06/12/2018 Code-A

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005; Ph.: 011-47623456

MM : 720 Practice Test-08 for AIATS-04 Time : 3 Hrs.

Topics Covered :
Physics : Dual Nature of Matter and Radiation, Atoms and Nuclei, Electronic Devices

Chemistry : Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids, Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen, Biomolecules,
Polymers; Chemistry in Everyday Life

Botany : Ecosystem, Biodiversity and conservation, Environmental Issues

Zoology : Biotechnology: Principles and Processes ; Biotechnology and its Applications

Instructions :
(i) Use Blue/Black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
(iii) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material on
Answer sheet.
(vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.

PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer :
1. In full wave rectifier circuit operating from 50 Hz 4. The potential energy of a particle of mass m is given
main supply, the fundamental frequency in the ripple by
will be
E ,0  x  1
(1) 25 Hz (2) 50 Hz U(x)   0
0, x  1
(3) 75 Hz (4) 100 Hz 1 and 2 are the de-Broglie wavelengths of the
2. The phase shift between Input and output wave of particle, when 0  x  1 and x >1 respectively. If the
common emitter transistor amplifier is 1
(1)  (2) Zero total energy of the particle is 2E0, the ratio  will
2
be
 
(3) (4) (1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 1
2 4
(3) 2 :1 (4) 1 : 2
3. The photon of energy 3.4 eV is incident on a metal 5. In the Bohr hydrogen atom model the radius of
having work function 2 eV. The maximum KE of the stationary orbit is directly proportional to
photoelectrons is equal to (n = principal quantum number)

(1) 1.4 eV (2) 1.7 eV (1) n–1 (2) n

(3) n2 (4) n–2
(3) 5.4 eV (4) 6.8 eV
(1)
6. Energy lev els A, B and C of a certain atom 12. A radioactive nucleus of mass M emits a photon of
corresponding to increasing values of energy frequency  and the nucleus recoils. The recoil
i.e., EA < EB < EC. energy will be
If 1, 2 and 3 are the wavelength of radiations (1) h (2) Mc2 – h
corresponding to the transitions C to B, B to A and
C to A respectively. W hich of the f ollowing h 2 2
(3) (4) Zero
statements is correct? 2Mc 2
C 13. The majority charge carriers in p type
1 semi-conductors are
B (1) Electrons (2) Protons
2 3 (3) Holes (4) Neutron
A 14. To get an output 1 from the circuit shown in the
figure, the input will be
1 2
(1) 3 = 1 + 2 (2)  3    
1 2

(3) 1 + 2 + 3 = 0 (4) 32  12   22

y
7. The energy of a hydrogen atom in its ground state (1) A = 0, B = 1, C = 0
is – 13.6 eV. The energy of the level corresponding (2) A = 1, B = 0, C = 0
to the quantum number n = 2 (first excited state) in
the hydrogen atom is (3) A = 1, B = 0, C = 1

(1) –2.72 eV (2) –0.85 eV (4) A = 1, B = 1, C = 0

(3) –0.54 eV (4) –3.4 eV 15. The circuit shown in the following figure contains two
diodes D1 and D2 each with a forward resistance of
8. An electron changes its position from orbit n = 4 to 50  and with infinite backward resistance. If the
the orbit n = 2 of an atom. The wavelength of the battery voltage is 6 V, the current through 100 , is
emitted radiation is [R = Rydberg constant]
150 
16 16
(1) (2) D1 50 
R 3R
16 16 D2
(3) (4) 100 
5R 7R
9. In the given reaction, 6V
(1) Zero (2) 0.02 A
A
zX z 1 Y A z 1 K A 4  z 1 K A  4
(3) 0.03 A (4) 0.036 A
radioactive emissions are emitted in the sequence
16. A nucleus with mass number 220 initially at rest
(1) , ,  (2) , ,  emits an -particle. If Q value of reaction is 5.5 MeV,
(3) , ,  (4) , ,  calculate the kinetic energy of the  particle.

10. If  is decay constant and N the number of (1) 4.4 MeV (2) 5.4 MeV
radioactive nuclei of an element, the decay rate (R) (3) 5.6 MeV (4) 6.5 MeV
of that element is
17. Which of the following figure represents the variation
(1) N 2 (2) N of particle momentum (P) and the associated de
Broglie wavelength ()?

(3) (4) 2N
N P P
11. If the decay or disintegration constant of a
radioactive subtance is , then its half life and mean
life are respectively (1) (2)
1 loge 2 loge 2 1  
(1) & (2) &
   
1  1
(3)  loge 2 & (4) log 2 & 
 e
(2)
 P P I I

(3) (4)
(3) (4)
t t
 

18. Which of the following transition in Balmer series for 23. The total energy of an electron in hydrogen atom in
hydrogen atom will have longest wavelength? the first excited state is –3.4 eV. The K.E. of
electron
(1) n = 2 to n = 1
(1) 0 eV (2) 1.7 eV
(2) n = 6 to n = 1
(3) n = 3 to n = 2 (3) –1.7 eV (4) 3.4 eV

(4) n = 6 to n = 2 24. The speed of an electron in the orbit of hydrogen

atom in the first excited state (c = speed of light)
19. The binding energy per nucleon of nucleus is a
measure of its
c c
(1) Charge (1) (2)
137 274
(2) Mass
c
(3) Momentum (3) c (4)
2
(4) Stability
20. The decay constant of a radioisotope is . If A1 and 25. Rest mass of -rays
A2 are its activities at times t1 and t2 respectively, (1) 6.6 × 10–27 kg (2) 9.1 × 10–31 kg
the number of nuclei which have decayed during the
time(t1 – t2) (3) Zero (4) 1.6 × 10–27 kg

(1) A1t1 – A2 t2 (2) A1 – A2 26. Decay constant of stable nuclei

(3) (A1 – A2) /  (4) (A1 – A2) loge 2

21. The current through an ideal PN junction shown in (1)
T1/2
the following circuit diagram will be
0.693
100  (2)
T1/2
1V 2V
(3) Zero
27. de-Broglie wavelength of an electron in the first orbit
(1) Zero of Bohr’s hydrogen atom (r = radius of orbit)
(2) 1 mA
r
(3) 10 mA (1) (2) r
2
(4) 30 mA
(3) 2r (4) 4r
22. A p-n junction (D) shown in the figure can act as a
rectifier when an alternating current source (V) is 28. Number of photons of wavelength 6600 nm which
connected in the circuit strike normally and exert 1 N of force are
(1) 2 × 1027 photons/s (2) 5 × 1027 photons/s
D
R (3) 7 × 1027 photons/s (4) Zero
V
29. The radiation emitted when an electron jumps from
n = 3 to n = 2 orbit in hydrogen atom falls on a
The current in the resistor can be shown by metal to produce photoelectrons. If work function of
metal is 0.8 eV, stopping potential will be
I I
(1) 1.09 V (2) 2.09 V
(1) (2) (3) 3.09 V (4) 5.09 V
t t

(3)
30. A photocell is illuminated by a point source of light 38. Among -particle, -particle and -rays, which has
1 m away. When the source is shifted to 4 m, then more ionising power?
number of electrons emitted will
(1) -particle
(1) Not change
(2) -particle
(2) Become half of initial
(3) -rays
(3) Become 1/4 times of initial
(4)  have equal ionising power
(4) Become 1/16 times of initial
39. During a mean life of a radioactive element, the
31. If T is the half-life of a radioactive material, then the
fraction left is
fraction that would remain after a time T/2 is
(1) e
(1) 1 (2) 1/2
e
1 2 1 (2)
e 1
(3) (4)
2 2 e 1
32. In a sample of radioactive material, what percentage (3)
e
of initial number of active nuclei will decay during
1
one mean life (4)
e
(1) 37% (2) 50% 40. In a semiconductor diode, the barrier potential
(3) 63% (4) 70% resists the flow of
33. A fraction f1 of a radioactive sample decays in one (1) Majority carrier in both p and n region
mean life, and a fraction f2 decays in one half life (2) Only holes in p-region
(1) f1 > f2 (2) f1 < f2 (3) Only free electrons in p-region
(3) f1 = f2 (4) f1  f2 (4) Free electrons in the n-region
34. Rest mass energy of electron 41. The energy gap of silicon is 1.23 eV. The maximum
wavelength below which silicon will absorb energy is
(1) 1.51 MeV (2) 1.0 MeV
(1) 5000 Å (2) 8000 Å
(3) 0.51 MeV (4) 2 MeV
(3) 10000 Å (4) 1000 Å
35. de Broglie wavelength for an electron in the 4th orbit
of the Bohr model of the hydrogen atom 42. A radio transmits 10 kW power at 150 MHz. Energy
of one photon of electromagnetic wave
(1) 1.80 nm (2) 1.33 nm
(1) 4.21 × 10–7 eV (2) 2.12 × 10–7 eV
(3) 2 nm (4) 2.33 nm
(3) 6.21 × 10–7 eV (4) 10–7 eV
36. If a photon and an electron hav e got same
43. For amplitude modulated wave, the maximum and
de Broglie wavelength, then the ratio of total energy
minimum amplitude are found to be 10 V and 2 V
of electron to total energy of photon (Speed of
respectively, modulation index to be
electron is v and speed of light is c)
(1) 3/2 (2) 2/3
c v
(1) (2) (3) 1 (4) 2
v c
44. Height of T.V. tower whose transmission range is
2v v 32 km (R = 6400 km)
(3) (4)
c 2c (1) 50 m (2) 100 m
37. Binding energies per nucleons of nuclei ‘A’ and ‘B’ (3) 80 m (4) 40 m
are 6.8 MeV and 5 MeV respectively. Then correct 45. The communication satellites are parked at an
option is altitude of
(1) B is more stable (1) 36 km
(2) A is more stable (2) 360 km
(3) A & B are equally stable (3) 3600 km
(4) Stability does not depend on binding energy per (4) 36000 km
nucleon

(4)
 CHEMISTRY

46. Consider the given reaction. 49. Major product of the following reaction is
CH3 PhCOOH + C2H5MgBr  Major product

CS2 H3O
+
O
+ CrO2Cl2 A B
(1) Ph – C – OC2H5 (2) Ph-H
Product B is (3) C2H6 (4) Ph – O – C2H5
CH2OH CHO
50. Formalin contains

(1) (2) (1) 20% formaldehyde by volume in aq. solution

(2) 40% formaldehyde by volume in aq. solution
O – CH3 COOH (3) 45% formaldehyde by mass in aq. solution
(4) 25% formaldehyde by mass in aq. solution
(3) (4)
51. The major product of the given reaction is
47. The major product of the given reaction is
CHO
NaOH NaOH
 + CH3CH2CHO major product
O
O
NO2
(1)
O (1) HO–CH–CH2CH2CHO
O
(2)

NO2
(3)
O (2)
CH=CH–CHO

(4) O

48. When cyclohexanone is treated with perbenzoic

acid, then the product formed is NO2

COOH
CH3
(1) (3) HO–CH–CH–CHO

O
O
(2) NO2

O
CH3
O (4)
(3) HO–C–CH2–CHO

CO2Me

(4) NO2

(5)
52. Monomer of teflon is
pH = 3.5
(1) CF2 = CF2 59. O + H2N – OH A
(2) CH2 = CH2 CH 2
CH2 C=O
(3) Ph – CH = CH2
H2SO4
(4) CH2 = CH – Cl CH2 NH
53. Which among the following is an essential amino CH2 CH2
acid? Caprolactam

(1) Proline (2) Histidine

Above rearrangement is called
(3) Alanine (4) Glutamine
(1) Beckmann rearrangement
54. W hen benzamide is treated with bromine in
presence of NaOH, then the product formed is (2) Claisen rearrangement
(1) Aniline (2) Toluene (3) Pinacol - Pinacolone rearrangement
(3) Benzylamine (4) Ethylbenzene (4) Hoffmann rearrangement
55. Among the following, major product (B) of given 60. Which of the following compound is a ketal?
reaction is
OH OCH3 CH3O OCH3
H3O (1) (2)
PhCN + CH3MgBr A B

(1) Ph – CH – CH3 (2) Ph – C – CH3

OH O O OH

(3) Ph – CH – C2H5 (4) PhCH2NHCH3 (3) O (4) O

OH
56. The compound X in the reaction is 61. Correct order of ease of hydrolysis of acid derivative
will be
CH Mgl hydrolysis
3
X  Y   Mg  OH I+ CH3 COOH (1) RCOCl > (RCO)2O > RCOOR > RCONH2
(1) HCHO (2) CH3CHO (2) (RCO)2O > RCOCl > RCOOR > RCONH2
(3) (CH3)2CO (4) CO2 (3) RCONH2 > RCOCl > RCOOR > (RCO)2O
57. Acetaldehyde can be produced by (4) RCONH2 > RCOOR > (RCO)2O > RCOCl

(i) CH3MgBr (1eq.) 62. W hen propionic acid is treated with aqueous
(1) Ethyl formate NaHCO3, CO2 is liberated. The ‘C’ of CO2 comes
(ii) H2O/H 
from
(i) CH3MgBr (1 eq.) (1) Methyl group (2) Carboxylic group
(2) HCN
(ii) H O/H 
2 (3) Bicarbonate (4) Both (2) & (3)
(i) CH3MgBr (1 eq.)
(3) Ethyl acetate OH
(ii) H2O/H  HCHO +
PCC dil. KOH
(4) Both (1) & (2) 63. (A) (B). Product ‘B’ is
58. Compound ‘A’, C5H10O forms phenyl hydrazone,
gives negative Tollen’s and iodoform test and reduces
O O
to n-pentane. Compound ‘A’ will be OH
(1) Pentan-2-one (2) Pentan-3-one (1) OH (2)
CH3
(3) Pentan-1-al (4) Pentan-1-ol

O O
CH3
(3) (4)

(6)
64. Which of the following carboxylic acids undergoes 68. Which of the following polymers is formed via chain
decarboxylation easily? growth polymerisation mechanism?
O (1) Polyvinylchloride (PVC) (2) Nylon-6

C – CH2 – COOH (3) Polystyrene (4) Both (1) & (3)

(1) 69. Select the correct statement in relation to natural

rubber.

O (1) It is a cross-linked polymer

(2) It is an addition polymer
C – COOH
(2) (3) Repeating unit is ( CH = C – CH = CH )
CH3
OH (4) It is a condensation polymer
CH – COOH 70. Norethindrone and ethynylestradiol are
(3) (1) Neurotransmitters
(2) Antifertility drugs
NH2 (3) Bactericidal antibiotics
CH – COOH (4) Bacteriostatic antibiotics
(4) 71. Which of the following detergents forms cationic
micelles in aqueous solution?
 Soda lime (1) Sodium lauryl sulphate
65. C4H6O4 C3H6O2 C2H6. Compound

(A) (B) (2) Sodium stearate
‘A’ can be (3) Sodium dodecylbenzenesulphonate
COOH CH2 – COOH (4) Cetyltrimethylammonium bromide
(1) CH3 – CH (2)
CH2 – COOH 72. Select the incorrect match.
COOH
(1) Cellulose : -D-glucose
(3) Both (1) & (2) (4) CH3COOH
(2) Sucrose : Glycosidic linkage
66. Which optically active compound on reduction with
LiAlH4 will give optically inactive compound? (3) Lactose : -D-galactose

(1) CH3 – CH – COOH (4) DNA : Phosphodiester linkage

+ –
OCH3 N2Cl

(2) H3C – CH2 – CH – COOH 73. + C2H5OH + N2 + HCl + (A)

OH Select the incorrect statement for the compound (A).
(3) H3C – CH2 – CH – COOH (1) It gives positive iodoform test
CH2 – OH (2) It gives red precipitate with Fehling’s reagent
(3) It undergoes disproportionation reaction in
(4) H3C – CH – CH2 – COOH
concentrated alkali
OH (4) It contains 3 hydrogen
67. Which of the following compounds is the product of
CHCl3 + KOH (i) LiAlH4
an aldol reaction? 74. Aniline (A) (B)
 (ii) H2O
O Select the correct statement.
O
(1) HO (2) (1) (A) has pleasant odour
OH (2) The formation of (A) involves a free radical
OH O O intermediate
(3) (4) OH (3) (B) is a secondary amine
(4) (B) gives a base-soluble substance on reaction
(7) with Hinsberg’s reagent
75. Consider the following compounds. 81. Excess of methyl chloride is reacted with NH3. The
I. CH3CH2NO2 II. CH3CN nature of the final product formed is

III. CH3NC IV. CH3CONH2 (1) 1º amine

Which of the above compound(s) give(s) the same (2) Quaternary ammonium salt
product on reduction with LiAlH4? (3) 2º amine
(1) I, II & IV only (2) II & III only (4) 3º amine
(3) II & IV only (4) I & III only 82. Benzamide on heating with P2O5 gives (X) which on
76. Which of the following has highest pKb value? reduction with LiAlH 4 giv es (Y). (X) and (Y)
respectively are
NO2
NH2 CH2NH2 CH3 CN CONH2
(1) (2)
O2N (1) , (2) ,
NH2

NH2 CH2NH2
(3) (4) CN CH2NH2 COOH CH2OH

(3) , (4) ,
77. Which of the following is the strongest base in
aqueous solution?
(1) NH3 (2) (CH3)3N 83. Which of the following gives the same osazone as
(3) (CH3)2NH (4) CH3NH2 glucose on reaction with phenylhydrazine?

78. Aniline reacts with Br2 water at room temperature to (1) Ribose (2) Fructose
give a white precipitate of (3) 2-deoxyribose (4) Glyceraldehyde
84. The number of chiral carbon atoms present in open
NH2 NH2 chain structure of D–(–)–fructose is
(1) 2 (2) 4
(1) (2)
(3) 3 (4) 1
Br
Br 3 2
85. Acetanilide 4 (i) HNO ,H SO
 (X). The structure of
+
(ii) H3O /OH
(X) is
NH2 NHBr NHCOCH3
Br Br NHCOCH3
(3) (4) NO2
(1) (2)
Br NO
79. Which of the following can be prepared by Gabriel NH2
NH2
phthalimide synthesis?

NH2 NHCH3 (3) (4)

(1) (2) NO2 NO2
86. The most acidic compound among the following is
(3) CH3NH2 (4) CH3NHCH3
COOH COOH
80. Which of the following nitrogenous bases is derived
from purine? (1) (2)
(1) Cytosine (2) Uracil
(3) Thymine (4) Guanine OCH3

(8)
 88. The order of boiling points of isomeric amines is
COOH COOH
(1) 3° > 2° > 1°
(3) (4) (2) 1° > 2° > 3°
(3) 3° > 1° > 2°
NO2 CH3
(4) 1° > 3° > 2°
87. The replacement of diazo group by –CN in 89. The catalyst used in the preparation of high density
benzenediazonium chloride on reaction with CuCN/ polythene (HDP) is
KCN is known as
(1) AlCl3 + Ti(C2H5)4 (2) TiCl4 + Al(C2H5)3
(1) Gatterman - Koch reaction
(3) [Rh(PPh3)3Cl] (4) (CH3COO)2Zn
(2) Gatterman reaction
90. Glucose does not react with
(3) Sandmeyer reaction
(1) Schiff’s reagent (2) NH2OH
(4) Dow’s process
(3) Br2 water (4) HNO3

BOTANY

91. Pyramid of number in a tree ecosystem can be A B

a Inverted (1) 0.03% O2

b Upright (2) 49% CO2

c Spindle shaped (3) 71% Water

(1) a only (4) 49% Water

95. Which of the following factor(s) affect the primary
(2) a & b
productivity?
(3) b only (a) Soil moisture
(4) a & c (b) Availability of nutrients
92. Ecosystem characteristic that changes during (c) Solar radiations
succession is (1) Both (a) and (b) (2) (a), (b) and (c)
(1) Change in diversity of species (3) Only (c) (4) Both (b) and (c)

(2) Total biomass decreases 96. Size of the organisms finally reduces at higher
trophic level in
(3) High degree of diversity to little diversity
(1) Detritus food chain (2) Grazing food chain
(4) Decrease in humus content of soil (3) Auxilliary food chain (4) Both (1) & (2)
93. How many of the following represents transitional 97. Sun is the only source of energy for all the
successional community? ecosystems on earth, except

Cymbopogon, Ziziphus, Poa, Foliose lichens, (1) Pond ecosystem

Rhizocarpon (2) Desert ecosystem

(1) Two (2) Three (3) Deep sea hydrothermal ecosystem

(4) Grassland ecosystem
(3) Four (4) Five
98. Part of biosphere regulated by humans
94. Carbon constitutes A of dry weight of
(1) Hydrosphere (2) Noosphere
organisms and is next only to B in abundance.
(3) Lithosphere (4) Both (1) and (2)
Select the option that correctly fill the blanks,
A and B.

(9)
99. Which of the following statement is correct w.r.t. 104. Match the columns.
decomposition? Column-I Column-II
(1) Small invertebrate animals are called detrivores a. Ecesis (i) Provides stability to
that feed on detritus ecosystem
(2) Decomposition of detritus is slow if it contains b. Food web (ii) Major conduit of energy flow in
proteins and nucleic acid terrestrial ecosystem
(3) Rate of decomposition is fast at low temperature c. DFC (iii) Major conduit of energy flow in
(4) Reduced aeration will accelerate decomposition aquatic ecosystem
100. Anthropogenic ecosystem d. GFC (iv) Germination and establishment
of propagules in a bare area
(a) Do not possess self regulatory mechanism.
(1) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(b) Have more diversity.
(3) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii) (4) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii)
(c) Shows little cycling of nutrients.
105. A gradually B in successive trophic
(d) Have complex food chain. levels.
Choose the correct option. (1) A- Energy; B- increases
(1) Only (a) and (b) are correct (2) A- Energy; B- decreases
(2) (b) and (c) are incorrect (3) A- Respiratory loss; B- increases
(3) (a) and (c) are correct (4) Both (2) & (3)
(4) (a), (b) and (c) are correct 106. High diversity at the genetic level in a single species
101. If we study productivity, which of the following is described as
statement is incorrect? (1) Genetic diversity (2) Species diversity
(1) Gross primary productivity of an ecosystem is (3) Ecological diversity (4) Beta diversity
the rate of production of organic matter by 107. Select the incorrect match.
producers during photosynthesis
(1) Normal Myers : Rivet popper hypothesis
(2) The annual net primary productivity of the whole
biosphere is approximately 170 billion tons (dry (2) Alexander Humboldt : Species-area
weight) of organic matter. relationship
(3) David Tilman : Importance of species
(3) Net primary productivity is the available biomass
diversity
for the consumption to herbivores only
(4) Robert May : Estimated global
(4) Secondary productivity is the rate of formation of
species diversity
new organic matter by consumers
108. Biologists have not yet been able to estimate the
102. Which of the following are the two main structural
features of an ecosystem? prokaryotic species diversity as
(1) Perfect sexual reproduction is common in
(1) Fragmentation; leaching
prokaryotes
(2) Decomposition; stratification
(2) Conventional taxonomic methods are not
(3) Succession; leaching suitable for identifying them
(4) Species composition; stratification (3) Most of the species can be easily grown in
103. Giv en below is a f ood chain of a terrestrial culture medium under laboratory conditions
ecosystem. (4) Alternation of generation is common in
Grass Grasshopper Frog Snake prokaryotes
109. The sixth mass extinction of species is presently in
If the energy of sunlight is 10,0000 joules, what will
progress. It is different from the previous episodes of
be the amount of energy available to frog?
extinction as
(1) 10,000 joules (2) 1000 joules
(1) Mass extinction of species is taking place for
(3) 100 joules (4) 10 joules the first time on earth
(2) Earlier episodes were anthropogenic only
(3) It is 100 to 1000 times more faster than the
previous ones
(4) Extinction rates were faster in pre-human times
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110. Match the major causes of biodiversity losses given 114. As per the Red list of World Conservation Union
in column-I with the correct examples given in (WCU), a taxon facing a very high risk of extinction
column-II. in the near future, is categorised as
Column I Column II (1) Critically endangered (2) Endangered
a. Habitat loss and (i) Extinction of Steller’s (3) Low risk (4) Vulnerable
fragmentation sea cow 115. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. protected animal
b. Over-exploitation (ii) Carrot grass and and their National Park/Sanctuary.
Eicchornia (1) Rhinoceros unicornis – Kaziranga National
Park
c. Alien-species (iii) Affects animal with
invasion migratory habits (2) Elephants – Periyar Sanctuary
d. Co-extinctions (iv) Coevolved plant- (3) Lion – Gir National Park
pollinator mutualism (4) Snow Leopard – Ranthambore National
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) Park

(2) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv) 116. Select the correct statements w.r.t. biodiversity
conservation.
(3) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)
A. Whole ecosystem and its biodiversity at all levels
(4) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) is protected and conserved in ex-situ approach.
111. Narrowly utilitarian argument f or conserv ing B. In Meghalaya, sacred groves are the last refuges
biodiversity is for a large number of rare and threatened plants.
(1) Every species has an intrinsic value C. Jim Corbett National Park was the first national
park established in India.
(2) The nature provides aesthetic pleasures like
watching spring flowers in fullbloom D. All the plants that have become extinct in the
wild are maintained in zoological parks.
(3) Humans derive countless direct economic
benefits from nature (1) A and B (2) B and C
(4) Both (1) & (2) (3) C and D (4) A and C

112. Which of the following is an on-site conservation 117. Which of the following pair of animal and plant
approach of biodiversity? species fall in the critically endangered category?

(1) Wildlife safari parks (2) Sacred groves (1) Red Panda and Taxus
(2) Black buck and Cupressus
(3) Zoological parks (4) Cryopreservation
(3) Pigmy hog and Berberis
113. Identify A, B and C in the given figure showing global
biodiversity of proportionate number of species of (4) Lion and Papaver
major taxa of plants. 118. Select the incorrect match.
(1) Lungs of the planet – Amazon rain forest
(2) Ex-situ conservation – Seed banks
(3) Biodiversity hotspot – Aravalli hills of Rajasthan
A B (4) Lantana camara – Exotic species
119. The UN conference of parties on climate change in
the year 2015 was held at
C (1) COP-16, Cancun
A B (2) COP-17, Durban
(1) Fungi Angiosperms Lichens (3) COP-15, Copenhagen
(4) COP-21, Paris
(2) Angiosperms Lichens Fungi
120. Unburnt hydrocarbons from automobile exhaust are
(3) Algae Lichens Mosses converted into carbon dioxide and water. Carbon
monoxide and nitric oxide are changed to carbon
(4) Mosses Ferns Algae dioxide and nitrogen gas, respectively, as it passes
through the

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 (1) Electrostatic precipitator 126. Integrated organic farming is a zero-waste procedure
(2) Catalytic converter because it involves

(3) Scrubber (1) Only water-harvesting

(4) Green muffler (2) Use of waste products of one process as
nutrients for other processes
121. A brief exposure to extremely high sound level of
150 dB or more generated by a jet plane or rocket (3) Dairy management only
may cause (4) Use of maximum chemical fertilizers
(1) Eardrum damage and can permanently impair 127. UV-B exposure can cause
hearing ability
a. Ageing of skin
(2) Acid rain
b. Various types of skin cancer
(3) Eye irritation
c. Snow-blindness
(4) Respiratory disorders
122. CNG is a better and cleaner fuel for automobiles than (1) Only a is correct
petrol or diesel as (2) b & c are correct
(1) It is costly (3) Only c is correct
(2) It burns most efficiently (4) a, b & c are correct
(3) It can be easily adulterated 128. Select the incorrect match.
(4) A major portion is left unburnt (1) Montreal Protocol – Effective in 1989
123. Match Column I with Column II.
(2) Kyoto Protocol – Adopted at COP-3
Column I Column II
(3) Earth Summit – Held at Rio de Janeiro
a. Secondary pollutants (i) Domestic sewage (Brazil) in 1992
b. Primary pollutants (ii) For reducing sulphur (4) World Summit on – Held at Pretoria
and aromatic content Sustainable (North Africa) in 2002
in petrol/diesel Development
c. Euro norms (iii) Formed by reaction of 129. Endangered or threatened animals and plants are
pollutants in taken out from their natural habitat and can be given
environment special care and protection by keeping them in
d. Biodegradable (iv) DDT and Tar
(1) Zoological parks and Botanical Gardens,
pollutant
respectively
(v) SO2 and NOx
(2) National parks
(1) a(v), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(3) Biosphere reserves
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (4) a(iv), b(v), c(iii), d(ii)
(4) Sanctuaries
124. Select the incorrect option w.r.t. biological
magnification. 130. The outermost part of the Biosphere reserve, the
transition zone
(1) Refers to increase in concentration of the
(1) Is an undisturbed and legally protected
toxicant at successive trophic levels
ecosystem
(2) Happens because a toxic substance,
(2) Allows economic uses in harmony with
accumulated by an organism, is excreted
conservation goals
without getting metabolised
(3) Immediately surrounds the core zone
(3) Phenomenon is well-known for DDT and mercury
(4) Is managed to accommodate greater research
(4) Rachel Carson’s famous book “Silent spring’ is and educational activities
related to this phenomenon
131. According to Euro III norms, aromatic hydrocarbons
125. Select the odd one w.r.t. the classical smog. are to be contained at ______ of the concerned fuel.
(1) Caused by secondary pollutants (1) 50% (2) 35%
(2) Occurs at low temperature (3) 10% (4) 42%
(3) Contains sulphurous gases (SO2 and H2S)
(4) It is dark brown and also called London smog

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132. The given diagram represents most widely used (a) Iodine-131 activates thyroid and damage lymph
method to remove which pollutant? nodes.
(b) Cesium-137 is used in tumour therapy and is a
source of gamma radiations.
Dirty air Clean air
(c) Strontium-90 replaces calcium in bone and
causes bone cancer and leukemia.
(1) Particulate matter (2) Sulphur dioxide (d) Nuclear waste is an extremely potent pollutant.
(3) CO2 and NOx (4) CO and NOx (1) (a), (c) & (d) are correct
133. Match the Environmental pollution acts/policies given (2) (a), (b) & (c) are correct
in the column-I with their enactment years in (3) Only (b) is correct
column-II, and select the correct option.
(4) (b) & (c) are incorrect
Column-I Column-II
135. Which of the following measures can help us in
a. Environment (Protection) Act (i) 1988
controlling global warming?
b. Air Act (ii) 1974
(a) Excess use of fossil fuels.
c. Water Act (iii) 1986
(b) Improving efficiency of energy usage.
d. National Forest Policy (iv) 1981
(c) Deforestation.
(v) 1987
(d) Slowing down growth of human population.
(1) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
(e) Reducing emission of GHGs into atmosphere.
(2) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
(1) (a), (b) & (c)
(3) a(v), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
(2) (b), (d) & (e)
(4) a(i), b(v), c(iii), d(ii)
(3) (c), (d) & (e)
134. Read the following statements and choose the
correct option. (4) (a), (c) & (e)

ZOOLOGY

136. The term ‘chemical knife’ refers to (a) Cleave the 5 terminal nucleotides from duplex
(1) Polymerase (2) Endonuclease DNA molecules only

(3) Ribonuclease (4) Cellulase (b) Make sequence - specific cuts in both strands
of duplex DNA molecules
137. Restriction endonucleases are
(c) Help in linking of antibiotic resistance gene with
(1) Used for in vitro DNA synthesis plasmid vector
(2) Synthesized by bacteria as part of their defense (d) Generate 3-hydroxyl and 5-phosphate ends in
mechanism the cut DNA strands. They cut in their
(3) Present in mammalian cells for degradation of sugar-phosphate backbone
DNA when the cell dies (1) (a) & (b) (2) (a) & (c)
(4) Used in genetic engineering for ligating two DNA (3) (b) & (d) (4) All of these
molecules
140. Correct statements regarding the enzyme reverse
138. The substrate for restriction enzymes is transcriptase include which of the following?
(1) Single stranded DNA (a) It requires a primer
(2) Partially double stranded RNA (b) It requires an RNA template
(3) Cell wall protein (c) It synthesizes an RNA-DNA hybrid molecule
(4) Double stranded DNA (d) It can be extracted from retroviruses
139. Restriction endonucleases are enzymes that (1) (a) & (b) (2) (a) & (c)
(3) (b) & (c) (4) All of these

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141. The recombinant DNA methods, the term vector (1) Lysozyme (2) Cellulase
refers to (3) Deoxyribonuclease (4) Chitinase
(1) The enzyme that cuts DNA into restriction 150. The given figure is the diagrammatic representation
fragments of the E.coli vector pBR322 which of these genes
(2) The sticky end of a DNA fragment can act as selectable marker?
(3) A plasmid used to transfer DNA into a living cell
Cla I Hind III
(4) A DNA probe used to identify a particular gene EcoR I
142. W hich of the following is used to clone DNA
fragments upto 45 kbp in length and contains cos
R
site of lambda bacteriophage? amp tet
R

(1) Phagemid (2) Cosmid pBR322

(3) Plasmid (4) YAC
ori
143. Which of the following is not component of yeast rop
artificial chromosome?
(1) Centromere (2) Telomere Pvu II
(3) Origin of replication (4) cos site
(1) Ori (2) ampR & tetR
144. pBR322 which is frequently used as a vector for
cloning gene in E.coli is (3) rop (4) All of these
(1) An original bacteria plasmid 151. Match the column-I with column-II and select the
correct option from the codes given below
(2) A modified bacterial plasmid
Column I Column II
(3) A viral genome
a. Exonuclease (i) Stable ev en abov e
(4) A transposon
90°C
145. Yeast artificial chromosomes (YAC) is used mainly for
b. Alkaline phosphatase (ii) Removes nucleotides
(1) Cloning large segments of DNA from ends of DNA
(2) Cloning of small DNA sequences strands
(3) Cloning only yeast genomic sequences c. Taq DNA polymerase (iii) Remove phosphate
from 5 end
(4) Cloning all DNA except plant DNA sequences
d. Terminal transferases (iv) Add poly AA and poly
146. In gene therapy, which of the following vector can be
TT, to make blunt
used to transfer functional ADA cDNA into the
ends sticky
cultured lymphocytes of the patient?
(1) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)
(1) Bacteriophage
(2) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
(2) Adenovirus
(3) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv)
(3) Cauliflower mosaic virus
(4) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
(4) Gemini virus
152. 5GAATTC, is the recognition sequence and
147. W hich of the following is not required in the
cleavage site for which of the following enzyme?
preparation of recombinant DNA molecule?
(1) Alu-I (2) Eco-RI
(1) Restriction endonuclease
(3) Bam H-I (4) Hind-III
(2) DNA ligase
153. Which of the following is not correct statement about
(3) DNA fragments with desired gene
the plasmids?
(4) Exonuclease
(1) It is the extra chromosomal DNA in bacteria
148. In E.coli cloning vector pBR322, the restriction sites
(2) It is an integral part but inert genetic material
of antibiotic resistance gene, tetR are
(3) Host chromosome can be integrated with a part
(1) Pst I and Pvu I (2) Bam HI and SaI I
of plasmid DNA
(3) Eco RI and Cla I (4) Hind III Pvu II
(4) Transfer of plasmid can be done from one cell to
149. While isolating DNA from organisms, which of the another and make several copies of itself
following enzymes is not used?

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154. The figure below show three steps (A, B & C) of 159. The following are useful to introduce genes of
polymerase chain reaction (PCR). Select the option interest/desirable gene into crop plants, except
giving correct identification together with what it (1) Ti-plasmid (2) Particle gun
represents?
Region to be amplified
(3) Breeding (4) Auxin

5
160. Which of the following has a much longer and more
3 ds DNA
3 5 flavourful shelf life, because of delayed ripening?
Heat (A)
(1) GMO tomato called Flavr-Savr
5 3
3 5 (2) Golden rice
Primers (B)
5 3
3 5 (3) Bt cotton
DNA polymerase (Taq polymerase)
+ deoxynucleotides (4) Bt brinjal
5 3
5 3
(C)
161. In Agrobacterium, the part of Ti plasmid transferred
3 5 into plant cell DNA is called as
3 5
30 cycles (1) Origin of replication (2) T–DNA
Amplified (3) c–DNA (4) All of these
[~1billion times]
162. Agrobacterium tumefaciens is an effective vector for
gene transfer in
(1) B – denaturation at a temperature of about 94°C
separating the two DNA strands and then, primer (1) Corn (2) Rice
annealing at 60°C (3) Wheat (4) Soyabean
(2) A – denaturation at a temperature of about 50°C 163. A plant genetic engineer wishes to transfer and
(3) C – extension in the presence of heat labile DNA express a gene from sunflower into beans. Which of
polymerase the following would be the vector of choice?
(4) A – annealing with two sets of primers (1) Retrovirus (2) Papilloma virus
155. In gel electrophoresis, macromolecules are (3) Ti-plasmid (4) Adenovirus
separated from each other on the basis of their
164. The term transfection refers to which of the following?
(1) Charge only (2) Size only
(1) Synthesis of mRNA from a DNA template
(3) Charge to size ratio (4) All of these
(2) Synthesis of protein based on an mRNA
156. Which of the following is required for biolistics sequence
method of gene transfer?
(3) Introduction of foreign DNA into animal cell
(1) PEG
(4) The process by which a normal cell becomes
(2) High velocity microparticle of gold or tungstun malignant
coated with DNA
165. Here are the recognition sites of restriction enzymes
(3) Micropipettes
(4) Vector
157. Polymerase chain reaction is considered as a (a) Bam HI GG ATC C
revolutionary technology because of all the following CC TAG G
reasons, except
(1) It enables an unlimited production of a DNA
fragment in vitro (b) Eco RI G AA TT C
(2) It is a highly sensitive technology C TT AA G
(3) Its experimental protocol is simple
(4) It enables the direct production of a synthetic
gene that did not exist before (c) Sma I CCC GGG
GGG CCC
158. In agarose gel electrophoresis
(1) DNA migrates towards the negative electrode
(2) Largest DNA fragment is farthest from the walls
(d) Sca I AGT ACT
(3) Larger molecules migrate faster than smaller TCA TGA
molecule
(4) Ethidium bromide can be used to visualize the
DNA, after exposure to UV rays

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 Which of these enzymes will create complementary (3) Gene therapy at early embryonic stages if the
sticky end? gene isolate from marrow cells producing ADA is
(1) (a) and (c) (2) (c) and (d) introduced into the cells

(3) (a) and (b) (4) (c) and (a) (4) All of these

166. Which one of the following genes is defective in 173. Human insulin is being commercially produced from
patients suf f ering f rom sev ere combined a transgenic species of
immunodeficiency syndrome (SCID)? (1) Mycobacterium (2) Escherichia
(1) CFTR (3) Saccharomyces (4) Rhizobium
(2) Adenosine deaminase 174. The trigger for activation of toxin of Bacillus
(3) Ribonucleotide reductase thuringiensis is

(4) 2-microglobulin (1) Acidic pH of stomach

167. Bt toxin kills insects by (2) High temperature

(1) Inhibiting protein synthesis (3) Alkaline pH of gut

(2) Generating excessive heat (4) Mechanical action in the insect gut

(3) Creating pores in the midgut epithelium 175. The site of production of ADA in the body is

(4) Obstructing a biosynthetic pathway (1) Erythrocytes (2) Blood plasma

168. A transgenic food crop which may help in solving (3) Lymphocytes (4) Red bone marrow
the problem of night blindness in developing countries 176. -1 antitrypsin is
is (1) An antacid
(1) Bt cotton (2) Golden rice (2) An enzyme
(3) Flavr savr (4) Bt corn (3) Used to treat arthritis
169. Cry II Ab and Cry I Ab produce toxins that control (4) Used to treat emphysema
(1) Cotton bollworms and corn borer respectively 177. Use of bio-resources of multinational companies and
(2) Corn borer and cotton bollworms respectively other organizations without proper authorization from
(3) Tobacco budworm and nematodes respectively the countries and people concerned without
compensatory payment is termed as
(4) Nematodes and tobacco budworms respectively
(1) Biopiracy (2) Bioremediation
170. RNA interference involves
(3) Biofortification (4) Biopatenting
(1) Synthesis of cDNA and RNA using reverse
transcriptase 178. Which of the following is a transgenic?

(2) Silencing of specif ic mRNA due to (1) Polly (2) Molly

complementary RNA (3) Rosie (4) All of these
(3) Interference of RNA in synthesis of DNA 179. Hirudin is obtained from transgenic plants
(4) Synthesis of mRNA from DNA (1) Nicotiana tabacum
171. Which of the following companies started selling (2) Vinca rosea
humulin in the year 1983? (3) Meloidogyne incognita
(1) Eli lilly (2) GEAC (4) Brassica napus
(3) Genetech (4) Nexia biotechnologies 180. Biopatents are
172. Adenosine deaminase def iciency can be (1) Right to use invention
permanently cured by which of the f ollowing
methods? (2) Right to use biological entities
(1) Bone marrow transplantation, in children (3) Right to use products and process
(2) Enzyme replacement therapy (4) All of these



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 06/12/2019 Code-A

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005; Ph.: 011-47623456

MM : 720 Practice Test-08 for AIATS-04 Time : 3 Hrs.

ANSWERS
1. (4) 37. (2) 73. (3) 109. (3) 145. (1)
2. (1) 38. (1) 74. (3) 110. (2) 146. (2)
3. (1) 39. (4) 75. (1) 111. (3) 147. (4)
4. (3) 40. (1) 76. (1) 112. (2) 148. (2)
5. (3) 41. (3) 77. (3) 113. (1) 149. (3)
6. (2) 42. (3) 78. (3) 114. (2) 150. (2)
7. (4) 43. (2) 79. (3) 115. (4) 151. (2)
8. (2) 44. (3) 80. (4) 116. (2) 152. (2)
9. (2) 45. (4) 81. (2) 117. (3) 153. (2)
10. (2) 46. (2) 82. (3) 118. (3) 154. (1)
11. (2) 47. (2) 83. (2) 119. (4) 155. (3)
12. (3) 48. (2) 84. (3) 120. (2) 156. (2)
13. (3) 49. (3) 85. (4) 121. (1) 157. (4)
14. (3) 50. (2) 86. (3) 122. (2) 158. (4)
15. (2) 51. (3) 87. (3) 123. (3) 159. (4)
16. (2) 52. (1) 88. (2) 124. (2) 160. (1)
17. (4) 53. (2) 89. (2) 125. (1) 161. (2)
18. (3) 54. (1) 90. (1) 126. (2) 162. (4)
19. (4) 55. (2) 91. (4) 127. (4) 163. (3)
20. (3) 56. (4) 92. (1) 128. (4) 164. (3)
21. (1) 57. (4) 93. (2) 129. (1) 165. (3)
22. (3) 58. (2) 94. (4) 130. (2) 166. (2)
23. (4) 59. (1) 95. (2) 131. (4) 167. (3)
24. (2) 60. (2) 96. (3) 132. (1) 168. (2)
25. (3) 61. (1) 97. (3) 133. (1) 169. (1)
26. (3) 62. (3) 98. (2) 134. (1) 170. (2)
27. (3) 63. (4) 99. (1) 135. (2) 171. (1)
28. (2) 64. (1) 100. (3) 136. (2) 172. (3)
29. (1) 65. (1) 137. (2) 173. (2)
101. (3)
30. (4) 66. (3) 138. (4) 174. (3)
102. (4)
31. (3) 67. (3) 175. (4)
103. (4) 139. (3)
32. (3) 176. (4)
68. (4) 104. (3) 140. (4)
33. (1)
69. (2) 105. (4) 141. (3) 177. (1)
34. (3)
70. (2) 106. (1) 142. (2) 178. (4)
35. (2)
71. (4) 107. (1) 143. (4) 179. (4)
36. (1)
72. (3) 108. (2) 144. (2) 180. (4)

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