Happy Diwali PHYSICS

ASAT PREPARATION ASSIGNMENT (NURUTRE COURSE)

(1) Zero (2) Positive
1. Find sin15 (3) Negative (4) Infinite
2 2 3 1 9. If acceleration of a particle at any time is given by
(1) (2) a = 2t + 5, calculate the velocity after 5s, if it starts
3 1 2 2 from rest
2 2 3 1 (1) 50 m/s (2) 25 m/s
(3) (4) (3) 100 m/s (4) 75 m/s
3 1 2 2
x  sin x dx 
2
1 1 1 10.
2. Find 1     ....upto 
2 4 8 x3
(1) 1 (2) 2 (1) 3x  cos x  c (2)  cos x  c
3
(3) 3 (4) 4
x3
3. Distance between two points  8, 4  and  0,a  is (3)  cos x  c (4) 3x  cos x  c
3
10. All the values are in the same unit of length.
11. The velocity of a body depends on time according
Find the positive value of a.
(1) 10 (2) 2 to the equation v  20  0.1t 2 . The body is
(3) 4 (4) 6 having
(1) Uniform acceleration
4. If log 2  log 3  log X , then value of X is
(2) Uniform retardation
(1) 6 (2) 12
(3) Non-uniform acceleration
(3) 18 (4) 5
(4) Zero acceleration
5. Find approximate value of tan  3  12. The displacement of a particle moving in a straight
(1) 3 (2) 3 rad line is given by s  8t 2  3t  5 . s in metre and t in
second. It initial velocity is
 (1) 3 m/s (2) 16 m/s
(3) (4) 0
60 (3) 19 m/s (4) Zero
6. A particle moves along the curve 12y  x 3 . Which 13. Velocity - time graph for a uniformly accelerated
coordinate changes at faster rate at x = 10? body moving on a straight path is
(1) x - coordinate (1) Parabola (2) Ellipse
(2) y - coordinate (3) Hyperbola (4) Straight line
(3) Both x and y - coordinate change by same 14. A particle is projected vertically upwards with a
rate velocity u from point O. When it returns to the point
(4) Data insufficient of projection.
(1) It average velocity over the whole journey is
7. The slope of y  x 3  7x 2  3 at x = 2 is non-zero
(1) 0 (2) 12 (2) It average speed over the whole journey is
(3) -16 (4) 16 u
dy 2
8. At point P, the value of is (3) Total distance travelled is twice the total
dx
y displacement
(4) Acceleration at the top most point is zero
15. A stone dropped from the top of the tower touches
the ground in 4 sec. The height of the tower is about

P
g  9.8m / s  2

(1) 78.4 m (2) 52.2 m

(3) 24.0 m (4) 12.8 m
x

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Class-XI Happy Diwali
16. Figure shows the variation of velocity (v) of a body 21. The equation of trajectory of a projectile is
with time (t) from the origin O. Which of the graphs 5
shown in figure correctly represents the variation y  16x  x 2 . The horizontal range is __
of the acceleration (  ) with time (t)? 4
(1) 16 m (2) 8 m
(3) 3.2 m (4) 12.8 m
22. A man walking on a horizontal road in rain which is
v falling down vertically has to hold his umbrella at
an angle 30 to the vertical. Then ratio of the
velocity of rain to man is ____
(1) 3 :1 (2) 2 : 3
O t
(3) 1: 3 (4) 1: 3
23. A projectile is thrown from ground so as to have
maximum horizontal range R. taking the point of
(1) (2) projection as origin, the co-ordinates of the point
where the speed of the particle is minimum are
O t O t ____

 R
(1)  R, R  (2)  R, 
 2
(3) O t (4) O t
R R  R
(3)  ,  (4)  R, 
17. Rain is falling vertically with a speed 3 m/s. If a 2 4  4
man is running horizontally with the same speed
then the velocity of rain w.r.t man is ___  2  1.4   
24. A particle has initial velocity 3iˆ  4ˆj and has

(1) 3 m/s (2) 6 m/s  

acceleration 0.1iˆ  0.2ˆj . Its speed after 10s is
(3) 4.2 m/s (4) 0 m/s ___
18. The velocity of projection of a projectile is (1) 10 units (2) 7 units
 
6iˆ  8jˆ ms 1 .The horizontal range of the projectile
(3) 52 units (4) 8.5 units
is ____  g  10ms
2
  
25. A vector A points vertically upward and B points
(1) 4.9 m (2) 9.6 m  
towards north. The vector product A  B is
(3) 19.6 m (4) 14 m
(1) Null vector
19. The horizontal range of a projectile is 4 3 times (2) Along west
its maximum height . Its angle of projection will be (3) Along east
(1) 30 (2) 60 (4) Vertically downward
(3) 90 (4) 45 26. The ratio of numerical value of average velocity &
20. The co-ordinates of a body moving in a plane at average speed is always
any instant of time ‘t’ are x  t 2 and y  t 2 . (1)  1 (2)  1
Then the velocity of the body at that instant is (3)  1 (4) =0
(1) 2t  2  2 (2)  2  2

(3) 2t  2  2 (4) 2t      

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 Happy Diwali PHYSICS
27. Select incorrect statement 
34. The vector B  5iˆ  2ˆj  Skˆ is perpendicular to the
    
(1) For any two vectors A.B  A B vector A  3iˆ  ˆj  2kˆ , then the value of ‘S’ is
    (1) 1 (2) 4.7
(2) For any two vectors A  B  A B
(3) 6.3 (4) 8.5
(3) A vector is not changed if it slides parallel 35. From the figure, the correct relation is
to itself (the given figure is a parallelogram)
(4) A vector is necessarily changed if it is rotated
through an angle C
28. A particle starts from rest with constant O N
acceleration. It travels x m in the first 2 seconds
and y m in the next 2 seconds, then D B
(1) y = x (2) y = 2x A
(3) y = 3x (4) x = 2y
M P
29. A body is dropped from a height of 45 m. Another E
body is projected vertically downwards from the    
same height 1 second later. If both the bodies reach (1) A  B  E  0
ground at the same time, find the speed of   
(2) C  D  A
projection of second body  g  10m / s     
2

(3) A  B  C  D
(1) 12.5 m/s (2) 25 m/s (4) All of the above
(3) 10 m/s (4) 20 m/s  
30. A body is thrown vertically upwards with a small 36. If a1 and a 2 are two non collinear unit vectors and
speed of u m/s, from the ground. Then  
if a1  a 2  3 , then the value of
(1) Acceleration is constant in magnitude but    
changes direction   
a 1  a 2 . 2a 1  a 2 is
(2) The acceleration is zero at the highest point
(3) Acceleration is maximum at the highest point 3
(1) 2 (2)
(4) Acceleration is constant throughout 2
31. A ball is thrown at an angle 60 falls at a distance 1
of 90m. If it is thrown with same speed at 30 . It (3) (4) 1
2
will fall at a distance of
(1) 30 m (2) 45 m 37. A projectile is given initial velocity of ˆi  4ˆj . the
(3) 60 m (4) 90 m equation of the path is  g  10m / s 
2

32. 1.02 is equal to [approximately] (1) y  2x  5x 2

(1) 1.01 (2) 1.02
(3) 1.03 (4) 1.04 (2) y  4x  5x 2

33. A particle moves along the parabolic path y  ax 2 in (3) 4y  2x  5x 2

such a way that the x-component of the velocity
(4) y  4x  25x 2
remains constant C. The acceleration of the particle
is
(1) ac (2) 2ac 2
(3) a 2 c (4) ac2

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Class-XI Happy Diwali
38. Four particles A, B, C and D are moving with
constant speed v each. At the instant shown relative
velocity of A with respect to B, C and D are in River
directions 60m
B 4m/s

(1) 20 sec (2) 15 sec

(3) 12 sec (4) 16 sec
C A 43. A projectile is thrown with velocity v making an
angle  with the horizontal. It just crosses the top
of two poles, each of height h, after 1 second and 3
second respectively. The time of flight of the
D projectile is
(1) 1 s (2) 2 s
(3) 3 s (4) 4 s
(1) (2)
44. A plank is moving on ground with a velocity v, and
a block is moving on the plank with a velocity u
w.r.t plank as shown in figure. The velocity of block
(3) (4)
w.r.t ground is
39. Two cars A and B are moving in same direction u
with velocities 15 m/s and 5 m/s. When car A is at
a distance d behind the car B, the driver of the car Block
A applies brakes producing uniform retardation of
Plank
2.5m / s 2 . There will be no collision when
v
(1) d < 2 m (2) d > 10 m (1) (v + u) towards right
(3) d > 20 m (4) d < 20 m (2) (v - u) towards tight
40. Particle A is moving with velocity (3) u towards right

VA  2iˆ  4ˆj  3kˆ m / s and particle B is moving (4) (u + v) towards left

with VB  ˆi  ˆj m / s . the magnitude of their relative 45. Two particles A and B are projected simultaneously
velocity is from ground towards each other as shown. If they
collide in mid air then, the height above the ground
(1) 10 m/s (2) 19 m/s
where they collide is  g  10m / s 
2

(3) 19 m/s (4) 11 m/s

41. A train is moving in the north direction at a uniform 100 m/s
speed 10 m/sec. its length is 150 m. A parrot is
flying parallel to the train in the south with a uniform
speed of 5 m/s. The time taken by the parrot to 530 450
cross the train will be
A B
(1) 12 sec (2) 8 sec 140 m
(3) 15 sec (4) 10 sec (1) 75 m (2) 25 m
42. Water is flowing in a river from left to right with (3) 100 m (4) 125 m
velocity 4 m/s as shown in figure. The width of 46. A ball thrown by one player reaches the other in 2
river is 60m. The swimmer ‘A’ can swim with speed seconds, the maximum height attained by the ball
5 m/s with respect to water. If the swimmer wants above the point of projection will be about
to cross the river in minimum time, then this
minimum time taken by swimmer to cross the river (1) 10 m (2) 7.5 m
is (3) 5 m (4) 2.5 m

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 Happy Diwali PHYSICS
47. An aeroplane is flying horizontally with a velocity VA cos 1  VB cos 2
of 600 km.h at a height of 1960 m. When it is (1)
r
vertically at a point A on the gorund, a bomb is
released from it. The bomb strikes the gorund at VA sin 1  VB sin 2
point B. The distance AB is (2)
r
(1) 1200 m (2) 0.33 km
VA sin 1  VB sin 2
(3) 3.33 km (4) 33 km (3)
48. At the height 80m, an aeroplane is moving with 150 r
m/s. A bomb is dropped from it so as to hit a target. VA cos 1  VB cos 2
At what distance from the target should the bomb (4)
r
be dropped (Given g  10m / s 2 )
53. A particle is moving in a circular path. The
(1) 605.3 m (2) 600 m acceleration and momentum of the particle at a

(3) 80 m (4) 230 m
49. A bomber plane moves horizontally with a speed of

certain moment are a  4iˆ  3jˆ m / s and
2


500 m/s and a bomb released from it, strikes the
ground in 10 sec. Angle with horizontal at which it  
p  8iˆ  6ˆj kg  m / s. The motion of the particle

strikes the ground will be  g  10m / s  is

2

(1) Uniform circular motion

1  1  1  1  (2) Accelerated circular motion
(1) tan   (2) tan  
5 2 (3) De-accelerated circular motion
 
(3) tan 1 1 (4) tan 1  5  (4) We can not say anything with a and p only
50. A cart is moving horizontally along a straight line 54. The work done in joules in increasing the extension
with constant speed 30 m/s. A projectile is to be of a spring of stiffness 10 N/cm from 4 cm to 6 cm
fired from the moving cart in such a way that it will is:
return to the cart after the cart has moved 80m. At (1) 1 J (2) 10 J
what speed (relative to the cart) must the projectile (3) 50 J (4) 100 J
be fired (take g  10m / s 2 ) 55. A bullet of mass 5 g is fired at a velocity
(1) 10 m/s (2) 10 8 m / s 900 ms 1 from a rifle of mass 2.5 kg. What is recoil
velocity of the rifle?
40
(3) m/s (4) None of these (1) 0.9 ms 1 (2) 180 ms1
3
51. Four particles are in x-y plane at: (3) 900 ms 1 (4) 1.8ms 1
(P) 1 kg at  0,0  (Q) 2 kg at 1,0  56. A rocket of mass 1000 kg is exhaust gases at a
rate of 4 kgs1 with a velocity 3000 ms 1. The
(R) 3 kg at 1, 2  (S) 4 kg at  2, 0 
thrust developed on the rocket is
The centre of mass is located at:
(1) 12000 N (2) 120 N
(1)  0.3,1.2  (2) 1.3,0.6 
(3) 800 N (4) 200 N
(3)  0.5,1.4  (4) 1.2,0.3 57. A ball of mass m moves with speed v and it strikes
normally with a wall and reflected back normally
52. Find the angular velocity of A w.r.t. B in the figure with same speed. If its time to contact with wall is
given below t, then find force exerted by ball on the wall
 2mv mv
A VA (1) (2)
t t
VB r
mv
 (3) mvt (4)
2t
B

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Class-XI Happy Diwali
58. In a circus stuntman rides a motorbike in a circular 63. Which of the following is incorrect
track of radius R in the vertical plane. The minimum  
speed at highest point of track will be (1) Fnet  M a com
 
u (2) Psystem  M Vcom

R
. 1
(3) K.E system  M Vcom
2
2

(4) None of these

Where
(1) 2gR (2) 0
a com  acceleration of centre of mass
(3) 3gR (4) gR Vcom  Velocity of center of mass
59. A particle moves in a circle of radius 20cm with a M = Total mass of system
linear speed of 10m/s. The angular velocity will 64. The centre of mass of a sytem of particles does
be___ not depend on:-
(1) 50 rad/s (2) 100 rad/s (1) Position of the particles
(3) 25 rad/s (4) 75 rad/s (2) Relative distances between the particles
60. An object is projected at an angle 53 with (3) Masses of the particles
horizontal with 50m / s. Radius of curvature of its (4) Forces acting on the particles
trajectory at the highest point will be 65. Selct correct statement regarding pseudo force:-
(Take g  10 m / s )
2 (1) It is electromagnetic in nature
(2) Newton’s 3rd law is applicable for it
(1) 900 m (2) 90 m
(3) It is a fundamental force
(3) 1600m (4) 160 m (4) It is used to make Newton’s law applicable in
61. Sachin (55 kg) and Kapil (65 kg) are sitting at the non-inertial frame
two ends of a boat at rest in still water. The boat   
weighs 100 kg and is 3.0 m long. Sachin walks down 66. Three forces F1 , F2 and F3 are acting on a particle
   
to Kapil and shakes hand. The boats gets displaced of mass m such that F1  F2  F3  0. If the force
by 
(1) zero m (2) 0.75 m F1 is now removed then the acceleration of the
particle is:
(3) 3.0 m (4) 2.3 m
  
62. A bomb of mass m is projected from the ground  
(1) F2  F3 / m (2) F2 / m
with speed v at angle  with the horizontal. At the  
maximum height from the ground it explodes into (3) F1 / m (4)  F1 / m
two fragments of equal mass. If one fragment 67. A book is lying on the table. What is the angle
comes to rest immediately after explosion, then the between the action of the book on the table and
horizontal range of centre of mass is:- their reaction of the table on the book?
v 2 sin 2  v 2 sin 
(1) (2) PHYSICS
g g

v 2 sin  v 2 sin 2
(3) (4)
2g g


(1) 0 rad (2) rad
4

(3) rad (4)  rad
2

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 Happy Diwali PHYSICS
68. Figure shows a CD rotating clockwise (as seen 71. The force acting on a body moving along x-axis
from above) in the CD-player. After turning it off, varies with the position of the particle as shown in
the CD slows down. Assuming it has not come to a the figure. The body is in stable equilibrium at:
stop yet, the direction of the acceleration of point P
at this instance is F

.P

x1 x2 X
(1) (2)

(3) (4)
69. A particle moves along on a road with constant (1) x1
speed at all points as shown in figure. The normal
(2) x 2
reaction of the road on the particle is:
(3) Both x1 and x 2
D
B (4) Neither x1 nor x 2
.
A 72. A man pushes eight identical blocks on the horizontal
C frictionless surface with horizontal force F. The
force that block-1 exerts at block-2 has magnitude
(1) Same at all points F21 and the force that block-7 exerts on the block-
(2) Maximum at point B
F21
(3) Maximum at point C 8 is F87 . Find F
(4) Minimum at point A 87

70. A motor drives a body along a straight line with a F 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8

constant force. The power P developed by the
motor must vary with time t as: (Initial velocity of
the body is zero)
(1) 3 (2) 5
P P
(3) 7 (4) 9
73. An electric motor that can develop 1.0 hp is used
(1) (2) to lift a mass of 74.6 kg through a distance of 10.0
O t O t m. What is the minimum time in which it can do
this? (Take g  10 m / s2 )
P P
(1) 3 sec (2) 5 sec
(3) 7 sec (4) 10 sec
(3) (4) 74. When a stationary bomb explodes into many
O t O t fragments, which of the following is not correct.
(1) Momentum of system is conserved
(2) Kinetic energy of the system is conserved
(3) Mass of the system is conserved
(4) Acceleration of center of mass is zero

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Class-XI Happy Diwali
75. Diagram shows a situation in which girl is whirling 78. Select the correct statement
a stone with constant speed in a circle. What is the (1) Center of mass always lie inside the body
reason for tension in the string?
(2) Internal force can not change kinetic energy
of the system
(3) Internal force cannot change the momentum
of the system
(4) Center of mass of two point mass lies
towards the lighter mass.
79. A man of mass m starts moving on plank of mass
M with constant velocity v with respect to plank. If
the plank lies on a smooth horizontal surface, then
velocity of plank with respect to ground is:-

(1)
Increase in magnitude of momentum Mv mv
(1) (2)
(2)
Decrease in magnitude of momentum mM M
(3)
Change in direction of momentum Mv mv
(3) (4)
(4)
No force is required as magnitude of m mM
momentum remains constant 80. Two bodies of masses 5 kg and 1 kg are moving
76. What is the value of linear velocity, if
  with velocities 2iˆ  7ˆj  3kˆ and
  3iˆ  4ˆj  k and r  5iˆ  6ˆj  6kˆ
10iˆ  35jˆ  3kˆ m / s respectively. The velocity of
(1) 6iˆ  2jˆ  3kˆ (2) 18iˆ  13jˆ  2kˆ the centre of mass of the two body system is:-
(3) 4iˆ  13jˆ  6kˆ (4) 6iˆ  2ˆj  8kˆ (1) Along z-axis (2) In the xy-plane
(3) In the xyz space (4) In the yz-plane
77. In the figure shown the potential energy U of a
particle is plotted against its position ‘x’ from origin. 81. A body is acted on by a force given by
Then which of the following statement is correct. F  10  2t  N. The impulse received by the body
during the first four seconds is
U
(1) 40 N s (2) 56 N s
(3) 72 N s (4) 32 N s
82. A conical pendulum is moving in a circle with angular
velocity  as shown. If tension in the string is T,,
X which of following equations are correct?
O x1 x2 x3


(1) x1 is in stable equilibrium
(2) x 2 is in unstable equilibrium
(3) x 3 is in stable equilibrium m
(4) None of these

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 Happy Diwali PHYSICS

(1) T  m2  (2) Tsin   m2  88. A particle is revolving is a circular path. Speed of
the particle is changing with time accuring to relation
(3) T  mg cos  (4) T  m2  sin  v  4 t. Find the total acceleration of particle at
83. A particle is released from rest at origin. It moves t  1sec
under influence of potential field
(Radius of circular path = 2 m)
U  x  3x, kinetic energy at x  2 is:-
2
(1) 80 m / s 2 (2) 60 m / s 2
(1) 2 J (2) 1 J
(3) 1.5 J (4) 0 J (3) 32 m / s 2 (4) None of these
84. An ideal spring with spring-constant k is hung from 89. The ratio of center of mass from the ground of a
the ceiling and a block of mass M is attached to its uniform semi-circular ring and uniform circular disc,
lower end. The mass is released with the spring both having same mass and radius is kept at ground
initially unstretched. Then the maximum extension as shown in figure.
in the spring is:-
(1) 4 Mg / k (2) 2 Mg / k (M) (M)
R R
(3) Mg / k (4) Mg / 2k
85. A uniform wire of length  is bent into the shape of Semi-circular Ring Semi-circular disc
‘V’ symmetrically as shown. The distance of its (1) Is greater than 1 (2) Is less than 1
centre of mass from the vertex A is (3) Is equal to 1 (4) Can not be defined
B 90. A ball attached with massless rope of the length
A 60
o
 swings in vertical circle as shown in figure. The
total acceleration of the ball is
C
aiˆ  bjˆ m / sec 2 when it is at angle   37;
  3
(1) (2) (where a and b are positive constant). Find the
2 4
magnitude of centripetal acceleration of the ball at
 3 the instant shown. The axis system is shown in
(3) (4) None of these figure.
8
86. A simple pendulum of length L carries a bob of
mass m. When the bob is at its lowest position, it is
given that the minimum horizontal speed necessary
for it to move in a vertical circle about the point of   37
suspension. When the string is horizontal, the net
force on the bob is
(1) 10 mg (2) 5 mg
(3) 4 mg (4) 1mg
87. A small block of mass m  2 kg is connected at
ˆj
the end of a string having length 1m. Breaking
strength of the string is 128 N. One end of the string î
is connected to the fixed point as shown in figure.
Find the maximum angular velocity by which system

.
can be rotated on a smooth horizontal plane. 3a 4b 3a 4b
(1)  (2) 
2kg 5 5 5 5
O 1m
(1) 10 rad/s (2) 8 rad/s 4a 3b 4a 3b
(3)  (4) 
(3) 5 rad/s (4) None of these 5 5 5 5

[9]
Class-XI Happy Diwali
91. A small block slides with velocity V0  0.5 gr on 94. A uniform circular disc of radius a taken. A
circular portion of radius b has been removed
the horizontal frictionless surface as shown in the
from its as shown in the figure. If the centre of
Figure. The block leaves the surface at point C.
hole is at a distance c from the centre of the
The angle  in the figure is:
disc, the distance x 2 of the centre of mass of
V0 the remaining part from the initial centre of mass
O is given by:

.
B
C
r a
 r

O2 O b
4
1 3
1 O1 x-axis
(1) cos   (2) cos  
9 4

1  1 
x2 c
(3) cos   (4) None of the above
2
b 2 cb2
92. Which of the following is correct
 
(1) a 2  c2
 
(2) a 2  b 2

dV
(1)  magnitude of total acceleration
dt c2 ca 2
 
(3) a 2  b 2
 
(4) c2  b 2

dV
(2) dt  magnitude of Tangential acceleration 95. A particle is acted upon by a force of constant
magnitude which is always perpendicular to the
 velocity of the particle. The motion of the particle
dV
(3)  magnitude of tangential acceleration takes place in plane. It follows that
dt (1) Its velocity is constant

dV (2) Its acceleratin is constant
(4)  Component of acceleration (3) Its kinetic energy is constant
dt
perpendicular to velocity (4) It moves in a parabolic path.
  96. Consider a system of two identical particles. One
Where V represents velocity and V magnitude of the particles is at rest and the other has an

of velocity. acceleration f. The centre of mass has an
93. When a man starts to walk on rough horizontal acceleration:-
surface, then nature and direction of force of friction 
on shoes due to ground: (1) Zero (2) f
(1) Static, forward 
f 
(2) Static, backward (3) (4) 2f
2
(3) Dynamic, forward
(4) Dynamic, backward

[10]
 Happy Diwali PHYSICS
97. Select the incorrect statement. 99. A block of mass m is initially stationary relative to
(1) Spring force is conservative force the plank of mass M. If s   and no friction exists
(2) If work-done by conservative force is positive between ground and M, the maximum value of F
potential energy of the system will increase for no relative sliding between M and m is:
(3) Work-done by conservative force is closed  m F
path is zero. M
(4) If work-done by conservative force is
positive kinetic energy of the system will (1) mg (2) Mg
increase.
98. Which of the following is the correct order of forces  m
(3) mg 1   (4) None of these
(1) Weak interaction < gravitational forces  M
< strong interaction < electrostatic force 100. A body of mass 10 kg is kept on a horizontal floor.
(2) Gravitational force < weak interaction Coefficient of friction between body and floor is
< electrostatic force < strong interaction 0.5. If g  10ms2 , then force of friction acting on
(3) Gravitational force < electrostatic force the body is:
< strong interaction < weak interaction (1) 50 N (2) 25 N
(4) Weak interaction < gravitation force (3) Zero (4) 10 N
< electrostatic force < strong interaction

ANWER KEY
Q. No 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 4 2 2 1 3 2 3 1 1 2 3 1 4 2 1 4 3 2 1 1
Q. No. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 4 1 3 3 2 2 4 3 1 4 4 1 2 4 1 3 2 1 3 3
Q. No. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 4 3 4 1 1 3 3 1 1 3 2 2 2 1 4 1 1 4 1 2
Q. No. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans. 2 4 3 4 4 4 4 1 3 1 2 3 4 2 3 2 2 3 4 1
Q. No. 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans. 2 1 1 2 3 1 2 1 1 2 2 3 1 2 3 3 2 2 3 3
[11]
 Happy Diwali CHEMISTRY

ASAT PREPARATION ASSIGNMENT (NURUTRE COURSE)

1. The energy for 3rd Bohr orbit of H atom is xJ. 6. Two particles A and B are in motion. If the
What will be energy of 1st orbit of Be+3 (Z = 4) wavelengths associated with particle A is 5×10 – 8m,
calculate the wavelength of particle B if momentum
(1) 64 xJ (2) 144 xJ of B is half of A.
(3) 25 xJ (4) 122 xJ (1) 10 – 8m (2) 10 – 7m
2. Calculate max no. of spectra lines emits when an (3) 10 – 5m (4) 10 – 3m
e – of hydrogen atom present in 2nd excited state 7. Uncertainty in position is twice the uncertainty
returns to ground state [Consider for sample of in momentum Uncertainty in velocity is
hydrogen atom] h 1 √h
(1) √ (2)
(1) 2 (2) 6 (3) 1 (4) 3 π 2m π

3. Find ratio of radius of nucleus of two atoms (3)

1 √
h
π
(4)
h
4π
whose mass no. are 27 & 64 2√2m

(1) 2 : 3 (2) 27 : 64
8. If in Bohr's model, for unielectronic atom, time
period of revolution is represented as Tn,
(3) 5 : 8 (4) 3 : 4 z where n represents shell number and z
represents atomic number then the value of T1,
4. Give the correct order of initials True(T) or 2 : T2, 1 will be
False(F) for the following statements: (1) 8 : 1 (2) 1 : 8
(I) Number of electrons having 'l =0' is 10 for (3) 1 : 1 (4) None of these
Pd.
(II) The value of Zeff for 3d electron of Cr and 3d 9. The orbital diagram in which 'Aufbau principle'
electron of Mn is same as the number of electron is violated is -
in 'd' subshell of Cr and Mn are same.
(1)
(III) Multiplicity of Fe is equal to Ni+2.
ℓ
(IV) Value of ( ) for last electron of element (2)
n
having atomic number 57 is 0.4.
(3)
(1) TTTT (2) FTTT
(3) TFTF (4) FFFT (4)
5. Consider the following nuclear reactions 10. In which of the following pairs is the probability
involving X and Y: of finding the electron in xy-plane zero for both
X → Y + 42 He orbitals ?
Y → 8 O18 + 1 H 1 (1) 3dyz , 4dx2−y 2 (2) 2pz , dz 2
If both neutrons as well as protons in both sides (3) 4dzx , 3pz (4) All of these
are conserved in nuclear reaction then identify
period number of X and moles of neutrons in 11. In a sample of H-atom electrons make transition
from 5th excited state to ground state, producing
4.6g of X.
all possible types of photons, then number of
(1) 3, 2.4 NA (2) 3, 2.4 lines in infrared region are
(3) 2, 4.6 (4) 3, 0.2 N (1) 4 (2) 5 (3) 6 (4) 3
ASAT PREPARATION ASSIGNMENT
 Class-XI Happy Diwali
12. Three energy levels P.Q.R of a certain atom are (1) a-p , b-q , c-s , d-r , e-t
such that EP<EQ<ER. If λ 1, λ 2 and λ 3 are the
(2) a-p , b-q , c-r , d-s , e-t
wave length of radiation corresponding to
transition R→Q; Q→P and R→P respectively. (3) a-q , b-p , c-r , d-t , e-s
The correct relationship between λ 1, λ 2 and λ 3 is (4) a-s , b-t , c-r , d-q , e-p
(1) λ 1 + λ 2 = λ 3 17. Match the following:
1 1 1 Column-I Column-II
(2) λ = +
3 λ1 λ2
a 2s P n=4,l=2,m=0
(3) λ 3 = λ 1 λ 2
√

b 2pz Q n = 4 , l = 2 , m = – 2 or +2
2 1 1
(4) λ = λ + λ c 4dx2 −−y 2 R n=2,l=1,m=0
3 1 2

13. If radius of second stationary orbit (in Bohr's d 4dz 2 S n=2,l=0,m=0

atom) is R. Then radius of third orbit will be (1) a-s , b-q , c-r , d-p (2) a-r , b-p , c-q , d-s
(1) R/3 (2) 9R
(3) a-s , b-r , c-q , d-p (4) a-r , b-r , c-q , d-p
(3) R/9 (4) 2.25R
14. 18. Given below are two statements
Supposing the ionization energy of hydrogen
atom is 640 eV. Point out the main shell having
Assertion : It is impossible to determine the
exact position and exact momentum of an
energy equal to – 40 eV- electron simultaneously
(1) n=2 (2) n=3
Reason : The path of an electron in an atom is
(3) n=4 (4) n=5 clearly defined.
15. S1: Bohr model is applicable for Be2+ ion. (1) If both Assertion & Reason are correct &
S2: Total energy coming out of any light source the Reason is a correct explanation of the
is integral multiple of energy of one photon. Assertion
S3: Number of waves present in unit length is (2) If both Assertion & Reason are correct but
wave number.
S4: e/m ratio in cathode ray experiment is Reason is not correct explanation of the
Assertion
independent of the nature of the gas.
(1) F F T T (2) T T F F (3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False

(3) F T T T (4) T F F F (4) If Assertion is False but the Reason is True

16. Which is correctly matched

19. The correct order of atomic radii in group 13
elements is
Column-I Column-II
(1) B < Ga < Al < In < Tl
a 1s2 p Zero
b 1s22s22p6 q Zero (2) B < Al < In < Ga < TI
c 1s22s22p5 r ± 1/2 (3) B < Al < Ga < In < TI
d 1s22s22p3 s ± 3/2 (4) B < Ga < Al < Tl < In
e 1s22s22p63s23663d54s2 t ± 5/2

ASAT PREPARATION ASSIGNMENT

 Happy Diwali CHEMISTRY

20. What is the value of electron gain enthalpy of 26. Assertion : F2 does not undergo
Na+ if IE1 of Na = 5.1 eV :- disproportionation reactions
(1) +0.2 eV (2) – 5.1 eV Reason : F shows only O & – 1 oxidation state
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not
(3) – 10.2 eV (4) +2.55 eV the correct explanation of (A)
21. Which of the following examples does not (2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
represent disproportionation?
(1) MnO2 + 4HCl → MnCl2 + Cl2 + 2H2 O (3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

(2) 2H2 O2 → 2H2 O + O2

(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A)
(3) 4KClO3 → 3KClO4 + KCl
27. Assertion : CH4 act as a reducing agent only.
(4) 3Cl2+6NaOH5 →NaCl+NaClO3 + 3H2O Reason : C in – 4 (lower O.S.) so it (anoxidised
22. Equivalent weight of Cl2 in only)
Cl2 (g) + NaOH(aq) → NaCl(aq) + NaClO3 (aq) + H2 O (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not
is the correct explanation of (A)
(1) 71 (2) 35.5 (3) 42.6 (4) 3.55 (2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
23. X, Y & Z for redox reaction (3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
xCr 3+ −
+ yBrO + ZOH → −
CrO2−
4
−
+ Br + H2 O
(1) 1 , 2, 3 (2) 2, 3, 10 (4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A)
(3) 2, 1, 3 (4) 2, 2, 3
28. Assertion : O. No. of O in KO2 is – 2
24. Assertion : KMnO4 is strong reducing agent Reason : O. No. of O in all case show – 2
Reason : Mn exist in its highest oxidation state (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not
the correct explanation of (A) the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A) correct explanation of (A)

25. Assertion : Cucl → Cacl2 + Ca is a

29. Which can act as both oxidising and reducing
agent is
disporportionation reaction
Reason : All transition metals show (1) CO2 (2) CH4
dispropeortionation reaction (3) CO (4) KMnO4
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not
the correct explanation of (A) 30. What are the oxidation of P in the following
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct compounds ?
H3PO2, H3PO3, PH3, HPO3
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(1) +1, +3, +3, +5 (2) +3, +3, +5, +5
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A) (3) +1, +2, +3, +5 (4) +1, +5, – 3, +5

ASAT PREPARATION ASSIGNMENT

 Class-XI Happy Diwali
31. O. No. of helogen vary from 36. Select the correct statement(s) for the following
(1) – 1 to + 7 (2) – 1 to + 5 reaction: –
2A(s)+B(g)→3C(g)+4D(l)
(3) – 1 to + 1 (4) – 1 to + 3
(1) 2 moles of A always produce 3 moles of C
32. The value of cofficients to balance the following and 4 moles of D
reaction are
Cr (OH)3 + ClO – to OH – → CrO42 – + Cl – + (2) 22.4l of B(g) produces 3 moles of C at 1
H2O atm and 273 K in excess of A.
(3) B will always remain in excess because
Cr(OH)3 ClO – CrO42 – Cl – volume of gas is very high than solid.
(a) 2 3 3 3 (4) Moles of D produced is always less than C
because volume of liquid is less than gas.
(b) 2 4 3 2
(c) 2 4 4 2
37. The molar ratio of Fe++ to Fe+++ in a mixture of
FeSO4 and Fe2(SO4)3 having equal number of
(d) 2 3 2 3 sulphate ion in both ferrous and ferric sulphate is
(1) a (2) b (3) c (4) d (1) 1 : 2
33. When KMNO4 is reduced with H2C2O4 in (2) 3 : 2
Acidic medium, O. No. of Mn change from (3) 2 : 3
(1) 2 to 7 (2) 4 to 7
(4) can't be determined
(3) 7 to 2 (4) 6 to 2
38. If 500 ml of 1 M solution of glucose is mixed
34. The density (in g mL – 1) of a 3.6 M sulphuric with 500 ml of 1 M solution of glucose final
acid solution that is 29% H2SO4 (molar mass = molarity of solution will be :
98 g mol – 1) by mass will be (1) 1 M (2) 0.5 M
(1) 1.64 (2) 1.88 (3) 1.22 (4) 1.45
(3) 2 M (4) 1.5 M
35. Statement 1: As temperature increase, molality
39. The volume of water is required to make 0.20 M
of solution decreases.
Statement 2: Molality of a solution is dependent solution from 16 mL of 0.5 M solution is
on the mass of solute and solvent. (1) 40 ml (2) 16 ml
(1) Statements 1 and 2 are true. Statement 2 is (3) 50 ml (4) 24 ml
the correct explanation for statement 1. 40. A sample of ammonium phosphate (NH4)3PO4
(2) Statements 1 and 2 are true. Statement 2 is contains 3.18 mol of H atoms. The number of
not the correct explanation for statement 1. mol of O atoms in the sample is :
(3) Statement 1 is true, statement 2 is false. (1) 0.265 (2) 0.795
(4) Statement 1 is false, statement 2 is true. (3) 1.06 (4) 3.18

ASAT PREPARATION ASSIGNMENT

 Happy Diwali CHEMISTRY

ASAT PREPARATION ASSIGNMENT

ANSWER KEY
Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 1 4 4 2 3 4 2 3 3 2 4 3 3 2 3 3 1 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 3 2 1 1 3 4 2 2 1 4 3
 Class - XI

THERMODYNAMICS

1. For a spontaneous reaction the G1 equilibrium constant (K) and E ocell will be respectively
(A) –ve, > 1, +ve (B) +ve, > 1, –ve (C) –ve, < 1, –ve (D) –ve, > 1, –ve
2. Consider an endothermic reaction X  b and E f for the backward and forward reactions, respectively.
In general.
(A) E b  E f (B) E b  E f
(C) E b  E f (D) There is no definite relation between E b and E f
3. Consider the reaction: N 2  3H 2  2NH 3 carried out at constant temperature and pressure. If H and 
expressions is true?
(A) H  0 (B) H  U (C) H  U (D) H  U
4. A schematic plot of ln K eq versus invers temperature for a reaction is shown be

The reaction must be -

(A) Exothermic (B) Endothermic
(C) One with negligible enthalpy change (D) Highly spontaneous at ordin temperature
5. Which of the following pairs of a chemical reaction is certain to result in a spontaneous reaction
(A) Exothermic and increasing disorder (B) Exothermic and decreasing disorder
(C) Endothermic and increasing disorder (D) Endothermic and decreasing disorder
6. A reaction occurs spontaneously if –
(A) TS  H and both H and S are +ve (B) TS  H and H is +ve and S is -ve
(C) TS  H and both H and S are +ve (D) TS  H and both H and S are +ve
7. The absolute enthalpy of neutralisation of the reaction
MgO  s   2HCl  aq   MgCl2  aq   H 2 O    will be -
(A) 57.33 kJ mol1 (B) Greater than 57.33 kJ mol1
(C) Less than 57.33 kJ mol1 (D) 57.33 kJ mol1
8. A system absorbs 10 kJ of heat and does 4 kJ of work. The intrernal energy of the system -
(A) Decreases by 6 kJ (B) Increases by 6 kJ
(C) Decreases by 14 kJ (D) Increases by 14 kJ
9. One litre-atmosphere is approximately equal to -
(A) 19.2 J (B) 101 J (C) 8.31 J (D) 831 J

[1]
 Class - XI

10. Heat evolved in the reaction

H 2  Cl2  2 HCl is 182 kJ
Bond energies H–H = 430 kJ/mole, Cl–Cl = 242 kJ/mole. The H–Cl bond energy is
(A) 763 kJ/mole (B) 427 kJ/mole (C) 336 kJ/mole (D) 154 kJ/mole
11. Equal volumes of molar hydrochloric acid and sulphuric acid are neutralized by dil, NaOH solution and
x kcal and y kcal of heat are liberated respectively. When of the following is true?
(A) x = y (B) x = 1/2 y (C) x = 2y (D) None of these
12. A gas expands isothermally and reversibly. The work done by the gas is
(A) Zero (B) Maximum (C) Minimum (D) Cannot be determined
1
13. One mole of methanol, when burnt in oxygen, gives out 723 kj mol heat. If one mole of oxygen is used,
what will be the amount of heat evolved ?
(A) 723 kJ (B) 964 kJ (C) 482 kJ (D) 241 kJ
14. Enthalpy of a reaction at 27 o C is 15 kJ mol1 . The reaction will be feasible if entropy is
(A) 15 J mol1K 1 (B) 50 J mol1K 1
(C) Greater than 50 J mol1 K 1 (D) Less than 50 J mol1K 1
15. The heat of formation of CO and CO 2 are –26.4 Kcal. And –94.6 Kcal. Heat of combustion of carbon
monoxide will be
(A) + 26.4 Kcal (B) – 68.2 Kcal (C) – 120.6 Kcal (D) None
16. One mole of an ideal gas at 300 K is expanded isothermally from an initial volume of 1 litre to 10 litres.
The 
(A) 163.7 cal (B) Zero (C) 1381.1 cal (D) 9 lit atom
17. A solution of 500 ml. of 0.2 M KOH and 500 ml of 0.2 MHCl is mixed and stirred the rise in temperature
is T1 . The experiment is repeated using 250 ml each of solution, the temperature rise is T2 . Which of the
following is true ?
(A) T1  T2 (B) T1  2T2 (C) T1  4T2 (D) T2  9 T1
18. When 0.2 g of butanol –1 was burnt in a suitable apparatus, the heat evolved was sufficient to raise the
temperature of 200 g of water by 5o C . The heat of combustion of butanol –1 in kcal / mole will be
(mol mass of butanol –1 =74)
(A) 14.8 (B) 74 (C) 37 (D) 370
19. A process in which no heat change takes place is called
(A) An isothermal process (B) An adiabatic process
(C) An isobaric process (D) An isochoric process
20. The standard molar heat of formation of ethane, CO 2 and water    are respectively –21.1, –94.1 and
–68.3 kcal. The standard molar heat of combustion of ethane will be
(A) –372 kcal (B) 162 kcal (C) –240 kcal (D) 183.5 kcal

[2]
 Class - XI

21. An intensive property in thermodynamics means a property which depends

(A) On the amount of the substance only
(B) On the nature of the substance only
(C) Both on the amount as well as nature of the substance
(D) Neither on the amount nor on the nature
22. Given the bond energies of N  N, H  H and N  H bonds are 945, 436 and 391 kJ mole 1 respectively,
the enthalpy of the reaction N 2  g   3 H 2  g   3 g  is
(A) –93 kJ (B) 102 kJ (C) 90 kJ (D) 105 kJ
23. The heat required to decompose a compound into its elements is equal to the heat evolved when the
compound is formed from its elements. This is in accordance with
(A) Hess's law (B) First law of thermodynamics
(C) Joule-Thomson law (D) Kirchoff's law
24. Which of the following relationship is correct?
o
(A) G o  R T ln k (B) K  e  (C) K  10G / 2.303 RT
(D) All are correct
25. A gas can expand from 100 ml to 250 ml under a constant pressure of 2 atm. The work done by the gas is
(A) 30.38 Joule (B) 25 Joule (C) 5 k/Joule (D) 16 Joule
26. The entropy of a perfectly crystalline solid at absolute zero is
(A) Positive (B) Negative (C) Zero (D) Not definite
27. Which of the following describes the criterion of spontaneity
(A) H T.P  0 (B) STotal  0 (C) G T.P  0 (D) All of these
28. The enthalpies of formation of N 2 O and NO are 82 and 90 kj/mole respectively. The enthalpy of the
reaction 2N 2 O  g   O 2  g  
(A) 8 kJ (B) 88 kJ (C) – 16 kJ (D) 196 kJJ
29. Which one of the following is correct
(A) G  H  TS (B) H  G  TS
(C) S  1 / T  G  H  (D) S  1 / T  H   
30. "If a system A is in thermal equilibrium with B and B is in thermal equilibrium with C, then A and C are
in equilibrium with each other." This is a statement of
(A) Cyclic rule (B) Zeroth law of thermodynamics
(C) First law of thermodynamics (D) Second law of thermodynamics
31. Given the following entropy values (in JK mol ) at 298 K and 1 atm : H 2  g  :130.6, Cl2  g  : 223.0
1 1

and HCl (g) : 186.7. The entropy change  in KJ mol1  for the reaction H 2  g   Cl2  g   2 HCl  g  is

(A) + 540.3 (B) + 727.0 (C) –166.9 (D) 19.8

32. Free energy change of reversible reaction at equilibrium is
(A) Infinite (B) Zero (C) Positive (D) Negative
33. In a reversible process, Ssys  surr. is

(A) > 0 (B) < 0 (C)  (D) 

[3]
 Class - XI

34. The latent heat of vaporisation of a liquid at 500 K and 1 atm. pressure is 10.0 kcal/mol. What will be the
change in internal energy of 3 moles of the liquid at the same temperature and pressure?
(A) 27.0 kcal (B) 13.0 kcal (C) – 27.0 kcal (D) –13.0 kcal
35. For the reaction 2 SO 2  g   O 2  g   3 g  the entropy
(A) Increases (B) Decrease
(C) Remains unchanged (D) Change cannot be predicted
36. Under the same conditions how many ml of 1 MKOH and 0.5 M H 2SO 4 solutions, respectively, when
mixed to form a total volume of 100 ml. produce the highest rise in temperature?
(A) 67,33 (B) 33,67 (C) 40,60 (D) 50,50
37. For a reversible isothermal process in equilibrium, the entropy change is given by the expression
T q V E
(A) S  (B) S  rev (C) S  (D) S 
q rev T T T
38. The heat of combustion of yellow P and red P are –9.91 kJ mol1 and 8.78 kJ mol1 respectively. The
heat of transition of yellow P 
(A) – 18.69 kJ (B) +1.13 kJ (C) +18.69 kJ (D) –1.13 kJ
39. The bond energy of H 2 is 436.4 kJ. This means that
(A) 436.4 kJ of heat is required to break one bond in H 2 molecule to give two atoms of hydrogen
(B) 436.4 kJ of heat is required to dissociate 6.02  1023 molecules of H 2 to form H-atoms
(C) 436.4 kJ of heat is required to dissociate 3.01  1023 molecules of H 2 to 6.02  1023 atoms of
hydrogen
(D) 436.4 kJ of electrical energy is required to dissociate 6.02  1023 molecules of H 2 to form H  and
H  ions
40. The heat of combustion of CH 4  g  C (graphite), H 2  g  –20 kcal, –40 kcal –10 kcal respectively. The
heat of formation of methane is
(A) –40 kcal (B) +40 kcal (C) –80.0 kcal (D) +80 kcal
41. A hypothetical reaction, A 
A  C; H  q1
C  D; H  q 2
1 / 2D  B;  3

The heat of reaction is :

(A) q1  q 2  2q 3 (B) q1  q 2  2q 3 (C) q1  q 2  2q 3 (D) q1  2q 2  2q 3
42. For the reaction 2 NH 3  g   2  g   3 H 2  g  , which of the following statement is correct ?
(A) H  E (B)   E (C) H  E (D) 
43. A heat engine operating between 227 C and 27 C absorbs 2 kcal of heat from the 227 o C reservoir
o o

percycle. The amount of work done in one cycle is

(A) 0.4 kcal (B) 4 kcal (C) 0.8 kcal (D) 8 kcal

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 Class - XI

44. The heats of neutralisation of four acides a, b, c and d when neutralised against a common base are 13.7,
9.4, 11.2 and 12.4 kcal respectively. The weakest among these acids is
(A) a (B) b (C) c (D) d
45. Given that
2 C  s   2 O2  g   2 g  ; 
H 2  g   1/2 O 2  g   2 O  I  : 
1
C2 H 2  g   2 O 2  2 CO 2  g   H 2 O  I 
2
H  1301 kJ
Heat of formation of acetylene is
(A) –1802 kJ (B) +1802 kJ (C) –800 kJ (D) +228 kJ
46. 1 mole of H 2SO 4 is mixed with 2 moles of NaOH. The heat evolved will be
(A) 57.3 kJ (B) 2  57.3 kJ (C) 57.3/2 kJ (D) Cannot be predicted
47. What percent T1 is of T2 for a heat engine whose efficiency is 10% ?
(A) 80 % (B) 90 % (C) 10 % (D) 100 %
48. If the heat of solution for one mole of KCl in 20 moles of water and 200 moles of water are + 3.80 kcal
and + 4.40 kcal respectively, then the heat of dilution is
(A) +8.20 kcal (B) –8.2 kcal (C) +0.60 kcal (D) –0.60 kcal
49. The enthalpy of dissolution of BaCl 2  s  and BaCl2 , 2H 2 O  s  are –20.6 and 8.8 kJ mol1 respectively.
The enthalpy of hydration for BaCl2  s   2H 2 O  BaCl2 . 2 H 2 O  s  is
(A) 29.4 kJ (B) –29.4 kJ (C) –11.8 kJ (D) 38.2 kJ
50. When 1 mole of H 2 O 2 is decomposed by platinum black, the heat evolved is 96.6 kJ. The heat of
formation of 1 mole of H 2 O 2 is
(A) 96.6 kJ (B) 193.2 kJ (C) 386.4 kJ (D) 48.3 kJ
51. In which one of the following cases, the heat of neutralization is minimum ?
(A) Neutralization of NH 4 OH with HCl (B) Neutralization of NaOH with CH 3COOH
(C) Neutralization of NaOH with HNO 3 (D) Neutralization of NH 4 OH with CH 3COOH
52. 2 mole of an gas at 27 o C temperature is expanded reversible from 2 lit to 20 lit. Find entropy change
(R = 2 cal/mol K)
(A) 92.1 (B) 0 (C) 4 (D) 9.2
53. Which one of the following expresses heat of formation of CO 2 ?
(A) CaCO3  2 HCl  2 H 2 O  CO 2 , H  a kcal
(B) CO  1/2 O 2  CO 2 , 
(C) C  O 2  CO 2 , 
(D) 2 NaHCO3  Na 2 CO 3  H 2 O  CO 2 , 

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 Class - XI

54. C  O 2  CO 2 ,  , CO  1/2 O 2  CO 2 ,  Then  , for CO will be

(A) 2 x + y (B) x – y (C) y - 2x (D) y - x
55. The standard state in chemical energetics implies
(A) 283 K (B) 1 atmospheric pressure
(C) 273 K, 1 atm pressure (D) 298 K, 1 atm pressure
56. Which one of the following not expresses Q as the heat of combustion ?
(A) 2 H 2  O 2  2 H 2O  Q (B) C  1/2 O 2  CO  Q
(C) CH 4  2 O 2  CO 2  2 H 2 O  Q (D) 2 C 6 H 6  15 O 2  12 CO 2  6H 2O  Q
57. Look at the following diagram :

The enthalpy change for the reaction A 

(A) – 25 kJ (B) – 40 kJ (C) + 25 kJ (D) – 65 kJ
58. When ammonium chloride is dissolved in water, the solution becomes cold. The Change is
(A) Endothermic (B) Exothermic (C) Supercooling (D) None of these
59. The correct relationship between H and 
(A) H  E  PV (B) H  E  PV (C) H  E  PV (D) H  E  P
60. During the evaporation of a liquid
(A) Enthalpy decreases (B) Enthalpy increases
(C) Enthalpy remains unchanged (D) Internal energy decreases
61. In the reaction C  s   O2  g   2 g   93.4 kcal
(A) Enthalpy of products is greater than that of reactants
(B) Enthalpy of products is less than that of reactants
(C) Enthalpy of products is same as that of reactants
(D) Enthalpy of products is half of that of reactants
62. Internal energy of one mole of a gas is
3 1 1 3
(A) RT (B) kT (C) RT (D) kT
2 2 2 2
63. In an isothermal reversible cyclic process, the total change in internal energy
(A) Is always positive (B) Is always negative (C) In always zero (D) Can have any value
64. Internal energy of an ideal gas depends only upon
(A) Volume (B) Temperature (C) Pressure (D) Density
65. The change in internal energy of a system depends on
(A) Initial and final states of a system (B) Whether the path is reversible
(C) Whether the path is irreversible (D) None of these

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 Class - XI

ANSWER KEY
Q.No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

Ans. A A C B A C C B B B

Q.No. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

Ans. B B C C B B A D B A

Q.No. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30

Ans. B A B D A C B D D B

Q.No. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40

Ans. D B D A B D B D B A

Q.No. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50

Ans. C C C B D B B C B A

Q.No. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60

Ans. D D C D D B A A B C

Q.No. 61 62 63 64 65

Ans. B A C B A

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ASAT PREPARATION ASSIGNMENT (NURUTRE COURSE)

Topic :
THE LIVING WORLD
1. Which of the following is most obvious and 4. Isolated metabolic reactions in-vitro are ____
technically complicated defining feature of all (1) living things
livings?
(2) not living things but surely living reactions
(1) Consciousness
(3) living things but not living reactions
(2) Cellular organisation
(4) neither living things nor living reactions
(3) Metabolism
5. Which of the following are true for of all
(4) Both (2) and (3) living organism :-
2. Reproduction can not be taken as defining (1) are made up of cells
property of living because-
(2) can grow extrinsicaly
(1) Unicellular organisms reproduce by cell
division. (3) can reproduce themselves
(2) Multicellular organisms reproduce by (4) have self consciousness
both, asexual and sexual methods. 6. Worker honey bees do not show
(3) Few organisms on the earth are of sterile (1) Growth (2) Reproduction
nature also (3) Metabolism (4) Consciousness
(4) Reproduction property is present in all 7. Growth occurs _______ in plants and _______
living organisms in animals.
3. How many incorrect statements with respect to
(1) Continuously, only upto a certain age
growth
(a) Non-living objects do not show growth (2) Only upto a certain age, continuously
without exception. (3) Continuously, never
(b) Plant show definite growth
(4) Once, twice
(c) Growth can be internal or external
(d) Animal grow upto a certain age.
(e) Growth and reproduction are mutually
exclusive events in unicellular organisms
(1) 1 (2) 3
(3) 4 (4) 2
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8. Growth occurs, when :- 9. The number of species that are known and
(1) Anabolism reactions increase and described ranges between :-
Catabolism reactions decrease (1) 1.7 to 21.9 million (2) 1.7 to 1.8 million
(2) Anabolism reactions decrease and (3) 50 million (4) 10 million
Catabolism reactions increase
(3) Anabolism reactions increase and
Catabolism reactions increase
(4) Anabolism reactions decrease and
Catabolism reactions decrease

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Topic : LIVING WORLD

1. Artificial system 4. Why the determination of relationship becomes
(1) Gave equal weightage to vegetative and more complex in higher taxonomic categories?
sexual characteristics (1) Number of common characters goes on
(2) Gave equal importance to each character decreasing in lower taxa
and at the same time hundreds of (2) Number of common characters goes on
characters can be considered decreasing in higher taxa
(3) Is based on cytological information (3) Because classification itself is very
(4) Is based on chemical constituents difficult process
2. Study the following statements carefully and (4) Number of common characters goes on
give the answer :- increasing in higher taxa
A. Biological names are generally in Latin and 5. Cytotaxonomy based on
printed in italics. (1) Cell structure
B. The first word in biological names
represents the genus. (2) Chromosome number, Structure and
C. Both the words in a biological name are Behaviour
separately underlined when printed. (3) Chemical constituents of cell
D. The first word of biological name starts with (4) Cell evolutionary pattern
capital letter when given in memory of a person
otherwise with small letter. 6. Find correct statement
(a) Flora → actual account of habitat and
(1) A, B – correct; C, D – incorrect distribution of plants and animals.
(2) A, C – correct; B, D – incorrect (b) Manuals → information on any taxon.
(3) A, D – correct; B, C – correct (c) Monographs → provide information for
identification of name of species found in area
(4) A, B – incorrect; C, D – correct
(1) All correct (2) Two are correct
3. Taxonomists use to prepare and disseminate
taxonomic informations by :- (3) One correct (4) Neither is correct

(1) Zoological park and herbarium 7. The scientific term for categories is ________
(1) Catalogue (2) Taxa
(2) Museum and herbarium
(3) Taxonomy (4) Key
(3) Manuals and monographs
(4) Keys and herbarium
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8. The contrasting character generally in a pair 12. In taxonomy the first step is :-
used for identification of plants and animals are (1) Identification (2) Nomenclature
referred as
(3) Classification (4) Affinities
(1) key (2) couplet
13. Largest Botanical Garden, Indian Botanical
(3) lead (4) all the above Garden and National Botanical Research
9. ICBN stands for Institute are situated respectively at:-
(1) International Code of Botanical (1) Kew, Lucknow, Howrah
Nomenclature (2) Kew, Howrah, Lucknow
(2) International Classification of Biological (3) Lucknow, Howrah, Kew
Nomenclature
(4) Howrah, Lucknow, Kew
(3) International Code of Botanical Naming
14. Phylogenetic system of classification is based
(4) International Classification for botanical on :-
naming
(1) morphological characters
10. Which of the following is a correct name :-
(2) chemical constituents
(1) Solanum tuberosum
(3) evolutionary relationships
(2) Solanum Tuberosum
(4) floral characters
(3) Solanum tuberosum Linn.
15. Match the following methods of reproduction
(4) All the above
True
11. Scientific name of Mango plant is Mangifera (a) Fungi (i)
regeneration
indica Linn. in the above name Linn. refers to
:- (b) Yeast (ii) Fragmentation

(1) Variety of Mango Protonema of

(c) (iii) Budding
mass
(2) A taxonomist who proposed the present
(d) Flat worms (iv) Asexual spoes
nomenclature in honour of Linnaeus
(3) A scientist who for the first time described
Mango plant
(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii,d-iv (2) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
(4) A scientist who changed the name
proposed by Linnaeus and proposed (3) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i (4) a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i
present name
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16. Select the wrong match 19. Assertion : According to five kingdom
(a) Indian Botanical Garden - Lucknow classification chlamydomonas and chlorella are
(b) Royal Botanical Garden - England placed in kingdom protista.
(c) Quick Reterral system - Key Reason : Chlamydomonas & Chlorella are
(d) Collection of preserved plant & animals unicellular prokaryotes
specimen - Herbarium
(1) b,c,d (2) a,b,c (1) Both assertion and reason are true and the
(4) All statement are reason is the correct explanation of the
(3) a,c,d asertion
wrong
17. The system of classification of plants proposed (2) Both assertion and reason are true and the
by these two botanists is claimed to be a natural reason is not the correct explanation of the
system? assertion
(1) Linnaeus & Theophrastus (3) Assertion is true but reason is false
(2) Bentham & Hooker (4) Assertion and reason both are false
(3) Aristotle & Theophrastus 20. Which of the following taxonomic categories is
being described by the given statements (i-iii)?
(4) Darwin & Wallace
18. Biological concept of species was given (i) It is the basic unit of classification.
(1) Ernst Haecket (2) Ernst Mayr (ii) It is defined as the group of individuals
which resemble in their morphological and
(3) John ray (4) Ernst chain reproductive characters and interbreed among
themselves and produce fertile
offsprings.
(iii) Human beings belong to the species
sapiens which is grouped in the genus
Homo.
(1) Species (2) Genus
(3) Order (4) Family

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21. Characterisation of families is done on the 23. Cauliflower, cabbage and knol-khol have same
basis of :- morphological character but these three can not
(1) Vegetative feautres interbreed among themselves. How many
biological and taxonomic species are present
(2) Reproductive features respectively:-
(3) Both (1) and (2) (1) 1, 1 (2) 3, 1
(4) None of them (3) 1, 3 (4) 0, 1
22. Choose the incorrect match : 24. What is the standard size of Herbarium sheet?
(1) Cladistics — Origin from a common (1) 11·5 × 16·5 cm (2) 29 × 41 inches
ancestor
(3) 11·5 × 16.5 inches (4) 45 × 30 cm
(2) Cytotaxonomy—Chromosome number and
structure 25. The housefly belong to which family in
taxonomical classification ?
(3) Numerical — Mathematical tools an
taxonomy computers (1) Musca (2) Diptera

(4) Chemotaxonomy — Chromosome number (3) Muscidae (4) Insecta

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Topic : BIOLOGICAL CLASSIFICATION

1. Bacteria performing nitrification are :- 5. How many of the among belongs to kingdom
(1) Chemosynthetic (2) Heterotrophic fungi.
Neuropora, Gonyaulax, Noctiluca, Aspergillus,
(3) Parasitic (4) Symbiotic Colleotrichum, Alternaria, Albugo
2. Which of the following are responsible for the (1) Four (2) Three
production of methane in the gut of several
ruminant animals :- (3) Five (4) Two
(1) Halophiles (2) Methanomonas 6. Identify the (a) & (b) figure and their (P) and
(Q) part.
(3) E.coli (4) Methanogens
3. Select incorrect statement ?
(1) Heterotrophic bacteria are most abundant
in nature.
(2) The cyanobacteria are unicellular, colonial
or filamentous (1) a - Tobacco Mosaic virus, P → RNA,
(3) Halophiles are found in extreme salty b - Bacteriophage, Q → Head
areas (2) a - Bacteriophage, P → RNA
(4) Mycoplasma can not survive without b - Tobacco Mosaic virus, Q → Head
oxygen. (3) a - Potato Mosaic virus, P → Head
4. Bacteriochlorophyll is not found in which of b - Cyanophage, Q → RNA
the following group of bacteria? (4) a - Smallpox virus, P → RNA
(1) Purple sulphur bacteria b - Influenza virus, Q → Head
(2) Purple non-sulphur bacteria
(3) Sulphur bacteria
(4) More than one option is correct

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7. Assertion : All viruses are obligate intracellular 9. Assertion : Membrane bound cell organelles
parasites are absent in prokaryotes.
Reason : Viruses always require host cell to Reason : Plasma membrane is absent in
multiply prokaryotes.
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and (1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and
Reason is the correct explanation of Reason is the correct explanation of
Assertion. Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but (2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but
Reason is not the correct explanation of Reason is not the correct explanation of
Assertion. Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false. (3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false. (4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
8. Assertion : In lichens, mycobiont and 10. Which of the following causes death of marine
phycobiont are symbiotically associated in organism?
which algae is predominant and fungi is a (1) Gonyaulax (2) Diatom
subordinate partner.
Reason : The fungus provides food and alga (3) Mycoplasma (4) Claviceps
protects the fungus from unfavourable 11. How many members of given examples belong
conditions. to the class ascomycetes.
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Neuropora, claviceps, Ustilago, Puccinia,
Reason is the correct explanation of Trichoderma, Agaricus
Assertion. (1) 2 (2) 4
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but (3) 1 (4) 3
Reason is not the correct explanation of
Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

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12. Which of the following statement is true? 16. Pick the mismatch
(1) M.W Beijerineck gave the term virus (1) Stanley : Crystalized TMV
means venom or poisonous fluid (2) Beijerinik : Contagious living fluid
(2) W.M Stanley shows the virus could be (3) Ivanowsky : Filterable agents
crystallised, and crystals consists of
largely of protiens (4) Diener : Prion
(3) Virus can have both RNA and DNA as 17. Tobacco mosaic virus (TMV) genes are
genetic material associated with
(4) Virus that infect plants generally have (1) Single stranded RNA
Double stranded RNA (2) Double stranded DNA
13. Which of the following class of fungi is also (3) Single stranded DNA
known as "imperfect fungi"
(4) Double stranded RNA
(1) Phycomycetes (2) Ascomycetes
18. Lichens are the best indicators of :-
(3) Basidomycetes (4) Deuteromycetes
(1) Water pollution
14. The plasmid which is used to carry out
(2) Soil pollution
conjugation in bacteria is ------
(3) Air pollution (SO2)
(1) F – plasmid (2) R – plasmid
(4) Noise pollution
(3) Ti– plasmid (4) P–plasmid
19. Maximum nutritional diversity is found in the
15. Match the correct pair :
group
(1) Red tide ; Euglena
(1) Fungi (2) Animalia
(2) Heterocyst ; Cyanobacteria
(3) Monera (4) Plantae
(3) Oomycetes fungi ; Chitin
(4) Gram negative Bacteria ; Single layer cell
wall

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Topic : PLANT KINGDOM

1. Which one of the following not found in 5. Which one of the following is not a ecological
majority of gymnosperms ? importance of moss plants :-
(1) Pollen grain (2) Ovule (1) Some mosses provide food for herbaceous
(3) Anthridium (4) Archegenium mammals birds and other animals

2. All gymnosperms are : (2) Very high water holding capacity of

mosses is useful for trans-shipment of
(1) Seedless plants living materials
(2) Tracheophyte (3) Mosses along with lichens are the
(3) Fruit bearing plants pioneering organism to colonise rocks
(4) Gametophyte (4) Mosses form dense mats on the soil and
3. Select false statement? reduce the impact of falling rain
6. Main plant body of the selaginella is :
(1) Ectomycorrhizal association is found in
the roots of Pinus (1) A gametophyte
(2) BGA like- Nostoc punctiforme and (2) A sporophyte
Anabaena cycadae are found in the (3) Half gametophyte
coralloid roots of Cycas
(4) Haploid phase
(3) In conifers, the needle like leaves reduce
the surface area. It is xerophytic adaptation 7. The female sex organ in Riccia and Funaria is

(4) In Gymnosperm, ovules are covered by (1) antheridium (2) paraphysis

ovary wall (3) archegonium (4) oogonium
4. The development of the zygote in to young 8. Moss peat is used as a packing material for
embryos takes place with in the female sending flowers and live plants to distant places
gametophyte. this event is a precursor of the :- because:
(1) Seed habit (2) Fruit habit (1) it is easily available
(3) Vascular habit (4) Tissue habit (2) it is hygroscopic
(3) it reduces transpiration
(4) it serves as a disinfectant

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9. The pteridophytes are found in 14. Most primitive vascular plants?

(1) Cool, moist, damp, dry, shady places (1) Mosses (2) Cycads
(2) Hilly damp area, cool and dry area (3) Kelps (4) Ferns
(3) Ocean, marshy area and dry area 15. Which of the following algae contains starch as
(4) Cool, damp, shady places through some reserve food material?
may plourish well in sandy soil condition (1) Ectocarpus (2) Gracilaria
10. Find out ploidy of embryo and endosperm in (3) Ulothrix (4) Fucus
Angiospermic plants respectively. 16. Protonema filament are present in
(1) 2n & 3n (2) 3n & 2n (1) Mosses
(3) 2n & 2n (4) 2n & n (2) Pteridophytes
11. Haplo-diplontic life cycle are present in (3) Some Gymnosperms
(1) Ectocarpus, polysiphonia and kelps (4) Some Liverworts
(2) Fucus, Gymnosperms, Angiosperms 17. Which of the following gymnosperm is a living
(3) Bryophytes and Pteridophytes fossil ?
(4) Both (1) and (3) option are correct (1) Citrus (2) Ginkgo
12. Which pair of pteridophytes are belongs to (3) Pinus (4) Psilotum
heterosporous condition? 18. Double fertilization occurs in -
(1) Selaginella and Salvinia (1) female gametophyte of gymnosperms
(2) Lycopodium and Salvinia (2) male gametophyte of gymnosperms
(3) Dryopteris and Lycopodium (3) female gametophyte of angiosperms
(4) Lycopodium and Selaginella (4) all gametophytes
13. Match the following column and find out a
option which is not correctly matched :-

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19. Which of the following is correct regarding 21. I. Vegetative reproduction in mosses is by
gmnosperms :- fragmentation and budding in secondary
(1) The same sporophyll contains protonema respectively
microsoprangia and ovules II. Sex organs are produced at apex of leafy
shoot
(2) A single cone consists of both mega and III Zygote develops into sporophyte,
microsporophylls consisting foot, seta and capsule.
(3) Male strobilus and megasporophylls occur Choose the correct answer
on the same plant (1) I, II are correct (2) I, II, III
(4) Male strobilus and Megasporophylls occur (3) Only III correct (4) I, III are correct
on separate plants
22. Match the following column and select the
20. Gemmae are correct option.
(1) Green, unicellular, sexual buds located in Column I Column II
gemma cup
P Double fertilizations A Juniperus
(2) Green, multicellular, sexual buds located
Q Cedarwood oil B Pinus
in gemma cup
R Spike moss C Eucalyptus
(3) Green, multicellular, asexual buds located
in gemma cup S Gymnosperm D Selaginella
(4) Green, unicellular, aexual buds located in (1) P-A, Q-B, R-D, S-C
gemma cup (2) P-B, Q-D, R-C, S-A
(3) P-B, Q-C, R-A, S-D
(4) P-C, Q-A, R-D, S-B

LEADER - DIWALI ASSIGNMENT BTLPM_19879-02

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MORPHOLOGY OF FLOWERING
1. Ovary is half-inferior in the flowers of: 7. Stilt roots are reported from :
(1) Cucumber PLANTS
(2) Guava (1) Maize
(3) Plum (4) Brinjal (2) Radish
2. The floral formula is that of:- (3) Mango, and Ginger
(1) Tobacco (2) Tulip (4) Bryophyllum
(3) Soybean (4) Sunnhemp 8. On the basis of relative position of different
floral parts on thalamus a flower can be
3. Replum is present in the ovary of flower of : hypogynous, perigynous or epigynous with
(1) Sun flower (2) Pea respect to the given figure A, B, C, D select the
correct option :-
(3) Lemon (4) Mustard
4. Verticillaster is characteristic feature of which family
(1) Euphorbiaceae (2) Asteraceae
(3) Fabaceae (4) Liliaceae
5. Stem tendrils (climbing in function) develop
from axillary bud. Stem tendrils are in all of the
following, except :
(1) Cucumber
(2) Citrus
(3) Pumpkin
(4) Watermelon and grapevines
6. Prop or pillar roots in Banyan tree are :
(1) Fasciculated roots (2) Tap roots
(3) Adventitious roots (4) Secondary roots

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9. Identify the different types of aestivation A, B, C, D 11. Which of the following is an incorrect match ?
are select the correct option :- (1) Perigynous flower – Rose and Peach
(2) Monoadelphous – Pea
(3) Epigynous flower – Guava, Cucumber and
ray florets of sunflower
(4) Polyadelphous – Citrus
12. Syncarpous, hypogynous, and trilocular ovary
with axile placentation is found in :
(1) Liliaceae (2) Cucurbitaceae
(3) Ranunculaceae (4) None of these
13. Match the Column I with Column II.
(1) 1 (2) 2 Column-
Column-I
II
(3) 3 (4) 4
(A) Edible mesocarp (i) Coconut
10. Given below is the floral diagram of monocotyledons
seed identify the parts labelled A, B, C, D. (B) Endospermous seed (ii) Mango
(C) Fibrous mesocarp (iii) Bean
Non-
(D) (iv) Castor
endospermous seed
Future
(E) Ovules (v)
fruit
Future
(F Ovary (vi)
seed
(1) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(vi), D-(i), E-(iii), F-(v)
(2) A-(i), B-(iii), C-(v), D-(ii), E-(iv), F-(vi)
(3) A-(vi), B-(v), C-(iv), D-(iii), E-(ii), F-(i)
(4) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(iii), E-(vi), F-(v)

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14. Mango fruit develops form : 18. Identify the types of inflorescence shown in
(1) Monocarpellary, Inferior overy figure and select the correct option for A and B :

(2) Monocarpellary, superior overy

(3) Multicarpellary, superior overy
(4) Multicarpelary, inferior overy
15. Which is not a correct match ?
(1) Hypogynous flower – Superior – China rose
(2) Perigynous flower – Half inferior – Rose
(3) Epigyous flower – Inferior – Cucumber
(1) (a) (2) (b)
(4) Perigynous flower – Half inferior – Guava
(3) (c) (4) (d)
16. 'G' condition of Gynoecium represents :-
19. Insectivorous plants catch insects for obtaining
(1) Superior ovary (2) Inferior ovary
(1) Na - K (2) ATP
(3) Half inferior (4) Epigynous flower
(3) Phosphorus (4) Nitrogen
17. Stems modified into flat green organs
performing the function of leaves are known as 20. Dye 'Neel' is obtained from:-
: (1) Indigofera tinctoria
(1) phyllode (2) phylloclade (2) Brassica oleracea
(3) scales (4) cladodes (3) Brassica rapa
(4) Capsella bursa pestoris

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Topic : CELL THE UNIT OF LIFE

1. Given below are two statements : One is 3. Plasma membrane is:-
labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is (1) Selectively permeable
labelled as Reason (R)
Assertion (A) : Peripheral proteins are partially (2) Permeable
or totally buried in the plasma membrane. (3) Impermeable
Reason (R) : The quasi fluid nature of lipid
(4) Semipermeable
enables lateral movement of proteins with in
the over all bilayer, 4. Select the mismatched pair.
In the light of the above statements, choose the (1) Rudolf Virchow - Omnis cellula-e-cellula
correct answer from the option given below : (2) Robert Brown - Discovered the nucleus
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not
(3) Leeuwenhoek - First described a live cell
the correct explanation of (A).
(4) Schwann and Schleiden - Modified and
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
gave final shape to cell theory
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct 5. "All plants are composed of different-kinds of
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the cells which form the tissues of the plant." This
correct explanation of (A) statement was given by :-
2. Assertion :- Cell is the fundamental structural (1) Schleiden (2) Shwann
and functional unit of all living organisms.
(3) Rudolf Virchow (4) Robert hook
Reason :- Anything less than a complete
structure of a cell does not ensure independent
living.
(1) If both Assertion & Reason are True & the
Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason
is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) both Assertion & Reason are False.

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Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
A. 1 3 2 2 1 2 1 1 2

HINT – SHEET
1. Ans ( 1 )

7. Ans ( 1 )
NCERT Page No.: 4
8. Ans ( 1 )
NCERT Pg. # 2, Module Pg. # 1
9. Ans ( 2 )

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25
A. 1 3 2 2 3 2 2 1 3 3 1 2 3 2 3 2 2 3 1 3 4 2 3 3

HINT – SHEET
17. Ans ( 2 )
Allen Module Page No. 20
20. Ans ( 1 )
NCERT Page No.: 9
25. Ans ( 3 )

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 11
Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19
A. 1 4 4 3 1 1 4 3 1 1 2 4 1 2 4 1 3 3

HINT – SHEET
1. Ans ( 1 )

2. Ans ( 4 )

3. Ans ( 4 )

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22
A. 4 2 4 1 2 2 3 2 4 1 4 1 3 4 3 1 2 3 4 3 2 4
 TESTHappy Diwali
DATE : 21-10-2022 BOTANY

ANSWER KEY
Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 1 4 3 2 3 1 1 1 1 2 1 4 2 4 1 2 2 4 1

HINT – SHEET
1. Ans ( 3 )
Refer NCERT Pg No: 75
2. Ans ( 1 )
Refer NCERT Pg No: 80
3. Ans ( 4 )
Refer NCERT Pg No: 75
4. Ans ( 3 )
Module Pg No: 17

Q. 1 2 3 4 5
A. 3 1 1 1 4
 ZOOLOGY

ASAT PREPARATION ASSIGNMENT (NURTURE COURSE)

1. Which of the following characters is exhibited by all members of kingdom animalia?

(1) Coelom (2) Body segmentation
(3) Multicellularity (4) Cellular level of organisation
2. Which of the following characters of Cnidarians is/are without any exception?
A. Marine habitat.
B. Presence of cnidocytes.
C. Metagenesis.
D. Skeleton composed of calcium carbonate.
E. Digestion both extracellular and intracellular.
(1) A & B (2) B & C
(3) B & E (4) A, B & E
3. The diagrams X and Y are the illustration of body cavity in animals. Study the diagrams and answer
the following questions.

A. Which type of body cavity is represented by X and Y?

B. Following is the list of organisms, select the organisms with X and Y type of cavity.
Asterias, Balanoglossus, Ascaris, Ancylostoma, Fasciola, Taenia, Nereis.
Choose the correct option
A B
(1) X – Pseudocoelom : Ascaris, Ancylostoma
Y – Enterocoelom : Nereis, Fasciola
(2) X – Enterocoelom : Asterias, Balanoglossus
Y – Pseudocoelom : Ascaris, Ancylostoma
(3) X – Acoelomate : Fasciola, Taenia
Y – Pseudocoelom : Nereis, Ascaris
(4) X – Schizocoelom : Nereis, Taenia
Y – Pseudocoelom : Ascaris, Fasciola
4. Which of the following is not a correct comparison between phylum porifera and cnidaria?
 ZOOLOGY

5. The figure shows three animals A, B and C. Select the option which gives correct identification of
animals with body symmetry/description

(1) A. Fasciola – Radial symmetry: When any plane passing through the central axis of the body
divides the organism into two identical halves, that are mirror images of each other
(2) B. Crab – Bilateral symmetry : Body can be divided into identical left and right halves in only
one plane, that are mirror images of each other
(3) C. Adamsia – Biradial : Can be divided into two identical halves through any plane
(4) A. Hydra – Bilateral symmetry : The two identical halves are mirror images of each other
6. Which of the following is not the correct comparison between Taenia and Fasciola?
(1) Both are hermaphrodite
(2) Fertilization is internal
(3) Taenia shows true metameric segmentation, it is absent in Fasciola
(4) They have specialised cells, flame cells for excretion and osmoregulation
7. Which one of the following is fresh water sponge?
(1) Hyalonema (2) Spongilla
(3) Euspongia (4) Scypha
8. Match the column I and column II
Column I Column II
a. Archaeocytes (i) Obelia
b. Collar cells (ii) Totipotent
c. Sea fur (iii) Sycon
d. Portuguese man (iv) Gastrovasular cavity of war
(1) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii) (2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(3) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv) (4) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i)
9. Organism that shows bilateral symmetry, has pseudocoelom and muscular pharynx is
(1) Ascaris (2) Taenia
(3) Liver fluke (4) Ctenoplana
10. Consider following phylums
A. Cnidaria
B. Ctenophora
C. Platyhelminthes
D. Aschelminthes
Choose the correct option regarding them
(1) A & B have cnidoblast for defense
(2) C & D are endoparasites mostly and show internal fertilisation
(3) A, C & D are monoecious
(4) B & C show organ system level of organization
11. Which of the following set of animals belong to a single taxonomic group?
(1) Cuttlefish, Silverfish, Jellyfish
(2) Earthworm, Silkworm, Roundworm
(3) Silverfish, Locust, Butterfly
(4) Sea pen, Sea fan, Sea hare
 ZOOLOGY

12. Which of the following is not a characteristic feature of phylum Arthropoda?

(1) It is the largest phylum of animalia which includes insects
(2) Over two-thirds of all named species on earth are arthropods
(3) In all arthropods the body is divided into head, thorax and abdomen
(4) Circulatory system is of open type
13. Which of the following is incorrect match?
(1) Aquatic annelids possess lateral appendages which help in swimming – Parapodia
(2) Balance organs in aquatic arthropods and Aurelia – Statocyst
(3) Soft and spongy layer of skin – Mantle highly vascular and covers the visceral hump in molluscs
(4) The body is supported by a – Spicules proteinaceous skeleton in arthropoda
14. Which of the following is not a characteristic feature of phylum Mollusca?
(1) It is the second largest animal phylum
(2) In all molluscs the mouth contains a rasping organ
(3) They are usually dioecious and oviparous with indirect development
(4) Body is covered by a calcareous shell and they are unsegmented
15. The figure A shows an echinoderm. Select the option which gives the correct identification of
figure A with function/characteristic

(1) A is Antedon (Sea lily) – Mouth on the aboral surface. Sessile attached to the ocean floor
(2) A is Ophiura (Brittle star) – Filter feeder, ambulacral groove absent
(3) A is Asterias (Sea star) – Water vascular system. Prey on bivalve molluscs. The stomach of
starfish is everted through the mouth and introduced on open molluscs, where it is partly
digested before being ingested
(4) A is Cucumaria (Sea cucumber) – Highest power of autotomy.
16. Which of the following respiratory parts/surfaces in the animals are associated with capillary beds?
(1) Tracheae of insects
(2) Skin of earthworms
(3) Feather like gills in Pila, present in mantle cavity
(4) Book lungs of scorpion
17. Mark incorrect statement about Balanoglossus and Saccoglossus
(1) Are hemichordates, exclusively marine animals
(2) Circulatory system is closed
(3) Excretory organ is proboscis gland
(4) Dioecious, fertilization is external
18. Which of the following is not a feature of echinoderms?
(1) Exclusively found in marine waters and coelom acts as circulatory system
(2) An excretory system absent
(3) Presence of water vascular system, in which water flows to circulate oxygen and assist
movement
(4) Sexes are separate. Reproduction is sexual. Fertilization is usually internal
19. Members of which group are not deuterostomes and enterocoelomates?
(1) Chordates (2) Echinoderms
(3) Arthropods (4) Hemichordates
 ZOOLOGY

20. Which of the following is the correct match of excretory organs and animals given below?
Column I Column II
(Animal) (Excretory organ/Unit)
a. Balanoglossus (i) Flame cells
b. Pila (ii) Proboscis gland
c. Liver fluke (iii) Absent
d. Locusta (iv) Metanephridia
e. Sea urchin (v) Malpighian tubules
(1) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(v), e(iv)
(2) a(ii), b(iv), c(v), d(i), e(iii)
(3) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(v), e(iii)
(4) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(v), e(iii)
21. There are four distinctive hallmarks of the phylum chordata, except
(1) Dorsal tubular nerve cord under the notochord
(2) A supportive notochord
(3) Pharyngeal gill slits for filter feeding
(4) Post anal tail for propulsion
22. The adults are marine but the larva undergoes metamorphosis in fresh water in case of
(1) Ascidia (2) Petromyzon
(3) Branchiostoma (4) Carcharodon
23. Bony fishes can stay at any particular depth in water without spending energy due to the presence of
(1) Operculum (2) Pneumatic bones
(3) Cloaca (4) Swim bladder
24. The only chordates with open blood vascular system are
(1) Hemichordates (2) Urochordates
(3) Cephalochordates (4) Vertebrates
25. In amphibians, alimentary canal, urinary and reproductive tracts open into common chamber called
(1) Atrium (2) Cloaca
(3) Brood pouch (4) Scrotum
26. Choose the incorrect match.
(1) Ascidia – Sessile chordate (2) Pristis – Saw fish
(3) Trygon – Cycloid scales (4) Labeo – Oviparous, fresh water fish
27. All mammals have
(1) Seven cervical vertebrae (2) Body covered with hair
(3) Diphyodont teeth (4) Muscular diaphragm
28. From the list of characters given below, choose the characteristics which are exclusive to birds:
(a) Pneumatic bones (b) Lungs with air sacs
(c) Four chambered heart (d) Homoithermy
(e) Feathers (f) Scales
(g) Crop and gizzard
(1) (a), (b), (d), (e) & (g) (2) (a), (b) & (e)
(3) (a), (b) (4) (e) only
29. Which of the following groups of animals is correctly matched with its one characteristic feature
without even a single exception?
(1) Mammalia – Viviparous
(2) Reptilia – Three chambered heart with partially divided ventricle
(3) Chordata – Excretion by kidneys
(4) Chondrichthyes – Cartilaginous endoskeleton
 ZOOLOGY

30. Which of the following does not have three chambered heart?
(1) Lung fish (2) Rana
(3) Ichthyophis (4) Exocoetus
31. Choose the incorrect match w.r.t. protein and its function
Protein Function
(1) GLUT-4 - Enables glucose transport into cells
(2) Collagen - Intercellular ground substance
(3) Ptyalin - Protein digesting enzyme
(4) Antibody - Fights infectious agents
32. Two nucleotides of a DNA strand are connected by
(1) Glycosidic bonds (2) Phospho diester bonds
(3) Hydrogen bonds (4) Peptide bonds
33. Identify the nitrogen base found only in DNA but not in RNA

(1) C (2) B
(3) D (4) A
34. A specificity of a protein in enzyme action depends upon:
(1) Active sites
(2) Linear sequence of amino acids.
(3) Km constant
(4) Turnover number
35. The most abundant protein in the whole of the biosphere is
(1) RuBisCo (2) Collagen
(3) Cellulose (4) Elastin
36. Which of the following is a polar amino acid?
(1) Alanine (2) Serine
(3) Tryptophan (4) Glycine
37. Transferase from the following enzymes is
(1) Glucohexokinase (2) Isomerase
(3) Aldolase (4) Alcohol dehydrogenase
38. Allosteric modulation of enzyme is due to the activity of
(1) Enzyme (2) End product
(3) Competitive inhibitor (4) Concentration of substrate
39. Aromatic amino acid is
(1) Methionine (2) Proline
(3) Tyrosine (4) Alanine
40. Unsaturated fatty acid with two double bonds is
(1) Arachidonic acid (2) Oleic acid
(3) Linoleic acid (4) Stearic acid
41. Biomacromolecules from the following are
(1) Simple sugars (2) Nucleotides
(3) Lipids (4) Amino acids
 ZOOLOGY

42. Which of the following is not a correctly matched pair?

(1) PUFA - Lower melting point and have tendency to solidify on en exposure to air
(2) Protein - Collagen is most abundant in animal world and Rubisco is most abundant in the
whole of the biosphere
(3) Homopolysaccharides - Starch, glycogen, cellulose, inulin etc.
(4) Biomacromolecule - All are formed by polymerisation of monomers including lipids
43. Co-enzymes, which are often derived from vitamins, bind to _________ to form the holoenzyme.
(1) Prosthetic group (2) Metal ions
(3) Cofactor (4) Apoenzyme
44. Given below is a reaction catalysed by enzyme Z.

Choose the correct option w.r.t. the category of enzyme Z.

(1) Transferase (2) Hydrolase
(3) Lyase (4) Oxidoreductase
45. With the rise/increase in substrate concentration, the rate of enzymatic reaction
(1) Increases continuously
(2) Increases at first, reaching a maximum velocity which is not exceeded by any further rise in
concentration
(3) Decreases
(4) Remains unaffected
46. Which is purine nucleotide?
(1) Uridylic acid (2) Guanine
(3) Guanosine (4) Guanylic acid
47. Enzymes that catalyse removal of groups from substances by mechanisms other than hydrolysis
leaving double bonds are
(1) Lyases (2) Isomerases
(3) Dehydrogenases (4) Ligases
48. Which of the following is called as levulose?
(1) Glucose (2) Fructose
(3) Lactose (4) Maltose
49. Lipids are not soluble in water because
(1) Lipids are neutral
(2) Lipids are hydrophilic
(3) Lipids are hydrophobic
(4) Zwitter ion complex of lipids
50. An example of phospholipid is
(1) Lecithin (2) Albumin
(3) Collagen (4) Keratin
51. Carotenoids belong to which category of secondary metabolites?
(1) Alkaloids (2) Lectins
(3) Pigments (4) Terpenoides
52. The non-essential amino acids are called so because
(1) They are not required by the body
(2) They are harmful to the body
(3) They are provided to us through our diet / food
(4) They can be made within the body
 ZOOLOGY

53. The reducing end of a glycogen chain is

(1) Left end (2) Right end
(3) It has no reducing end (4) Middle Part
54. The sequence of amino acids or the positional information in a protein is called the
(1) Secondary structure of a protein (2) Quaternary structure of a protein
(3) Tertiary structure of a protein (4) Primary structure of a protein
55. N-terminal amino acid in a primary protein is
(1) The first amino acid (2) The last amino acid
(3) The third amino acid (4) Same as C-terminal amino acid
56. Which of the following is not a salient feature of B-DNA?
(1) One full turn of helical strand involves 10 base pairs
(2) Pitch of helix would be 34Å.
(3) DNA with left handed coiling.
(4) At each step of ascent, the strand turns 36.
57. Double helical model for the secondary structure of DNA was proposed by
(1) Cohen & Boyer (2) Watson & Crick
(3) Schleiden & Schwann (4) Engler & Prantl
58. Biomolecules in the living body are constantly being changed into some other biomolecules this
means they have a
(1) Catalyst (2) Turn on (3) Turn over (4) Metabolite
59. Maximum amount of energy is liberated on oxidation of
(1) Fats (2) Proteins (3) Glucose (4) Nucleic acid
60. The figure given below shows three velocity-substrate concentration curves for an enzyme reaction.
What do the curves A, B and C depict respectively:

(1) A-enzyme with an allosteric modulator added, B-normal enzyme activity, C-competitive
inhibition
(2) A-normal enzyme reaction, B-competitive inhibition, C-noncompetitive inhibition.
(3) A-enzyme with an allosteric stimulator, B-competitive inhibition added C-normal enzyme
reaction
(4) A-normal enzyme reaction, B-noncompetitive inhibitor added, C-allosteric inhibitor added.
61. Match the following
a. Trypsin i. Inter cellular ground substance
b. Insulin ii. Hormone
c. GLUT - 4 iii. Glucose transport
d. Collagen iv. Enzyme
(1) a - iv, b - ii, c - iii, d - i (2) a - ii, b - iv, c - i, d - iii
(3) a - i, b - ii, c - iii, d - iv (4) a - ii, b - iv, c - i, d - iii
62. A type of macromolecule that one would find in the acid insoluble fraction of any living tissue is
the ?
(1) Glucose (2) Amino acids (3) Nucleotides (4) Nucleic acid
63. In a polysaccharide the individual monosaccharides are linked by a glycosidic bond. This bond is
formed by ?
(1) Addition of H2O (2) Removal of H2O (3) Ligase enzyme (4) Transferase enzyme
 ZOOLOGY

64. Which of the following glucose transporters is insulin-dependent ?

(1) GLUT I (2) GLUT II (3) GLUT III (4) GLUT IV
65. Find the precursor molecule of vitamin D in skin

(1) (2)

(3) CH3   CH2 14  COOH (4)

66.

(1) A is secondary structure (2) B is secondary structure

(3) A is tertiary structure (4) B is primary structure
67. A typical fat molecule is made up of
(1) Three glycerol molecules and one fatty acid molecule
(2) One glycerol and three fatty acid molecules
(3) One glycerol and one fatty acid molecule
(4) Three glycerol and three fatty acid molecules
68. Find the incorrect one
(1) Proteins with catalytic power are named enzymes
(2) Flow of metabolities through metabolic pathway has a definite rate and direction like
automobile traffic
(3) When glucose is degrated to lactic acid in our skeletal muscle, energy is liberated
t
(4) rate 
P
69. Match the following
Average Composition of Cells
% of the total
Component
cellular mass
1. Water a. 2
2. Proteins b. 3
3. Carbohydrates c. 10 - 15
4. Lipids d. 70 - 90
(1) 1 - a, 2 - b, 3 - c, 4 - d (2) 1 - d, 2 - b, 3 - c, 4 - a
(3) 1 - d, 2 - c, 3 - b, 4 - a (4) 1 - d, 2 - a, 3 - b, 4 - c
70. Apoenzyme is :
(1) Protein (2) Vitamin (3) Carbohydrate (4) Amino acid
 ZOOLOGY

ANSWER KEY
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
3 3 2 4 2 3 2 3 1 2
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
3 3 4 2 3 2 2 4 3 3
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
1 2 4 2 2 3 4 2 4 4
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
3 2 1 4 1 2 1 2 3 3
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
3 4 4 3 2 4 1 2 3 1
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
3 4 2 4 1 3 2 3 1 2
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
1 4 2 4 2 1 2 4 3 1
 ALLEN
Topic : BREATHING AND EXCHANGE OF GASES
1. What is true about Haldane effect ? 4. Read the given physiological conditions
(a) Occurs at the level of lungs carefully and find out which of them cause
(b) Diffusion of CO2 in alveoli shifting oxygen dissociation curve towards left
(c) Dissociation of oxyhaemoglobin ?
(1) a and c (2) a, b and c (a) P CO2 decreases (b) pH decreases
(c) P 50 decreases (d) High temperature
(3) b and c (4) a and b
2. Statement-I : Exhalation becomes active only (1) a and c (2) a and d
during forceful breathing. (3) a, c and d (4) c and d
Statement-II : Binding of oxygen with 5. How many atoms of oxygen are carried by one
haemoglobin is called oxygenation. molecule of haemoglobin.
(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are (1) Four (2) Six
correct.
(3) One (4) Eight
(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are
incorrect. 6. What is true if pons send weak signal to RRC
of medulla :
(3) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is
incorrect. (1) Respiratory cycle increases

(4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is (2) Breathing rate decreases

correct. (3) Duration of inspiration get increased
3. Oxygen binding to haemoglobin in blood is : (4) All of the above
(1) Directly proportional to the concentration 7. Mountain sickness occur due to :
of CO2 in the medium. (2) Low P CO2
(1) Low % of O2
(2) Inversely proportional to the concentration
(3) Hign P CO2 (4) Low P O2
of CO2 in the medium.
(3) Directly proportional to the concentration 8. Fluid that decreases friction between pleural
of CO in the medium. membrane is :

(4) Independent of the concentration of CO in (1) Pericardial fluid (2) Pleural fluid
the medium. (3) Peritoneal fluid (4) All of the above

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9. Choose the correct option regarding partial 14. Where there is high PO2, low PCO2/ lesser H+
pressure of O2 and CO2 in mm Hg at various and lower temperature the factors are all
places in body : favourable for :
Places PO2 PCO2 (1) Formation of carbamino-haemoglobin
(1) Atmospheric air 0.3 159 (2) Dissociation of oxyhaemoglobin
(2) Alveoli on inhalation 104 45 (3) Formation of oxyhaemoglobin
(3) Deoxygenated blood 45 40 (4) Dissociation of carbamino-haemoglobin
(4) Oxygenated blood 95 40 15. Select the incorrect statement in the following :
10. Total percentage of O2 transported by (1) Neural signal from pneumotaxic center
haemoglobin or RBC is : can reduce the duration of inspiration.
(1) 3% (2) 97% (2) The role of N2 in the regulation of
(3) 49% (4) 25% respiratory rhythm is quite significant.
11. vital capacity of the lung signifies the volume (3) RBCs contain a very high concentration of
of air: enzyme, carbonic anhydroase and minute
quantities of the same in present in the
(1) Breathed in during normal inspiration
plasma too.
(2) Breathed out with forcible expiration
(4) CO2 is carried by haemoglobin as
(3) Breathed in with forcible inspiration carbamino-vhaemoglobin (about 20-25%).
(4) With deep inspiration and forcible 16. Primary site for exchange of gases is :
expiration (1) Nasal passage (2) Blood
12. Oxygen dissociation curve is: (3) Tissue (4) Alveoli
(1) J-shaped (2) S-shaped 17. Under normal physiological conditions, every 2
(3) L-shaped (4) Zig-zag litres of deoxygenated blood carries
13. Emphysema developes mainly because of: approximately ______ of O2 ?
Select the option that correctly fills the blank.
(1) Allergy or hypersensitization
(1) 150 mL (2) 300 mL
(2) Spasm of the smooth muscle of bronchiols
(3) 40 mL (4) 50 mL
(3) Cigarette smoking
(4) Inflammation of the alveoli

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18. Find the statements which are true and false. 20. Match the following :
(a) CO2 is carried by Hb as carboxy Column - I Column - II
Haemoglobin
Abdominal
(b) Carbonic anhydrase plays an important (a) (i) 3 lobes
breathing
role in CO2 transport
(c) Blood is the medium of transport for O2 Normal
(b) Right lung (ii)
only. breathing
(d) 70% of CO2 is transported in the form Thoracic Reduces surface
of bicarbonate. (c) (iii)
breathing tension
a b c d Intercostal
(d) Lecithin (iv)
(1) T T T T muscles
(2) T F F T (1) a - ii, b - i, c - iv, d - iii
(3) F T F T (2) a - i, b - ii, c - iii, d - iv
(4) T T F F (3) a - iv, b - ii, c - iii, d - i
19. Trachea in man is a straight tube which divides (4) a - iii, b - i, c - ii, d - iv
at the level of
21. Arrange the following in an ascending order of
(1) 5th thoracic vertebra their volumes
(2) 7th thoracic vertebra (a) Expiratory capacity
(b) Inspiratory capacity
(3) 12th thoracic vertebra
(c) Tidal volume
(4) 5th cervical vertebra (d) Residual volume
(1) c < d < a < b (2) d < a < c < b
(3) d < b < a < c (4) c < d < b < a
22. When there is no air in initial bronchioles, they
does not collapse, it is due to :
(1) Presence of Lecithin
(2) Presence of incomplete cartilagenous rings
(3) Presence of complete cartilagenous rings
(4) Presence of mucous

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23. Blood analysis of a patient reveals an unusually 27. Major function of RBCs are :
high quantity of carboxyhaemoglobin content. (1) Blood Clotting (2) Immunity
Which of the following conclusions is most
likely to be correct? (3) Transport of gases (4) None of these
The patient has been inhaling polluted air 28. 500 ml respiratory volume in a normal adult
containing unusually high content of: human is related to :
(1) Carbon disulphide (2) Chloroform (1) Residual volume
(3) Carbon dioxide (4) Carbon monoxide (2) Total lung capacity
24. Viral and Anuska were having dinner together (3) Respiratory reserve volume
in a hotel. Anuska suddenly started coughing, (4) Tidal volume
while swalloing some food this coughing
would have been due to improper movement 29. Choose the incorrect statement regarding the
of: enzyme carbonic anhydrase :
(1) Diaphragm (2) Tongue (1) Present in high concentration in RBCs
(3) Neck (4) Epiglottis (2) Present in plasma also
25. At the time of inspiration, the diaphragm: (3) Facilitates the reaction of CO2 and H2O in
both directions
(1) Expands
(4) Absent in plasma
(2) No change
30. Oxygen (O2) is utilized by animals to:
(3) Contracts and flattens
(1) Directly breakdown the nutrients
(4) Relaxes to become dome-shaped molecules
26. During CO2 transport, HCO3– diffuses from (2) Indirectly breakdown the nutrients
erythrocytes to plasma and in turn upsets the molecules
ionic balance momentarily. In order to keep the
ionic balance, an equal number of Cl– pass into (3) Obtain nourishment from environments
the erythorcytes from plasma. The process is (4) Burn the organic compounds indirectly
known as: 31. In which of the following gaseous exchange
(1) Hamburger phenomenon occurs through general body surface ?
(2) Bicarbonate shift (1) Sponges (2) Coelenterates
(3) Carbonation (3) Flatworms (4) All of these
(4) Bohr's effect
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32. In human beings, lungs are divided into : 38. The lungs expand in inspiration because -
(1) 3 right and 2 left lobes (a) diaphragm contracts
(b) diaphragm relaxes
(2) 2 right and 3 left lobes (c) EICM relaxes
(3) 2 right and 2 left lobes (d) the volume of thoracic cavity decreases
(4) None of these
33. Type of cartilage seen in tracheal wall is : (1) (a) and (c) (2) (a) and (d)

(1) Hyaline cartilage (2) Fibro-cartilage (3) (c) and (d) (4) only (a)

(3) Elastic cartilage (4) None of these 39. Respiratory organ of insect is -

34. Intercostal Muscles occur in : (1) Lungs (2) Gills

(1) Abdominal cavity (2) Thigh (3) Trachea (4) Pulmonary sact
40. Given below is a list of different steps (i-vi)
(3) Ribs (4) Diaphragm
involved in respiration.
35. Breathing rate in human is :- (i) Utilisation of O2 by the cells for catabolic
(1) 12/min (2) 36-38/min reactions
(ii) Transport of gases by the blood.
(3) 100/min (4) 300/min
(iii) Pulmonary ventilation by which
36. Adam's Apple represents atmospheric air is drawn in and CO2 is relesed
(1) Arytenoid cartilage of larynx out.
(iv) Release of resultant CO2.
(2) Cricoid cartilage of larynx
(v) diffusion of O2 and CO2 between blood and
(3) Thyroid cartilage of larynx tissues.
(4) All of above (vi) Diffusion of gases (O2 and CO2) across
alveolar tissues.
37. Lungs of man are :-
Select an option which has correct sequence of
(1) Solid (2) Spongy all the steps.
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) Muscular (1) (iii), (vi), (ii), (v), (i), (iv)
(2) (iii), (vi), (i), (v), (ii), (iv)

(3) (iv), (ii), (v), (iii), (i), (vi)

(4) (iv), (vi), (ii), (v), (i), (iii)

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Topic : BODY FLUIDS AND CIRCULATION (A1)
1. Oxalates and citrates are used as anticoagulants 5. The state of heart when it is not pumping blood
in stored blood because they effectively enough to meet the body is called:
(1) Chelate calcium ions (1) Angina (2) Cardiac arrest
(2) Act as competitive inhibitors of vitamin K (3) Heart attack (4) Heart failure
(3) Potentiate anti-thrombin III 6. In order for the blood to flow from right
ventricle to left ventricle in mammalian heart, it
(4) Activate heparin
must flow through:
2. Which one is not granulocytes? I. Right ventricle II. Pummonary veins
(1) Eosinophils (2) Basophils III. Left artrium IV. Lungs
(3) Neutrophils (4) Monocyte V. Pulmonary arteries

3. What will happen if a Rh– person donate blood (1) I - V - IV - II - III (2) I - II - III - IV - V
to a Rh+ person for the second time? (3) III - V - I - II - IV (4) V- IV - II - III - I
(1) Rh– person will die 7. "X" is a fibrous tissue of the membranous
(2) Rh+ person will die septum of the heart just above the septal cusp
of the tricuspid valve. It separates the atrium
(3) Nothing will happen to both and the ventricle of the same side. Identify "X":
(4) Rh– will live and Rh+ would die (1) Sino artrial node
4. The correct route through which pulse making (2) Artrioventricular septum
impulse travels in the heart is:
(3) Artrioventricular node
(1) SA node → Purkinje fibres → Bundle of
His → AV node → Heart muscles (4) Interventricular septum
(2) SA node → AV node → Bundle of His →
Purkinje fibres → Heart muscles
(3) AV node → Bundle of His → SA node →
Purkinje fibres → Heart muscles
(4) AV node → SA node → Purkinje fibres →
Bundle of His → Heart muscles

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8. If due to same injury, the chordae tendinae of 10. In the given diagram of human heart the mitral
the Bicuspid valve of the human heart is valve is located between which two parts of the
partially non-functional, what will be the heart?
immediate effect?
(1) The flow of blood into the pulmonary
artery will be reduced.
(2) The flow of blood into the aorta will be
slowed down.
(3) The 'pacemaker' will stop working.
(1) D and E (2) B and C
(4) The blood will tend to flow back into the
right artrium. (3) D and C (4) E and B
9. The given figure represents the pathway of 11. Given below is the ECG of a normal human.
blood throughout the body. Which one of its components is correctly
interpreted?

(1) Peak P and Peak R together - Systolic and

diastolic blood pressures
(2) Peak P - Initiation of left atrial contraction
only
Indetify the correct match of marked number (3) Complex QRS- One complete pulse
1,2,3 and 4. (4) Peak T - Initiation of total cardiac
(1) 1 - Artery contraction
(2) 2 - Pulmonary vein
(3) 3 - Pulmonary artery
(4) 4 - Vein

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12. Match the column I with column II and choose 14. Mammalian RBC is -
the correct answer from the option given (1) Biconcave, Circular, Enucleaed
below:
(2) Biconcave, Oval, Enucleated
(3) Binconvex, Nucleated
(4) Oral, Nucleated
15. Parpura disease is caused due to deficiency of
_______ below ________ / mm3.
(1) WBC, 6000 (2) WBC, 40000
(3) Platlets, 40000 (4) Platlets, 60000
16. Assertion : Blood group AB is universal donor.
Reason : Blood group AB, have Antigen A and
Antigen B.
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true.
13. Match each area of the heart-(column-I) with
(2) Assertion is true, but Reason is false
the structure (column-II) from which it receives
blood. (3) Assertion is false, but Reason is true
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
17. Where is the pacesetter situated?
(1) In left auricle near opening of pulmonary
vein
(1) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I (2) In right auricle near haversian valve
(2) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV (3) In right auricle near the junction of inter
auricular septum with Atrio-ventricular
(3) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
septum
(4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II (4) On inter-ventricular septum

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18. In which of the following character a vein 21. Which of the following statement are true ?
differs from an artery: (1) Albumin helps in osmotic balance
(1) Having valves to control flow of blood. (2) Plasma without the clotting Factors is
(2) Having narrow lumen. called Serum
(3) Having muscular wall. (3) Globulins are involved in defence
(4) Having pigmented wall to give dark look mechanism

19. A human female with blood group ‘A’ has :- (4) All of these

(1) Antibody-anti-B on the red blood cells and 22. Leucocytes present in maximum number in
antigen A in the serum blood are:-

(2) Antigen A on the red blood cells and (1) Basophils (2) Lymphocytes
antibody-anti-b in the serum (3) Neutrophils (4) Acidophils
(3) Antigen B on the red blood cells and 23. The speed of conduction of impulse is
antibody-anti-b in the serum maximum in:-
(4) Antigen A on the red blood cells and (1) SA node (2) AV node
antibody-anti-A in the serum (3) Internodal fibre (4) Purkinje fibre
20. Identify and labelled the structures A, B and C 24. Which statement is true for WBC :-
in following diagram ?
(1) Non nucleated
(2) Indeficiency cancer is caused
(3) Manufactured in thyroid
(4) Can show diapedesis
A B C 25. Incomplete double circulation is found in :
(1) Platlets WBC RBC (1) Fish (2) Parrot
(2) RBC Platlets WBC (3) Crocodile (4) Lizard
(3) WBC RBC Platlets
(4) RBC WBC Platlets

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26. Which is a correct statement : 30. First heart sound is associated with :
(a) Fibrinogen helps in maintenance of osmotic (1) Closing of AV valve
pressure
(b) Glucose is absent in plasma (2) Closing of semilunar valve
(c) Serum does not clot (3) Opening of semilunar valve
(d) Lymph is a connective tissue
(4) Opening of AV valve
(1) a & b (2) b & c 31. Basophil of blood tissue contain :
(3) c & d (4) a & d (1) vasopressin & relaxin
27. What would be the stroke volume of a person if (2) heparin & histamine
the cardiac output is increased to 7.2 litre but
heart of person beats 60 as it is initially : (3) heparin & calcitonin
(1) 90 ml (2) 80 ml (4) serotonin & melanine
(3) 100 ml (4) 120 ml 32. Which one is correct?
28. The Graveyard of erythrocytes is : (1) Blood = Plasma + RBCs + WBCs + Blood
platelet
(1) Lymph nodes (2) Spleen
(2) Plasma = Blood - Lymphocytes
(3) Peyer's patches (4) Tonsils
(3) Lymph = Plasma + RBCs + WBCs
29. For coagulation of blood many factor are
involved. Some are inactive but for coagulation (4) Both (1) and (2)
they will be active by reaction with the help of 33. Which one is macropoliceman of body :
chemical. Some reaction are given below-
X Y
(1) Monocyte (2) Neutrophill
Fibrinogens −→ Fibrins Prothrombrin −→
(3) Lymphocyte (4) Basophill
Thrombin
In these reaction identify X and Y respectively
:
(1) Prothrombin, Thrombokinase
(2) Thrombin, Hexokinase
(3) Thrombokinase, Thrombin
(4) Thrombin, Thrombokinase

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34. Which one of the following statements is 39. The correct sequence of layers found in the
correct regarding blood pressure ? walls of arteries from inside to outward is :-
(1) 130/90 mm Hg is considered high and (1) Tunica adventitia, tunica interna & tunica
requires treatment media
(2) 100/55 mm Hg is considered an ideal (2) Tunica interna, tunica externa & tunica
blood pressure. media
(3) 105/50 mm Hg makes one very active (3) Tunica interna, tunica media & tunica
(4) 190/110 mm Hg may harm vital organs externa
like brain and kidney. (4) Tunica media, tunica externa & tunica
35. Plasma is a straw coloured viscous fluid interna
constituting nearly ...A...% of the blood, 40. Assertion : Circulatory pathway between
...B...% of the plasma is water and the protein interline & liver is called as hepatic portal
constitutes ...C...% of it. Choose the correct circulation.
option for the blanks A, B and C Reason : Hepatic portal circulation carry
(1) A-55, B-90-92, C-6-8 oxygenated blood from interline to liver.

(2) A-45, B-70-80, C-6-8 (1) If both Assertion & Reason are True & the
Reason is a correct explanation of the
(3) A-35, B-90-92, C-6-8 Assertion.
(4) A-45, B-90-92, C-6-8 (2) If both Assertion & Reason are True but
36. Which of the following is a cell fragment ? Reason is not a correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(1) Blood platelets (2) Bone cells
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is
(3) Lymphocytes (4) Leucocytes
False.
37. Blood clotting in a test tube can be prevented
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are False.
by adding a little of :-
(1) NaCl (2) EDTA
(3) NH4Cl (4) NaOH
38. Increase in count of RBC is :-
(1) Anaemia (2) Polycythemia
(3) Leukaemia (4) Leurocytosis

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Topic : EXCRETORY PRODUCTS (A1)
1. Which of the following blood vessel will have 5. In the given diagram A, B, C, D & E are -
least amount of nitrogenous waste.
(1) Renal vein (2) hepatii vein
(3) Renal Aetery (4) Hepatii poetal vein
2. Which of the following incorrect about the
reabsorption in renal tubule -
(1) Reabsorption water occurs passively in the
segment of the intial segment of nephron (1) A - Renal column, B - Medullary pyramid,
C - Cortex, D - Ureter, E - minor calyx
(2) Glucose, Amino acids & Na+ reabsorbed
actively (2) A - Medullary pyramid, B - Renal column,
C - Cortex, D - Ureter, E - Major calyx
(3) Nitrogenous wastes are absorbed by
passive transport (3) A-Renal column, B - Ureter, C - Cortex, D
- Medullary pyramid, E - Renal palvis
(4) None of these
(4) A - Cortex, B - Medullary pyramid, C -
3. In nephron, water absorption is maximum in -
Renal column, D - Ureter, E - Hilum
(1) Proximal convoluted tubule by obligatory
6. If amount of ADH decreases in blood, Volume
method
of urine–
(2) Loop of Henle by obligatory and (1) Remains
facultative both methods (2) Decreases
unchanged
(3) Glomerulus
(3) Increases (4) None of these
(4) Distal convoluted tubule by facultative 7. Secretion of ANF is stimulated by :
method (ANF = Atrial Natriuretic Factor)
4. Kidneys situated between the level of :
(1) Increased Blood sugar level
(1) T12 – L3 (2) C7 – T3
(2) Decreased blood pressure
(3) L3 — S1 (4) T12 –S5
(3) Low Ca+2 level in Blood
(4) Increased Blood pressure

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8. Which one of the following statements is 10. The ascending limb of loop of Henle is
incorrect? impermeable to:
(1) The medullary zone of kidney is divided (1) Na2CO3 (2) H2O
into a few conical masses called medullary (3) KCl (4) Both (1) and (3)
pyramids projecting into the calyces.
11. Ascending limb of Henle's loop is permeable
(2) Inside the kidney the cortical region for :-
extends in between the medullary
pyramids as renal pelvis. (1) Glucose (2) NH3
(3) Glomerulus alongwith Bowman’s capsule (3) Na+ (4) Water
is called the renal corpuscle. 12. Urinary bladder is lined by :-
(4) Renal corpuscle, proximal convoluted (1) Ciliated epithelium
tabule (PCT) and distal convoluted tubule (2) Cuboidal epithelium
(DCT) of the nephron are situated in the
cortical region of kidney. (3) Transitional epithelium
9. Different types of excretory structures and (4) Pseudo-stratified epithelium
animals are given below. Match them
appropriately and mark the correct answer from
among those given below:
Excretory structure/ organ Animals
A. protonephridia i. Prawn
B. Nephridia ii. Cockroach
C. Malpighian tabules iii. Earthworm
D. Green gland or iv. Flatworms
Antennal gland
(1) (D) i, (C) ii, (B) iii and (A) iv
(2) (B) i, (C) ii, (A) iii and (B) iv
(3) (D) i, (C) ii, (A) iii and (B) iv
(4) (B) i, (C) ii, (B) iii and (D) iv

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13. In the given diagram parts of nephrog are 16. Which of the following is mismatched ?
labelled as A, B, C, D, E. Choose the correct (1) Bowman's capsule-Glomerular filtration
option :-
(2) PCT-Reabsorption of Na+ & K+
(3) DCT-Reabsorption of glucose
(4) Descending limb of Henle's loop-water
reabsorption
17. The maximum reabsorption of glomerular
filterate occurs in :-
(1) PCT
(2) LOH
(1) A = Efferent arteriole B = Afferent
(3) DCT
arteriole D = PCT
(2) D = Ascending limb of loop of Henle A = (4) Reabsorption is same at all sites
Afferent arteriole B = Efferent arteriole 18. The following substances are the excretory
(3) C = PCT, D = DCT, A = Afferent products in animals. Choose the least toxic
arteriole form among them?

(4) A = Efferent arteriole C = PCT, D = DCT (1) Urea (2) Uric acid

14. Urea cycle operates in :- (3) Ammonia (4) All are non toxic

(1) Kidney (2) Liver 19. A large quantity of one of the following is
removed from our body by lungs.
(3) Both (1) & (2) (4) None of these
(1) CO only (2) H2O only
15. "Columns of Bertini'' in the kidney of mammals
are formed as the extension of :- (3) CO2 and H2O (4) ammonia

(1) Medulla into cortex

(2) Cortex into medulla
(3) Medulla into pelvis
(4) Pelvis into ureter

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20. Which one of the following statements is 24. Kidneys of human how many nephrons are
correct with respect to kidnet's function and present :
regulation ? (1) 2 million (2) 1 million
(1) During summer when body loses lot of (3) 3 million (4) 4 million
water by evaporation, the release of ADH
is suppressed 25. Which one is a incorrect matching:
(2) When someone drinks lot of water, ADH (1) DCT–Found in medulla
release is suppressed (2) PCT–Found in medulla
(3) Exposure to cold temperature stimulates (3) Glomerullus–Found in medulla
ADH release
(4) All of these
(4) An increase in glomerular blood flow 26. Incorrect match is:
stimulates formation of Angiotensin II
(1) Glomerulonephritis : Inflammation of
21. The muscle fatigue occurs due to the
glomeruli of kidney
accumulation of :
(2) Renal calculi : Stones of oxalates within
(1) excess of O2
kidney
(2) creatine phosphate
(3) Ketonuria : Ketone bodies in urine
(3) lactic acid deposition
(4) Glycosuria : High urea in blood
(4) myosin ATPase 27. Which excretory structures are found in reptiles
22. Green gland as excretory structures found in : :
(1) Planaria (2) Prawn (1) Urecose gland (2) Kidney
(3) Earthworm (4) Cockroach (3) Protonephridia (4) Antennal gland
23. Which statement is incorrect : 28. Which of the following defines net Alteration
(1) GFR in a healthy individual is pressure?
approximately 180 Lit/minute. (1) BCOP-(GHP + CHP)
(2) The urine released per day is approx 2.5 (2) (BCOP + GHP) - CHP
litre
(3) GHP-(BCOP + CHP)
(3) In PCT 10-20 per cent of electrolytes and
(4) (GHP-CHP) + BCOP
water are reabsorbed
(4) All of these
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29. Which one is reabsorbed actively in the 33. Select incorrect statements ?
nephron? (1) Human kidney is bean shaped and reddish
(1) Glucose and amino acid brown in colour.
(2) Glucose, amino acid and Na+ (2) Kidney is located at the mid dorsal line of
(3) Glucose and Na+ the dorsal wall of body.
(3) Kidney is located between the last thoracic
(4) Glucose
and third lumber vertebra.
30. Which of the following is not a function of
kidneys? (4) Only the ventral surface & Kidney covered
with peritoneum.
(1) Regulation of blood pressure
34. As the filtrate moves from PCT to DCT
(2) Removal of urea through loop of henle its osmolarity changes
(3) Regulation of acidity of fluids (mOsmlL-1)-
(4) Secretion of antibiotics (1) 300 → 400 → 600 → 800 → 900 → 1000
→ 1100 → 1200
31. The urine of man suffering from diabetes
insipidus is (2) 300 → 400 → 600 → 800 → 1200 → 600
→ 300 → 200
(1) sweaty and watery
(3) 1200 → 400 → 600 → 800 → 400 → 600
(2) sweaty and thick
→ 300 → 200
(3) tasteless and watery
(4) 1200 → 800 → 600 → 400 → 300 → 600
(4) tasteless and thick → 800 → 900

32. If ADH level of blood is less 35. Which excretory structures are found in
(1) volume of urine increases cephalochordate :
(2) volume of urine decreases (1) Urecose gland (2) Kidney

(3) volume of urine is normal (3) Protonephridia (4) Antennal gland

(4) volume of urine is unaffected 36. The hormone secreted by juxtaglomerular cells
is:

(1) Gastrin (2) Secretin

(3) Erythropoietin (4) Aldosterone

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 ALLEN
37. Reabsorption and secretion of major substances 40. The expulsion of urine from the urinary bladder
at different parts of the nephron are shown in is called-
the given figure. In this figure A, B, C, D are (1) Uricolysis (2) Micturation
(3) Uremia (4) Anuria

(1) HCO3– nutrients, urea, NaCl

(2) NaCl, urea, K+, HCO3–
(3) NaCl, urea, HCO3–, ammonia
(4) H2O, urea, NaCl, HCO3–
38. The proximal convoluted tubule is lined by the-
(1) Simple cuboidal epithelium
(2) Simple columnar epithelium
(3) Simple cuboidal brush bordered
epithelium
(4) Simple columnar brush bordered
epithelium
39. Renin- angiotensin pathway controls-
(1) Secretion
(2) Blood pressure
(3) Glucose reabsorption
(4) Cardiac output

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