MARCH 2023

MTLE RECALLS
Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT
[email protected]
Tips
● Answer practice questions (at least 400 per subject).
● Mother notes are already comprehensive and high yield so focus on that.
● Practice the process of elimination
● Have your documents ready prior to the start of the registration
● Repetition is the key.
● Treat yourself; take care of your health.
● Pray

On the day of the boards:

● Prepare your meals beforehand

● Plan how you are going to the site; book a place if you can
● Do not do anything that will disqualify you from the examination.

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

 Clinical
Chemistry
Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT
1. First step in pre-analytical phase

a. Patient preparation
b. Test order

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: B

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

2. A specimen was received in your section. You noticed that
the middle name of the patient does not match with the
request form. Who should you ask about the specimen?

a. Medtech who received the specimen

b. Receptionist
c. Nurse ward

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: C

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

3. How should a laboratory verify the reference range it uses
for a particular test?

a. Call another laboratory

b. Use the numbers from a textbook
c. Test samples from healthy people
d. Look on a medical internet site

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: C

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

4. Used to contain and expel noxious and hazardous fumes
from chemical reagents

a. Fume hood
b. BSC
c. BSL

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: A

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

5. Which of the following would NOT be a typical methodology
for a clinical chemistry test?

a. Immunoturbidimetry
b. Microscopy
c. EMIT®
d. ISE

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: B

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

6. The A in the acronym ‘PASS’ stands for:

a. Alert
b. Aim

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

 ANSWER: B

“PASS”
● Pull the pin
● Aim at the base of the fire
● Squeeze the handle
● Sweep the nozzle

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

7. Gaussian distribution is usually

a. Rectangular
b. Skewed
c. Bell-shaped
d. Uniform

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: C

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

8. Which of the following sets of values for repeat analyses of a
QC sample (target value of 50) reflects the best precision?

a. 50, 51, 52
b. 50, 52, 56
c. 48, 50, 52
d. 44, 50, 53

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: A

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

9. Convert 5 dL to L

a. 0.5
b. 0.05
c. 0.005
d. 0.0005

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: A

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

10. Convert 1 uL to L

a. 0.1
b. 0.01
c. 1.0E-3
d. 1.0E-6

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: D

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

11. SI unit for the amount of substance

a. Kilogram
b. Ampere
c. Mole
d. Meter

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: C

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

12. Specimen of choice for electrolyte testing

a. Whole Blood
b. Plasma
c. Urine
d. Sweat

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

 ANSWER: B

● Particularly, heparinized plasma due to platelet release

of potassium in serum samples.

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

13. Specimen of choice for blood osmolality measurement

a. Whole Blood
b. Serum
c. Plasma
d. Urine

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

 ANSWER: B

● From Bishop: “Osmolality may be measured in serum or

urine. Major electrolyte concentrations, mainly sodium,
chloride, and bicarbonate, provide the largest
contribution to the osmolality value of serum. Plasma
use is not recommended because osmotically active
substances may be introduced into the specimen from
the anticoagulant.”

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

14. Hypernatremia:

a. 140 mmol/L
b. 135 mmol/L
c. Vomiting

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

 ANSWER: C

● Normal plasma sodium: 135-145 mmol/L

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

15. End-product of purine metabolism

a. Urea
b. Uric Acid
c. Creatinine
d. Ammonia

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: B

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

16. Produced from deamination of acids

a. Ammonia
b. Uric acid
c. Urea
d. Creatinine

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: A

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

17. What is 1440 in Creatinine Clearance equation?

a. GFR
b. Correction for body mass
c. Constant

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

 ANSWER: C

● It is a constant for the conversion of hrs into min as the

unit for CrCl is mL/min.

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

18. Unit for urine creatinine

a. mmol/L
b. mmol/dL
c. mg/dL

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

 ANSWER: C

● Conventional unit for creatinine: mg/dL

● SI unit for creatinine: umol/L

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

19. At what serum concentration would glucose begin to appear
in urine? *Elsevier*

a. 50 mg/dL:
b. 75 mg/dL
c. 100 mg/dL
d. 170 mg/dL

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: D

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

20. Which of the following would be most adversely affected by
nonfasting sample? *Elsevier*

a. Triglycerides
b. HDL
c. LDL
d. Cholesterol

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

 ANSWER: A

Requires Fasting “FA T GGLIn”

F-FBS
A-Aldosterone
T-Triglyceride
G-GTT
G-Gastrin
L-Lipid profile
In-Insulin

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

21. Which of the following apoproteins is inversely related to risk
for coronary heart disease and is a surrogate marker for
HDL? *Elsevier*

a. Apo A-I
b. Apo B
c. Apo B100
d. APO E

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: A

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

22. Steroids are derived from *Elsevier*

a. Glyceride
b. Non glyceride
c. Fatty acid
d. Complex

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: B

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

23. Common for multiple myeloma and Waldenstrom
macroglobulinemia:

a. Decreased IgG
b. Decreased IgM
c. Increased IgG
d. Increased IgM

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: D

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

24. Liver function tests are usually based on

a. Nephelometry
b. Turbidimetry
c. Photometry
d. ISE

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: C

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

25. Bilirubin insoluble in water

a. Direct bilirubin
b. Indirect bilirubin
c. Delta bilirubin
d. Biliverdin

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: B

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

26. Which test is the most specific for myocardial infarction?

a. LDH
b. CK
c. Troponin
d. Myoglobin

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

 ANSWER: C

● Most specific marker for AMI: Troponin

● Most specific enzyme marker for AMI: CK-MB
● Earliest marker for AMI: Myoglobin
● Earliest enzyme maker for AMI: CK-MB

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

27. Enzyme for alcoholism

a. Amylase
b. Lipase
c. GGT
d. Cholinesterase

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

 ANSWER: C

● Amylase and lipase are for pancreatic function.

● Cholinesterase is a marker for pesticide poisoning.

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

28. Which of the following enzymes catalyzes the conversion of
starch to glucose and maltose? *Elsevier*

a. Lipase
b. Amylase
c. ALT
d. GGT

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: B

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

29. Buffer used in ALP analysis:

a. Tris
b. Citric Acid
c. Acetic acid

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

 ANSWER: A

● Buffer for ALP should be ALKALINE.

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

30. Hormone that also acts as enzyme

a. Vasopressin
b. Cortisol
c. Renin
d. TSH

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

 ANSWER: C

● Renin is a hormone secreted in response low plasma

volume and decreased blood pressure. It also acts as an
enzyme in the synthesis of angiotensin I from
angiotensinogen.

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

31. ADH is secreted by the:

a. Thyroid
b. Pituitary gland
c. Kidneys
d. Ovaries

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

 ANSWER: B

● ADH is produced by the hypothalamus but is secreted

into the blood by the posterior pituitary gland.

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

32. Thyroxine is present in the body in the largest amount as:

a. Free
b. Ionized
c. Bound to albumin
d. Bound to globulin

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

 ANSWER: D

● Thyroxine binding globulin (TBG) is the major protein

carrier of T4 (70-75%).

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

33. Of the following, which will MOST likely interfere with
quantitation of thyroglobulin?

a. Antithyroglobulin autoantibodies
b. Thyroid-stimulating antibodies
c. TSH receptor antibodies
d. Thyroid peroxidase antibodies

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

 ANSWER: A

● From Bishop: “Thyroglobulin is currently measured by double-antibody RIA,

enzyme-linked immunoassay (ELISA), immunoradiometric assay (IRMA), and
immunochemiluminescent assay (ICMA) methods. The accuracy of the thyroglobulin
assay is primarily dependent on the specificity of the antibody used and the absence
of antithyroglobulin autoantibodies. Even with modern assays, antithyroglobulin
autoantibodies interfere with measurements and lead to unreliable thyroglobulin
results. For this reason, it is critically important to screen for autoantibodies whenever
thyroglobulin is measured. If antibodies are present, the value of the thyroglobulin
assay is marginal. Approximately 25% of patients with well-differentiated thyroid
cancer have antithyroglobulin autoantibodies, compared to 10% of the general
population. If a patient with well-differentiated thyroid cancer and antithyroglobulin
autoantibodies has been successfully treated with surgery and radioactive iodine
ablation, autoantibodies should disappear over time”

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

34. If a screening TSH is high, which test is likely to be ordered
next?

a. Cholesterol
b. Free T4
c. Ferritin
d. Glucose

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: B

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

35. Preservative for TDM

a. EDTA
b. Formalin
c. Sodium Fluoride
d. Phenol

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: C

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

36. Lead poisoning can be acquired through the following,
EXCEPT:

a. Skin contact
b. Animal bite
c. Inhalation
d. Ingestion

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

 ANSWER: B

From CDC: “Exposure to lead and lead chemicals can occur

through inhalation, ingestion, dermal absorption,
absorption from retained or embedded leaded foreign body,
and trans-placental (endogenous) routes.”

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

Microbiology
& Parasitology
Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT
1. Purpose of mordant in gram staining;

a. Differentiator
b. Secondary stain
c. Dye fixative
d. Reinforcing stain

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: C

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

2. Transport media for V. cholerae

a. Stuart
b. Amies
c. Cary-Blair

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: C

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

3. Quebec colony counter

a. Bright background
b. Dark background
c. Fluorescent
d. Automated cell counter

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: B

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

4. Gram (-) diplococci, growth on CAP and BAP

a. N. gonorrhoeae
b. N. meningitidis
c. H. influenzae
d. S. pneumoniae

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

 ANSWER: B

● S. pneumoniae - gram (+)

● H. influenzae - bacilli
● N. gonorrhoeae - do not grow on BAP

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

5. Actinomyces are:

a. Gram-positive bacilli, facultative anaerobe

b. Gram-negative bacilli, facultative anaerobe
c. Gram-positive cocci, obligate aerobe
d. Gram-negative cocci, obligate aerobe

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

 ANSWER: A

● All bacilli are gram-negative exc. “BBMACCPELLN”:

○ Bacillus
○ Bifidobacillus
○ Mycobacteria
○ Actinomyces
○ Clostridium
○ Corynebacterium
○ Propionebacterium
○ Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
○ Listeria monocytogenes
○ Lactobacillus
○ Nocardia

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

6. Form spores except:

a. B. anthracis
b. B. subtilis
c. B. cereus
d. B. fragilis

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

 ANSWER: D

● Spore formers: Bacillus and Clostridium

● B. fragilis is from the genus Bacteroides.

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

7. Responsible for souring of milk

a. Clostridium perfringens
b. Lactobacillus acidophilus
c. Serratia marcescens
d. Pseudomonas syncyanea

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: B

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

8. Which of the following is not included in the acronym
‘IMViC’?

a. Indole
b. Methyl Red
c. Virulence
d. Citrate

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

 ANSWER: C

“IMViC”
Indole
Methyl Red
Vogues Proskauer
Citrate

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

9. Identify the organism

a. Proteus vulgaris
b. Salmonella typhi
c. Yersinia enterocolitica
d. Escherichia coli

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

 ANSWER: D

● P. vulgaris and S. typhi are H2S (+)

● Y. enterocolitica is indole (-)

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

10. Identify the organism

a. Serratia marcescens
b. Proteus vulgaris
c. Enterobacter cloacae
d. Klebsiella pneumoniae

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

 ANSWER: D

● Non-motile Enterobacteriaceae - “SKYpe”: Shigella,

Klebsiella, Yersinia pestis

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

11. Identify the organism

a. Proteus vulgaris
b. Serratia marcescens
c. Proteus mirabilis
d. Enterobacter cloacae

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

 ANSWER: B

● S. marcescens DNase, gelatinase, and lipase (+).

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

12. Which of the following is the specimen of choice for
detecting rotavirus?

a. Throat swab
b. Urine sample
c. Bronchoalveolar wash
d. Feces sample

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

 ANSWER: D

● Rotavirus mainly causes gastroenteritis in children.

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

13. Immunoassays can be used in detecting which parasite?

a. Ascaris
b. Trichuris
c. Enterobius
d. Malaria

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: D

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

14. Magnification used for trichrome stained smear

a. 4x
b. 10x
c. 40x
d. 100x

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

 ANSWER: D

● CDC: “Examine the smear microscopically utilizing the

100× objective. Examine at least 200 to 300 oil
immersion fields. “

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

15. Sample for the detection of microsporidia

I. Fresh
II. Refrigerated
III. Ethanol fixed
IV. Formalin fixed

a. I, III
b. I, IV
c. II, III
d. II, IV

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: B

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

16. Identify the organism

a. P. falciparum
b. P. vivax
c. P. ovale
d. P. malariae

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

 ANSWER: A

● gametocyte, multiple rings

● P. vivax - amoeboid trophozoite
● P. ovale - oval infected cells
● P. malariae - rosette schizont; band trophozoite

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

17. Also known as whipworm

a. Enterobius
b. Ascaris
c. Trichuris
d. Strongyloides

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: C

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

18. Pinworm is the other name for what parasite?

a. Enterobius
b. Ascaris
c. Trichuris
d. Strongyloides

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: A

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

19. Also known as ‘tapeworm’

a. Nematode
b. Trematode
c. Cestode
d. Protozoan

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: C

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

20. Leaf-like parasite

a. Nematode
b. Trematode
c. Cestode
d. Protozoa

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: B

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

21. Ova recovered from stool are routinely used to diagnose
infections caused by all of the following, except:

a. Ascaris lumbricoides
b. Trichuris trichiura
c. Necator americanus
d. Strongyloides stercoralis

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

 ANSWER: D

● Larva is the diagnostic stage for S. stercoralis.

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

22. Mode of transmission of P. westermani

a. Ingestion of freshwater plants

b. Ingestion of raw/undercooked crabs
c. Ingestion of undercooked fish
d. Ingestion of snails

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: B

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

23. The only known human tapeworm with an operculum is:

a. Diphyllobothrium latum
b. Hymenolepis nana
c. Giardia lamblia
d. Schistosoma haematobium

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

 ANSWER: A

● G. lamblia is a protozoan.
● S. haematobium is a trematode.
● H. nana is non-operculated.

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

24. In T. solium infection, man serves as:

a. Intermediate host
b. Definitive host
c. Both intermediate and definitive host
d. Reservoir

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

 ANSWER: C

● Ingested ova - accidental intermediate host;

cysticercosis
● Ingested larva - definitive host; taeniasis.

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

25. If the ova of this parasite are ingested by humans, the
oncosphere form can migrate through the body via the
bloodstream, resulting in the condition known as
cysticercosis. Which of the following is correct?

a. Taenia solium
b. Entamoeba histolytica
c. Hymenolepis nana
d. Clonorchis sinensis

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: A

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

 Clinical
Microscopy
Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT
1. The best way to break the chain of infection

a. Hand hygiene
b. Personal protective equipment
c. Aerosol prevention
d. Decontamination

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: A

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

2. Normal urine odor

a. Fruity
b. Ammoniacal
c. Fragrant
d. Woody

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: C

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

3. Many particulates, print blurred through urine:

a. Hazy
b. Bloody
c. Turbid
d. Cloudy

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: D

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

4. Which of the following would be least affected in a specimen
that has remained unpreserved at room temperature for
more than 2 hours?

a. Urobilinogen
b. Ketones
c. Protein
d. Nitrite

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

 ANSWER: C

● Urobilinogen - ↓ due to oxidation to urobilin.

● Ketones - ↓ due to volatilization.
● Nitrite - ↑ due to bacterial reduction of nitrate to nitrite.

Increased in unpreserved
urine: “pBaON”
pH
Bacteria
Odor
Nitrite

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

5. First morning urine is not required in:

a. pregnancy test
b. orthostatic proteinuria
c. urobilinogen
d. urine culture

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

 ANSWER: C

● Urobilinogen - afternoon specimen (2-4pm)

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

6. Classic test for urobilinogen, porphobilinogen, and
Ehrlich-reactive compounds

a. Ictotest
b. Benedict’s test
c. Watson-Schwartz test
d. Sulfosalicylic acid test

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: C

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

7. Copper sulfate is used to test what ability of glucose?

a. Reducing
b. Oxidizing

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: A

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

8. Positive color for Ictotest:

a. Pink
b. Green
c. Blue
d. Yellow

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: C

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

9. Protein range in mg/dL for a grade of 2+.

a. 200-400
b. 30-100
c. 100-200
d. 6-30

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: C

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

10. Pink turbidity is due to:

a. Amorphous urates
b. Amorphous phosphates
c. Bilirubin
d. Uric acid

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

 ANSWER: A

From Strasinger: “Amorphous phosphates and carbonates

produce a white precipitate in urine with an alkaline pH,
whereas amorphous urates produce a precipitate in acidic
urine that resembles pink brick dust due to the presence of
uroerythrin..”

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

11. What should be done in a refrigerated specimen with
presence of pink precipitates before testing?

a. Warm
b. Boil
c. Add acid
d. Add NSS

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: A

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

12. Total magnification for grading of casts:

a. 100x
b. 40x
c. 10x
d. 1000x

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

 ANSWER: A

● Reported per LPF: “SMAC”

○ Squamous epithelial cells
○ Mucus threads
○ Abnormal crystals
○ Casts

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

13. Cast disintegration is based on:

a. Alkalinity of urine
b. Acidity of urine

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: A

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

14. The only protein produced by the kidney is:

a. Albumin
b. Uromodulin
c. Uroprotein
d. Globulin

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

 ANSWER: B

● Uromodulin is also known as ‘Tamm-Horsfall protein’

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

15. Nuclear detail can be enhanced by:

a. Prussian blue
b. Toluidine blue
c. Acetic acid
d. Both B and C

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

 ANSWER: D

● Toluidine blue - supravital stain to differentiate WBCs

and RTE cells.
● Acetic acid - lyse RBCs.

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

16. Baby powder (lycopodium) crystal looks like ____ under
microscope

a. Sheaves of wheat
b. Needle-like
c. Circular with a dimpled center

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: C

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

17. Staghorn calculi:

a. Spiky thorns
b. Hard-large branching
c. Coffin-shaped
d. Hexagonal

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: B

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

18. Anti-glomerular basement membrane antibody is seen with:

a. Wegener granulomatosis
b. IgA nephropathy
c. Goodpasture syndrome
d. Diabetic nephropathy

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: C

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

19. CSF collection:

a. 3rd, 4th, 5th Lumbar

b. 5th,6th,7th Lumbar
c. 3rd, 4th, 5th Cervical
d. 5th,6th,7th Cervical

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: A

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

20. A web-like pellicle in a refrigerated CSF specimen indicates:

a. Tubercular meningitis
b. Multiple sclerosis
c. Primary CNS malignancy
d. Viral meningitis

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: A

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

21. Bloody CSF indicative of intracranial hemorrhage:

a. May produce clot

b. Blood clears progressively
c. Even distribution of blood
d. No xanthochromia

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: C

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

22. A CSF Total count is diluted with:

a. Distilled water
b. Normal saline
c. Acetic acid
d. Hypotonic saline

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

 ANSWER: B

● Acetic acid (with methylene blue) - for CSF WBC count.

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

23. Failure of laboratory personnel to document the time a
semen sample is collected primarily affects the
interpretation of semen:

a. Appearance
b. Volume
c. pH
d. Viscosity

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: D

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

24. Measurement of ɑ-glucosidase is used to detect the disorder
of the:

a. Prostate gland
b. Seminiferous tubules
c. Bulbourethral glands
d. Epididymis

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: D

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

25. Pregnancy test kit (POCT) is based on what principle?

a. Chemiluminescence
b. Fluorometry
c. Immunochromatography

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: C

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

26. Amniotic fluid is:

a. Waste product of uterus

b. Metabolic product of fetus
c. Effusion from amnion
d. Ultrafiltrate of plasma

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

 ANSWER: B

From Strasinger: “Amniotic fluid is a product of fetal metabolism,

the constituents that are present in the fluid provide
information about the metabolic processes taking place
during—as well as the progress of—fetal maturation.”

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

27. A significant rise in the OD of amniotic fluid at 450 nm
indicates the presence of which analyte?

a. Bilirubin
b. Lecithin
c. Oxyhemoglobin
d. Sphingomyelin

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

 ANSWER: A

● Oxyhemoglobin 410 nm
● Bilirubin 450 nm
● Lamellar bodies 650nm

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

28. Appearance of pleural fluid in aspergillosis:

a. Red
b. Black
c. White
d. Turbid

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: B

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

29. Which of the following parameters best identifies a fluid as a
transudate or an exudate?

a. Color and clarity

b. Leukocyte and differential counts
c. Total protein and specific gravity measurements
d. Total protein ratio and lactate dehydrogenase ratio

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: C

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

30. Non-invasive procedure for gastric analysis:

a. Sham feeding
b. Trypsin
c. Diagnex

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: C

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

31. Which is considered abnormal when present in feces?

a. Carbohydrate
b. Protein
c. RBCs
d. Water

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

 ANSWER: C

● ADH is produced by the hypothalamus but is secreted

into the blood by the posterior pituitary gland.

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

Hematology
Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT
1. If a blood specimen is spilled on a laboratory bench or floor
area, the first step in cleanup should be? *Turgeon*

a. wear gloves and a lab coat

b. absorb blood with disposable towels
c. clean with freshly prepared 1% chlorine solution
d. wash with water

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: A/B

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

2. Physiologic programmed cell death is termed: *Rodak’s*

a. Angiogenesis
b. Apoptosis
c. Aneurysm
d. Apohematics

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: B

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

3. Which test is MOST affected when there is excessive
anticoagulant?

a. RBC
b. Hemoglobin
c. HCT
d. ESR

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: C

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

4. What source of error will have greatest effect on PCV
(hematocrit) *Turgeon*

a. Incorrect dilution of blood and diluent

b. Hemolysis of whole blood specimen
c. Excessive anticoagulant will produce shrinkage of cells

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

 ANSWER: C

● All of the choices can cause errors on PCV.

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

5. Which parameters are calculated rather than directly
measured? *Turgeon*

a. Hematocrit and erythrocyte distribution width

b. Erythrocyte count and leukocyte count
c. Leukocyte count and hematocrit
d. Platelet count and platelet volume

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

 ANSWER: A

● Calculated parameters:
○ Hematocrit
○ RDW
○ MCV

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

6. The major application of flow-cell cytometry is *Turgeon*

a. determining cell size and granularity

b. sorting of cells and cellular identification using
monoclonal antibodies
c. treating cancer cells and identifying specific virus types
d. counting leukocytes and platelets

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: B

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

7. If a blood smear is too long, the problem can be resolved by
*Turgeon*

a. decreasing the angle of the pusher slide

b. increasing the angle of the pusher slide
c. using a larger drop of blood
d. pushing the slide slower in smearing out the blood

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: B

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

8. Which one of the following morphologic changes occurs
during normal blood cell maturation: *Rodak’s*

a. Increase in cell diameter

b. Development of cytoplasm basophilia
c. Condensation of nuclear chromatin
d. Appearance of nucleoli

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

 ANSWER: C

“As cells mature, certain morphologic characteristics of

maturation allow specific lineages to be recognized. General
characteristics of maturation include decrease in cell
diameter, decrease in nuclear diameter, loss of nucleoli,
condensation of nuclear chromatin, and decreased
basophilia in cytoplasm. Some morphologic changes are
unique to specific lineages (e.g., loss of the nucleus in
RBCs).”

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

9. As a blood cell matures, the overall cell diameter in most
cases *Turgeon*

a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. remains the same

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: B

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

10. The average diameter of a normal erythrocyte is ____um.
*Turgeon*

a. 5.2
b. 6.4
c. 7.2
d. 8.4

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

 ANSWER: C

● Average size of normal RBC: 6-8 um.

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

11. The normal range for reticulocytes in adults is *Turgeon*

a. 0% to 0.5%
b. 0.5% to 1.0%
c. 0.5% to 1.5%
d. 1.5% to 2.5%

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: C

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

12. Stain for reticulocyte count:

a. Methylene blue
b. Crystal violet
c. Safranin
d. Oil red O

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

 ANSWER: A

● New methylene blue is the supravital stain not

methylene blue. Nevertheless, A is the best answer even
if the word “NEW” is not there

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

13. The greatest portion of operational body iron is normally
contained in what compound? *Turgeon*

a. Hemoglobin
b. Ferritin
c. Cytochromes
d. Myoglobin

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

 ANSWER: A

● Ferritin - major form of iron storage.

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

14. Increased amounts of 2,3-DPG _____ the oxygen affinity of
the hemoglobin molecule. *Turgeon*

a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. does not alter

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: B

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

15. If you are grading changes in erythrocytic size or shape
using a scale of 0 to 4+ and many erythrocytes deviate from
normal per microscopic field, the typical score would be?
*Turgeon*

a. 1+
b. 2+
c. 3+
d. 4+

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: C

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

16. Associated with Abetalipoproteinemia:

a. Microcytes
b. Sickle cells
c. Macrocytes
d. Acanthocytes

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

 ANSWER: D

● Aka Bassen-Kornzweig syndrome.

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

17.

a. Acanthocyte
b. Target cell
c. Spherocyte
d. Dacryocyte

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: B

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

18. Microspherocytes are seen in which condition:

a. Thalassemia
b. Lead poisoning
c. Pernicious anemia
d. HDFN

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: D

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

19. The reagent used in the traditional sickle cell screening test
is *Turgeon*

a. Sodium chloride
b. sodium citrate
c. sodium metabisulphite
d. sodium-potassium oxalate

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: C

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

20. In megaloblastic anemia, the typical erythrocytic indices are
*Turgeon*

a. MCV increased, MCH increased, and MCHC normal

b. MCV increased, MCH variable, and MCHC normal
c. MCV increased, MCH decreased, and MCHC normal
d. MCV normal, MCH increased, and MCHC normal

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

 ANSWER: A

● The only true increase of MCHC is seen in cases of

spherocytosis.

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

21. In an erythrocyte histogram, the erythrocytes that are larger
than normal will be to the _____ of the normal distribution
curve. *Turgeon*

a. right
b. left
c. in the middle

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: A

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

22. The RDW and MCV are both quantitative descriptors of
erythrocyte size. If both are increased, the most probable
erythrocytic abnormality would be *Turgeon*

a. iron deficiency anemia

b. acquired aplastic anemia
c. megaloblastic anemia
d. hemoglobinopathy

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

 ANSWER: C

● IDA - microcytic
● Aplastic anemia - normocytic
● Megaloblastic anemia - macrocytic
● Hemoglobinopathy - microcytic or normochromic

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

23. If the RBC distribution on a histogram demonstrates a
homogeneous pattern and a small SD, the peripheral blood
smear would probably exhibit *Turgeon*

a. extreme anisocytosis
b. very little anisocytosis
c. a single population of spherocytes
d. a single population of macrocytes

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: B

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

24. On the basis of the following data, calculate the absolute
value of the segmented neutrophils. Total leukocyte count =
12 × 109/L; percentage of segmented neutrophils on the
differential count = 80%. The absolute segmented neutrophil
value is *Turgeon*

a. 2.5 × 109/L
b. 4.5 × 109/L
c. 6.5 × 109/L
d. 9.6 × 109/L

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

 ANSWER: D

Absolute cell count = total leukocyte count x percentage of WBC type

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

25. The stages of neutrophilic granulocyte development are
*Turgeon*

a. promyelocyte, myeloblast, myelocyte, metamyelocyte,

and band and segmented neutrophils
b. myeloblast, promyelocyte, myelocyte, metamyelocyte,
and band and segmented neutrophils
c. myelocyte, myeloblast, promyelocyte, metamyelocyte,
and band and segmented neutrophils
d. myeloblast, promyelocyte, metamyelocyte, myelocyte,
and band and segmented neutrophils

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

 ANSWER: B

● “Pro” - before
● “Meta” - after

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

26. Which one of the following cells is a product of the CLP?

a. Megakaryocyte
b. T lymphocyte
c. Erythrocyte
d. Granulocyte

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

 ANSWER: B

● CLP = Common Lymphoid Progenitor

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

27. Azurophilic granules were produced in what stage?

a. Promyelocyte
b. Myelocyte
c. Metamyelocyte
d. Band

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

 ANSWER: A

● Primary/Azurophilic granules - promyelocyte

● Secondary/specific granules - myelocyte
● Tertiary granules - metamyelocyte
● Secretory granules - band

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

28. Both myeloid and monocytic cells are present to the extent
of at least 20% of the total leukocytes

a. M1
b. M5
c. M2
d. M4

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: D

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

29. The maturational sequence of the thrombocyte (platelet) is
*Turgeon*

a. Megakaryoblast — promegakaryocyte — megakaryocyte

— metamegakaryocyte — thrombocyte
b. Promegakaryocyte — megakaryocyte —
metamegakaryocyte — thrombocyte
c. Megakaryoblast — promegakaryocyte — megakaryocyte
— thrombocyte
d. Megakaryoblast — promegakaryocyte —
metamegakaryocyte — thrombocyte

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: C

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

30. Which organ is the site of sequestration of platelets?
*Rodak’s*

a. Liver
b. Thymus
c. Spleen
d. Bone marrow

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

 ANSWER: C

● 30% or ⅓ of the platelets can found in the spleen.

● 70% or ⅔ of the platelets can be found in the circulation.

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

31. The bleeding time test measures *Turgeon*

a. the ability of platelets to stick together

b. platelet adhesion and aggregation on locally injured
vascular subendothelium
c. the quantity and quality of platelets
d. antibodies against platelets

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: B

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

32. The clot retraction test is *Turgeon*

a. a visible reaction to the activation of platelet actomyosin

(thrombosthenin)
b. a reflection of the quantity and quality of platelets and
other factors
c. a measurement of the ability of platelets to stick to glass
d. a measurement of the cloudiness of blood

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

 ANSWER: B

● “Clot retraction reflects the number and quality of

platelets, fibrinogen concentration, fibrinolytic activity,
and packed red cell volume.”

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

33. If a pediatric preoperative patient has a family history of
bleeding but has never had a bleeding episode herself, what
test should be included in a coagulation profile in addition
to the PT, aPTT, and platelet count? *Turgeon*

a. Lee-White clotting time

b. Clot retraction
c. Bleeding time
d. Fibrin split products

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: C

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

34. Which of the following parameters can be abnormal in
classic von Willebrand disease type I? *Turgeon*

a. Bleeding time
b. PT
c. Platelet count
d. All of the above

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: A

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

35. Which is an acquired platelet disorder?

a. Factor V deficiency
b. vWD
c. Bernard-Soulier syndrome
d. Uremia

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: D

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

36. PT is performed in what temperature?

a. 4oC
b. 20oC
c. 37oC
d. 38oC

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: C

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

37. The function of thromboplastin in the prothrombin test is to
provide _____ to the assay. *Turgeon*

a. Kaolin
b. Fibrinogen
c. Phospholipoprotein
d. Thrombin

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: C

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

38. If a child ingested rat poison, which of the following tests
should be performed to test the effect of the poison on the
child’s coagulation mechanism? *Turgeon*

a. aPTT
b. PT
c. Fibrinogen assay
d. Thrombin time

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

 ANSWER: B

● Rat poison is a coumarin-containing substance.

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

39. Abnormal results in dysfibrinogenemia, EXCEPT:

a. PT
b. APTT
c. TT
d. Fibrinogen level

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: D

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

40. A patient with a severe decrease in factor X activity would
demonstrate normal *Turgeon*

a. aPTT
b. PT
c. Thrombin time
d. Bleeding time

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: D

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

41. Factor that is deficient if PT normal, PTT normal, TT normal:

a. FIX
b. FVIII
c. FII
d. FXIII

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: D

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

 Immunology,
Serology, &
Blood Banking
Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT
1. Which of the following white blood cells is capable of further
differentiation in the tissues? *Stevens*

a. Neutrophil
b. Eosinophil
c. Basophil
d. Monocyte

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: D

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

2. Which of the following plays an important role as an external
defense mechanism? *Stevens*

a. Phagocytosis
b. C-reactive protein
c. Lysozyme
d. Complement

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: C

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

3. From the following, identify a specific component of the
adaptive immune system that is formed in response to
antigenic stimulation: *Harr*

a. Lysozyme
b. Complement
c. Commensal organisms
d. Immunoglobulins

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: D

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

4. Which cluster of differentiation (CD) marker appears during
the first stage of T-cell development and remains present as
an identifying marker for T cells? *Harr*

a. CD1
b. CD2
c. CD3
d. CD4 or CD8

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: B

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

5. T lymphocytes are incapable of functioning as: *BOC*

a. Cytotoxic cells
b. Helper cells
c. Phagocytic cells
d. Regulatory cell

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

 ANSWER: C

● Lymphocytes are NOT phagocytes.

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

6. Which test is used to evaluate the cellular immune system
in a patient? *BOC*

a. Skin test for commonly encountered antigens

b. Determination of isohemagglutinin titer
c. Immunoelectrophoresis of serum
d. Measurement of anti-HBsAg after immunization

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

 ANSWER: A

● Antibodies are part of the humoral response not cellular.

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

7. Most of the pathology associated with parasitic infections
results from which of the following? *Stevens*

a. Symbiotic relationships with the host

b. Elaborate parasitic life cycles
c. Immune response to the offending organism
d. Innate defense mechanisms of the host

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: C

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

8. The chronic nature of parasitic infections is due to the host’s
*Stevens*

a. inability to eliminate the infective agent.

b. type I hypersensitivity response to the infection.
c. ability to form a granuloma around the parasite.
d. tendency to form circulating immune complexes.

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: A

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

9. Immunoglobulin that is most efficient at crossing the
placenta:

a. IgG
b. IgA
c. IgM
d. IgD

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: A

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

10. The key structural difference that distinguishes
immunoglobulin subclasses: *BOC*

a. Stereometry of the hypervariable region

b. Number of domains
c. Sequence of the constant regions
d. Number of disulfide bridges

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

 ANSWER: C

● Ig subclasses differ in their Fc region

● Fc region is found in the constant region

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

11. Antibody idiotype is dictated by the: *BOC*

a. Constant region of heavy chain

b. Constant region of light chain
c. Constant regions of heavy and light chains
d. Variable regions of heavy and light chains

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

 ANSWER: D

● Isotype - variation in the heavy chain that determines

the Ig class
● Allotype - variation in the constant region
● Idiotype - variation in the variable region

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

12. Which is most likely to activate the alternative pathway?
*BOC*

a. Lipopolysaccharide
b. Glycoproteins
c. Haptens
d. IgG complexed with antigen

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: A

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

13. Which is the most significant agent formed in the
phagolysosome for the killing of microorganisms? *Stevens*

a. Proteolytic enzymes
b. Hydroxyl radicals
c. Hydrogen peroxide
d. Superoxides

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: C

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

14. Antigen receptors on T lymphocytes bind HLA class II
molecules with the help of which accessory molecule?

a. CD2
b. CD3
c. CD4
d. CD8

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

 ANSWER: C

● Class I: CD8+ - Cytotoxic T cell

● Class II: CD4+ - Helper T cell

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

15. ANA tests are performed to help diagnose which condition:
*BOC*

a. SLE
b. Rheumatoid arthritis
c. Leukemia
d. Hemolytic anemia

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: A

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

16. To make a presumptive diagnosis of RA, which of the
following qualitative methods is MOST sensitive? *BOC*

a. Latex agglutination
b. Immunoelectrophoresis
c. RID
d. ELISA

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: A

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

17. In chronic active hepatitis, high titers of which of the
following antibodies are seen? *BOC*

a. Anti-smooth muscle
b. Antimitochondrial
c. Anti-DNA
d. Anti-parietal cell

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

 ANSWER: A

● Antimitochondrial - primary biliary cirrhosis

*** Anti-microsomal - hashimoto’s thyroiditis
● Anti-DNA - SLE (anti-dsDNA)
● Anti-parietal cell - pernicious anemia

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

18. Anti-glomerular basement membrane antibody is MOST
often associated with this condition: *BOC*

a. Goodpasture disease
b. SLE
c. Celiac disease
d. Chronic active hepatitis

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

 ANSWER: A

● anti-Glomerular basement membrane - Goodpasture

syndrome

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

19. Which serum antibody response usually characterizes the
primary (early) stage of syphilis? *Harr*

a. Antibodies against syphilis are undetectable

b. Detected 1–3 weeks after appearance of the primary
chancre
c. Detected in 50% of cases before the primary chancre
disappears
d. Detected within 2 weeks after infection

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: B

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

20. Flocculation tests for syphilis detect the presence of: *BOC*

a. Reagin
b. Antigen
c. Hemolysin
d. Forssman antigen

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

 ANSWER: A

● Reagent: cardiolipin
● Detected: Reagin - aka anticardiolipin antibody

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

21. Which of the following is a treponemal test? *BOC*

a. RST
b. RPR
c. FTA-ABS
d. VDRL

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: C

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

22. Part of the surrogate testing for HBV that is no longer
required:

a. ALT
b. HBsAg
c. Anti-HBc

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: A

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

23. Which tests are considered screening tests for HIV? *Harr*

a. ELISA, 4th generation, and rapid antibody tests

b. Immunofluorescence, Western blot,
radioimmuno-precipitation assay
c. Culture, antigen capture assay, DNA amplification
d. Reverse transcriptase and messenger RNA (mRNA) assay

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: A

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

24. What is the latest method in detecting HIV infection in its
early acute phase? *Harr*

a. ELISA
b. Southern Blot
c. Western Blot
d. Nucleic acid amplification testing

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

 ANSWER: D

● Southern blot - not for HIV; detects DNA

● ELISA - screening test
● Western blot - confirmatory test; detects proteins
● NAAT - molecular; more sensitive

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

25. Interpret the following results for HIV infection.
ELISA: positive; repeat ELISA: negative; Western blot: no bands
*Harr*

a. Positive for HIV

b. Negative for HIV
c. Indeterminate
d. Further testing needed

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: B

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

26. Which CD4:CD8 ratio is most likely in a patient with AIDS?
*Harr*

a. 2:1
b. 3:1
c. 2:3
d. 1:2

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: D

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

27. Tumor markers found in the circulation are most frequently
measured by: *BOC*

a. Immunoassays
b. TLC
c. HPLC
d. Colorimetry

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: A

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

28. Which of the following statements accurately describes
competitive binding assays? *Stevens*

a. Excess binding sites for the analyte are provided.

b. Labeled and unlabeled analyte are present in equal
amounts.
c. The concentration of patient analyte is inversely
proportional to bound radioactive label.
d. All the patient analyte is bound in the reaction.

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

 ANSWER: C

● In competitive binding assays, the analyte competes with

that of the labeled reagent. Therefore, the more analytes
are bound, the less the label detected.

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

29. In a noncompetitive enzyme immunoassay, if a negative
control shows the presence of color, which of the following
might be a possible explanation? *Stevens*

a. No reagent was added.

b. Washing steps were incomplete.
c. The enzyme was inactivated.
d. No substrate was present.

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: B

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

30. How do heterogeneous assays differ from homogeneous
assays? *Stevens*

a. Heterogeneous assays require a separation step.

b. Heterogeneous assays are easier to perform than
homogeneous assays.
c. The concentration of patient analyte is directly
proportional to bound label in homogeneous assays.
d. Homogeneous assays are more sensitive than
heterogeneous ones.

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: A

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

31. Which of the following techniques uses restriction enzymes,
electrophoresis, and then transfer of DNA fragments onto a
solid matrix, followed by probing with labeled probes?
*Stevens*

a. Dot-blot
b. Southern blot
c. Western blot
d. PCR

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: B

“SNoW DRoP”

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

32. PCR technology can be used to:

a. Amplify small amounts of DNA.

b. Isolate intact nuclear RNA.
c. Digest genomic DNA into small fragments.
d. Repair broken pieces of DNA.

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: A

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

33. How much diluent needs to be added to 0.2 ml of serum to
make a 1:20 dilution? *Stevens*

a. 19.8 mL
b. 4.0 mL
c. 3.8 mL
d. 10.0 mL

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: C

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

34. What should be done if all forward and reverse ABO results
as well as the autocontrol are positive? *Harr*
a. Wash the cells with warm saline, autoadsorb the serum
at 4°C
b. Retype the sample using a different lot number of
reagents
c. Use of polyclonal typing reagents
d. Report the sample as group AB

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: A

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

35. What ABO types may donate to any other ABO type? *Harr*

a. O-
b. A-, O-
c. A-
d. A-, B-, AB-, O-

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: A

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

36. Most common Di phenotype is often associated with what
ancestry:

a. Asian
b. African
c. European
d. Mongolian

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

 ANSWER: D

● DieGO - MonGOlian

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

37. Which of the following antibodies characteristically gives a
refractile mixed-field appearance? *Harr*

a. Anti-K
b. Anti-Dia
c. Anti-Sda
d. Anti-S

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: C

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

38. The k (Cellano) antigen is a high-frequency antigen and is
found on most red cells. How often would one expect to find
the corresponding antibody? *Harr*

a. Often
b. Rarely
c. Always
d. Never

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: B

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

39. Which of the following vaccinations carries no deferral
period *Harr*

a. Rubella
b. Varicella zoster
c. HPV
d. Smallpox

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

 ANSWER: C

Note: In Harr, it is specified as “Recombinant HPV” but the

examiners omitted ‘recombinant’ in the choices.

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

40. Which of the following is proper procedure for preparation of
platelets from whole blood? *BOC*

a. Light spin followed by a hard spin

b. Light spin followed by two hard spins
c. Two light spins
d. Hard spin followed by a light spin

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: A

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

41. Which of the following is consistent with standard blood
bank procedure governing the infusion of fresh frozen
plasma?

a. Only blood group-specific plasma may be administered

b. Group O may be administered to recipients of all blood
groups
c. Group AB may be administered to AB recipients only
d. Group A may be administered to both A and O recipients

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

 ANSWER: D

● Group A plasma: has anti-B

● Group O recipient red cells: no A and B antigens

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

42. Plastic bag overwraps are recommended when thawing units
of FFP in 37oC water baths because they prevent:

a. The FFP bag from cracking when it contacts the warm

water
b. Water from slowly dialyzing across the bag membrane
c. The entry ports from becoming contaminate with water
d. The label from peeling off as the water circulates in the
bath

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: C

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

43. A 10% red cell suspension in saline is used in a
compatibility test. Which of the following would most likely
occur?

a. False-positive due to antigen excess

b. False-positive due to prozone
c. False-negative due to prozone
d. False-negative due to antigen excess

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

 ANSWER: D
Prozone Antibody excess
Post zone Antigen excess

● Both can cause false negative reactions.

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

44. When may an IS crossmatch be performed? *Harr*

a. When a patient is being massively transfuse

b. When there is no history of antibodies and the current
antibody screen is negative
c. When blood is being emergency released
d. When a patient has not been transfused in the past 3
months

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: B

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

45. Which of the following is NOT a requirement for a electronic
crossmatch *Harr*

a. The computer system contains logic to prevent

assignment and release of ABO incompatible blood
b. There are concordant results of at least two
determinations of the recipient’s ABO type on record, one
of which is from the current sample
c. Critical elements of the system have been validated on
site
d. There are concordant results of at least one
determination of the recipient’s ABO type on file.
Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT
ANSWER: D

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

46. Most frequent transfusion-associated disease complication
of blood transfusions is:

a. CMV
b. Syphilis
c. Hepatitis
d. AIDS

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: C

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

47. Disease Transmission Prevention—Required Tests EXCEPT:

a. Tuberculosis
b. HIV
c. Malaria
d. Syphilis

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: A

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

48. AHG control cells:

a. Positive control for anti-C3 reagents

b. Only for IAT
c. Coated only with IgG antibody
d. Must be used to confirm all positive antiglobulin
reactions

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: C

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

49. An antibody screen is reactive at IAT phase of testing using a
three-cell screen and the autocontrol is negative. What is the
possible explanation for these results? *Harr*

a. A cold alloantibody
b. High-frequency alloantibody or a mixture of
alloantibodies
c. A warm autoantibody
d. A cold and warm alloantibody

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: B

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

50. A major crossmatch and screening cells are 2+ at IS, 1+ at
37°C, and negative at the IAT phase. Identify the most likely
problem. *Harr*

a. Combination of antibodies
b. Cold alloantibody
c. Rouleaux
d. Test error

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: B

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

51. Results of a serum sample tested against a panel of reagent
red cells gives presumptive evidence of an alloantibody
directed against a high incidence antigen. Further
investigation to confirm the specificity should include which
of the following?

a. Serum testing against red cells from random donors

b. Serum testing against red cells known to lack incidence
antigens
c. Serum testing against enzyme-treated autologous red
cells
d. Testing of an eluate prepared form the patient’s red cells
Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT
ANSWER: B

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

52. Who is the best candidate for a predeposit autologous
donation? *Harr*

a. A 45-year-old man who is having electric surgery in 2

weeks; he has alloanti-k
b. A 23-year-old female leukemia patient with a
hemoglobin of 10 g/dL
c. A 12-year-old boy who has hemophilia
d. A 53-year-old woman who has septicemia

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: A

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

53. The most serious HTRs are due to which incompatibility:

a. ABO
b. Rh
c. MN
d. Duffy

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: A

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

54. Symptoms of dyspnea, cough, hypoxemia, and pulmonary
edema within 6 hours of transfusion:

a. Anaphylactic
b. Hemolytic
c. TRALI
d. TACO

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: C

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

55. All of the following are reasons for performing an adsorption,
except: *Harr*

a. Separation of mixture of antibodies

b. Removal of interfering substances
c. Confirmation of weak antigens on red cells
d. Identification of antibodies causing a positive DAT

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: D

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

56. Bone marrow transplant donors and their recipients must be
matched for which antigen systems? *BOC*

a. ABO & Rh
b. HLA
c. CD4/CD8
d. P

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: B

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

57. What can be done if HDN is caused by maternal anti-K
*Harr*

a. Give Kell immunoglobulin

b. Monitor the mother’s antibody level
c. Prevent formation of K-positive cells in the fetus
d. Not a problem; anti-K is not known to cause HDN

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: B

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

58. What should be done when a woman who is 24 weeks
pregnant has a positive antibody screen? *Harr*
a. Perform an antibody identification panel; titer if
necessary
b. No need to do anything until 30 weeks of gestation
c. Administer Rh immune globulin (RhIg)
d. Adsorb the antibody onto antigen-positive cells

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: A

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

Histopath, MT
Laws, & Lab
Management
Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT
1. A closed wound:

a. Hematoma
b. Abrasion
c. Laceration

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: A

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

2. Not a fibrocartilage

a. Intervertebral discs
b. Joint
c. Ligaments
d. Tendon

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

 ANSWER: C

● Ligament - dense connective tissue

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

3. Purpose of increasing concentrations of alcohol:

a. to facilitate clearing
b. facilitate fixation

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: A

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

4. Paraffin wax should be miscible with?

a. Xylene
b. ETOH
c. Acetone
d. Water

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: A

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

5. Paraffin wax should be miscible with?

a. Xylene
b. ETOH
c. Acetone
d. Water

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: C

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

6. If a cut tissue section slips off the glass slide, what will you
do?

a. Smear an albumin on the slide

b. Return to float out water bath

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: A

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

7. MOST appropriate specimen to cytocentrifuge:

a. CSF
b. Cyst fluid
c. Pleural
d. Urine

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: A

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

8. Not a blueing agent:

a. Scott’s tap water

b. Ammonia water
c. Magnesium carbonate
d. Lithium carbonate

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: C

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

9. When performing IHC, it is important to use a ______ , so
that you can see where the staining from the antibody is in
relation to the cellular structures within the tissue.

a. Counterstain
b. Primary stain
c. Tap water
d. Alcohol

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: A

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

10. NRL for Parasitology

a. RITM
b. San Lazaro Hospital
c. NKTI
d. LCP

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: A

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

11. NRL for HIV

a. PHC
b. NKTI
c. San Lazaro Hospital
d. UP-NIH

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: C

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

12. Who regulates the reagents being used in the laboratory?

a. FDA
b. HFSRB
c. DENR
d. DOST

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

 ANSWER: B

● It is the DOH and from the choices, the one that is under
the DOH is HFSRB

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

13. Which test is NOT considered unlawful when compulsory
testing is done?

a. HIV testing
b. Newborn screening
c. Drug testing
d. Paternity testing

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: C

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

14. Minimum requirement of lab personnel for screening drug
laboratory:

a. analyst, head pathologist, authorized specimen collector

b. analyst, head pathologist
c. analyst, authorized specimen collector
d. head pathologist, authorized specimen collector

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: A

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

15. Not a professional subject:

a. Molecular diagnostics
b. Clinical microscopy
c. Hematology
d. Organic chemistry

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: D

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

16. Which can perform red cell antibody screening?

a. Blood bank
b. Blood center
c. Blood station
d. BCU

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: A

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

17. What should be first secured by the owner from the DOH to
operate a lab?

a. mayor’s permit
b. BIR permit
c. Permit to construct and design

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: C

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

18. A specimen was submitted in the lab without a medical
record number indicated. It can be considered:

a. Incomplete
b. Mislabeled
c. Unlabeled

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: A

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

19. Not considered a laboratory record:

a. SOP manual
b. Laboratory worksheet
c. Logbook
d. Laboratory results

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: B

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

20. Defining standards of performance:

a. Directing
b. Planning
c. Organizing
d. Controlling

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: D

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

21. How can you show empathy to your patient?

a. Practice Manners
b. Acknowledge their pain
c. Say encouraging words

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: B

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

22. A health indicator:

a. Life expectancy
b. Prevalence
c. Incidence

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

ANSWER: A

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT

Good luck!

Jillian Patrice W. Bulanadi, RMT