajectory is y  5x 1  x  . The y component

vector of the initial velocity is _____ ˆj 2 3

mg2R  mR 2
2 2
(Take g = 10m / s 2 ) 3 2 2g
 
Official Ans. by NTA (5) 4 R
8g
2 
Sol. ux = 1 3R
y = 5x (1–x)
80
dy dx dx 
 5  10x 3R
dt dt dt
For initial y-component of velocity x
Given 4
 dy  3R
u y     5(1)  5
 dt  x 0 x 80
16 
u y  5ˆj
3R 3R
x=5
2. A disc of mass 1 kg and radius R is free of
3. In an experiment of determine the Young’s
rotate about a horizontal axis passing through modulus of wire of a length exactly 1m, the
its centre and perpendicular to the plane of extension in the length of the wire is measured
disc. A body of same mass as that of disc is as 0.4mm with an uncertainty of  0.02 mm
when a load of 1kg is applied. The diameter of
fixed at the highest point of the disc. Now the
the wire is measured as 0.4mm with an
system is released, when the body comes to uncertainty of  0.01 mm. The error in the
the lowest position, its angular speed will be measurement of Young’s modulus  Y  is
x found to be x  1010 Nm 2 . The value of x is
4 rad s 1 where x = ______
3R _____
[Take g  10m / s2 ]
 g  10ms  2

Official Ans. by NTA (2)

Official Ans. by NTA (5)

Sol. L = 1m
Sol.
Initial Final
L = 0.4 × 10–3 m
m m = 1kg
m
d = 0.4 × 10–3m
m
R R
F L
Y
A L

m
using conservation of mechanical energy

7
48
 

Y
FL

 mg  . 1 2C – 2Vs = C+ Vs
AL  d 2  3
3Vs = C
  0.4  10
 4  C
VS 
10  4 3

  0.4  10 3   0.4  10 3
2
C 3
100  f 0  f
2C 2 0
40 3
Y
  0.4  10 3 
3
200
f0 
3
40  7
Y 5. A composite parallel plate capacitor is made
22  64 103 109
up of two different dielectric materials with
Y = 0.199 × 10–12 N/m2
Y F L A   L  different thickness  t1 and t 2  as shown in
   
Y F L A  L  figure. The two different dielectric material are
0.02 d 0.2 0.01 separated by a conducting foil F. The voltage
 2   2
0.4 d 4 0.4 of the conducting foil is ____V.
0.1 0.1
   0.1
2 2
 Y  0.1 Y
= 0.199 ×1011 = 1.99 × 1010

4. When a car is approaching the observer, the

Official Ans. by NTA (60)
frequency of horn is 100Hz. After passing the
observer, it is 50Hz. If the observer moves
Sol.
x
with the car, the frequency will be Hz
3
where x = ___
Official Ans. by NTA (200 )
Capacitance of each capacitor
A3 0
 C  C1   6A 0
1
Sol. f1  100  f 0  
 C  Vs  2
C2  A4 0  40
C = speed of sound Equivalent capacitance
C1C2 24
VS = speed of source Ceq   A 0
C1  C2 10
 C  q net  Ceq  V   240 A 0
f 2  50  f 0  
 C  Vs  240 A 0
V2   60V
f1 C  Vs 4A 0
2  V2  Potential drop across C2 
f2 C  Vs
Vfoil  60V
8
49

6. Resistance are connected in a meter bridge Sol. At very high frequencies,

circuit as shown in the figure. The balancing 1

XC  0
C
length l1 is 40cm. Now an unknown resistance
Also XL  L  
x is connected in series with P and new
Thus, equivalent circuit can be redrawn as
balancing length is found to be 80cm
  
measured from the same end. Then the value
of x will be _____ 

  

~
220V
Z = 1 + 2 + 2 = 5
Official Ans. by NTA (20)
220V
I  44A
5
P 40cm 2 1 1
Sol. Initially,   …(1) 8. The graph between and for a thin convex
Q 60cm 3 u v
P  x 80cm 4 lens in order to determine its focal length is
Finally,   …(2)
Q 20cm 1
plotted as shown in the figure. The refractive
Divide (2) by (1)
index of length is 1.5 and its both the surfaces
Px 3
 4  6 have same radius of curvatures R. The value of
P 2
R will be ____cm.
x x
 1  6   5
P P (Where u = object distance , v = image
 x = 5P = 5 × 4 = 20 distance)

7. The effective current I in the given circuit at

very high frequencies will be ____A

Official Ans. by NTA (44 ) Official Ans. by NTA (10)

9
50
 
Sol. 10. In the circuit shown below, maximum zener
diode current will be ____mA

Official Ans. by NTA (9)

1 1
For point B,  0.10cm1 ,  0
u v
Sol. Consider input 120V
 Thus, u = –10cm, v = 
4000
i.e. f = 10 cm
1 2 1
  1.5  1     R  10cm 120V 60V 10,000
10cm R R
I
In a hydrogen spectrum ,  be the wavelength 60V
9. IL = = 0.006A
10,000
of first transition line of Lyman series. The
wavelength difference will be "a " between
I
120  60  V  0.015A
rd
the wavelength of 3 transition line of Paschen 4000
series and that of 2nd transition line of Balmer Thus I2 = I – IL

Series where a = _______ = 0.015 – 0.006 = 0.009 A = 9 mA

Official Ans. by NTA (5)

Sol. For first line of Lyman

1  1 3
 R 1    R  
  4 4
4
  …(1)
3R
3rd line(Paschen)
1 1 1  R 3
 R 2  2   
3 3 6  9 4
2nd line(Balmer)
1  1 1  R 3
 R 2  2   
2 2 4  4 4
12 16 20
Thus a  3   2    putting (1)
R 3R 3R
 4  20
a  a 5
 3R  3R

10
51
 Final JEE-Main Exam July, 2022/26-07-2022/Morning Session

FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JULY, 2022

(Held On Tuesday 26th July, 2022) TIME : 9 : 00 AM to 12 : 00 NOON

CHEMISTRY TEST PAPER WITH SOLUTION

SECTION-A 2. Match List - I with List - II.
List –I List – II
1. Match List - I with List - II.
(Processes/Reactions) (Catalyst)
List - I List – II (A) 2SO2(g)+O2(g)2SO3(g) (I) Fe(s)
(Compound) (Shape) (B) 4NH3(g)+5O2(g)4NO(g)+6H2O(g) (II) Pt(s)-Rh(s)
(A) BrF5 (I) bent (C) N2(g)+3H2(g)2NH3(g) (III) V2O5
(B) [CrF6]3– (II) square pyramidal (D) Vegetable oil(l)+H2Vegetable ghee(s) (IV) Ni(s)
(C) O3 (III) trigonal bipyramidal Choose the correct answer from the options given
(D) PCl5 (IV) octahedral below :
Choose the correct answer from the options given (A) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
below : (B) (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)
(A) (A) – (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV) (C) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
(B) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I) (D) (A) - (IV), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (I)
(C) (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (III) Official Ans. by NTA (B)
(D) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)
Official Ans. by NTA (C) Sol. 2SO 2  g   O 2  g  
V2 O5
 2SO 3  g  :
contact process
F
4NH3  g   5O 2  g  
 
4NO  g   6H 2 O  g  :
Pt s  Rh s
F F
Sol. Br Ostwald 's process
F F
N 2  g   3H 2  g  

 2NH 3  g  ; Haber 's process
Fe s

(Square pyramidal)
Vegetable oil (l )  H 2  g  
Ni(s)
  vegetable ghee

[ [
CrF6 
3
:
: Hydrogenation
3– 3. Given two statements below :
F
Statement I : In Cl2 molecule the covalent radius
F F
is double of the atomic radius of chlorine.
Cr
F F Statement II : Radius of anionic species is always
F greater than their parent atomic radius.
(Octahedral) Choose the most appropriate answer from options
O3 : given below :
+ (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
O
– (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are
O O
(Bent) incorrect.
PCl5 : (C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
Cl incorrect.
Cl (D) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
P Cl correct.
Cl
Cl Official Ans. by NTA (D)
(Trigonal bipyramidal)

1
52
 Final JEE-Main Exam July 2022/26-07-2022/Morning Session
Sol. In Cl2 molecule, the covalent radius is half of 7. Borazine, also known as inorganic benzene, can be
the internuclear distance, so statement(I) is prepared by the reaction of 3-equivalents of "X"
with 6-equivalents of "Y". "X" and "Y",
false.
respectively are :
For the same element, anion has lower
(A) B(OH)3 and NH3 (B) B2H6 and NH3
effective nuclear charge than atom  so anion
(C) B2H6 and HN3 (D) NH3 and B2O3
is larger than atom.  statement (II) is correct. Official Ans. by NTA (B)
4. Refining using liquation method is the most
suitable for metals with : 
Sol. 3B2H6 + 6NH3   2B N H + 12 H
3 3 6 2
(A) Low melting point
8. Which of the given reactions is not an example of
(B) High boiling point
disproportionation reaction ?
(C) High electrical conductivity
(A) 2H2O2  2H2O + O2
(D) Less tendency to be soluble in melts than
impurities (B) 2NO2 + H2O  HNO3 + HNO2
Official Ans. by NTA (A) (C) MnO4– + 4H+ + 3e–  MnO2 + 2H2O
(D) 3MnO42– + 4H+  2MnO4– + MnO2 + 2H2O
Sol. Liquation is used to purify metals having Official Ans. by NTA (C)
lower melting point than impurities present in
1 2 0
them. Sol. 2H 2 O 2 
 2H 2 O  O2 : Disproportionation
5. Which of the following can be used to prevent the 4 5 3
2NO 2  H 2 O  HNO 3  HNO 2 : Disproportionation
decomposition of H2O2?
(A) Urea MnO 4  4H   3e   MnO 2  2H 2O : reduction

(B) Formaldehyde 6 7 4
3MnO24  4H   2MnO 4  MnO 2  2H 2O : Disproportionation
(C) Formic acid
9. The dark purple colour of KMnO4 disappears in
(D) Ethanol
the titration with oxalic acid in acidic medium.
Official Ans. by NTA (A)
The overall change in the oxidation number of
manganese in the reaction is :
Sol. Urea acts as stabiliser for H2O2. (A) 5 (B) 1
6. Reaction of BeCl2 with LiAlH4 gives : (C) 7 (D) 2
(A) AlCl3 Official Ans. by NTA (A)
(B) BeH2
(C) LiH Sol. In acidic medium,
(D) LiCl 7

(E) BeAlH4 MnO4  Mn 2

Choose the correct answer from options given change in ox. no. = 5
below : 
10. C l  CH 4  A  B
(A) (A), (D) and (E)
A and B in the above atmospheric reaction step are
(B) (A) , (B) and (D)

(C) (D) and (E) (A) C2H6 and Cl2 (B) C HCl2 and H 2
(D) (B) , (C) and (D) 
(C) C H3 and HCl (D) C2H6 and HCl
Official Ans. by NTA (B)
Official Ans. by NTA (C)

Sol. 2BeCl2 + LiAlH4  2BeH2 + LiCl + AlCl3

 
Sol. Cl CH 4 
 CH3  HCl

2
53
 Final JEE-Main Exam July 2022/26-07-2022/Morning Session
11. Which technique among the following, is most
appropriate in separation of a mixture of 100 mg of
p-nitrophenol and picric acid ? Sol.
(A) Steam distillation
(B) 2-5 ft long column of silica gel
(C) Sublimation
(D) Preparative TLC (Thin Layer Chromatography)
Official Ans. by NTA (D)
Difference in reactions is observed due to solvent

Sol. polarity, which

(i) Ionizes phenol to make more reactive

phenoxide ion

(ii) Increases electrophilicity of bromine.

13. Which of the following compounds is not

aromatic?

(A)

Solvent polarity has been related to Rf value of

nitrocompounds. (B)

100 mg p-nitrophenol and picric acid have

different Rf value on silica gel plate

 Preparative TLC is best to separate 100 mg of (C)

para nitrophenol and picric acid

12. The difference in the reaction of phenol with
(D)
bromine in chloroform and bromine in water
medium is due to :
Official Ans. by NTA (C)
(A) Hyperconjugation in substrate
(B) Polarity of solvent
(C) Free radical formation Sol. [10] Annulene, although follow (4n + 2) electron
(D) Electromeric effect of the substrate rule, but it is non-aromatic due to its non planar
Official Ans. by NTA (B)
nature. It is nonplanar due to repulsion of C – H

bonds present inside the ring.

3
54
 Final JEE-Main Exam July 2022/26-07-2022/Morning Session
14. The products formed in the following reaction, A 15. Which reactant will give the following alcohol on
and B are reaction with one mole of phenyl magnesium
bromide (PhMgBr) followed by acidic hydrolysis ?

(A) CH3 – C  N
(B) Ph – C  N

(A) (C)
(D)

Official Ans. by NTA (D)

(B)

Sol.

16. The major product of the following reaction is

(C)

(D)
(A) (B)

Official Ans. by NTA (C)

Sol. (C) (D)

Official Ans. by NTA (A)

Sol.
NaBH4 does not reduce carboxylic acid.

Given reaction is an example of birch reduction.

4
55
 Final JEE-Main Exam July 2022/26-07-2022/Morning Session
17. The correct stability order of the following 18. Stearic acid and polyethylene glycol react to form
diazonium salt is which one of the following soap/s detergents ?
(A) Cationic detergent (B) Soap
(C) Anionic detergent (D) Non-ionic detergent
Official Ans. by NTA (D)

Sol.
CH 3(CH2) 16 COOH + OH(CH2CH2O) n CH2CH2OH
Stearic acid Polyethylene glycol
– H2O

O
CH 3(CH2) 16 – C – O – (CH 2CH2O) n CH2CH2OH
Non-ionic detergent
19. Which of the following is reducing sugar?

(A) (A) > (B) > (C) > (D)

(B) (A) > (C) > (D) > (B)
(C) (C) > (A) > (D) > (B) (A)

(D) (C) > (D) > (B) > (A)

Official Ans. by NTA (B)

(B)
Sol.

(C)

(D)
Since diazonium ion is a cation hence it is
stabilized by electron donating groups and
destabilized by electron withdrawing group.
Hence Stability order should be A > C > D > B. Official Ans. by NTA (A)

5
56
 Final JEE-Main Exam July 2022/26-07-2022/Morning Session
Sol. If any sugar is having free –OH group at anomeric SECTION-B
carbon then it will be a reducing sugar 1. Chlorophyll extracted from the crushed green
leaves was dissolved in water to make 2 L solution
of Mg of concentration 48 ppm. The number of
atoms of Mg in this solution is x × 1020 atoms. The
value of x is________. (Nearest Integer)
(Given : Atomic mass of Mg is 24 g mol–1,
NA = 6.02 × 1023 mol-1)
Official Ans. by NTA (24)

20. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as

WMg
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason Sol. ppm =  106  48
Vsoln
(R).
48  2  1000
Assertion (A) : Experimental reaction of CH3Cl  WMg =
10 6
with aniline and anhydrous AlCl3 does not give o
= 48  2  10–3 g
and p-methylaniline.
WMg 48  2  103
Reason (R) : The — NH2 group of aniline nMg = 
24 24
becomes deactivating because of salt formation = 4 × 10–3
with anhydrous AlCl3 and hence yields m-methyl Number of Mg atoms = 4  10–3 × 6.02 × 1023
aniline as the product. = 4  6.02 × 1020
In the light of the above statements, choose the = 24.08 × 1020
most appropriate answer from the options given  x = 24.08
below : 2. A mixture of hydrogen and oxygen contains 40%
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct hydrogen by mass when the pressure is 2.2 bar.
explanation of (A). The partial pressure of hydrogen is bar.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the (Nearest Integer)

correct explanation of (A). Official Ans. by NTA (2)

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

40
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true. Sol. Let WH 2  40 g  n H2   20
2
Official Ans. by NTA (C)
60 15
WO2  60g  n O2  
32 8
 
 20 
PH 2    2.2
15 
Sol.  20  
 8 
20
  2.2
20  1.875
20
  2.2
21.875
Friedel Craft Alkylation does not occur on this
= 2.0114
deactivated ring.
 2.01 bar
6
57
 Final JEE-Main Exam July 2022/26-07-2022/Morning Session
3. The wavelength of an electron and a neutron will 5. When 800 mL of 0.5 M nitric acid is heated in a
become equal when the velocity of the electron is x beaker, its volume is reduced to half and 11.5 g of
times the velocity of neutron. The value of x nitric acid is evaporated. The molarity of the
remaining nitric acid solution is x × 10–2 M.
is__________. (Nearest Integer)
(Nearest Integer)
(Mass of electron is 9.1 × 10–31 kg and mass of
(Molar mass of nitric acid is 63 g mol–1)
neutron is 1.6 × 10–27 kg)
Official Ans. by NTA ( 54)
Official Ans. by NTA ( 1758)

Sol. n HNO3  0.5  0.8

Sol. e  x  N
= 0.4 mole
e   N 11.5
(n HNO3 )remains  0.4 
h h 63
 
me  e m N  N = 0.4 – 0.1825
= 0.2175
m
 e  N . N 0.2175
me Molarity =  1000
400
1.6  1027 0.2175
= N =
9.1  1031 0.4
e = 1758.24 × N = 0.5437 mole/lit.
 x = 1758.24  0.54 mole/lit.
4. 2.4 g coal is burnt in a bomb calorimeter in excess = 54 × 10–2 mol/lit.
6. At 298 K, the equilibrium constant is 2 × 1015 for
of oxygen at 298 K and 1 atm pressure.
the reaction :
The temperature of the calorimeter rises from
Cu(s) + 2Ag+(aq) 
 Cu2+(aq) + 2Ag(s)
298 K to 300 K. The enthalpy change during the
The equilibrium constant for the reaction
combustion of coal is – x kJ mol–1. The value of x
1 2  1 Cu(s)  Ag  (aq)
is___________. (Nearest Integer) Cu (aq)  Ag(s) 
2 2
(Given : Heat capacity of bomb calorimeter 20.0 kJ
is x × 10–8. The value of x is_______.
–1
K . Assume coal to be pure carbon) (Nearest Integer)
Official Ans. by NTA (200) Official Ans. by NTA (2 )

Sol. C (s) + O2 (g)  CO2 (g) ; H = -x kJ/mole 1 1

Sol. K 'eq    x  108
Q = CT = 20 kJ × 2 K eq 2  1015

40 kJ heat is released for 2.4 g of C 1 1

  7  x  108
40 20 10
For 1 mole ‘C’ : Q  12
2.4 1
  107  x 108
20
400
  12 = 200 kJ/mole
24 10
x
20
Q=E = H = 200 kJ ( ng = 0)
x = 200 10
x  5  2.236
2
 2.24
7
58
 Final JEE-Main Exam July 2022/26-07-2022/Morning Session
7. The amount of charge in F (Faraday) required to 9. The difference between spin only magnetic
moment values of [Co(H2O)6]Cl2 and
obtain one mole of iron from Fe3O4 is _____.
[Cr(H2O)6]Cl3 is___________.
(Nearest Integer)
Official Ans. by NTA (0)
Official Ans. by NTA (8)
Sol. [Co(H2O)6]2+
3d 4s 4p
8e 
Sol. Fe3O4 
 3Fe Co+2 :

Charge for 1 mole Fe = 8/3 F number of unpaired e– = 3

  15BM
= 2.67 F
[Cr(H2O)6]3+
8. For a reaction A  2B + C the half lives are 100 s 3d 4s 4p

and 50 s when the concentration of reactant A is Cr+3 :

number of unpaired e– = 3
0.5 and 1.0 mol L–1 respectively. The order of the
  15BM
reaction is___ _____. (Nearest Integer)
Difference in spin only magnetic moment = 0
Official Ans. by NTA (2)

10. In the presence of sunlight, benzene reacts with Cl2

1
to give product, X. The number of hydrogens in X
t1 
[A 0 ]n 1 is_________.
Sol. 2

Official Ans. by NTA (6)

1
[100] 
(0.5)n 1

1
(50) 
(1)n 1 Sol.

n 1
1 1 
[2]   
 0.5 

[2]1 = [2]n–1

n–1=1

n=2

order = 2

8
59
 Final JEE-Main Exam July, 2022/26-07-2022/Morning Session

FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JULY, 2022

(Held On Tuesday 26thJuly, 2022) TIME : 9 : 00 AM to 12 : 00 NOON

MATHEMATICS TEST PAPER WITH SOLUTION

SECTION-A 3. If the system of linear equations.
1. Let f: R ® R be a continuous function such that 8x + y + 4z = –2
f (3x) – f (x) = x. If f (8) = 7, then f (14) is equal x+y+z=0
to : lx – 3y = m
(A) 4 (B) 10 has infinitely many solutions, then the distance of
(C) 11 (D) 16 æ 1ö
the point ç l, m, - ÷ from the plane 8x + y + 4z +
Official Ans. by NTA (B) è 2ø
2 = 0 is :
Sol. f(x) – f(x/3) = x/3
2 2 (A) 3 5 (B) 4
f(x/3) – f(x/3 ) = x/3
.... on adding 26 10
(C) (D)
9 3
æx ö æ1 1 ö
f (x) - limf ç n ÷ = x ç + 2 ....¥ ÷ Official Ans. by NTA (D)
n ®¥
è3 ø è3 3 ø
x
f (x) - f (0) =
2
f(8) = 7 ; f(0) = 3 8 1 4
f(x) = x/2 + 3 Sol. D= 1 1 1 =0Þl=4
f(14) = 10 l -3 0
2. Let O be the origin and A be the point z1 = 1 + 2i. Also D1 = D2 = D3 = 0
If B is the point z2, Re(z2) < 0, such that OAB is a So m = –2
right angled isosceles triangle with OB as
æ 1ö
Point ç 4, -2, - ÷
hypotenuse, then which of the following is NOT è 2ø
true ?
10
(A) arg z2 = p – tan–1 3 Distance from plane =
3
4 4. Let A be a 2 × 2 matrix with det (A) = –1 and det
(B) arg (z1 – 2z2) = – tan–1
3 ((A + I) (Adj (A) + I)) = 4. Then the sum of the
diagonal elements of A can be :
(C) z 2= 10 (A) –1 (B) 2

(D) 2z1 - z 2= 5 (C) 1 (D) - 2

Official Ans. by NTA (B)
Official Ans. by NTA (D)

éa b ù
Sol. AB = AO. z–ip/2 = – 2 + i Sol. Let A = ê ú ; ad – bc = –1
ëc dû
So OB = (–2 + i) + (1 + 2i)
A + I adj A + I = 4
z2 = –1 + 3 i
Þ ad – bc + a + d + 1 = 2 or –2
\ 2z1 - z 2 = 10
a + d = 2 or –2
1
60
 Final JEE-Main Exam July 2022/26-07-2022/Morning Session

5. The odd natural number a, such that the area of the 7. If the function
region bounded by y= 1, y = 3, x = 0, x = ya is ì
ï
ï log (1 - x + x ) + log e (1 + x + x ) æ -p p ö
2 2
364 f (x) = í e , x Î ç , ÷ - {0}
, equal to : sec x - cos x è 2 2ø
3 ï
ïî , x= 0
k
(A) 3 (B) 5
(C) 7 (D) 9 is continuous at x = 0, then k is equal to :

Official Ans. by NTA (B) (A) 1 (B) –1

(C) e (D) 0
Official Ans. by NTA (A)
3
y a +1
3
364
Sol. A = ò y a .dy = =
a +1 1 3
1
(ln (1 + x 2
)
+ x 4 ) cos x
Þa=5 Sol. lim
x ®0 1 - cos x 2
2 3 2 3
6. Consider two G.Ps. 2, 2 , 2 , ... and 4, 4 , 4 ,.... of
æ ln (1 + x 2 + x 4 ) ö 2
60 and n terms respectively. If the geometric mean ç ÷ x (1 + x 2 ) cos x
ç x2 + x4 ÷
225 n lim è ø =1
æ sin x ö 2
å k(n - k)
x ®0 2
8
of all the 60 + n terms is (2) , then
ç x2 ÷ x
k =1
è ø
is equal to : \k = 1

(A) 560 (B) 1540 ìx + a , x £ 0

8. If f(x) = í and
(C) 1330 (D) 2600 î x-4 , x > 0
ìx + 1 , x<0
Official Ans. by NTA (C) g(x) = í
î (x - 4) + b, x ³ 0
2

are continuous on R, then (gof) (2) + (fog) (–2) is

(( 2 2 .....2 )( 4 .4 ......4 ) )
1 225
Sol. 1 2 60 1 2 n 60+ n
=2 8 equal to :
(A) –10 (B) 10

æ 30´61 n( n2+1) ö 601+ n 225 (C) 8 (D) –8

ç2 4 ÷ =2 8
Official Ans. by NTA (D)
è ø

( 225)( 60 +n )
21830+ n +n
=2
2

ïì x + 1 ;x<0
8
ìx + a ; x £ 0
Sol. f (x) = í ; g (x) = í
î | x - 4 |; x > 0 ïî ( x - 4 ) + b; x ³ 0
2

= 8n 2 - 217n + 1140 = 0
For continuity a = 4 and b = –15
57
n = 20,
8 g ( f ( 2 ) ) + f ( g ( -2 ) )
n
n 2 ( n + 1) n ( n + 1)( 2n + 1)
å nk - k 2 = - = g ( 2 ) + f ( -1) = -8
k =1 2 6

= 1330

2
61
Final JEE-Main Exam July 2022/26-07-2022/Morning Session

ì x 3 - x 2 + 10x - 7 , x £ 1 1 n 2 2 p
å
1
9. Let f(x) = í Sol. a= =ò dx =
î -2x + log 2 (b - 4) , x > 1
2 n k =1 ækö
2 0 1+ x 2
2
1+ ç ÷
Then the set of all values of b, for which f(x) has ènø
æx ö
f ( x ) = tan ç ÷ ; x Î( 0, 1)
maximum value at x = 1, is :
(A) (–6, –2) è2 ø
(B) (2, 6) æpö
f ç ÷ = 2 -1
(C) [–6, –2) È (2, 6] è4ø
(D) [– 6 , –2) È (2, 6] æ pö 1 æpö 2
f ' ç ÷ = sec2 ç ÷ =
Official Ans. by NTA (C) è4ø 2 è8ø 2 +1
æpö æpö
f 'ç ÷ = 2 f ç ÷
Sol. f (1) = 3 è4ø è4ø

For x < 1, f ' ( x ) = 3x 2 - 2x + 10 > 0 dy p æpö

11. If + 2y tan x = sin x, 0 < x < and y ç ÷ =
dx 2 è3ø
Þ f ( x ) is increasing
0, then the maximum value of y(x) is
For x >1 , f ' ( x ) < 0
1 3
Þ function is decreasing. (A) (B)
8 4
lim f ( x ) = -2 + log 2 ( b2 - 4 ) 1 3
x ®1+ (C) (D)
4 8
For maximum value at x = 1
Official Ans. by NTA (A)
3 ³ - 2 + log 2 ( b - 4 )
2

32 ³ b 2 - 4 > 0 dy
Sol. + 2y tan x = sin x
dx
b Î[ -6, - 2) È (2, 6]
I.F = e ò
ln (sec x )
2 tan x dx 2
n
2n =e = sec2 x
10. If a = lim å and f(x) =
1 n +k
n ®¥ 2 2
k=

1 - cos x y ( sec 2 x ) = ò sin x sec 2 x dx + C

, x Î (0,1) , then :
1 + cos x
æaö æaö y.sec 2 x = sec x + C
(A) 2 2f ç ÷= f ' ç ÷
è2ø è2ø p
Put x= , y= 0
æaö æaö 3
(B) f ç ÷ f ' ç ÷ = 2
è2ø è2ø
y = cos x - 2 cos 2 x
æaö æaö
(C) 2f ç ÷= f ' ç ÷ 2
è2ø è2ø 1 æ 1ö
= - 2 ç cos x - ÷
8 è 4ø
æaö æaö
(D) f ç ÷= 2 f 'ç ÷
è2ø è2ø \ y max =
1
Official Ans. by NTA (C)
8

3
62
 Final JEE-Main Exam July 2022/26-07-2022/Morning Session

12. A point P moves so that the sum of squares of its Sol. Tangent at ( a, b ) has slope 1
distances from the points (1, 2) and (–2, 1) is 14.
b2 = 24a
Let f(x, y) = 0 be the locus of P, which intersects
12
the x-axis at the points A, B and the y-axis at the Equation of tangent yb = 12 ( x + a ) , = 1
point C, D . Then the area of the quadrilateral b
ACBD is equal to Þ a = 6, b = 12

9 3 17 \( a + 4, b + 4 ) = (10,16)
(A) (B)
2 2
x 2 y2
Normal at (10, 16) to - = 1 is
3 17 36 144
(C) (D)9
4 2x + 5y = 100
Official Ans. by NTA (B) 14. The length of the perpendicular from the point
(1, –2, 5) on the line passing through (1, 2, 4) and
( x - 1) + ( y - 2 ) + ( x + 2 ) + ( y - 1) = 14
2 2 2 2
Sol. parallel to the line x + y – z = 0 = x – 2y + 3z – 5
is :
Þ x 2 + y 2 + x - 3y - 2 = 0
21 9
Put x = 0 (A) (B)
2 2
Þ y 2 - 3y - 2 = 0
73
(C) (D)1
3 ± 17 2
Þy =
2 Official Ans. by NTA (A)
Put y = 0
Þ x2 + x - 2 = 0 ˆi ˆj kˆ
( x + 2 )( x - 1) = 0 Sol. d.r’s of the line = 1 1 -1 = ˆi - 4ˆj - 3kˆ

æ 3 + 17 ö æ 3 - 17 ö
1 -2 3
\ A ( -2, 0 ) , B (1,0 ) , C ç 0, ÷ , D ç 0, ÷
è 2 ø è 2 ø \equation of line is

Area =
1
.3. 17 =
3 17
r ˆ ˆ
(
r = i + 2 j + 4kˆ + l ˆi - 4ˆj - 3kˆ )
2 2
Let A(1, 2, 4) and P be (1 + l , 2 - 4 l, 4 - 3l )
13. Let the tangent drawn to the parabola y 2 = 24x at
uuur
the point ( a, b ) is perpendicular to the line 2x ( )
\ PA . iˆ - 4ˆj - 3kˆ = 0

1
+2y = 5. Then the normal to the hyperbola l=
2
x 2 y2
- = 1 at the point ( a + 4, b + 4 ) does NOT
a2 b 2 æ1 -5 ö
Þ P ç ,2, ÷
è2 2 ø
pass through the point :
21
(A) (25, 10) (B) (20, 12) | AP | =
(C) (30, 8) (D) (15, 13) 2
Official Ans. by NTA (D)

4
63
Final JEE-Main Exam July 2022/26-07-2022/Morning Session

r r
15. Let a = aˆi + ˆj - kˆ and b = 2iˆ + ˆj - ak,
ˆ a > 0 . If 17. Let E1, E2, E3 be three mutually exclusive events
r r 2 + 3p 2-p
the projection of a ´ b on the vector - ˆi + 2ˆj - 2kˆ such that P(E1) = , P(E2) = and P(E3)
6 8
is 30, then a is equal to
1- p
15 = . If the maximum and minimum values of p
(A) (B) 8 2
2 are p1 and p2, then (pl + p2) is equal to :
13
(C) (D)7 2 5
2 (A) (B)
3 3
Official Ans. by NTA (D)
5
(C) (D) 1
r r
Sol. a ´ b = (1 - a ) ˆi + ( a - 2 ) ˆj + ( a - 2 ) kˆ
2 4
Official Ans. by NTA (D)
r r
Projection of a ´ b on - ˆi + 2ˆj - 2kˆ
r r
=
( )(
a ´ b . - ˆi + 2ˆj - 2kˆ
= 30
) Sol. 0 £ P(Ei) £ 1 for i = 1, 2, 3

3 Þ –2/3 £ p £ 1
Þ 2 a 2 - a - 91 = 0 E1 & E2 & E3 are mutually exclusive

Þ a = 7, -
13 P(E1) + P(E2) + P(E3) £ 1
2 Þ 2/3 £ p £ 1
16. The mean and variance of a binomial distribution p1 = 1, p2 = 2/3
a 4
are a and respectively. If P ( X = 1) = , p1 + p2 = 5/3
3 243
then P(X = 4 or 5) is equal to : 18. Let
S = {q Î [0, 2p] : 82sin q + 82cos q
= 16} . Then
2 2
5 64
(A) (B)
9 81
æ æp ö æp öö
(C)
16
(D)
145 n(S) + å çè sec çè 4 + 2q ÷ø cosec çè 4 + 2q ÷ø ÷ø is
qÎS
27 243 equal to :
Official Ans. by NTA (C) (A) 0 (B) –2
(C) –4 (D) 12
Sol. np = a .....(1) Official Ans. by NTA (C)

npq = a /3 .....(2)
82sin q + 82-2sin q = 16
2 2
From (1) & (2) Sol.
q = 1/3 & p = 2/3 64
4
n -1 1
y+ = 16
n
C1 q p = y
243
n 2 Þy=8
=
3n
243 Þ sin2q = ½
n=6 1
4 2 5 0 n(S) + å
æ 2ö æ1ö æ2ö æ1ö q Î S cos( p / 4 + 2q)sin( p / 4 + 2q)
P (4 or 5) = 6 C 4 ç ÷ ç ÷ + 6C5 ç ÷ . ç ÷
è 3 ø è 3ø è 3 ø è 3ø
= 4 + (–2) × 4 = –4
16
=
27
5
64
 Final JEE-Main Exam July 2022/26-07-2022/Morning Session

æ 1 5 1ö 2. The number of 5-digit natural numbers, such that

19. tan çç 2 tan -1 + sec -1 + 2 tan -1 ÷÷ is equal to: the product of their digits is 36, is
è 5 2 8ø
Official Ans. by NTA (180)
(A) 1 (B) 2
1 5
(C) (D)
4 4 5! 5! 5! 5!
Sol. 3´ + + + = 180
Official Ans. by NTA (B) 2!2! 3!´ 2! 2! 3!

3. The series of positive multiples of 3 is divided into

æ 1 1 æ 1 öö
Sol. tan ç 2(tan -1 + tan -1 ) + tan -1 ç ÷ ÷ sets : {3}, {6, 9,12}, {15, 18, 21, 24, 27},... Then
è 5 8 è 2 øø the sum of the elements in the 11th set is equal
é æ1ö æ 1 öù
= tan ê 2 tan -1ç ÷+ tan -1ç ÷ ú
to__________,
ë è ø
3 è 2 øû
=2 Official Ans. by NTA (6993)

20. The statement (~(p Û ~q)) Ù q is :

(A) a tautology Sol. S11 = 3[101 + 102 + ...... + 121]
(B) a contradiction
3
(C) equivalent to (p Þ q) Ù q = (222) ´ 21 = 6993
2
(D) equivalent to (p Þ q) Ù p
4. The number of distinct real roots of the equation
Official Ans. by NTA (D)
x5(x3 – x2 – x +1) +x (3x3 – 4x2 – 2x + 4) – 1 = 0 is
Official Ans. by NTA (3)
Sol. (~(p Û ~q)) Ù q º (p Û q) Ù q
(p Û q) Ù q º p Ù q
Sol. x5(x3 – x2 – x +1) +x (3x3 – 4x2 – 2x + 4) – 1 = 0
Þ (x–1)2 (x + 1) (x5 + 3x – 1) = 0
pÛ q p®q
Let f(x) = x5 + 3x –1
f’(x) > 0 " xÎ R
SECTION-B
Hence 3 real distinct roots.
1. If for some p, q, r Î R, not all have same sign, one 5. If the coefficients of x and x2 in the expansion of
of the roots of the equation (p2 + q2)x2 – 2q(p + r)x (1 + x)p(1 – x)q, p, q £ 15, are –3 and–5
+ q2 + r2 = 0 is also a root of the equation respectively, then the coefficient of x3 is equal
2 q2 + r2 to______________.
x + 2x – 8 = 0, then is equal to-
p2 Official Ans. by NTA (23)
Official Ans. by NTA (272)
Sol. Since coefficient of x is –3
Þ pC1 – qC1 = –3
Sol. (px – q)2 + (qx – r)2 = 0 Þ p – q = –3 ....(1)
q r Comparing coefficients of x2
Þx= = = -4
– pC1 C1 + C2 + C2 = –5
q p q
p q
p(p - 1) q(q - 1)
q2 + r2 -pq + + = -5 ....(2)
Þ = 272 2 2
p2
6
65
Final JEE-Main Exam July 2022/26-07-2022/Morning Session

Solving (1) and (2) dy 1 dt

Put y = t, y =
2

p = 8, q = 11 dx 2 dx
Coefficient of x3 is
dt 2 2
q p
– qC3 + pC3 + pC1 C2 – C2 C1
q
- t = x3
dx x 3
= – 11C3 + 8C3 + 8C1 C2 – C2 C1
11 8 11

= 23 t x2
\ = +C
x2 3
6. If
y2 x 2
n ( 2n + 1) ò (1 - x ) ò (1 - x )
1 1
n 2n
dx = 1177 n
dx ,
2n +1 then Þ = -2
x2
0 0
3
n Î N is equal to _______
Put (3, 3) , C = –2
Official Ans. by NTA (24)
y2 x 2
\ = -2
x2 3
(1 - x ) (1 - x )
1 1
Sol. Let I1 = ò n 2n
dx , I 2 = ò n 2 n +1
dx
0 0
3y 2 = x 4 - 6x 2
(1 - x )
1
I2 = ò n 2 n +1
. 1 dx
0
x 4 - 6x 2 = 1080
= (1 - x n ) 2 n+1. x 0 - ò ( 2n + 1) (1 - x n ) ( -nx ) x dx
1 2n
1 n -1
0 \x = 6

I 2 = - n ( 2n + 1){I 2 - I1} 8. The equations of the sides AB, BC and CA of a

( 2n 2
+ n + 1) I2 = n ( 2n + 1) I1 triangle ABC are 2x + y = 0, x + py = 15a and

I1 2n 2 + n + 1 1177 x – y = 3 respectively. If its orthocentre is (2, a),

= =
I 2 n ( 2n + 1) n ( 2n + 1)
1
– < a < 2, then p is equal to
Þ 2n + n - 1176 = 0 Þ n = 24
2
2

7. Let a curve y = y ( x ) pass through the point (3, 3) Official Ans. by NTA (3)
and the area of the region under this curve, above
the x-axis and between the abscissae 3 and x(>3)
3 æ 15a -30a ö
æ yö Sol. Coordinates of A(1, –2), B ç , ÷ and
be ç ÷ . If this curve also passes through the
èxø è 1 - 2p 1 - 2p ø

(
point a,6 10 ) in the first quadrant, then a is orthocentre H(2, a)

equal to _______ Slope of AH = p

Official Ans. by NTA (6 ) a+2=p .....(1)

Slope of BH = –1
31a – 2ab = 15a + 4p–2 .....(2)
Sol. x 4 = 3yx.y ' - 3y 2
From (1) and (2)
dy
Þ 3xy = 3y 2 + x 4 a=1&p=3
dx
7
66
 Final JEE-Main Exam July 2022/26-07-2022/Morning Session

9. Let the function f(x) = 2x2 – logex, x > 0, be 10. Let Q and R be two points on the line
decreasing in (0, a) and increasing in (a, 4). A x +1 y + 2 z -1
2 = = at a distance 26 from the
tangent to the parabola y = 4ax at a point P on it 2 3 2
passes through the point (8a, 8a – 1) but does not
point P(4, 2, 7). Then the square of the area of the
æ 1 ö
pass through the point ç - ,0 ÷ . If the equation of triangle PQR is_____________.
è a ø
Official Ans. by NTA (153)
x y
the normal at P is + = 1 , then a + b is equal
a b
Sol. Let (2l –1, 3l –2, 2l +1) be any point on the line
to-
2 2 2
(2l –5) + (3l –4) + (2l –6) = 26
Official Ans. by NTA (45)
l = 1, 3
– + Q (1, 1, 3) ; R (5, 7, 7) ; P (4, 2, 7)
1
Sol. f ¢(x) = 4x – 0 1/2 4 ® ®
x Area of triangle PQR = ½ PQ´ PR
1
a=
2 = 153
2
Let P(x 1, y1) be any point on y = 4ax
1 3 - y1
= Þ y12 - 6y1 + 8 = 0
y1 4 - x1
y1 = 2, 4
Þ P(8, 4) as P(2, 2) rejected
Equation of normal at P.
y – 4 = –4(x – 8)
x y
+ =1
9 36
a = 9, b = 36
a + b = 45

8
67
 FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JULY, 2022
(Held On Tuesday 26th July, 2022) TIME : 3 : 00 PM to 6 : 00 PM

PHYSICS TEST PAPER WITH SOLUTION

SECTION-A 3. A ball of mass 0.15 kg hits the wall with its initial
1. Two projectiles are thrown with same initial speed of 12 ms-1 and bounces back without
velocity making an angle of 45° and 30° with the changing its initial speed. If the force applied by
horizontal respectively. The ratio of their the wall on the ball during the contact is 100 N.
respective ranges will be calculate the time duration of the contact of ball
(A) 1: 2 (B) 2 :1 with the wall.
(A) 0.018 s (B) 0.036 s
(C) 2 : 3 (D) 3 :2
(C) 0.009 s (D) 0.072 s
Official Ans. by NTA (C)
Official Ans. by NTA (B)

Sol. Let projection speed is u

u2Sin(90º ) u2 sin(60º )
Sol. 
Pi  0.15 12 ˆi
R1  ;R2 
g g P  0.15 12  ˆi 
f
R1 2
 P  3.6 kg  m / s
R2 3
2. In a Vernier Calipers. 10 divisions of Vernier scale 3.6 = F  t
is equal to the 9 divisions of main scale. When 3.6 = 100  t
both jaws of Vernier calipers touch each other, the  t = 0.036 sec
zero of the Vernier scale is shifted to the left of 4. A body of mass 8 kg and another of mass 2 kg are
zero of the main scale and 4th Vernier scale moving with equal kinetic energy. The ratio of
their respective momenta will be :
division exactly coincides with the main scale (A) 1:1 (B) 2:1 (C) 1:4 (D) 4:1
reading. One main scale division is equal to 1 mm.
Official Ans. by NTA (B)
While measuring diameter of a spherical body, the
body is held between two jaws. It is now observed
that zero of the Vernier scale lies between 30 and P2
31 divisions of main scale reading and 6th Vernier Sol. K.E =
2m
scale division exactly. coincides with the main
P12 P2
scale reading. The diameter of the spherical body K1  ; K2  2
2 8  2 2
will be :
(A) 3.02 cm (B) 3.06 cm K1 = K2
(C) 3.10 cm (D) 3.20 cm So,
Official Ans. by NTA (C) 4P22 = P12
P1
Sol. 1 M.S.D = 1mm 2
P2
9 M.S.D = 10 V.S.D
1 V.S.D = 0.9 M.S.D = 0.9 mm 5. Two uniformly charged spherical conductors A
L.C of vernier caliper = 1–0.9 = 0.1 mm = 0.01 cm and B of radii 5 mm and 10 mm are separated by a
distance of 2 cm. If the spheres are connected by a
zero error =–(10–4)×0.1mm = – 0.6 mm conducting wire, then in equilibrium condition, the
Reading = M.S.R + V.S.R – Zero error ratio of the magnitudes of the electric fields at
= 3cm + 6 × 0.01 – [–0.06] the surface of the sphere A and B will be :
= 3 + 0.06 + 0.06 (A) 1 : 2 (B) 2 : 1 (C) 1 : 1 (D) 1 : 4
= 3.12 cm Official Ans. by NTA (B)
Nearest given answer in the options is 3.10

1
68
Sol. VA = VB 1.5  108 1.5
sin ic  
KQ A KQ B 2  108 2

RA RB 3
sin i c 
4
QA RA 1
 
QB R B 2 3 3
tan ic = 
4 3
2 2
7
KQA KQB
EA  ;E B 
RA 2
R B2  3 
ic = tan 1  
 7
E A Q A R B2 R B 2
    8. A body is projected vertically upwards from the
EB QB R A2 R A 1
surface of earth with a velocity equal to one third
6. The oscillating magnetic field in a plane of escape velocity. The maximum height attained
electromagnetic wave is given by By = 5 × l0-6 sin by the body will be:
l000  (5x - 4 × 108 t)T. The amplitude of electric (Take radius of earth = 6400 km and g=10 ms–2 )
field will be : (A) 800 km (B) 1600 km
(A) 15 × 102 Vm–1 (B) 5 × 10–6 Vm–1
(C) 2133 km (D) 4800 km
(C) 16 × 1012 Vm–1 (D) 4 × 102 Vm–1
Official Ans. by NTA (A)
Official Ans. by NTA (D)

Sol. B0=5×10–6
4  108  w
v = Speed of wave =  8  107  v  
5  k
Sol.
E0 = vB0 = 40×101
2Gm
= 4 × 102 V/m ve 
R
7. Light travels in two media M1 and M2 with speeds
1.5 × 108 ms–1 and 2.0 × 108 ms–1 respectively. The GMm 1 Ve 2 GMm
 m 
critical angle between them is: R 2 9 Rh
 3  2 GM GM Ve 2
(A) tan 1   (B) tan 1    
 7 3 Rh R 18
3 2 GM GM GM
 
(C) cos1   (D) sin 1  
4 3 Rh R 9R
GM 8GM
Official Ans. by NTA (A) 
Rh 9R
1 8

R  h 9R
9R = 8R + 8h
Sol. R 6400
h   800km
8 8
9. The maximum and minimum voltage of an
c amplitude modulated signal are 60 V and 20 V
v respectively. The percentage modulation index will
n be :
nd sin ic = nr sin90º (A) 0.5% (B) 50% (C) 2% (D) 30%
n r vd Official Ans. by NTA (B)
sin ic = 
n d vr

2
69
Sol. Vmax = 60 = 2(0.3 + 0.1 + 0.12)
Vmin = 20 = 2(0.4 + 0.12)
% modulation = = 2(0.52)
 Vmax  Vmin   60  20   40  = 1.04 m2
 100    100   100
 Vmax  Vmin   60  20   80  1  10 2 10 2
Rth =  
KA 0.05  1.04 0.052
 50%
dQ T 40  0.052
10. A nucleus of mass M at rest splits into two parts    2.08  102 J / s
M' 2M' dt R th 102
having masses and  M'  M  . The ratio
3 3 2.08 × 102 = m × 3.4 × 105
of de Broglie wavelength of two parts will be :
(A) 1 : 2 (B) 2 : 1 2.08
m=  0.61  10 3 kg/s
3.4  103
(C) 1 : 1 (D) 2 : 3
= 61 × 10–5 Kg/s
Official Ans. by NTA (C)
12. A gas has n degrees of freedom. The ratio of
specific heat of gas at constant volume to the
specific heat of gas at constant pressure will be :
n n2
Sol. (A) (B)
n2 n
n n
(C) (D)
2n  2 n2
Official Ans. by NTA (A)

P1  P2
Sol. Cv 
nR
Cp 
 n  2 R
Here P is momentum 2 2
h Cv n
So   
P Cp n  2
Hence both will have same de broglie wavelength.
13. A transverse wave is represented by y = 2sin
11. An ice cube of dimensions 60 cm × 50 cm × 20 cm  t  kx  cm. The value of wavelength (in cm) for
is placed in an insulation box of wall thickness which the wave velocity becomes equal to the
1 cm. The box keeping the ice cube at 0°C of maximum particle velocity, will be ;
temperature is brought to a room of temperature (A) 4 (B) 2
40°C. The rate of melting of ice is approximately:
(C)  (D) 2
(Latent heat of fusion of ice is 3.4 × 105 J kg–1 and
thermal conducting of insulation wall is Official Ans. by NTA (A)
0.05 Wm–1ºC–1)
(A) 61×10–1 kg s–1 (B) 61×10–5 kg s–1
(C) 208 kg s–1 (D) 30×10–5 kg s–1 Sol. y = 2 sin (t – kx)
Official Ans. by NTA (B) Maximum particle velocity = A 

 Wave velocity =
k
Sol.

= A 
k

dQ KAT 1 2
  k= =
dt A 

A = 2 (0.6 × 0.5 + 0.5 × 0.2 + 0.2 × 0.6)  = 2A

= 4  cm
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70
14. A battery of 6 V is connected to the circuit as 15. A source of potential difference V is connected to
the combination of two identical capacitors as
shown below. The current I drawn from the battery shown in the figure. When key 'K’ is closed, the
is : total energy stored across the combination is E1.
Now key ‘K’ is opened and dielectric of dielectric
constant 5 is introduced between the plates of the
capacitors. The total energy stored across the
combination is now E2. The ratio E1/E2 will be :

1 2
(A) (B)
10 5
5 5
(C) (D)
(A) 1A (B) 2A 13 26
Official Ans. by NTA (C)
6 4
(C) A (D) A
11 3

Official Ans. by NTA (A)

Sol. Balanced wheat stone bridge in circuit so there is

no current in 5 resistor so it can be removed

from the circuit. Sol.

(1) Switch is closed
Ceq = 2C
1
Energy E1  Ceq V 2
2
1
= 2C  V 2
2
E1 = CV2
(ii) When switch is opened charge on right
capacitor remain CV while potential on left
6  12 capacitor remain same
Re q  2
6  12 Dielectric K = 5
’
6  12 C = KC
 2
18 C’ = 5C
 CV 
2
R e q  6 1
E2   5C  V2 
2 2  5C 
V 6
I   1 Amp. 5CV 2 CV 2
Re q 6 E2  
2 10

4
71
 13CV 2 17. A velocity selector consists of electric field
E2 
5 E  Ekˆ and magnetic field B  Bjˆ with B=12 mT.
The value E required for an electron of energy
E1 CV2 5
 2
 728 eV moving along the positive x-axis to pass
E 2 13CV 13 undeflected is :
5 (Given, mass of electron = 9.1×10–31kg)
E1 5 (A) 192 kVm–1 (B) 192 m Vm–1

E2 13 (C) 9600 kVm–1 (D) 16 kVm–1
Official Ans. by NTA (A)
16. Two concentric circular loops of radii r1=30 cm
and r2=50 cm are placed in X-Y plane as shown in
E  E kˆ
the figure. A current I = 7A is flowing through
Sol. B = 12 mT
them in the direction as shown in figure. The net
magnetic moment of this system of two circular B  B ˆj Energy = 728 eV
loops is approximately :
1
Energy = mv2
2
1
728eV   9.1 10 31  v2
2
1
728  1.6  10 19   9.1 10 31  v2
2
v = 16 × 106 m/s
E = vB
7 7
(A) k̂ Am 2 (B)  k̂ Am 2 E = 16×106 × 12 × 10–3
2 2
E = 192 × 103 V/m
(C) 7kˆ Am2 (D) – 7 kˆ Am2
18. Two masses M1 and .M2 are tied together at the
Official Ans. by NTA (B)
two ends of a light inextensible string that passes
over a frictionless pulley. When the mass M2 is
twice that of M1. the acceleration of the system is
a1. When the mass M2 is thrice that of M1. The
a
acceleration of The system is a2. The ratio 1 will
a2
be:

Sol.
Magnetic moment
1 2
M  i  0.5 kˆ  i  0.3  kˆ
2 2 (A) (B)
3 3
3 1
22  25 9 ˆ (C) (D)
M  7   2 2
7  100 100 
 k
Official Ans. by NTA (B)
 16  ˆ
= 22  k m 2g  m1g
 100  Sol. a
m1  m2
M  3.52kˆ Am2 Case 1 M2 = 2m1
2m1g  m1g
7 a1 =
  k̂ Am2 3m1
2
a1 = g/3
5
72
Case -2 Sol. Since breaking stress (Maximum lifting capacity)
M2 = 3m1 is the property of material so it will remain same.
3m1g  m1g
a2  breaking stress =
Maximum lifting capacity
4m1 Area of cross section of rope
g
a2  10 25
2 4

2.5  10 A
g
a1 3 2 A = 625 × 10–6
 
a2 g 3 = 6.25 × 10–4 m2
2
SECTION-B
19. Mass numbers of two nuclei are in the ratio of 4:3.
Their nuclear densities will be in the ratio of
1 1.    
If A  2iˆ  3jˆ  kˆ m and B  ˆi  2ˆj  2kˆ m. The
3 3
(A) 4:3 (B)  
4 magnitude of component of vector A along vector
1
4 3
B will be________ m.
(C) 1 : 1 (D)  
3
Official Ans. by NTA (2)
Official Ans. by NTA (C)

  
A  2iˆ  3jˆ  kˆ m and B  ˆi  2ˆj  2kˆ m
1
Sol. Radius of nucleus R  R 0 A 3 Sol.

Mass of nucleus ˆ
Component of A along B = A·B
Density of nucleus =
volume of nucleus
A.B 262
mA = 
 Where m : mass of proton or neutron B 12  22  22
4 3
R
3 6
= 2
mA 3

4
R 0 3 A 2. The radius of gyration of a cylindrical rod about an
3
A0 axis of rotation perpendicular to its length and

Hence density of nucleus is independent of mass passing through the center will be_______ m.

number Given, the length of the rod is 10 3 m.

20. The area of cross section of the rope used to lift a
load by a crane is 2.5 × 10–4m2. The maximum Official Ans. by NTA (5)
lifting capacity of the crane is 10 metric tons. To
increase the lifting capacity of the crane to
25 metric tons, the required area of cross section of
the rope should be :
(take g =10 ms–2)
(A) 6.25 × 10–4m2 Sol.
(B) 10 × 10–4m2
(C) 1 × 10–4m2
(D) 1.67 × 10–4m2 m 2 2
10 3
I  mk 2  k 2   k    5
Official Ans. by NTA (A) 12 12 12 2 3 2 3

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73
3. In the given figure, the face AC of the equilateral 5. A uniform heavy rod of mass 20 kg. Cross
prism is immersed in a liquid of refractive index sectional area 0.4 m2 and length 20 m is hanging
‘n’. For incident angle 60° at the side AC, the from a fixed support. Neglecting the lateral
refracted light beam just grazes along face AC. contraction, the elongation in the rod due to its
x own weight is x × 10–9 m. The value of x is_____.
The refractive index of the liquid n  . The :(Given. Young’s modulus Y=2 × 1011 Nm–2 and
4
g=10 ms–2)
value of x is_________ .
(Given refractive index of glass = 1.5) Official Ans. by NTA (25)

Sol.

Official Ans. by NTA (27)

T dx
Y
A dy
m = 20 kg
A = 0.4 m2
l = 20m
let extension is dy in length dx
Sol.
stress
Y
strain
T
Using snell’s law at face AC T dx
Y A  .
1.5 sin 60º = n × sin 90º dy A dy
dx
3 x
1.5× =n= Tdx
2 4 dy 
AY
3 3 x
mg
x = 27 Tension at a distance x from lower end = x

4. Two lighter nuclei combine to form a l

mg dx
comparatively heavier nucleus by the relation
given below:
So.  dy  
0 0
x
AY
1 X  1 X 2 Y
2 2 4

mg  x 2 
The binding energies per nucleon 21 X and 24 Y are  =  
AY  2  0
1.1 MeV and 7.6 MeV respectively. The energy
released in this process is_______ . MeV. mg
 
Official Ans. by NTA (26) 2AY
20  10  20
 
Sol. Energy released in the given process = Binding 2  0.4  2  1011

energy of product – Binding energy of reactants 2500 × 10–11

= 7.6 × 4 – (1.1 × 2) × 2  = 25×10–9

= x × 10–9
= 30.4 – 4.4
x = 25
=26 MeV
7
74
6. The typical transfer characteristic of a transistor in
CE configuration is shown in figure. A load
Sol.
resistor of 2 k is connected in the collector
branch of the circuit used. The input resistance of
the transistor is 0.50 k . The voltage gain of the
k  5  0.3  10 12
F1 
transistor is 9  10 4

9  10 9  5  0.3  10 12

9  10 4

= 1.5×10 = 15 N

9  10 9  5  0.16  10 12
F2  = 8N
9  10 4

force experienced by charge at A  F12  F2 2

= 152  82

Official Ans. by NTA (200)  289 = 17 N

8. In a coil of resistance 8 , the magnetic flux due

Sol. Current gain in C-E configuration
to an external magnetic field varies with time as
I
 C
I B 
2
3
 
9  t 2 . The value of total heat produced in

RC = 2k  , RB=0.50 k 
the coil, till the flux becomes zero, will
I R 5  10 –3 2
Voltage gain = C C  6
 be_______J.
I BR B 100  10 0.5

10 2 1000 Official Ans. by NTA (2)

= 5
  200
5  10 5

7. Three point charges of magnitude 5C, 0.16µC

2
Sol.   (9  t 2 ) = 0
and 0.3C are located at the vertices A, B, C of a 3

right angled triangle whose sides are AB = 3cm,

t = 3 sec
BC  3 2 cm and CA=3 cm and point A is the

right angle corner. Charge at point A experiences d 2 4t

e=   (0  2t) 
dt 3 3
_______ N of electrostatic force due to the other
two charges. 3
e2 16t 2
Heat produced in 3 sec =  dt   dt = 2J
Official Ans. by NTA (17) r 0
98

8
75
9. A potentiometer wire of length 300 cm is 10. As per given figures, two springs of spring
connected in series with a resistance 780  and a
constants K and 2K are connected to mass m. If the
standard cell of emf 4V. A constant current flows
through potentiometer wire. The length of the null period of oscillation in figure (a) is 3s, then the
point for cell of emf 20 mV is found to be 60 cm.
The resistance of the potentiometer wire is____  . period of oscillation in figure (b) will be x s. The
Official Ans. by NTA (20) value of x is_________.

4V 780 
k
300 cm
i
60 cm 2k k
C 2k
A B
m m
i=0 figure (a) figure (b)

Sol. 20 mV Official Ans. by NTA (2)

Let resistance of potentiometers wire is R

4
i
R  780 k

Potential difference across AB

2k k 2k
4R

R  780 m m
Potential difference across AC figure (a) figure (b)
Sol.
4R  60 4R For figure (a) :
 
(R  780)  300 5(R  780) K  2K 2K
K eq  
K  2K 3
This should be equal to 20 mV
m m 3m
4R T  2  2  2
 20 103  2 102 K eq 2K / 3 2K
5(R  780)
For figure (b):
4R = 10—1(R + 780)
m
Keq = 3K, T'  2 
R 3K
4R   78
10
T' m  2K 2
 
R T 3K  3m 3
4R   78
10 T'  2

39R x=2
 78
10

R  20

9
76
 FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JULY, 2022
(Held On Tuesday 26th July, 2022) TIME : 3 : 00 PM to 6 : 00 PM

CHEMISTRY TEST PAPER WITH SOLUTION

SECTION-A 4. At 30°C, the half life for the decomposition of AB2
1. Hemoglobin contains 0.34% of iron by mass. The is 200 s and is independent of the initial
number of Fe atoms in 3.3 g of hemoglobin is : concentration of AB2. The time required for 80%
(Given : Atomic mass of Fe is 56 u, NA in 6.022
of the AB2 to decompose is (Given: log 2 = 0.30;
× 1023 mol–1)
(A) 1.21 × 105 (B) 12.0 × 1016 log 3 = 0.48)
(C) 1.21 × 1020 (D) 3.4 × 1022 (A) 200 s (B) 323 s
Official Ans. by NTA (C) (C) 467 s (D) 532 s
Official Ans. by NTA (C)
0.34 3.3
Sol. No. of Fe atoms =   6.022  10 23
100 56
= 1.206 × 1020 Sol. T1/2 = 200 s and 1st order reaction
2. Arrange the following in increasing order of their 2.303log2 2.303 A0
covalent character. K  log
200 t 0.2A0
(A) CaF2 (B) CaCl2
log2 1
(C) CaBr2 (D) CaI2  log5
Choose the correct answer from the options given 200 t
below. 7
t   200  466.67s = 467 s
(A) B < A < C < D (B) A < B < C < D 3
(C) A < B < D < C (D) A < C < B < D
5. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as
Official Ans. by NTA (B)
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Sol. According to Fajan’s rule, Assertion A : Finest gold is red in colour, as the
Covalent character  size of Anion size of the particles increases, it appears purple
3. Class XII students were asked to prepare one litre then blue and finally gold.
of buffer solution of pH 8.26 by their chemistry
Assertion R : The colour of the colloidal solution
teacher. The amount of ammonium chloride to be
dissolved by the student in 0.2 M ammonia depends on the wavelength of light scattered by the
solution to make one litre of the buffer is (Given dispersed particles.
pKb (NH3) = 4.74; Molar mass of NH3 = 17 g mol– In the light of the above statements, choose the
1
; Molar mass of NH4Cl = 53.5 g mol–1)
most appropriate answer from the options given
(A) 53.5 g (B) 72.3 g
(C) 107.0 g (D) 126.0 g below;
Official Ans. by NTA (C) (A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A
Sol. POH = 14 – 8.26
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
[NH 4 ]
= pKb + log explanation of A
[NH 3 ]
(C) A is true but R is false
[NH 4 ]
= 5.74 = 4.74 + log  [NH 4 ] = 2 (D) A is false but R is true
0.2
Hence Official Ans. by NTA (A)
NH4Cl = 2 × 53.5 = 107 g

1
77
6. The metal that has very low melting point and its 10. Given below are two statements : one is labelled
periodic position is closer to a metalloid is : as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
(A) Al (B) Ga
Assertion A : Boric acid is a weak acid
(C) Se (D) In
Official Ans. by NTA (B) Reason R : Boric acid is not able to release H+ ion
on its own. It receives OH– ion from water and
Sol. Melting point
releases H+ ion.
Al  933 K
In the light of the above statements, choose the
Ga  303 K
In  430 K most appropriate answer from the options given
Se  490 K below.
7. The metal that is not extracted from its sulphide (A) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct
ore is :
explanation of A
(A) Aluminium (B) Iron
(C) Lead (D) Zinc (B) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the
Official Ans. by NTA (A) correct explanation of A
(C) A is correct but R is not correct
Sol. Al is extracted from Al2O3·2H2O i.e., Bauxite ore
(D) A is not correct but R is correct
8. The products obtained from a reaction of hydrogen
peroxide and acidified potassium permanganate are Official Ans. by NTA (A)
(A) Mn4+, H2O only (B) Mn2+, H2O only
(C) Mn4+, H2O, O2 only (D) Mn2+, H2O, O2 only
OH OH
Official Ans. by NTA (D)
B + H2 O B– O+ H
HO OH HO
Sol. 6H+ + 2MnO4— + 5H2O2  2Mn+2 + 8H2O + Sol. OH H
5O2
9. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as OH
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
B– + H+
Assertion A : LiF is sparingly soluble in water. OH
HO
Reason R : The ionic radius of Li+ ion is smallest OH
among its group members, hence has least 11. The metal complex that is diamagnetic is (Atomic
hydration enthalpy.
number : Fe, 26; Cu, 29)
In the light of the above statements, choose the
(A) K3[Cu(CN)4]
most appropriate answer from the options given
below . (B) K2[Cu(CN)4]
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct (C) K3[Fe(CN)4]
explanation of A
(D) K4[FeCl6]
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
explanation of A Official Ans. by NTA (A)
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false but R is true Sol. K3[Cu(CN)4]
Official Ans. by NTA (C)
O.N. of copper is Cu+1
Sol. Due to high lattice energy LiF is sparingly soluble Cu+1 = [Ar]3d10  Diamagnetic
in water. Li+ has high hydration energy among its
group members due to smallest size.
2
78
12. Match List I with List II 14. Which of the following is not an example of
List I List II benzenoid compound ?

Pollutant Source
A. Microorganisms I. Strip mining
(A) (B)
B. Plant nutrients II. Domestic sewage
C. Toxic heavy metals III. Chemical fertilizer
NH2
D. Sediment IV. Chemical factory
(C) (D)
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below : Official Ans. by NTA (B)
(A) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(B) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III 15. Hydrolysis of which compound will give carbolic
acid ?
(C) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
(A) Cumene
(D) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
(B) Benzenediazonium chloride
Official Ans. by NTA (A) (C) Benzal chloride
(D) Ethylene glycol ketal
Sol. Official Ans. by NTA (B)

List I List II
N2 +Cl– OH
Pollutant Source
A. Microorganisms Domestic sewage Sol. H2 O
+ N2 + HCl
B. Plant nutrients Chemical fertilizer
C. Toxic heavy metals Chemical factory O
(i) DiBAl-H
D. Sediment Strip mining 16. EtO – C – HC
2
CH2CH2 CHO (ii) H2O
?

Consider the above reaction and predict the major

13. The correct decreasing order of priority of product.
functional groups in naming an organic compound (A) OHC – H2C CH2CH2CHO
as per IUPAC system of nomenclature is :
O
(A) COOH > CONH2 > COCl > CHO
(B) EtO – C – HC
2 CH2CH2CHO
(B) SO3H > COCl > CONH2 > CN
O
(C)
(C) EtO – C – HC
2 CH2CH2COOH
(D) COOH > COOR > CONH2 > COCl
Official Ans. by NTA (B) (D) OHC – H2C CH2CH2COOH

Official Ans. by NTA (A)

Sol. SO3H > COCl > CONH2 > CN

3
79
 O 19. Animal starch is the other name of :
Sol.
EtO – C– H2 C CH2 CH2CN (A) amylose (B) maltose
(C) glycogen (D) amylopectin
(i) DiBAL –H Official Ans. by NTA (C)
(ii) H2O
Sol. Glycogen
EtOH + OHC –CH2 CH2CH2 CHO
20. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
17. The correct sequential order of the reagents for the
Assertion A :Phenolphthalein is a pH dependent
given reaction is :
indicator, remains colourless in acidic solution and
NO2 OH
gives pink colour in basic medium
Reason R : Phenolphthalein is a weak acid. It
doesn’t dissociate in basic medium.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the options given
NH2 I below :
(A) HNO2, Fe/H+, HNO2, KI, H2O/H+ (A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(B) HNO2, KI, Fe/H+, HNO2, H2O/warm explanation of A
(C) HNO2, KI, HNO2, Fe/H+, H2O/H+ (B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
explanation of A.
(D) HNO2, Fe/H+, KI, HNO2, H2O/warm
(C) A is true but R is false
Official Ans. by NTA (B)
(D) A is false but R is true
Official Ans. by NTA (C)
Sol.
NO2 NO2 NO2 NH2
Sol. Phenolphthalein dissociate in basic medium
HPh(aq)  H+ + Ph—
HNO2 KI Fe/H+

(colourless) (Pink)
NH2 N2 +Cl– I I SECTION-B
HNO2 1. A 10 g mixture of hydrogen and helium is
OH N2 +Cl– contained in a vessel of capacity 0.0125 m3 at 6 bar
and 27°C. The mass of helium in the mixture is
H2 O/warm
N2 + _______ g. (nearest integer)
Given : R = 8.3 JK–1mol–1 (Atomic masses of H
I I and He are 1u and 4u, respectively)
18. Vulcanization of rubber is carried out by heating a Official Ans. by NTA (8)
mixture of :
(A) isoprene and styrene Sol. PV = nmixRT
(B) neoprene and sulphur 6  12.5
n mi x  3
(C) isoprene and sulphur 0.083  300
Let mole of He = x
(D) neoprene and styrene
Mole of H2 = 3 – x
Official Ans. by NTA (C)
4x + 2(3 – x) = 10
x  2mol
Sol. Vulcanization of rubber is carried out by heating a
Mass of He = 8g
mixture of isoprene & sulphur
4
80
 48
2. Consider an imaginary ion 22 X3- . The nucleus 5. 20 mL of 0.02 M hypo solution is used for the

contains ‘a’% more neutrons than the number of titration of 10 mL of copper sulphate solution, in
the presence of excess of KI using starch as an
electrons in the ion. The value of ‘a’ is ____.
indicator. The molarity of Cu2+ is found to be
[nearest integer]
_____ × 10—2 M [nearest integer]
Official Ans. by NTA (4)
Given : 2Cu2+ + 4I—  Cu2I2 + I2

I2 + 2S2O32—  2I— + S4O62—

48 3-
Sol. 22 X
Official Ans. by NTA (4)
No. of neutrons = 26
No. of electrons = 25
Sol. neq. of I2 = neq of Na2S2O3 = 20 × 0.002 × 1
% of extra neutrons
2 × nmol of I2 = 0.4
26  25
than electrons =  100  4 nmol of I2 = 0.2 m mol
25
nmol of Cu+2 = 0.2 × 2 × 10–3
3. For the reaction
0.4  10 3
[Cu+2] =  0.04  4  10 2
H2F2(g)  H2(g) + F2(g) 10  10 3

U = –59.6 kJ mol–1 at 27°C. 6. The number of non-ionisable protons present in the

product B obtained from the following reaction is
The enthalpy change for the above reaction is (–)
_____. C2H5OH + PCl3  C2H5Cl + A
___ kJ mol–1 [nearest integer] Given : R = 8.314
A + PCl3  B
JK—1 mol–1.
Official Ans. by NTA (2)
Official Ans. by NTA (57)

Sol. C2H5OH + PCl3  C2H5Cl + H3PO3

Sol. H = U + ngRT
H3PO3 + PCl3  H4P2O5 + HCl
H = –59.6 + 1 × 8.314 × 300 × 10—3 = –57.10
O O
4. The elevation in boiling point for 1 molal solution P P
HO O OH
of non-volatile solute A is 3K. The depression in H H
freezing point for 2 molal solution of A in the same 7. The spin-only magnetic moment value of the
solvent is 6 K. The ratio of Kb and Kf i.e., Kb/Kf is compound with strongest oxidizing ability among
1 : X. The value of X is [nearest integer] MnF4, MnF3 and MnF2 is ______ B.M. [nearest
integer]
Official Ans. by NTA (1)
Official Ans. by NTA (5)

Sol. Tb = iKbm1 Tf = iKfm2

Tb K b 1 3 1 K b 1 Sol.
    
Tf K f  2 6 2 Kf 2

Kb 1 Hence MnF3  strongest O.A

  x 1
Kf 1   4(4  2)  24  4.89 = 5

5
81
8. Total number of isomers (including stereoisomers)
obtained on monochlorination of
methylcyclohexane is ________.
Official Ans. by NTA (12)

Sol.

9. A 100 mL solution of CH3CH2MgBr on treatment

with methanol produces 2.24 mL of a gas at STP.
The weight of gas produced is _______ mg.
[nearest integer]
Official Ans. by NTA (3)

Sol. CH3–CH2–MgBr + CH3OH 

OCH3
Mg
CH3 –CH3 + Br
2.24  10 3
n  10 4
22.4
W=n×M
= 10–4 × 30 = 3 mg
10. How many of the following drugs is/are
example(s) of broad spectrum antibiotic ?
Ofloxacin, Penicillin G, Terpineol, Salvarsan
Official Ans. by NTA (1)

Sol. Ofloxacin

6
82
 Final JEE-Main Exam July, 2022/26-07-2022/Evening Session

FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JULY, 2022

(Held On Tuesday 26th July, 2022) TIME : 3 : 00 PM to 6 : 00 PM

MATHEMATICS TEST PAPER WITH SOLUTION

SECTION-A é92 - 102 112 ù é1 ù
ê ú
1. The minimum value of the sum of the squares of Sol. A¢BA = [1 1 1] ê122 132 - 142 ú êê1 úú
ê -152 162 172 ú ê1 ú
2
the roots of x +(3-a)x+1=2a is:
ë ûë û
(A) 4 (B) 5
é1 ù
11 –14 +17 ] êê1 úú
(C) 6 (D) 8 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
=[9 +12 –15 –10 +13 +16
Official Ans. by NTA (C) êë1 úû

= [92+122–152 –102+132+162 + 112–142+172]

Sol. a + b = (a + b) – 2 a b
2 2 2

= [539]
2
let f(a) = (3 – a) – 2(1 – 2a) n

f(a) = a2 – 2a + 7 4. å
i,j=0
n
C i n C j is equal to
i¹ j
f(a) = (a – 1)2 + 6
f(a) )min . = 6 (A) 22n -2n Cn (B) 22n -1 -2n -1 Cn -1

1
2. If z = x + iy satisfies |z| - 2 = 0 and |z-i|-|z+5i|=0, (C) 2 2 n - 2n
Cn (D) 2 n -1 + 2n -1
Cn
2
then
Official Ans. by NTA (B)
2
(A) x + 2y – 4 = 0 (B) x + y – 4 = 0
(C) x + 2y + 4 = 0 (D) x2- y + 3 = 0 n

Official Ans. by NTA (C) Sol. å

i,j=0
n
Ci nC j
i¹ j

å( )
n n n

å C i ·å n C j -
2
Sol. |z-i|-|z+5i|=0 = n n
Ci
i =0 j= 0 i = j= 0
Þ |x + (y – 1)i | = |x + (y + 5)i |
n n 2n
2 2 2 2 = (2 ) (2 ) – Cn
x + (y – 1) = x + (y + 5)
= 22n – 2nCn
(y – 1)2 – (y + 5)2 = 0
5. Let P and Q be any points on the curves (x-
(2y + 4) (–6) = 0
1)2+(y+1)2=1 and y = x2, respectively. The distance
y = –2
between P and Q is minimum for some value of the
\ x2 + (–2)2 = 4
abscissa of P in the interval
x=0
Z º (0, –2) , check options æ 1ö æ1 3ö
(A) ç 0, ÷ (B) ç , ÷
è 4ø è2 4ø
é1ù é92 - 102 112 ù
ê ú æ1 1ö æ3 ö
3. Let A = êê1úú and B = ê122 132 - 14 2 ú , then the (C) ç , ÷ (D) ç ,1 ÷
êë1úû ê-152 16 2 172 ú è4 2ø è4 ø
ë û
Official Ans. by NTA (C)
value of A¢BA is:

(A) 1224 (B) 1042 (C) 540 (D) 539

Official Ans. by NTA (D)

1
83
 Final JEE-Main Exam July, 2022/26-07-2022/Evening Session
Sol. fa (x) = tan -1 2x - 3ax + 7
Sol.
2
fa¢ (x) = - 3a ³ 0
Q 1 + 4x 2
Pq
æ 2 ö p
C(1,–1) a£ç 2 ÷
at x = ±
è 3(1 + 4x ) ø min. 6

6
a max = a =
9 + p2
Q = ( t, t 2 )
m CQ = m normal p p 6 p p 9p
fa ( ) = tan -1 - 3 + 7 = tan -1 - +7
t +1
2
=-
1 8 4 9+p 8
2
4 4 p2 + 9 ( )
t -1 2t
Let f ( t )= 2t + 3t - 1
3

Let b= lim
(
ax - e 3x - 1 ) for some aΡ . Then
æ1ö æ1ö æ1 1ö 7.
f ç ÷f ç ÷ < 0 Þ t Îç , ÷ x ®0
(
ax e - 1 3x
)
è 4ø è3ø è 4 3ø
the value of a + b is :
P º (1 + cos ( 90 + θ ) , -1 + sin ( 90 + θ ) )
14 3 5 7
P = (1 - sin θ, -1 + cos θ )
(A) (B) (C) (D)
5 2 2 2

1 cos θ Official Ans. by NTA (C)

m normal = mCP Þ - = Þ tan θ = 2t
2t - sin θ
2t ax - (e3x - 1)
x = 1 - sin θ = 1 - = g(t) ( let ) Sol. b = lim
x ®0 ax(e 3x - 1)
1 + 4t 2
Þ g '(t) < 0 é
1 + ax - ê1 + 3x +
9x 2 ù
+ .....ú
b = lim ë 2! û
g ( t ) ¯ function x®0 (e - 1)
3x
(ax) 3x
3x
æ1 1ö
t Îç , ÷ 9x 2
è 4 3ø (ax - 3x) - - .......
b = lim 2!
æ1 1ö 3ax 2
Þ g ( t ) Î ( 0.44,0.485 ) Î ç , ÷
x ®0

è4 2ø For existence of limit a – 3 = 0

a=3
6. If the maximum value of a, for which the function -3
Limit b=
fa (x) = tan -1 2x - 3ax + 7 is non-decreasing in 2a
1
b=-
æ p pö æ pö 2
ç - 6 , 6 ÷ , is a , then fa ç 8 ÷ is equal to
è ø è ø Now,
5
9p 4p a+b =
(A) 8 - (B) 8 - 2
(
4 9 + p2 ) (
9 4 + p2 ) 8. The value of log e 2
d p
(log cos x cosecx) at x = is
dx 4
æ 1+ p ö 2
p
(C) 8 ç 2 ÷
(D) 8 - (A) -2 2 (B) 2 2 (C) -4 (D) 4
è 9+p ø 4
Official Ans. by NTA (D)
Official Ans. by NTA (A)

2
84
Final JEE-Main Exam July, 2022/26-07-2022/Evening Session
d Official Ans. by NTA (B)
Sol. log e 2 (log cos x cosecx)
dx
Let, dy xy x 4 + 2x
Sol. + 2 =
y = log cos x cosecx dx x - 1 1 - x2

ln ( sin x )
x
ò x2 -1dx
y=- I.F = e
ln ( cos x )
I.F = 1 - x2
dy
=-
[cot x·ln(cos x) + tan x·ln(sin x)]
Solution of D.E.
( ln(cos x) )
2
dx
x 4 + 2x
y· 1 - x 2 = ò · 1 - x 2 dx
dy ö 4 1 - x2
÷ =
dx øx= p ln 2
4
(
y· 1 - x 2 = ò x 4 + 2x dx )
Now,
x5
4 y· 1 - x 2 = + x2 + C
Þ log e 2· =4 5
ln 2
20 p
At x = 0, y = 0, get C = 0
ò ( sin x + cosx )
2
9. dx is equal to :- x5 x2
0 y= +
5 1 - x2 1 - x2
(A) 10 ( p + 4 ) (B) 10 ( p + 2 )
Now,
(C) 20 ( p - 2 ) (D) 20 ( p + 2 ) 3 3 3
5
2 2
x 2
x2
Official Ans. by NTA (D) ò f(x)dx = ò 5 1 - x2
dx + ò 1 - x2
dx
- 3 - 3 - 3
2 2 2

20 p

ò ( sin x + cosx )
2 3 3
Sol. I = dx ; (Jack property) 2 2
x2
0 ò f(x)dx = 0 + 2 ò
1 - x2
dx
- 3 0
p /2
I = 40 ò ( sin x + cos x ) dx
2 2

0 3
2
p 3
p /2
I = 40 ò (1 + sin 2x ) dx
ò f(x)dx = -
3 4
- 3
0 2

I = 20[p + 2] 11. The acute angle between the pair of tangents drawn
10. Let the solution curve y = f(x) of the differential to the ellipse 2x2 + 3y2 = 5 from the point (1,3) is

dy xy x 4 + 2x æ 16 ö æ 24 ö
equation + 2 = , x Î ( -1,1) pass (A) tan -1 ç ÷ (B) tan -1 ç ÷
dx x - 1 1 - x2 è7 5ø è7 5ø
æ 32 ö æ 3+8 5 ö
(C) tan -1 ç (D) tan -1 ç
3
2
è7 5ø
÷ ç 35 ÷÷
through the origin. Then ò f ( x )dx is equal to è ø
-
3 Official Ans. by NTA (B)
2

p 1 p 3
(A) - (B) - Sol. Equation of tangent to the ellipse 2x2 + 3y2 = 5 is
3 4 3 4
5 2 5
y = mx ± m +
p 3 p 3 2 3
(C) - (D) -
6 4 6 2
It pass through (1, 3)

3
85
 Final JEE-Main Exam July, 2022/26-07-2022/Evening Session
5 2 5 Official Ans. by NTA (A)
3=m± m +
2 3
2 44 Q (x2 , y)
2
3m + 12m – =0
3
Let q be the angle between the tangents P (x1, y1 )
Sol.
m1 - m 2
tan q = Equation of circle diameter form
1 + m1m 2
(x – x1)(x – x2) + (y – y1)(y – y2) = 0
3 320 (where x1 , x2 are the roots of x2 – 4x – 6 = 0 and y1,
tan q =
-35
y2 are the roots of y2 + 2y – 7 = 0)
æ 24 ö
2 2
x + y – 4x + 2y – 13 = 0
q = tan -1 ç ÷
è7 5ø Now,
12. The equation of a common tangent to the parabolas Compare it with the given equation, we get
y = x2 and y = -(x-2)2 is a = –2, b = 1, c = –13
(A) y = 4(x-2) (B) y = 4 (x-1) Now
(C) y = 4 (x+1) (D) y = 4 (x+2) a + b – c = 12
Official Ans. by NTA (B) 14. If the line x-1 = 0, is a directrix of the hyperbola
kx2 – y2=6, then the hyperbola passes through the point

Sol. Equation of tangent of y = x2 be

(
(A) -2 5,6 ) (
(B) - 5,3 )
tx = y + at2 ………(1) (C) ( 5, -2 ) (D) ( 2 5,3 6 )
2
t Official Ans. by NTA (C)
y = tx –
4
Solve with y = –(x –2)2
x2 y2
2
t Sol. - =1 ……(1)
tx – = –(x –2)2 6/k 6
4
6
t2 e2 = 1 +
2
x + x(t – 4) – +4=0 6/k
4
D=0 e = 1+ k
æ t2 ö
(t – 4)2 –4 · ç 4 - ÷ = 0 a=
6
è 4ø k
2
t – 4t = 0
t = 0 or t = 4 a 6
Eq. of directrix x = Þx=
From eq. (1), required common tangent is e k(k + 1)
y = 4 (x-1)
6
=1
k(k + 1)
13. Let the abscissae of the two points P and Q on a k=2
circle be the roots of x2 - 4x – 6 = 0 and the From eq. (1) ,we get 2x2 – y2 = 6
2
ordinates of P and Q be the roots of y + 2y - 7 = Check options
0.If PQ is a diameter of the circle x2 + y2 + 2ax +
2by + c= 0, then the value of (a+b-c) is
(A) 12 (B) 13 (C) 14 (D) 16

4
86
Final JEE-Main Exam July, 2022/26-07-2022/Evening Session
r
15. A vector a is parallel to the line of intersection of the sin -1 x = ka
plane determined by the vectors ˆi, ˆi + ˆj and the plane cos-1 x = kb
determined by the vectors ˆi - ˆj, ˆi + kˆ . The obtuse angle p
r r k= ….(i)
between a and the vector b = ˆi - 2 ˆj + 2kˆ is 2(a + b)
3p 2p æ 2pa ö –1
(A) (B) sin ç ÷ = sin (4sin x)
4 3 è a + b ø
4p 5p
= 2sin(2sin–1x) cos(2sin–1 x)
(C) (D) = 4x 1 - x 2 (1 - 2x 2 )
5 6
Official Ans. by NTA (A) 17. Negation of the Boolean expression p Û (qÞp) is
(A) ( : p ) Ù q (B) p Ù ( : q )
r
Sol. n1 = ˆi ´ (iˆ + ˆj) = kˆ (C) ( : p ) Ú ( : q ) (D) ( : p ) Ù ( : q )
r
n 2 = (iˆ + k)
ˆ ´ (iˆ - ˆj) Official Ans. by NTA (D)

= ˆi + ˆj - kˆ
r r Sol. ~ ( p « (q ® p))
Line of intersection along n1 ´ n 2
~ ( p « q ) = ( pÙ ~ q ) Ú ( q Ù ~ p )
= kˆ ´ (iˆ + ˆj - k)
ˆ = -ˆi + ˆj
r ~ ( p « ( q ® p ) ) = ( pÙ ~ ( q ® p ) ) Ú ( ( q ® p ) Ù ~ p )
D.R of a= - ˆi + ˆj
r
D.R of b= ˆi - 2 ˆj + 2kˆ
( pÙ ~ ( q ® p ) ) = p Ù ( q Ù ~ p ) = ( pÙ ~ p ) Ù q = c
rr r r ( q ® p ) Ù ~ p = ( ~ q Ú p ) Ù ~ p =~ p Ù ( ~ q Ú p )
a·b = -3 and a Ù b = q( )
= ( ~ pÙ ~ q ) Ú ( ~ p Ù p ) = ~ pÙ ~ q
-3
cos q =
2 ´3 ~ ( p « ( q ® p ) ) = c Ú ( ~ p Ù ~ q ) =~ p Ù ~ q
3p 18. Let X be a binomially distributed random variable
q=
4 4
with mean 4 and variance . Then 54 P(X £ 2) is
1 sin -1 x cos-1 x 3
16. If 0 < x < and = , then a value equal to
2 a b 73 146
(A) (B)
æ 2pa ö 27 27
of sin ç ÷ is
è a +bø (C)
146
(D)
126
81 81
(A) 4 (1 - x ) (1 - 2x )
2 2
Official Ans. by NTA (B)

(B) 4x (1 - x ) (1 - 2x )
2 2

Sol. np = 4
(C) 2x (1 - x )(1 - 4x )
2 2
npq = 4/3
n = 6, p = 2/3, q = 1/3
(D) 4 (1 - x 2 )(1 - 4x 2 )
54(P(X = 2) + P (X = 1) + P(X = 0))
Official Ans. by NTA (B) æ 2
æ2ö æ1ö
4 1
æ2ö æ1ö
5
æ2ö æ1ö ö
0 6

54 ç 6 C2 ç ÷ ç ÷ + 6 C1 ç ÷ ç ÷ + 6 C0 ç ÷ ç ÷ ÷
ç è3ø è3ø è3ø è3ø è 3 ø è 3 ø ÷ø
è
sin -1 x cos-1 x
Sol. = =k =
146
a b 27

5
87
 Final JEE-Main Exam July, 2022/26-07-2022/Evening Session
æ 1 ö æ ö
ç1 - ÷ ( cos x - sin x ) ç ÷
The integral ò è 3ø 1 dx dx
19. dx is equal to çò -ò ÷
æ 2 ö 2ç æ pö æ pö÷
ç1 + sin 2x ÷ ç sin ç x + 6 ÷ cos ç x - ÷ ÷
è 3 ø è è ø è 6øø

æx p ö æx p ö
tan ç + ÷ tan ç + ÷
1
(A) log e è 2 12 ø + C 1
ln è 2 12 ø
2 æx pö 2 æx pö
ç2+ 6÷ tan ç + ÷
è ø è2 6ø

æx pö 20. The area bounded by the curves y = |x2-1| and y = 1

tan ç + ÷
1
(B) loge è2 6ø +C is
2 æx pö
ç2 + 3÷
è ø (A)
2
3
( 2 +1 ) (B)
4
3
( 2 -1 )
æ x pö
(C) log e
tan ç + ÷
è 2 6 ø +C
(C) 2 ( 2 -1) (D)
8
3
( 2 -1 )
æx p ö
tan ç + ÷ Official Ans. by NTA (D)
è 2 12 ø

æx p ö
tan ç - ÷ Sol. y = |x2 – 1|
1
(D) log e è 2 12 ø + C
2 æx pö |x2 – 1| = y
tan ç - ÷
è2 6ø
(0, 1)
Official Ans. by NTA (A) A E ( 2, 1)
(– 2, 1) C
B D
æ 1 ö (–1, 0) 0 (1, 0)
ç1 - ÷ ( cos x - sin x )
Sol. I=ò è 3ø
dx Area = ABCDEA
æ 2 ö
ç 1 + sin 2x ÷ æ1 2 ö
è 3 ø
ç0 ( ) (
= 2 ç ò 1 - (1 - x 2 ) dx + ò 1 - (x 2 - 1) dx ÷
÷ )
è 1 ø
æ 1 ö
3 èç 1- ÷ ( cos x - sin x )
3ø 8
2 ò
dx = ( 2 - 1)
æ 3 ö 3
çç + sin 2x ÷÷
è 2 ø SECTION-B

æ 3 1ö 1. Let A = {1,2,3,4,5,6,7} and B = {3,6,7,9}. Then

çç - ÷÷ (cos x - sin x)
è 2 2ø the number of elements in the set
ò sin 60° + sin 2x dx
{C Í A : C Ç B ¹ f} is_______

Official Ans. by NTA (112 )

æ 3 1 3 1 ö
çç cos x - cos x - sin x + sin x
è 2 2 2 2
ò æ pö æ pö
dx Sol. A = {1,2,3,4,5,6,7} and
2sin ç x + ÷ cos ç x - ÷
è 6ø è 6ø B = {3,6,7,9}

æ pö p öö Total subset of A = 27 = 128

æ æ
ç cos ç x - ÷ - sin ç x + ÷ ÷ C Ç B = f when set C contains the element
è è 6ø è 6 øø
ò æ pö æ pö
dx
2sin ç x + ÷ cos ç x - ÷ 1, 2, 4, 5
è 6ø è 6ø

6
88
Final JEE-Main Exam July, 2022/26-07-2022/Evening Session
\ S = {C Í A;C Ç B ¹ f} Sol. Here 1st digit is 1 or 2 only
Case-I
= Total – (C Ç B = f)
4 If first digit is 1
= 128 – 2 = 112
Then last two digits can be 24, 32, 36, 52, 56, 64
2. The largest value of a, for which the perpendicular
distance of the plane containing the lines 1

{
r
r= ( ˆi + ˆj) + l ( ˆi + ajˆ - kˆ ) and rr = ( ˆi + ˆj ) + m ( -ˆi + ˆj - akˆ ) 1 × 3 × 6 = 18 ways
from the point (2,1,4) is 3 , is_________. Case – II
If first digit is 2 then last two digit can be 16, 36,
Official Ans. by NTA (20)
56, 64

r ˆ ˆ
Sol. ( ) (
r = i + j + l ˆi + ajˆ - kˆ ) 2

{
r = ( i + j ) + m ( -ˆi + ˆj - akˆ )
r ˆ ˆ 1 × 3 × 4 = 12 ways
Total ways = 12 + 18 = 30 ways
D.R’s of plane containing these lines is
10
k m
ˆi ˆj kˆ 4. If åk
=
4
=
+ k +1 n
2
, where m and n are co-
1 a -1 = ˆi(1 - a 2 ) - ˆj(-a - 1) + k(1
ˆ + a) k 1

-1 1 -a prime, then m + n is equal to

r Official Ans. by NTA (166)

n = (1 - a)iˆ + ˆj + kˆ
One point in plane : (1, 1, 0)
10
k m
\ equation of plane is
Sol. åk
k =1
4
=
+ k +1 n
2

1 10 (k 2 + k + 1) - (k 2 - k + 1)
å
(1 – a)(x – 1) + (y – 1) + (z – 0) = 0
Þ
2 k =1 (k 2 + k + 1)(k 2 - k + 1)
(1 – a)x + y + z + a – 2 = 0
1 æ 10 æ 1 1 öö
Þ ç åç 2 - 2 ÷
\D =
| (1 - a)2 + 1 + 4 + a - 2 | 2 è k =1 è (k - k + 1) k + k + 1 ÷ø ø
(1 - a)2 + 1 + 1
55 m
Þ =
111 n
Þ |5 – a| = 3. a 2 - 2a + 3
m + n = 166
Þ a + 2a – 8 = 0
2

5. If the sum of solutions of the system of equations

Þ a = 2, –4 2sin 2 q - cos2q = 0 and 2 cos2 q + 3sin q = 0 in the
interval [0, 2 p ] is kp , then k is equal to _______.
\ largest value of a = 2
Official Ans. by NTA (3)
3. Numbers are to be formed between 1000 and 3000,
which are divisible by 4, using the digits 1,2,3,4,5
Sol. 2sin 2 q - cos2q = 0
and 6 without repetition of digits. Then the total
number of such numbers is _____________. 2sin2q – (1 – 2sin2 q) = 0
2
æ1ö
Official Ans. by NTA (30) Þ sin q = ç ÷ 2

è2ø

7
89
 Final JEE-Main Exam July, 2022/26-07-2022/Evening Session
p 5p 7p 11p 36756
q= , , , New S.D, s1¢ = - (31)2 = s
6 6 6 6 38
2 cos2 q + 3sin q = 0 2
36756 – (31) × 38 = 38s
2

Þ 2 sin 2 q - 3sin q - 2 = 0 Þ 38s2 = 238

1 The plane passing through the line L: l x-y+3(1- l )
\ sin q = - 7.
2
z = 1, x+2y - z = 2 and perpendicular to the plane
7 p 11p
q= , 3x+2y+z = 6 is 3x-8y+7z=4. If q is the acute
6 6
angle between the line L and the y-axis, then 415
So, the common solution is
cos2 q is equal to_____.
7 p 11p
q= ,
6 6 Official Ans. by NTA (125)
7p + 11p
Sum = = 3p= kp
6 r
Sol. n1 = lˆi - ˆj + 3(1 - l)kˆ
K=3
r
n 2 = ˆi + 2 ˆj - kˆ

6. The mean and standard deviation of 40 ˆi ˆj kˆ

observations are 30 and 5 respectively. It was Direction ratio of line = l -1 3(1 - l)
noticed that two of these observations 12 and 10 1 2 -1

were wrongly recorded. If s is the standard

= (6l - 5)iˆ + (3 - 2l)ˆj + (2l + 1)kˆ
deviation of the data after omitting the two wrong
3x – 8y + 7z = 4 will contain the line
observations from the data, then 38s2 is equal
(6l - 5)iˆ + (3 - 2l)ˆj + (2l + 1)kˆ
to___________.
Normal of 3x – 8y + 7z = 4 will be perpendicular
Official Ans. by NTA (238)
to the line
= 3(6l - 5) + (3 - 2l)( -8) + 7(2l + 1) = 0
Sol. Wrong mean = µ1 = 30
2
Þl=
Wrong S.D = s1 = 5 3
åx i
= 30 æ 5 7ö
\ direction ratio of line ç -1, , ÷
40 è 3 3ø
Þ å x i = 1200 Angle with y axis

s12 = 25 5/3
cos q =
25 49
1+ +
Þ
åx 2
i
- 30 2 = 25 9 9
40
5
Þ å x 2i = 925 ´ 40 = 37000
cos q =
83
New sum = å x¢ =
i 1200 - 10 - 12 = 1178
\ 415cos2 q =
25
´ 415 = 125
83
1178
New mean = m1¢ = = 31
38
New å x= 2
i 37000 - (10)2 - (12)2 = 36756

8
90
Final JEE-Main Exam July, 2022/26-07-2022/Evening Session
st
8. Suppose y = y(x) be the solution curve to the Sol. 1 term = 100 = a

dy Last term = 199 = l

differential equation - y = 2 - e - x such that
dx
If 3 term
lim y(x) is finite. If a and b are respectively the x-
x ®¥ a, a + d, a + 2d
and y- intercepts of the tangent to the curve at x=0, an = l = a + (n – 1)d
then the value of a-4b is equal to _________.
l-a
Official Ans. by NTA (3) di =
n-l
n ® number of terms
dy 199 - 100
Sol. - y = 2 - e-x n=3, d1 =
dx 2
I.F. = e ò = e - x
- dx
99
= Î/ I
2
\ solution of D.E
99
( )
y·e- x = ò 2e - x - e -2x dx n = 4, d 2 =
3
= 33 Î I

e-x n = 10, d 3 =
99
= 11 Î I
Þ y = -2 + + C.e x
2 9
Q lim y is finite n = 12, d 4 =
99
= 9ÎI
x ®¥
11
æ e-x ö \ å d i = 33 + 11 + 9 = 53
\ lim ç -2 + + C.e x ÷ ® finite
x®¥
è 2 ø
éa b ù
This is possible only when C = 0 10. The number of matrices A = ê ú , where
ëc d û
e-x
\ y = y(x) = -2 + a,b,c,d Î {-1,0,1,2,3,……,10}, such that A = A–1,
2
dy 1 is______.
= - e- x
dx 2 Official Ans. by NTA (50)
dy 1 1 -3
=- = m , y(0) = -2 + =
dx x= 0 2 2 2
éa b ù
\ equation of tangent Sol. A=ê ú
ëc d û
3 1
y+ = - (x - 0) Given A = A–1
2 2
\ A 2 = A·A -1 = I
Þ x + 2y = -3
é a b ù éa b ù é 1 0 ù
-3 ê úê ú=ê ú
a = –3, b = ëc d û ëc d û ë0 1 û
2
a – 4b = –3 + 6 = 3 é a 2 + bc ab + bd ù é 1 0 ù
Þê 2ú
=ê ú
9. Different A.P.'s are constructed with the first term ë ac + cd bc + d û ë 0 1 û
100, the last term 199, And integral common
\ a + bc = 1
2
….(1)
differences. The sum of the common differences of
all such, A.P's having at least 3 terms and at most ab + bd = 0 …..(2)
33 terms is.
ac + cd = 0 …(3)
Official Ans. by NTA (53) 2
bc + d = 1 …….(4)

9
91
 Final JEE-Main Exam July, 2022/26-07-2022/Evening Session
(1) – (4) gives Case – II
2 2
a –d =0 a=d
Þ (a + d) = 0 or a – d = 0 from (2) and (3)
Case – I a ¹ 0 then b = c = 0
a + d = 0 Þ (a, d) = (–1, 1), (0, 0), (1, –1) a2 = 1
(a) (a, d) = (–1, 1) a= ± 1=d
\ from equation (1) (a, d) = (1, 1), (–1, –1) ® 2 pairs
1 + bc = 1 Þ bc = 0 \ Total = 23 + 23 + 2 + 2
b = 0 C = 12 possibilities = 50 pairs
c = 0 b = 12 possibilities
but (0, 0) is repeated
\ 2 × 12 = 24
24 – 1 (repeated) = 23 pairs
(b) (a, d) = (1, –1) Þ bc = 0 ® 23 pairs
(c) (a, d) = (0, 0) Þ bc = 1
Þ (b, c) = (1, 1) & (–1, –1), 2 pairs

10
92
 FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JULY, 2022
(Held On Wednesday 27th July, 2022) TIME : 9 : 00 AM to 12 : 00 NOON

PHYSICS TEST PAPER WITH SOLUTION

SECTION-A Sol. V = –100 –10t
1. A torque meter is calibrated to reference standards
of mass, length and time each with 5% accuracy. 3. Sand is being dropped from a stationary dropper at
After calibration, the measured torque with this a rate of 0.5 kgs–1 on a conveyor belt moving with
torque meter will have net accuracy of : a velocity of 5 ms–1. The power needed to keep belt
(A) 15% (B) 25% (C) 75% (D) 5%
Official Ans. by NTA (B) moving with the same velocity will be :
(A) 1.25 W (B) 2.5 W
Sol. Dimensional formula for Torque (C) 6.25 W (D) 12.5 W
[ ] = [ML2T–2]
Official Ans. by NTA (D)
Now
Percentage error in torque = %  = % M + 2 % L
2%T Sol. Thrust = Vrel
%  = 25%
= 2.5 N
2. A bullet is shot vertically downwards with an
initial velocity of 100 m/s from a certain height. Now, Power =F × V = 12.5 W
Within 10 s, the bullet reaches the ground and 4. A bag is gently dropped on a conveyor belt moving
instantaneously comes to rest due to the perfectly at a speed of 2 m/s. The coefficient of friction
inelastic collision. The velocity-time curve for total
between the conveyor belt and bag is 0.4 Initially,
time t = 20 s will be : (Take g = 10 m/s2)
the bag slips on the belt before it stops due to
friction. The distance travelled by the bag on the
belt during slipping motion is : [Take g = 10 m/s–2]
(A)
(A) 2 m (B) 0.5 m
(C) 3.2 m (D) 0.8 ms
Official Ans. by NTA (B)

Sol. In frame of belt

(B)
a =  g = 4 m/s2 , v = 2m/s , u = 0
v2 = u2 + 2as
 s = 0.5 m
5. Two cylindrical vessels of equal cross-sectional
area 16 cm2 contain water upto heights 100 cm and
(C)
150 cm respectively. The vessels are
interconnected so that the water levels in them
become equal. The work done by the force of
gravity during the process, is [Take density of
(D) water = 103 kg/m3 and g = 10 ms–2]
(A) 0.25 J (B) 1 J
(C) 8 J (D) 12 J

Official Ans. by NTA (A) Official Ans. by NTA (B)

1
93
Sol. 7. If K1 and K2 are the thermal conductivities L1 and
L2 are the lengths and A1 and A2 are the cross
sectional areas of steel and copper rods
= K2 A L
respectively such that  9, 1  2, 1  2 .
h2 h K1 A2 L2
Then, for the arrangement as shown in the figure.
h1  h2 The value of temperature T of the steel – copper
h
2 junction in the steady state will be :

Now,

W = Ui–Uf

h1 h
W = (Ah1) g +( Ah2)g 2 – A(h1+h2)g
2 2

 h1  h2  (A) 18ºC (B) 14 ºC

  (C) 45 ºC (D) 150 ºC
 4 
Official Ans. by NTA (C)
Ag  2 (h1  h2 )2 
h1  h2 –
2
W=  K1
2  2  Copper K2
Steel T2=0ºC
A1 l1 l1 A2
W=1J Sol.
d K1 A1 K A
6. Two satellites A and B having masses in the ratio  (T1 – T)  2 2 (T – T2 )
dt l1 l2
4:3 are revolving in circular orbits of radii 3r and
450 – T K 2 A 2 l1 1
   9 2
4 r respectively around the earth. The ratio of total T–0 K1 A 1 l 2 2
mechanical energy of A to B is :  450 – T = 9T  T = 45ºC
8. Read the following statements :
(A) 9 : 16 (B) 16 : 9
A. When small temperature difference between a
(C) 1 : 1 (D) 4 : 3 liquid and its surrounding is doubled the rate of
Official Ans. by NTA (B) loss of heat of the liquid becomes twice.
B. Two bodies P and Q having equal surface areas
are maintained at temperature 10ºC and 20 ºC. The
m1 4 r1 3 thermal radiation emitted in a given time by P and
Sol. Given that  ,  Q are in the ratio 1 : 1.15
m2 3 r2 4
C. A carnot Engine working between 100 K and
1  –GMm  400 K has an efficiency of 75%
Now TE = mv2+  
2  r  D. When small temperature difference between a
liquid and its surrounding is quadrupled, the rate of
mv 2 GMm GMm loss of heat of the liquid becomes twice.
but  2
 mv 2 
r r r Choose the correct answer from the options given
GMm m below :
 TE  –  (A) A, B, C only (B) A, B only
2r r
(C) A, C only (D) B, C, D only
TE1 m1 r2 4 4 16 Official Ans. by NTA (A)
 .   
TE2 m2 r1 3 3 9

2
94
Sol. Heat Transfer Sol. Electrostatics
d
A. by Newton’s low of colling  T
dt
4
HP  TP 
4
d  283 
B. H   eAT 
4
   
dt HQ  TQ   293 
HP : HQ = 1 (1.03)4 = 1 : (1.03)4 = 1 : 1.15 KQq0 KQq0
F = m accn = –
 B is correct (a – x)2
(a  x)2
100 3
C.  = 1 –   75% m accn =
KQq0 [2a][2x]
400 4 (a2 – x2 )2
d
D. is wrong as  T  4kQq 0 
dt  accn   3 
x
9. Same gas is filled in two vessels of the same  ma 
volume at the same temperature. If the ratio of the
0ma3
number of molecules is 1:4, then T = 2
Qq 0
A. The r.m.s. velocity of gas molecules in two
vessels will be the same. 4 3 0ma3
B. The ratio of pressure in these vessels will T=
Qq 0
be 1 : 4
C. The ratio of pressure will be 1 : 1 11. Two sources of equal emfs are connected in series.
This combination is connected to an external
D. The r.m.s. velocity of gas molecules in two resistance R. The internal resistances of the two
vessels will be in the ratio of 1 : 4 sources are r1 and r2 (r1 > r2). If the potential
(A) A and C only (B) B and D only difference across the source of internal resistance r1
(C) A and B only (D) C and D only is zero then the value of R will be
rr
Official Ans. by NTA (C) (A) r1 – r2 (B) 1 2
r1  r2
Sol. KTG r1  r2
(C) (D) r2 – r1
3RT 2
A. VRms =  VRms is same
Mw Official Ans. by NTA (A)
P1 N1
B.   B is correct
P2 N 2 r1 E r2
Ans [A & B only are correct]
10. Two identical positive charges Q each are fixed at V=0

a distance of ‘2a’ apart from each other. Another Sol. I R

point charge q0 with mass ‘m’ is placed at
2E
midpoint between two fixed charges. For a small I
r1  r2  R
displacement along the line joining the fixed
charges, the charge q0 executes SHM. The time IR = E – Ir2
period of oscillation of charge q0 will be : I (R+ r2)= E
4  0 ma
3 3
q0Q E
(A) (B) I
q0Q 4  0 ma3
3
R  r2

2 2 0 ma3 8 3 0 ma3 2E E
(C) (D) 
q0Q q0Q r1  r2  R R  r2
Official Ans. by NTA (A) 2R + 2r2 = r1 + r2 + R
R = r 1 – r2
3
95
12. Two bar magnets oscillate in a horizontal plane in tan 
Sol. tan ' 
earth’s magnetic field with time periods of 3 s and cos 
 ’ = 60º
4 s respectively. If their moments of inertia are in
 = 45º
the ratio of 3 : 2 then the ratio of their magnetic
tan 
moments will e : 3
1
(A) 2 : 1 (B) 8 : 3 2
(C) 1 : 3 (D) 27 : 16 3
tan  
Official Ans. by NTA (B) 2

3
  tan –1
2
I
Sol. T = 2 14. A direct current of 4 A and an alternating current
MBH
of peak value 4 A flow through resistance of 3 
I1 and 2  respectively. The ratio of heat produced
2
T1 M1 BH 3 in the two resistances in same interval of time will
 =
T2 I2 4 be :
2
M 2 BH (A) 3 : 2 (B) 3 : 1

I1 M2 3 (C) 3 : 4 (D) 4 : 3
  Official Ans. by NTA (B)
I2 M1 4

I1 M2 3
  Sol.
I2 M1 4  2

3 M2 3 4A i0=4A
 
2 M1 4 DC AC

 
i 
3 M2 9 H1 = i2R1t H2 = i 2rms R2t i rms  0 
  
 2

2 M1 16
i 20
M1 8
H1 = 16(3)t R2 t
H2 =
 2
M2 3 H2 = 16t
13. A magnet hung at 45º with magnetic meridian H1 : H2 = 3 : 1
15. A beam of light travelling along X-axis
makes an angle of 60º with the horizontal. The
is described by the electric field
actual value of the angle of dip is
Ey = 900 sin  (t–x/c). The ratio of electric force to
 3
(A) tan –1 
 2 
(B) tan –1  6 magnetic force on a charge q moving along Y-axis
  with a speed of 3 × 107 ms–1 will be :

 2  1 [Given speed of light = 3 × 108 ms–1]

–1 –1
(C) tan 
 3 
(D) tan 
 2  (A) 1 : 1 (B) 1 : 10
   
(C) 10 : 1 (D) 1 : 2
Official Ans. by NTA (A)
Official Ans. by NTA (C)

4
96
  x  V0
Ey  900 sin  t – Sol.
c 
Sol.

E0 = 900 E  –E0 iˆ
y
h
0 
mv 0
V
B x eE0 t
v = v0 +
z m
FE = qE0
FB = qvB0 h h
 
FE E c 3  108 mv  eE 
 0    10 :1 m  v0  0 t
FB vB0 v 3  107  m 
16. A microscope was initially placed in air (refractive
index 1). It is then immersed in oil (refractive h
' 
index 2). For a light whose wavelength in air is  ,  eE0 
calculate the change of microscope’s resolving mv 0 1  t
 mv 0 
power due to oil and choose the correct option
1
(A) Resolving power will be in the oil than it 0
4 ' 
was in the air  eE0 
1  t
(B) Resolving power will be twice in the oil than it  mv 0 
was in the air.
(C) Resolving power will be four times in the oil 18. What is the half-life period of a radioactive
than it was in the air.
1 material if its activity drops to 1/16th of its initial
(D) Resolving power will be in the oil than it
2
was in the air. value of 30 years ?
Official Ans. by NTA (C)
(A) 9.5 years (B) 8.5 years

Sol. (R.P)air = 2sin  (C) 7.5 years (D) 10.5 years

1.22
2sin  2sin    Official Ans. by NTA (C)
(R.P)oil  
1.22oil 1.22
(R.P)oil = (R.P)air × 2
17. An electron (mass m) with an initial velocity
v  v 0 i(v 0  0) is moving in an electric field Sol. A  A 0e t

E  –E0 i(E0  0) where E0 is constant. If at t = 0

 A 
h  t  n  
de Broglie wavelength is 0  , then its de  A0 
mv 0
Broglie wavelength after time t is given by
n2 1
 eE t    30  n  
(A)  0 (B) 0 1  0  t1/2  16 
 mv 0 
0 n2
(C) 0 t (D)   30  4 n2
 eE0 t  t1/2
1  
 mv 0 
Official Ans. by NTA (D) 30
 t1/2   7.5 yrs
4
5
97
19. A logic gate circuit has two inputs A and B and d
output Y. The voltage waveforms of A, B and Y
R R
are shown below

Sol.
Let d be range
d2 = (h+R)2–R2
= h2+R2+2RH–R2
d2 = h2+2Rh
as R >>>> h then
The logic gate circuit is
(A) AND gate (B) OR gate d  2Rh …. (1)

(C) NOR gate (D) NAND gate Now, if coverage is to be increased 3 times

Official Ans. by NTA (A) 3d = 2Rh ' …. (2)

3d 2Rh '
Divide 2 and 1 
Sol. By making Truth table d 2Rh
A B Output h'
9
h
0 0 0
9h = h’
1 1 1
If h = 100 m then tower of height 900 m is
0 1 0 required
1 0 0 SECTION-B
1. In meter bridge experiment for measuring
Comparing with output of AND gate unknown resistance ‘S’, the null point is
A B AND obtained at a distance 30 cm from the left side
as shown at point D. If R is 5.6 k  , then the
0 0 0
value of unknown resistance ‘S’ will be
0 1 0
_______  .
1 0 0
1 1 1

 logic gate present is AND gate

20. At a particular station, the TV transmission tower
has a height of 100 m. To triple its coverage range,
Official Ans. by NTA (2400)
height of the tower should be increased to
(A) 200 m (B) 300 m
(C) 600 m (D) 900 m S 5.6  103
Sol. 
Official Ans. by NTA (D) 30 70
3
S  5.6  103  2400
7

6
98
2. The one division of main scale of vernier callipers IB = I + 4I + 2 I 4I cos (60º)
reads 1 mm and 10 divisions of Vernier scale is
1
= 5I + 4I × = 7I
equal to the 9 divisions on main scale. When the 2
two jaws of the instrument touch each other the IB – IA = 7I – 5I = 2I , (x = 2)
zero of the Vernier lies to the right of zero of the
4. To light, a 50 W, 100 V lamp is connected, in
main scale and its fourth division coincides with a
50
main scale division. When a spherical bob is series with a capacitor of capacitance F
 x ,
tightly placed between the two jaws, the zero of the
with 200 V, 50Hz AC source. The value of x will
Vernier scale lies in between 4.1 cm and 4.2 cm
be ____ .
and 6th Vernier division coincides with a main
Official Ans. by NTA (3)
scale division. The diameter of the bob will
be_____ 10–2 cm
Official Ans. by NTA (412) V2 V2
Sol. P R
R P
(VR) (VC)
Sol. 10 VSD = 9 MSD 200
1 VST = .9 MSD
L.C. = .1 mm = .01 cm
:
+ve zero error = .4mm
200 V , 50 Hz
= 0.04 cm
100
Negative zero error = 4.1 cm + 6 × .01
= 4.12 cm V
= 412 × 10–2 cm 100 102
R  R  200
3. Two beams of light having intensities I and 4I 50
interfere to produce a fringe pattern on a screen. VR2  VC2  V 2
The phase difference between the two beams are (100)2 + VC2 = (200)2
 /2 and  /3 at points A and B respectively. The
100 1
difference between the resultant intensities at the i  ; V2 = 40000
200 2
two points is xI. The value of x will be _____ .
V = I × XC ; VC2 = 30000
Official Ans. by NTA (2)
VC = 100 3

X C  200 3

Sol. A 
2 1
200 3 
 C
B 
3 1 50 106
C 
 20  50  20 3 x
IA = I + 4I + 2 I 4I cos  
2 x  50 106 100  200 3
= 5I + 4I (0) = 5I
X=3

7
99
5. A 1 m long copper wire carries a current of 1 A. If
the cross section of the wire is 2.0 mm2 and the
resistivity of copper is 1.7 × 10–8  m. the force x dS E
h
experienced by moving electron in the wire
is ______ × 10–23 N. (charge on electron
= 1.6 × 10–19 C) Sol.

Official Ans. by NTA (136) q

 Eds cos 0  0
Sol. l = 1m  x 2 h
 E.2xh 
i = 1A 0
Area = 2 × 10–6 x
–8
E
 = 1.7 × 10 2 0

 1.7 108 1 1.7  20

R  5
 102 E  1
A 2 10 2 20 
1.7
v 102 7. A mass 0.9 kg, attached to a horizontal spring,
2
executes SHM with an amplitude A1. When this
–19 1.7
F = 1.6 × 10 × × 10–2
2 mass passes through its mean position, then a
= 1.36 × 10–21 smaller mass of 124 g is placed over it and both
–23
= 136 × 10 masses move together with amplitude A2. If the
6. A long cylindrical volume contains a uniformly
A1 
ratio is , then the value of  will
distributed charge of density  Cm–3. The electric A2  –1

field inside the cylindrical volume at a distance be ____ .

20
x m from its axis is ______ Vm–1 Official Ans. by NTA (16)


1 2 p2
Sol. kA 
2 2m
2
A  m 1024
 1   2 
 A2  m1 900

A1 32 16 16
   
A 2 30 15 16  1
Official Ans. by NTA (1)
  16

8
100
8. A square aluminium (shear modulus is t3  t
For  = 0 = 2t2–  t2  2 –   0
3  3
25 × 109 Nm–2) slab of side 60 cm and thickness

15 cm is subjected to a shearing force (on its  t = 0, 6.

narrow face) of 18.0 × 104 N. The lower edge is d t3 t3

    (2t 2 – )dt
6
= 2t2–
dt 3 0 3
riveted to the floor. The displacement of the upper
6
 2t3 t 4 
edge is ____  m.  – 
 3 12  0
Official Ans. by NTA (48)
2 6  8–6
 63  –   63  
 3 12   12 

F x F 63
Sol.   x =  36
A A 6

18  104  60  10 –2 No. of revolutions =

36 18

x 2 
60  10 –2  15  10 –2  25  109

= 48 × 10–6 m = 48  m  K = 18

10. A ball of mass m is thrown vertically upward.

9. A pulley of radius 1.5 m is rotated about its axis by
Another ball of mass 2 m is thrown an angle 
a force F = (12t – 3t2) N applied tangentially (while
with the vertical. Both the balls stay in air for the
t is measured in seconds). If moment of inertia of
same period of time. The ratio of the heights
the pulley about its axis of rotation is 4.5 kg m2,

the number of rotations made by the pulley before 1

attained by the two balls respectively is . The
x
K
its direction of motion is reversed, will be . The value of x is _____ .


value of K is ____ . Official Ans. by NTA (1)

Official Ans. by NTA (18)

Sol. Time of flight is same

 vertical component of velocity is same

Sol.  = I   (12t – 3t2)1.5 = 4.5
 Hmax is same
  = 4t – t2

d
(4t – t 2 )dt
t

dt
= 4t–t2   = 0

  = 2t2–t3/3

9
101
 FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JULY, 2022
(Held On Wednesday 27th July, 2022) TIME : 9 : 00 AM to 12 : 00 NOON

CHEMISTRY TEST PAPER WITH SOLUTION

SECTION-A Sol. O2, Cu2+ and Fe3+ are paramagnetic,
1. 250 g solution of D-glucose in water contains  Weakly attracted by magnetic field.
10.8% of carbon by weight. The molality of the NaCl and H2O are diamagnetic,
solution is nearest to  Weakly repelled by magnetic field.
(Given: Atomic Weights are H, 1u ; C, 12u ; O, 16u) 3. Given below are two statements. One is labelled as
(A) 1.03 (B) 2.06 Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
(C) 3.09 (D) 5.40 Assertion A : Energy of 2s orbital of hydrogen
Official Ans. by NTA (B) atom is greater than that of 2s orbital of lithium.
Reason R : Energies of the orbitals in the same
Sol. C6H12O6  Glucose subshell decrease with increase in the atomic
mass of C 72 number.
We know:  In the light of the above statements, choose the
mass of glucose 180
correct answer from the options given below.
mass of C
Given: %C = 10.8 = 100 (A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
mass of solution
explanation of A.
10.8  250
 mass of C  Mass of C = 27 gm (B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the
100 correct explanation of A.
 mass of glucose = 67.5 gm (C) A is true but R is false.
 moles of glucose = 0.375 moles (D) A is false but R is true.
Mass of solvent = 250 – 67.5 gm = 182.5 gm Official Ans. by NTA (A)
0.375
 Molality =  2.055  2.06
0.1825 Sol. Energy of orbitals decreases on increasing the
2. Given below are two statements. atomic number.
Statement I : O2 , Cu2+ and Fe3+ are weakly 4. Given below are two statements. One is labelled as
attracted by magnetic field and are magnetized in Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
the same direction as magnetic field. Assertion A : Activated charcoal adsorbs SO2
Statement II : NaCl and H2O are weakly more efficiently than CH4.
magnetized in opposite direction to magnetic field. Reason R : Gases with lower critical temperatures
In the light of the above statements, choose the are readily adsorbed by activated charcoal.
most appropriate answer form the options given In the light of the above statements, choose the
below : correct answer from the options given below.
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. (A) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are explanation of A.
incorrect. (B) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the
(C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is correct explanation of A.
incorrect. (C) A is correct but R is not correct.
(D) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is (D) A is not correct but R is correct.
correct. Official Ans. by NTA (C)
Official Ans. by NTA (A)

1
102
Sol. SO2 is absorbed to a greater extent than CH4 on Sol. Ionization enthalpy order :
activated charcoal under same conditions. Li > Na > K
Gases with higher critical temperature are
He > Ne > Ar > Kr > Xe > Rn
readily absorbed by activated charcoal.
Sr > Rb
5. Boiling point of a 2% aqueous solution of a non-
Zn > Ga
volatile solute A is equal to the boiling point of 8%
aqueous solution of a non-volatile solute B. The 7. Which of the following methods are not used to
relation between molecular weights of A and B is. refine any metal?
(A) MA = 4MB (B) MB = 4MA (A) Liquation (B) Calcination
(C) MA = 8MB (D) MB = 8MA (C) Electrolysis (D) Leaching
Official Ans. by NTA (B)
(E) Distillation
Choose the correct answer from the options given
Sol. For A : 100 gm solution  2 gm solute A
below:
2 / MA
 Molality =
0.098 (A) B and D only (B) A, B, D and E only

For B : 100 gm solution  8 gm solute B (C) B, D and E only (D) A, C and E only
8 / MB Official Ans. by NTA (A)
 Molality =
0.092
( TB )A  ( TB )B Sol. Calcination and leaching are the methods of
 Molality of A = Molality of B concentration of ore and not that of refining.
2 8 8. Given below are two statements:
 
0.098M A 0.092M B Statement I : Hydrogen peroxide can act as an
2 92 M A
  oxidizing agent in both acidic and basic conditions.
98 8 M B
Statement II: Density of hydrogen peroxide at
1 M
 A 298 K is lower than that of D2O.
4.261 M B
In the light of the above statements. Choose the
 M B  4.261 M A correct answer from the options.
6. The incorrect statement is (A) Both statement I and Statement II are ture
(A) The first ionization enthalpy of K is less than
(B) Both statement I and Statement II are false
that of Na and Li
(C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(B) Xe does not have the lowest first ionization
enthalpy in its group (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(C) The first ionization enthalpy of element with Official Ans. by NTA (C)
atomic number 37 is lower than that of the element
with atomic number 38. Sol. Depending on the nature of reducing agent H2O2
(D) The first ionization enthalpy of Ga is higher
can act as an oxidising agent in both acidic as well
than that of the d-block element with atomic
as basic medium.
number 30.
Official Ans. by NTA (D) Density of D2O = 1.1 g/cc
Density of H2O2 = 1.45 g/cc

2
103
9. Given below are two statements: 11. Given below are two statements:

Statement I : The chlorides of Be and Al have Statement I : Iron (III) catalyst, acidified K2Cr2O7
and neutral KMnO4 have the ability to oxidise I- to
Cl-bridged structure. Both are soluble in organic
I2 independently.
solvents and act as Lewis bases. Statement II: Manganate ion is paramagnetic in
Statement II: Hydroxides of Be and Al dissolve in nature and involves p –p bonding.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
excess alkali to give beryllate and aluminate ions.
correct answer from the options.
In the light of the above statements. Choose the (A) Both statement I and Statement II are ture
correct answer from the options given below. (B) Both statement I and Statement II are false
(C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(A) Both statement I and Statement II are true
(D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(B) Both statement I and Statement II are false Official Ans. by NTA (B)
(C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

(D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true Sol. Neutral KMnO4 oxidises I to IO3

Official Ans. by NTA (D) Manganate ion has d-p bonding.

12. The total number of Mn = O bonds in Mn2O7 is
____
Sol. Be2Cl4 is lewis acid and Al2Cl6 has complete octet. (A) 4 (B) 5
Be and Al are amphoteric metals therefore dissolve (C) 6 (D) 3
Official Ans. by NTA (C)
in acid as well as alkaline solution and form

beryllate and aluminate ions in excess alkali. O O

10. Which oxoacid of phosphorous has the highest Mn Mn

Sol. O O
O
O O
number of oxygen atoms present in its chemical
13. Match List I with List II
formula? List I List II
(A) Pyrophosphorous acid Pollutant Disease /sickness

(B) Hypophosphoric acid A. Sulphate (>500 ppm) I. Methemoglobinemia

B. Nitrate (>50 ppm) II. Brown mottling of
(C) Phosphoric acid
teeth
(D) Pyrophosphoric acid C. Lead (> 50 ppb) III. Laxative effect
Official Ans. by NTA (D) D. Fluoride (>2 ppm) IV. Kidney damage

Choose the correct answer from the options given

below:
Sol. Pyrophosphorous acid  H4P2O5.
(A) A-IV, B –I, C-II, D-III
Hypophosphoric acid  H4P2O6.
(B) A-III, B –I, C-IV, D-II
Phosphoric acid  H3PO4. (C) A-II, B –IV, C-I, D-III
(D) A-II, B –IV, C-III, D-I
Pyrophosphoric acid  H4P2O7.
Official Ans. by NTA (B)

3
104
Sol. A. Sulphate (>500 ppm) - Causes Laxative effect Sol. Assertion A : Not correct , Reason R : correct
that leads to dehydration

B. Nitrate (>50 ppm) - Causes

Methemoglobinemia, skin appears blue

C. Lead (> 50 ppb) – It damage kidney and RBC [6] – annulene

D. Fluoride (>2 ppm) – It Causes Brown mottling

of teeth
- Not aromatic
14. Given below are two statements. One is labelled as
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A : [6] Annulene. [8] Annulene and [8] – annulene
cis –[10] Annulene, are respectively aromatic,
not-aromatic and aromatic.
H H - Not aromatic
[6] Annulene

[10] – annulene

[8] Annulene
In [10] –Annulene – the hydrogen atoms in the 1

and 6 position interfere with each other and force

Cis-[10] Annulene H the molecule out of planarity

H

Reason R : Planarity is one of the requirements of

aromatic systems.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
all -cis(10)annulene
most appropriate answer from the options given
below.
If this annulene with five cis double bonds were
(A) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct
planar, each internal angle would be 144°. Since a
explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the normal double bond has bond angle of 120°, this

correct explanation of A. would be from ideal. This compound can be made

(C) A is correct but R is not correct.
but it does not adopt a planar conformation and
(D) A is not correct but R is correct.
therefore is not aromatic even though it has ten 
Official Ans. by NTA (A)
electrons.

4
105
15. Sol.
CH2OH (A)
OH OH OH

+ HCl ¾¾
 A ¾¾ BNal
H +
OH
+ HCHO +

OH Phenol formaldehyde
O-Hydroxymethyl phenol
In the above reaction product B is: OH

CH2I CH2I P-Hydroxymethyl phenol

OH
OH OH
OH Polymerisation
(A) (B) n

n
OH I
Novolac
CH2Cl
CH2Cl (B)

(C) (D)
OH I
Official Ans. by NTA (A) CH 2  CH  CH  CH 2 + Buna -S
1,3-butadiene
Styrene

(C)
Sol. COOH

+
OH OH
COOH
-C C - O- CH2- CH2- O -
Phthalic acid ethylene glycol n
16. Match List I with List II O O
Glyptal
List I List II
Polymers Commenrcial names
(D)
A. Phenol- I. Glyptal
formaldehyde resin COOH
O O
B. Copolymer of 1,3- II. Novolac + C C O CH2 CH2 O
n
OH OH
butadiene and styrene
glycol Dacron
COOH
C. Polyester of glycol III. Buna-S
Terephthalic acid
and phthalic acid
D. Polyester of glycol IV. Dacron
17. A sugar ‘X’ dehydrates very slowly under acidic
and terephthalic acid
condition to give furfural which on further reaction
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below: with resorcinol gives the coloured product after
(A) A-II, B –III, C-IV, D-I sometime. Sugar ‘X’ is
(B) A-II, B –III, C-I, D-IV (A) Aldopentose (B) Aldotetrose
(C) A-II, B –I, C-III, D-IV (C) Oxalic acid (D) Ketotetrose
(D) A-III, B –II, C-IV, D-I
Official Ans. by NTA (A)
Official Ans. by NTA (B)

5
106
Sol. Sol.

O CHO (A)
H
Aldopentose ¾¾

Furfural

OH
It is morphine use for relief for pain, known for narcotic
HO O O analgesic

OH (B)

Cherry red product

(seliwanoff's test)
18. Match List I with List II Chloroxylenol used as an antiseptic

List I List II (C)

I. Anti-depressant

A.
Phenelzine (Nardil) use as Antidepressant

(D)
II. 550 times sweeter
than cane sugar

B.

Saccharin 550 times sweeter than cane sugar

III. Narcotic analgesic
19. In Carius method of estimation of halogen. 0.45 g
C. of an organic compound gave 0.36 g of AgBr. Find
out the percentage of bromine in the compound.
IV. Antiseptic (Molar masses : AgBr = 188 g mol-1: Br = 80 g mol-1)
(A) 34.04% (B) 40.04%
(C) 36.03% (D) 38.04%
D.
Official Ans. by NTA (A)

Sol. Mass of organic compound = 0.45 gm

Choose the correct answer from the options given
Mass of AgBr obtained = 0.36 gm
below:
0.36
(A) A-IV, B –III, C-II, D-I  Moles of AgBr =
188
(B) A-III, B –I, C-II, D-IV
0.36
(C) A-III, B –IV, C-I, D-II  Mass of Bromine =  80  0.1532gm
188
(D) A-III, B –I, C-IV, D-II
0.1532
Official Ans. by NTA (C)  % Br in compound =  100  34.04%
0.45

6
107
20. Match List I with List II SECTION-B
List I List II 1. 20 mL of 0.02 M K2Cr2O7 solution is used for the
A. Benzenesulphonyl I. Test for primary titration of 10 mL of Fe2+ solution in the acidic
chloride amines medium.
B. Hoffmann bromamide II. Anti Saytzeff The molarity of Fe2+ solution is ______ × 10-2 M.
reaction (Nearest Integer)
C. Carbylamine reaction III. Hinsberg reagent
Official Ans. by NTA (24)
D. Hoffmann orientation IV. Known reaction of
Isocyanates.
Sol. Eq. of K2Cr2O7 = Eq. of Fe2+
Choose the correct answer from the options given
 (Molarity × volume × n.f) of K2Cr2O7 =
below:
(molarity × volume × n.f ) of Fe2+
(A) A-IV, B –III, C-II, D-I
 0.02 × 20 × 6 = M × 10 × 1
(B) A-IV, B –II, C-I, D-III
 M = 0.24
(C) A-III, B –IV, C-I, D-II
 Molarity = 24 × 10-2
(D) A-IV, B –III, C-I, D-II
Official Ans. by NTA (C) 2. 2NO + 2H2  N2 + 2H2O

The above reaction has been studied at 800°C. The

O related data are given in the table below

S Cl Reaction Initial Initial Initial rate

Sol. (A)  Hinsberg reagent serial pressure Pressure  dp 
 /  kPa / s 
O

number of H2 / of NO/  dt 
kPa kPa
Benzen sulphonyl chloride
1 65.6 40.0 0.135
(B) Hoffmann bromamide reaction  known
2 65.6 20.1 0.033
reaction of isocynates
3 38.6 65.6 0.214
R  CO  NH2 + X2 + 4 NaOH  R-NH2 +
4 19.2 65.6 0.106
2NaX + Na2CO3 + 2H2O
The order of the reaction with respect to NO
Intermediate : R- N = C = O (isocyanate)
is____
(C) Carbylamine reaction  Test for primary Official Ans. by NTA (2)
amine

R-NH2 or Ar – NH2 + CHCl3 + 3KOH  RNC Sol. On decreasing pressure of NO by a factor of ‘2’ the

or Ar - NC+ 3KCl + 3H2O rate of reaction decreases by a factor of ‘4’.

 Order of reaction w.r.t. ‘NO’ = 2
(D) Hoffmann orientation  Anti saytzeff
(Formation of less substituted alkene as major
product)

7
108
3. Amongst the following the number of oxide(s) Sol. Solubility of CaF2 = S mole/L
which are paramagnetic in nature is 2.34 103 2.34
S  102 = 3 × 10–4 mol/L
Na2O, KO2, NO2, N2O, ClO2, NO, SO2, Cl2O 0.1 78 78
Ksp (CaF2) = 4S3 = 4(3 × 10–4)3
Official Ans. by NTA (4)
= 108 × 10–12
= 0.0108 × 10–8 (mol/L)3
Sol. KO2, NO2, ClO2, NO are paramagnetic. 7. The conductivity of a solution of complex with
4. The molar heat capacity for an ideal gas at constant formula CoCl3(NH3)4 corresponds to 1 : 1

pressure is 20.785 J K-1mol-1. The change in electrolyte, then the primary valency of central
metal ion is______
internal energy is 5000 J upon heating it from
300K to 500K. The number of moles of the gas at Official Ans. by NTA (1)

constant volume is ___ [Nearest integer]

(Given: R = 8.314 J K-1 mol-1) Sol. [Co(NH3 )4 Cl2 ]Cl

Official Ans. by NTA (2) Primary valency = oxidation no. = +3

8. In the titration of KMnO4 and oxalic acid in acidic
medium, the change in oxidation number of carbon
Sol. Cp,m = Cv,m + R
at the end point is_____
–1 –1
 Cv,m = 20.785 – 8.314 = 12.471 J k ml
Official Ans. by NTA (1)
U  nC v,m T
5000 25
n  2 Sol. Oxidation state of carbon changes from +3 to +4.
12.471 200 12.471
2KMnO4  5H 2C2O4  3H 2SO4 (dil.) 
5. According to MO theory, number of species/ions
K 2SO4  2MnSO4  10CO2  8H 2O
from the following having identical bond order
9. Optical activity of an enantiomeric mixture is
is_____:
+12.6° and the specific rotation of (+) isomer is
 
CN , NO ,O2 ,O2 ,O22 +30°. The optical purity is____%

Official Ans. by NTA (3) Official Ans. by NTA (42)

Sol. CN–, NO+, O22+ have bond order = 3 Sol.

6. At 310 K, the solubility of CaF2 in water is observed rotation of mixture 100

% optical purity =
rotation of pure enantiomer
2.34 × 10-3g /100 mL. The solubility product of
CaF2 is ___ × 10-8 (mol/L)3. (Given molar mass : 12.6
=  100 = 42
CaF2 = 78 g mol ) -1
30

Official Ans. by NTA (0)

8
109
10. In the following reaction

The % yield for reaction I is 60% and that of

reaction II is 50%. The overall yield of the
complete reaction is ___% [nearest integer]
Official Ans. by NTA (30)

Sol.

(I)

SO 3H

Oleum
% yield = 60%

Let initial moles of reactant taken = n

Total moles obtained for benzene sulphonic acid

(with % yield = 60%) = 0.6n

(II)

SO3H OH

NaOH(excess)

H+
% yield = 50%

Moles of benzene sulphonic acid before reaction II = 0.6n

Moles obtained for phenol (with % yield = 50%) =

0.6×0.5n =0.3n

So over all % yield of complete reaction = 0.3n

 100  30
n

9
110
 Final JEE-Main Exam July, 2022/27-07-2022/Morning Session

FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JULY, 2022

(Held On Wednesday 27th July, 2022) TIME : 9 : 00 AM to 12 : 00 NOON

MATHEMATICS TEST PAPER WITH SOLUTION

SECTION-A
1. Let R1 and R2 be two relations defined on ¡ by Sol. f : N - {1} ® N f(a) = a

a R1 b Û ab ³ 0 and a R2 b Û a ³ b , then Where a is max of powers of prime P such that

pa divides a. Also g(a) = a + 1
(A) R1 is an equivalence relation but not R2
(B) R2 is an equivalence relation but not R1 \ f(2) = 1 g(2) = 3
(C) both R1 and R2 are equivalence relations
f (3) = 1 g(3) = 4
(D) neither R1 nor R2 is an equivalence relation
f(4) = 2 g(4) = 5
Official Ans. by NTA (D)
f(5) = 1 g(5) = 6

Sol. R1 = { xy ³ 0, x, y Î R} Þ f (2) + g (2) = 4

For reflexive x ´ x ³ 0 which is true. (f (3) + g ( 3 )) = 5

For symmetric
f(4) + g (4) = 7
If xy ³ 0 Þ yx ³ 0
If x = 2, y = 0 and z = -2 f (5) + g (5) = 7

Then x. y ³ 0 & y.z ³ 0 but x.z ³ 0 is not true \ Many one f(x) + g(x) does not cotain 1
Þ not transitive relation. Þ into function
Þ R1 is not equivalence
\ Ans. (D) [neither one-one nor onto ]
R2 if a ³ b it does not implies b ³ a 3. Let the minimum value v0 of v = z 2 + z - 3 2 + z - 6i 2 ,
Þ R2 is not equivalence relation 2
z Î £ is attained at z = z0. Then 2z02 - z03 + 3 + v02 is
ÞD
equal to
2. Let f , g : ¥ - {1} ® ¥ be functions defined by
(A) 1000 (B) 1024
f(a) = a , where a is the maximum of the powers (C) 1105 (D) 1196
a
of those primes p such that p divides a, and Official Ans. by NTA (A)

g ( a ) = a + 1 , for all a Î ¥ - {1} . Then, the

function f + g is Sol. z0 = æç 0 + 3 + 0 , 0 + 6 + 0 ö÷ =(1, 2)
è 3 3 ø
(A) one-one but not onto 2 2 2
v0 = 1 + 2i + 1 + 2i - 3 + 1 + 2i - 6i = 30
(B) onto but not one-one
2
(C) both one-one and onto Then 2 z02 - z03 + 3 + v02
2
= 2 (1 + 2i ) - (1 - 2i ) + 3 + 900
2 3
(D) neither one-one nor onto
Official Ans. by NTA (D)
= 2 (1 - 4 + 4i ) - (1 - 4 - 4i )(1 - 2i ) + 3 + 900
2

= 8 + 6i + 900 = 100 + 900 = 1000

2

1
111
 Final JEE-Main Exam July, 2022/27-07-2022/Morning Session
æ1 2ö = 7 ( n1 + n2 ) + 7 n3 + 1 - 1
4. Let A = ç ÷ . Let a , b Î ¡ be such that
è -2 -5 ø
= 7 (n1 + n2 + n3)
a A + b A = 2 I . Then a + b is equal to -
2

\ Given number is divisible by 7 hence remainder

(A) -10 (B) -6 is zero
(C) 6 (D) 10
6. Suppose a1,a2, …., an,… be an arithmetic
Official Ans. by NTA (D)
progression of natural numbers. If the ratio of the
sum of the first five terms of the sum of first nine
Sol. Characteristic equation of matric A
terms of the progression is 5 : 17 and 110 < a15<
| A - l I |= 0 120, then the sum of the first ten terms of the
progression is equal to -
1- l 2
=0 (A) 290 (B) 380
-2 - 5 - l
(C) 460 (D) 510

Þ l2 + 4l = 1 Official Ans. by NTA (B)

Þ A2 + 4A = I 5
S5 5 ( 2a + 4d ) 5
Sol. = Þ 2 =
Þ 2A2 + 8A = 2I ……………. (1) S9 17 9
( 2a + 8d ) 17
2
Given that aA 2 + b A = 2I ……… (2) Þ d = 4a
Comparing equation (1) & (2) we get a15 = a + 14d = 57 a
a =2, b =8 Now , 110 < a15 < 120

\ a + b = 10 Þ 110 < 57a < 120

Ans. (D) (10) Þ a=2\d=8

5. The remainder when (2021)2022 + (2022)2021 is 10

S10 = (2×2+9×8) = 380
divided by 7 is 2
(A) 0 (B) 1 7. Let f : ¡ ® ¡ be a function defined as
(C) 2 (D) 6
æ p [ x] ö
Official Ans. by NTA (A) f ( x ) = a sin ç ÷ + [ 2 - x ] , a Î ¡ , where [t]
è 2 ø
Sol. (2021)2022 + (2022)2021 is the greatest integer less than or equal to t. If
4
= (2023 – 2) 2022 + (2023 – 1)2021 lim f ( x ) exists, then the value of ò f ( x ) dx is
x ®-1
0
= 7n1 + 22022 + 7 n2 - 1
equal to :
= 7(n1 + n 2 ) + 8674 - 1 (A) -1 (B) -2
(C) 1 (D) 2
= 7 ( n1 + n2 ) + ( 7 - 1) -1
674
Official Ans. by NTA (B)

2
112
Final JEE-Main Exam July, 2022/27-07-2022/Morning Session
æ [x] ö 5 < f '( x ) < 4 2
Sol. lim+ a sin ç p ÷ + [2 - x ] = -a + 2
x ®-1 è 2 ø
5x < f(x) < 4 2x
æ [x] ö
lim- a sin ç p ÷ + [2 - x ] = 0 + 3 = 3 f (x)
x ®-1 è 2 ø 5< <4 2
x
lim f (x)exist when a = -1 π/3
f ( x ) π/3
ò 5 < ò x < π/ò4 4 2
x ®-1

π/ 4
Now,
π/3 π/3
4 1 2 3 4 8sin x - sin 2x
ò0 f (x)dx =ò f (x)dx + ò f (x)dx + ò f (x)dx + ò f (x)dx
0 1 2 3 òπ/ 4 5 < ò x
< ò4 2
π/ 4

1 2 3 4
= ò (0 + 1)dx + ò (-1 + 0)dx + ò (0 - 1)dx + ò (1- 2)dx 5π 2π
0 1 2 3 <I<
12 3
=1 – 1 – 1 – 1 = –2
9. The area of the smaller region enclosed by the
p /3 æ 8sin x - sin 2 x ö curves y2 = 8x + 4 and x 2 + y 2 + 4 3x - 4 = 0 is
8. I =ò ç ÷ dx . Then equal to
p /4
è x ø
p 3p (A)
1
3
( 2 - 12 3 + 8p )
(A) <I <
2
p
4
5p
(B)
1
3
( 2 - 12 3 + 6p )
<I <
( 4 - 12 3 + 8p )
(B) 1
5 12 (C)
3
5p
( 4 - 12 3 + 6p )
2 1
(C) <I< p (D)
12 3 3
3p Official Ans. by NTA (C)
(D) < I <p
4 Sol.
Official Ans. by NTA (C)

(0, 2)
Sol. Consider
f(x) = 8sinx – sin2x
f'(x) = 8sinx – 2cos2x
(-2 3)
f"(x) = –8sinx + 4 sin2x
(0, -2)
= –8sinx (1 – cosx)

æπ πö
\ f"(x) < 0 x Î ç , ÷
è4 3ø x 2 + y 2 + 4 3x - 4 = 0

\ f'(x) is ¯ function y2 = 8x + 4
Point of intersections are (0, 2) & (0, -2)
æπö æπö Both are symmetric about x-axis
f 'ç ÷ < f '( x ) < f ' ç ÷
è3ø è4ø
ò( )
2
æ y2 - 4 ö
Area= 2 16 - y 2 - 2 3 - ç ÷ dy
0 è 8 ø
1é
On solving Area = 8p + 4 - 12 3 ùû
5 < f '( x ) <
8 3ë
2
3
113
 Final JEE-Main Exam July, 2022/27-07-2022/Morning Session
10. Let y = y1 (x) and y = y2(x) be two distinct A = 2 & it pass through (5, 7)
dy 7t = 5 + 2t2
solutions of the differential equation = x+ y,
dx 5
Þ t = 1, t =
with y1 (0) = 0 and y2 (0) = 1 respectively. Then, 2
the number of points of intersection of y = y1 (x) \ P ( at 2 , 2at ) Þ ( 2, 4 ) when t = 1
and y = y2(x) is
æ 25 ö 5
(A) 0 (B) 1 & ç ,10 ÷ when t =
è 2 ø 2
(C) 2 (D) 3
25
Official Ans. by NTA (A) \A = 2 ´ = 25
2
B = 4 × 10 = 40 \ A + B = 65
dy dy
Sol. = x+ yÞ - y = x
dx dx
r r
1f = e-x 12. Let a = a iˆ + ˆj + b kˆ and b = 3iˆ - 5 ˆj + 4kˆ be two
r r
\ solution is ye - x = ò xe - x dx vectors, such that a ´ b = -iˆ + 9iˆ + 12 k . Then the
r r r r
Þ ye -x -x
= - xe - e + c -x projection of b - 2 a on b + a is equal to
39
Þ y = - x - 1 + ce x (A) 2 (B)
5
y1 ( 0 ) = 0 Þ c = 1 46
(C) 9 (D)
\ y1 = - x - 1 + e x
….(1) 5
Official Ans. by NTA (D)
y2 (0) = 1 Þ c = 2
\ y 2 = - x - 1 + 2e x …..(2) r
r
Sol. Let a = a iˆ + ˆj + b kˆ, b = 3iˆ - 5 ˆj + 4kˆ
Now y2 -=
y1 e x > 0 \ y2 ¹ y1
r r
a ´ b = -iˆ + 9 ˆj + 12kˆ
\ Number of points of intersection of y1 & y2 is
zero. iˆ ˆj kˆ
11. Let P (a, b) be a point on the parabola y2 = 8x such Þa 1 b
that the tangent at P passes through the centre of 3 -5 4
the circle x2 + y2 – 10x – 14y + 65 = 0. Let A be the
Þ ( 4 + 5b ) iˆ + ( 3b - 4a ) ˆj + ( -5a - 3) kˆ
product of all possible values of a and B be the
product of all possible values of b. Then the value = -iˆ + 9 ˆj + 12kˆ
of A + B is equal to : \4 + 5b = -1, 3b - 4a = 9, - 5a - 3 = 12
(A) 0 (B) 25
b = -1, a = -3
(C) 40 (D) 65
r r
Official Ans. by NTA (D) \a = -3iˆ + ˆj - kˆ, b = 3iˆ - 5 ˆj + 4kˆ
r r
\a + b = -4 ˆj + 3kˆ
Sol. P(a, b) is point on y2 = 8x, such that tangent at P r2 r2
a = 11, b = 50
pass through centre of x2 + y2 – 10x – 14y + 65 = 0
rr
i.e. (5, 7) a.b = -9 + ( -5) - 4 = -18
Tangent at P(at2, 2at) is ty = x + at2
4
114
Final JEE-Main Exam July, 2022/27-07-2022/Morning Session
r r r r
( )
4
\ Projectile of b - 2a on a + b is Sol. n(S) = all 5 digit nos = 9 × 10

r r
(b - 2ar ) . (rar + b )
A : no is multiple of 7 but not divisible by 5

r Smallest 5 digit divisible by 7 is 10003

a+b
Largest 5 digit divisible by 7 is 99995
r2 r2 r r
=
b - 2 a - a.b
=
( )
50 - 22 - ( -18 ) 46
= \ 99995 = 10003 + (n – 1) 7 n = 12857
r r
a+b 5 5
Numbers divisible by 35
æ 46 ö 99995 = 10010 + (P-1) 35 Þ P = 2572
Ans. ç ÷
è 5 ø
r r \ Numbers divisible by 7 but not by 35 are
13. Let a = 2iˆ - ˆj + 5kˆ and b = a iˆ + b ˆj + 2kˆ . If
12857 – 2572 = 10285
r r r
(( ) )
a ´ b ´ iˆ .kˆ =
23
2
, then b ´ 2 ˆj is equal to
10285
\P = \ 9P = 1.0285
(A) 4 (B) 5 90000

(C) 21 (D) 17 Ans. (C) [1.0285]

Official Ans. by NTA (B) 15. Let a vertical tower AB of height 2h stands on a
horizontal ground. Let from a point P on the
r r
Sol. a = 2iˆ - ˆj + 5kˆ, b = a iˆ + b ˆj + 2kˆ ground a man can see upto height h of the tower
r r r
(( ) ) 23
a ´ b ´ iˆ . kˆ = , then b ´ 2 ˆj is
2
with an angle of elevation 2a . When from P, he
uuur
r ˆ r r ˆ r ˆ 23 moves a distance d in the direction of AP , he can
(( ) ( ) )
a.i b - b .i a .k =
2 see the top B of the tower with an angle of
rˆ rˆ r
( )( ) ( )( ) r
a.i b .i - b .iˆ a.kˆ =
23
2
elevation a . If d = 7h , then tan a is equal to

23 23 -3 (A) 5 -2 (B) 3 -1
2´ 2 - a ´ 5 = Þ 5a = 4 - Þ a =
2 2 2 (C) 7 -2 (D) 7- 3
iˆ ˆj kˆ
r Official Ans. by NTA (C)
b ´ 2 ˆj = a b 2 = -4iˆ + 2a kˆ
0 2 0
Sol.
r 9 B
\ b ´ 2 ˆj = 16 + 4a 2 = 16 + 4 ´ = 5
4
14. Let S be the sample space of all five digit numbers.
If p is the probability that a randomly selected C

number from S, is a multiple of 7 but not divisible 2h

h
by 5, then 9p is equal to
(A) 1.0146 (B) 1.2085
(C) 1.0285 (D) 1.1521 a 2a
H P x
d = 7h A
Official Ans. by NTA (C)
h
tan 2a =
x
5
115
 Final JEE-Main Exam July, 2022/27-07-2022/Morning Session
2h Sol. Two given planes mutually perpendicular
and tan a=
x + 7h 2(3k) + k (-k) + (-5) 1 = 0

2h k = 1, 5
tan a =
h cot 2a + 7h but k < 3 So k = 1
Plane passing through these planes is
2
tan a =
(1 - tan a )
2

+ 7
2x + y – 5z – 1 + l (3x – y + z – 5) = 0

2 tan a x
+
y
+
z
=1
5l + 1 5l + 1 5l + 1
Put tan a= t & simplify
2 + 3l 1 - l l -5
Þ tan a = 7 - 2 5l + 1 1
Given = 1 Þl =
2 + 3l 2
5l +1
So intercept on y - axis = =7
1- l
18. Let A(1, 1), B(-4, 3) C(-2, -5) be vertices of a

16. ( p ^ r ) Û ( p ^ ( ~ q ) ) is equivalent to (~ p) triangle ABC, P be a point on side BC, and D1 and

when r is D 2 be the areas of triangle APB and ABC.

(A) p (B) ~p Respectively.
(C) q (D) ~q If D1 : D 2 = 4 : 7 , then the area enclosed by the
Official Ans. by NTA (C)
lines AP, AC and the x-axis is
1 3
( ) ( ( )) º ( ~ p )
Sol. Given p ^ r Û p ^ ~ q (A) (B)
4 4
Taking r = q 1
(C) (D) 1
p q ~p ~q p^q P^~q ( p ^ r ) Û ( p ^ (~ q)) 2
T T F F T F F Official Ans. by NTA (C)

T F F T F T F
F T T F F F T Sol.
Y
F F T T F F T

( ) ( ( )) º ( ~ p )
So, clear p ^ r Û p ^ ~ q
B (-4, 3)

17. If the plane P passes through the intersection of A(1, 1)

two mutually perpendicular planes 2x + ky – 5z =

Q
1 and 3kx – ky + z = 5, k < 3 and intercepts a unit O R X
length on positive x-axis, then the intercept made P (x, y )
by the plane P on the y-axis is
1 5
(A) (B)
11 11
B (-2, -5 )
(C) 6 (D) 7
Official Ans. by NTA (D)

6
116
Final JEE-Main Exam July, 2022/27-07-2022/Morning Session

x y 1 20. Let a function f : ¡ ® ¡ be defined as :

1
Given D1= 1 1 1 ìx
ï ( 5 - t - 3 ) dt , x > 4
f ( x ) = í ò0
2
-4 3 1
ï x 2 + bx , x£4
1 1 1 î
1
& D 2= -4 3 1 where b Î ¡ . If f is continuous at x = 4, then
2
-2 -5 1 which of the following statements is NOT true ?
D1 4 -2 x - 5 y + 7 4 (A) f is not differentiable at x = 4
Given = Þ =
D2 7 36 7 35
(B) f ' ( 3) + f ' ( 5 )=
Þ14 x + 35 y = -95 ….(1) 4
æ 1ö
Equation of BC is 4x + y = -13 ….(2) (C) f is increasing in ç -¥, ÷ È ( 8, ¥ )
Solve equation (1) & (2) è 8ø

æ -20 -11 ö 1
Point P ç (D) f has a local minima at x =
, ÷ 8
è 7 7 ø
Official Ans. by NTA (C)
Here point Q æç -1 ,0 ö÷ & R æç 1 ,0 ö÷
è 2 ø è2 ø
ìx
ï ( 5 - t - 3 ) dt , x > 4
1 1
Sol. Given f ( x ) íò0
So Area of triangle AQR = ´ 1´ 1 =
2 2
ï x 2 + bx , x£4
19. If the circle x2 + y2 – 2gx + 6y – 19c = 0, g, c Î ¡ î
passes through the point (6, 1) and its centre lies on
the line x – 2cy = 8, then the length of intercept f(x) is continuous at x = 4
made by the circle on x-axis is ( x ) lim+ f =
So lim- f =
x ®4
( x)
x®4
f ( 4)
(A) 11 (B) 4 3 4

(C) 3 (D) 2 23
So 16 + 4b = ò ( 2 - t ) dt + ò (8 - t )dt
0 3

Official Ans. by NTA (D) Þ 16 + 4b = 15

-1
So b=
Sol. Given circle x + y - 2 gx + 6 y - 19c = 0
2 2
4
Passes through (6, 1) At x = 4
12g + 19 c = 43 ….(1) 31
LHD = 2x + b =
Centre (g, -3) lies on given line 4
So, g + 6c = 8 ….(2) RHD = 5 - |x – 3| = 4
Solve equation (1) & (2) LHD ¹ RHD
c=1&g=2 Option (A) is true
2 2
equation of circle x + y – 4x + 6y – 19 = 0 23 35
and f’(3) + f’(5) = +3=
Length of intercept on x-axis 4 4
Option (B) is true
= 2 g 2 - c = 2 23
x
Q f ( x ) = x2 - at x £ 4
4

7
117
 Final JEE-Main Exam July, 2022/27-07-2022/Morning Session
1 k 2 -1 k 2 -1
f ' ( x) = 2x - b= Þ b 2
=
4 k2 - 2 k2 - 2
This function is not increasing.
1 1 æ k2 - 2 ö a
æ 1ö + = 2 ç 2 ÷ & = -1
In the interval in x Î ç -¥, ÷ a2 b2 è k -1 ø b
è 8ø
Option (C) is NOT TRUE. 1 1 a
Sum of roots = + 2 + =b
1 a 2
b b
This function f(x) is also local minima at x =
2 ( k 2 - 2)
8
SECTION-B Þ - 1 = b …..(1)
k 2 -1
1. For k Î ¡ , let the solutions of the equation
æ 1 1 öa
( ( x cot ( tan ( cos (sin x ) ) )) ) = 1 Product of roots = ç + 2 ÷ = -5
èa b øb
-1 -1 -1
cos sin k, 0 < x < 2

2
be a and b , where the inverse trigonometric 2 ( k 2 - 2)
Þ ( -1) = -5
functions take only principal values. If the k 2 -1
solutions of the equation x2 – bx – 5 = 0 are
Þ 2k 2 - 4 = 5k 2 - 5
1 1 a b
+ 2 and , then 2 is equal to ______.
a 2
b b k 1
Þ 3k 2 = 1 Þ k 2 = …. Put in (1)
3
Official Ans. by NTA (12)
2 ( k 2 - 2)
Þb= -1 = 5 -1 = 4
k 2 -1
( ) (
Sol. cos sin -1 x = cos cos -1 1 - x 2 = 1 - x 2 ) b 4
= = 12
k2 1
( )
æ ö 1 1
cot tan -1 1 - x 2 = cot cot -1 ç ÷÷ = 3
ç 1- x ø 1 - x2
2
è
2. The mean and variance of 10 observations were
æ æ x öö 1 - 2x 2
calculated as 15 and 15 respectively by a student
Þ cos ç sin -1 ç ÷ ÷÷ =
ç
è 1- x øø 1 - x2
2
è who took by mistake 25 instead of 15 for one
observation. Then, the correct standard deviation
1 - 2x2
Þ =k is __________.
1- x 2
Official Ans. by NTA (2)
Þ 1 - 2 x = k (1 - x
2 2 2
)
Þ ( k 2 - 2 ) x2 = k 2 - 1
åx i
Sol. n = 10, x = = 15
k 2 -1 10
x = 2
2

k -2
åx i
2

k 2 -1 k 2 -1 62 = - ( x ) = 15
2
a= Þ a 2
= 10
k2 - 2 k2 - 2
10
Þ å xi = 150
i =1

8
118
Final JEE-Main Exam July, 2022/27-07-2022/Morning Session
9 Normal vector of the plane A is
Þ å xi + 25 = 150
i =1 ( 4a + 2l , -1 - 5l ,5 - l ) vector along the line
9
Þ å xi = 125 which contained the plane A is
i =1
i – 2j + k
9
Þ å xi + 15 = 140 \4a + 2l + 2 + 10l + 5 - l = 0
i =1

140 11l + 4a + 7 = 0 ……(2)

Actual mean = = 14 = xnew
10
Solve (1) and (2) to get a = 1, l = -1
9
xi2 + 252 - 152
å
i =1 10
= 15 Now equation of plane

9
x + 2 y + 3z - 2 = 0
Þ å x + 625 = 2400
2
i
x -3 y - 2 z -3
i =1
Let the point in the line = = = t
9
7 -1 -4
åx
i =1
i
2
= 1775
is ( 7t + 3, -t + 2, -4t + 3) satisfy the equation of

plane A
9
æ ö
å
i =1
x + 15 = 2000 = ç å xi2 ÷
2
i
2

è ø actual 7t + 3 – 2t + 4 + 9 -12t – 2 = 0
t=2
æ 2ö
ç å xi ÷ - ( xnew )
2
So a + b + g= 2t + 8= 12
è øactual
6 2
actual =
10
x2 y 2
4. An ellipse E : + = 1 passes through the
2000 a2 b2
= - 142
10 x2 y2
= 200-196 = 4 vertices of the hyperbola H : - = -1 . Let
49 64
(S.D)actual = 6 = 2
the major and minor axes of the ellipse E coincide
x-3 y -2 z-3
3. Let the line = = intersect the with the transverse and conjugate axes of the
7 -1 -4
x - 4 y +1 z hyperbola H. Let the product of the eccentricities
plane containing the lines = = and
1 -2 1 1
4ax - y + 5 z - 7a = 0 = 2x – 5y – z – 3, a Î ¡ at of E and H be
2
. If l is the length of the latus
the point P (a , b , g ) . Then the value of
rectum of the ellipse E, then the value of 113l is
a + b + g equals _______.
equal to _______.
Official Ans. by NTA (12)
Official Ans. by NTA (1552)

Sol. Equation of plane

y 2 x2
4ax - y + 5 z - 7a + l (2x – 5y – z – 3)= 0 Sol. Hyp : - =1
64 49
this satisfy (4, -1, 0)
x2 y 2
An ellipse E : 2 + 2 = 1 passes through the
16a + 1 - 7 a + l ( 8 + 5 - 3 ) = 0 a b
9a + 1 + 10l = 0 …..(1) x2 y2
vertices of the hyperbola H : - = -1 .
49 64
9
119
 Final JEE-Main Exam July, 2022/27-07-2022/Morning Session
So b2 = 64
(
Þ ò d y ln ( tan x 2 ) + 2 ò ) dt
t -1 ò
2
= 0
a2 49
eH = 1 + 2
= 1+
b 64 1 t -1
Þ y ln ( tan x 2 ) + 2. ln =c
x2 y2 2 t +1
Ellipse + =1
a 2 b2 æ sin x 2 + cos x 2 - 1 ö
y ln ( tan x 2 ) + ln ç ÷=c
è sin x + cos x + 1 ø
2 2
a2 a2
eE = 1 - = 1 -
b2 64
p
Put y = 1 and x =
1- a 2
113 1 6
b = 8, ´ = Þ 64 - a 2 ´ 113 = 32
64 8 2
æ1 3 ö
2
ç + - 1÷
( 64 - a ) = 113
322
æ 1 ö
1ln ç è2
÷ + ln æ
2 ø =c
è 3ø 1 3 ö
ç + + 1÷
32 2 è2 2 ø
Þ a 2 = 64 -
113
æ1 3 ö
Now ç + - 1÷
2æ 32 ö 1552 p ø ln æ 1 ö + ln æ 3 - 1 ö
( )
Þ y ln 3 + ln è
2 2 2 2
2a =
x = ç ÷ çç ÷÷
l= = ç 64 - ÷= 3 æ1
ç +
3 ö
+ 1÷
è 3ø è 3 +3ø
b 8è 113 ø 113 è2 2 ø

113l = 1552
5. Let y = y(x) be the solution curve of the
( )
æ 1 ö
y ln 3 = ln ç
è 3ø
÷

differential equation Þ y = -1
æ æ p öö
sin ( 2 x 2 ) log e ( tan x 2 ) dy + ç 4 xy - 4 2 x sin ç x 2 - ÷ ÷ dx = 0, y =1
è è 4 øø

6. Let M and N be the number of points on the curve

p
0< x< , which passes through the point y5 – 9xy + 2x = 0, where the tangents to the curve
2
are parallel to x-axis and y-axis, respectively. Then
æ p ö æ pö the value of M + N equals ________.
çç ,1÷÷ . Then y çç ÷÷ is equal to _______.
è 6 ø è 3 ø Official Ans. by NTA (2)
Official Ans. by NTA (1)
Sol. y5 – 9xy + 2x = 0
æ æ p öö dy dy
sin ( 2 x 2 ) ln ( tan x 2 ) dy + ç 4 xy - 4 2 x sin ç x 2 - ÷ ÷ dx = 0
Sol.
5 y4 - 9x - 9 y + 2 = 0
è è 4 øø x dx
æ pö
ln ( tan x ) dy +
2 4 xydx
-
4 2 x sin ç x 2 - ÷
è 4ø
dx = 0
dy
dx
( 5 y4 - 9x ) = 9 y - 2
sin ( 2 x 2 ) sin ( 2 x 2 )
dy 9y - 2
(sin x 2
- cos x 2 ) = 4 = 0 (for horizontal tangent)
( )
d y.ln ( tan x 2 ) - 4 2 x
2 - 2sin x 2 cos x 2
dx = 0 dx 5 y - 9 x
2
y= Þ Which does not satisfy the original
4 x ( sin x - cos x
2 2
) dx = 0
( ) (sin x
9
d y ln ( tan x 2 ) - 2
+ cos ) - 12
equation Þ M = 0.

10
120
Final JEE-Main Exam July, 2022/27-07-2022/Morning Session
Now 5y4 – 9x = 0 (for vertical tangent) 1 - 6409 1 + 6409
£n£
4
5y (9y – 2) – 9y = 0 5 4 4
4
y [45y – 10 – 9y] = 0 n = {-19, -18 - 17,.......0,1, 2,......, 20}

y = 0 (Or) 36y = 10
å f ( x) = å ( 2x
nÎ S
2
- x - 1)
5
y=
18
= 2 éë192 + 182 + ..... + 12 + 12 + 22 + .... + 19 2 + 202 ùû
5
y =0Þx =0 & y = Þx =
18
æ 5ö = 4 éë12 + 22 + ..... + 192 ùû + 2 éë202 ùû - 20 - 40
( 0, 0 ) ç x, ÷
è 18 ø
4 ´19 ´ 20 ´ ( 2 ´19 + 1)
N=2
= + 2 ´ 400 - 60
6
M+N=0+2=2
4 ´19 ´ 20 ´ 39
= + 800 - 60 - 9880 + 800 - 60
6
7. Let f ( x )= 2 x 2 - x - 1 and
= 10620
{ }
S = n Î ¢ : f ( n ) £ 800 . Then, the value of
8. Let S be the set containing all 3 × 3 matrices with

å f ( n ) is equal to _________.
nÎS
entries from {-1, 0, 1}. The total number of

matrices A Î S such that the sum of all the

Official Ans. by NTA (10620)
diagonal elements of AT A is 6 is __________.

Official Ans. by NTA (5376)

Sol. f(x) = 2x2 – x – 1

|f(x)| £ 800
Sol. Tr ( AAT ) = 6
2n – n – 801 £ 0
2

1 801 éa d gù éa b cù
n2 - n - £0 êb
2 2 e hú êd e fú
AAT = ê ú ê ú
êë c f i úû êë g h i úû
2
æ 1 ö 801 1
çn - ÷ - - £0
è 4ø 2 16 Now given a2 + d 2 + g2 + b2 + e2 + h2 + c2 + f 2 + i=
2
6

2
æ 1 ö 6409 = 9 C3 ´ 2 6
çn - ÷ - £0
è 4ø 16
= 5376
æ 1 6409 ö æ 1 6409 ö
çç n - - ÷÷ çç n - + ÷£0
è 4 4 øè 4 16 ÷ø

11
121
 Final JEE-Main Exam July, 2022/27-07-2022/Morning Session
9. If the length of the latus rectum of the ellipse x2 + Let S = { z Î £ : z 2 + z = 0} . Then
10. å ( Re ( z ) + Im ( z ) )
4y + 2x + 8y - l = 0 is 4, and l is the length of its
2 zÎS

is equal to ______.
major axis, then l + l is equal to _______.
Official Ans. by NTA (0)
Official Ans. by NTA (75)

Sol. S = { z Î C : z 2 + z = 0}
Sol. l + l = 75
Let z = x + iy
x2 + 4 y 2 + 2 x + 8 y - l = 0
z2 = x2 – y2 + 2ixy
( x + 1) ( y + 1) z = x - iy
2 2

+ =1
l +5 l +5
z 2 + z = x 2 - y 2 + x + i ( 2 xy - y ) = 0
4
2 Þ x 2 + x - y 2 = 0 & 2 xy - y = 0
2b
Q =4
a 1
y = 0 or x =
2
2 ( l + 5)
4
=4 ( l +5 ) If y = 0; x = 0, - 1

1 3 - 3
Þ l = 59 If x= ; y= ,
2 2 2
l ¹ -5 æ 3ö
æ 1 1ö 3
å çç Re ( z ) + Im ( z ) = çè 0 - 1 + 2 + 2 ÷ø + 0 + 0 + 2
- ÷
2 ÷ø
l = 2a = 2 l + 5 = 2 65 = 16 zÎS è

Þ l + l = 59 + 16 = 75

12
122
 FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JULY, 2022
(Held On Wednesday 27th July, 2022) TIME : 3 : 00 PM to 6 : 00 PM

PHYSICS TEST PAPER WITH SOLUTION

SECTION-A

1. An expression of energy density is given by 10x 2 (10)(100)

Sol. yx 10  20 
  x   1 u2
2u 2  
u sin   , where ,  are constants, x is  2
  kt 
u = 20
displacement, k is Boltzmann constant and t is the
(2)(20)
T 2 2
temperature. The dimensions of  will be : 2 (10)

(A) [ML2 T–2–1 ] (B) [M0 L2 T–2 ] v  10 2 ˆi  (10 2  10(2)] ˆj

(C) [M0 L0 T0 ] (D) [M0 L2 T0 ]  

Momentum p  M v  100 2 ˆi  (100 2  200) ˆj
Official Ans. by NTA (D) 3. A block of mass M slides down on a rough
inclined plane with constant velocity. The angle

[L] made by the incline plane with horizontal is . The

Sol.  [M0 L0 T 0 ]
[M L2 T 2 ] magnitude of the contact force will be :
(A) Mg
  [ML1 T2 ]
(B) Mg cos 
2 2
 [M L T ] 2
[M L T ][L ] 1 3
(C) Mgsin   Mgcos 
 
 3
[L ] M L2 T 2
(D) Mgsin  1  
2. A body of mass 10 kg is projected at an angle of
Official Ans. by NTA (A)
45° with the horizontal. The trajectory of the body
is observed to pass through a point (20, 10). If T is Sol.
the time of flight, then its momentum vector, at
T
time t  , is _________
2

[Take g = 10 m/s2]

(A) 100iˆ  (100 2 – 200)jˆ

(B) 100 2 ˆi  (100 – 200 2)jˆ

N = Mgcos
(C) 100 ˆi  (100 – 200 2)jˆ
f = Mgsin
(D) 100 2 ˆi  (100 2 – 200)jˆ R  N2  f 2
Official Ans. by NTA (D) R = Mg

1
123
4. A block ‘A’ takes 2 s to slide down a frictionless  V
2
8V2 V2
   V 2
 2a(4)  a  
incline of 30° and length ‘l’, kept inside a lift going 3 9(8) 9
up with uniform velocity ‘v’. If the incline is 0  V2  2a(4  x)
changed to 45°, the time taken by the block, to
 2
slide down the incline, will be approximately:  V2  2  V  (4  x)
 9 
(A) 2.66 s (B) 0.83 s
(C) 1.68 s (D) 0.70 s 4.5 = 4 + x

Official Ans. by NTA (C) x = 0.5

6. A body of mass m is projected with velocity ve in

Sol.
vertically upward direction from the surface of the
earth into space. It is given that v e is escape

velocity and  < 1. If air resistance is considered to

the negligible, then the maximum height from the
centre of earth, to which the body can go, will be
(R : radius of earth)
a = g sin 
R R
1 (A) (B)
 gsin 30 (2)2 ….(1) 1  2
1 – 2
2
1 R 2R
 gsin 45 t 2 ….(2) (C) (D)
2 1–  1 – 2
 1 1 2
  (4)  t t  2 2 1.68 Official Ans. by NTA (B)
2 2
5. The velocity of the bullet becomes one third after it
penetrates 4 cm in a wooden block. Assuming that
bullet is facing a constant resistance during its
motion in the block. The bullet stops completely
after travelling at (4 + x) cm inside the block. The Sol.

value of x is:
(A) 2.0 (B) 1.0
(C) 0. 5 (D) 1.5
GMm 1 GMm
  m 2 Ve2  
Official Ans. by NTA (C) R 2 h
GMm 1 2 2GMm GMm
   
R 2 R h
2 1 1
 
Sol. R R h
1 1  2

h R
R
h
1  2
2
124
7.
 A steel wire of length 3.2 m (YS = 2.0 × 1011 Nm–2) 100 2
Sol. First case :   1  
and a copper wire of length 4.4 M 300 3
(YC = 1.1 × 1011 Nm–2), both of radius 1.4 mm are Second case : net = 1 + 2 – 12
connected end to end. When stretched by a load, 200 1
the net elongation is found to be 1.4 mm. The load 1  1  
300 3
22
applied, in Newton, will be: (Given   ) 100 1
7 2  1  
200 2
(A) 360 (B) 180 (C) 1080 (D) 154
1 1 1 2
Official Ans. by NTA (D) net    
3 2 6 3
 (first case) =  (second case)
9. Which statements are correct about degrees of
freedom?
A. A molecule with n degrees of freedom has n2
Sol.
different ways of storing energy.
B. Each degree of freedom is associated with
1
RT average energy per mole.
1 + 2 =  2
C. A monoatomic gas molecule has 1 rotational
F 1 F 2
  degree of freedom where as diatomic molecule
A1y1 A2 y 2
has 2 rotational degrees of freedom

F  1.54  10 2  154 D. CH4 has a total to 6 degrees of freedom
1
 2 Choose the correct answer from the option
A1y1 A2 y2
given below:
st
8. In 1 case, Carnot engine operates between (A) B and C only (B) B and D only
temperatures 300 K and 100 K. In 2nd case, as (C) A and B only (D) C and D only
shown in the figure, a combination of two engines Official Ans. by NTA (B)
is used. The efficiency of this combination (in 2nd
case) will be :
Sol. Methane molecule is tetrahedron
Degree of freedom due to rotation = 3
Degree of freedom due to translation = 3
10. A charge of 4 C is to be divided into two. The
distance between the two divided charges is
constant. The magnitude of the divided charges so
that the force between them is maximum, will be:
(A) 1 C and 3 C (B) 2 C and 2 C
(C) 0 and 4 C (D) 1.5 C and 2.5 C
Official Ans. by NTA (B)

(A) same as the 1st case Sol.

(B) always greater than the 1st case Kq(4  q)
F
(C) always less than the 1st case d2
(D) may increase or decrease with respect to the 1st dF K
 [4  2q]  0
case dq d 2
Official Ans. by NTA (C) q=2

3
125
11. A. The drift velocity of electrons decreases with 12. A compass needle of oscillation magnetometer
the increase in the temperature of conductor. oscillates 20 times per minute at a place P of dip
B. The drift velocity is inversely proportional to 30°. The number of oscillations per minute become
the area of cross-section of given conductor. 10 at another place Q of 60° dip. The ratio of the
C. The drift velocity does not depend on the total magnetic field at the two places (BQ : BP) is:
applied potential difference to the conductor. (A) 3 : 4 (B) 4 : 3
D. The drift velocity of electron is inversely
(C) 3 : 2 (D) 2 : 3
proportional to the length of the conductor.
Official Ans. by NTA (A)
E. The drift velocity increases with the increase in
the temperature of conductor.
I
Choose the correct answer from the options given Sol. T  2
BH M
below:
(A) A and B only (B) A and D only I
T1  3sec  2 
(C) B and E only (D) B and C only (BP cos30)M

Official Ans. by NTA (B) I

T2  6sec  2
(BQ cos60)M

 e 
  BQ / 2 
Sol. Drift velocity =   E 3 1
 m 
6  3
 BP 
 e  V   2 
vd    
 m  
3  BQ 
V = Potential difference applied across the wire   
6  3BP 
As temperature increases, relaxation time
decreases, hence Vd decreases. 3 BQ

4 BP
1
As per formula, Vd 
BQ : BP  3 : 4
I
vd  , as it is not mentioned that current is at 13. A cyclotron is used to accelerate protons. If the
neA
operating magnetic field is 1.0 T and the radius of
steady state neither it is mentioned that n is
the cyclotron 'dees' is 60 cm, the kinetic energy of
constant for given conductor. So it can't be said
the accelerated protons in MeV will be :
that vd is inversely proportional to A.
[use mp = 1.6 × 10–27 kg, e = 1.6 × 10–19 C]
V V
I = neAvd =  A (A) 12 (B) 18
R 
(C) 16 (D) 32
V  V
vd  E   Official Ans. by NTA (B)
 ne  
eE
vd  Sol. Kinetic energy of electron in cyclotron
m
 decrease with temperature increase.  q 2 B2 r02 
=  
First and fourth statements are correct.  2m 
= 18 MeV
4
126
14.
 A series LCR circuit has L = 0.01 H, R = 10  and 16. Two coherent sources of light interfere. The
C = 1 F and it is connected to ac voltage of intensity ratio of two sources is 1 : 4. For this
I I
amplitude (Vm) 50 V. At frequency 60% lower interference pattern if the value of max min is
I max  I min
than resonant frequency, the amplitude of current
2  1 
will be approximately : equal to , then will be :
3 
(A) 466 mA (B) 312 mA
(A) 1.5 (B) 2 (C) 0.5 (D) 1
(C) 238 mA (D) 196 mA Official Ans. by NTA (B)
Official Ans. by NTA (C)
I1 1
Sol. 
1 I2 4
Sol. Resonant frequency, 0   104 rad/sec
LC I 2  4I1
'  .4  104  4000 rad/sec Imax  I1  4I1  2 I1 4I1  9I1

V0 Imin  I1  4I1 – 2 I1 4I1  I1

i0   238 mA
R 2  (X'C – X'L )2 9I1  I1 10 5 2  1
   
9I1 – I1 8 4   1
15. Identify the correct statements from the following
  2  1
descriptions of various properties of
 2
electromagnetic waves.   2
A. In a plane electromagnetic wave electric field  1
17. With reference to the observations in photo-electric
and magnetic field must be perpendicular to
effect, identify the correct statements from below:
each other and direction of propagation of
A. The square of maximum velocity of
wave should be along electric field or magnetic photoelectrons varies linearly with frequency
field. of incident light.
B. The energy in electromagnetic wave is divided B. The value of saturation current increases on
equally between electric and magnetic fields. moving the source of light away from the metal
surface.
C. Both electric field and magnetic field are
C. The maximum kinetic energy of photo-electrons
parallel to each other and perpendicular to the decreases on decreasing the power of LED
direction of propagation of wave. (light emitting diode) source of light.
D. The electric field, magnetic field and direction D. The immediate emission of photo-electrons out
of propagation of wave must be perpendicular of metal surface can not be explained by
to each other. particle nature of light/electromagnetic waves.
E. Existence of threshold wavelength can not be
E. The ratio of amplitude of magnetic field to the
explained by wave nature of
amplitude of electric field is equal to speed of light/electromagnetic waves.
light. Choose the correct answer from the options given
Choose the most appropriate answer from the below:
options given below: (A) A and B only (B) A and E only
(A) D only (C) C and E only (D) D and E only
Official Ans. by NTA (B)
(B) B and D only
(C) B, C and E only 1
(D) A, B and E only Sol. mVmax
2
 hf – 
2
Official Ans. by NTA (B) Photoelectric effect can be explained by particle
nature of light. Threshold  is max wavelength at
Sol. Second and fourth statements are correct. which emission takes place.

5
127
18. The activity of a radioactive material is 20. A square wave of the modulating signal is shown
6.4 × 10–4 curie. Its half life is 5 days. The activity in the figure. The carrier wave is given by
will become 5 × 10–6 curie after : C(t) = 5 sin (8 t) Volt. The modulation index is :
(A) 7 days (B) 15 days
(C) 25 days (D) 35 days
Official Ans. by NTA (D)

Sol. A0  6.4  10 4 Curie (A) 0.2 (B) 0.1

ln 2 (C) 0.3 (D) 0.4
T1/2  5 days 
 Official Ans. by NTA (A)
A  A0 e – t

5  10 6  6.4  10 –4 e – t Am 1
Sol. Modulation Index     0.2
AC 5
5
 10 2  e – t Am = amp. of modulating signal
6.4
AC = amp. of carrier wave
7.8  10 3  e – t
SECTION-B
log(7.8  103 )  – t lne
1. In an experiment to determine the Young's
n2
ln(7.8  10 3 )  – t modulus, steel wires of five different lengths
5
(1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 m) but of same cross section
5  4.853
  t  35 days (2 mm2) were taken and curves between extension
0.693
19. For a constant collector-emitter voltage of 8V, the and load were obtained. The slope (extension/load)

collector current of a transistor reached to the value of the curves were plotted with the wire length and

of 6 mA from 4 mA, whereas base current changed the following graph is obtained. If the Young's
modulus of given steel wires is x × 1011 Nm–2, then
from 20 A to 25 A value. If transistor is in
the value of x is ________ .
active state, small signal current gain (current
amplification factor) will be :
(A) 240 (B) 400
(C) 0.0025 (D) 200
Official Ans. by NTA (B)

Sol. VCE = 8 V = IC = 6 mA from 4 mA,

IB = 20 A to 25 A
I C '– I C 2mA
Current gain av  
I B '– I B 5A
2 2000 Official Ans. by NTA (2)
av   103   400
5 5

6
128
 l / w l / L 1 Sol.   A(y –1) – A'(y' –1)
Sol. Slope   
L w YA
= 6(1.5 – 1) – 5(1.55 – 1)
1
Y 1
(slope)A 
4
1 A conducting circular loop is placed in X – Y
Y 4.
2  10 (0.25  10 –5 )
–6
plane in presence of magnetic field
Y  2  10 N/m
 
11 2
ˆ in SI unit. If the radius of the loop
B  3t 3ˆj  3t 2 k
2. In the given figure of meter bridge experiment, the
is 1m, the induced emf in the loop, at time, t = 2s is
balancing length AC corresponding to null
nV. The value of n is……..
deflection of the galvanometer is 40 cm. The
balancing length, if the radius of the wire AB is Official Ans. by NTA (12)
doubled, will be……….cm.
Sol.   B A

 (3t 3ˆj  3t 2 k)
ˆ  ((1)2 k)
ˆ

  3t 2 

d
 IND   6t
dt

Official Ans. by NTA (40) at t = 2,  IND  12

5. As show in the figure, in steady state, the charge

Sol. Independent of area in case of uniform wire. stored in the capacitor is……. × 10–6C.
3. A thin prism of angle 6º and refractive index for
yellow light (nY)1.5 is combined with another
prism of angle 5º and nY = 1.55. The combination
produces no dispersion. The net average deviation
º
 1
() produced by the combination is   . The
 x

value of x is…….

Official Ans. by NTA (10)

Sol. q  C V100

 10 
 (1.1  10 –6 ) 
 R  r 
R

 10 
 1.1  10 –6   100
 110 
Official Ans. by NTA (4)
= 10 C

7
129
6. A parallel plate capacitor with width 4 cm, length 8. A spherical soap bubble of radius 3 cm is formed
8 cm and separation between the plates of 4mm is
inside another spherical soap bubble of radius
connected to a battery of 20 V. A dielectric slab of
6 cm. If the internal pressure of the smaller bubble
dielectric constant 5 having length 1cm, width
4 cm and thickness 4 mm is inserted between the of radius 3 cm in the above system is equal to the
plates of parallel plate capacitor. The electrostatic internal pressure of the another single soap bubble
energy of this system will be………0 J. (Where
of radius r cm. The value of r is…….
0 is the permittivity of free space)
Official Ans. by NTA (2)
Official Ans. by NTA (240)

Sol.

Sol.
  (7  4) 5 0 (1  4) 
Ceff   0   10 2
 4 / 10 4 / 10 

Ceff  1.20

1 4T 4T
Energy = Ceff V 2 P2 – P0  & P1 – P2 
2 6 3
1
 (1.2) 0 (20)(20)  240 0 4T
2  P1 – P0  =2
2
7. A wire of length 30 cm, stretched between rigid
9. A solid cylinder length is suspended symmetrically
supports, has it’s nth and (n + 1)th harmonics at
400 Hz and 450 Hz, respectively. If tension in the through two massless strings, as shown in the
string is 2700 N, it’s linear mass density figure. The distance from the initial rest position,
is……..kg/m.
the cylinder should by unbinding the strings to
Official Ans. by NTA (3)
achieve a speed of 4 ms–1, is…….cm.

nv (n  1)v (take g = 10 ms–2)

Sol.  400 &  450
0.6 0.6
 0.6  400  v
  1  450
 v  0.6
 = v = 30

T
  30


2700 Official Ans. by NTA (120)

  900    3


8
130
Sol.
 From energy conservation at B, v = 0

1 1 –10
mgh  mv2  I 2 a = – g sin 45° =
2 2 2

1 1 mR2 2 10
mgh  mv2   v  u  at1  0  10 2 – t1  t1  2sec
2 2 2 2

16 16 For B  C
10h    h  1.2m  120cm
2 4
1
s  ut 2  at 22
10. Two inclined planes are placed as shown in figure. 2

A block is projected from the Point A of inclined 10 1

 (10sin30)t 22
sin30 2
plane AB along its surface with a velocity just

sufficient to carry it to the top Point B at a height t2  2 2

10 m. After reaching the Point B the block slides So total time

down on inclined plane BC. Time it takes to reach T  t1  t 2

to the point C from point A is t  

2  1 s. The 2 2 2

value of t is……..(use g = 10 m/s2)  2( 2  1)sec

Official Ans. by NTA (2)

Sol.

1 2
From E.C. = mv0  mgh
2

v0  10 2

For A  B

9
131
 FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JULY, 2022
(Held On Wednesday 27th July, 2022) TIME : 3 : 00 PM to 6 : 00 PM

CHEMISTRY TEST PAPER WITH SOLUTION

SECTION-A Sol. (A) MO   A  B (III) ABMO
1. The correct decreasing order of energy, for the (B)   Q  r (I) Dipole moment
orbitals having, following set of quantum numbers: N b – Na
(C) (IV) Bond order
(A) n = 3, l = 0, m = 0 2
(B) n = 4, l = 0, m = 0 (D) MO   A  B (II) BMO
(C) n = 3, l = 1, m = 0
(D) n = 3, l = 2, m = 1 3. The Plot of pH-metric titration of weak base
(A) (D) > (B) > (C) > (A)
NH4 OH vs strong acid HCl looks like:
(B) (B) > (D) > (C) > (A)
(C) (C) > (B) > (D) > (A)
(D) (B) > (C) > (D) > (A)
Official Ans. by NTA (A) (A)

Sol. (A) n +  = 3 + 0 = 3

(B) n +  = 4 + 0 = 4

(C) n +  = 3 + 1 = 4 (B)
(D) n +  = 3 + 2 = 5

Higher n + value, higher the energy & if same

n +  value, then higher n value, higher the energy.

(C)
Thus : D > B > C > A.
2. Match List-I with List-II
List-I List-II
(A) MO  A  B (I) Dipole moment
(B)   Q  r (II) Bonding molecular
(D)
orbital
N b  Na
(C) (III) Anti-bonding
2
Official Ans. by NTA (A)
molecualr orbital
(D) MO  A  B (IV) Bond order
Sol. Titration curve of NH4OH vs HCl (WB + SA).
(A) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
(B) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
(C) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
(D) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
Official Ans. by NTA (C)

1
132
4. Given below are two statements: 6. Outermost electronic configurations of four
Statement I: For KI, molar conductivity increases elements A, B, C, D are given below:
steeply with dilution.
(A) 3s2
Statement II: For carbonic acid, molar
conductivity increases slowly with dilution. (B) 3s2 3p1
In the light of the above statements, choose the
(C) 3s2 3p3
correct answer from the options given below:
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true (D) 3s2 3p 4
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
The correct order of first ionization enthalpy for
(C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true them is:
Official Ans. by NTA (B) (A) (A) < (B) < (C) < (D)
(B) (B) < (A) < (D) < (C)
Sol. Statement I: KI is strong electrolyte thus almost (C) (B) < (D) < (A) < (C)
constant on dilution.
(D) (B) < (A) < (C) < (D)
Statement II: In weak electrolyte it increases,
sharply. Official Ans. by NTA (B)

Sol. (A) 3s2  Mg

(B) 3s23p1  Al
(C) 3s23p3  P
(D) 3s23p4 S
5. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as PS  Mg  Al
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason Half filled stability Penetrating power of s  p.

(R) C > D > A > B.

Assertion (A) : Dissolved substances can be
7. An element A of group 1 shows similarity to an
removed from a colloidal solution by diffusion
element B belonging to group 2. If A has
through a parchment paper.
Reason (R) : Particles in a true solution cannot maximum hydration enthalpy in group 1 then B is:
pass through parchment paper but the collodial (A) Mg (B) Be
particles can pass through the parchment paper. (C) Ca (D) Sr
In the light of the above statements, choose the Official Ans. by NTA (A)
correct answer from the options given below:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
Sol.
correct explanation of (A) Diagonal relationship
(C) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(D) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
Official Ans. by NTA (C)
Li+  Maximum hydration enthalpy in group 1
Sol. Assertion (A): Correct. due to small size.
Reason(R): Incorrect. So ‘B’ is Mg.
Particles of true solution pass through parchment
paper thus answer is (C).

2
133
8. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as 11. Given below are two statements:
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason Statement I : The non bio-degradable fly ash and
(R) slag from steel industry can be used by cement
industry.
Assertion (A) : Boron is unable to form BF63 
Statement II : The fuel obtained from plastic
Reason (R) : Size of B is very small. waste is lead free.
In the light of the above statements, choose the In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below: most appropriate answer from the options given
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct below:
explanation of (A) (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are
incorrect
correct explanation of (A)
(C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
incorrect
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true (D) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
Official Ans. by NTA (B) correct
Official Ans. by NTA (A)
Sol. Assertion (A): True
Reason (R): True but not correct explanation. Sol. (I) Fly ash and slag from steel industry are utilised
by cement industry.
Correct explanation: Expansion of octet not
(II) Fuel obtained from plastic waste has high
possible for ‘B’.
octane rating. It contains no lead and it is known as
9. In neutral or alkaline solution, MnO4 oxidises green fuel.
Both statement (I) & (II) are correct.
thiosulphate to:
12. The structure of A in the given reaction is:
(A) S2O72 (B) S2O82

(C) SO32 (D) SO42

Official Ans. by NTA (D)

Sol. 8MnO 4  3S 2 O 32  H 2 O 

neutral or
alk. solution
 8MnO 2  6SO 42  2OH 
(A)
10. Low oxidation state of metals in their complexes
are common when ligands:
OH
(A) have good  -accepting character |
(B) R — C — CH 3
(B) have good  -donor character |
CH 2CH 3
(C) are havind good  -donating ability
(D) are havind poor  -donating ability (C)
Official Ans. by NTA (A)

(D)
Sol. When metal is in low oxidation state then it forms
complexes when ligands have good  -accepting Official Ans. by NTA (C)
character.

3
134
Sol. O O 14. Match List-I with List-II.
NaOH
R R List-I

Br

O
(A)
R
13. Major product ‘B’ of the following reaction
sequence is:

(B)

(A) (C)

(B)

(D)

(C)
Lits-II

(I) Gatterman Koch reaction

(II) Etard reaction

(D)
(III) Stephen reaction

(IV) Rosenmund reaction

Official Ans. by NTA (B)
Choose the correct answer from the options given

OCH3 Br below:
Br2
CH3–C=CH–CH3 CH3–CH–––CH–CH3
CH3OH (A) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
CH3 CH3
(B) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
Sol HI
(C) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
I Br
(D) (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
CH3–CH–CH–CH3
Official Ans. by NTA (A)
CH3

4
135
Sol. COCl CHO Sol. Cl Cl
Polymerisation
H2 (A)
(A) n
(Chloroprene) neoprene
Pd–BaSO4
Polymerisation
(B) F2C CF2 CF2 CF2
(Rosenmund reaction) n
Tetrafluoro Teflon
SnCl2–HCl ethene
(B) CH3–CN CH3–CHO CN CN
H3O+ (Stephen reaction) Polymerisation
(C) H2C CH CH2 CH
CH3 n
CHO Acrylonitrile Acrilan

CrO2Cl2 (D)
(C) Polymerisation
H3O+ Isoprene n
(Etard reaction) Natural rubber

CHO 16. An organic compound ‘A’ contains nitrogen and

CO,HCl chlorine. It dissolves readily in water to give a
(D)
AlCl3(anhyd) solution that turns litmus red. Titration of
(Gattermann Koch compound ‘A’ with standard base indicates that the
reaction) molecular weight of ‘A’ is 131  2. When a sample
15. Match List-I with List-II. of ‘A’ is treated with aq. NaOH, a liquid separates
which contains N but not Cl. Treatment of the
List-I List-II
obtained liquid with nitrous acid followed by
(Polymer) (Monomer) phenol gives orange precipitate. The compound

(A) Neoprene (I) Acrylonitrile ‘A’ is :

(B) Teflon (II) Chloroprene

(C) Acrilan (III) Tetrafluoroethene (A)

(D) Natural rubber (IV) Isoprene

Choose the correct answer from the option given

below: (B)
(A) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D-(IV)

(B) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D-(IV)

(C) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D-(III) (C)

(D) (A)-(I), (B)-( II), (C)-(III), (D-(IV)

Official Ans. by NTA (A)

(D)

Official Ans. by NTA (D)

5
136
Sol. 18. Which of the following enhances the lathering
property of soap?
(A) Sodium stearate
(B) Sodium carbonate
(C) Sodium rosinate
(D) Trisodium phosphate
Official Ans. by NTA (C)

Sol. Rosin is added to soaps which forms sodium

17. Match List-I with List-II rosinate which lathers well.
List-I 19. Match List-I with List-II
(A) Glucose + HI List-I (Mixture)
(A) Chloroform & Aniline
(B) Glucose + Br2 water
(B) Benzoic acid & Napthalene
(C) Glucose + acetic anhydride (C) Water & Aniline
(D) Glucose + HNO3 (D) Napthalene & Sodium chloride
List-II List-II (Purification Process)
(I) Steam distillation
(I) Gluconic acid
(II) Sublimation
(II) Glucose pentacetate
(III) Distillation
(III) Saccharic acid
(IV) Crystallisation
(IV) Hexane (A) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
Choose the correct answer from the options given (B) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
below: (C) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
(A) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III) (D) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
(B) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I) Official Ans. by NTA (D)
(C) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
Sol. (A) Chloroform + Aniline  (III) Distillation
(D) (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
(B) Benzoic acid + Napthalene (IV)
Official Ans. by NTA (A)
Crystallisation
(C) Water + Aniline (I) Steam distillation
Sol.
(D) Napthalene + Sodium chloride (II)
(A) HI
Glucose  n-hexane Sublimation

(B) COOH 20. Fe3 cation gives a prussian blue precipitate on

| addition of potassium ferrocyanide solution due to
Br2 (CHOH)4
Glucose   | the formation of:
H2O
CH 2OH (A) [Fe(H2 O)6 ]2 [Fe(CN)6 ]
Gluconic acid
(B) Fe2 [Fe(CN)6 ]2
(C) 5 acetic
Glucose   Glucose pentacetate (C) Fe3 [Fe(OH)2 (CN)4 ]2
anhydride

(D) COOH (D) Fe4 [Fe(CN)6 ]3

|
HNO3 (CHOH) 4 Official Ans. by NTA (D)
Glucose   |
COOH
Saccharic acid Sol. 4 Fe 3  3[Fe(CN) 6 ]4 
 Fe 4 [Fe(CN) 6 ]3
Prussian Blue

6
137
 SECTION-B Sol. Let x g is burnt
1. The normality of H2SO4 in the solution obtained on x
moles =
280
mixing 100 mL of 0.1 M H2SO4 with 50 mL of 0.1
x
M NaOH is_______×10–1 N. (Nearest Integer) heat released by mole = 2.5 × 0.45 kJ
280
Official Ans. by NTA (1)
2.5  0.45  280
heat released by 1 mole = kJ
x

Sol. No. of equivalents of H2SO4 = 100 × 0.1 × 2 = 20 H = U + ngRT

No. of equivalents of NaOH = 50 × 0.1 = 5 H U
No. of equivalents of H2SO4 left = 20 – 5 = 15
2.5  280  0.45
9
 150 × x = 15 x
1
x  0.1N =1 × 10–1 N x = 35 g
10
4. When a certain amount of solid A is dissolved in
2. for a real gas at 25°C temperature and high
100 g of water at 25°C to make a dilute solution,
pressure (99 bar) the value of compressibility
the vapour pressure of the solution is reduced to
factor is 2, so the value of Vander Waal’s constant
one-half of that of pure water. The vapour pressure
‘b’ should be_________×10–2 L mol–1 (Nearest of pure water is 23.76 mmHg. The number of
–1 –1
integer) (Given R = 0.083 L bar K mol ) moles of solute A added is________. (Nearest
Official Ans. by N Integer)

Official Ans. by NTA (3)

Sol. For real gas under high pressure

Pb RT Sol. Diliute solution given:
Z  1 b
RT P
P 0  PS n
solute
0.083  298 P0 n
solvent

99 0
–2 –1
P0  P n
solute
= 0.25 ×10 L mol 2 
0 n
P solvent
3. A gas (Molar mass = 280 g mol–1) was burnt in n
solvent 100
excess O2 in a constant volume calorimeter and
n
solute =  2.78mol
2 18  2
during combustion the temperature of calorimeter More accurate approach:
increased from 298.0 K to 298.45 K. If the heat P 0  PS n
solute
 n
capacity of calorimeter is 2.5 kJ K–1 and enthalpy PS solvent
of combustion of gas is 9 kJ mol–1 then amount of 0
P0  P n
solute
2 
gas burnt is_______g. (Nearest Integer) P 0 n
solvent
2
Official Ans. by NTA (35)
100
n
solute = nsolvent =  5.55mol
18

7
138
5. [A]  [B] 7. The oxidation state of manganese in the product

Reactant Product obtained in a reaction of potassium permanganate

and hydrogen peroxide in basic medium is______.
If formation of compound [B] follows the first
order of kinetics and after 70 minutes the Official Ans. by NTA (4)

concentration of [A] was found to be half of its

initial concentration. Then the rate constant of the 4
2KMnO4  3H2 O2 
basic medium
 2 MnO2  3O2  2H2 O  2KOH
Sol.
reaction is x × 10—6 s—1. The value of x is______.
(Nearest Integer) 8. The number of molecule(s) or ion(s) from the
following having non-planar structure is______.
Official Ans. by NTA (165)
NO3 ,H 2 O 2 ,BF3 ,PCl 3 ,XeF4 ,
SF4 ,XeO3 ,PH 4 ,SO3 ,[Al(OH)4 ]
0.693 0.693
Sol. K 
t1/2 70  60 Official Ans. by NTA (6)

6930
=  10 6
76
–6 —1
Sol. SO3 — sp2 Planar
= 165 × 10 s
BF3 — sp2 Planar
6. Among the following ores Bauxite, Siderite,
NO3– — sp2 Planar
Cuprite, Calamine, Haematite, Kaolinite,
SF4 — sp3d Non-planar
Malachite, Magnetite, Sphalerite, Limonite,
H2O2 — sp3 Non-planar
Cryolite, the number of principal ores if (of) iron
PCl3 — sp3 Non-planar
is_______.
[Al(OH)4]– — sp3 Non-planar
Official Ans. by NTA (4)
XeF4 — sp3d2 Planar
XeO3 — sp3 Non-planar
Sol. Bauxite — AlOX(OH)3–2x(where 0 < x < 1)
PH 4 — sp3 Non-planar
Siderite — FeCO3
9. The spin only magnetic moment of the complex
Cuprite — Cu2O
present in Fehling’s reagent is______ B.M.
Calamine — ZnCO3
(Nearest integer).
Haematite — Fe2O3
Official Ans. by NTA (2)
Kaolinite — Al2(OH)4Si2O5
Malachite — CuCO3 . Cu(OH)2

Magnetite — Fe3O4 Sol. Fehling solution is a complex of Cu++

Sphalerite — ZnS Cu++ = 3d9

No. of unpaired e— = 1
Limonite — Fe2O3.3H2O
Cryolite — Na3AlF6 M.M  1(1  2)  3  1.73 BM

8
139
10.

In the above reaction, 5 g of toluene is converted

into benzaldehyde with 92% yield. The amount of
benzaldehyde produced is______×10—2 g. (Nearest
integer)
Official Ans. by NTA (530)

Sol.

5
moles 
92

= 106 × 5 × 10–2 = 5.3 g

= 530 × 10–2 g

9
140
 FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JULY, 2022
(Held On Wednesday 27th July, 2022) TIME : 3 : 00 PM to 6 : 00 PM

MATHEMATICS TEST PAPER WITH SOLUTION

SECTION-A
1. The domain of the function 2. Let S be the set of all (,),   ,   2 , for
1  isin 
  which the complex number is purely

f(x)  sin 1[2x 2  3]  log 2  log 1 x 2  5x  5
 2
 , 1  i cos 
1  2isin 
imaginary and is purely real. Let
1  2i cos 
where [t] is the greatest integer function, is : Z  sin 2  i cos2,(, ) S.
 5 5 5   5  5 5 5  1 
(A)   ,
 2


2 
(B) 
 2
,
2 
Then 
( , )S
 i Z  i Z  is equal to :
  

(A) 3 (B) 3 i
 5  5  5 5
(C) 1, (D) 1, (D) 2 – i
2  2 
(C) 1
 
Official Ans. by NTA (C)
Official Ans. by NTA (C)

Sol.   ,   2
  1  isin 
Sol.
 2
 
f(x)  sin 1[2x 2  3]  log2  log 1 x 2  5x  5 

1  i(2sin )
= Purely imaginary

(1  isin ) (1  i(2sin ))

 = Purely imaginary
P1 : 1  2x 2  3  1 1  4sin 2 
1  2sin 2 
 1  2x  3  22  0
1  4sin 2 
 2 < 2x2 < 5  sin 2  
1
2
5
 1 < x2 <  5 7 
2   , 
4 4
 5   5 1  i cos 
 P1 : x   , 1   1, & = Purely real
 2   2  1  i(2cos )
(1  i cos ) (1  2i cos )
P2 : x2 – 5x + 5 > 0  = Purely real
1  4cos2 
  5  5    5  5   3 cos  = 0
 x   x  0
  2    2   3
       
2

P3 : log 1 x 2  5x  5  0   Z   sin
5
 i cos 3  1  i
2 2
or
 x2 – 5x – 5 < 1
7
Z   sin  i cos3  1  i
 x2 – 5x + 4 < 0 2
 P3 : x (1, 4) Required value = i(1  i)  1   i(1  i)  1 
 i(1  i)   i( 1  i) 
 
 5 5  1 2i
= i( 2i)   2  1 1
So, P1  P2  P3 =  1,  i ( 2)
 2 


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141
3. If ,  are the roots of the equation  4 2
4. Let A  
     
 
1 2
log3 5 log5 3 (log3 5) 3 (log5 3) 3
x  53
2
5  3 3 5  1  0
  If A2 + A + 18I = O, then det (A) is equal to
___________.
then the equation, whose roots are (A) –18 (B) 18 (C) –50 (D) 50
1 1 Official Ans. by NTA (B)
 and   ,
 
(A) 3x2 – 20x – 12 = 0 Sol. The characteristic equation for A is A  I  0

(B) 3x2 – 10x – 4 = 0 4   2

 0
 
(C) 3x2 – 10x + 2 = 0
(D) 3x2 – 20x + 16 = 0   4        2  0

Official Ans. by NTA (B)   2    4    4  2  0

Put  = A
Sol. Bonus because ‘x’ is missing the correct will be, A2  (  4) A  (4  2) I  0

 
On comparison
 
1 2

x  3 3  1  0 9   4    & 4  2  18
3 3
x  53
log3 5
5
log5 3
2 (log 3 5)
5(log 5 3)
 
  and |A| = 4 + 2 = 18
3
log3 5
3
log3 5. log3 5. log5 3 log 5. log 5 3
3 3 5. If for p  q  0 , then function
7 p(729  x)  3
  3log3 5  f(x) 
log5 3 log5 3
5 is continuous at x = 0, then:
3 729  qx  9
 log5 3 2/3
(A) 7pq f(0) – 1 = 0 (B) 63q f(0) – p2 = 0
  3log3 5 
3 log 5 log3 5. 3 (log 5 3) 2
3 3
3
(C) 21q f(0) – p2 = 0 (D) 7pq f(0) – 9 = 0
 5
log5 3
2/3
Official Ans. by NTA (B)

So, equation is x2 – 5x – 3 = 0 and roots are  & 

Sol. f(0)  lim f(x)
{ +  = 5;  = –3} x 0

0
1 1 Limit should be form
New roots are   &   0
 
So, 7 p.729  3  0  p.36 = 37  p = 3
  1   1 2 2
i.e., & i.e., &
   
7
3(36  x)  3
Now, f(0)  lim
x 0 3
2 2 36  qx  9
Let t  
 t  x 
1/7 
3  1  6   1 1
As 2 – 5 – 3 = 0  3 
 lim    3  7.36
x 0  1/3  9 q
 2   2 
2  qx 
    5   3  0 9  1  6   1 3.36
 t   t   3  
1 3 1
4 10  f(0)   
  3 0 3 7q 7q
t2 t
 4 + 10t – 3t2 = 0  7qf(0) – 1 = 0

 3t2 – 10t – 4 = 0  7.p2.qf(0) – p2 = 0 (for option)

i.e., 3x2 – 10x – 4 = 0  63qf(0) – p2 = 0

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6. Let f(x) = 2 + |x| - |x – 1| + | x + 1|, x  R. 8. The area of the region enclosed by
Consider y  4x 2 , x 2  9y and y  4 , is equal to :
 3  1  1  3
(S1) : f      f      f     f     2 40 56 112 80
 2  2  2  2 (A) (B) (C) (D)
3 3 3 3
2


(S2) : f(x)dx  12
2
Official Ans. by NTA (D)

Then, 2 2
y=4x x =9y
(A) both (S1) and (S2) are correct Sol.
(B) both (S1) and (S2) are wrong (0,4)
y=4
(C) only (S1) is correct
(D) only (S2) is correct
Official Ans. by NTA (D)
(0,0)
Sol.
y=x+4 (2, 6) 
4
y
+ 2
  2  3 y 
2 
x (1, 5) dy
(-2, 2) y=3 o
y=- (-1, 1)
x (0, 2)
y=x+2 4
5 80
-2 -1 0 1 2 = 2 y dy 
o
2 3
 3  1  1  3
(S1) : f '     f '     f '    f '    4 2
 2  2  2  2   1 
2
9.   2x 2
 3x   x   dx ,
 2 
(S2) :  f(x)dx  12
0

2 where [t] is the greatest integer function, is equal

 (D) to:
7. Let the sum of an infinite G.P., whose first term is 7 19 31 3
(A) (B) (C) (D)
a and the common ratio is r, be 5. Let the sum of 6 12 12 2
98 Official Ans. by NTA (B)
its first five terms be . Then the sum of the first
25
21 terms of an AP, whose first term is 10ar, nth
2
term is an and the common difference is 10ar2, is  2x  3x dx
2
Sol.
0
equal to :
3
(A) 21 a11 (B) 22 a11 2 2
19
=  (3x  2x )dx   (2x 2  3x)dx =
2

(C) 15 a16 (D) 14 a16 0 3 12.

2
Official Ans. by NTA (A)
3

 1
2 2

21
  x  2  dx =  [t]dt
1
S21  [20 ar  20.10 ar 2 ]
0
Sol. 2
2
3
= 21 [10 ar + 100 ar2] 0 1 2

= 21. a11 =   1 dt   0  dt   1  dt = 0.

1 0 1

2

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143
10. Consider a curve y = y(x) in the first quadrant as 11. The equations of the sides AB, BC and CA of a
shown in the figure. Let the area A1 is twice the triangle ABC are 2x + y = 0, x + py = 39 and
x – y = 3 respectively and P(2, 3) is its
area A2. Then the normal to the curve
circumcentre. Then which of the following is NOT
perpendicular to the line 2x – 12y = 15 does NOT true :
pass through the point. (A) (AC)2 = 9p
(B) (AC)2 + p2 = 136
(C) 32 < area (ABC) < 36
(D) 34 < area (ABC) < 38
Official Ans. by NTA (D)

Sol.

(1) (6, 21) (2) (8, 9)

(3) (10, –4) (4) (12, –15)
Official Ans. by NTA (C)

Sol. Given that A1 = 2A2

from the graph A1 + A2 = xy – 8 Perpendicular bisector of AB
3 x+y=5
 A  xy  8 Take image of A
2 1
2 16
x 1 y 2 2( 6)
 A1  xy 
6
3 3 1 1 2
x
(7, 4)
2 16
  f  x  dx  xy  7 + 4p = 39
4
3 3 p=8
solving x + 8y = 39 and y = –2x
2  dy 
 f  x    x  y 39 78
3  dx  x= y=
15 15
2 dy y
 x  2
AC = 72 = 9p
3 dx 3
2 2
dy dx AC + p = 72 + 64 = 136
 2 
y x
1 2 1
 2ny = nx + nc ABC
1
7 4 1
2 2
 y = cx 39 78
1
As f(4) = 2  c = 1 15 15
so y2 = x =
1
4
78
2 7
39
7
78 4 39
slope of normal = –6 2 15 15 15 15
1 1
y  6  x    6    6 
3 1 13
= 18 18
2 4 2 5
 y = –6x + 3 + 54 18 162
=9 = 32.4
 y + 6x = 57 5 5
Now check options and (C) will not satisfy. Ans. (D)

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12. A circle C1 passes through the origin O and has 14. If the length of the perpendicular drawn from the
diameter 4 on the positive x-axis. The line y = 2x point P(a, 4, 2), a > 0 on the line
gives a chord OA of a circle C1. Let C2 be the
x1 y  3 z 1
circle with OA as a diameter. If the tangent to C2 at   is 2 6 units and
the point A meets the x-axis at P and y-axis at Q, 2 3 1
then QA : AP is equal to : Q(1 , 2 , 3 ) is the image of the point P in this
(A) 1 : 4 (B) 1 : 5
3
(C) 2 : 5 (D) 1 : 3 line, then a    i is equal to :
Official Ans. by NTA (A) i 1

(A) 7 (B) 8
Sol. C1 : x + y – 4x = 0
tan = 2 (C) 12 (D) 14
y Official Ans. by NTA (B)

L : 2x – y = 0
A Sol.

O 
(2,0) x

C2 is a circle with OA as diameter. (2 – 1 – a)2 + (3 – 1)3 + (– – 1) (–1) = 0

So, tangent at A on C2 is perpendicular to OR  4 – 2 – 2a + 9 – 3 +  + 1 = 0
Let OA =   14 – 4 – 2a = 0
Q
QA cot   7 – 2 – a = 0
  
AP tan  A and,
1 1  2 2 2
   P (2 – 1 – a) + (3 – 1) + ( + 1) = 24
tan 2  4 O
2 2 2
13. If the length of the  (5 – 1) + (3 – 1) + ( + 1) = 24
latus rectum of a 2
 35 – 14 – 21 = 0
parabola, whose focus is (a, a) and the tangent at
its vertex is x + y = a, is 16, then |a| is equal to :  ( – 1) (35 + 21) = 0
(A) 2 2 (B) 2 3 For,  = 1 a=5
(C) 4 2 (D) 4 Let (1,  2, 3) be reflection of point P
Official Ans. by NTA (C)
1 + 5 = 2 2 + 4 = 12 3 + 2 = 0
Sol. 1 = – 3 2 = 8 3 = – 2
a + 1 + 2 + 3 = 8
15. If the line of intersection of the planes ax  by  3
and ax  by  cz  0 , a > 0 makes an angle 30°
with the plane y  z  2  0 , then the direction
cosines of the line are :
1 1 1 1
a 16 (A) , ,0 (B) , ,0
P = 4 2 2 2 2
2 4
1 2 1 3
(C) , ,0 (D) , ,0
a 4 2 5 5 2 2
Ans. (C) Official Ans. by NTA (B)

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145
 ˆi ˆj kˆ 17. A six faced die is biased such that 3 × P(a prime
Sol. n a b 0 number) = 6 × P(a composite number) = 2 × P(1).
a b c Let X be a random variable that counts the number
of times one gets a perfect square on some throws
= bciˆ acjˆ
of this die. If the die is thrown twice, then the
Direction ratios of line are b, –a, 0
mean of X is :
Direction ratios of normal of the plane are 0, 1, – 1
3 5
(A) (B)
11 11
a 1
cos60º 7 8
2 b2 a2 2 (C) (D)
11 11

a 1 Official Ans. by NTA (D)


a2 b2 2

b=±a Sol. Let P(a prime number)  P(a composite)  P(1)  k

2 1 3
So, D.R.’s can be (±a, –a, 0) So, P(a prime number) = 2k,
 1 1  P(a composite number) = k,
D.C.’s can be   , , 0
 2 2  & P(1) = 3k
16. Let X have a binomial distribution B(n, p) such & 3 × 2k + 2 × k + 3k = 1

that the sum and the product of the mean and 1

 k
11
variance of X are 24 and 128 respectively. If
4
k P(success) = P(1 or 4) = 3k + k =
P(X  n  3)  n , then k is equal to 11
2
Number of trials, n = 2
(A) 528 (B) 529 (C) 629 (D) 630
4 8
Official Ans. by NTA (B) mean = np = 2  
11 11
18. The angle of elevation of the top P of a vertical
Sol. Let  = Mean &  = Variance ( > ) tower PQ of height 10 from a point A on the
So,  +  = 24 ,  = 128 horizontal ground is 45º. Let R be a point on AQ

  = 16 & =8 and from a point B, vertically above R, the angle of

1 elevation of P is 60º. If BAQ = 30º, AB = d and

 np = 16 npq = 8  q 
2 the area of the trapezium PQRB is , then the

1 ordered pair (d, ) is :

 p  , n  32

   
2

1 n
(A) 10 3  1 ,25

(B)  10
   252 
3 1 ,
p(x > n – 3) = ( Cn–2 + nCn–1 + nCn)
2n

32  31
(C) 10   
3  1 ,25

(D)  10
   252 
3 1 ,
 k = 32C30 + 32C31 + 32C32 =  32  1
2 Official Ans. by NTA (A)
= 496 + 33 = 529

6
146
 
Sol. QA = 10 RA = dcos30° 
3d Sol. Let      m  1
2 6

3d 
QR  10  & m
2 6
d 
BR  d sin 30  So,    
2 6
9 9
1
Here,  sec   sec    cos   cos 
m 1 m 1

9
sin(   ) 9
 2  2  (tan   tan  )
m 1 cos   cos  m 1

9
     
 2   tan    m   tan     m  1  
m 1 
 6  6

     8
 2  tan      tan   2   cot   tan   
10 
d   6  3
PQ  BR 2
tan 60   (Given)
QR 3d
10 
2 4
 tan   cot  
20  d 3
 3
20  3d 1
  tan   or 3
 20 3  3d  20  d 3

 2d  20( 3  1) So, S     
,
6 3
 d  10( 3  1)
  
1   6  3  2
ar(PQRB) =   (PQ  BR)  QR S
2
20. If the truth value of the statement
1 d  3d 
  10     10 
2 2  2   P  ~ R  ~ R  Q is F, then the truth value
of which of the following is F ?
1
 
 10  5 3  5 10  15  5 3
2
 (A) P  Q ~ R (B) R  Q ~ P
(C) ~  P  Q  ~ R (D) ~  R  Q  ~ P

1
2
  1

5 3  5 5 3  5  (75  25)  25
2 Official Ans. by NTA (D)
19. Let    9
    m  8
S    0,  :  sec     m  1  sec      

  2  m 1
 6   6 3
Sol. X  Y is a false
Then
when X is true and Y is false
  2 
(A) S    (B) S    So, P  T, Q  F, R  F
12  3
(A) P  Q  ~ R is T
 3
(C)    (D)   
 S 2  S 4 (B) R  Q  ~ P is T

Official Ans. by NTA (C) (C) ~ (P  Q)  ~ R is T

(D) ~ (R  Q)  ~ P is F

7
147
 SECTION-B 2. The number of functions f, from the set

 

  
  
A  x  N : x 2  10x  9  0 to the set
1. Consider a matrix A   2  2
2  ,
         
 
B  n 2 : n N  such that f  x   x  3  1 , for
2

where , ,  are three distinct natural numbers.

every x  A , is _________ .

If
 
det adj adj adj adjA    232  316 , then the Official Ans. by NTA (1440)
             
16 16 16

number of such 3 – tuples (, , ) is _______ .

Sol. (x2 – 10x + 9)  0  (x – 1) (x – 9)  0
Official Ans. by NTA (42)
 x  [1, 9]  A = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9}

f(x)  (x – 3)2 + 1
    
 
Sol. A   2 2 2  x = 1 : f(1)  5  12, 22
         
 x = 2 : f(2)  2  12
R3  R3 + R1
x = 3 : f(3)  1  12
  
x = 4 : f(4)  2  12
 |A|  |  |  2
 2
 2

1 1 1 x = 5 : f(5)  5  12, 22

 |A|  (     )(  )(   )(  ) x = 6 : f(6)  10  12, 22, 32

 |adj A| = |A|n–1 x = 7 : f(7)  17  12, 22, 32, 42

2 x = 8 : f(8)  26  12, 22, 32, 42, 52

|adj (adj A)| = | A |(n 1)
x = 9 : f(9)  37  12, 22, 32, 42, 52, 62

adj adj adj adjA    A  (n 1)4
A
24
 A
16

Total number of such function

 ( +  + ) = 2 . 3
16 32 16
     2(6!)  2(720)  1440 
 ( +  + ) = (2 . 3) = (12)
16 2 16 16

3. Let for the 9th term in the binomial expansion of

 +  +  = 12
(3 + 6x)n, in the increasing powers of 6x, to be the
 , ,   N
3
greatest for x  , the least value of n is n0. If k is
 ( – 1) + ( – 1) + ( – 1) = 9 2

number all tuples (, , ) = 11C2 = 55 the ratio of the coefficient of x6 to the coefficient
1 case for  =  =  of x3, then k + n0 is equal to:
 12 case when any two of these are equal Official Ans. by NTA ( 24)
So, No. of distinct tuples (, , )

= 55 – 13 = 42
8
148
Sol. (3 + 6x)n = nC03n + nC13n–1(6x)1 + … 5. A water tank has the shape of a right circular cone
Tr+1 nCr3n–r.(6x)r = nCr3n–r.6r. xr with axis vertical and vertex downwards. Its semi-
r
3 3 3
 n C r 3n  r .3r .2 r .    n C r 3n.3r [for x  ] vertical angle is tan 1 . Water is poured in it at a
2 2 4
3 constant rate of 6 cubic meter per hour. The rate
T9 is greatest of x 
2
(in square meter per hour), at which the wet curved
So, T9 > T10 and T9 > T8
surface area of the tank is increasing, when the
(concept of numerically greatest term)
depth of water in the tank is 4 meters, is ________.
T T
Here, 9  1 and 9  1
T10 T8 Official Ans. by NTA (5)
n
C8 3n .38 n
C8 3n .38
 n
 1 and 1 3 r
C 9 3n .39 n
C 7 3n .37 r tan   
Sol. 4 h
n
1 C8
and n  dV
6
C7 3 dt
n7 1
and 
8 3 1 1 9 3 3
V  r 2 h   h 3 tan 2   h 3  h
29 3 3 48 16
  n  11  n = 10 = n0
3
dV 3 dh  dh  2
So, in (3 + 6x)n for n = n0 = 10   .3h 2 .  6     m / hr
dt 16 dt  dt h  4 3
i.e., in (3 + 6x)10, here Tr+1 = 10Cr310–r6rxr
15 2
T7 = 10C634.66.x6 = 210.310.26x6 Now, S = r = h
16
T4 = 10C33763x3 = 120.310.23x3
Ratio of coefficient of x6 and coefficient of x3 = k dS 15 dh
  .2h
dt 16 dt
210.3.10 26
7
k    23  14 
10 3  dS 
120.3 .2 4     5m 2 / hr
dt  h  4
So, k + n0 = 14 + 10 = 24
23  13 43  33  23  13 6. For the curve C : (x2 + y2 – 3) + (x2 – y2 – 1)5 = 0,
4.  
1 7 2  11 the value of 3y' – y3y", at the point (, ),  > 0,
63  53  43  33  23  13 on C, is equal to ________.
 ..... 
3  15 Official Ans. by NTA (16)
30  29  28  27  ...  2  1
3 3 3 3 3 3

15  63
Sol. (, ) lies on
is equal to _____.
5
Official Ans. by NTA ( 120) C : x2 y2 3 x2 y2 1 0
5
n 2n Put (, ), 2 2
3 1 0
2 (2r)3  ( r 3 )
Sol. Tn 
r 1 r 1
  2
n(4n  3)
Now, differentiate C
 Tn  n
  2x  2yy  0
4
15 2x  2y  y  5 x2  y2  1 ... (1)
So,  Tn  120
n 1
At  2, 2 
9
149
 2  2y   5  1
4
 2  2y   0  8. Let f be a differentiable function satisfying

2
3
 2 x 
 y 
3
…. (2) f(x) 
3
 f
 3 
d, x > 0 and f(1) = 3 . If
2 0

Diff. (1) w.r.t. x y=f(x) passes through the point (, 6), then  is
Again, Diff. (1) w.r.t. x equal to ______.

   x  yy .2
3
1   y   yy  20 x 2  y 2  1
2 2 Official Ans. by NTA (12)


 5 x2  y2  1  1   y
4 2

 yy  0
2 x
Sol. Let, t
At  
2, 2 and y ' 
3
2
3
2 x
We have,  d  dt
3
2
 9  3
 1    2y   40  2  2  
3 1 x
4 2  d   dt
2 x 3 t
 9 
 5 1  1   2y   0
 4   d =
3 1 dt
 
2 x t
 4 2y   23
1
x
f t
9 23 So, f  x    dt
 3y   y3 y    = 16 x t
2 2 0

7. Let f(x) = min{[x – 1], [x – 2], …, [x – 10]} f  x f  x

 x  f   x  
where [t] denotes the greatest integer  t. Then 2 x x
f  x
10 10 10

 f(x)dx   (f(x)) dx   | f(x) |dx is equal to ___. x  f   x 

2

0 0 0 2 x
Official Ans. by NTA (385) dy dx
 
y 2x

Sol. f(x) = [x] – 10 1

 ln y  ln x  c  f(x)  x
10 2
 f  x  dx  10  9  8  .....  1  y  3x {as f(1)  3 }
0

10  11 So, f(x)  3x
=   55
2
Now, f() = 6  36 = 3
10

  f  x
2
dx  10  9  8  ...  1
2 2 2 2
   = 12
0
9. A common tangent T to the curves
10  11  21
=  385 x2 y2 x2 y2
6 C1 :   1 and C 2 :   1 does not
10
4 9 42 143

 f  x  10  9  8  ....  1 pass through the fourth quadrant. If T touches C1 at

0
(x1, y1) and C2 at (x2, y2), then |2x1 + x2| is equal to
10  11
=  55 _______.
2
= – 55 + 385 + 55 = 385 Official Ans. by NTA (20)

10
150
Sol. Let common tangents are       
Sol. a  b  4c  a  c  0  b c

      
T1 : y  mx  4m 2  9 b  c  9a  a  b  0  a  c
  
& T2 : y  mx  42m 2  13  a , b, c are mutually  set of vectors.

So, 4m2 + 9 = 42m2 – 143  a b 4 c , b c 9a & c a  b

|a| 4 |c|
 38m2 = 152  
|c| 9 |a|
 m = ±2 |c| 3
 
|a| 2
& c = ±5
3
For given tangent not pass through 4th quadrant  If |a| = , |c| = & |b| = 6
2

T : y = 2x + 5 1
Now |a| + |b| + |c| 
36
xx1 yy1
Now, comparing with  1 5 1 43
4 9  6 ,  = |a|
2 36 18
x1 1 8 which gives negative value of  or |a| which is NOT
We get,    x1  
8 5 5
possible & hence data seems to be wrong
xx 2 yy 2
 1  But if a  b  c  36
42 143
5
  6  36
2x – y = –5 we have 2
 = 12
84
x2  
5 ca 3 12 12
  
b 2 6
100
So, 2x1  x2   20  = 36
5

  
10. Let a , b, c be three non-coplanar vectors such that

        
a  b  4 c, b  c  9 a and c  a   b ,  > 0.

   1
If a  b  c  , then  is equal to ______.
36

Official Ans. by NTA (36)

11
151
 FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JULY, 2022
(Held On Thursday 28th July, 2022) TIME : 9 : 00 AM to 12 : 00 NOON

PHYSICS TEST PAPER WITH SOLUTON

SECTION-A 3. In two different experiments, an object of mass
5 kg moving with a speed of 25 ms–1 hits two
 B2  different walls and comes to rest within
1. The dimensions of   will be :
 0  (i) 3 second, (ii) 5 seconds, respectively.
Choose the correct option out of the following :
(if 0 : permeability of free space and
(A) Impulse and average force acting on the object
B : magnetic field)
will be same for both the cases.
(A) [M L2 T–2] (B) [M L T–2]
(B) Impulse will be same for both the cases but the
(C) [M L–1 T–2] (D) [M L2 T–2 A–1]
average force will be different.
Official Ans. by NTA (C)
(C) Average force will be same for both the cases
but the impulse will be different.
B2
Sol. u (D) Average force and impulse will be different for
2 0
both the cases.
u  Energy per unit volume
Official Ans. by NTA (B)
B 
2  ML2T 2 
   u    ML1 T2 
 0   L 
3
Sol. Impulse = change in momentum
2. A NCC parade is going at a uniform speed of I  P
9 km/h under a mango tree on which a monkey is
sitting at a height of 19.6 m. At any particular P
Faug 
instant, the monkey drops a mango. A cadet will t
receive the mango whose distance from the tree at
time of drop is : t1  3 t 2  5
2
(Given g = 9.8 m/s ) P1  P2
(A) 5 m (B) 10 m
(C) 19.8 m (D) 24.5 m I1  I2
Official Ans. by NTA (A) Favg in case (i) is more than (ii)
4. A balloon has mass of 10 g in air. The air escapes
Sol. Monkey from the balloon at a uniform rate with velocity
4.5 cm/s. If the balloon shrinks in 5 s completely.
Then, the average force acting on that balloon will
t = 0 Vt
tt be (in dyne).

2n (A) 3 (B) 9 (C) 12 (D) 18

Time taken by mango 
g Official Ans. by NTA (B)

2  19.6
  2 second dm
9.8 Sol. F v
dt
Distance = vt
10g  cm  gcm
 9
5
 2 = 5m   4.5   9 2 = 9 dyne
18 5s  s  s

1
152
5. If the radius of earth shrinks by 2% while its mass TL
Sol.   1
remains same. The acceleration due to gravity on TH
the earth’s surface will approximately :
1 T
(A) decrease by 2% (B) decrease by 4%  1 L
2 TH
(C) increase by 2% (D) increase by 4%
1  T  40 
Official Ans. by NTA (D) 1 3  1   L 
2  TH 
GM 1 1 40
Sol. g
R2
1 3   TH  266.7 K
2 2 TH
1
M = constant g  8. Given below are two statements :
R2
Statement I :The average momentum of a
g R
100  2 100 molecule in a sample of an ideal gas depends on
g R
temperature.
% change = – 2 (–2)
Statement II : The rms speed of oxygen molecules
% change in g = 4%
in a gas is v. If the temperature is doubled and the
increase by 4%
oxygen molecules dissociate into oxygen atoms,
6. The force required to stretch a wire of cross-
the rms speed will become 2v.
section 1 cm2 to double its length will be :
(Given Yong’s modulus of the wire = 2 × 1011 N/m2) In the light of the above statements, choose the

(A) 1 × 107 N (B) 1.5 × 107 N correct answer from the options given below :

(C) 2 × 107 N (D) 2.5 × 107 N (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
Official Ans. by NTA (C) (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

Sol. FA (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Official Ans. by NTA (D)
2  
4
 2 10 10 
11

 
Sol. [Pavg = 0] (due to random motion)
 2 107 N
7. A Carnot engine has efficiency of 50%. If the 3RT
v rms 
temperature of sink is reduced by 40°C, its M
efficiency increases by 30%. The temperature of Tnew = 2T
the source will be : M
Mnew =
(A) 166.7 K (B) 255.1 K 2
(C) 266.7 K (D) 367.7 K
2T
Official Ans. by NTA (C) v new M/2

v T
M
vnew = 2v

2
153
9.
 In the wave equation 11. A wire of resistance R1 is drawn out so that its
2
y  0.5sin  400 t  x  m length is increased by twice of its original length.

the velocity of the wave will be : The ratio of new resistance to original resistance is:

(A) 200 m/s (B) 200 2 m / s (A) 9 : 1 (B) 1 : 9

(C) 400 m/s (D) 400 2 m / s (C) 4 : 1 (D) 3 : 1

Official Ans. by NTA (C)
Official Ans. by NTA (A)

 2 2 
y  0.5sin  400t 
 
Sol. x
 
L1
Sol. R1  
2
 400 A1

 3L1  L1
2 R2      9
K
  A1 / 3  A1

 R2
v [v = 400 m/s]  9
k R1
10. Two capacitors, each having capacitance 40 F 12. The current sensitivity of a galvanometer can be
are connected in series. The space between one of
increased by :
the capacitors is filled with dielectric material of
dielectric constant K such that the equivalence (A) decreasing the number of turns
capacitance of the system became 24 F . The
(B) increasing the magnetic field
value of K will be :
(C) decreasing the area of the coil
(A) 1.5 (B) 2.5
(C) 1.2 (D) 3 (D) decreasing the torsional constant of the spring
Official Ans. by NTA (A)
Choose the most appropriate answer from the

C CKC options given below :

Sol.
(A) (B) and (C) only (B) (C) and (D) only

(C) (A) and (C) only (D) (B) and (D) only
C  KC 
KC
Ceq  
C  KC K  1 Official Ans. by NTA (D)

K40
24 
K 1
 K  1  5  K 
Sol. i 
 NAB 

d NAB
 
di K

3
154
13. As shown in the figure, a metallic rod of linear Sol. v0  i 0 x L
–1
density 0.45 kg m is lying horizontally on a
 i 0  wL 
smooth incline plane which makes an angle of 45°
with the horizontal. The minimum current flowing 
  5 49  30 103 
in the rod required to keep it stationary, when
 23.1
0.15 T magnetic field is acting on it in the vertical
upward direction, will be : Voltage will lead current by 90°.

{Use g = 10 m/s2}  V = 23.1 sin (49  t + 60°)

15. As shown in the figure, after passing through the
medium 1. The speed of light v2 in medium 2 will
be :
(A) 30 A (B) 15 A (Given c = 3 × 108 ms–1)
(C) 10 A (D) 3 A
Official Ans. by NTA (A)

Sol.
(A) 1.0 × 108 ms–1 (B) 0.5 × 108 ms–1
(C) 1.5 × 108 ms–1 (D) 3.0 × 108 ms–1
Official Ans. by NTA (A)

2 C
Sol. 
 air v 2
mg sin 45  ILBcos 45

m g  r2  r2 C
I     
 L B 1 v2

 0.4510  C

0.15
 30 A  1 9  
v2
14. The equation of current in a purely inductive
C
circuit is 5sin  49 t  30 . If the inductance is  v2 
3
30 mH then the equation for the voltage across the 16. In normal adjustment, for a refracting telescope,
inductor, will be : the distance between objective and eye piece is
 22  30 cm. The focal length of the objective, when the
Let   
 7
angular magnification of the telescope is 2, will be:
(A) 1.47sin(49 t  30) (B) 1.47sin(49 t  60)
(A) 20 cm (B) 30 cm
(C) 23.1sin(49 t  30) (D) 23.1sin(49 t  60)
(C) 10 cm (D) 15 cm
Official Ans. by NTA (D) Official Ans. by NTA (A)

4
155

Sol. f0  fe  30 Sol. 7/8 disintegrates means 1/8 remains

f0
m
3
1
fe Or  
2
f0
2  f 0  2f e
fe  3 half lives

f0
So f0   30 = 180 days
2
19. Identify the solar cell characteristics from the
f0  20cm
following options :
1.227
17. The equation   nm can be used to find the
x
de-Brogli wavelength of an electron. In this
equation x stands for : (A) (B)
Where,
m = mass of electron
P = momentum of electron
K = Kinetic energy of electron (C) (D)
V = Accelerating potential in volts for electron
(A) mK (B) P
Official Ans. by NTA (B)
(C) K (D) V
Official Ans. by NTA (D)

Sol. Conceptual / theory

h
Sol.  (de-Broglie’s wavelength)
m 20. In the case of amplitude modulation to avoid
h distortion the modulation index ( ) should be :

2m  K  E 
(A)   1 (B)   1
h
h
2mqV (C)   2 (D)   0
Putting the values of m ; q
1 22 Official Ans. by NTA (A)
We get   nm
V
18. The half life period of a radioactive substance is
Am
60 days. The time taken for
7
th of its original Sol. 
8 Ac
mass to disintegrate will be :
  1 to avoid distortion
(A) 120 days (B) 130 days
(C) 180 days (D) 20 days
because µ > 1 will result in interference between
Official Ans. by NTA (C) career frequency & message frequency.

5
156
 SECTION-B 4. The frequencies at which the current amplitude in
1
1. If the projection of 2iˆ  4ˆj  2kˆ on ˆi  2ˆj  kˆ is an LCR series circuit becomes times its
2
zero. Then, the value of  will be
maximum value, are 212 rad s–1 and 232 rad s–1.
Official Ans. by NTA (5)
The value of resistance in the circuit is R  5 .
The self inductance in the circuit is ________ mH.
Sol. ab  0
Official Ans. by NTA (250)
 ab  0
 2 1  4  2  2    0

  5
R
2. A freshly prepared radioactive source of half life Sol. Band width  232  212 
L
2 hours 30 minutes emits radiation which is
64 times the permissible safe level. The minimum 5
 L  250 mH
time, after which it would be possible to work 20
safely with source, will be ________ hours.
5. As shown in the figure, a potentiometer wire of
Official Ans. by NTA (15)
resistance 20  and length 300 cm is connected
with resistance box (R.B.) and a standard cell of
Sol. A  A0  2 t /T
emf 4 V. For a resistance ‘R’ of resistance box
A0
 A0  2 t/T introduced into the circuit, the null point for a cell
64
of 20 mV is found to be 60 cm. The value of ‘R’ is
 t  6T  6  2  5  15 hours __________  .
3. In a Young’s double slit experiment, a laser light
of 560 nm produces an interference pattern with
consecutive bright fringes’ separation of 7.2 mm.
Now another light is used to produce an
interference pattern with consecutive bright
fringes’ separation of 8.1 mm. The wavelength of
Official Ans. by NTA (780)
second light is _________ nm.
Official Ans. by NTA (630)

  AC
Sol.
Sol. E  VA  VB 
AB
9
2  1
8
60 4  20
9 9  20 103  
 2  1   560  630 nm . 300 R  20
8 8
 R  780 

6
157
6.
 Two electric dipoles of dipole moments 8. The diameter of an air bubble which was initially
1.2 × 10–30 cm and 2.4 × 10–30 cm are placed in two 2 mm, rises steadily through a solution of density
difference uniform electric fields of strengths
1750 kg m–3 at the rate of 0.35 cms–1. The
5 × 104 NC–1 and 15 × 104 NC–1 respectively. The
ratio of maximum torque experienced by the coefficient of viscosity of the solution is _______
1 poise (in nearest integer). (the density of air is
electric dipoles will be . The value of x is
x negligible).
_______.
Official Ans. by NTA (11)
Official Ans. by NTA (6)

Sol. As the bubble is rising steadily the net force acting

Sol.  max  PE on it will be zero

1 P1E1 1 2 1030  5 104 1

  30

2 P2 E 2 2  4 10 15 10 4
6

Hence x = 6
7. The frequency of echo will be _________ Hz if the
train blowing a whistle of frequency 320 Hz is
moving with a velocity of 36 km/h towards a hill
from which an echo is heard by the train driver.
(Because of density of air the value of mg can be
Velocity of sound in air is 330 m/s. neglected)
4 3
Official Ans. by NTA (340) So B  F  R g  6Rv
3
Putting R  1mm  103 m
Sol. The hill will be a secondary source.
  1 75 103 kg / m3
g  10 m / s 2

v  0.35 102 m / s
10
 111 SI unit  11poise  CGS
9
9. A block of mass ‘m’ (as shown in figure) moving
with kinetic energy E compresses a spring through
f1 = frequency of the car w.r.t. the hill
a distance 25 cm when, its speed is halved. The
 v   330  value of spring constant of used spring will be
f1   f     320  330 Hz
 v  vs   320  nE Nm–1 for n = ___________.

f2 = Frequency of the sound reflected by hill w.r.t.

the car (echo)

 v  v0 
f2   f1 
 330  10   330  340 Hz

 v  330
Official Ans. by NTA (24)

7
158
Sol. Using work – energy theorem So I  I1  I2  I3  I4
Wnet   K f  K i 
MR 2 5
  MR 2
1 1 v 1 E
2 2 2
  Kx 2  m    mv 2   E
2 2 2 2 4 a
= 3MR2, Putting R 
2
1 3E 3E
 Kx 2  K 2
2 4 2x 3Ma 2
I ,So x  3
3E 4
K 2
 24E
1
2 
4
n = 24
10. Four identical discs each of mass ‘M’ and diameter
‘a’ are arranged in a small plane as shown in
figure. If the moment of inertia of the system about
x
OO' is Ma 2 . Then, the value of x will be
4
_____.

Official Ans. by NTA (3)

MR 2
Sol. I1  I3 
4
MR 2 5
I2   MR 2  MR 2  I4
4 4

4 2

8
159
 FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JULY, 2022
(Held On Thursday 28th July, 2022) TIME : 9 : 00 AM to 12 : 00 NOON

CHEMISTRY TEST PAPER WITH SOLUTION

SECTION-A Sol. (a) Cd(s) + 2Ni(OH)3(s)  CdO(s) + 2Ni(OH)2(s)
1. Identify the incorrect statement from the following. + H2O(l)
(A) A circular path around the nucleus in which an Discharge of secondary Battery
electron moves is proposed as Bohr’s orbit. (b) Zn(Hg) + HgO(s)  ZnO(s) + Hg(l)
(B) An orbital is the one electron wave function (Primary Battery Mercury cell)
( ) in an atom.
(c) 2PbSO4(s) + 2H2O(l)  Pb(s) + PbO2(s) +
(C) The existence of Bohr’s orbits is supported by
2H2SO4(aq)
hydrogen spectrum.
(D) Atomic orbital is characterised by the quantum Charging of secondary Battery
numbers n and l only (d) 2H2(g) + O2(g)  2H2O(l) – Fuel cell
Official Ans. by NTA (D) 4. Match List-I with List-II.
List-I List-II
Sol. Atomic orbital is characterised by n, l, m. Reaction Catalyst
2. Which of the following relation is not correct ?
(A) 4NH3(g) + 5O2(g)  (I) NO(g)
(A) H  U  PV (B) U  q  W
4NO(g) + 6H2O(g)
(C) Ssys  Ssurr  0 (D) G  H  TS
(B) N2(g) + 3H2(g)  (II) H2SO4(l)
Official Ans. by NTA (A) 2NH3(g)
(C) C12H22O11(aq) + H2O(l) (III) Pt(s)
Sol. If U  Pv (By definition)
 C6H12O6 (Glucose) +
14  U    Pr  at constant pressure
C6H12O6 (Fructose)
H  U  PV (D) 2SO2(g) + O2(g)  (IV) Fe(s)
3. Match List-I with List-II.
2SO3(g)
List-I List-II
Choose the correct answer from the options given
(A) Cd(s) + 2Ni(OH)3(s)  (I) Primary
CdO(s) + 2Ni(OH)2(s) + battery below :
H2O(l) (A) (A) – (II), (B) – (III), (C) – (I), (D) – (IV)
(B) Zn(Hg) + HgO(s)  (II) Discharging of (B) (A) – (III), (B) – (II), (C) – (I), (D) – (IV)
ZnO(s) + Hg(l) secondary (C) (A) – (III), (B) – (IV), (C) – (II), (D) – (I)
battery (D) (A) – (III), (B) – (II), (C) – (IV), (D) – (I)
(C) 2PbSO4(s) + 2H2O(l)  (III) Fuel cell Official Ans. by NTA (C)
Pb(s) + PbO2(s) +
2H2SO4(aq)
Sol.
(D) 2H2(g) + O2(g)  (IV) Charging of
4NH3 (g)  5O 2 (g) 
Pt (s)
 4NO(g)  6H 2O(g)
2H2O(l) secondary (a)
battery Ostwald process 500 K
Choose the correct answer from the options given Fe(s)
below : (b) N2  3H2  2NH3 (g)
(A) (A) – (I), (B) – (II), (C) – (III), (D) – (IV) Haber’s process
(B) (A) – (IV), (B) – (I), (C) – (II), (D) – (III) (c) C12 H 22O11 (aq.)  H 2O( ) 
H 
 C6 H12O6  C6 H12O6
(C) (A) – (II), (B) – (I), (C) – (IV), (D) – (III) (glu cose) (fruct ose)

(D) (A) – (II), (B) – (I), (C) – (III), (D) – (IV) Inversion of sugar cane
Official Ans. by NTA (C) 2SO 2 (g)  O 2 (g) 
NO(g)
 2SO3 (g)
(d)

1
160
5. In which of the following pairs, electron gain 8. Which of the following statement is incorrect ?
enthalpies of constituent elements are nearly the (A) Low solubility of LiF in water is due to its
same or identical ? small hydration enthalpy.

(A) Rb and Cs (B) Na and K (B) KO2 is paramagnetic.

(C) Solution of sodium in liquid ammonia is
(C) Ar and Kr (D) I and At
conducting in nature.
Choose the correct answer from the options given
(D) Sodium metal has higher density than
below :
potassium metal
(A) (A) and (B) only
Official Ans. by NTA (A)
(B) (B) and (C) only
(C) (A) and (C) only Sol. Low solubility of LiF in water is due to high lattice
(D) (C) and (D) only enthalpy
Official Ans. by NTA (C) 9. Match List-I with List-II, match the gas evolved
during each reaction.
Sol. Rb & Cs have nearly same electron gain enthalpy List-I List-II

electron gain enthalpy = – 46 kj/ml (A) (NH 4 )2 Cr2 O7   (I) H2

Ar & Kr have same H eq . Value is + 96 kj/ml (B) KMnO4  HCl  (II) N2

6. Which of the reaction is suitable for concentrating (C) Al  NaOH  H2O  (III) O2

ore by leaching process ? (D) NaNO3   (IV) Cl2
(A) 2Cu2S  3O2  2Cu 2O  2SO2 Choose the correct answer from the options given
(B) Fe3O4  CO  3FeO  CO2 below :
(A) (A) – (II), (B) – (III), (C) – (I), (D) – (IV)
(C) Al2 O3  2NaOH  3H2 O  2Na[Al(OH)4 ]
(B) (A) – (III), (B) – (I), (C) – (IV), (D) – (II)
(D) Al2 O3  6Mg  6MgO  4Al (C) (A) – (II), (B) – (IV), (C) – (I), (D) – (III)
Official Ans. by NTA (C) (D) (A) – (III), (B) – (IV), (C) – (I), (D) – (II)
Official Ans. by NTA (C)

Sol. Al2O3  2NaOH  3H2O  2Na, Al  OH 4 

Sol.  NH4 2 Cr2O7 

 N2  Cr2O3  4H2O
Leaching.
KMnO4  HCl  MnCl2  KCl  Cl2  H 2O
7. The metal salts formed during softening of
hardwater using Clark’s method are : Al  NaOH  H2O  H2  Na Al  OH 4 
(A) Ca(OH)2 and Mg(OH)2 NaNO3 
 NaNO 2  O 2
(B) CaCO3 and Mg(OH)2
10. Which of the following has least tendency to
(C) Ca(OH)2 and MgCO3
liberate H2 from mineral acids ?
(D) CaCO3 and MgCO3
(A) Cu (B) Mn
Official Ans. by NTA (B)
(C) Ni (D) Zn
Official Ans. by NTA (A)
Sol. Clark’s Method Reaction
Ca  HCO3 2  Ca  OH2  2CaCO3  2H2O Sol. Copper is least electropositive among the given
Mg  HCO3 2  2Ca  OH2  2CaCO3  Mg(OH)2  2H2O metals and it lies below H in reactivity series

2
161
11.
 Given below are two statements : Sol.
Statement I : In polluted water values of both
: Non-planar heterocyclic Compound
dissolved oxygen and BOD are very low.
O
Statement II : Eutrophication results in decrease
: Bicyclo Compound
in the amount of dissolved oxygen.
In the light of the above statements, choose the : Spiro Compound
most appropriate answer from the options given
below : : Aromatic Compound
O
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false 13. Choose the correct option for the following
(C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false reactions.
(D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Official Ans. by NTA (D)

Sol. Since eutrophication is result of excessive growth

of weed in water bodies, which consume dissolved
(A) ‘A’ and ‘B’ are both Markovnikov addition
oxygen of water bodies.
 Eutrophication decreases amount of dissolved products.
oxygen in water bodies. (B) ‘A’ is Markovnikov product and ‘B’ is anti-
Polluted water has low value of dissolved oxygen,
Markovnikov product.
but high valueof BOD (Biological oxygen
demand), since chemical and organic matter (C) ‘A’ and ‘B’ are both anti-Markovnikov
requires dissolved oxygen to get decompose. products.
12. Match List-I with List-II.
(D) ‘B’ is Markovnikov and ‘A’ is anti-
List-I List-II
(A) (I) Spiro Markovnikov product.
compound Official Ans. by NTA (B)

(B) (II) Aromatic

Sol.
compound
CH3 CH3
(C) (III) Non-planar
Heterocyclic CH3–C–CH=CH2 Hg(OAc)2, H2O H3C – C –CH–CH3
NaBH4
compound CH3 CH3 OH
(D) (IV) Bicyclo B2H6 H2O2/OH– (A)
compound (Markovnikov product)

CH3
Choose the correct answer from the options given CH3–C–CH2CH2
below :
CH3 OH
(A) (A) – (II), (B) – (I), (C) – (IV), (D) – (III)
(B)
(B) (A) – (IV), (B) – (III), (C) – (I), (D) – (II)
(Anti Markovnikov product)
(C) (A) – (III), (B) – (IV), (C) – (I), (D) – (II)
(D) (A) – (IV), (B) – (III), (C) – (II), (D) – (I)
Official Ans. by NTA (C)

3
162
14. Among the following marked proton of which 15. Identify the major product A and B for the below

compound shows lowest pK a value ? given reaction sequence.

(A)

(B)

(C) (A)

(D)

Official Ans. by NTA (C) (B)

Sol.

(A)
H O

CH2–C–OH CH2–C–OH(+R)
Less stable (C)
O
(Cross resonance)

(B)
H

CH2–C–CH3 CH2–C–CH3 (+I effect)
O O

(D)
(C) H 
CH3 CH–C–CH3(+I)
O O
(most Resonance through benzene ring
acidic) (most stable) Official Ans. by NTA (B)

So it has least pKa value.

4
163
Sol.
 17. Terylene polymer is obtained by condensation of :
CH3 (A) Ethane-1, 2-diol and Benzene-1, 3 dicarboxylic
OH acid
Cl
CH–CH3 (B) Propane-1, 2-diol and Benzene-1, 4
CH3–CH–CH3 O2
, AlCl3 H+ dicarboxylic acid
(P) (C) Ethane-1, 2-diol and Benzene-1, 4 dicarboxylic
acid
OH OH (D) Ethane-1, 2-diol and Benzene-1, 2 dicarboxylic
Br2 acid
(B) Official Ans. by NTA (C)
CS2

Br Sol.
CO2H
OH O

Na2Cr2O7 (A) Ethane 1,2 diol + Terrylene polymer

/H2SO4
CH2OH CO2H
O
Benzene 1,4
CH2OH
16. Identify the correct statement for the below given dicarboxylic acid

transformation. 18. For the below given cyclic hemiacetal (X), the
correct pyranose structure is :

(A) A - CH3CH2CH = CH–CH3,

B – CH3CH2CH2CH = CH2,
Saytzeff products
(B) A - CH3CH2CH = CH–CH3,
B – CH3CH2CH2CH = CH2,
Hafmann products
(A)
(C) A - CH3CH2CH2CH = CH2,
B – CH3CH2CH = CHCH3,
Hofmann products
(D) A - CH3CH2CH2CH = CH2, (B)
B – CH3CH2CH = CHCH3,
Saytzeff products
Official Ans. by NTA (C)
(C)

Sol.

EtO–
CH3CH2CH2CH–CH3 CH3CH2CH2CH=CH2
EtOH (D)
(major) (A)
NMe3 +
+
CH3CH2CH=CH–CH3
(minor)
Official Ans. by NTA (D)

5
164
Sol. Correct pyranose structure is SECTION-B

HO—C—H 1. In the given reaction,

X  Y  3Z XYZ3
HO—C—H The corresponding
O
aldopyranose is if one mole of each of X and Y with 0.05 mol of Z
H—C—OH
OH gives compound XYZ3. (Given : Atomic masses of
HO—C—H HO O OH X, Y and Z are 10, 20 and 30 amu, respectively).
HO The yield of XYZ3 is __________ g.
H—C
(Nearest integer)
CH2OH OH Official Ans. by NTA (2)
X(Hemiacetal)
19. Statements about Enzyme Inhibitor Drugs are
given below : Sol. X  Y  3Z XYZ3
1mol 1mol 0.05mol
(A) There are Competitive and Non-competitive
inhibitor drugs. Z is L.R.
(B) These can bind at the active sites and allosteric 0.05
sites.  1 mole of XYZ3
(C) Competitive Drugs are allosteric site blocking 3
drugs.
0.05
(D) Non-competitive Drugs are active site blocking Mass of XYZ3   10  20  30  3 
drugs. 3
Choose the correct answer from the options given
= 2g
below :
(A) (A), (D) only (B) (A), (C) only 2. An element M crystallises in a body centred cubic
(C) (A), (B) only (D) (A), (B), (C) only
Official Ans. by NTA (C) unit cell with a cell edge of 300 pm. The density of
the element is 6.0 g cm–3. The number of atoms
Sol. Enzyme inhibitors can be competitive inhibitors
(inhibit the attachment of substrate on active site of present in 180 g of the element is ______ × 1023.
enzyme) and non-competitive inhibitor (changes (Nearest integer)
the active site of enzyme after binding at allosteric
site.) Official Ans. by NTA (22)
20. For kinetic study of the reaction of iodide ion with
H2O2 at room temperature :
(A) Always use freshly prepared starch solution. Sol. M is body certred cubic ,  Z = 2
(B) Always keep the concentration of sodium
thiosulphate solution less than that of KI solution. Let mass of 1 atom of M is A
(C) Record the time immediately after the Edge length = 300 pm
appearance of blue colour.
Density = 6g/cm3
(D) Record the time immediately before the
appearance of blue colour. Z A 2 A
 6g/cm3 = 
300 10 
(E) Always keep the concentration of sodium 10
3
27 1024
thiosulphate solution more than that of KI solution.
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below : A  811024 g
(A) (A), (B), (C) only
 Atomic mass = 48.6g
(B) (A), (D), (E) only
(C) (D), (E) only 180
(D) (A), (B), (E) only  Mole in 180g   3.7 moles
48.6
Official Ans. by NTA (A)
Atoms of M = 3.7 × 6 × 1023
Sol. The is recorded immediately after the blue colour = 22.22 × 1023 atoms
appears.
Na2S2O3 is kept in limited amount.
6
165
3.
 The number of paramagnetic species among the 6. For the given first order reaction
following is ___________. AB
B2, Li2, C2, C2 , O22 , O2 and He2 the half life of the reaction is 0.3010 min. The ratio

Official Ans. by NTA (4) of the initial concentration of reactant to the

concentration of reactant at time 2.0 min will be
equal to ___________. (Nearest integer)
Sol. Paramagnetic B2 , C2 , O 2 , He 2
Official Ans. by NTA (100)
4. 150 g of acetic acid was contaminated with 10.2 g
ascorbic acid (C6H8O6) to lower down its freezing
Sol. AB t1/2 = 0.3010 min
point by (x × 10–1)°C. The value of x is ________.
A0/At at time 2 min = ?
(Nearest integer) [Given Kf = 3.9 K kg mol–1;
2.303 A 
Molar mass of ascorbic acid = 176 g mol–1] K log  0 
t  At 
Official Ans. by NTA (15)
0  693 2  303 A 
  log  0 
t1 2  At 
Sol. 150g CH3COOH 2

10.2g ascorbic acid  0.058 moles 2.303  0.3010 2.303 A

Or  log 0

Tf  x 101 C  0.3010 2 At

A0
log 2
Tf  k f  molality At

0.058 A0
 3.9   1000   102  100
150 At

 1.5C 7. The number of interhalogens from the following

 15 101C having square pyramidal structure is :

5. Ka for butyric acid (C3H7COOH) is 2 × 10–5. The ClF3, IF7, BrF5, BrF3, I2Cl6, IF5, ClF, ClF5
pH of 0.2 M solution of butyric acid is ___ × 10–1. Official Ans. by NTA (3)
(Nearest integer) [Given log 2 = 0.30]
Official Ans. by NTA (27) Sol. Square pyramidal structures are
BrF5, IF5 and ClF5.
–5
Sol. Ka of Butyric acid  2 10 PKa = 4.7 8. The disproportionation of MnO24 in acidic
pH of 0.2 M solution medium resulted in the formation of two
1 1 manganese compounds A and B. If the oxidation
pH  pK a  log C
2 2 state of Mn in B is smaller than that of A, then the
1 1 spin-only magnetic moment () value of B in BM
  4  7  log  0.2 
2 2 is ___________. (Nearest integer)
= 2.35 + 0.35 = 2.7
Official Ans. by NTA (4)
pH = 27 × 10–1

7
166
 
Sol. MnO24 
H
 MnO4  MnO2 10. On complete combustion of 0.492 g of an organic
compound containing C, H and O, 0.7938 g of CO2
No. of unpaired e  3
and 0.4428 g of H2O was produced. The %
   15  3.877 composition of oxygen in the compound is _____.
Nearest Integer = 4 Official Ans. by NTA (46)
9. Total number of relatively more stable isomer(s)
possible for octahedral complex [Cu(en)2(SCN)2]
Sol. 0.492g of CxHyOz
will be ___________.
Gives 0.7938 g CO2 = 0.018 moles
Official Ans. by NTA (3) 0.4428g H2O = 0.0246 moles
So moles of C = 0.018  0.216 g
Sol. [Cu(en)2(SCN)2] Moles of H = 0.049  0.049g
wt. of Oxygen = 0.492 – 0.216 – 0.049
= 0.227g

0.227
% of Oxygen = 100 46 (approx.)
0.492

8
167
 Final JEE-Main Exam July, 2022/28-07-2022/Morning Session

FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JULY, 2022

(Held On Thursday 28th July, 2022) TIME : 9 : 00 AM to 12 : 00 NOON

MATHEMATICS TEST PAPER WITH SOLUTION

SECTION-A 2. Considering only the principal values of the
1. Let the solution curve of the differential equation inverse trigonometric functions, the domain of the

xdy = ( )
x 2 + y 2 + y dx, x > 0, intersect the line æ x 2 - 4x + 2 ö
function f(x) = cos-1 ç ÷ is :
è x +3 ø
2

x = 1 at y = 0 and the line x = 2 at y = a . Then the

value of a is : æ 1ù é 1 ö
(A) ç -¥, ú (B) ê - , ¥ ÷
è 4û ë 4 ø
1 3 3 5
(A) (B) (C) - (D)
2 2 2 2 æ 1 ö æ 1ù
(C) ç - , ¥ ÷ (D) ç -¥, ú
Official Ans. by NTA (B) è 3 ø è 3û

Official Ans. by NTA (B)

Sol. xdy = ( x 2 + y 2 + y dx ) Sol.

xdy - ydx = x 2 + y 2 dx x 2 + 4x + 2
£1
x2 + 3
xdy - ydx y 2 dx
= 1 + ×
x2 x2 x
(x ) £ (x )
2 2
Û 2
- 4x + 2 2
+3
d (y / x) dx
=
(x ) ( )
2 2
æyö
2 x Û 2
- 4x + 2 - x 2 + 3 £ 0
1+ ç ÷
èxø
Û ( 2x 2
)
- 4x + 5 ( -4x - 1) £ 0
æy æ yö
2 ö
ln ç + ç ÷ + 1 ÷ = ln x + R 1
çx èxø ÷ Û -4x - 1 £ 0 ® x ³ -
è ø 4
r
y + y2 + x 2 3. Let the vectors a= (1 + t)iˆ + (1 - t)ˆj + k,
ˆ
= cx
x r r
b= (1 - t)iˆ + (1 + t) ˆj + 2kˆ and c = tiˆ - tjˆ + kˆ , t Î R
y + y 2 + x 2 = cx 2 r r r r
be such that for a, b, g Î R, aa + bb + gc = 0
x = 1, y = 0 Þ 0 + 1 = C Þ C = 1
Þ a = b = g = 0. Then, the set of all values of t is :
Curve is y + x 2 + y 2 = x 2 (A) a non-empty finite set

x = 2, y = a (B) equal to N
(C) equal to R – {0}
2 + 4 +a 2 = 4
(D) equal to R
4 + a 2 = 16 + a 2 = 8a
Official Ans. by NTA (C)
3
a=
2

1
168
 Final JEE-Main Exam July 2022/28-07-2022/Morning Session
Sol. By its given condition 5. Let the operations *, e Î {Ù, Ú}. If
r r r
: a, b, c are linearly independent vectors (p * q) e (pe ~ q) is a tautology, then the ordered

Þ éë a b c ùû ¹ 0 ..(i) pair (*, e) is :

(A) (Ú, Ù) (B) (Ú, Ú) (C) ( Ù, Ù) (D) ( Ù, Ú)
Now, éë a b c ùû
Official Ans. by NTA (B)
1+ t 1- t 1
= 1 - t 1+ t 2 Sol. Well check each option
t -t 1 For A p = v of 0 = L

C2 ® C1 + C2 ( pvq ) Ù ( pv ~ q )
1+ t 2 1 º pv ( q Ù ~ q )
1- t 2 2 º pv ( c ) º p
t 0 1 For B : * = v, O = v
1+ t 1 1 ( pvq ) Ú ( pv ~ q ) º t using Venn Diagrams
= 2 1- t 1 2
t 0 1

= 2 éë(1 + t ) - (1 - t ) + t ùû

= 2 [3t ] = 6t
r r
éë a b c ùû ¹ 0 Þ t ¹ 0 6. Let a vector a has a magnitude 9. Let a vector b
be such that for every (x,y) Î R ´ R - {(0,0)}, the
4. Considering the principal values of the
r r
inverse trigonometric functions, the sum of vector (xa + yb) is perpendicular to the vector
all the solutions of the equation r r r r
(6y a - 18x b). Then the value of a ´ b is equal to:
cos -1 (x) - 2 sin -1 (x)
= cos -1 (2x) is equal to :
(A) 9 3 (B) 27 3 (C) 9 (D) 81
1 1
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) (D) - Official Ans. by NTA (B)
2 2
Official Ans. by NTA (A)
r r r r r
-1 -1 -1
Sol. (
a = 9 & xa + yb × 6y a - 18x b = 0)( )
Sol. cos x = 2 sin x = cos 2x
Þ 6xy a - 18x 2 ( a × b ) + 6y 2 ( a × b ) - 18xy b = 0
2 2

æp ö
cos-1 x - 2 ç - cos -1 x ÷ = cos -1 2x
è2 ø r2
( 2
)
Þ 6xy a - 3 b + a × b y 2 - 3x 2 = 0 ( )( )
cos x - p + 2 cos x = cos 2x
-1 -1 -1
This should hold " x, y Î R ´ R
3cos 2 x = p + cos -1 2x …(1)
\ a = 3 b & (a × b) = 0
2 2

( )
cos 3cos x = cos p + cos 2x
-1
( -1
)
a b -(a ×b)
2 2 2
Now a ´ b =
2
4x 3 - 3x = -2x
1 2
4x 3 = x Þ x = 0, ± 2 a
2 =a ×
3
All satisfy the original equation
2
1 1 a 81
sum = - to + = 0 \ a´b = = = 27 3
2 2 3 3

2
169
 Final JEE-Main Exam July 2022/28-07-2022/Morning Session
7. For t Î (0, 2p), if ABC is an equilateral triangle R to be symmetric xRy Þ yRx
with vertices A(sint, –cost), B(cost, sint) and 3x + a y = 7N1 ,3y + a x = 7N 2
C(a, b) such that its orthocentre lies on a circle
Þ ( 3 + a )( x + y ) = 7 ( N1 + N 2 ) = 7N 3
æ 1ö
with centre ç 1, ÷ , then (a2 – b2) is equal to :
è 3ø Which holds when 3 + a is multiple of 7

8 \ a = 7N + 4 (as did earlier)

(A) (B) 8
3 R to be transitive
77 80 xRy & yRz Þ xRz .
(C) (D)
9 9
3x + a y = 7N1 &3y + a z = 7N 2 and
Official Ans. by NTA (B)
3x + a z = 7N3
Sol. s º sin t,c º cos t \ 3x + 7N 2 - 3y = 7N3
Let orthocentre be (h,k) \ 7N1 - a y + 7N 2 - 3y = 7N 3
Since it if an equilateral triangle hence orthocentre
\ 7 ( N1 + N 2 ) - ( 3 + a ) y = 7N 3
coincides with centroid.
\ a + s + c = 3h, b + s - c = 3k \ ( 3 + a ) y = 7N
\ ( 3h - a )2 + ( 3k - b )2 = ( s + c )2 + ( s - c )2 = 2 ( s 2 + c 2 ) = 2 Which is true again when 3 + a divisible by 7, i.e.
2 2 when a divided by 7, remainder is 4.
æ aö æ bö 2
\ çh - ÷ +çK - ÷ = , 9. Out of 60% female and 40% male candidates
è 3ø è 3ø 9
appearing in an exam, 60% candidates qualify it.
æa bö
circle centre at ç , ÷ The number of females qualifying the exam is
è3 3ø
twice the number of males qualifying it. A
a b 1
Gives, = 1, = Þ a= 3, b= 1 candidate is randomly chosen from the qualified
3 3 3
candidates. The probability, that the chosen
\ a -b =8 2 2
candidate is a female, is :
8. For a Î N, consider a relation R on N given by 3 11
(A) (B)
R = {(x, y) : 3x + ay is a multiple of 7}. The 4 16
relation R is an equivalence relation if and only if : 23 13
(C) (D)
(A) a= 14 32 16
(B) a is a multiple of 4 Official Ans. by NTA (A)
(C) 4 is the remainder when a is divided by 10
(D) 4 is the remainder when a is divided by 7 Sol. 100
Official Ans. by NTA (D)
40 male 60 female
Sol. For R to be reflexive Þ x R x

Þ 3x + a x = 7x Þ ( 3 + a ) x = 7K 20 male qualified 40 female qualified

Þ 3 + a = 7l Þ a = 7l - 3 = 7N + 4, K, l , N Î I 40 2
Probability that chosen candidate is female = =
\ when a divided by 7, remainder is 4. 60 3

3
170
 Final JEE-Main Exam July 2022/28-07-2022/Morning Session

10.
æ pö
If y = y(x), x Î ç 0, ÷ be the solution curve of the
Sol. y 2 = 2x - 3 …(i)
è 2ø
Equation of chord of contact
differential equation
PQ : r = 0
( sin 2
2x ) dy
dx
+ ( 8sin 2
2x + 2sin 4x y = )
yx1 = (x + 0) – 3
æpö
2e-4x ( 2 sin 2x + cos2x ) , with y ç ÷ = e -p , y=x–3 …(2)
è4ø
æ pö
then y ç ÷ is equal to :
è6ø
2 -2 p / 3 2 2 p /3
(A) e (B) e
3 3
1 -2 p / 3 1 2 p /3
(C) e (D) e
3 3 from (1) and (2)
Official Ans. by NTA (A)
( x × 3)
2
= 2x - 3

Sol. Given differential equation can be re-written as x 2 - 8x + 12 = 0

dy 2e -4x
+ ( 8 + 4 cot 2x ) y = ( 2 sin x + cos 2x ) ( x - 2 )( x - 6) = 0
dx sin 2 2x
which is a linear diff. equation.
x = 2 or 6
I.f. = e ò (8+ 4cot 2x )dx = e8x + 2Cu( sin 2x )
y = -1or 3
=
e8x × sin 2 2x
\ solution is
( )
y e8x × sin 2 2x = ò 2e4 x ( 2sin 2x + cos 2x ) dx + C

=×
e 4x sin 2x + C
æ p ö -p
Given y ç ÷= e Þ C= 0
è4ø
1
e -4x MPQ = =1
\ y= 4
sin 2x
p 2 1
-4 ×
æp ö e 6 2 -
2p MQR = =
\ yç ÷ = = e 3 6 3
è6ø æ pö 3
sin ç 2 × ÷
è 6ø MPR =
2 1
=
11. If the tangents drawn at the points P and Q on the
6 3

parabola y2 = 2x – 3 intersect at the point R(0, 1), 2

MPR = = -1
then the orthocentre of the triangle PQR is : -2
(A) (0, 1) (B) (2, –1)
MPQ ´ MPR = - Þ PQ ^ PR
(C) (6, 3) (D) (2, 1)
Official Ans. by NTA (B) Orthocentre = P (2,–1)

4
171
 Final JEE-Main Exam July 2022/28-07-2022/Morning Session
12. Let C be the centre of the circle x2 + y2 – x + 2y = 13. The remainder when 72022 + 32022 is divided by 5 is:
11 (A) 0 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
and P be a point on the circle. A line passes
4 Official Ans. by NTA (C)
p
through the point C, makes an angle of with the
4
Sol. 7 2022 + 32022
line CP and intersects the circle at the points Q and
= ( 49 ) + (9)
1011 1011
2
R. Then the area of the triangle PQR (in unit ) is :
(A) 2 (B) 2 2 = ( 50 - 1) + (10 - 1)
1011 1011

æ pö æ pö
(C) 8sin ç ÷ (D) 8cos ç ÷ = 5l - 1 + 5K - 1
è8ø è8ø
= 5m - 2
Official Ans. by NTA (B)
Remainder = 5 - 2 = 3

11 é0 1 0 ù
Sol. x 2 + y 2 - x + 2y = 14. Let the matrix A = êê 0 0 1 úú and the matrix
4
êë 1 0 0 úû
2
æ 1ö
ç x - ÷ + ( y + 1) = ( 2 )
2 2

è 2ø B0 = A 49 + 2A 98 . If Bn = Adj(Bn – 1) for all n ³ 1,

Or D PQR then det(B4) is equal to :

1 (A) 328 (B) 330 (C) 332 (D) 336

PR = QK sin 2 ³ Official Ans. by NTA (C)
3

é 0 1 0 ù é 0 1 0ù
Sol. A = êê 0 0 1 úú êê 0 0 1 úú
2

êë1 0 0 úû êë1 0 0úû

é0 0 1ù
= êê1 0 0úú
êë 0 1 0úû

a « R2
p
= 4 × 6sin
8 é1 0 0ù
1 - êê 0 0 1 úú
PQ = QR cos 22
2 êë 0 1 0 úû
p
=
4cos R2 « R3
8
1 é1 0 0ù
As D PQR= PR ´ PQ ê0 1 0ú = I
2 ê ú
êë 0 0 1 úû
1æ p öæ pö
=ç 4 2 sin ÷ç 4 cos ÷
2è 6 øè 8ø B0 = A 49 + 2A 98
p 4 =+
A 2I
=
4sin = = 2 2
Adj ( Bn - 1)
4 2 Bn =
5
172
 Final JEE-Main Exam July 2022/28-07-2022/Morning Session
B4 = Adj(Adj( Adj( AdjB0 )) 1
Also z1 - 3= lie on circle having centre 3 and
2
( n -1)4
= B0 1
radius .
16 2
= B0

é0 1 0ù é 2 0 0 ù
B0 = êê0 0 1 úú + êê 0 2 0 úú
êë1 0 0úû êë 0 0 2úû

é 2 1 0ù
= êê 0 2 1 úú
êë 1 0 2 úû

= 2 ( 4 - 0 ) - 1( 0 - 1) 5 3
Clearly z1 - z 2 min = -1 =
=9 2 2
16. The foot of the perpendicular from a point on the
B4 ( 9 ) = ( 3)
16 32
circle x2 + y2 = 1, z = 0 to the plane 2x + 3y + z = 6
lies on which one of the following curves ?
ì 1ü 2 2
(A) (6x + 5y – 12) + 4(3x + 7y – 8) = 1,
15. Let S1 = íz1 Î C : z1 - 3 = ý and
î 2þ z = 6 – 2x – 3y
(B) (5x + 6y – 12)2 + 4(3x + 5y – 9)2 = 1,
=
S 2 {z 2 Î C : z 2 - z 2 +=
1 z2 + z2 -1 . } Then, z = 6 – 2x – 3y
(C) (6x + 5y – 14)2 + 9(3x + 5y – 7)2 = 1,
for z1 Î S1 and z 2 Î S2 , the least value of z 2 - z1 z = 6 – 2x – 3y
is : (D) (5x + 6y – 14)2 + 9(3x + 7y – 8)2 = 1,
z = 6 – 2x – 3y
1 3 5 Official Ans. by NTA (B)
(A) 0 (B) (C) (D)
2 2 2
Official Ans. by NTA (C) Sol.
y

2 2
(h, k, w)
Sol. z2 + z2 - 1 = z 2 - z2 + 1 x
(cos q,sin q,0)
Þ z 2 + z2 - 1 ( z2 + z 2 - 1 ) = ( z 2 - z 2 + 1 ) ( z2 - ( z 2 + 1) )
h - cos q k - sin q w - 0
= =
Þ z 2 z2 + 122 - 1 - ( z2 - z 2 + 1 ) + z2 ( z 2 - 1 + z 2 + 1 ) 2 3 1
-1(2 cos q + 3sin q - 6)
2 2 =
=z 2 + 1 =z 2 - 1 14
-2(2 cos q + 3sin q - 6)
Þ [ z 2 + z2 ) ( z 2 - 1 ) + ( z 2 + 1|) = 2 ( z 2 + z2 ) h = cos
14
10 cos q - 6sin q + 12
Þ ( z 2 + z2 ) ( z 2 - 1 + z 2 + 1 - 2 ) = 0 =
14
3
\ z2 + z2 = 0 or z 2 - 1 + z 2 + 1 - 2 = 0 k = sin q - (2 cos q + 3sin q - 6)
14
\ z2 lie on imaginary axis. Or on real axis with in [–1,1] 5sin q - 6 cos q + 18
k=
14
Elementary sin q and cos q
(5h + 6k - 12)2 + 4(3h + 5k - 9) 2 = 1

6
173
 Final JEE-Main Exam July 2022/28-07-2022/Morning Session
5x 2 a 19. Consider the sequence a1, a2, a3, …… such that
17. If the minimum value of f(x) = + 5 , x > 0, is
2 x
2
14, then the value of a is equal to : a1 = 1, a2 = 2 and a n + 2 = + a n for n = 1, 2, 3, … .
a n +1
(A) 32 (B) 64
æ 1 ö æ 1 ö æ 1 ö æ 1 ö
(C) 128 (D) 256 ç a1 + a ÷ ç a2 + a ÷ ç a3 + a ÷ ç a 30 + a ÷
If ç
ç a3
2 ÷ ×ç
÷ ç a4
3 ÷×ç
÷ ç a5
4 ÷ ..... ç
÷ ç a 32
31 ÷ = 2a
÷
( 61
)
C31 ,
Official Ans. by NTA (C) ç ÷ ç ÷ ç ÷ ç ÷
è ø è ø è ø è ø

then a is equal to :
x2 x2 x 2 x2 x2 a a
Sol. + + + + + 5+ 5
2 2 2 2 2 2x 2x (A) –30 (B) –31
1 (C) –60 (D) –61
æ a2 ö 7
³ 7ç 7 ÷
è2 ø Official Ans. by NTA (C)

7 × (a )2 / 7
= 14
2 Sol. an+2 an+1 – an+1.an = 2
(a 2 )1/ 7 = 2 2 Series will satisfy

( )
7/2
a = 22 = 27 a1a 2 , a 2 a 3 , a 3 a 4 , a 4 a 5 ,

a = 128 1.2 2.2 2.3 2.4

18. Let a, b and g be three positive real numbers. Let 1 1

an + an+2 -
a n +1 a n +1
f(x) = ax 5 + bx 3 + gx, x Î R and g : R ® R be =
a n +2 an+2
such that g(f(x)) = x for all x Î R. If a1, a2, a3,..., an
1
be in arithmetic progression with mean zero, then =1-
a n +1a n + 2
æ æ1 n öö
the value of f ç g ç å f ( a i ) ÷ ÷ is equal to :
ç n i =1 ÷ 1
è è øø =1-
2(r + 1)
(A) 0 (B) 3
(C) 9 (D) 27 2r + 1
=
2(r + 1)
Official Ans. by NTA (A)
Now proof is given by
Sol. Consider a case when a = b = 0 then 30
(2r + 1)
=Õ
f(x) = yx r =1 2(r + 1)
x (1 × 3 × 5 × ........ × 61)
g(x) = =
y 230 × (2 × 3 × ....... × 31)
1 n y
å
n i =1
f(a i ) Þ ( a1 + a 2 + ..... + a n )
n Þ
(1 × 3 × 5 ×........ × 61) 230 ´ 30
´ 30
31 × 230 2 ´ 30
=0
61
Þ f(g(0)) Þ f(0) =
2 31 × 30
60

Þ0
a = -60

7
174
 Final JEE-Main Exam July 2022/28-07-2022/Morning Session
20. The minimum value of the twice differentiable Sol. Required no. = Total – no character from {1, 2, 3, 4, 5}
x 6 6 7 7 8 8
= (10 – 5 ) + (10 – 5 ) + (10 – 5 )
function f(x) = ò e x - t f '(t)dt - (x 2 - x + 1)e x , x Î R,
0 = 106 (1 + 10 + 100) – 56 (1 + 5 + 25)
is : = 106 × 111 – 56 × 31
2 = 26 × 56 × 111 – 56 × 31
(A) - (B) -2 e
e = 56 (26 × 111 – 31)
2
(C) - e (D) = 56 ´ 7073
{
e a

Official Ans. by NTA (A) \ a = 7073

x
f '(t) æ 56 43 111 ö
Sol. f(x) = e x × ò dt 2. Let P(–2, –1, 1) and Q ç , , ÷ be the
et è 17 17 17 ø
0

x vertices of the rhombus PRQS. If the direction

f '(t) f '(x)
f '(x) = e x × ò t
dt + e x × x ratios of the diagonal RS are a, - 1, b, where both
0
e e

- éë(2x - 1) × ex + (x 2 - x + 1) × e x ùû a and b are integers of minimum absolute values,

x then a 2 + b2 is equal to _________.

f '(t)
ò0 e t dt = x + x
2

Official Ans. by NTA (450)

f '(x)
= 2x + 1
ex
Sol. RS º ( a, -1, b )
f '(x) = (2x + 1) × e x
1 æ 56 43 111 ö
f '(x) = 0 Þ x = - DR of PQ º ç + 2, + 1, - 1÷
2 è 17 17 17 ø
f(x) = (2x + 1) × e x - 2e x + C æ 90 60 94 ö
ºç , , ÷
è 17 17 17 ø
f(0) = -1 90 60 94
a + (-1) + b = 0
17 17 17
–1 = 1 – 2 + C 90a + 94b = 60
C=0
60 - 90a
f(x) = e x (2x - 1) b=
94
æ 1 ö -2
fç- ÷ = 30(2 - 3a)
è 2ø e b=
94
SECTION-B
(3a - 2)
b = -30
1. Let S be the set of all passwords which are six to 94
eight characters long, where each character is
-15
either an alphabet from {A, B, C, D, E} or a b= (3a - 2)
47
number from {1, 2, 3, 4, 5} with the repetition of
b 3a - 2
characters allowed. If the number of passwords in Þ =
-15 47
S whose at least one character is a number from
{1, 2, 3, 4, 5} is a ´ 56 , then a is equal to _____. Þ b = -15, a = -15

Official Ans. by NTA (7073) a 2 + b2 = 225 + 225

= 450

8
175
 Final JEE-Main Exam July 2022/28-07-2022/Morning Session
3. Let f :[0, 1] ® R be a twice differentiable function
in (0, 1) such that f(0) = 3 and f(1) = 5. If the line
é1
30 ê
ë5
( 5
3 - 2
5
) - 23 ( 3 3 ù
3 - 2 ú
û
)
y = 2x + 3 intersects the graph of f at only two
distinct points in (0, 1), then the least number of
é1
ë5
( 2
) (
ù
30 ê 9 3 - 4 2 - 3 3 - 2 2 ú
3 û
)
points x Î (0, 1), at which f "(x) = 0, is ______.
é 1 8 ù
Official Ans. by NTA (2) 30 ê - ´ 3 + 2ú
ë 5 15 û
-6 3 + 16 2 = a 2 + b 3
y=2x+3
Sol. y a = 16, b = -6

x=b \ a + b = 10

é1 -1ù éb 1 ù
5. Let A= ê ú and B = ê ú , a, b Î R. Let
ë2 a û ë1 0 û
a1 be the value of a which satisfies
x é2 2 ù
O (A + B)2 = A 2 + ê ú and a 2 be the value of a
ë2 2 û
which satisfies (A + B) 2 = B2 . Then a1 - a 2 is
equal to _______.
f ¢ (a) = f ¢ (b) = f ¢ (c) = 2
Official Ans. by NTA (2)
Þ f ² (x) is zero
for atleast x1 Î (a, b) & x2 Î (b, c)
éb + 1 0 ù
3
15x 3 A+B=ê
a úû
Sol.
4. If ò dx= a 2 + b 3 , where ë 3
0
1+ x +2
(1 + x )
2 3
é b + 1 0 ù éb + 1 0 ù
(A + B)2 = ê
a, b are integers, then a + b is equal to ë 3 a úû êë 3 a úû
Official Ans. by NTA (10) é (b + 1) 2 0ù
=
ê 2ú
ë3(b + 1) + 3a a û
Sol. Put 1 + x2 = t2
é1 -1ù é1 -1ù
2x dx = 2t dt A2 = ê úê ú
X dx = t dt ë2 a û ë2 a û
2
15(t 2 - 1)t dt é -1 -1 - a ù
\ò =
ê 2 + 2a a 2 - 2 ú
1 t 2 + t3 ë û
t(t 2 - 1) -a + 1ù é (b + 1) 2 0ù
2
é 1
15ò dt \ê ú =ê ú
t 1+ t
1 ë2 a + 4 a û ë3(a + b + 1) a 2 û
2

Put 1 + t = u2
a = 1 = a1
dt = 2u du
3
(u 2 - 1) 2 - 1 éb 1 ù éb 1 ù
15 ò ´ 2u du B2 = ê úê ú
u ë1 0 û ë1 0 û
2

3 éb2 + 1 b ù é (b + 1)2 0ù
30 ò (u - 2u ) du4 2 =ê ú=ê ú
ë b 1 û ë3(b + 1) + 3a a 2 û
2

3 \ b = 0, a = -1 = a 2
æ u 5 2u 3 ö
30 ç - ÷ a1 - a2 = 1 - (-1) = 2
è 5 3 ø 2

9
176
 Final JEE-Main Exam July 2022/28-07-2022/Morning Session
6. For p,q Î R, consider the real valued function 7. For the hyperbola H : x2 – y2 = 1 and the ellipse
f(x) = (x - p)2 - q, x Î R and q > 0. Let a1, a2, a3 x2 y2
E: + = 1, a > b > 0, let the
and a4 be in an arithmetic progression with mean p a 2 b2
and positive common difference. If f ( a i ) = 500 (1) eccentricity of E be reciprocal of the
for all i = 1, 2, 3, 4, then the absolute difference eccentricity of H, and
between the roots of f(x) = 0 is
Official Ans. by NTA (50) 5
(2) the line y = x + K be a common tangent of
2
Sol. f(x) = 0 Þ (x - p)2 – q = 0. E and H.
Then 4(a2 + b2) is equal to _______.
Roots are p + q , p - q absolute difference
between roots 2 q . Official Ans. by NTA (3)

Now, |f (ai)| = 500

b2
Let a1, a2, a3, a4 are a1 a + d, a + 2d, a + 3d Sol. eE = 1 - , eH = 2
a2
|f(a4)| = 500 1
If Þ eE =
|(a1 - p)2 - q| = 500 eH

Þ (a1 – p)2 – q = 500 a 2 - b2 1

Þ =
a2 2
9
Þ d 2 - q = 500 _________(1)
4 2a2 – 2b2 = a2

and |f(a1)|2 = |f(a2)|2 a2 = 2b2

5
((a1 - p)2 - q)2 = ((a2 - p)2 – q)2 and y = x + k is tangent to ellipse then
2
Þ ((a1 - p)2 – (a2 - p)2) ((a1 - p)2 – q + (a2 - p)2 - q) = 0
5 3
K2 = a 2 ´ + b2 =
9 2 d 2 2 2
Þ d -q+ -q =0
4 4
3 1 1
6b2 = Þ b 2 = and a 2 =
10d 2 5d 2 2 4 2
2q = Þq=
4 4
\ 4.(a2 + b2) = 3
4q
Þ d2 = 8. Let x1, x2, x3, ….., x20 be in geometric progression
5
1
with x1 = 3 and the common ration . A new data
9 4.q 2
From equation (1) . - q = 500
4 5 is constructed replacing each xi by (xi – i)2. If x is
4q the mean of new data, then the greatest integer less
=
500
5 than or equal to x is _________.

4q Official Ans. by NTA (142)

=
500
5

50
and 2 q = 2 ´ = 50
2

10
177
 Final JEE-Main Exam July 2022/28-07-2022/Morning Session
20 éæ ( x + 2cos x )3 + 2( x + 2cos x )2 + 3sin ( x + 2cos x ) ö ù 100
æ æ 1 öö lim êç ÷ -1ú´
3 ç1 - ç ÷ ÷ x ®0 êç ( x + 2)3 + 2( x + 2 )2 + 3sin ( x + 2) ÷ ú x
è2ø æ 1 ö =e ëè ø û

Sol. å x10 = è -1 ø = 6 ç1 - 20 ÷
è 2 ø
1
2
é
lim ê
æ 3 2
(
ê 100 ç ( x + 2 cos x ) + 2( x + 2 cos x ) + 3sin ( x + 2 cos x ) - ( x + 2 ) + 2 ( x + 2 ) + 3sin ( x + 2 )
3 2
) ÷úöù
ç ÷ú
20 x ®0 x
ê ç ( x + 2)3 + 2( x + 2) 2 + 3sin ( x + 2 ) ÷ú
= å ( x i-i ) =e è øû
2 ë

i =1

20
= å ( x i ) + ( i ) - 2x i i
2 2

100 éêçæ ( x + 2cos x ) + ( x + 2 ) + 2( x + 2cos x ) - 2( x + 2 ) + 3sin ( x + 2cos x ) -3sin ( x + 2 ) ÷ú

öù
3 3 2 2
i =1 lim
x ®0 x êç 8 + 8 + 3sin 2 ÷ú
=e ëè øû
20
æ æ 1 öö
9 ç1 - ç ÷ ÷
è 4 øø æ 1 ö
= è
20
Now = å ( x i ) = 12 ç 1 - 40 ÷
2
3( x + 2 cos x ) ´(1+ 2sin x ) -3 ( x + 2 ) - 4 ( x + 2 cos x )
2 2
100
i =1
1-
1 è 2 ø lim
x (1- 2sin x ) - 4( x + 2 ) + 3cos ( x + 2 cos x )´(1- 2sin x ) - 3cos ( x + 2 )
4 =e 16+ 3sin 2 x ®0

20
1
100
æ 12 - 3 ( 4 ) + 8 ´ 1 - 8 + 3cos2 - 3cos 2 ö
å
i =1
i 2 = ´ 20 ´ 21 ´ 41 = 2870
6
= e16+3sin 2 ç
è 1
÷
ø
20
1 1 1 Using L’H rule.
åx
i =1
i i = s = 3 + 2.3 + 3.3 2 + 4.3 3 + .......AGP
2 2 2
= eo = 1
æ 22 ö
= 6 ç 2 - 20 ÷ 10. The sum of all real values of x for which
è 2 ø
3x 2 - 9x + 17 5x 2 - 7x + 19
= is equal to ___.
12 æ 22 ö x 2 + 3x + 10 3x 2 + 5x + 12
12 - + 2870 - 12 ç 2 - 20 ÷
è 2 ø
40
2
x= Official Ans. by NTA (6)
20

2858 æ -12 22 ö 1
x= +ç + ÷´ 3x 2 - 9x + 17 5x 2 - 7x + 19
20 è 240 220 ø 20 Sol. =
x 2 + 3x + 10 3x 2 + 5x + 12
é x ù = 142 x 2 + 3x + 10 + 2x 2 - 12x + 7 3x 2 + 5x + 12 + 2x 2 - 12x + 7
ë û =
x 2 + 3x + 10 3x 2 + 5x + 12
100
æ ( x + 2cos x )3 + 2 ( x + 2cos x )2 + 3sin ( x + 2cosx ) ö x
2x 2 - 12x + 7 2x 2 - 12x + 7
9. lim ç ÷ 1+ = 1 +
x ®0 ç
( x + 2 ) + 2 ( x + 2 ) + 3sin ( x + 2 ) ÷ x 2 + 3x + 10 3x 2 + 5x + 12
3 2
è ø
is equal to ___________. æ ö
( 2x 2
- 12x + 7 ) ç 2
+
1
+
- 2
+
1
+
è x 3x 10 3x 5x 12 ø
÷=0
Official Ans. by NTA (1)

2x 2 - 12x + 7 = 0 OR 3x 2 + 5x + 12 = x 2 + 3x + 10
Sol.
12 ± D
x= 2x 2 + 2x + 2 =0
x 4
æ ( x + 2cos x )3 + 2 ( x + 2 cos x )2 + 3sin ( x + 2cos x ) ö
lim ç ÷ x2 + x + 1 =0
x ®10 ç ÷
( x + 2 ) + 2 ( x + 2 ) + 3sin ( x + 2 )
3 2
è ø
Sum of Roots = 6 No solution.
¥
Form 1

11
178
 FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JULY, 2022
(Held On Thursday 28th July, 2022) TIME : 3 : 00 PM to 6 : 00 PM

PHYSICS TEST PAPER WITH SOLUTION

SECTION-A 3. A pressure-pump has a horizontal tube of
1. Consider the efficiency of Carnot’s engine is given cross-sectional area 10 cm2 for the outflow of
water at a speed of 20 m/s. The force exerted on
 x
by   log e , where  and  are constants. the vertical wall just in front of the tube which
sin  kT
stops water horizontally flowing out of the tube, is:
If T is temperature, k is Boltzman constant,  is
[given : density of water = 1000 kg/m3]
angular displacement and x has the dimensions of (A) 300 N (B) 500 N
length. Then, choose the incorrect option. (C) 250 N (D) 400 N
(A) Dimensions of  is same as that of force. Official Ans. by NTA (D)

(B) Dimensions of –1 x is same as that of energy.

Sol. F  a2  103  10  104  20  20
–1
(C) Dimensions of  sin is same as that of  F = 400
(D) Dimensions of  is same as that of  4. A uniform metal chain of mass m and length ‘L’
Official Ans. by NTA (D) passes over a massless and frictionless pulley. It is
released from rest with a part of its length ‘l’ is
hanging on one side and rest of its length ‘L – l’ is
Sol. []  []  [sin ]  Dimensionless hanging on the other side of the pulley. At a certain
L
1 sin   []  D.L. point of time, when l  , the acceleration of the
x
2. At time t = 0 a particle starts travelling from a g
chain is . The value of x is ………
2
height 7z cm in a plane keeping z coordinate
constant. At any instant of time it’s position along

the x and y directions are defined as 3t and 5t3

respectively. At t = 1s acceleration of the particle
will be (A) 6 (B) 2 (C) 1.5 (D) 4
(A) 30y (B) 30y Official Ans. by NTA (D)

(C) 3x  15y (D) 3x  15y  7z

Official Ans. by NTA (B)

Sol.
Sol. r  3ti  5t j  7k
3
(m2  m1 )
a g
(m2  m1 )
d2 r
 30t j g ((L  )   )g L L
dt 2  L 
2 L 4 x
d2 r x=4
At t = 1   30j
dt 2

1
179
5. A bullet of mass 200 g having initial kinetic energy 7. Consider a cylindrical tank of radius 1m is filled
90 J is shot inside a long swimming pool as shown with water. The top surface of water is at 15 m
in the figure. If it’s kinetic energy reduces to 40 J from the bottom of the cylinder. There is a hole on
within 1s, the minimum length of the pool, the
the wall of cylinder at a height of 5m from the
bullet has a to travel so that it completely comes to
bottom. A force of 5 × 105 N is applied an the top
rest is
surface of water using a piston. The speed of efflux
from the hole will be :
(given atmospheric pressure PA = 1.01 × 105 Pa,
(A) 45 m (B) 90 m
density of water w = 1000 kg/m3 and gravitational
(C) 125 m (D) 25 m
Official Ans. by NTA (A) acceleration g = 10 m/s2)

Sol. Using mv  2mk

1
u 2  0.2  90  30 m/s
0.2
1
v 2  0.2  40  20 m/s
0.2
20  30
a  10 m/s 2
1 (A) 11.6 m/s (B) 10.8 m/s
u2
s  45 m (C) 17.8 m/s (D) 14.4 m/s
2a
6. Assume there are two identical simple pendulum Official Ans. by NTA (C)
Clocks-1 is placed on the earth and Clock-2 is
placed on a space station located at a height h
Sol. Apply Bernoulli’s theorem between Piston and
above the earth surface. Clock-1 and Clock-2
1
operate at time periods 4s and 6s respectively. hole PA + gh  P0  ve2
2
Then the value of h is –
(consider radius of earth RE = 6400 km and g on Assuming there is no atmospheric pressure on
earth 10 m/s2) piston
(A) 1200 km
5  105 1
(B) 1600 km  103  10  10  1.01  105   103  v e2
 2
(C) 3200 km
(D) 4800 km ve = 17.8 m/s
Official Ans. by NTA (C) 8. A vessel contains 14 g of nitrogen gas at a
temperature of 27°C. The amount of heat to be
1 1
Sol. t and g  transferred to the gap to double the r.m.s. speed of
g (R  h) 2
its molecules will be : (Take R = 8.32 J mol–1k–1)
t1 g' R2
  (A) 2229 J (B) 5616 J
t2 g (R  h)2
(C) 9360 J (D) 13,104 J
t1 4 R
   h  3200km
t 2 6 (R  h) Official Ans. by NTA (C)

2
180
Sol. v rms  T   3d  dk  Qd  3  k 
V  
0  4k  A 0  4k 
vrms  300K, vrmsf  2vrmsi
Q A 0  4k  4kC0
vrmsf  1200K C 
V d  3  k  k  3
14 1 10. A uniform electric field E = (8m/e) V/m is created
Tf  1200K, Ti  300 K, n  
28 2 between two parallel plates of length 1m as shown
1 5R
Q  nC v T    900 in figure, (where m = mass of electron and
2 2
e = charge of electron). An electron enters the field
Q = 9360 J
symmetrically between the plates with a speed of
9. A slab of dielectric constant K has the same cross-
sectional area as the plates of a parallel plate 2m/s. The angle of the deviation () of the path of

3 the electron as it comes out of the field will be

capacitor and thickness d , where d is the
4 ……….
separation of the plates. The capacitance of the
capacitor when the slab is inserted between the
plates will be :
(Given Co = capacitance of capacitor with air as
medium between plates.)
(A) tan–1 (4) (B) tan–1 (2)
4KC 0 3KC0
(A) (B) 1
3 K 3 K (C) tan 1   (D) tan–1 (3)
3
3 K K
(C) (D)
4KC0 4K Official Ans. by NTA (B)

Official Ans. by NTA (A)

vy
+Q –Q
E E
Sol. vx

k
Sol.

 8m 
e
e 
x y
3d/4 Fy eE
ay      8m / s2
3d m m m
xy d
4 sx = uxt
d 1=2×t
xy
4 1
t sec
A 0 2
 C0
d vy = uy + ayt
E 3d
V  Ex    Ey vy = 0 + 8 
1
k 4 2
3Ed
  Ex  y vy = 4 m/s
4k
vy 4
 3d d  tan     2    tan 1  2 
V  E    vx 2
 4k 4 

3
181
11. Given below are two statements : 12. A triangular shaped wire carrying 10A current is
Statement I : A uniform wire of resistance 80 is placed in a uniform magnetic field of 0.5T, as
cut into four equal parts. These parts are now shown in figure. The magnetic force on segment
connected in parallel. The equivalent resistance of CD is (Given BC = CD = BD = 5 cm).
the combination will be 5. C
Statement II : Two resistance 2R and 3R are Magnetic 5 cm 5 cm
connected in parallel in a electric circuit. The value field
A B 5 cm D E
of thermal energy developed in 3R and 2R will be
in the ratio 3 : 2. (A) 0.126 N (B) 0.312 N
In the light of the above statements, choose the
(C) 0.216 N (D) 0.245 N
most appropriate answer from the options given
Official Ans. by NTA (C)
below
(A) Both statement I and statement II are correct
Sol. FM (CD)  BI eff
(B) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
(C) Statement I is correct but statement II is = 0.5×(10) × (5 sin60 ×10–2)

incorrect = 0.216 N

(D) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is 13. The magnetic field at the center of current carrying

correct. circular loop is B1. The magnetic field at a distance

Official Ans. by NTA (C) of 3 times radius of the given circular loop from

the center on its axis is B2. The value of B1/B2 will

Sol. Statement 1 - R  80
be
R1 = R2 = R3 = R4 = 20 
(A) 9 : 4 (B) 12 : 5
20
In parallel R eq   5
4 (C) 8 : 1 (D) 5 : 3

Statement 2 – Official Ans. by NTA (C)

R1 = 3R

R2 = 2R
B1 B2
Sol.
V
0 I
v2 B1 
Pth  2R
R
0 IR 2 1  I  B
P1  R 2  2 B2    0  1

P2  R1
  (where P is power) 2  R  3R
2

2 3/2 8  2R  8
 3
B1 8

B2 1

4
182
14. A transformer operating at primary voltage 8 kV 7.2  109  3  108
I
36  109  10
and secondary voltage 160 V serves a load of
6  101
80 kW. Assuming the transformer to be ideal with 
103
purely resistive load and working on unity power
w
I  6  102
factor, the loads in the primary and secondary m2

circuit would be w
 0.06
cm 2
(A) 800  and 1.06 (B) 10 and 500
16. The power of a lens (biconvex) is 1.25 m-1 in
(C) 800  and 0.32  (D) 1.06  and 500 
particular medium. Refractive index of the lens is
Official Ans. by NTA (C)
1.5 and radii of curvature are 20 cm and 40 cm

respectively. The refractive index of surrounding

Sol.
8 10  3 2

 80  103 medium :
RP
9
(A) 1.0 (B)
RP = 800 7

160 
2
3 4
 80  103 (C) (D)
RS 2 3

Official Ans. by NTA (B)

RS = 0.32

15. Sun light falls normally on a surface of area 36 cm2

2  1 1 
and exerts an average force of 7.2×10-9 N within a Sol. P   1   2     (For this formula
f  R1 R 2 
time period of 20 minutes. Considering a case of
refer to NCERT Part-2, Chapter-9, Page no. 328,
complete absorption, the energy flux of incident
solved example 8)
light is
(µ1 is refractive index of lens and µ2 is of
(A) 25.92×102 W/cm2 (B) 8.64×10-6 W/cm2
surrounding medium)
(C) 6.0 W/cm2 (D) 0.06 W/cm2
 1 1 
Official Ans. by NTA (D) 1.25  1.5  2    
 0.2 0.4 

1.25  0.08
 1.5   2 
I 0.6
Sol.  area  force
C
4
 2 
I 3
 36  104  7.2  109
C

5
183
17. Two streams of photons, possessing energies to 19. An n.p.n transistor with current gain  = 100 in
common emitter configuration is shown in figure.
five and ten times the work function of metal are
The output voltage of the amplifier will be
incident on the metal surface successively. The

ratio of the maximum velocities of the

photoelectron emitted, in the two cases

respectively, will be

(A) 1 : 2 (B) 1 : 3 (A) 0.1 V (B) 1.0 V

(C) 10 V (D) 100 V
(C) 2 : 3 (D) 3 : 2
Official Ans. by NTA (B)
Official Ans. by NTA (C)
vout R
Sol.   out
vin R in
1 100  10  103
Sol. mv12  4 vout   103
2 103
=1V
1
mv 22  9
2 20. A FM Broad cast transmitter, using modulating
signal of frequency 20 kHz has a deviation ratio of
v1 2
 10. The Bandwidth required for transmission is :
v2 3
(A) 220 kHz
7
18. A radioactive sample decays times its original (B) 180 kHz
4
(C) 360 kHz
quantity in 15 minutes. The half-life of the sample
(D) 440 kHz
is Official Ans. by NTA (D)

(A) 5 min (B) 7.5 min

Sol. Given
(C) 15 min (D) 30 min
FM broadcast

Official Ans. by NTA (A) Modulating frequency = 20 k Hz = f

frequencydeviation f
Deviation ratio  
modulating frequency f

 frequency deviation – f = f × 10
1
Sol. Remaining 
8 = 20 kHz × 10 = 200 kHz
 Bandwidth = 2(f + f)
3t1//2  15min
= 2 (20 + 200) kHz

t1//2  5min = 440 kHz

6
184
 SECTION-B 3. A string of area of cross-section 4 mm2 and length
1. A ball is thrown vertically upwards with a velocity 0.5 is connected with a rigid body of mass 2 kg.
–1
of 19.6 ms from the top of a tower. The ball
The body is rotated in a vertical circular path of
strikes the ground after 6 s. The height from the
ground up to which the ball can rise will be radius 0.5 m. The body acquires a speed of 5 m/s at

k the bottom of the circular path. Strain produced in

  m. The value of k is ….. (use g = 9.8 m/s )
2
5
the string when the body is at the bottom of the
Official Ans. by NTA (392)
circle is …… × 10–5. (Use Young’s modulus

1011 N/m2 and g = 10 m/s2)

u 19.6
Sol. ta    2s
g 9.8
Official Ans. by NTA (30)
2h max
t d  6  2s 
g

16  9.8 392
 h max  
2 5
2. The distance of centre of mass from end A of a one Sol.
dimensional rod (AB) having mass density
Strain = F/AY
 x2 
  0 1  2  kg/m and length L (in meter) is
 L  mv2
mg 
3L  R
m. The value of  is ………. (where x is the AY

distance form end A) 2(5)2
20 
Official Ans. by NTA (8)  0.5  30  105
6
3  10  1011

4. At a certain temperature, the degrees of freedom

per molecule for gas is 8. The gas performs 150 J
Sol. of work when it expands under constant pressure.
 x2  The amount of heat absorbed by the gas will be
dm    dx   0 1  2 
  …….. J.

Official Ans. by NTA (750)

X cm 
 xdm
 dm
 Sol. W = nR  T = 150 J
x3  2 4
 0   x  2  dx 
0  3
2
  2 4  f  8 
 x  2 3
8 Q =   1 nR  T =   1150  750 J
2  2 
 0 1  2  dx 
3 2
0

7
185
5. The potential energy of a particle of mass 4 kg in 7. For the given circuit the current through battery of
motion along the x-axis is given by
6 V just after closing the switch ‘S’ will be
U = 4(1 – cos 4x) J. The time period of the particle
….…… A.

for small oscillation (sin  ) is   s. The
K
value of K is ……..

Official Ans. by NTA (2)

Sol. U = 4(1 – cos 4x) Official Ans. by NTA (1)

dU
F=   4( sin 4x)4  16sin (4x)
dx

For small  Sol. Just after closing the switch S, inductor behaves

sin    like an open circuit.

F = –64x
6
I=  1A
a = –64x/m = –16x 24

2  16 8. An object ‘o’ is placed at a distance of 100 cm in

2 
T=  front of a concave mirror of radius of curvature
 2
200 cm as shown in the figure. The object starts
6. An electrical bulb rated 220 V, 100 W, is
connected in series with another bulb rated 220 V, moving towards the mirror at a speed 2 cm/s. The
60 W. If the voltage across combination is 220 V,
position of the image from the mirror after 10s will
the power consumed by the 100 W bulb will be
be at ……. cm.
about ………. W.

Official Ans. by NTA (14)

V 2 2202
Sol. R1    484
P 100 Official Ans. by NTA (400)
V2 2202  10 
R2    484  
P 60 6
Sol. After 10 sec.
220
I u = –80 cm
10
484  484 
6 f = –100 cm

P1  I2 R1  14.06 W 1 1 1
 
v u f

v = 400 cm

8
186
9. In an experiment with a convex lens. The plot of 10. In an experiment to find acceleration due to gravity
the image distance (v’) against the object distance (g) using simple pendulum, time period of 0.5 s is
(µ’) measured from the focus gives a curve measured from time of 100 oscillation with a
v’ µ’ = 225. If all the distances are measured in watch of 1s resolution. If measured value of length
cm. The magnitude of the focal length of the lens is 10 cm known to 1mm accuracy. The accuracy in
is ……….. cm. the determination of g is found to be x %. The

Official Ans. by NTA (15) value of x is

Official Ans. by NTA (5)

Sol. vu = f2 (by Newton’s formula)

f2 = 225
Sol. T  2
g
f = 15 cm
1 T2
g
42

g 2T 
 
g T

g 1 1mm
 2 
g 100  0.5 10cm

g 5

g 100

9
187
 FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JULY, 2022
(Held On Thursday 28th July, 2022) TIME : 3 : 00 PM to 6 : 00 PM

CHEMISTRY TEST PAPER WITH SOLUTION

SECTION-A 3. Given below are two statements : One is labelled as
1. Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R Assertion A : The reduction of a metal oxide is
Assertion A : Zero orbital overlap is an out of easier if the metal formed is in liquid state than
phase overlap. solid state.
Reason : It results due to different orientation/ Reason R : The value of G becomes more on
direction of approach of orbitals. negative side as entropy is higher in liquid state
In the light of the above statements. Choose the than solid state.
correct answer from the options given below In the light of the above statements. Choose the most
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct appropriate answer from the options given below
explanation of A (A) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
explanation of A (B) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the

(C) A is true but R is false correct explanation of A

(D) A is false but R is true (C) A is correct but R is not correct

(D) A is not correct but R is correct
Official Ans. by NTA (A)
Official Ans. by NTA (A)

Sol.
Sol. G = H – TS
Entropy of liquid is more than solid
 on melting the entropy increases and G
becomes more negative and hence it becomes
easier to reduce metal
4. The products obtained during treatment of hard

2. The correct decreasing order for metallic character water using Clark's method are:

is (A) CaCO3 and MgCO3

(B) Ca(OH)2 and Mg(OH)2
(A) Na > Mg > Be > Si > P
(C) CaCO3 and Mg(OH)2
(B) P > Si > Be > Mg > Na
(D) Ca(OH)2 and MgCO3
(C) Si > P > Be > Na > Mg
Official Ans. by NTA (C)
(D) Be > Na > Mg > Si > P
Official Ans. by NTA (A)
Sol. In Clark’s method lime water is used
Ca  HCO3 2  2Ca(OH)2  2CaCO3  2H2O
Sol. Across a period metallic character decreases
Mg  HCO3 2  2Ca(OH)2  2CaCO3  Mg(OH)2  2H2O

1
188
5. Statement I: An alloy of lithium and magnesium Sol. Sm2  electron = 60 
is used to make aircraft plates. 3
Er  electron = 65  (not isoelectronic)

Statement II : The magnesium ions are important 2
Tb  electron = 63

for cell-membrane integrity.

Tm4  electron = 65 

In the light the above statements, choose the
9. Given below are two statements : One is labelled as
correct answer from the options given below
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
Assertion A : Permanganate titrations are not
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
performed in presence of hydrochloric acid.
(C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
Reason R : Chlorine is formed as a consequence
(D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
of oxidation of hydrochloric acid.
Official Ans. by NTA (B)
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below
Sol. Alloy of Li and Mg is used to make armour plates
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
and not aircraft plates.
explanation of A
Calcium plays important roles in neuromuscular
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
function, interneuronal transmission and cell
explanation of A
membrane integrity
(C) A is true but R is false
6. White phosphorus reacts with thionyl chloride to
(D) A is false but R is true
give
Official Ans. by NTA (A)
(A) PCl5, SO2 and S2Cl2 (B) PCl3. SO2 and S2Cl2
(C) PCl3, SO2 and Cl2 (D) PCl5, SO2 and Cl2
Sol. 2KMnO4  16HCl  2MnCl 2  2KCl  8H2O Cl 2
Official Ans. by NTA (B)
HCl gets oxidised by KMnO4 into Cl2
10. Match List I with List II
Sol. P4  8SOCl 2  4PCl3  4SO2  2S2Cl 2
List II
7. Concentrated HNO3 reacts with Iodine to give List I (Complex)
(Hybridization)
(A) HI, NO2 and H2O (B) HIO2, N2O and H2O
A Ni(CO)4 I sp3
(C) HIO3, NO2 and H2O (D) HIO4, N2O and H2O
B [Ni (CN)4]2- II sp3d2
Official Ans. by NTA (C)
C [Co (CN)6]3- III d2sp3

Sol. I2  10HNO3(conc)  2HIO3  10NO2  4H2O D [CoF6]3- IV dsp2

Choose the correct answer from the options given
8. Which of the following pair is not isoelectronic
below:
species?
(At. no. Sm, 62; Er, 68: Yb, 70: Lu, 71; Eu, 63: Tb, (A) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II

65; Tm, 69) (B) A-I. B-IV, C-III, D-II

(A) Sm2+ and Er3+ (B) Yb2+ and Lu3+ (C) A-I. B-IV, C-II, D-III
(C) Eu2+ and Tb4+ (D) Tb2+ and Tm4+ (D) A-IV, B-I, C-II. D-III
Official Ans. by NTA (D) Official Ans. by NTA (B)

2
189
Sol. Ni(CO) 4 Hybridisation sp3 Sol.

[Ni(CN)4]2– Hybridisation dsp2 (1) H, 

OH (2) HBr
3– 2 3
[Co(CN)6] Hybridisation d sp
[Co(F)6]3– Hybridisation sp3d2 O H
H 
11. Dinitrogen and dioxygen. the main constituents of –H2O

air do not react with each other in atmosphere to Br

form oxides of nitrogen because

Br
(A) N2 is unreactive in the condition of atmosphere.
(B) Oxides of nitrogen are unstable.
(C) Reaction between them can occur in the 13. Arrange the following in increasing order of
presence of a catalyst. reactivity towards nitration
(D) The reaction is endothermic and require very
A. p-xylene
high temperature.
B. bromobenzene
Official Ans. by NTA (D)
C. mesitylene

(1483–2000 K) D, nitrobenzene
Sol. N2 + O2 2NO
E. benzene
(Endothermic and feasible at high temperature)
Choose the correct answer from the options given
12. The major product in the given reaction is
below
OH (1) H+,heat
(2) HBr (A) C < D < E < A < B
(B) D < B < E < A < C

Br (C) D < C < E < A < B

(A) (D) C < D < E < B < A

Official Ans. by NTA (B)
Br

(B) Sol.

Br

(C)

Br
–NO2 is strongly deactivating

(D) –Br – deactivating

–CH3–activating group
Official Ans. by NTA (C)
D<B<E<A<C

3
190
14. Compound I is heated with Conc. HI to give a Sol.
hydroxy compound A which is further heated with NH2 NH2 NH2
Zn dust to give compound B. Identify A and B. NH2 NO2
HNO3
H 2SO4
+ +
Zn,  NO2
 
Conc.HI

 A  B NO2
2% 47% 51%

OH Due to formation of anilinium ion in acidic

(A) A = ,B=
medium meta product is also obtained in
significant amount

(B) 16. Match List I with List II

List (Polymer) List II(Nature)

A. – CH2 –C= CH – CH2– I. Thermosetting polymer

n
(C) Cl
H H O O
B. – N–(CH2 )6 –N–C–(CH2 )4 –C– II. Fibers
n
(D)
Cl
C. – CH2–CH – III. Elastomer
Official Ans. by NTA (D) n
O–H O–H
CH2 IV. Thermoplastic polymer
D. CH2
Sol. n

Choose the correct answer from the options given

below:
15. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R (A) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

Assertion A : Aniline on nitration yields ortho, (B) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
meta & para nitro derivatives of aniline.
(C) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
Reason R: Nitrating mixture is a strong acidic
(D) A-I. B-III, C-IV, D-II
mixture.
In the light of the above statements, choose the Official Ans. by NTA (B)
correct answer from the options given below
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
Sol. Neoprene is elastomer
explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct Nylon-6, 6 is fiber
explanation of A
PVC is thermoplastic
(C) A is true but R is false
Novolac is thermosetting
(D) A is false but R is true
Official Ans. by NTA (A)

4
191
17. Two statements in respect of drug-enzyme 19. The formulas of A and B for the following reaction
interaction are given below sequence are
Statement I : Action of an enzyme can be blocked HCN
A
only when an inhibitor blocks the active site of the H3O+
enzyme. Fructose

Statement II : An inhibitor can form a strong (i) NaBH4

B
(ii) HI/P
covalent bond with the enzyme.
In the light of the above statements. Choose the (A) A = C7H14O8, B = C6H14
correct answer from the options given below (B) A = C7H13O7, B = C7H14O
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true (C) A = C7H12O8, B = C6H14
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false (D) A = C7H14O8, B = C6H14O6
(C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false Official Ans. by NTA (A)
(D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Official Ans. by NTA (D) CH2 OH
CH2 OH CH2 OH

C=O OH–C–CN H3O+ OH–C–COOH

Sol. Some drugs do not bind to active sites. These bind Sol. HCN

to different site of enzyme called allosteric sites. (CHOH)3 (CHOH)3 (CHOH)3

18. Given below are two statements : One is labelled as CH2OH CH2OH CH2OH
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R 1. NaBH4 [A] [C7H 14O8 ]
2. P/HI
Assertion A : Thin layer chromatography is an
adsorption chromatography. n-Hexane
[B] [C6 H14]
Reason : A thin layer of silica gel is spread over a
glass plate of suitable size in thin layer OH
(1) I2/NaHCO3
chromatography which acts as an adsorbent. (2) Pyridine, 
20. O
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below Find out the major product for the above reaction.
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct I

explanation of A CO2H
O
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct (A) (B)
O I
explanation of A
O O
(C) A is true but R is false (C) (D)
O O
(D) A is false but R is true
Official Ans. by NTA (C)
Official Ans. by NTA (A)

Sol. Theory based Sol.

Thin layer chromoatography (TLC) is another type
of adsorption chromatography, which involve I2 / NaHCO3

sepration of substance of a mixture ovel a thin

layer of an adsorbent coated on glass plate.
A thin layer (about 0.2 mm thick) of an adsorbent
(silica gel) or (Alumina) in spread overa glass plate
of suitable size. Hence Assertion (A) is correct and
Reason (R) is correct explanation of (A)
5
192
 SECTION-B 4. A gaseous mixture of two substances A and B,
1. 2L of 0.2 M H2SO4 is reacted with 2L of 0.1 M under a total pressure of 0.8 atm is in equilibrium
NaOH solution, the molarity of the resulting with an ideal liquid solution. The mole fraction of
product Na2SO4 in the solution is ____ millimolar. substance A is 0.5 in the vapour phase and 0.2 in
(Nearest integer). the liquid phase. The vapour pressure of pure
Official Ans. by NTA (25)
liquid A is _______ atm. (Nearest integer)
Official Ans. by NTA (2)
Sol. H2SO4 + 2NaOH  Na2SO4 + 2H2O
0.4 mol 0.2 mol -
0.3 mol - 0.1 mol Sol. YA = 0.5  YB = 0.5
0.1 PA = PB = 0.4 atm
Molarity of Na2SO4 is  0.025M
4 PA  PA0 X A
= 25 mM.
PA0  2
2. Metal M crystallizes into a FCC lattice with the
edge length of 4.0×10-8 cm. The atomic mass of the 5. At 600K, 2 mol of NO are mixed with 1 mol of O2.
metal is ______ g/mol. (Nearest integer). 
 2NO 2 (g)
2NO(g)  O 2 (g) 

(Use : NA = 6.02×1023 mol-1, density of metal, M =
The reaction occurring as above comes to
9.03 g cm-3)
Official Ans. by NTA (87) equilibrium under a total pressure of 1 atom.
Analysis of the system shows that 0.6 mol of
Sol. a = 4 × 10–8 cm oxygen are present at equilibrium. The equilibrium
d = 9.03g/ml constant for the reaction is _______. (Nearest
ZM integer).
d
N A a3 Official Ans. by NTA (2)
24
9.03  6.02  10  64  10
23
M 86.97
4 Sol. 2NO + O2  2NO
3. If the wavelength for an electron emitted from H-
2 1 -
atom is 3.3×10-10m, then energy absorbed by the
2-2x 1-x 2x
electron in its ground state compared to minimum
energy required for its escape from the atom, is 1.2 0.6 0.8
2
_____ times. (Nearest integer).  0.8 
[Given : h = 6.626 ×10-34 Js,  2.6 
Kp     1.925
2
Mass of electron = 9.1×10-31]  1.2   0.6 
 2.6   2.6 
Official Ans. by NTA (2)    
6. A sample of 0.125 g of an organic compound when
h
Sol.  analysed by Duma’s method yields 22.78 mL of
2mK
nitrogen gas collected over KOH solution at 280K
h2
K and 759 mm Hg. The percentage of nitrogen in the
2m 2
given organic compound is ____. (Nearest integer).
h2 43.9  10 68
K  (a) The vapour pressure of water at 280 K is 14.2
2m 2 2  9.1  10 31  10.89  10 20
K = 2.215 × 10–18 mm Hg
Eabs = Ereq + K (b) R = 0.082 L atm K–1 mol–1
Eabs K 2.215  1018 Official Ans. by NTA (22)
1  1   2.0166
Ereq Ereq 13.6  1.602  1019

6
193
Sol. V = 22.78 ml, T = 280 K 9. Among the following the number of curves not in
Ptotal = 759 mmHg accordance with Freundlich adsorption isotherm is
______.
PN2  759  14.2  744.8mmHg
(a) (b)
744.8  22.78
n N2   0.00097 x x
760  1000  0.082  280 log m log m

WNitrogen  0.02716

0.02716
%N   1000  21.728 log P P
0.125
7. On reaction with stronger oxidizing agent like (c) (d)
KIO4, hydrogen peroxide oxidizes with the x
log m x
log m
evolution of O2. The oxidation number of I in KIO4
changes to ______.
Official Ans. by NTA (5) P
log P

Official Ans. by NTA (3)

Sol. IO4  H2O2  IO3  O2

1
X
8. For a reaction, given below is the graph of Sol.  KP n
m
1 x 1
ln k vs . The activation energy for the reaction log  log p  log k
T m n
is equal to ________ cal mol-1. (Nearest integer).
(Given : R = 2 cal K-1 mol-1) x slope = 1/n
log
m
20
}log k
log p
10. Among the following the number of state variable
ln k
is ______.
10
Internal energy (U)
Volume (V)
Heat (q)

0.0
Enthalpy (H)
1 2 3 4 5
1 –1 Official Ans. by NTA (3)
(K )
T

Official Ans. by NTA (8) Sol. Internal energy, volume enthalpy are state variable

Sol. K  AeEa/RT
Ea
ln k   ln A
RT
Ea 20
Slope  
R 5
Ea = 4R = 8 Cal/mol

7
194
 Final JEE-Main Exam July, 2022/28-07-2022/Evening Session

FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JULY, 2022

(Held On Thursday 28th July, 2022) TIME : 3 : 00 PM to 6 : 00 PM

MATHEMATICS TEST PAPER WITH SOLUTION

SECTION-A 3. Let A and B be any two 3 × 3 symmetric and skew
symmetric matrices respectively. Then which of
ì x + 3 -1 ü
1. Let S = í x Î [ -6, 3] - {-2, 2} : ³ 0ý the following is NOT true?
î x -2 þ
(A) A4 – B4 is a symmetric matrix
and T = {x Î Z : x 2 - 7 x + 9 £ 0} . Then the (B) AB – BA is a symmetric matrix
5 5
number of elements in S Ç T is (C) B – A is a skew-symmetric matrix
(D) AB + BA is a skew-symmetric matrix
(A) 7 (B) 5
Official Ans. by NTA (C)
(C) 4 (D) 3
Official Ans. by NTA (D) T T
Sol. Given that A = A, B = –B
(A) C = A4 – B4
Sol. S Ç T = {-5, - 4, 3} CT = (A4 – B4) = (A4)T – (B4)T = A4 – B4 = C
(B) C = AB – BA
2. Let a, b be the roots of the equation
CT = (AB – BA)T = (AB)T – (BA)T
1 1
x 2 - 2x + 6 = 0 and + 1, 2 + 1 be the = BTAT – ATBT = –BA + AB = C
a 2
b
(C) C = B5 – A5
roots of the equation x2 + ax + b = 0. Then the CT = (B5 – A5)T = (B5)T – (A5)T = –B5 – A5
roots of the equation x2 – (a + b – 2) x + (a + b + 2) (D) C = AB + BA
= 0 are : CT = (AB + BA)T = (AB)T + (BA)T
(A) non-real complex numbers = –BA – AB = –C
(B) real and both negative \ Option C is not true.
(C) real and both positive 4. Let f(x) = ax2 + bx + c be such that f(1) = 3, f(– 2)
(D) real and exactly one of them is positive
= l and f(3) = 4. If f(0) + f(1) + f(–2) + f(3) = 14,
Official Ans. by NTA (B)
then l is equal to
13
-1 1 (A) – 4 (B)
Sol. a= - -2 2
a 2 b2
23
1 1 1 (C) (D) 4
b = 2 + 2 +1+ 2 2 2
a b ab Official Ans. by NTA (D)
1 1 5
a+b= - 1 = -1 = -
(ab) 2
6 6 Sol. f(0) + 3 + l + 4 = 14
\ f(0) = 7 – l = c
æ 5 ö æ 5ö
x2 - ç - - 2 ÷ x + ç 2 - ÷ = 0 f(1) = a + b + c = 3 …(i)
è 6 ø è 6ø f(3) = 9a + 3b + c = 4 …(ii)
6x2 + 17x + 7 = 0 f(–2) = 4a – 2b + c = l …(iii)
(ii) – (iii)
7 1
x = - , x = - are the roots 4-l
3 2 a+b= put in equation (i)
5
Both roots are real and negative. 4-l
+7-l =3
5
6 l = 24; l = 4

1
195
 Final JEE-Main Exam July 2022/28-07-2022/Evening Session
5. The function f : R ® R defined by Sol. f (x) = tan -1 (sin x - cos x)
cos x + sin x
cos ( 2px ) - x 2n sin ( x - 1) =0
f ( x ) = lim
f’(x) =
is (sin x - cos x) 2 + 1
n ®¥ 1 + x 2n +1 - x 2n
3p
continuous for all x in \ x=
4
(A) R – {–1} (B) R – {– 1, 1} 3p
x 0 p
(C) R – {1} (D) R – {0} 4
p p
Official Ans. by NTA (B) f (x) - tan -1 2
4 4
Note : n should be given as a natural number. (f (x)) max = tan -1 2 ù
\ ú
p ú
ì - sin(x - 1) (f (x)) min = -
ï x -1 x < -1 4 úû
ï p
ï -(sin 2 + 1) x = -1 sum = tan -1 2 -
ï 4
Sol. f (x = í cos 2px -1 < x < 1 1 p
ï = cos -1 -
ï 1 x =1 3 4
ï - sin(x - 1) 8. Let x ( t ) = 2 2 cos t sin 2t and
ï x >1
î x -1 æ pö
y ( t ) = 2 2 sin t sin 2t , t Î ç 0, ÷ . Then
f(x) is discontinuous at x = –1 and x = 1 è 2ø
x(1- x )
The function f ( x ) = xe
2
6. , x Î R, is æ dy ö
1+ ç ÷
è dx ø at t = p is equal to
æ 1 ö
(A) increasing in ç - ,1÷ d2 y 4
è 2 ø 2
dx
æ1 ö
(B) decreasing in ç , 2 ÷ -2 2 2
è2 ø (A) (B)
3 3
æ 1ö
(C) increasing in ç -1, - ÷ 1 -2
è 2ø (C) (D)
3 3
æ 1 1ö
(D) decreasing in ç - , ÷ Official Ans. by NTA (D)
è 2 2ø
Official Ans. by NTA (A) Sol. x = 2 2 cos t sin 2t
dx 2 2 cos3t
x(1 – x)
=
Sol. f(x) = x e dt sin 2t
f’(x) = –ex(1–x) (2x + 1) (x – 1) y ( t ) = 2 2 sin t sin 2t
æ 1 ö dy 2 2 sin 3t
f(x) is increasing in ç - ,1÷ =
è 2 ø dt sin 2t
7. The sum of the absolute maximum and absolute dy
= tan 3t
minimum values of the function dx
dy p
f(x) = tan–1 (sin x – cosx) in the interval [0, p] is = -1 at t =
dx 4
-1 æ 1 ö p 2
p
÷-
(A) 0 (B) tan ç d y 3
= sec3 3t × sin 2t = -3 at t =
è 2ø 4 dx 2
2 2 4
1 ö p
2
-1 æ -p æ dy ö
(C) cos ç ÷- (D) 1+ ç ÷
è dx ø = 1 + 1 = - 2
è 3ø 4 12 \
Official Ans. by NTA (C) d2 y -3 3
2
dx

2
196
 Final JEE-Main Exam July 2022/28-07-2022/Evening Session
x 1 11. Let y = y(x) be the solution curve of the
9. Let I n ( x ) = ò0 ( dt, n = 1, 2, 3, …. Then
t 2 + 5)
n 1
dy 1 æ x -1 ö 2
differential equation + 2 y=ç ÷ ,
(A) 50I6 - 9I5= xI¢5 (B) 50I6 - 11I5 = xI¢5 dx x - 1 è x +1ø
(C) 50I6 - 9I5= I5¢ (D) 50I6 - 11I5= I5¢ æ 1ö
x > 1 passing through the point ç 2, ÷ . Then
Official Ans. by NTA (A) è 3ø
7y ( 8 ) is equal to
x
Sol. I n (x) = ò
dt (A) 11 + 6loge 3 (B) 19
(t + 5)
2 n
0
(C) 12 - 2 log e 3 (D) 19 - 6 log e 3
Applying integral by parts
Official Ans. by NTA (D)
x x
é t ù
In (x) = ê 2 nú
- ò n(t 2 + 5) -n -1 × 2t 2
ë (t + 5) û 0 0 1
dy 1 æ x -1 ö 2
x
x
t2 Sol. + 2 y=ç ÷ ,
I n (x) = + 2n ò dt dx x - 1 è x +1ø
(x 2 + 5) n 0 (t 2 + 5) n +1
dy
x
x
(t 2 + 5) - 5 + Py = Q
I n (x) = + 2n ò dt dx
(x 2 + 5) n 0 (t 2 + 5) n +1
1
ò Pdx æ x -1 ö 2
I n (x) =
x
+ 2n In (x) - 10n I n +1 (x) I.F. = e =ç ÷
(x + 5) n
2 è x +1 ø
x 1
1
10n I n +1 (x) + (1 - 2n)I n (x) = æ x -1 ö2 æ x -1 ö
(x + 5) n yç ÷ = òç ÷ dx
2
è x +1 ø è x +1 ø
Put n = 5
10. The area enclosed by the curves y = loge (x + e2), = x - 2 log e x + 1 + C
æ2ö æ 1 ö
x = loge ç ÷ and x = loge2, above the line y = 1 Curve passes through ç 2,
è yø ÷
è 3ø
is
5
(A) 2 + e - log e 2 (B) 1 + e - log e 2 Þ C = 2 log e 3 -
3
(C) e - log e 2 (D) 1 + log e 2 at x = 8,
Official Ans. by NTA (B)
7y ( 8 ) = 19 - 6log e 3
12. The differential equation of the family of circles
passing through the points (0, 2) and (0, – 2) is

+ ( x 2 - y2 + 4 )=
dy
(A) 2xy 0
dx
+ ( x 2 + y 2 - 4 )=
dy
(B) 2xy 0
dx
+ ( y 2 - x 2 + 4 )=
Sol. dy
(C) 2xy 0
Required area is dx
- ( x 2 - y 2 + 4 )=
0 ln 2 dy
ln ( x + e 2 ) - 1dx +
(D) 2xy 0
ò ò 2e
-x
= - 1dx = 1 + e - ln2 dx
e -e 2 0
Official Ans. by NTA (A)

3
197
 Final JEE-Main Exam July 2022/28-07-2022/Evening Session
Sol. Equation of circle passing through (0, –2) and x 2 y2
14. Let the hyperbola H : 2 - 2 = 1 pass through
(0, 2) is a b
x 2 + ( y 2 - 4 ) + lx = 0 , ( l Î R ) the point (2 2, -2 2 ) . A parabola is drawn
Divided by x we get whose focus is same as the focus of H with
x + ( y - 4)
2 2
positive abscissa and the directrix of the parabola
+l = 0
x passes through the other focus of H. If the length
Differentiating with respect to x of the latus rectum of the parabola is e times the

é dy ù length of the latus rectum of H, where e is the

x ê 2x + 2y × ú - éë x 2 + y 2 - 4 ùû ×1
ë dx û =0
eccentricity of H, then which of the following
x2 points lies on the parabola?

Þ 2xy ×
dy
+ ( x 2 - y2 + 4) = 0 (
(A) 2 3,3 2 ) (
(B) 3 3, -6 2 )
dx
13. Let the tangents at two points A and B on the circle (C) ( 3, - 6 ) (D) ( 3 6,6 2 )
x2 + y2 – 4x + 3 = 0 meet at origin O (0, 0). Then Official Ans. by NTA (B)
the area of the triangle of OAB is
3 3 3 3
(A) (B) x 2 y2
2 4 Sol. H : - =1
a 2 b2
3 3
(C) (D) Foci : S (ae, 0), S’ (–ae, 0)
2 3 4 3
Foot of directrix of parabola is (–ae, 0)
Official Ans. by NTA (B)
Focus of parabola is (ae, 0)
Now, semi latus rectum of parabola = SS¢ = 2ae
A
æ 2b 2 ö
Given, 4ae= e ç ÷
O M è a ø
B Þ b 2 = 2a 2 ….. (1)
Sol. C : (x –2)2 + y2 = 1
Equation of chord AB : 2x = 3 Given, ( 2 2, -2 2 ) lies on H

OA = OB = 3 1 1 1
Þ - = ….. (2)
a 2 b2 8
3
AM = From (1) and (2)
2
a2 = 4, b2 = 8
1(
Area of triangle OAB = 2AM ) ( OM )
2 Q b2 = a 2 ( e 2 - 1)

3 3 \e = 3
= sq. units
4
Þ Equation of parabola is y 2 = 8 3x

4
198
 Final JEE-Main Exam July 2022/28-07-2022/Evening Session
x -1 y - 2 z - 3 Equation of plane P which passes through (2, 2,–2)
15. Let the lines = = and
l 1 2 is 4x – y – 3z – 12 = 0
x + 26 y + 18 z + 28 Now, A (3, 0, 0), B (0, – 12, 0), C (0, 0, –4)
= = be coplanar and P be
-2 3 l Þ a = 3, b = -12, g = -4
the plane containing these two lines. Then which
Þ p = a + b + g = -13
of the following points does NOT lies on P?
(A) (0, – 2, –2) (B) (– 5, 0, –1) Now, volume of tetrahedron OABC
(C) (3, –1, 0) (D) (0, 4, 5) 1 uuur ( uuur uuur )
V= OA × OB ´ OC = 24
Official Ans. by NTA (D) 6
(V, p) = (24, –13)
x -1 y - 2 z - 3 Let S be the set of all a Î R for which the angle
Sol. Given, L1 : = = 17.
l 1 2 r
x + 26 y + 18 z + 28 between the vectors u = a ( log e b ) ˆi - 6ˆj + 3kˆ and
and L2 : = = r
-2 3 l v = ( log e b ) ˆi + 2ˆj + 2a ( log e b ) k,
ˆ ( b > 1) is acute.
are coplanar
27 20 31 Then S is equal to

Þ l 1 2 =0 æ 4ö
(A) ç -¥, - ÷ (B) F
-2 3 l è 3ø
Þl=3 æ 4 ö æ 12 ö
(C) ç - , 0 ÷ (D) ç ,¥÷
Now, normal of plane P, which contains L1 and L2 è 3 ø è7 ø
ˆi ˆj kˆ Official Ans. by NTA (C)
= 3 1 2
-2 3 3 Sol. For angle to be acute
= -3iˆ - 13jˆ + 11kˆ
r r
u×v > 0
Þ Equation of required plane P :
Þ a ( log e b ) - 12 + 6a ( log e b ) > 0
2
3x + 13y – 11z + 4 = 0
(0, 4, 5) does not lie on plane P.
16. A plane P is parallel to two lines whose direction " b >1
ratios are –2, 1, –3, and –1, 2, –2 and it contains let log e b = t Þ t > 0 as b > 1
the point (2, 2, –2). Let P intersect the co-ordinate
axes at the points A, B, C making the intercepts y = at 2 + 6at - 12 & y > 0, " t > 0
a, b, g. If V is the volume of the tetrahedron Þ a Îf
OABC, where O is the origin and p = a + b + g,
18. A horizontal park is in the shape of a triangle OAB
then the ordered pair (V, p) is equal to
with AB = 16. A vertical lamp post OP is erected
(A) (48, –13) (B) (24, –13)
at the point O such that ÐPAO = ÐPBO = 15° and
(C) (48, 11) (D) (24, –5)
Official Ans. by NTA (B) ÐPCO = 45°, where C is the midpoint of AB. Then
(OP)2 is equal to

Sol. Normal of plane P : (A)

32
( 3 - 1) (B)
32
(2 - 3)
3 3
ˆi ˆj kˆ
= -2 1 -3 = 4iˆ - ˆj - 3kˆ (C)
16
( 3 - 1) (D)
16
(2 - 3)
3 3
-1 2 -2
Official Ans. by NTA (B)

5
199
 Final JEE-Main Exam July 2022/28-07-2022/Evening Session
P A 5
Þ P(A) =
18
8
Now, P ( A¢ È B)= 1 - P ( A È B) + P ( B)
C 5
= 1 - P ( A ) + P ( A Ç B) =
8
6
O
( ) (
P A¢ Ç B¢ = 1 - P A È B )
1
Sol. B = 1 - P ( A ) - P ( B) + P ( A Ç B) =
18
OP Þ Both (S1) and (S2) are true.
= tan15°
OA 20. Let
p : Ramesh listens to music.
Þ OA = OP cot15°
q : Ramesh is out of his village
OP r : It is Sunday
= tan 45° Þ OP = OC s : It is Saturday
OC
Then the statement “Ramesh listens to music only
if he is in his village and it is Sunday or Saturday”
Now, OP= OA 2 - 82 can be expressed as
Þ OP 2 = ( OP ) cot 2 15° - 64
2 (A) ( ( : q ) Ù ( r Ú s ) ) Þ p
(B) ( q Ù ( r Ú s ) ) Þ p
Þ OP =
32
(2 - 3 )
2
3 (C) p Þ ( q Ù ( r Ú s ) )

2 (D) p Þ ( ( : q ) Ù ( r Ú s ) )
19. Let A and B be two events such that P(B A) = , Official Ans. by NTA (D)
5
1 1
P ( A B) = and P ( A Ç B ) = . Consider
Sol. p º Ramesh listens to music
7 9
~ q º He is in village.
(S1) P ( A¢ È B ) = 5 ,
6 r Ú s º Saturday or sunday
(S2 ) P ( A¢ Ç B¢ ) = 1 . Then p Þ (( : q ) Ù ( r Ú s ))
18
(A) Both (S1) and (S2) are true SECTION-B

(B) Both (S1) and (S2) are false 1. Let the coefficients of the middle terms in the
4
æ 1 ö
+ bx ÷ , (1 - 3bx )
(C) Only (S1) is true 2
expansion of ç and
è 6 ø
(D) Only (S2) is true
6
æ b ö
Official Ans. by NTA (A) ç1 - x ÷ , b > 0 , respectively form the first three
è 2 ø
terms of an A.P. If d is the common difference of

1 P ( A Ç B) 1 this A.P., then 50 -

2d
Sol. P ( A | B ) = Þ = is equal to _____
7 P ( B) 7 b2

7 Official Ans. by NTA (57)

Þ P ( B) =
9
2 P ( A Ç B) 2
P (B | A) = Þ =
5 P (A) 5

6
200
 Final JEE-Main Exam July 2022/28-07-2022/Evening Session

b2 b3 4. If 1+ (2 + 49C1 + 49C2 + ….. + 49C49) (50C2 + 50C4 +

Sol. C2 ´ , -6b, - C3 ´
4 6
are in A.P
6 8 ….. + 50C50) is equal to 2n.m, where m is odd, then n

5 + m is equal to _____
b2 - b3 = -12b
2 Official Ans. by NTA (99)
12 12
b= or b = -2 \b =
Sol. 1 + (1 + 249 )( 249 - 1) = 298
5 5
72 144 504
d=- - =- m = 1, n = 98
5 25 25
m + n = 99
2d
\ 50 - 2 = 57
b 5. Two tangent lines l1 and l2 are drawn from the point
2. A class contains b boys and g girls. If the number (2, 0) to the parabola 2y2 = –x. If the lines l1 and l2
of ways of selecting 3 boys and 2 girls from the are also tangent to the circle (x – 5)2 + y2 = r, then
class is 168, then b + 3 g is equal to 17r is equal to

Official Ans. by NTA (17) Official Ans. by NTA (9)

Sol. b C3 ´g C 2 = 168 x
Sol. y2 = -
2
b(b – 1)(b – 2) (g)(g – 1) = 8 × 7 × 6 × 3 × 2
1
b + 3 g = 17 y = mx -
8m
3. Let the tangents at the points P and Q on the ellipse
this tangent pass through (2, 0)

= 1 meet at the point R ( 2, 2 2 - 2 ) .

2 2
x y 1
+ m=± i.e., one tangent is x – 4y – 2 = 0
2 4 4
If S is the focus of the ellipse on its negative major 17r = 9
2 2
axis, then SP + SQ is equal to
6 10 20 40 10240
6. If + 11 + 10 + 9 + ..... + = 2n × m,
Official Ans. by NTA (13) 312
3 3 3 3
where m is odd, then m.n is equal to _____
Sol. Ellipse is Official Ans. by NTA (12)
x 2 y2
; S º ( 0, - 2 )
1
+ = 1; e =
2 4 2
6 æ 1 2 2 2 23 210 ö
Chord of contact is Sol. + 10 ç 11 + + + + ..... + ÷
312 è3 310 39 38 3 ø
x ( 2 2 - 2) y
+ =1 6 10 æ 611 - 1 ö
2 4 + ç ÷
312 311 è 6 - 1 ø
x ( 2 - 1) y = 212 ×1; m.n = 12
Þ = 1- solving with ellipse
2 2

Þ y = 0, 2 \ x = 2,1

P º (1, 2 ) Q º ( 2,0 )

\ ( SP ) + ( SQ ) = 13
2 2

7
201
 Final JEE-Main Exam July 2022/28-07-2022/Evening Session

7.
é pö
Let S = ê -p, ÷ - - , - , -
ë 2ø 2 4 { p p
, . Then the
4 4
3p p
} 9. A bag contains 4 white and 6 black balls. Three
balls are drawn at random from the bag. Let X be
number of elements in the set the number of white balls, among the drawn balls.
If s2 is the variance of X, then 100 s2 is equal to
A = {q Î S : tan q (1 + 5 tan ( 2q ) ) = 5 - tan ( 2q )}
Official Ans. by NTA (56)
is _____
Official Ans. by NTA (5)
X 0 1 2 3
Sol. 1 1 3 1
P (X)
Sol. tan q + 5 tan 2q tan q = 5 - tan 2q 6 2 10 30

tan 3q = 5 s2 = å X 2 P ( X ) - ( å X P ( X ) ) =
2 56
100
np a
q= + ; tan a = 5
3 3 100 s2 = 56
Five solution p

Let z = a + ib, b ¹ 0 be complex numbers

2
sin ( 6x )
8. 10. The value of the integral ò 60 sin x
dx is equal
satisfying z 2 = z × 21- z . Then the least value of n 0

to
Î N, such that zn = (z +1)n, is equal to _____
Official Ans. by NTA (104)
Official Ans. by NTA (6)

Sol.
Sol. z 2 = z × 21- z Þ z = 1 p /2
æ sin 6x - sin 4x sin 4x - sin 2x sin 2x ö
z = z Þ z = 1\ z = w or w
2 3 2 I = 60 ò çè sin x
+
sin x
+ ÷ dx
sin x ø
0

wn = (1 + w ) = ( -w2 )
n n
p /2

Least natural value of n is 6.

I = 60 ò ( 2 cos 5x + 2cos 3x + 2 cos x ) dx
0

p /2
æ2 2 ö
I = 60 ç sin 5x + sin 3x + 2 sin x ÷ = 104
è5 3 ø0

8
202
 FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JULY, 2022
(Held On Friday 29th July, 2022) TIME : 9 : 00 AM to 12 : 00 NOON

PHYSICS TEST PAPER WITH SOLUTION

SECTION-A 2. A ball is thrown up vertically with a certain
1. Given below are two statements : One is labelled velocity so that, it reaches a maximum height h.

as Assertion (A) and other is labelled as Find the ratio of the times in which it is at height
h
Reason (R). while going up and coming down respectively.
3
Assertion (A) : Time period of oscillation of a
2 1 3 2
(A) (B)
liquid drop depends on surface tension (S), if 2 1 3 2
density of the liquid is p and radius of the drop is r, 3 1 1
(C) (D)
3
3 1 3
then T = k pr 3 is dimensionally correct,
s2 Official Ans. by NTA (B)

where K is dimensionless.

Reason (R) : Using dimensional analysis we get

R.H.S. having different dimension than that of time

period.

In the light of above statements, choose the correct

answer from the options given below.

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct

explanation of (A)
Sol.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
u2
correct explanation of (A) Max. Height = h =
2g
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
 u  2gh
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true

Official Ans. by NTA (D) 1 2

S = ut + at
2

h 1
 2ght  (g)t 2
r 3
3 2
Sol. Tk 3
s 2
gt 2 h
 2ght   0 (Roots are t1 & t2)
M 2 L
1 3
2  L 2  3 2 3
Dimensions of RHS =      M
1
8
L0 T
3
2
3 g h 4gh
 MT 
2 4
2gh  2gh  4   2gh 
t2 2 3  3  3 2

t1 g h 4gh 3 2
Dimensions of L.H.S  Dimensions of R.H.S 2gh  2gh  4  
2 3
2gh 
3
 option (D)

1
203
  dx  5. A ball is projected with kinetic energy E, at an
3. If t  x  4, then   is:
 dt  t  4 angle of 600 to the horizontal. The kinetic energy
(A) 4 (B) Zero
(C) 8 (D) 16 of this ball at the highest point of its flight will
Official Ans. by NTA (B)
become :
Sol. t  x 4 E
 x = (t – 4)2 = t2 – 8t + 16 (A) Zero (B)
2
dx
 = 2t – 8
dt E
(C) (D) E
dx 4
  2 4  8  0
dt t  4
Official Ans. by NTA (C)
4. A smooth circular groove has a smooth vertical
wall as shown in figure. A block of mass m moves
against the wall with a speed v. Which of the ucos60o
following curve represents the correct relation u

between the normal reaction on the block by the

wall (N) and speed of the block (v) ? 60o
Sol.

V 1
E  mu 2
2

u
At Highest point, Velocity V = u cos60o =
2
2
1 u E
 K.E at topmost point = m  
N 2 2 4
(A)
6. Two bodies of mass 1 kg and 3 kg have position

vectors ˆi  2jˆ  kˆ and 3iˆ  2jˆ  kˆ respectively.

v

N The magnitude of position vector of centre of mass

(B)
of this system will be similar to the magnitude of
v vector :

(A) ˆi  2jˆ  kˆ (B) 3iˆ  2jˆ  kˆ

N
(C)
(C) 2iˆ  2kˆ (D) 2iˆ  ˆj  2kˆ
v Official Ans. by NTA (A)

N
(D)
m1 r1  m 2 r2 1(iˆ  2ˆj  k)
ˆ  3( 3iˆ  2ˆj  k)
ˆ
Sol. rcom  
v
m1  m 2 1 3
Official Ans. by NTA (A)
 2iˆ  ˆj  kˆ
mv 2
N
| 2iˆ  ˆj  kˆ |  (2) 2  (1) 2  (1) 2  6
Sol.
r
Curve is parabola
Y = kx2

2
204
7.
 Given below are two statements : One is labelled Sol. gcff = gcos
as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as 
in 
Reason (R). gs os
gc
a=
Assertion (A) : Clothes containing oil or grease in  os

gs gc
stains cannot be cleaned by water wash.
Reason (R) : Because the angle of contact between


L
the oil/ grease and water is obtuse. In the light of T  2
g cos 
the above statements, choose the correct answer
from the option given below. 10. A spherically symmetric charge distribution is
considered with charge density varying as
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
 3 r 
explanation of (A)   for r  R
(r)   0  4 R 
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the  Zero
 for r  R
correct explanation of (A)
Where, r(r < R) is the distance from the centre O
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(as shown in figure). The electric field at point P
(D) (A) is true but (R) is true
will be :
Official Ans. by NTA (A) (r)
O
r
Water R
P
c
0 r  3 r  0 r  3 r 
Sol. Oil (A)    (B)   
40  4 R  3 0  4 R 
c > 90o
0 r  r 0 r  r
For water oil interface (C) 1   (D) 1  
40  R  5 0  R 
8. If the length of a wire is made double and radius is
Official Ans. by NTA (C)
halved of its respective values. Then, the Young’s
modules of the material of the wire will : Sol. By Gauss law
(A) Remains same
(B) Become 8 times its initial value (r)

O
1th
(C) Become of its initial value r
4 R

(D) Become 4 times its initial value P

Official Ans. by NTA (A) Qin

 E.ds   o

Sol. Y depends on material of wire r

3 r 
    4r dr
2
9. The time period of oscillation of a simple o
4 R
E.4r 2  0
pendulum of length L suspended from the roof of a 0
vehicle, which moves without friction down an o 4   3 r 3 r 4 
E4r 2    
inclined plane of inclination , is given by : o  4 3 4R 
(A) 2 L / (g cos ) (B) 2 L / (gsin ) o r 3  r 
E r2  1  
(C) 2 L / g (D) 2 L / (g tan ) 4o  R 
o r  r
Official Ans. by NTA (A) E 1  
4o  R 

3
205
11. Given below are two statements. Thermal resistance
Statement I : Electric potential is constant within Req = R1 + R2
and at the surface of each conductor. 2
 
Statement II : Electric field just outside a charged eq A 1A 1A
conductor is perpendicular to the surface of the 2 212
   eq 
conductor at every point. eq 1 2 1  2
In the light of the above statements, choose the 13. An alternating emf E = 440 sin 100t is applited to
most appropriate answer from the options give 2
a circuit containing an inductance of H. If an
below. 
(A) Both statement I and statement II are correct a.c. ammeter is connected in the circuit, its reading
(B) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect will be :
(C) Statement I is correct but statement II is
(A) 4.4 A (B) 1.55 A
incorrect
(D) Statement I is incorrect but and statement II is (C) 2.2 A (D) 3.11 A
correct Official Ans. by NTA (C)
Official Ans. by NTA (A)
2
Sol. E = 440 Sin100t , L = H
Sol. (Properties of conductor) 
Statement – I, true as body of conductor acts as 2
XL = L = 100  = 100 2 
equipotential surface. 
Statement – 2 True, as conductor is equipotential. E0 440
Peak current I0    2.2 2 A
XL 100 2
Tangential component of electric field should be
zero. Therefore electric field should be AC ammeter reads RMS value therefore reading
will be Irms
perpendicular to surface.
I0
12. Two metallic wires of identical dimensions are Irms = = 2.2 A
2
connected is series. If 1 and  2 are the
14. A coil of inductance 1 H and resistance 100  is
conductivities of the these wires respectively, the connected to a battery of 6 V. Determine
effective conductivity of the combination is : approximately :
1 2 21 2 (a) The time elapsed before the current acquires
(A) (B)
1  2 1  2 half of its steady – state value
1  2 1  2 (b) The energy stored in the magnetic field
(C) (D)
21 2 1 2 associated with the coil at an instant 15 ms after
Official Ans. by NTA (B) the circuit is switched on. (Given In2 = 0.693,
e-3/2 = 0.25)
(A) t = 10 ms; U = 2 mJ
A 1 2  eq A (B) t = 10 ms; U = 1 mJ
Sol.   2
(C) t = 7 ms; U = 1 mJ
Let length of wire be ‘ ’
(D) t = 7 ms; U = 2 mJ
Area of wire as ‘A’
Official Ans. by NTA (C)
For equivalent wire length = 2 & area will be A

4
206
Sol.
 Given circuit is R – L growth circuit 16. The kinetic energy of emitted electron is E when
R =100 L = 1H the light incident on the metal has wavelength
To double the kinetic energy, the incident light
must have wavelength :
hc hc
(A) (B)
E  hc E  hc
E = 6v
h hc
E (C) (D)
i= (1  e t /  ) E  hc E  hc
R
Official Ans. by NTA (B)
E E
i  (1  e  t /  ) )
2R R
hc
Solving t = τln2 Sol. E    (i)

1 1
t ln 2  0.693  0.00693 hc
R 100 2E     (ii)
'
= 7 ms
(ii) – (i)
15
E 
 1 1
i(15ms)  (1  e 10 ) E  hc   
R  '  
6 3 6 hc 
i (1  1 )    ' 
100 4 4 100 E  hc
1 2 17. Find the ratio of energies of photons produced due
U= LI ,
2 to transition of an election of hydrogen atom from
by solving we get U = 1 mJ. its(i) second permitted energy level to the first
15. Match List – I with List – II level, and (ii) the highest permitted energy level to
List – I List - II the first permitted level.
(a) UV rays (i) Diagnostic tool in (A) 3 : 4 (B) 4 : 3
medicine (C) 1 : 4 (D) 4 : 1
(b) X-rays (ii) Water purification Official Ans. by NTA (A)
(c) Microwave (iii) Communication, Radar
(d) Infrared wave (iv) Improving visibility in 13.6
Sol. En  ev
foggy days n2
1
Choose the correct answer from the options given 13.6(1  )
E  E1 4 3
below :  2 
E   E1 13.6 4
(A) (a)–(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
(B) (a)–(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv) 18. Find the modulation index of an AM wave having
8 V variation where maximum amplitude of the
(C) (a)–(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
AM wave is 9 V.
(D) (a)–(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
(A) 0.8 (B) 0.5
Official Ans. by NTA (B)
(C) 0.2 (D) 0.1
Official Ans. by NTA (A)
Sol. (a) uv rays – used for water purification
(b) x-rays used for diagnosing fracture
Am
(c) Microwaves are used for mobile and radar Sol. Modulation index: m 
Ac
communication
Given 2Am = 8
(d) Infrared waves show less scattering therefore
Am + Ac = 9  Ac = 5
used in foggy days
4
(a – ii), (b – i), (c – iii), (d – iv) m   0.8
5

5
207
19. A travelling microscope has 20 divisions per cm on SECTION-B
the main scale while its Vernier scale has total
1. An object is projected in the air with initial
50 divisions and 25 Vernier scale divisions are
equal to 24 main scale divisions, what is the least velocity u at an angle . The projectile motion is
count of the travelling microscope ? such that the horizontal range R, is maximum.
(A) 0.001 cm (B) 0.002 mm Another object is projected in the air with a
(C) 0.002 cm (D) 0.005 cm
horizontal range half of the range of first object.
Official Ans. by NTA (C)
The initial velocity remains same in both the case.
1 The value of the angle of projection, at which the
Sol. 1 MSD = cm
20
second object is projected, will be _______degree.
24 24 1
1 VSD = MSD   cm
25 25 20 Official Ans. by NTA (15)
1  24 
Least count  1   cm
20  25 
u 2 sin 2(45o ) u 2
1 1 1 Sol. Rmax = 
=   cm g g
20 25 500
= 0.002 cm R u 2 u 2 sin 2
 
20. In an experiment to find out the diameter of wire 2 2g g
using screw gauge, the following observation were
1
noted : sin 2 
P Q 2
45 2 = 30o, 150o

 = 15o, 75o
Ans. 15, 75

2. If the acceleration due to gravity experienced by a

(a) Screw moves 0.5 mm on main scale in one
complete rotation point mass at a height h above the surface of earth
(b) Total divisions on circular scale = 50 is same as that of the acceleration due to gravity at
(c) Main scale reading is 2.5 mm
a depth h (h << Re) from the earth surface. The
(d) 45th division of circular scale is in the pitch line
(e) Instrument has 0.03 mm negative error value of  will be _________.
Then the diameter of wire is :
(use Re = 6400 km)
(A) 2.92 mm (B) 2.54 mm
(C) 2.98 mm (D) 3.45 mm Official Ans. by NTA (2)
Official Ans. by NTA (C)

 2h   d
Sol. MSR = 2.5 mm Sol. g 1    g 1  
0.5  R  R
CSR  45  mm
50 2h d

= 0.45 mm R R
Diameter reading = MSR + CSR – zero error
h  d
= 2.5 + 0.45 – (–0.03)
= 2.98 mm  2

6
208
3.
 The pressure P1 and density d1 of diatomic gas 5. The current I flowing through the given circuit will
be __________ A.
 7
    changes suddenly to P2(>P1) and d2
 5 9 9 9

respectively during an adiabatic process. The

I
temperature of the gas increases and becomes
_________ times of its initial temperature. 6V
Official Ans. by NTA (2)
d
(given 2 = 32)
d1
Sol. Equivalent circuit
Official Ans. by NTA (4) 9
9 3
9
m
Sol. 
PV = const d =
v
 6v 6v
 m
p   = const
 d I= 6 =2A
3
p d2 6. A closely wounded circular coil of radius 5 cm
 const  32
d d1 produces a magnetic field of 37.68 x 10–4 T at its
 7
center. The current through the coil is _________ A.
p1  d1   1 5
1
     [Given, number of turns in the coil is 100 and
p2  d 2   32  128
 = 3.14]
T1 P1V1 1 1 Official Ans. by NTA (3)
  32 
T2 P2 V2 128 4
N0 l
4. One mole of a monoatomic gas is mixed with three Sol. Bcentre 
2R
moles of a diatomic gas. The molecular specific heat
100  4107  I
 2 37.68  104 
of mixture at constant volume is R J/mol K; then 2  5102
4
I = 3A
the value of  will be _______. (Assume that the 7. Two light beams of intensities 4I and 9I interfere
given diatomic gas has no vibrational mode.) on a screen. The phase difference between these
beams on the screen at point A is zero and at point
Official Ans. by NTA (3)
B is . The difference of resultant intensities, at the
point A and B, will be _________ I.
n1Cv1  n 2 Cv2 Official Ans. by NTA (24)
Sol. CV / mix 
n1  n 2

3R 5R Sol. Inet = I1 + I2 + 2 I1 I2 cos 

1.  3.
= 2 2 Imax for   0 & Imin for   
1 3
    = 25 I
2 2
Imax = I1  I2 9I  4I
9R  2
=  R
=   4I   I
2 2
4 4 Imin I1  I 2 9I 
3
Imax – Imin = 25 I – I = 24 I

7
209
8. A wire of length 314 cm carrying current of 14 A As incident vector A makes i angle with normal
is bent to form a circle. The magnetic moment of z-axis & refracted vector R makes r angle with
the coil is _______ A-m2. [Given  = 3.14] normal z – axis with help of direction cosine

Official Ans. by NTA (11) A   5 

i  cos 1  Z   cos 1  
 A   
 (4 3)  (3 3)  5
2 2 2


5
 cos1    i  60o
 10 

2 sin 60  3  sin r
Sol.
r  45o
314
 2R R = 0.5 m Difference between i & r = 60 – 45 = 15
100
Magnetic Moment = IA 10. If the potential barrier across a p-n junction is

= 14 ×  R2 0.6 V. Then the electric field intensity, in the

1 depletion region having the width of 6×10–6m, will

= 14 × (3.14) ×
4 be _________ × 105 N/C.
= 10.99  11.00 Official Ans. by NTA (1)
9. The X-Y plane be taken as the boundary between
two transparent media M1 and M2. M1 in Z  0 has P – n Juction

P – Type + n – Type
a refractive index of 2 and M2 with Z < 0 has a E +
+
+
refractive index of 3 . A ray of light travelling in +
+
M1 along the direction given by the vector
Sol. D

A  4 3iˆ  3 3jˆ  5kˆ , is incident on the plane of

V Potential barrier Across Junction
E 
separation. The value of difference between the d width of Depletion layer
angle of incident in M1 and the angle of refraction
0.6V
in M2 will be ____________ degree. = 6
 1  105 V / m
6  10 m
Official Ans. by NTA (15) = 1 × 105 N/C

Sol. A  4 3iˆ  3 3jˆ  5kˆ

1 sin i =  2 sin r
8
210
 FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JULY, 2022
(Held On Friday 29th July, 2022) TIME : 9 : 00 AM to 12 : 00 NOON

CHEMISTRY TEST PAPER WITH SOLUTION

SECTION-A 3. 100 mL of 5% (w/v) solution of NaCl in water was
1. Which of the following pair of molecules contain prepared in 250 mL beaker. Albumin from the egg
odd electron molecule and an expanded octet
was poured into NaCl solution and stirred well.
molecule?
(A) BCl3 and SF6 (B) NO and H2SO4 This resulted in a/ an :
(C) SF6 and H2SO4 (D) BCl3 and NO (A) Lyophilic sol (B) Lyophobic sol
Official Ans. by NTA (B)
(C) Emulsion (D) Precipitate

Sol. (A) BCl3  Even Electron molecule Official Ans. by NTA (A)
SF6  Expanded octet molecule
(B) NO  Odd Electron molecule Sol. Standard method for the preparation of lyophilic
H2SO4  Expanded octet.
sol. (Discussed in lab Manual)
(C) SF6  Even Electron molecule
H2SO4  Expanded octet. 4. The first ionization enthalpy of Na, Mg and Si,
(D) BCl3  Even Electron molecule respectively, are: 496, 737 and 786 kJ mo1-1. The
NO  Odd Electron molecule first ionization enthalpy (kJ mol-1) of Al is:
O
(A) 487 (B) 768
N  O : and HO S OH
O (C) 577 (D) 856
S  12e- in outer orbit. Official Ans. by NTA (C)
2. N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g)
20 g 5 g
Consider the above reaction, the limiting reagent of Sol. I. E : Na < Al < Mg < Si
the reaction and number of moles of NH3 formed  496 < IE (Al) < 737
respectively are:
Option (C), matches the condition.
(A) H2, 1.42 moles (B) H2, 0.71 moles
(C) N2, 1.42 moles (D) N2, 0.71 moles   

Official Ans. by NTA (C)

5. In metallurgy the term "gangue" is used for:

Sol. (A) Contamination of undesired earthy materials.

N2 (g)  3H 2 (g) 2NH 3 (g) (B) Contamination of metals, other than desired
W2  20g 5g. metal
20 5 (C) Minerals which are naturally occuring in pure
n=
28 2
form
Stoichiometric Amount:
20 / 28 20 5/2 5 (D) Magnetic impurities in an ore.
N2   H2  
1 28 3 6 Official Ans. by NTA (A)
 N2 is the Limiting Reagent.
20
 n(NH3 )  2  n(N 2 )  2  Sol. Earthy and undesired materials present in the ore,
28
= 1.42 other then the desired metal, is known as gangue.

1
211
6. The reaction of zinc with excess of aqueous alkali, 8. Number of lone pairs of electrons in the central
evolves hydrogen gas and gives : atom of SCl2, O3, ClF3 and SF6, respectively, are :
(A) 0, 1, 2 and 2
(A) Zn(OH)2 (B) ZnO
(B) 2, 1, 2 and 0
(C) [Zn(OH)4]2- (D) [ZnO2]2-
(C) 1, 2, 2 and 0
Official Ans. by NTA (D) (D) 2, 1, 2 and 0
Official Ans. by NTA (B)
Sol. Zinc dissolves in excess of aqueous alkali
Zn + 2OH– + 2H2O  [Zn(OH)4]2– + H2 
Tetrahydroxozincate(II) ion
Sol.
However, this reaction in NCERT is given as
Zn  2NaOH  Na 2 ZnO2  H2 

ZnO 2–
2 is anhydrous form of [Zn(OH)4]
2–

So in aqueous medium best answer of this question

is [Zn(OH)4]2–
7. Lithium nitrate and sodium nitrate, when heated 9. In following pairs, the one in which both transition
separately, respectively, give :
metal ions are colourless is :
(A) LiNO2 and NaNO2
(A) Sc 3 , Zn2
(B) Li2O and Na2O
(B) Ti4  ,Cu2
(C) Li2O and NaNO2
(C) V 2 , Ti3
(D) LiNO2 and Na2O
Official Ans. by NTA (C) (D) Zn2 ,Mn2
Official Ans. by NTA (A)
Sol. Li2O, NaNO2
   
Sol.
As per NCERT Lithium nitrate when heated gives
lithium oxide, Li2O, whereas other alkali metal
nitrates decompose to give the corresponding    

nitrite.
4LiNO3 
 2Li 2 O  4NO2  O2 No d-d transitions in ions with do & d10
configuration. Therefore they are colourless.
2NaNO3 
 2NaNO2  O2
10. In neutral or faintly alkaline medium, KMnO4 being
However, the decomposition product of NaNO3 are a powerful oxidant can oxidize, thiosulphate almost
temperature dependent process as shown in the quantitatively, to sulphate. In this reaction overall
below reaction. change in oxidation state of manganese will be :

 1 (A) 5 (B) 1 (C) 0 (D) 3

NaNO3 C
NaNO2 (s) + O (g)
2 2
Official Ans. by NTA (D)
 800°C

Na 2O (s) + N2(g) + O2 (g)  

   
Sol.     
As temperature is not mentioned, we can go by
Change in oxidation state of Mn is from +7 to +4
Ans. (C)
which is 3.

2
212
11.
 Which among the following pairs has only 13. Which among the following pairs of the structures
will give different products on ozonolysis?
herbicides ? (Consider the double bonds in the structures are
rigid and not delocalized.)
(A) Aldrin and Dieldrin

(B) Sodium chlorate and Aldrin

(A)
(C) Sodium arsinate and Dieldrin

(D) Sodium chlorate and sodium arsinite.

(B)
Official Ans. by NTA (D)

Sol. Both sodium chlorate and sodium arsenite behave

(C)
as herbicide.

12. Which among the following is the strongest

(D)
Bronsted base ?

H3C H3C Official Ans. by NTA (C)

CH2 CH2
N: CH3 N:
(A) CH2 (B)
H2C CH2 H
CH3 CH3
Sol.
CH3

N N
(C) (D)
AgCN NaCN
A Cl 
(Major Product) C2 H5 OH-H2 O C2 H5 OH-H2O (Major Product)
14.
Official Ans. by NTA (D) Considering the above reactions, the compound 'A'
and compound 'B' respectively are :

(A) N C , NC
N
Sol. (B) CN , CN

(C) N C , CN
It is most basic because there is no amine
(D) CN, NC
inversion.
Official Ans. by NTA (C)

3
213
Sol.

Sol.
In NaCN; carbon is more nucleophilic atom.

Whereas in AgCN; Ag – C has covalent bond.

15.

OH
Cl
Consider the above reaction sequence, the Product NH3 Br2
16. A (C8 H6Cl2O) C8 H8ClNO
NaOH
‘C’ is : H2 N
Consider the above reaction, the compound ‘A’ is :
Br Br

(A)
(A)
CN
OH
O
Br Br
Cl
Cl
(B)
(B)
H3C
CHO O

Br Br
Cl

(C) (C) Cl

CH3
CHO
OH

Br Br
(D)
(D)

Official Ans. by NTA (C)

CN
Official Ans. by NTA (D)

4
214
 O
 O 18. Consider the following reaction sequence :
C NH2 NH2 NH2
Cl
NH3 Br2
Sol. Cl CH3
HCl NaOH
(i) AlH (i-Bu)2 CH3 CHO
Cl Cl A B
CH3 CH3 (ii) H2O dil NaOH,  (Major Product)

N  NCl CN
17. A
NaOH Product The product B is :
(Orange-red dye)

(A)
Which among the following represent reagent A?

OH
(B)
(A)

OH
(C)

(B) (D)

Official Ans. by NTA (B)

NH2
Sol.
NH2
NH2 NH2

(C) (i) AlH (i-Bu)2 CH3 CHO

(ii) H2O dil NaOH, 

CHO CH = CH CHO
CN
NH2
Cross aldol condensation
19. Which of the following compounds is an example
of hypnotic drug ?
(D) (A) Seldane (B) Amytal
(C) Aspartame (D) Prontosil
Official Ans. by NTA (B)
Official Ans. by NTA (A)
Sol. Amytal is hypnotic drug used to treat sleeping
disorder.

Sol.

+ O O
NN Cl N = N - Ph
OH OH NH HN
Basic
medium
O
Amytal

5
215
20. A compound 'X' is acidic and it is soluble in NaOH
Sol.  129m 1
A
solution, but insoluble in NaHCO3 solution.
KCl solution 1 :
Compound 'X' also gives violet colour with neutral
74.5 ppm, R1 = 100 
FeCI3 solution. The compound 'X' is :
OH OH KCl solution 2 :

149 ppm, R2 = 50 

(A) (B) 149 ppm, R2 = 50 

 W1 
ppm 1 M1  M0 V 
CH2 OH CH2 OH Here,    
ppm 2 M 2  V W2 
 M0 

1000
(C) (D) 1 
1 M1

 2   1000
2
M2
Official Ans. by NTA (B)
1 M2
= 
2 M1
OH
50
= 2
100
Sol. 6 + FeCl3 [Fe(C6 H5 O)6 ]3-
violet colour 1
=  1,000  10 3
2
SECTION-B
Ans. 1,000
1. Resistance of a conductivity cell (cell constant 129 m-l)
2. Ionic radii of cation A+ and anion B- are 102 and
filled with 74.5 ppm solution of KCl is 100 
181 pm respectively. These ions are allowed to
(labelled as solution 1). When the same cell is
crystallize into an ionic solid. This crystal has
filled with KCl solution of 149 ppm, the resistance
cubic close packing for B-. A+ is present in all
is 50  (labelled as solution 2). The ratio of molar
octahedral voids. The edge length of the unit cell
conductivity of solution 1 and solution 2 is i.e.
of the crystal AB is _____ pm. (Nearest Integer)
1
= x × 10-3. The value of x is _____. Official Ans. by NTA (512)
2

(Nearest integer)
Sol. a = 2(r+ + r–)
Given, molar mass of KCl is 74.5 g mol-1
a = 2 (102 + 181)
Official Ans. by NTA (1000)
a = 2(283)

a = 566 pm

6
216
3.
 The minimum uncertainty in the speed of an Sol. HNO3 NaOH
600 mL × 0.2 M 400 mL × 0.1 M
electron in an one dimensional region of length 2aO = 120 m mol = 40 m mol
HNO3 + NaOH  NaNO3 + H2O
(Where a0 = Bohr radius 52.9 pm) is _____km s-1.
Bef. 120 40
Aft. 80 0 40 m mol
(Given : Mass of electron = 9.l × 10-31 kg, Planck's
J
 r H  40 m mol  (57  10 3 )
constant h = 6.63 × 10-34 Js) mol
J
 40  10 3 mol  57  10 3
Official Ans. by NTA (548) mol
= 2280 J
m ST  2280
1gm
Sol. Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle  1000 mL   4,2  T  2280
mL
2280
h T   10 3
x  p x  4.2
4
22800
  10 3
h 42
 2a 0  mv x  (minimum)
4 = 542.86 × 10-3
T  54.286 102 K
h 1 1 T  54.286 102 0 C
 v x   
4 2a 0 m
Ans. 54.286
Answer mentioned as 54 (Closest integer)
6.63  10 34
=
4  3.14  2  52.9  10 12  9.1  10 31 5. If O2 gas is bubbled through water at 303 K, the
number of millimoles of O2 gas that dissolve in
= 548273 ms-1 1 litre of water is_______. (Nearest Integer)
(Given : Henry's Law constant for O2 at 303 K is
= 548.273 km s-1
46.82 k bar and partial pressure of O2 = 0.920 bar)
(Assume solubility of O2 in water is too small,
= 548 km s1
nearly negligible)
Official Ans. by NTA (1)
4. When 600 mL of 0.2 M HNO3 is mixed with

400 mL of 0.1M NaOH solution in a flask, the rise Sol. p  KH  x

mol of O2
in temperature of the flask is _______ × 10-2 0C. 0.920  46.82  103 bar 
bar molof H2 O

(Enthalpy of neutralisation = 57 kJ mo1-1 and mol of O2

0.920  46.82  103 
1000
Specific heat of water = 4.2 JK-1 g-1) 18
0.920 = 46.82 × n o2
(Neglect heat capacity of flask) 0.920
p  n 02
46.82  18
Official Ans. by NTA (54)  1.09 10 3  n 02
 m molof O2  1

7
217
6. If the solubility product of PbS is 8 × 10-28, then Sol. In Tetrapeptide,
the solubility of PbS in pure water at 298 K is No. of Amino Acids = 4
-l6 -1
x × 10 mol L . The value of x is ________. No. of Peptide bonds = 3
(Nearest Integer) Hence
[Given 2 = 1.41] Ans. = 1
Official Ans. by NTA (282) 9. In bromination of Propyne, with Bromine 1, 1, 2,
2-tetrabromopropane is obtained in 27% yield. The
2
Sol. Ksp = S amount of 1, 1, 2, 2 tetrabromopropane obtained

S = K sp  8  10 28  2 2  10 14 from 1 g of Bromine in this reaction is ______ ×

10-1 g. (Nearest integer)
= 2.82 × 10-14
= 282 ×10-16 (Molar Mass : Bromine = 80 g/mol)
Ans. = 282 Official Ans. by NTA (3)
7. The reaction between X and Y is first order with
respect to X and zero order with respect to Y. Br Br
| |
[X] [Y] Initial rate Sol. CH3  C  CH  2Br2  CH 3  C  CH
Experiment
mol L1 mol L1 mol L1 min 1 | |
I. 0.1 0.1 2  10 3 Br Br
II. L 0.2 4  10 3
1 1
III. 0.4 0.4 M  10 3 =   360  0.27
160 2
IV. 0.1 0.2 2  10 3
= 0.30375
Examine the data of table and calculate ratio of
= 3.0375 × 10-1
numerical values of M and L. (Nearest Inetger)
Ans. = 3
Official Ans. by NTA (40)
10. [Fe(CN)6]3- should be an inner orbital complex.
Ignoring the pairing energy, the value of crystal
Sol. r = k [x] [y]0 = k [x]
field stabilization energy for this complex is (–)
Using I & II
_________ o. (Nearest integer)
4  10 3  L 
   L  0.2
2  10 3  0.1  Official Ans. by NTA (2)
Using I & III
M  10 3 0.4 Sol. [Fe(CN)6]3-
  M 8
2  10 3 0.1
CN– is strong field ligand
M 8
  40
L 0.2 Fe+3 3d5 ( t 52g e0g )
Ans. 40
eg
8. In a linear tetrapeptide (Constituted with different 5
3d
amino acids), (number of amino acids) - (number t2g
of peptide bonds) is______.
CFSE = 5 (–0.4 0) = –2.0 0
Official Ans. by NTA (1)
Ans. (2)

8
218
 Final JEE-Main Exam July, 2022/29-07-2022/Morning Session

FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JULY, 2022

(Held On Friday 29th July, 2022) TIME : 9 : 00 AM to 12 : 00 NOON

MATHEMATICS TEST PAPER WITH SOLUTION

SECTION-A Sol. AB = 0 Þ |AB| = 0
1. Let R be a relation from the set {1, 2, 3………,60} |A| |B|= 0
to itself such that R = {(a, b) : b = pq, where
|A|= 0 |B|= 0
p, q ³ 3 are prime numbers}. Then, the number of
elements in R is : If |A| ¹ 0, B = 0 (not possible)
If |B| ¹ 0, A = 0 (not possible)
(A) 600 (B) 660 Hence |A| = |B| = 0
(C) 540 (D) 720 Þ AX = 0 has infinitely many solutions
1 1
Official Ans. by NTA (B) 4. If + + ……+
(20 – a) (40 – a) (40 – a) (60 – a)
1 1
= , then the maximum value
(180 – a) (200 – a) 256
Sol. Number of possible values of a = 60, for b = pq, of a is :
If p = 3, q = 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19 (A) 198 (B) 202
(C) 212 (D) 218
If p = 5 q = 5, 7, 11 Official Ans. by NTA (C)
If p = 7 q = 7
Total cases = 60 ´ 11 = 660 Sol. By splitting
5
2. If z = 2 + 3i, then z5 + (–z) is equal to : 1 éæ 1 1 ö æ 1 1 ö
20 ê ç 20 - a - 40 - a ÷ + ç 40 - a - 60 - a ÷
(A) 244 (B) 224 ëè ø è ø
(C) 245 (D) 265 æ 1 1 öù
+... + ç - ÷ú
Official Ans. by NTA (A) è 180 - a 200 - a ø û
1 æ 1 1 ö 1
Þ – =
20 è 20 – a 200 – a ø 256
z 5 + ( z ) = ( 2 + 3i ) + (2 - 3i)5
5 5
Sol.
(20 – a) (200 – a) = 256 ´ 9
= 2(5 C0 25 + 5 C2 23 (3i) 2 +5 C4 21 (3i )4 )
a2 – 220a + 1696 = 0
= 2 (32 + 10 ´ 8 (– 9) + 5 ´2 ´ 81) = 244 a = 8, 212
3. Let A and B be two 3 ´ 3 non-zero real matrices Hence maximum value of a is 212.
such that AB is a zero matrix. Then a e x + b e - x + g sin x 2
5. If lim = ,
(A) The system of linear equations AX = 0 has a x ®0 x sin 2 x 3
unique solution where a, b,g Î R, then which of the following is
(B) The system of linear equations AX = 0 has NOT correct ?
infinitely many solutions (A) a2 + b2 + g2 = 6
(C) B is an invertible matrix (B) ab + bg + ga + 1 = 0
(D) adj (A) is an invertible matrix
(C) ab2 + bg2 + ga2 + 3 = 0
Official Ans. by NTA (B) (D) a2 – b2 + g2 = 4
Official Ans. by NTA (C)

1
219
 Final JEE-Main Exam July 2022/29-07-2022/Morning Session
Sol. 7. Let the solution curve y = y (x) of the differential

equation (1 + e2x) æ ö
æ x 2
x 3
ö æ x 2
x 3
ö æ x 3
ö dy
lim a çè1 + x + 2! + 3! + ...÷ø + b çè1 - x + 2! - 3! + ...÷ø + g çè x - 3! + ...÷ø è dx + yø = 1 pass through the
x®0 x3
pö
constant terms should be zero point æ0, . Then, lim exy(x) is equal to :
è 2ø x®¥
Þa+b=0
p 3p
coeff of x should be zero (A) (B)
4 4
Þa–b+g=0 p 3p
(C) (D)
2
coeff of x should be zero 2 2
Official Ans. by NTA (B)
æα β γö æα β γö
x3 ç - - ÷ + x 4 ç - - ÷
lim è
3! 3! 3! ø è 3! 3! 3! ø =
x ®0 3
x 3 dy 1
Sol. +y=
a b dx 1 + e2 x
Þ + =0
2 2
So integrating factor is e ò = e x
1.dx
a b g
– – = 2/3
6 6 6
Þ a = 1, b = – 1, g = – 2
( )
So solution is y × e x = tan -1 e x + c

p
2 æ pö
1 Now as curve is passing through ç 0, ÷ so
6. The integral ò0 3 + 2sin x + cos x dx is equal to: è 2ø
p
–1 p –1
Þ c=
(A) tan (2) (B) tan (2) – 4
4
p æ p ö 3p
Þ lim ( y × e x ) = lim ç tan -1 ( e x ) + ÷ =
1 –1 1
(C) tan (2) – (D)
2 8 2 x ®¥ x ®¥
è 4ø 4
8. Let a line L pass through the point of intersection
Official Ans. by NTA (B) of the lines bx + 10y – 8 = 0 and 2x – 3y = 0,
ì4ü
bÎR–í ý. If the line L also passes through the
Sol. î3þ
point (1, 1) and touches the circle 17 (x2 + y2) = 16,
p x p x2 y2
2 sec 2 .dx 2 then the eccentricity of the ellipse + 2 = 1 is :
dx 5 b
I =ò =ò 2
0
3 + 2sin x + cos x 0 2 tan 2 x x
+ 4 tan + 4 2 3
(A) (B)
2 2 5 5

x 1 2
Put tan = t , so (C)
5
(D)
5
2
Official Ans. by NTA (B)
1
dt p
I =ò ( x + 1) 0
-1 1 -1
= tan = tan 2 -
( t + 1) +1
2
0 4
Sol. Line is passing through intersection of
bx + 10 y - 8 = 0 and 2 x - 3 y = 0 is
( bx + 10 y - 8) + l ( 2 x - 3 y ) = 0 . As line is
passing through (1,1) so l = b + 2

2
220
 Final JEE-Main Exam July 2022/29-07-2022/Morning Session
r r r
Now line ( 3b + 4 ) x - ( 3b - 4 ) y - 8 = 0 is 10. Let a = 3$i + $j and b = $i + 2 $j + k$ . Let c be
r r r r r
(
tangent to circle 17 x 2 + y 2 = 16 ) a vector satisfying
r r
( )
a ´ b ´ c = b + lc . If

8 4 b and c are non-parallel, then the value of l is :

So =
(A) – 5 (B) 5
( 3b + 4 ) + ( 3b - 4 )
2 2
17
(C) 1 (D) – 1
Official Ans. by NTA (A)

Þ b2 = 2 Þ e =
3 r
5 Sol. a = 3iˆ + ˆj, b = iˆ + 2 ˆj + kˆ
r r r r r
9. If the foot of the perpendicular from the point ( )
As a ´ b ´ c = b + lc
rr r rr r r r
A(– 1, 4, 3) on the plane P : 2x + my + nz = 4, is () ( )
Þ a.c b - a.b c = b + λc
æ– 2, 7, 3ö, then the distance of the point A from r r r r
è 2 2ø Þ a × c = 1, a × b = - l

the plane P, measured parallel to a line with ( )(

Þ 3iˆ + ˆj . ˆi + 2ˆj + kˆ = -λ )
direction ratios 3, – 1, – 4, is equal to : Þl= -5
11. The angle of elevation of the top of a tower from a
(A) 1 (B) 26 point A due north of it is a and from a point B at a
(C) 2 2 (D) 14 distance of 9 units due west of A is
cos– 1 æç
3 ö
÷. If the distance of the point B from the
Official Ans. by NTA (B) è 13ø
tower is 15 units, then cot a is equal to :
6 9
Sol. (A) (B)
5 5
A(–1,4,3) 4 7
(C) (D)
3 3
Official Ans. by NTA (A)
(3,–1,–4)
C B Sol.
P

æ 7 3ö h
Let B be foot of ^ coordinates of B = ç -2, , ÷
è 2 2ø N

Direction ratio of line AB is < 2,1,3 > so

a O
m = 1, n = 3 b
W E
x +1 y - 4 z - 3 B 9 A
So equation of AC is = = =l
3 -1 -4 S
So point C is ( 3l - 1, -l + 4, -4l + 3) . But C lies
given OB = 15
on the plane, so 3
cos b =
6l - 2 - l + 4 - 12l + 9 = 4 13

Þ l = 1 Þ C ( 2,3, -1) 2
b
Þ AC = 26 3

2
tan b =
3

3
221
 Final JEE-Main Exam July 2022/29-07-2022/Morning Session
P 13. Let the circumcentre of a triangle with vertices
2
h A(a, 3), B(b, 5) and C(a, b), ab > 0 be P(1, 1). If
b the line AP intersects the line BC at the point
B O
15 Q(k1, k2), then k1 + k2 is equal to :
4 2
h (A) 2 (B) (C) (D) 4
tan b = 7 7
15
Official Ans. by NTA (B)
2 h
=
3 15
10 = h
O
15 B (b, 5)

E
(a, b) P(1,1)
B A
9
(0, b)
D
OA2 + AB2 = 225 (0, 3) A(a, 3)
OA2 + 81 = 225
OA = 12 (a, 0) (b, 0)
P

10 mAC ¾® ¥
a mPD = 0
A O
12
æa +a b+3ö
10 Dç , ÷
tan a = è 2 2 ø
12
cot a =
12 6
= æ b+3ö
D ç a, ÷
10 5 è 2 ø
mPD = 0
12. The statement (p Ù q) Þ (p Ù r) is equivalent to :
(A) q Þ (p Ù r) (B) p Þ (p Ù r)
b+3
-1 = 0
(C) (p Ù r) Þ (p Ù q) (D) (p Ù q) Þ r 2
Official Ans. by NTA (D) b+3–2=0
b = -1
Sol. ( p Ù q ) Þ ( p Ù r )
æ b + a 5 + b ö æ af ö
~ (p Ù q) Ú (p Ù r) Eç , ÷ = ç ,2÷
è 2 2 ø è2 ø
( ~ pÚ ~ q ) Ú ( p Ù r ) mCB . mEP = –1
(~ p Ú ( p Ù r )) Ú ~ q æ ö
(~ p Ú p) Ù (~ p Ú r ) Ú ~ q æ 5 - b ö ç 2 -1 ÷
ç ÷=ç ÷ = -1
(~ p Ú r ) Ú ~ q è b - a ø ç a -1 -1 ÷
è 2 ø
( ~ pÚ ~ q ) Ú r æ 6 ö æ 2 ö
ç ÷=ç ÷ = -1
~ (p Ù q) Ú r è -1 - a ø è a - 3 ø
12 = (1 + a) (a – 3)
(p Ù q) Þ r 12 = a2 –3a + a –3
Þ a2 – 2a – 15 = 0
(a – 5) (a + 3) = 0

4
222
 Final JEE-Main Exam July 2022/29-07-2022/Morning Session
a = 5 or a = –3 p
Sol. â ^ bˆ = = f
Given ab > 0 4
a(–1) > 0 aˆ . b = aˆ b cos f
ˆ ˆ
–a > 0
1
a<0 â.bˆ = cos f =
2
a = -3 Accept
AP line A (–3, 3) P(1, 1)
cos q =
( )(
aˆ + b . aˆ + 2bˆ + 2 aˆ ´ bˆ
ˆ ( ))
y–1= ç
æ 3 -1 ö
÷ (x - 1)
aˆ + bˆ aˆ + 2bˆ + 2 aˆ ´ bˆ ( )
è -3 - 1 ø
( )( )
2
–2y + 2 = x – 1 aˆ + bˆ = aˆ + bˆ . aˆ + bˆ
Þ x + 2y = 3 Appling .....(1) 2
aˆ + bˆ = 2 + 2 aˆ .bˆ
Line BC B(–1, 5)
C(–3, –1) =2+ 2
6 aˆ ´ bˆ = aˆ bˆ sin f nˆ
( y - 5) = (x + 1)
2
n̂
y –5 = 3x + 3 â ´ bˆ = when n̂ is vector ^ â and b̂
2
y = 3x + 8 .....(2)
r
let c = aˆ ´ bˆ
Solving (1) & (2)
x + 2 (3x + 8) = 3
Þ 7x + 16 = 3 We know.
r r
7x = –13 c.a = 0
13 r r
x=- c.b = 0
7 r2
â + 2bˆ + 2c
æ 13 ö
y = 3ç - ÷ + 8
è 7ø
=1+4+
( 4 ) + 4 a.b ˆ r + 4 c.
ˆ ˆ + 8 b.c
r
aˆ
-39 + 56 2
=
7 4
=7+ =7+2 2
17 2
y=
7 Now

x+y =
-13 + 17 4
= ( aˆ + bˆ ). ( aˆ + 2bˆ + 2cr )
7 7
2 2
= aˆ + 2 aˆ . bˆ + 0 + bˆ . aˆ + 2 bˆ + 0
14. Let a$ and b$ be two unit vectors such that the 2 1
=1+ + +2
p 2 2
angle between them is . If q is the angle between
4
3

( a$ + b$ ) and ( a$ + 2b$ + 2 ( a$ ´ b$ ) ) ,
=3+
the vectors 2
3
3+
then the value of 164 cos2q is equal to : 2
cos q =
(A) 90 + 27 2 (B) 45 + 18 2 2+ 2 7+2 2

( )
2
(C) 90 + 3 2 (D) 54 + 90 2 9 2 +1
cos q =
2

Official Ans. by NTA (A) (

2 2+ 2 7+2 2 )( )

5
223
 Final JEE-Main Exam July 2022/29-07-2022/Morning Session

æ 9 ö
cos2 q = ç
2 +1 ( ) dt
= dr
÷
( )
t
è2 2 ø 7+2 2 3
1
= ò rdr
164 cos2 q =
( 82 )( 9 ) ( 2 + 1) ( 7 – 2 2 ) ln10 0
3

(7 + 2 2 ) (7 – 2 2 ) æ 1 öæ r ö
2
2 =ç ÷ç ÷
è ln10 ø è 2 ø 0
( 82 ) ( 9 ) éë 7 2 – 4 + 7 – 2 2 ùû
=ç
æ 1 öæ 9 ö
= ÷ç ÷
2 ( 41) è log10 ø è 2 ø

( )
9
= 9 2 éë5 2 + 3ùû =
2 log e 10
= 90 + 27 2 16. The area of the region

15. If f (a) =
a
log10 t
ò1 1 + t dt ,a > 0 , then f (e ) + f (e3 –3
) {( x, y) :| x - 1|£ y £ 5 - x2 } is equal to :

(A) sin– 1 æ ö –
5 3 1 5p 3
(B) –
is equal to : 2 è 5ø 2 4 2
9 3p 3 5p 1
(A) 9 (B) (C) + (D) –
2 4 2 4 2
9 9 Official Ans. by NTA (D)
(C) (D)
loge(10) 2 loge(10)
Official Ans. by NTA (D)
Sol.

e3
ln t
ò ln10 (1 + t ) dt ...... (1)
3
Sol. f(e ) =
1
a
ln t
f(a) = ò ( ln10 )(1 + t ) dt
1

1 1
t= Þx=
x t
–1
dt = 2 dx
x
1
x - 1 < y < 5 - x2
a
– ln x æ 1 ö
= ò
1 ln10 æ 1 +
1ö ç – x 2 ÷ dx
è ø
When x - 1= 5 - x2
( )ç ÷
è xø
Þ ( x - 1) = 5 - x 2
2
1
a
1 lnx Þ x2 - x - 2 = 0
f(a) =
ln10 ò x ( x + 1) dx
1
Þ x = 2, -1
e3
1 lnt
f(e–3) = ò
ln10 1 t ( t + 1)
dt ........(2) Required Area = Area of DABC + Area of region

Add (1) & (2) BCD

f(e3) + f(e–3) 1 0 1
p
( 5) ( 5)
e3 1 1
lnt é 1 ù
2 2
æ 1 ö = 2 1 1+ -
=ç ÷ ò ê1 + ú dt
è ln10 ø 1 (1 + t ) ë t û 2 4 2
-1 2 1
æ 1 ö lnt
3
=ç ÷ò dt
=
5p 1
-
è ln10 ø 1 t
4 2
lnt = r
6
224
 Final JEE-Main Exam July 2022/29-07-2022/Morning Session
17. Let the focal chord of the parabola P : y2 = 4x 2x 2
y= -
along the line L : y = mx + c, m > 0 meet the 3 3
parabola at the points M and N. Let the line L be a y2 = 4x
2
2 2 æ 2x - 2 ö
tangent to the hyperbola H : x – y = 4. If O is the Þç ÷ = 4x
vertex of P and F is the focus of H on the positive è 3 ø
Þ x2 +1 – 2x = 3x
x-axis, then the area of the quadrilateral OMFN is :
Þ x 2 - 5x + 1 = 0
(A) 2 6 (B) 2 14
æ 3y + 2 ö
y 2 = 4 çç ÷
2 ÷ø
(C) 4 6 (D) 4 14
è
Official Ans. by NTA (B)
y2 = 2 3 y + 4
Þ y 2 - 2 3y - 4 = 0
(x1,y1)
M Area
1 0 x1 2 2 x2 0
2 0 y1 0
(0,0) O (
F 2 2, 0 ) y2 0
1é
N = -2 2y1 + 2 2y 2 ù
(x2,y2) 2ë û

O (0,0)
y=mx+C
= 2 y 2 - y1 =
( 2) 12 + 16
Sol.
111
x2 y 2 =56
H: - =1
4 4 = 2 14
Focus (ae, 0) 18. The number of points, where the function
(
F 2 2, 0 ) f : R ® R, f (x) = |x – 1| cos |x – 2| sin |x – 1| +
Line L : y = mx + c pass (1,0) (x – 3) |x2 – 5x + 4|, is NOT differentiable, is :

o = m + C ........(1) (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

Official Ans. by NTA (B)
x2 y 2
Line L is tangent to Hyperbola. - = 1
4 4
Sol. f(x) = |x – 1| cos |x – 2| sin |x – 1| + (x – 3)| x2 – 5x
C = ± a 2m 2 - l 2 + 4|
= |x – 1| cos |x – 2| sin |x – 1| + (x – 3)| x – 1||x – 4|
C = ± 4m 2 - 4
= |x – 1| [cos |x – 2| sin |x – 1| + (x – 3) |x – 4|]
From (1)
Non differentiable at x = 1 and x = 4.
- m = ± 4m 2 - 4
19. Let S = {1, 2, 3, …, 2022}. Then the probability,
Squaring
that a randomly chosen number n from the set S
m2 = 4m2 – 4
4 = 3m2 such that HCF (n, 2022) = 1, is :
128 166
2 (A) (B)
= m (as m > 0) 1011 1011
3
127 112
C = –m (C) (D)
337 337
-2
C= Official Ans. by NTA (D)
3

7
225
 Final JEE-Main Exam July 2022/29-07-2022/Morning Session
Sol. Total number of elements = 2022 Official Ans. by NTA (D)
2022 = 2×3×337
HCF (n, 2022) = 1
( x - 2)
3

Sol. f ( x ) = 81.3
2

is feasible when the value of 'n' and 2022 has no

common factor.
( x - 2)
.ln3.3 ( x 2 - 2 ) .2x
3

f ' ( x ) = 81.3
2 2
A = Number which are divisible by 2 from
{1,2,3.....2022}
( x -2 )
x ( x 2 - 2 ) ln3
3

= ( 81´ 6 ) 3
2 2
n(A) = 1011
B = Number which are divisible by 3 by 3
from {1,2,3......2022} +
+ – +
n(B) = 674
AIB = Number which are divisible by 6 0

from {1,2,3........2022} x = 6 is point of local min

6,12,18........., 2022
x ( x 2 - 2)
( x -2 )
3

f ' ( x ) = ( 486.ln3) 3
2 2

337 = n ( A I B ) 144424443 144444442444444 43

k g( x )

n(AUB) = n(A) + n(B) – n(AIB) ( x - 2) ( x -2 )

(x - 2 ) + x.3 .4x. ( x 2 - 2 )
3 3

g '( x ) = 3
2 2 2
2

= 1011+ 674 –337

( x -2 )
+ x. ( x - 2 ) .3 ln3.3 ( x 2 - 2 ) .2x
3
= 1348 2 2 2 2

C= Number which divisible by 337 from

( x -2)
(x - 2 ) éê x 2 - 2 + 4x 2 + 6x 2 ln3 ( x 2 - 2 ) ùú
3
{1,........1022} 2 3
=3 2
ë û
C= {337,674,1011,1348,1685,20222}
( x -2)
(x - 2 ) éê5x 2 - 2 + 6x 2 ln3 ( x 2 - 2 ) ùú
3

g '( x ) = 3
2 3
2
ë û
Already Already Already
f "( x ) = k.g ' ( x )
counted in counted in counted in
Set (AÈB) Set (AÈB) Set (AÈB)
Total elements which are divisible by 2 or 3 or 337
f" ( 2 ) = 0, f "( 2
+
) > 0, f "( 2 ) < 0 -

= 1348 +2 = 1350 x = 2 is point of inflection

Favourable cases = Element which are neither
f"(x) > 0 for x > 2 so f'(x) is increasing
divisible by 2, 3 or 337
= 2022 – 1350 SECTION-B
= 672 1. Let S = {q Î (0, 2p) : 7 cos2q – 3 sin2q – 2
672 112 cos22q = 2}. Then, the sum of roots of all the
Required probability = =
2022 337 equations x2 – 2 (tan2q + cot2q) x + 6 sin2q = 0
q Î S, is________.
- 2)3 + 4
f ( x ) = 3( x
2
20. Let , x Î R. Then which of the Official Ans. by NTA (16)
following statements are true ?
P : x = 0 is a point of local minima of f Sol. 7cos2q – 3sin2q – 2cos22q = 2
4 cos q + 3cos2q – 2cos 2q = 2
2 2
Q : x = 2 is a point of inflection of f
2 (1 + cos 2q) + 3cos 2q – 2 cos22q = 2
R : f’ is increasing for x > 2 2 cos22q – 5 cos2q = 0
(A) Only P and Q (B) Only P and R cos2q (2cos2q – 5) = 0
cos2q = 0
(C) Only Q and R (D) All, P, Q and R

8
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 Final JEE-Main Exam July 2022/29-07-2022/Morning Session
p Sol. (a,–4a,–7) ^ to (3,–1,2b)
2q = (2n + 1)
2 a = 2b …(i)
p (a,–4a,–7) ^ to (b,a,–2)
q = (2n + 1) 3a + 4a – 14b = 0
4 2
ì p 3p 5 p 7p ü ab – 4a + 14 = 0 ….(ii)
S =í , , , ý From Equations (i) and (ii)
î4 4 4 4 þ 2b2 – 16b2 + 14 = 0
For all four values of q b2 = 1
x – 2 (tan q + cot q) x + 6 sin q = 0
2 2 2 2
a2 = 4b2 = 4
Þ x – 4x + 3 = 0
2
x+1 y–2 z
= = =k
Sum of roots of all four equations = 4 ´ 4 = 16. 5 3 1
a = 5k – 1, b = 3k + 2, g = k
2. Let the mean and the variance of 20 observations As (a, b, g) satisfies x – y + z = 0
x1, x2,…x20 be 15 and 9, respectively. For a Î R, if 5k – 1 – (3k + 2) + k = 0
k=1
the mean of (x1 + a)2, (x2 + a)2,…, (x20 + a)2 is 178, \ a + b + g = 9k + 1 = 10
¥
then the square of the maximum value of a is 4. Let a1 , a2 , a3 ,... be an A.P. If å rr
a
= 4 , then
2 r =1
equal to ______.
4 a2 is equal to ________.
Official Ans. by NTA (4)

Official Ans. by NTA (16)

Sol. å x = 15 ´ 20 = 300
1 ...( )
Sol. S=
a1 a2 a3
+ + + ....
å x - (15) = 9
2 2 22 23
1 2
...(ii ) S
=
a1 a2
+ + ...
20 2 2 2 23
åx 2
1 = 234 ´ 20 = 4680 S a1 æ 1 1 ö
= + d ç 2 + 3 + ... ÷
2 2 è2 2 ø
å (x1 + a )2
= 178 Þ å ( x1 + a ) 2 = 3560 æ 1 ö
20 S a1 ç ÷
= + dç 4 ÷
2 2 1
Þ å x12 + 2a å x1 + å a 2 = 3560 ç1- ÷
è 2ø

4680 + 600a + 20a 2 = 3560 \ S = a1 + d = a2 = 4

Þ a 2 + 30a + 56 = 0 Or 4a2 = 16

Þ (a + 28)(a + 2) = 0 5. Let the ratio of the fifth term from the beginning to
a = -2, -28 the fifth term from the end in the binomial
n
Square of maximum value of a is 4 æ 1 ö
expansion of ç 4 2 + 4 ÷ , in the increasing
3. Let a line with direction ratios a, –4a, –7 be è 3ø

perpendicular to the lines with direction ratios 3, 1 4

powers of 4
be 6 : 1. If the sixth term from
–1, 2b and b, a, –2. If the point of intersection of 3

x+1 y–2 z the beginning is a , then a is equal to _______.

the line 2 2 = 2 2 = and the plane 4
a +b a –b 1 3
x – y + z = 0 is (a, b, g), then a + b + g is equal to Official Ans. by NTA (84)
__________.
Official Ans. by NTA (10)

9
227
 Final JEE-Main Exam July 2022/29-07-2022/Morning Session

Sol.
T5 n
C (21/4 ) n - 4 (3-1/ 4 ) 4
= n 4 1/ 4 4 -1/ 4 n -4 =
4
6 P! ( P + 1)! ( P + 2 )!
Tn - 3 Cn - 4 (2 ) (3 ) 1 Sol. D = ( P + 1)! ( P + 2 )! ( P + 3 )!
( P + 2 )! ( P + 3 )! ( P + 4 )!
n -8 n -8
Þ2 4
3 4
= 61/4
1 1 1
D = P! ( P + 1)! ( P + 2 )! P +1 P+2 P+3
Þ6 n-8
=6
( P + 2 )( P + 1) ( P + 3 )( P + 2 ) ( P + 4 )( P + 3)
Þ n - 8 =1Þ n = 9
D = 2P!( P + 1)!( P + 2 )!
84
T6 =9C 5 (21/4 )4 (3-1/4 )5 =
Which is divisible by Pa & ( P + 2 )
4
3 b

\a = 84
\a = 3, b = 1
6. The number of matrices of order 3 ´ 3, whose
Ans. 4
entries are either 0 or 1 and the sum of all the
1 1 1
8. If + + +…+
entries is a prime number, is______. 2´3´4 3´4´5 4´5´6

Official Ans. by NTA (282) 1 k

= , then 34 k is equal to
100 ´ 101 ´ 102 101

_____.
é a11 a12 a13 ù
A = êêa 21 a 23 úú a ij Î{0,1}
Official Ans. by NTA (286)
Sol. a 22
êëa 31 a 32 a 33 úû

åa ij = 2,3, 5, 7
Sol.
1
+
1
+ ..... +
1
=
k
2.3.4 3.4.5 100.101.102 101
Total matrix = 9 C2 +9 C3 +9 C5 +9 C7
4-2 5-3 102 - 100 2k
+ + ..... + =
= 282 2.3.4 3.4.5 100.101.102 101

1 1 1 1 1 1 2k
7. Let p and p + 2 be prime numbers and let - + - + ..... + - =
2.3 3.4 3.4 4.5 100.101 101.102 101

p! ( p + 1)! ( p + 2)! 1 1 2k
- =
D = ( p + 1)! ( p + 2)! ( p + 3)! 2.3 101.102 101
( p + 2)! ( p + 3)! ( p + 4)!
101 1
\ 2k = -
6 102
Then the sum of the maximum values of a and b,
\34k = 286
such that pa and (p + 2)b divide D, is _________.
9. Let S = {4, 6, 9} and T = {9, 10, 11, …, 1000}. If
Official Ans. by NTA (4)
A = {a1 + a2 + …+ ak : k Î N, a1, a2, a3, …,ak Î S},

then the sum of all the elements in the set T – A is

equal to ______.

10
228
 Final JEE-Main Exam July 2022/29-07-2022/Morning Session
Official Ans. by NTA (11) Sol. Image of centre c1 º (1,3) in x – y + 1 = 0 is given

by

Sol. S={4,6,9} T = {9,10,11….1000} x1 - 1 y1 - 3 -2 (1 - 3 + 1)

= =
-1 12 + 12
A{a1 + a 2 + ..... + a k : K Î N} & a i Î S
1
Þ x1 = 2,y1 = 2
Here by the definition of set ‘A’
\ Centre of circle c2 º ( 2,2 )
A = {a : a = 4x + 6y + 9z}
38
Except the element 11, every element of set T is of \ Equation of c2 be x 2 + y 2 - 4x - 4y + =0
of the form 4x + 6y + 9z for some x, y, z ÎW 5
\ T – A = {11}
38 2
Ans. 11 Now radius of c2 is 4+4- = =r
2 2 5 5
10. Let the mirror image of a circle c1 : x + y – 2x –
6y + a = 0 in line y = x + 1 be c2 : 5x + 5y + 10gx
2 2
(radius of c1)2 = (radius of c2)2
+ 10fy + 38 = 0. If r is the radius of circle c2, then 2 48
a + 6r2 is equal to ________ Þ 10 - a = Þa=
5 5
Official Ans. by NTA (12)
48 12
\a + 6r 2 = + = 12
5 5

11
229
 FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JULY, 2022
(Held On Friday 29th July, 2022) TIME : 3 : 00 PM to 06 : 00 PM

PHYSICS TEST PAPER WITH SOLUTION

SECTION-A Choose the correct answer from the options given
1. Two identical metallic spheres A and B when below:
placed at certain distance in air repel each other
with a force of F. Another identical uncharged (A) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
sphere C is first placed in contact with A and then (B) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
in contact with B and finally placed at midpoint (C) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
between spheres A and B. The force experienced
by sphere C will be : (D) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(A) 3F/2 (B) 3F/4 Official Ans. by NTA (B)
(C) F (D) 2F
Official Ans. by NTA (B)
Sol. Torque = F  r Nm
Sol. Let qA = qB = q Force
r 2 Stress = N/m2
A B F  Kq Area
r2
Energy
When C is placed in contact with A, charge on A Latent heat = J Kg–1
Mass
q
& C will be = Work
2 Power = N ms–1
Now C is placed in contact with B, charge on B & Time
q A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
q
C will be = 2  3q
3. Two identical thin metal plates has charge q1and q2
2 4
Now, respectively such that q1 > q2. The plates were
3q brought close to each other to form a parallel plate
4
q F1 F2 3q capacitor of capacitance C. The potential
A C B
2 4
r r difference between them is :
2 2
 q1  q 2   q1  q 2 
 3q q (A) (B)
 K 4  K 2  3q C C
F'  F2  F1   .
r 2
4
(C)
 q1  q 2  (D)
2  q1  q 2 
4 2C C
2
3Kq 3F Official Ans. by NTA (C)
 2
 (B)
4r 4
2. Match List I with List II.
q1  q 2
List I List II Sol. Electric field between plates E 
2A 0
A. Torque I. Nms–1
B. Stress II. J kg–1 q1  q 2
V = Ed = d
Latent 2A 0
C. Heat III. Nm
q1  q 2
D. Power IV. Nm–2 V=
2C

1
230
4. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as 6. A wire X of length 50 cm carrying a current of 2 A
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. is placed parallel to a long wire Y of length 5 m.
Assertion A: Alloys such as constantan and The wire Y carries a current of 3 A. The distance
manganin are used in making standard resistance between two wires is 5 cm and currents flow in the
coils. same direction. The force acting on the wire Y is :
Y
Reason R: Constantan and manganin have very
X
small value of temperature coefficient of
resistance. 2A 3A
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below. 5cm
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(A) 1.2 × 10–5 N directed towards wire X.
explanation of A.
(B) 1.2 × 10–4 N directed away from wire X.
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct (C) 1.2 × 10–4 N directed towards wire X.
explanation of A. (D) 2.4 × 10–5 N directed towards wire X.
(C) A is true but R is false. Official Ans. by NTA (A)
(D) A is false but R is true.
Official Ans. by NTA (A) Sol. Force of interaction = I1 1 B12

0 I1I2
Sol. Theory based 
2r
1

5. A 1 m long wire is broken into two unequal parts

4 107  6  0.5
X and Y The X part of the wire is streched into 
2 5  102
another wire W. Length of W is twice the length of = 1.2 × 10–5 towards X
X and the resistance of W is twice that of Y. Find 7. A juggler throws balls vertically upwards with
the ratio of length of X and Y. same initial velocity in air. When the first ball
(A) 1 : 4 (B) 1 : 2 reaches its highest position, he throws the next
(C) 4 :1 (D) 2 : 1 ball. Assuming the juggler throws n balls per
Official Ans. by NTA (B) second, the maximum height the balls can reach is
(A) g/2n (B) g/n
 1– (C) 2gn (D) g/2n2
Official Ans. by NTA (D)
Sol. X Y
2
u
W Sol. Time taken by ball to reach highest point =
g
RX
 X
g
RY Y Frequency of throw = n
u
When wire is stretched to double of its length, then g
u
resistance becomes 4 times n
2
RW = 4RX = 2RY g
RX 1 u 2  n 
 H max  
RY 2 2g 2g
g
1
So. X
 2n 2
y 2

2
231
8. A circuit element X when connected to an a.c. 10. An  particle and a proton are accelerated from
supply of peak voltage 100 V gives a peak current rest through the same potential difference. The
of 5 A which is in phase with the voltage. A
ratio of linear momenta acquired by above two
second element Y when connected to the same a.c.
particals will be :
supply also gives the same value of peak current
 (A) 2 : 1 (B) 2 2 : 1
which lags behind the voltage by . If X and Y
2 (C) 4 2 : 1 (D) 8 : 1
are connected in series to the same supply, what
Official Ans. by NTA (B)
will be the rms value of the current in ampere ?
10 5 5
(A) (B) (C) 5 2 (D)
2 2 2 Sol. p  2mE  2mqV
Official Ans. by NTA (D)
p m q  4 2
  
pp mp q p 1 1
Sol. Element X should be resistive with R = 20
2 2
Element Y should be inductive with XL = 20 
1
When X and Y are connector in series
11. Read the following statements:
Z  X 2L  R 2  20 2
(A) Volume of the nucleus is directly proportional
E0 100 5 to the mass number.
I0    A
Z 20 2 2 (B) Volume of the nucleus is independent of mass
I0 5
Irms   A number.
2 2
(C) Density of the nucleus is directly proportional
9. An unpolarised light beam of intensity 2I0 is
to the mass number.
passed through a polaroid P and then through
(D) Density of the nucleus is directly proportional
another polaroid Q which is oriented in such a way
to the cube root of the mass number.
that its passing axis makes an angle of 30° relative
(E) Density of the nucleus is independent of the
to that of P. The intensity of the emergent light is
mass number.
I I 3I 3I
(A) 0 (B) 0 (C) 0 (D) 0
4 2 4 2 Choose the correct option from the following
Official Ans. by NTA (C) options.
(A) (A) and (D) only. (B) (A) and (E) only.
(C) (B) and (E) only. (D) (A) and (C) only
2I0 I1 I2 Official Ans. by NTA (B)
Sol.
1
I1   2I0   I0 Sol. R  A1/3
2
I2 = I1 cos230º 4
V  R 3  A
3 3I 3
 I0 .  0
4 4 Mass  A
So density is independent of A.

3
232
12. An object of mass 1 kg is taken to a height from 14. Two bodies of masses m1 = 5 kg and m2 = 3 kg are
the surface of earth which is equal to three times connected by a light string going over a smooth
the radius of earth. The gain in potential energy of light pulley on a smooth inclined plane as shown in
the object will be
the figure. The system is at rest. The force exerted
[If, g=10ms–2 and radius of earth = 6400 km]
by the inclined plane on the body of mass m1 will
(A) 48 MJ (B) 24 MJ
(C) 36 MJ (D) 12 MJ be :[Take g = 10 ms–2]
Official Ans. by NTA (A)
m1
m2
GMm
Sol. Ui  
R
GMm (A) 30 N (B) 40 N
Uf  
4R (C) 50 N (D) 60 N
3GMm Official Ans. by NTA (B)
U  Uf  Ui 
4R
3
 mgR Sol. For equilibrium m2g = m1g sin
4
m2 3
3 sin   
  1  10  64  105 m1 5
4
= 48 MJ 4
cos  
13. A ball is released from a height h. If t1 and t2 be the 5
time required to complete first half and second half Normal force on m1 = 5g cos
of the distance respectively. Then, choose the
4
correct relation between t1 and t2.  5  10   40 N
5
(A) t1   2  t 2 (B) t1   2  1 t 2 15. If momentum of a body is increased by 20%, then
(C) t 2   2  1 t1 (D) t 2   2  1 t1 its kinetic energy increases by :
Official Ans. by NTA (D) (A) 36% (B) 40%
(C) 44% (D) 48%
h
Sol. For first Official Ans. by NTA (C)
2
h 1 2
 gt1 20
2 2 Sol. P'  P  P  1.2 P
For total height h 100

1 K ' K
h  g  t1  t 2   100
2
% change in KE =
2 K
1
 1
t  P '2 P 2 
  
2 t1  t 2   2m 2 2m   100
t2  P 
1  2  
t1  2m 

t1 1 = [(1.2)2 – 1] × 100

t2 2 1 = 44 %

t2   
2  1 t1

4
233
16. The torque of a force 5iˆ  3jˆ  7kˆ about the origin 18. The vertical component of the earth's magnetic
field is 6 × 10–5 T at any place where the angle of
is . If the force acts on a particle whose position
dip is 37º. The earth's resultant magnetic field at
vector is 2iˆ  2ˆj  kˆ , then the value of  will be :
3
that place will be (Given tan 37º = )
(A) 11iˆ  19ˆj  4kˆ (B) 11iˆ  9jˆ  16kˆ 4
(A) 8 × 10–5 T (B) 6 × 10–5 T
(C) 17iˆ  19jˆ  4kˆ (D) 17iˆ  9ˆj  16kˆ
(C) 5 × 10–4 T (D) 1 × 10–4 T
Official Ans. by NTA (C)
Official Ans. by NTA (D)

i j k B
Sol.   rF 2 2 1
Sol. 
5 3 7
( = 37°)
 i  14  3  j 14  5  kˆ  6  10 
BV = B sin 
 17iˆ  19jˆ  4kˆ 3
6 × 10–5 = B
5
17. A thermodynamic system is taken from an original
B = 10 × 10–5 T
state D to an intermediate state E by the linear
= 10–4 T
process shown in the figure. Its volume is then
19. The root mean square speed of smoke particles of
reduced to the original volume from E to F by an
mass 5 × 10–17 kg in their Brownian motion in air at
isobaric process. The total work done by the gas
NTP is approximately. [Given k = 1.38 × 10–23 JK–1]
from D to E to F will be
(A) 60 mm s–1 (B) 12 mm s–1
D (C) 15 mm s–1 (D) 36 mm s–1
600
Pressure-P(N/m 2)

Official Ans. by NTA (C)

300 E
F 3kT 3  1.38  1023  293
Sol. Vrms  
m 5  1017

0 2.0 5.0  15mm / s

3
Volume V,(m ) 20. Light enters from air into a given medium at an
(A) –450 J (B) 450 J
angle of 45° with interface of the air-medium
(C) 900 J (D) 1350 J
surface. After refraction, the light ray is deviated
Official Ans. by NTA (B)
through an angle of 15° from its original direction.
The refractive index of the medium is :
1
Sol. WDE   600  300  3 J (A) 1.732 (B) 1.333
2
= 1350 J (C) 1.414 (D) 2.732

WEF  300  3  –900 J Official Ans. by NTA (C)

WDEF  450 J

5
234
 air 2. Nearly 10% of the power of a 110 W light bulb is
i
Sol. 45º () converted to visible radiation. The change in
r med average intensities of visible radiation, at a
distance of 1 m from the bulb to a distance of 5 m
i = 45º
D=i–r is a × 10–2 W/m2. The value of 'a' will be
15º = 45 – r  r = 30º Official Ans. by NTA (84)
n1 sin i = n2 sinr
1 sin45º =  sin30º
1 1 Sol. P' = 10% of 110 W

2 2 10
  110W
  2  1.414 100

SECTION-B = 11 W
1. A tube of length 50 cm is filled completely with an P' P'
I1  I2  
incompressible liquid of mass 250 g and closed at 4r1 4r22
2

both ends. The tube is then rotated in horizontal

11 1 1 
plane about one of its ends with a uniform angular  
4 1 25 
velocity x F rad s–1. If F be the force exerted by
the liquid at the other end then the value of x will 11 24
 
be ______. 4 25

Official Ans. by NTA (4) 264

  102  84  102 W / m 2

 3. A metal wire of length 0.5 m and cross-sectional
area 10–4 m2 has breaking stress 5 × 108 Nm–2. A
x dx
block of 10 kg is attached at one end of the string
Sol.
and is rotating in a horizontal circle. The maximum

F   dm  2 x
linear velocity of block will be____ ms–1.
L
m 
0

  dx  2 x
L  Official Ans. by NTA (50)

m 2 L2
 
L 2 mv2 10  v2
Sol. T   20v2
m L 2
0.5

2
Tmax = Breaking stress × Area
2
 F = 5 × 108 × 10–4 = 5 × 104
mL
20V2 = 5 × 104
2
 F
0.25  0.5 1 4
V 10  50 m / s
 16 F 4

4 F

6
235
4. The velocity of a small ball of mass 0.3g and 6. The speed of a transverse wave passing through a
string of length 50 cm and mass 10 g is 60 ms–1.
density 8g/cc when dropped in a container filled
The area of cross-section of the wire is 2.0 mm2 and its
with glycerine becomes constant after some time. Young's modulus is 1.2 × 1011 Nm–2. The extension of
the wire over its natural length due to its tension will be
If the density of glycerine is 1.3 g/cc, then the
x × 10–5 m. The value of x is_______.
value of viscous force acting on the ball will be Official Ans. by NTA (15)
x × 10–4 N, the value of x is____. [use g = 10m/s2]
T
Official Ans. by NTA (25) Sol. Vw 

T
60   0.5
Sol. FV + FB = mg (v = constant) 10  10 3
FV = mg – FB  60 2  10 2
T = 72 N
 B Vg  L Vg
0.5
F 72  0.5
  
  B  L  Vg AY 2  10 6  1.2  1011
72  5
0.3  10 3   10 5 = 15 × 10–5
 8  1.3  10 3   10 24
8  103 Ans. 15
6.7  0.3 7. The metallic bob of simple pendulum has the
  10 2 (g = 10) relative density 5. The time period of this
8
pendulum is 10 s. If the metallic bob is immersed
67  3 in water, then the new time period becomes 5 x s.
  10 4  25.125  10 4
8 The value of x will be ________.
Ans. 25.125 Official Ans. by NTA (5)

5. A modulating signal 2sin(6.28 × 106)t is added to Sol. mg' = mg – FB

9
the carrier signal 4sin (12.56 × 10 )t for amplitude
FB
modulation. The combined signal is passed
through a non-linear square law device. The output
is then passed through a band pass filter. The
mg
bandwidth of the output signal of band pass filter mg  FB
g' 
will be___MHz. m
B Vg  w Vg
Official Ans. by NTA (2) 
B V
   w 
 B g T  2
Sol. Frequencies present in output of square law device  B  g
fc, fc – fm, 2fm, fm 5 1
2fc, fc + fm,  g
5
After passing through band bass filte.
4
 g
fc + fm, fc, fc – fm 5
Band width = 2fm T' g g 5
  
T g' 4 4
2m 6.28 106 g
  5
2 3.14
5 10
= 2 MHz T'  T  5
4 2
T'  5 5

7
236
8. A 8 V Zener diode along with a series resistance R 10. A capacitor of capacitance 500 F is charged
is connected across a 20 V supply (as shown in the
figure). If the maximum Zener current is 25 mA, completely using a dc supply of 100 V. It is now

then the minimum value of R will be _____. connected to an inductor of inductance 50 mH to

R form an LC circuit. The maximum current in LC

RL
circuit will be ______ A.

20V Official Ans. by NTA (10)

Official Ans. by NTA (480)

Sol.  – IR – Vz = 0 Sol. Energy stored in capacitor

20 – IR – 6 = 0
1 1
IR = 12  CV 2  500  106  104
2 2
25 × 10–3 R = 12
12 5
R  480  J
25  103 2

9. Two radioactive materials A and B have decay Current will be maximum when whole energy of
constants 25 and 16 respectively. If initially they
capacitor becomes energy of inductor.
have the same number of nuclei, then the ratio of
the number of nuclei of B to that of A will be ''e'' 1 2 5
LI 
1 2 2
after a time . The value of a is_______.
a
5 5
Official Ans. by NTA (9) I   10 A.
L 50  10 3

Sol. N  N0 e t

N B e2 t
  e2 t .e1t
N A e1t

e1  e 1 2 t
 1  2  t  1
1 1 1
t  
1  2 25  16 9

8
237
 FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JULY, 2022
(Held On Friday 29th July, 2022) TIME : 3 : 00 PM to 06 : 00 PM

CHEMISTRY TEST PAPER WITH SOLUTION

SECTION-A Sol. Energy order of subshell decided by (n+) rule.
1. Consider the reaction A  3d  n + 1 = 5
B4pn+=5
4HNO3(l) + 3KCl(s)  Cl2(g) + NOCl(g) +
C  4d  n +   6
2H2O(g) + 3KNO3(s)
The amount of HNO3 required to produce 110.0 g D  3s  (n+) = 4

of KNO3 is : D<A<B<C
3. C(s) + O2(g)  CO2(g) + 400 kJ
(Given : Atomic masses of H, O, N and K are 1,
1
16, 14 and 39, respectively.) C(s) + O2(g)  CO(g) + 100 kJ
2
(A) 32.2 g (B) 69.4 g When coal of purity 60% is allowed to burn in
(C) 91.5 g (D) 162.5 g presence of insufficient oxygen, 60% of carbon is
converted into 'CO' and the remaining is converted
Official Ans. by NTA (C) into 'CO2'.
The heat generated when 0.6 kg of coal is burnt is
Sol. 4HNO3 ( )  3KCl  s   Cl2  g   NOCl  g   2H2 O  g   3KNO3  g 
______.
(A) 1600 kJ (B) 3200 kJ
x gm 110 gm (C) 4400 kJ (D) 6600 kJ
x 110 Official Ans. by NTA (D)
Mole =
63 101
Sol. C(S) + O2(g)  CO2(g) + 400 kJ
43
1 g mole
3
1 1
C  s   O2  g   CO  g   100kJ …. (II)
4 2
x 3 x 110 0.6 × 1000
  
63 4 63 101 = 600 gm
60
110  63  4 600  (Pure Carbon)
x  91.5gm 100
101  3
360
2. Given below are the quantum numbers for 4  360gm   30mole (Pure Carbon)
12
electrons.  60 
Carbon converted into CO2   30  30 
A. n = 3, l = 2, m1 = 1, ms = +1/2  100 
B. n = 4, l = 1, m1 = 0, ms = +1/2 = 12 mole
60
C. n = 4, l = 2, m1 = –2, ms = –1/2 and carbon converted in CO = 30   18mole
100
D. n = 3, l = 1, m1 = –1, ms = +1/2 Energy generated during II equation
The correct order of increasing energy is : = 18 × 100
(A) D < B < A < C (B) D < A < B < C = 1800 kJ
Energy generated during Ist reaction.
(C) B < D < A < C (D) B < D < C < A
= 12 × 400
Official Ans. by NTA (B) = 4800
Total = 1800 + 4800 = 6600 kJ

1
238
4. 200 mL of 0.01 M HCl is mixed with 400 mL of 7. Given below are two statements.
0.01M H2SO4. The pH of the mixture is ____. Statement I : Stannane is an example of a
molecular hydride.
(A) 1.14 (B) 1.78
Statement II : Stannane is a planar molecule.
(C) 2.34 (D) 3.02
In the light of the above statement, choose the most
Official Ans. by NTA (B) appropriate answer from the options given below :
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
Sol. HCl + H2SO4 (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
 H     0.01  200    0.01  2  400  (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
600
Official Ans. by NTA (C)
2  8 10 1
  
600 600 60 Sol. SnH4 is non planar molecular hydride
H
1 
pH   log  
 60  Sn
= 1.78 H
H H Tetrahedral shape, sp3 hybridisation
5. Given below are the critical temperatures of some 8. Portland cement contains 'X' to enhance the setting
of the gases : time. What is 'X'?
Gas Critical temperature (K) 1
(A) CaSO4. H2O (B) CaSO4.2H2O
He 5.2 2
CH4 190 (C) CaSO4 (D) CaCO3
CO2 304.2 Official Ans. by NTA (B)
NH3 405.5
Sol. Gypsum (CaSO4.2H2O) is used to enhance setting
The gas showing least adsorption on a definite time in portland cement.
amount of charcoal is : 9. When borax is heated with CoO on a platinum
(A) He (B) CH4 loop, blue coloured bead formed is largely due to :
(C) CO2 (D) NH3 (A) B2O3 (B) Co(BO2)2
(C) CoB4O7 (D) Co[B4O5(OH)4]
Official Ans. by NTA (A)
Official Ans. by NTA (B)

Sol. More the critical temp. of gas greater is the ease of 

Sol. Na2B4O7.10H2O  Na2B4O7 + 10H2O
liquefaction hence greater is the adsorption. 
Na2B4O7  2NaBO2(sodium meta borate) + B2O3
6. In liquation process used for tin (Sn), the metal :
B2O3 + CoO  Co(BO2)2(cobalt (II) meta borate)
(A) is reacted with acid Blue Bead
(B) is dissolved in water 10. Which of the following 3d-metal ion will give the
(C) is brought to molten form which is made to lowest enthalpy of hydration (hydH) when
flow on a slope dissolved in water ?
(A) Cr2+ (B) Mn2+
(D) is fused with NaOH.
(C) Fe2+ (D) Co2+
Official Ans. by NTA (C)
Official Ans. by NTA (B)

Sol. Liquation process is used for metal having low Sol.

melting point such as tin in which they are heated Ion HoHyd. (kJ/mole)
and brought to molten state and made to flow down Cr2+ –1925
the slope while impurities with higher melting Mn2+ –1862
Fe2+ –1998
point left on the top.
Co2+ –2079
2
239
11. Octahedral complexes of copper (II) undergo O
structural distortion (Jahn-Teller). Which one of 
 C
the given copper (II) complexes will show the Sol.  H

maximum structural distortion ?

-methyl cyclohexane carbaldehyde
(en–ethylenediamine; H2N-CH2-CH2-NH2)
14. Compound 'A' undergoes following sequence of
(A) [Cu(H2O)6]SO4 (B) [Cu(en)(H2O)4]SO4 reactions to give compound 'B'. The correct
(C) cis-[Cu(en)2Cl2] (D) trans-[Cu(en)2Cl2] structure and chirality of compound 'B' is:
Official Ans. by NTA (A) [where Et is –C2H5]

(i)Mg,Et 2O
(ii)D2O
B
Sol. There is unsymmetric filling of eg subset of Cu+2 Br
Compound 'A'
ion, while there is symmetrical distribution in t2g
, Achiral
set, if the complex has same ligand there will be D
(A)
equal repulsion which leads to symmetrical bond
(B) , Chiral
length along t2g , but due to uneven filling of OD
electron in eg subset, either octahedral will be , Chiral
(C)
elongated or compressed. D
(D) , Achiral
12. Dinitrogen is a robust compound, but reacts at high OD
altitude to form oxides. The oxide of nitrogen that Official Ans. by NTA (C)
can damage plant leaves and retard photosynthesis
is : (i) Mg, t2o
Sol. B
(A) NO (B) NO  (ii) D2O
3 Br

(C) NO2 (D) NO chiral
2 ,
D
Official Ans. by NTA (C)
15. Given below are two statements.
CH 3
Sol. N2(g) + O2(g)  2NO(g) NO2
2NO(g) + O2(g)  2NO2(g) H
Statement I : The compound is
NO2 damage plant leaves
13. Correct structure of -methylcyclohexane CH3
carbaldehyde is : optically active.
O CH3
O2N
(A) H Statement II : is mirror image of
H
CH3
O
above compound A.
CH 2—C—H In the light of the above statement, choose the
(B)
most appropriate answer from the options given
O
below.
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(C) H
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are
incorrect.
O (C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
CH 2—C—H incorrect.
(D) (D) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
correct.
Official Ans. by NTA (A) Official Ans. by NTA (C)

3
240
 CH3 18. Which of the following is NOT a natural polymer?
CH3 3
1
NO2 (A) Protein
1
2 NO2 (B) Starch
H CH3
Sol. +
H 4 2 (C) Rubber
3
CH3 S
S (D) Rayon
(A) (B) Official Ans. by NTA (D)
Having same configuration.
16. When enthanol is heated with conc. H2SO4, a gas is Sol. Rayon is semisynthetic polymer.
produced. The compound formed, when this gas is
19. Given below are two statements. One is labelled as
treated with cold dilute aqueous solution of
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Baeyer's reagent, is :
(A) Formaldehyde (B) Formic acid Assertion A : Amylose is insoluble in water.
(C) Glycol (D) Ethanoic acid Reason R : Amylose is a long linear molecule with
Official Ans. by NTA (C) more than 200 glucose units.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
conc. H2SO4
Sol. CH3–CH2 –OH CH2 =CH2 correct answer from the options given below.

Bayer's
Reagent (A) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct

CH2 – CH2 explanation of A.

OH OH (B) Both A and R are correct and R is NOT the

glycol correct explanation of A.
17. The Hinsberg reagent is :
(C) A is correct but R is not correct.
O
S – Cl (D) A is not correct but R is correct.
(A)
O Official Ans. by NTA (D)
+ –
N 2 Cl
(B)
Sol. Amylose is water soluble.
O
20. A compound 'X' is a weak acid and it exhibits
N– K
+
(C) colour change at pH close to the equivalence point

O during neutralization of NaOH with CH3COOH.

Compound 'X' exists in ionized form in basic
N=N
(D) medium. The compound 'X' is :
HO
(A) methyl orange (B) methyl red
Official Ans. by NTA (A)
(C) phenolphthalein (D) erichrome Black T
O Official Ans. by NTA (C)
Sol. S – Cl
O
Sol. Phenolphthalein is weak acid give colour in basic
B.S.C (Benzene sulphonyl chloride) is known's
Hinsberg Reagent medium.

4
241
 SECTION-B F
F
3
1. 'x' g of molecular oxygen (O2) is mixed with 200 g P F  sp d Hybridisation
of neon (Ne). The total pressure of the non- F
Sol. F
reactive mixture of O2 and Ne in the cylinder is 25 F
F F
bar. The partial pressure of Ne is 20 bar at the –  sp d Hybridisation
3 2
Br
same temperature and volume. The value of 'x' F F
is_____. P 3
 sp Hybridisation
[Given: Molar mass of O2 = 32 g mol–1. Cl Cl
Cl
Molar mass of Ne = 20 g mol–1] F F F
Official Ans. by NTA (80) S 3 2
 sp d Hybridisation
F F F

Sol. O2 + Ne
Cl Cl
Xgm 200gm – 3 2
 sp d Hybridisation
I
Ptotal = 25 bar ; PNe = 20 Cl Cl
PO2  PNe  25 F
3
PO2  25  20  5bar Cl F  sp d Hybridisation
F
x
F F
5 32  25 3 2
x 200 I  sp d Hybridisation

32 20 F F
F
x
1 32 3. 1.80 g of solute A was dissolved in 62.5 cm3 of

5 x  10 ethanol and freezing point of the solution was
32
found to be 155.1 K. The molar mass of solute A
1 x  32
 is __g mol–1.
5 32  x  320 
[Given: Freezing point of ethanol is 156.0 K.
5x = x + 320
Density of ethanol is 0.80 g cm–3.
4x = 320
Freezing point depression constant of ethanol is
320
x  80 gm
4 2.00 K kg mol–1]

2. Consider, PF5, BrF5, PCl3, SF6, [ICl4]–, ClF3 and Official Ans. by NTA (80)
IF5.
Amongst the above molecule(s)/ion(s), the number Sol. Mass of C2H5OH = 62.5 × 0.8 = 50 g
of molecule(s)/ion(s) having sp3d2 hybridisation Tf = Kf × m
is____. 1.8  1000
 0.9  2 
Mw  50
Official Ans. by NTA (4)
2  1.8  1000
Mw   80
0.9  50

5
242
4. For a cell, Cu(s) |Cu2+(0.001M| |Ag+(0.01M)| Ag(s) 6. Sum of oxidation state (magnitude) and
the cell potential is found to be 0.43 V at 298 K. coordination number of cobalt in Na[Co(bpy)Cl4]
The magnitude of standard electrode potential for is__.
Cu2+/Cu is ___× 10–2 V.
(Given bpy = )
  2.303RT  N N
 Given : E Ag /Ag  0.80V and F
 0.06V 
 Official Ans. by NTA (9)
Official Ans. by NTA (34)
Sol. Coordination no. = 6
Sol. At anode Oxidation state = 3
6+3=9
Cu  Cu2+ + 2e–
7. Consider the following sulphure based oxoacids.
At cathode
H2SO3, H2SO4, H2S2O8 and H2S2O7.
2Ag+ + 2e–  2Ag
Cell reaction  Cu + 2Ag+ Cu2+ + 2Ag Amongst these oxoacids, the number of those with
peroxo(O-O) bond is______.
0.06 Cu 2 
E cell  E cell
0
 log 2 Official Ans. by NTA (1)
2  Ag  

0.06  0.001 O
0.43  E0cell  log
2  0.012 H–O–S–O–H (H2SO3)
Sol.
E 0cell  0.46 O
H–O–S–O–H (H2SO4)
E0cell  E0Ag /Ag  ECu
0
2
/Cu
O
0.46  0.80  E0Cu2 /Cu O O
HO–S–O–O–S–OH (H2S2 O8 )
E0Cu2 /Cu  0.34volt
O O
2
E0Cu2 /Cu  34 10

5. Assuming 1g of trace radioactive element X with

a half life of 30 years is absorbed by a growing
8. A 1.84 mg sample of polyhydric alcoholic
tree. The amount of X remaining in the tree after
compound 'X' of molar mass 92.0 g/mol gave
100 years is___×10–1g. 1.344 mL of H2 gas at STP. The number of
[Given : ln 10 = 2.303; log2 = 0.30] alcoholic hydrogens present in compound 'X'
Official Ans. by NTA (1) is____.
Official Ans. by NTA (3)

1  a 
Sol. t n  R  OH x  H2
 ax Sol.

30 1
PoAC on H –
100  n 
n2  w   1.84  10 3  1.344
x  2
1  92  22.4
 10
w 1.344  2  92  1000
x 6
W = 0.1 × g 1.84  22400
x=6
Ans. 1 × 10–1 g
6
243
9. The number of stereoisomers formed in a reaction

of (±) Ph(C=O) C(OH)(CN)Ph with HCN is_____.

Official Ans. by NTA (3)

O OH OH OH
Ph – C – C – Ph HCN
Sol. Ph – C – C – Ph
CN CN CN
()

3 stereoisomers

10. The number of chlorine atoms in bithionol is____.

Official Ans. by NTA (4)

Sol. Bithinol

OH OH
Cl S Cl

Cl Cl

Chlorine atoms = 4

7
244
 Final JEE-Main Exam July, 2022/29-07-2022/Evening Session

FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JULY, 2022

(Held On Friday 29th July, 2022) TIME : 3 : 00 PM to 06 : 00 PM

MATHEMATICS TEST PAPER WITH SOLUTION

SECTION-A é -1 2 ù
Sol. A=ê ú
1 ë 1 -1û
1. If z ¹ 0 be a complex number such that | z - |= 2 ,
z
é0 1 ù
then the maximum value of |z| is: (1) R1 ® R 1 + R 2 ; ê ú possible
ë 1 -1û
(A) 2 (B) 1
é 1 -1ù
(2) R1 « R 2 ; ê ú possible
(C) 2 -1 (D) 2 +1 ë -1 2 û
Official Ans. by NTA (D) (3) Option is not possible
é -1 2 ù
(4) R 2 ® R 2 + 2R 1 ; ê ú possible
Sol. |z – 1/z| = 2 ë -1 3 û
1 1 1 3. If the system of equations
|z|- £ z- £ |z|+ Let |z| = r
|z| z |z| x+y+z=6
1 1 2x + 5y + az = b
r- £2 £ r +
r r x + 2y + 3z = 14

r-
1 1
£ 2 & r + ³ 2 always true has infinitely many solutions, then a + b is equal
r r to :
1 1 (A) 8 (B) 36
r - ³- 2 &r - £ 2
r r (C) 44 (D) 48
r2 – 1 £ 2r Official Ans. by NTA (C)
r – 2r £ 1
2

(r – 1)2 £ 2 Sol. x + y + z = 6 ___(1)

r -1£ 2 2x + 5y + az = b ___(2)

\| z |max = 1 + 2 x + 2y + 3z = 14 ____(3)
x+y=6–z
2. Which of the following matrices can NOT be
x + 2y = 14 – 3z
é -1 2 ù
obtained from the matrix ê ú by a single On solving
ë 1 -1û
x = z – 2 Þ y = 8 – 2z in (2)
elementary row operation?
2 (z – 2) + 5 (8 – 2z) + az = b
é0 1 ù é 1 -1ù
(A) ê ú (B) ê ú (a – 8) z = b – 36 For having infinite solutions
ë 1 -1û ë -1 2 û
a–8=0 & b – 36 = 0
é -1 2 ù é -1 2 ù
(C) ê ú (D) ê ú a = 8, b = 36 (a + b = 44)
ë -2 7 û ë -1 3 û
Official Ans. by NTA (C)

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245
 Final JEE-Main Exam July, 2022/29-07-2022/Evening Session
4. Let the function y = –3x2 + 7x – 2

ì log (1 + 5x ) - loge (1 + ax ) 4/3

ï e ;if x ¹ 0
f(x) = í x
ï ; if x = 0
î 10 a 1/3 2
O b 2/3
be continuous at x = 0. –1
The a is equal to : 7 - 37 7 - 13
–2 a= ,b =
(A) 10 (B) –10 6 6

(C) 5 (D) –5 a 1/3 b 2/3

Official Ans. by NTA (D) ò (-2)dx + ò (-1)dx + ò 0dx +

0 a 1/3
ò 1.dx
b

æ1 ö 2 1
ì ln(1 + 5x) – ln(1 + ax) = -2a - ç - a ÷ + - b = -a - b +
ï ;x ¹ 0 è3 ø 3 3
Sol. f(x) = í x
ïî 10 ;x = 0 y = 3x 2 – 3x + 2

lim ln (1 + 5x ) - ln(1 + ax) 2

= 10
x®0 x
4/3
Using expension
a
lim ( 5x + ......) - ( ax + ......) = 10 2/3 1

x®0 x
æ2 ö
5 – a = 10 Þ a = –5 When x Î ç ,1÷
è3 ø
5. If [t] denotes the greatest integer £ t, then the value
æ4 ö
3x 2 - 3x + 2 Î ç , 2 ÷
ò
1
of é 2x - | 3x - 5x + 2 | +1ù dx is:
2
è3 ø
0 ë û
[3x2 – 3x + 2] = 1
37 + 13 - 4 37 - 13 - 4
(A) (B) 1
æ 2ö 1
\ ò éë3x - 3x + 2 ùûdx = 1ç1 - ÷ =
2
6 6
2/ 3 è 3ø 3
- 37 - 13 + 4 - 37 + 13 + 4
(C) (D) æ1 ö æ1ö
6 6 I ç - ( a + b) ÷ + ç ÷ + 1
Hence =
è3 ø è3ø
Official Ans. by NTA (A)
5 æ 7 - 37 7 - 13 ö
= -ç + ÷
1 3 çè 6 6 ÷ø
Sol. I = ò éë 2x - | 3x 2 - 3x - 2x + 2 | +1ùû dx
0 -2 37 + 13
= +
1 1 3 6
I = ò éë 2x - | ( 3x - 2 )( x - 1) |ùû dx + ò 1dx
37 + 13 - 4
0 0
=
6
ò ( )) ò (2x + (3x ))
2/3 1
I=
ë (
é 2x - 3x2 - 5x + 2 ù dx +
û
2
- 5x + 2 dx + 1
0 2/3
2 /3 1
I= ò éë -3x 2 + 7x - 2 ùû dx + ò (3x )
- 3x + 2 dx + 1
2

0 2/3

2
246
 Final JEE-Main Exam July, 2022/29-07-2022/Evening Session

Let {an }=n

¥
6. be a sequence such that a0 = a1 = 0 and sec 2 x - 2022 æpö
0 8. For I(x)= ò sin 2022
x
dx, if I ç ÷ = 21011 , then
è4ø
an+2 = 3an+1 – 2an+1, " n ³ 0.
æ pö æ pö
Then a25 a23 – 2 a25 a22 – 2 a23 a24 + 4 a22 a24 is equal (A) 31010 I ç ÷ - I ç =
÷ 0
è3ø è6ø
to:
æ pö æ pö
(A) 483 (B) 528 (C) 575 (D) 624 (B) 31010 I ç ÷ - I ç ÷ = 0
è6ø è3ø
Official Ans. by NTA (B) æ pö æpö
(C) 31011 I ç ÷ - I ç =
÷ 0
è3ø è6ø
Sol. a 0 = 0, a1 = 0 æ pö æpö
(D) 31011 I ç ÷ - I ç ÷ = 0
an+2 = 3 an+1 – 2 an+1 : n ³ 0 è6ø è3ø
an+2 – an+1 = 2 (an+1 – an) + 1 Official Ans. by NTA (A)

n=0 a2 – a1 = 2 (a1 – a0) + 1

Sol. I(x) = ò sec2 x.sin -2022 x dx - 2022 ò sin -2022 x dx
n=1 a3 – a2 = 2 (a2 – a1) + 1 II I
= tanx.( sin x ) + ò ( 2022 ) tan x.( sin x )
-2022 -2023
n=2 a4 – a3 = 2 (a3 – a2) + 1 cos xdx
n=n an+2 – an+1 = 2 (an+1 – an) + 1
-2022 ò ( sin x )
-2022
(an+2 – a1) – 2 (an+1 – a0) – (n + 1) = 0 dx
–2022
an+2 = 2an+1 + (n +1) I(x) = (tanx) (sinx) +C
–2022
æ 1 ö
n®n–2 At X = p/4, 21011 = ç ÷ + C \C = 0
è 2ø
an –2an–1 = n – 1
tan x
Hence I ( x=
)
Now a25a23 – 2a25a22 – 2a23a24+4a22a24
( sin x )
2022

= (a25–2a24) (a23–2a22) = (24) (22) = 528 1 22022

I ( p / 6) = 2022
=
å(r ) æ1ö
20
3
7. 2
+ 1 ( r!) is equal to: 3ç ÷
r =1 è2ø
3 2 2022 1 æ pö
(A) 22! – 21! (B) 22! – 2 (21!) I ( p / 3) = = = Iç ÷
( ) è6ø
2022 2021 1010
(C) 21! – 2 (20!) (D) 21! – 20! æ 3ö 3 3
ç ÷
Official Ans. by NTA (B) è 2 ø
3 I ( p / 3) = I ( p / 6 )
1010

9. If the solution curve of the differential equation

å(r )
20
Sol. 2
+ 1 r! dy x + y - 2
= passes through the point (2,1) and
x =1 dx x-y

å ( ( r + 1) )
20 (k + 1,2), k > 0, then
- 2r r!
2

æ1ö
x =1 (A) 2 tan -1 ç =
èkø
÷ loge k + 1
2
( )
20 20

å ( ( r + 1)( r + 1)!- r.r!) - å r.r!

x =1 r =1
æ1ö
(B) tan -1 ç ÷ = loge k 2 + 1 ( )
20 20
èkø
å ( ( r + 1)( r + 1)!- r.r!) - å (( r + 1)!- r!)
x =1 r =1
æ 1 ö
(C) 2 tan -1 ç =
÷ log e k 2 + 2k + 2 ( )
è k +1ø
= ( 21. 21 - 1) - ( 21 - 1)
æ1ö æ k2 + 1 ö
(D) 2 tan -1 ç ÷ = loge ç 2 ÷
= 20.21! = 22!- 2.21! èkø è k ø
Official Ans. by NTA (A)

3
247
 Final JEE-Main Exam July, 2022/29-07-2022/Evening Session
dy x + y - 2 ( x - 1) + ( y - 1) dy æ 2x 2 + 11x + 13 ö x+3
Sol. = = Sol. +ç 3 ÷y =
dx x-y ( x - 1) - ( y - 1) dx è x + 6x + 11x + 6 ø
2
x +1

ò p(x)dx I.F. =e ò
p(x )dx
x – 1 = X, y – 1 = Y
dY X + Y
= ( 2x 2
)
+ 11x + 13 dx
dX X - Y ò p(x)dx = ò ( x + 1)( x + 2 )( x + 3)
dY dV Using partial fraction
Y = VX = V+X
dX dX 2x 2 + 11x + 13 A B C
= + +
dV 1 + V dV V 2 + 1 ( x + 1)( x + 2 )( x + 3) x + 1 x + 2 x + 3
V+X = X =
dX 1 - V dX 1 - V A=
4
=2
2
1- V dX
ò1+ V 2
dV = ò
X
B=1
C = –1
dV 1 2VdV dX Q ò p(x)dx = A ln ( x + 1) + Bln ( x + 2 ) + c ln(x + 3)
ò1+ V 2
- ò
2 1+ V 2
=ò
X æ ( x + 1) 2 ( x + 2 ) ö
= ln ç ÷
ç ÷
tan -1 V - ln (1 + V 2 ) = ln X + c x+3
1
è ø
2
( x + 1) ( x + 2 )
2

I.F. = e ò
p(x )dx
æYö 1 æ Y ö 2 =
tan -1 ç ÷ - ln ç 1 + 2 ÷ = ln(X) + c ( x + 3)
èXø 2 è X ø
Solution y ( IF )= ò Q. ( IF ) dx
æ y - 1 ö 1 æ ( y - 1) ö
2

tan -1 ç ÷ - ln ç1 + ÷ = ln( x - 1) + c
æ ( x + 1)2 ( x + 2 ) ö æ x + 3 ö ( x + 1) 2 ( x + 2 )
è x - 1 ø 2 çè ( x - 1) ÷
2
ø yç ÷=òç ÷ dx
Passes through (2,1)
ç
è x+3 ÷
ø è x +1 ø x+3 ( )
æ ( x + 1) ( x + 2 ) ö x3 3x 2
2
1
0 - ln1 = ln1 + c \ c = 0 yç ÷= + + 2x + c
ç x+3 ÷ 3 2
2 è ø
Passes through (k + 1, 2) 2
Passes through (0, 1) C =
3
æ1ö 1 æ 1 ö
\ tan -1 ç ÷ - In ç 1 + 2 ÷ = ln k Now put x = 1
èkø 2 è k ø 3
Þ y(1) =
æ1ö æ 1 + k2 ö 2
2 tan -1 ç ÷ = In ç 2 ÷ + 2 ln k 11. Let m1, m2 be the slopes of two adjacent sides of a
èkø è k ø square of side a such that
æ1ö
2 tan -1 ç ÷ = In(1 + k 2 )
(
a + 11a + 3 m 2 + m=
2 2 2
2 )
220. If one vertex of the
èkø square is (10(cosa – sina), 10 (sina + cosa)),
æ pö
10. Let y = y (x) be the solution curve of the where a Î ç 0, ÷ and the equation of one diagonal
è 2ø
dy æ 2x 2 + 11x + 13 ö
differential equation +ç ÷ is (cosa – sina) x + (sina + cosa) y = 10, then 72
dx è x3 + 6x 2 + 11x + 6 ø (sin4a + cos4a) + a2 – 3a + 13 is equal to:
y=
( x + 3) , x > –1, which passes through the point (A) 119 (B) 128
x +1
(0,1). Then y (1) is equal to: (C) 145 (D) 155
1 3 5 7
(A) (B) (C) (D) Official Ans. by NTA (B)
2 2 2 2
Official Ans. by NTA (B)

4
248
 Final JEE-Main Exam July, 2022/29-07-2022/Evening Session
Sol. m1m2 = –1 12. The number of elements in the set
æ 1 ö
a2 + 11a + 3 ç m 12 + 2 ÷ = 220 ìï æ x2 + x ö ü
-x ï
è m1 ø S= íx Î ¡ : 2cos ç ÷= 4 + 4 ý is:
x

ïî è 6 ø ïþ
D C
(A) 1 (B) 3
m2 M (C) 0 (D) infinite
Official Ans. by NTA (A)
A B
Eq. of AC
æ x2 + x ö -x
÷=4 +4
x
AC = (cosa – sina) + (sina + cosa) y = 10
Sol. 2 cos ç
è 6 ø
BD = (sina – cosa) x + (sina – cosa) y = 0
L.H.S £ 2. & R.H.S. ³ 2
(10 (cosa – sina), 10 (sina – cosa))
Hence L.H.S = 2 & R.H.S = 2
æ sina - cos a ö æ x2 + x ö
Slope of AC = ç ÷ = tan q = M 2cos ç ÷=2 4 +4 =2
x –x
è sina + cos a ø
è 6 ø
Eq. of line making an angle p4 with AC
Check x = 0 Possible hence only one solution.
p
m ± tan æa ö
4 13. Let A (a, –2), B (a, 6) and C ç , -2 ÷ be vertices
m 1 ,m 2 = è4 ø
p
1 ± m tan
4 æ aö
of a DABC. If ç 5, ÷ is the circumcentre of
m +1 m -1 è 4ø
= or
1- m 1+ m
DABC, then which of the following is NOT correct
sin a - cos a sina - cos a
+1 -1 about DABC:
sin a + cos a , sin a + cos a
æ sin a - cos a ö 1 + sin a - cos a (A) ares is 24 (B) perimeter is 25
1- ç ÷
è sin a + cos a ø sin a + cos a (C) circumradius is 5 (D) inradius is 2
m1, m2 = tana , cota Official Ans. by NTA (B)
mid point of AC & BD
= M (5(cosa–sina), 5(cosa+sina)) æa ö
Sol. A (a, –2) : B (a, 6) : C ç , -2 ÷
B (10(cosa–sina), 10(cosa+sina)) è4 ø
(
a = AB = 2 BM = 2 5 2 = 10 ) since AC is perpendicular to AB.
a = 10 So, DABC is right angled at A.
æ 1 ö
Q a + 11a + 3 ç m 12 +
2
÷ = 220 æ 5a ö
è m1 2 ø Circumcentre = mid point of BC. = ç , 2 ÷
100 + 110 + 3 (tan2a + cot2a) = 220 è 8 ø
1 p p 5a a
Hence tan2a = 3, tan2a = Þ a = or \ =5& =2
3 3 6 8 4
Now 72 (sin4a + cos4a) + a2 – 3a + 13
a=8
æ 9 1 ö
= 72 ç + ÷ + 100 - 30 + 13 (8, 6)
è 16 16 ø B
æ 5ö
= 72 ç ÷ + 83 = 45 + 83 = 128 10
è8ø 8

A
(8, –2) 6 C(2, –2)

5
249
 Final JEE-Main Exam July, 2022/29-07-2022/Evening Session
1 Sol. A(2, 3, 9) ; B(5, 2, 1) ; C(1, l, 8) ; D(l, 2, 3)
Area = (6)(8)= 24
2 uuur uuur uuur
é AB AC AD ù = 0
Perimeter = 24 ë û

Circumradius = 5 3 -1 -8
D 24 -1 l - 3 -1 = 0
Inradius = = = 2
s 12 l - 2 -1 -6
14. Let Q be the foot of perpendicular drawn from the
Þ [–6(l – 3) –1] –8(1 –( l – 3) (l – 2)) + (6 + (l
point P (1, 2, 3) to the plane x + 2y + z = 14. If R is
– 2) = 0
a point on the plane such that ÐPRQ = 60°, then
3(–6 l + 17) – 8(–l 2 + 5 l – 5) + (l + 4) = 8
the area of DPQR is equal to:

3 8 l 2 – 57 l + 95 = 0
(A) (B) 3
2
95
l1 l2 =
(C) 2 3 (D) 3 8
Official Ans. by NTA (B) 16. Bag I contains 3 red, 4 black and 3 white balls and
Bag II contains 2 red, 5 black and 2 white balls.
P(1, 2, 3) One ball is transferred from Bag I to Bag II and
then a ball is draw from Bag II. The ball so drawn
is found to be black in colour. Then the
probability, that the transferred ball is red, is:
60°
Q R 4 5 1 3
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Sol. x + 2y + z = 14 9 18 6 10

Length of perpendicular Official Ans. by NTA (B)

1 + 4 + 3 - 14
PQ = = 6 3R 2R
6
Sol. 4B 5B
QR = (PQ) cot 60º = 2 3W 2W

1 A : Drown ball from boy II is black

\ Area of DPQR = (PQ)(QR) = 3
2 B : Red ball transferred

15. If (2, 3, 9), (5, 2, 1), (1, l, 8) and (l, 2, 3) are æ B ö P(A Ç B)
Pç ÷ =
coplanar, then the product of all possible values of èAø P(A)
l is:
3 5
21 59 ´
(A) (B) = 9 10
2 8 3 5 4 6 3 5
´ + ´ + ´
57 95 9 10 9 10 9 10
(C) (D)
8 8 15 15 5
= = =
Official Ans. by NTA (D) 15 + 24 + 15 54 18

6
250
 Final JEE-Main Exam July, 2022/29-07-2022/Evening Session
Let S = {z = x + iy : |z – l + i| ³ | z |, |z| < 2, |z + i| = r r r
17. 18. Let a, b, c be three coplanar concurrent vectors
|z –1|}. Then the set of all values of x, for which
w = 2x + iy Î S for some y Î ¡ , is such that angles between any two of them is same.
æ 1 ù æ 1 1ù If the product of their magnitudes is 14 and
(A) ç - 2, ú (B) ç - , ú
r r r r r r r r r r r r
è 2 2û è 2 4û
æ 1 1 ù
( )( ) ( ) ( )
a ´ b . b ´ c + b ´ c . ( c ´ a ) + ( c ´ a ) . a ´ b = 168
æ 1ù r r r
(C) ç - 2, ú (D) ç- , ú then | a | + | b | + | c | is equal to:
è 2û è 2 2 2û
Official Ans. by NTA (B) (A) 10 (B) 14
(C) 16 (D) 18
Sol. |z – 1 + i| ³ |z| ; |z| < 2 ; |z + i| = |z – 1|
Official Ans. by NTA (C)
(0 ,
r r r
0)
Sol. | a || b || c |= 14
(1
(1 , –1 r r r r r r 2p
/2
,– ) a^b=b^c=c^a =q=
1/ 3
2)
rr 1 rr 1 rr 1
A So, a.b= - ab, b.c= - bc, a.c.= - ac
2 2 2
(let)
r r r r rr rr rr rr
(a ´ b).(b ´ c) = (a.b)(b.c) - (a.c)(b.b)
1 1 3
= ab2 c + ab 2 c = ab2 c
4 2 4
Similarly
r r r r 3
(b ´ c).(c ´ a) = abc 2
, 0) 4
(1
r r r r 3
(1/2, –1/2) (c ´ a).(a ´ b) = a 2 bc
4
1) 3
,– 168 = abc(a + b + c)
(0 4
So, (a + b + c) = 16
19. The domain of the function
x+y=0
æ x - 3x + 2 ö
2

x 2 + y2 = 0 = sin -1 ç 2
f(x) ÷ is :
è x + 2x + 7 ø
2) (A) [1, ¥) (B) (–1, 2]
– 1/
/ 2,
( 1
(C) [–1, ¥) (D) (–¥,2]
Official Ans. by NTA (C)

Hence
w = 2x + iy Î S æ x 2 - 3x + 2 ö
Sol. f(x) = sin -1 ç 2 ÷ Domain
1
2x £ \ x £
1 è x + 2x + 7 ø
2 4
Now x 2 - 3x + 2 x 2 - 3x + 2
³ - 1 and £1
(2x)2 + (2x)2 < 4 x 2 + 2x + 7 x 2 + 2x + 7
1 æ -1 1 ö
x2 < Þ x Î ç , ÷ 2x2 – x + 9 ³ 0 and 5x ³ – 5 Þ x ³ – 1
2 è 2 2ø
æ -1 1 ù xÎR
\ x Îç , ú
è 2 4û Hence Domain x Î [–1, ¥)

7
251
 Final JEE-Main Exam July, 2022/29-07-2022/Evening Session
20. The statement ( p Þ q ) Ú ( p Þ r ) is NOT Sol. Pn = an – bn x2 – x – 4 = 0

equivalent to: P15 P16 - P14 P16 - P152 + P14 P15

__(1)
(A) ( p Ù ( ~ r ) ) Þ q (B) ( ~ q ) Þ ( ( ~ r ) Ú p )
P13 P14

As Pn – Pn–1 = (an – bn) – (an–1 – bn–1)

(C) p Þ ( q Ú r ) (D) ( p Ù ( ~ q ) ) Þ r
= an–2(a2 –a) – bn–2 (b2–b)
Official Ans. by NTA (B)
= 4(an–2–bn–2)
Pn – Pn–1 = 4 Pn–2
Sol. (p ® q) Ú( p ® r) Hence Expression (1)
(~p Ú q) Ú (~p Ú r) P16 ( P15 - P14 ) - P15 ( P15 - P14 )
= ~ p Ú (q Ú r) P13 P14
= p ® (q Ú r) º (3) is true.
=
( P15 - P14 )( P16 - P15 ) =
( 4P13 )( 4P14 ) = 16
Now (1) (p Ù ~ r) ® q P13 P14 P13 P14
~(p Ù ~ r) Ú q = (~p Ú r) Ú q
é1ù é -1 2 3 ù
= ~ p Ú (r Ú q) = p ® (q Ú r) ê ú ê ú
3. Let x= ê1ú and A = ê 0 1 6 ú . For k Î ¥ , if
(4) (p Ù ~ q) ® r = p ® (q Ú r) êë1úû êë 0 0 -1úû
SECTION-B X' Ak X = 33, then k is equal to:
1. The sum and product of the mean and variance of a Official Ans. by NTA ( 10)
binomial distribution are 82.5 and 1350
respectively. They the number of trials in the
é1ù é-1 2 3 ù
X = ê1ú ; A = êê 0 1 6 úú
ê ú
binomial distribution is:
Sol.
Official Ans. by NTA (96) êë1úû êë 0 0 -1úû

XTAKX = 33
Sol. Let, mean = m = np k
é -1 2 3 ù é1ù
& variance = v = npq, p + q = 1 [1 1 1] êê 0 1 6 úú ê ú
ê1ú = 33
165 êë 0 0 -1úû êë1úû
Sum = m + v =
2
é -1 2 3 ù é1ù
Product = mv = 1350
[1 1 1] êê 0 1 6 úú êê1úú = 33
On solving, êë 0 0 -1úû êë1úû
45 3 5
m = np = 60 & v = npq = \q= \ P= é-1 2 3 ù é -1 2 3 ù é1 0 6 ù
2 8 8 ê úê ú ê0 1 0 ú
As A = ê 0 1 6 ú ê 0 1 6 ú=
2
ê ú
Hence n = 96
êë 0 0 -1úû êë 0 0 -1úû êë0 0 1 úû
2. Let a, b (a > b) be the roots of the quadratic
é1 0 6 ù é1 0 6 ù é1 0 12 ù
equation x2 – x – 4 = 0. If Pn = an –bn, n Î ¥ , then A = êê0 1 0 úú êê0 1 0 úú = êê0 1 0 úú
4

P15 P16 - P14 P16 - P152 + P14 P15 êë0 0 1 úû êë0 0 1 úû êë0 0 1 úû
is equal to _____.
P13 P14
é1 0 24 ù
Official Ans. by NTA (16) A = êê0 1 0 úú
8

êë0 0 1 úû

8
252
 Final JEE-Main Exam July, 2022/29-07-2022/Evening Session
é1 0 6 ù é1 0 24 ù é1 0 30 ù a+c=b+5
A = êê0 1 0 úú êê0 1 0 úú = êê0 1 0 úú
10
for b = 1 a = 2, c = 4
êë0 0 1 úû êë0 0 1 úû êë0 0 1 úû a = 4, c = 2

é1 0 3K ù for b = 2 a = 3, c = 4
ê ú
for K ® Even A = ê0 1 0 ú
K a = 4, c=3
êë0 0 1 úû for b = 3 a = 6, c = 2
T K a = 2, c=6
X A X = 33 (This is not correct)
\ 6 possible four digit no.s are div. by 55
é1 0 3K ù é1ù
ê ú ê1ú (II) 5 digit number is not possible
[1 1 1] ê0 1 0 ú ê ú
êë0 0 1 úû êë1úû
(Not possible)
é1ù
ê ú 10

å K (10 ) =
2
= [1 1 3K+1] ê1ú = [3K+3] 5. If 2
CK 22000L, then L is equal to ___.
êë1úû =
k 1

Official Ans. by NTA (221)

\ 3K + 3 = 33 \ K = 10

åK ( )
10
But it should be dropped as 33 is not matrix 2 10 2
Sol. CK
If K is odd K =1

å ( K. ) = å (10. C )
T K 10 10
X A X = 33 10 2 9 2
CK K -1
XTAAK–1X = 33 K =1 K =1
10
é -1 2 3 ù é 1 0 3k - 3ù é1ù = 100 å 9
C K -1 .9 C10 -K
[1 1 1] êê 0 1 6 úú êê0 1 0 úú êê1úú = 33 K =1

æ 18! ö
êë 0 0 -1úû êë 0 0 1 úû êë1úû = 100 (
C 9 = 100 ç
18
÷
è 9!9! ø
)
é 3k - 2 ù Þ 4862000 = 22000L
[ - 1 3 8] êê1 ú [ ]
ú = 33
Hence L = 221
êë1 úû 6. If [t] denotes the greatest integer £ t, then number
of points, at which the function f(x) = 4 | 2x + 3| +
[–3k + 13] = [33] é 1ù
9 ê x + ú –12 [x + 20] is not differentiable in the
k = 20/3 (not possible) ë 2û
open interval (–20, 20), is___.
Official Ans. by NTA (79)

4. The number of natural numbers lying between

é 1ù
1012 and 23421 that can be formed using the digits Sol. f(x) = 4|2x + 3| + 9 ê x + ú –12[x + 20]
ë 2û
2, 3, 4, 5, 6 (repetition of digits is not allowed) and
divisible by 55 is____, x Î (–20, 20)
f(x) is not Diff. at x = IÎ{–19, –18, ....0,...19} = 39
Official Ans. by NTA (6)
1
at x = I + , f(x) Non diff. at 39 points
2
Sol. 4 digit numbers
-3 -3
For divisibility by 55, no. should be Check at x = Discount at x = \ N. R(1)
2 2
div. by 5 and 11 both 5 No. of point of non-differentiabilty
a b c d
Also, for divisibility by 11 = 39 + 39 + 1 = 79

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 Final JEE-Main Exam July, 2022/29-07-2022/Evening Session
7. If the tangent to the curve y = x – x2 + x at the 3
8. Let AB be a chord of length 12 of the circle

point (a , b) is also tangent to the curve y = 5x2 + 169

(x – 2)2 + (y +1)2 = .
4
2x – 25 at the point (2, –1), then |2a + 9b| is equal

to _____. If tangents drawn to the circle at points A and B

intersect at the point P, then five times the distance

Official Ans. by NTA (195)
of point P from chord AB is equal to ___.

2
Official Ans. by NTA (72)
Sol. y = 5x + 2x – 25 P(2, –1)

y' = 10x + 2
A
y P' = 22 13
6q 2
Sol.
P q C
M 6 (2,–1)
\ tangent to curve at P
B
y + 1 = 22 (x – 2)
6 12
cos q = =
y = 22x – 45 13 13
2
3 2
y = x –x +x
5
sin q =
13

Q (a,b) PM = AM cotq
æ 12 ö
dy PM = 6 ç ÷ \ 5(PM) = 72
= 3x 2 - 2x + 1 è 5 ø
dx C2
r r
9. Let a and b be two vectors such that
dy r r r r rr r r
= 3a 2 - 2a + 1 | a + b |2= | a |2 +2 | b |2 ,a.b = 3 and | a ´ b |2 = 75 .
dx Q
r
Then | a |2 is equal to____.
2
Hence 3a – 2a + 1 = 22
Official Ans. by NTA (14)
\ 3a2 – 2a – 21 = 0

3a2 – 9a + 7a – 21 = 0
r r2 r2 r2 rr
Sol. a + b = a + 2 b ; a.b = 3
(3a + 7) (a – 3) = 0
–7/3
from curve b = a – a + a 3 2
r r rr r r
As | a |2 + | b |2 +2 a.b = | a |2 + 2 | b |2
a=3 r rr
| b |2 = 2a.b = 6
b = 21 |2a + 9b| = 195
r r
at a = –7/3 tangent will be parallel | a ´ b |2 = 75

r r rr
( )
2
Hence it is rejected | a |2 | b |2 - a.b = 75

r r
6 | a |2 -9 = 75 Þ | a |2 = 14
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 Final JEE-Main Exam July, 2022/29-07-2022/Evening Session
10. Let T : (x – 4)2 + y2 £ 36 ; y Î {–3, –2, –1, 0, .......}
S= {( x, y ) Î ¥ ´ ¥ : 9 ( x - 3 ) + 16 ( y - 4 ) £ 144}
2 2
(0,2 5 )
(0,3)
and T = {( x, y ) Î ¡ ´ ¡ : ( x - 7 ) + ( y - 4 ) £ 36} .
2 2

The n ( S Ç T ) is equal to_____.

(–2,0) (0,0) (4,0) (10,0)
(0,–3)
Official Ans. by NTA (27)
(–2,0)
(0, -2 5 )
( x - 3) (y - 4)
2 2

Sol. S: + £ 1 ; x, y Î {1, 2, 3, .......} S Ç T = (–2, 0), (–1, 0), .....(4, 0) ® (7)

16 9
(–1, 1), (0, 1), ........(3, 1) ® (5)
T : (x – 7)2 + (y – 4)2 £ 36 x, y Î R
Let x – 3 = x : y – 4 = y (–1, –1), (0, –1), ........(3, –1) ® (5)
(–1, 2), (0, 2), (1, 2), (2, 2) ® (4)
x2 y2
S: + £ 1 ; x Î {–2, –1, 0, 1, .......}
16 9 (–1, –2), (0, –2), (1, –2), (2, –2) ® (4)
(0, 3) (0, –3) ® (2)

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