29/11/2019

A
CODE

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, Plot No.-8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005
Ph.: 011-47623456

MM : 720 Practice Test-05 for AIATS-04 Time : 3 Hrs.

Topics Covered :

Physics : Dual Nature of Matter and Radiation, Atoms and Nuclei, Electronic Devices (90 Question)

Chemistry : Aldehyde, ketone and Carboxylic acid (90 Question)

Instructions :
(i) Use ball point pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
(iii) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material on
Answer sheet.
(vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.

PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer :

1. The kinetic energy of an electron gets tripled, then 4. If alpha, beta & gamma rays carry same
the de Broglie wavelength associated with it changes momentum, which has the longest wavelength?
by a factor
(1) Alpha rays
1
(1) (2) 3 (2) Beta Rays
3
(3) Gamma rays
1
(3) (4) 3
3 (4) All have same wavelength

2. In Davisson & Germer experiment maximum 5. The photon of energy 3.4 eV is incident on a metal
intensity is observed at having work function 2 eV. The maximum KE of
(1) 50° & 54 volt (2) 54° & 50 volt photoelectrons is equal to

(3) 50° & 50 volt (4) 65° & 50 volt (1) 1.4 eV
3. What will be the ratio of de Broglie wavelengths of (2) 1.7 eV
proton and particle of same energy?
(3) 5.4 eV
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 2
(3) 4 : 1 (4) 1 : 4 (4) 6.8 eV

(1)
6. The maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons 11. When a hydrogen atom is raised from the ground
emitted from a surface when photons of energy state to an excited state
6 eV falls on it is 4 eV. The stopping potential in
volts is (1) PE increases and KE decreases

(1) 2 (2) 4 (2) PE decreases and KE increases

(3) 6 (4) 10 (3) Both KE & PE increases

7. The potential energy of a particle of mass m is given (4) Both KE & PE decreases
by 12. The energy of a hydrogen atom in its ground state
is – 13.6 eV. The energy of the level corresponding
E ,0  x  1 to the quantum number n = 2 (first excited state) in
U(x)   0
0, x  1 the hydrogen atom is
(1) –2.72 eV (2) –0.85 eV
1 & 2 are the de-Broglie wavelengths of the particle,
when 0  x  1 & x >1 respectively. If the total (3) –0.54 eV (4) –3.4 eV
1 1
energy of the particle is 2E0, the ratio  will be 13. An alpha nucleus of energy mv 2 bombards a
2 2
heavy nuclear target of charge Ze. Then the distance
of closest approach for the alpha nucleus will be
(1) 2 (2) 1
proportional to
1 1 1
(3) 2 (4) (1) (2)
2 m v4
8. In the Bohr hydrogen atom model the radius of the 1
stationary orbit is directly proportional to (n = (3) (4) v 2
Ze
principal quantum number)
14. The diagram shows the path of four  - particles of
(1) n–1 (2) n the same energy being scattered by the nucleus of
an atom simultaneously. Which of these is/are not
(3) n2 (4) n–2
physically possible?
9. Which one of the series of hydrogen spectrum is in
the visible region? 1
2
(1) Lyman series (2) Balmer series 3
(3) Paschen series (4) Brackett series 4

10. Energy levels A,B,C of a certain atom corresponding

to increasing values of energy i.e. EA < EB < EC. (1) 3 & 4 (2) 2 & 3

If  1,  2 ,  3 are the wavelength of radiations (3) 1 & 4 (4) 4 only

corresponding to the transitions C to B, B to A and 15. An electron changes its position from orbit n = 4 to
C to A respectively. W hich of the f ollowing the orbit n = 2 of an atom. The wavelength of the
statements is correct? emitted radiation is [R = Rydberg constant]

C 16 16
1 (1) (2)
R 3R
B
2 3 16 16
(3) (4)
5R 7R
A
16. The mass defect for the nucleus of Helium is 0.0303
1 2 amu. What is the binding energy per nucleon for
(1) 3 = 1 + 2 (2)  3     Helium in MeV?
1 2
(1) 28 (2) 7
(3) 1 + 2 + 3 = 0 (4) 32  12   22 (3) 4 (4) 1
(2)
17. Outside a nucleus 25. If  is decay constant and N the number of
radioactive nuclei of an element, the decay rate (R)
(1) Neutron is stable of that element is
(2) Proton & neutron both are stable
(1) N 2 (2) N
(3) Neutron is unstable

(4) Neither neutron nor proton is stable (3) (4) 2 N
N
18. Equivalent energy of mass equal to 1 amu is
26. If the decay or disintegration constant of a
(1) 931 keV (2) 931 eV radioactive subtance is , then its half life & mean
(3) 931 MeV (4) 9.31 MeV life are respectively

19. The binding energies per nucleon for a deutron and 1 loge 2 loge 2 1
an  particle are x1 and x2 respectively. what will be (1) & (2) &
   
the energy Q released in the reaction?
2 +1 H2  2He4 +Q
1H 1  1
(3)  loge 2 & (4) log 2 & 
(1) 4 (x1 + x2) (2) 4 (x2 – x1)  e

(3) 2 (x1 + x2) (4) 2(x2 – x1) 27. A radioactive nucleus of mass M emits a photon of
20. Heavy water is used as Moderator in a nuclear frequency  and the nucleus recoils. The recoil
reactor. The function of the Moderator is energy will be

(1) To control the energy released in the reactor (1) h (2) Mc2 – h

(2) To absorb neutrons and stop chain reaction

h 2 2
(3) To cool the reactor faster (3) (4) Zero
2Mc 2
(4) To slow down the neutrons to thermal energies
28. The volume of a nuclei is directly proportional to
21. Neutrino is a particle which is
(1) A (2) A3
(1) Charged and has spin
1
(2) Charged & no spin (3) A (4) 3
A
(3) Chargeless & has spin
29. The majority charge carriers in p type
(4) Chargeless & no spin semi-conductors are
22. If in a nuclear fusion process the masses of the (1) Electrons (2) Protons
fusing nuclei be m 1, m 2 and the mass of the
resultant nucleus to be m3 then (3) Holes (4) Neutron
(1) m3 = m1 + m2 (2) m3 = m1 – m2 30. When the electrical conductivity of a semi-conductor
is due to the breaking of its covalent bonds, then the
(3) m3 < (m1 + m2) (4) m3 > (m1 + m2)
semi-conductor is said to be
23. Some radioactive nucleus may emit
(1) Donor (2) Acceptor
(1) Only one ,  or  at a time
(3) Intrinsic (4) Extrinsic
(2) All the three ,  and  one after another
31. The valency of the impurity atom that is to be added
(3) All the three , , simultaneously to germanium crystal so as to make it a N type
semi-conductor is
(4) Only  & simultaneously
(1) 6 (2) 5
24. In the given reaction A A A 4
z X z 1 Y z 1 K
(3) 4 (4) 3
 z 1 K A  4 radioactive emissions are emitted in
the sequence 32. When a semi conductor is heated, its resistance

(1) , ,  (2) , ,  (1) Decreases (2) Increases

(3) , ,  (4) , ,  (3) Remains unchanged (4) Nothing is definite

(3)
33. A Ge specimen is doped with Al. The concentration 37. The input resistance of a common emitter transistor
of acceptor atoms is of the order of 1021 atoms/m3. amplifier if the output resistance is 500 k, the
Given that the intrinsic concentration of electron hole current gain =0.98 & the power gain is
pairs is of the order of 1019/m3. Find concentration 6.0625 × 106 is
of electrons in the specimen.
(1) 198 
(1) 1017/m3 (2) 1015/m3
(2) 300 
(3) 104/m3 (4) 102/m3
(3) 100 
34. The dominant mechanism for motion of charge
(4) 400 
carriers in forward & reverse biased silicon P-N
junctions are 38. In a CE transistor amplifier, the audio signal voltage
across the collector resistance of 2 kis 2 V. If the
(1) Drift in forward bias, diffusion in reverse bias
base resistance is 1 k & the current amplification
(2) Diffusion in forward bias, drift in reverse bias of the transistor is 100, find input voltage signal.

(3) Diffusion in both forward & reverse bias (1) 0.1 V

(4) Drift in both forward & reverse bias (2) 1.0 V

(3) 1 mV
35. If in a p-n junction diode a square input signal of
10 V is applied as shown, then the output signal (4) 10 mV
across RL will be
39. The following truth table corresponds to the Logic
5V gate
A 0 0 1 1
RL B 0 1 0 1
–5V X 0 1 1 1
(1) NAND (2) OR
10V
(3) AND (4) XOR
(1) (2)
40. To get an output 1 from the circuit shown in the
–10V figure, the input must be

5V

(3) (4)
–5 V

36. In a common emitter configuration of a transistor, the (1) A = 0, B = 1, C = 0

voltage drop across a 500 resistor in the collector
circuit is 0.5 V, when the ratio of collector to emitter (2) A = 1, B = 0, C = 0
current is 0.96, the base current is (3) A = 1, B = 0, C = 1

1 (4) A = 1, B = 1, C = 0
(1) A
20 41. Identify the operation performed.

1
(2) A
5

1
(3) mA
20

1 (1) NOT (2) AND

(4) mA
24 (3) OR (4) NAND
(4)
42. Find VAB (PN diode is ideal). 47. When light falls on a metal surface the maximum
kinetic energy of the emitted photoelectrons
depends upon
10 
30 V (1) The time for which light falls on the metal

10  (2) Frequency of incident light

VAB 10 
(3) Intensity of the incident light
(1) 10 V (2) 20 V (4) Velocity of the incident light
48. The work function of metal is 1eV. Light wavelength
(3) 30 V (4) 40 V
3000 Å is incident on this metal surface. The
43. The circuit shown in the following figure contains two maximum velocity of emitted photoelectron will be
diodes D1 and D2 each with a forward resistance of (1) 10 ms–1 (2) 1×103 ms–1
50  and with infinite backward resistance. If the
battery voltage is 6 V, the current through 100 , is (3) 1×104 ms–1 (4) 1×106 ms–1
49. Energy received on earth from the sun is 2 cal per
150  cm2 per min if average wavelength of solar light be
D1 50  taken at 5500 Å, then how many photons are
received on the earth per cm2 per min
D2 100  h = 6.6 × 10–34 js, 1 cal = 4.2 j
6V (1) 1.5 × 1013
(1) Zero (2) 0.02 (2) 2.9 × 1013
(3) 0.03 (4) 0.036 (3) 2.3 × 1019
44. Which of the following figure represents variation of (4) 1.75 ×1019
particle momentum and the associated de Broglie
50. Light of two different frequencies whose photons have
wavelength?
energies 1eV and 2.5 eV respectively, successively
illuminates a metal of work f unction
p p 0.5 eV. The ratio of maximum kinetic energy of
emitted electron will be

(1) (2) (1) 1 : 5 (2) 1 : 4

(3) 1 : 2 (4) 1 : 1
 
51. Which of the following figure represents the variation
of particle momentum and the associated de Broglie
wavelength
p p
P P
(3) (4)

  (1) (2)

 
45. A nucleus with mass number 220 initially at rest
emits an -particle. If Q value of reaction is 5.5 MeV,
calculate the kinetic energy of the  particle. P P
(1) 4.4 MeV (2) 5.4 MeV
(3) 5.6 MeV (4) 6.5 MeV (3) (4)
46. A photon in motion has mass  
c h
(1) (2) 52. According to Einstein’s photoelectric equation, the
h  graph between the maximum kinetic energy of
h photoelectrons, ejected and the frequency of incident
(3) h (4) radiation is
c2
(5)
 59. The figure indicates the energy level diagram of an
KE KE atom and the origin of six spectral lines in emission
(e.g. line no 5 arises from the transition from level B
to A) Which of the following spectral lines will also
occur the absorption spectra
(1) (2)
C
Frequency Frequency
B
A
X
KE KE 1 2 3 4 5 6

(1) 1, 4, 6 (2) 4, 5, 6
(3) (4)
(3) 1, 2, 3 (4) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
60. As per Bohr model, the minimum energy (in eV)
Frequency Frequency required to remove an electron from the ground state
of doubly ionized Li atom (z = 3) is
53. Hydrogen atom excites from fundamental level to
n = 3. Number of emission spectral lines according (1) 1.51 (2) 13.6
to Bohr is
(3) 40.8 (4) 122.4
(1) 4 (2) 3
61. The ground state energy of hydrogen atom is
(3) 1 (4) 2 –13.6 eV. What is the potential energy of the
electron in this state
54. Ratio of the wavelengths of first line of Lyman series
and first line of Balmer series is (1) 0 eV (2) –27.2 eV

(1) 1 : 3 (2) 27 : 5 (3) 1 eV (4) 2 eV

(3) 5 : 27 (4) 4 : 9 62. Which of the following transition in Balmer series for
hydrogen atom will have longest wavelength?
55. In the following atoms and molecules for the
transition from n = 2 to n = 1, the spectral line of (1) n = 2 to n = 1 (2) n = 6 to n = 1
minimum wavelength will be produced by (3) n = 3 to n = 2 (4) n = 6 to n = 2
(1) Hydrogen atom (2) Deuterium atom 63. Electrons in the atom are held to the nucleus by
(3) Unionized helium (4) Di-ionized lithium (1) Coulomb’s forces (2) Nuclear forces
56. In Beryllium atom, if a0 be the radius of the first (3) van der Waal’s forces (4) Gravitational forces
orbit, then the radius of the second orbit will be in
general 64. What is the particle x in the following nuclear
9 4
(1) na0 (2) a0 reaction 4 Be  2 He 12
6 C x ?

(1) Electron (2) Proton

a0
(3) n2a0 (4) (3) Photon (4) Neutron
n2
65. In nuclear reactions, we have the conservation of
57. The spectral line of hydrogen atom that lies in the (1) Mass only
UV region of electromagnetic spectrum
(2) Energy only
(1) Lyman (2) Balmer
(3) Momentum only
(3) Paschen (4) Brackett (4) Mass, energy and momentum
58. The transition from the state n = 4 to n = 3 in a 66. In a fission, process, nucleus A divides into two
hydrogen like atom results in ultraviolet radiation. nuclei B and C, their binding energies being Ea, Eb
Infrared radiation will be obtained in the transition from and Ec respectively, then
(1) 2 1 (2) 3 2 (1) Eb + Ec = Ea (2) Eb + Ec > Ea
(3) 4 2 (4) 5 4 (3) Eb + Ec < Ea (4) Eb Ec = Ea

(6)
67. The binding energy per nucleon of nucleus is a 76. During mean life of a radioactive element, the fraction
measure of its that disintegrates is
(1) Charge (2) Mass 1
(1) e (2)
(3) Momentum (4) Stability e
68. Which is used as a moderator in a nuclear reactor?
e 1 e
(1) Boron (2) Graphite (3) (4)
e e 1
(3) Cadmium (4) Steel
1
69. Radioactive substances do not emit 77. If a radioactive substance reduces to of its
16
(1) Electron (2) Helium nucleus original mass in 40 days, what is its half life
(3) Positron (4) Proton
(1) 10 days (2) 20 days
70. The half life period of radium is 1600 years. The
(3) 40 days (4) 60 days
fraction of a sample of radium that would remain after
6400 years in 78. Two radioactive subtances A and B have decay
constants 5and respectively At t = 0 they have
1 1
(1) (2) the same number of nuclei. The ratio of number of
4 2
2
1 1  1
(3) (4) nuclei of A to those of B will be   after a time
8 16  e
71. A nucleus of atomic mass A and atomic number Z interval
emits  particles. The atomic mass and atomic
1
number of the resulting nucleus are (1) (2) 4
4
(1) A, Z (2) A + 1, Z
1
(3) A, Z + 1 (4) A – 4, Z – 2 (3) 2 (4)
2
72. In the given reaction
79. Which of the following rays are not electromagnetic
A A A 4 A4
radioactive waves?
z X z 1 Y  z 1 K  z 1 K
emissions are emitted in the sequence (1)  rays (2)  rays
(1) ,, (2) ,, (3) Heat rays (4) X-rays
(3) ,, (4) ,, 80. The forbidden energy band gap in conductors, semi
73. Which of the following is in the increasing order for conductors and insulators are EG, EG 2 and EG 3
penetration power? respectively. The relation among them is

(1) ,, (2) ,, (1) EG = EG2 = EG3 (2) EG < EG2 < EG3
(3) ,, (4) ,, (3) EG > EG2 > EG3 (4) EG < EG2 > EG3
74. Two nuclei have their mass numbers in the ratio 81. In a p-type semi conductor germanium is doped with
1 : 3. The ratio of their nuclear densities would be
(1) Gallium (2) Boron
1 (3) Aluminium (4) All of these
(1) (3) 3 : 1 (2) 1 : 1
82. What is the current in the circuit shown below
(3) 1 : 3 (4) 3 : 1 300 
–4 V –1 V
75. The decay constant of a radioisotope is . If A and
AZ are its activities at times t1 and t2 respectively,
(1) 0 A
the number of nuclei which have decayed during the
time(t1 – t2) (2) 10–2 A
(1) A1t1 – A2 t2 (2) A1 – A2 (3) 1 A
(3) (A1 – A2) /  (4) (A1 – A2) (4) 0.10 A

(7)
83. The current through an ideal PN junction shown in
I
the following circuit diagram will be

100  (1)
t
1V 2V
I
(1) 0
(2)
(2) 1 mA t
(3) 10 mA
I
(4) 30 mA
84. In the following common emitter configuration an (3)
N-P-N transistor with current gain  = 100 is used. t
The output voltage of the amplifier will be
I

(4)
10 k t
1 k
1 mV Vout 87. In the circuit A, B represents two inputs and C
represents the output. Circuit represents

A
(1) 10 mV
C
(2) 0.1 V B
(3) 1.0 V
(4) 10 V
(1) AND gate (2) NAND gate
85. The following configuration of gate is equivalent to
(3) OR gate (4) NOR gate
OR 88. For the given combination of gates if the logic states
A AND of inputs A, B, C are as follows A = B = C = 0 and
B A = B = 1, C = 0, then the logic states of output D
G1 Y
are
G3
A G2
NAND B G1
G2 D
C
(1) NAND (1) 0, 1 (2) 0, –1
(2) XOR
(3) 1, 0 (4) 1, 1
(3) OR
89. An amplifier has a voltage gain Av = 1000, the
(4) NOT voltage gain in dB is
86. A p-n junction (D) shown in the figure can act as a (1) 30 dB (2) 60 dB
rectifier when an alternating current source (V) is
connected in the circuit (3) 3 dB (4) 20 dB
90. Consider an NPN transistor amplifies in common-
D emitter configuration the current gain of the transistor
R is 100. If the collector current changes by 1mA,
V
what will be change in emitter current?

The current in the resistor can be shown by (1) 1.1 mA (2) 1.01 mA
(3) 0.01 mA (4) 10 mA
(8)
 CHEMISTRY
91. Which of the following carboxylic acid reduces 98. W hich of the f ollowing is a simple aldol
Tollen's reagent? condensation product of acetaldehyde?
(1) C6H5COOH (2) HCOOH (1) Crotonaldehyde (2) Cinnamaldehyde

(3) CH3COOH (4) CH 3CHCOOH (3) Mesityl oxide (4) Cinnamic acid

CH3 99. W hich of the f ollowing test is not giv en by

propionaldehyde?
92. Which of the following combination of reactants will
(1) DNP test (2) Iodoform test
undergo nucleophilic addition process?
(3) Tollen's reagent test (4) Fehling solution test
(1) CH3COOH + PCl5 Products
100. Which of the following undergoes trimerisation and
(2) HCOOH + NH3 Products forms trioxane when allowed to stand?

OH  (1) Formaldehyde (2) Acetaldehyde

(3) CH3 CHO  NaCN  HCl  Products
(3) Acetone (4) Formic acid
(4) CH3COCH3 + PCl5 Products 101. Which of the following is the least reactive towards
93. Consider the following reaction sequence. nucleophilic addition reactions?
(1) CH3CHO (2) CH3COCH3
CH3Cl (i) CrO2Cl2 / CS2 (3) CH3COOH (4) HCHO
C6H6  (A)  (B)
anh.AlCl3 (ii)H3O
conc.HCl Zn-Hg 102. Consider the reaction
+
H3O KMnO4
(E) (D) KOH
(C) Ag H ,H O
2 (B)  Tautomerise
CHCl3 (A) 
2
(C)
 Hg
In which of the following set of products the phenyl
ring is deactivated due to –R effect and is meta OH
(D)

dilute
directing?
The final product contains the functional groups
(1) (A) and (B) (2) (B) and (C)
(1) –OH and –COOH (2) –OH and –CHO
(3) (B) and (E) (4) (C) and (E)
(3) CO and –OH (4) C and –COOH
94. Which of the following does not form Schiff's base
with primary amine ? 103. For the reaction

(1) CH3CHO (2) CH3CH2OH dry RCOCI (i) (A)

RX  Mg 
(A)  (C)
  B  
ether (ii)H2O
(3) CH3OCH3 (4) Both (2) & (3)
The product (C) is
95. Which of the following always forms a primary
(1) Carboxylic acid (2) Ketone
alcohol by the addition of Grignard reagent followed
by hydrolysis? (3) Tertiary alcohol (4) Secondary alcohol
(1) HCHO (2) CH3COCH3 104. For the reaction :

(3) CH3CHO (4) CH3CH2CHO H

CH3 COOCH2CHO 
 
 Monohydric alcohol
96. In the self aldol condensation of acetaldehyde, which
of the following acts as a nucleophile?  Dihydric alcohol
The most suitable reducing agent is
(1) H– (2) CH 2CHO
(1) LiAlH4 (2) NaBH4
(3) OH– (4) H2O (3) NH2–NH2 (4) Zn-Hg; Conc.HCl
Mo2O3 105. Which of the following does not give HVZ reaction?
97.  A   O2 

 HCHO  H 2O
(1) C6H5CH2COOH
The reactant (A) is
(2) C6H5CCCOOH
(1) CH3OH (2) CH4 (3) CH3–CH=CH–CH2–COOH
(3) HCOOH (4) H2C2O4 (4) (CH3)2CHCOOH

(9)
106. Which of the following acid has the maximum pKa 113. Benzoic anhydride can be formed by treating
value? benzoic acid with

Cl (1) P2O5 (2) Dilute H2SO4

(1) CH3COOH (2) C6H5CHCOOH (3) HNO3 (4) NH3

114. Cinamaldehyde can be obtained by the reaction
COOH COOH between
(1) C6H5CHO and CH3COCH3
(3) (4)
OH OCH3 (2) C6H5CHO and CH3CHO
(3) CH3CHO and C2H5CHO
107. Which of the following carbonyl compound is most
reactive towards nucleophilic addition reaction? (4) HCHO and CH3CHO
(1) CH3CHO (2) HCHO 115. The formation of cyclic ketals from carbonyl
compounds is an example of
(3) CH3COCH3 (4) C6H5 C CH3
(1) Nucleophilic addition
O (2) Nucleophilic substitution
108. The function of a sodium cyanide and a mineral acid
(3) Electrophilic addition
in the formation of cyanohydrin when reacts with
carbonyl compound is (4) Electrophilic substitution
(1) To increase electrophilicity of carbonyl carbon 116. Which of the following compound upon addition to an
aldehyde may result in syn- and anti-elimination
(2) To absorb water so as to prevent the backward
products?
reaction
(3) To generate HCN in-situ (1) Hydrogen cyanide (2) Hydroxylamine

(4) To stabilise the tetrahedral intermediate (3) Alcohol (4) Grignard reagent

109. Which of the following reagent forms yellow or 117. CH3  CH  CH  CH2  CH 2  CN
orange colored solid with carbonyl compounds?
(i)DIBAL  H
(1) Brady's reagent (2) Schiff's reagent  Product
(ii)H2O

(3) Benedict's solution (4) Baeyer's reagent The product formed is

110. W hich of the following addition compound on (1) CH3 – CH = CH – CH2 – CH2 – CHO
treatment with a dilute mineral acid or alkali gives a
carbonyl compound? (2) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – NH2
(1) Cyanohydrin (3) CH3 – CH = CH – CH2 – CH2 – CHO
(2) Sodiumbisulphite adduct (4) CH3 – CH = CH – CH2 – CH2 – CH2NH2
(3) Ozonoide 118. The reaction
(4) Aldol (i) SnCl /HCl
2
RCN 

 RCHO
(ii)H2O /H
COOH
The above reaction is called
111. The IUPAC name of the compound COOH is
(1) Stephen reduction
(2) Rosenmund reduction
(1) 2-Carboxycyclohexanoic acid
(3) Clemmensen reduction
(2) Cyclohexane-1,2- dicarboxylic acid
(4) Etard reduction
(3) Cyclohexane-1,2-dioic acid
119. Pent-2-yne upon hydroboration-oxidation gives the
(4) 1,2 di-carboxycyclic-hexane major product as
112. Saponification reaction takes place between (1) Pentan-2-one (2) Pentan-3-one
(1) Aldehyde and alcohol (3) Pentanal (4) Pentan-2ol
(2) Aldehyde and ketone 120. Toluene on oxidation with chromic acid gives
(3) Carboxylic acid and alcohol (1) Benzaldehyde (2) Benzoic acid
(4) Ester and alcohol (3) Benzyl alcohol (4) Benzophenone
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121. A carbonyl compound (A) with the molecular formula 129. Glacial acetic acid is
C 8H 8O on oxidation with acidified potassium
dichromate gives a carboxylic acid (B). The (1) Very dilute solution of acetic acid
compound (A) gives positive iodoform test and also (2) Mixture of acetic acid and 20% water
gives tertiary alcohol on reaction with Grignard
reagent. The molecular formula of the compound (B) (3) Water free acetic acid
may be (4) All of these
(1) C8H8O2 (2) C7H6O2
130. For the reaction :
(3) C8H15O2 (4) C7H14O2
NH
3 (A) 
2 4 conc.H SO
CH3 CH2 COOH 
122. Which of the following carbonyl compound does not  
give haloform reaction?
H
(1) Acetaldehyde (B) 
(C)
H2O
(2) Pentan-2-one The end product (C) is
(3) Acetophenone (1) Amine (2) Carboxylic acid
(4) Benzophenone
(3) Aldehyde (4) Acid amide
123. In which of the following solvent a carboxylic acid
dimerises? 131. Consider the reaction sequence :

(1) Acetone (2) Toluene CO

2 (A)  H
6 5 C H MgBr
C6H5MgBr  (B) (C)
H2O
(3) Benzene (4) All of these
The product C may be
124. Propane can be obtained from propionic acid by
reducing the acid with (1) An alcohol

(1) Sodalime (2) HI/red P (2) An aromatic hydrocarbon

(3) B2H6/ether (4) LiAlH4/ether (3) An aromatic aldehyde
125. Kolbe’s electrolysis proceeds through (4) An aromatic carboxylic acid
(1) Free radical mechanism
alk.KMnO 4
(2) Nucleophilic addition mechanism 132.  
 Product.

(3) Electrophilic substitution mechanism The product is

(4) Nucleophilic substitution mechanism
(1) Butane-1,4-diol (2) Succinic acid
126. In the esterification reaction of an alcohol and a
carboxylic acid, the first step of the reaction involves (3) Glutaric acid (4) Butane-1,4-dial

(1) Electrophilic addition 133. Formaldehyde on reaction with ammonia forms

(2) Nucleophilic substitution (1) Imine (2) Urotropine
(3) Electrophilic substitution (3) Schiff's base (4) Acetal
(4) Free radical addition 134. The most acidic carboxylic acid among the following
127. For the reaction is

A   (1) CH3CH2COOH
C 6H5 COOH   C6H5 CH2 OH
(2) CH2 = CHCOOH
The reducing agent [A] could be
(3) CH  C – COOH
(1) NaBH4 (2) B2H6/ether
(4) CH3CH2CH2COOH
(3) Conc. HCl (4) NH2–NH2
135. Carboxylic acid dimerises in benzene due to
128. A very dilute solution of acetic acid is called
(1) Formalin (1) Intermolecular hydrogen bonding

(2) Vinegar (2) Intramolecular hydrogen bonding

(3) Cinnamic acid (3) Dispersion force

(4) Picric acid (4) Dipole-induced dipole forces
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 CHO 143. Which of the following carbonyl compound forms
urotropine on reaction with ammonia?
136. IUPAC name if the compound is (1) CH2O (2) CH3CHO
(3) CH3COCH3 (4) CH3CH2CHO
CHO
144. Which of the following is the most reactive in
(1) Benzene-1,2-dial
nucleophilic addition reaction?
(2) 4-formyl benzaldehyde
(1) C6H5CHO (2) CH2O
(3) Benzene-1, 4-dicarbaldehyde
(3) CH3COCH3 (4) HCOOH
(4) 1,4-diformyl benzene
145. Chloretone is formed by the condensation of
137. A secondary alcohol can be obtained by adding chloroform in alkaline medium with
Grignard reagent (followed by hydrolysis) to (1) Glyoxal (2) Propanone
(1) CH2O (3) Phenylethanol (4) Benzophenone
(2) CH3CH2CHO 146. Which of the following does not undergo oxidation
(3) CH3COCH2CH3 with alkaline KMnO4 to form benzoic acid?
(4) C6H5COCH3 CH3 CH2CH3
138. Which of the following gives positive test with
Fehling’s solution? (1) (2)
(1) Methanoic acid
(2) Benzene carbaldehyde CH(CH3)2 C(CH3)3
(3) Acetophenone
(3) (4)
(4) Benzophenone
139. Which of the following carbonyl compound does not
undergo Aldol condensation? 147. Which of the following contains the most acidic
hydrogen?
(1) 2,2-dimethyl propanal (2) Chloral
(1) CH3CHO (2) CH3COCH3
(3) Methanal (4) All of these
(3) HCOOH (4) C6H5COOH
140. W hich of the following does not take place in
Cannizzaro reaction? 148. Which of the following set of reactants will undergo
esterification with maximum ease?
(1) Nucleophilic addition
(1) HCOOH + CH3OH
(2) Transfer of acidic hydrogen
(2) CH3COOH + CH3OH
(3) Hydride shift
(3) (CH3)2CHCOOH + (CH3)2CHOH
(4) Loss of water molecule
(4) (CH3)3C–COOH + (CH3)3C–OH
(CH3 COO)2 Mn
141. RCH3  O2 
(A)  H2O 149. Which of the following is a stronger acid than
benzoic acid?
The product (A) is

O COOH COOH
(1) R – CHO (2) R – C – CH3
(1) (2)
(3) RCOOH (4) RCOOCH3 CH3 OCH3
142. Consider the reaction

Re d P 3 NaCN H O COOH
CH3CH2 COOH (A) 
(B) (C)
Br 2 COOH
The end product (C) is
(3) (4)
(1) Succinic acid (2) Methylmalonic acid
OCH3 C2H5
(3) Oxalic acid (4) Cyanopropionic acid

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150. Which of the following compound is least reactive 158. In the given reaction
towards nucleophilic substitution reaction?
O
(1) CH3COCl (2) CH3COOC2H5 Dry HCl
RMgX + CO2 ether R—C +
RCOOH
OMgX
(3) (CH3CO)2O (4) CH3CONH2

151. W hich of the following is the least resonance The attacking electrophile is
stabilized? (1) CO2 (2) Dry ether
(1) C6H5COO– (2) HCOO–
(3) H+ (4) RCOOMgX+
(3) CH3CHO (4) CH3COO–
159. Carboxylic acids react with thionyl chloride to give
152. Which of the following is the strongest base?
(1) Alkyl chloride (2) Acid chloride
(1) C6H5CH2COO– (2) C6H5COO–
(3) Thio acid (4) Thioether
(3) CH3CH2COO– (4) –CH COCH
2 3
160. Which of the following is the most reactive toward
153. Which of the following reaction involves the formation nucleophilic substitution?
of a carbanion nucleophile as the attacking reagent?
(1) (CH3CO)2O (2) CH3CONH2
(1) Cannizzaro reaction
(3) CH3COCl (4) CH3COOC2H5
(2) Aldol condensation
161. Which of the following is a dibasic acid?
(3) Esterification reaction
(1) Terephthalic acid (2) Glutaric acid
(4) Kolbe electrolysis
(3) Malonic acid (4) All of these
154. Which of the following pair of compounds can be
distinguished by iodoform test? (i) RMgX
162. RCHO  product
(ii) H O
3
(1) Acetaldehyde & acetone
The above reaction is an example of
(2) Acetophenone & benzophenone
(1) Electrophilic addition
(3) Butanone & pentan-2-one
(2) Nucleophilic addition
(4) Benzophenone & methanol
(3) Electrophilic substitution
155. In Gattermann-Koch reaction, the attacking
electrophile is (4) Nucleophilic substitution

(1) H – C  O (2) CO (i) HCN
+ (A)
(ii) H3O
 163. RMgx
(3) CO+ (4) COCl (i) RCN
+
(B)
156. In the given reaction (ii) H3O

CrO Cl
2 2 3 H O Products (A) & (B) are respectively
C 6H5 CH2CH3 
CS
(A) (B)
2
(1) Aldehyde, aldehyde (2) Ketone, ketone
The product (B) is
(3) Aldehyde, ketone (4) Ketone, aldehyde
(1) C6H5COOH (2) C6H5CH2CHO
164. Which of the following reduces carboxylic acids to
(3) C6H5CHO (4) C6H5COC6H5 alcohol?

157. The reducing agent used in Stephen reaction is (1) B2H6/THF (2) LiAlH4/ether

(1) Sn + HCl (2) SnCl2 + HCl (3) H2/Ru (4) All of these

(3) Zn/conc. HCl (4) Fe + HCl

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165. Which of the following reaction forms hydrazone as (3) Esters (4) Ethers
the initial product?
173. Which of the following does not give pink colour with
(1) Clemmensen reduction Schiff’s reagent?

(2) Wolff-Kishner reduction (1) CH3COOH (2) CH3COCH3

(3) Carbylamine reaction (3) C6H5COCH3 (4) All of these

(4) HVZ reaction 174. Which of the following dimerises in benzene?

166. In which of the following nucleophilic addition occurs (1) Acetaldehyde (2) Acetic acid
with most difficulty? (3) Propanone (4) Benzophenone
(1) CH3CHO (2) CH3COCH3 175. Benzene can be obtained by heating sodium
(3) C6H5CHO (4) C6H5COCH3 benzoate with

(1) LiAlH4 (2) Soda lime

167. Ketones on reduction with HI in the presence of red
phosphorous gives (3) HI (4) Hydrazine
(1) Alcohols (2) Alkanes 176. Metaldehyde is obtained by the tetramerization of
(3) Aldehydes (4) Enol isomers (1) HCHO (2) CH3CH2CHO

168. A compound (X) gives positive test with Tollen’s (3) C6H5CHO (4) CH3CHO
reagent & Fehling’s solution but gives negative
iodoform test. The compound upon reduction with HI 177. Base catalysed excessiv e chlorination of
in the presence of red phosphorous gives methane. acetaldehyde gives
The compound (X) may be (1) Chloral (2) Ethyl chloride
(1) Acetaldehyde (2) Alcohol (3) Vicinal chloride (4) Geminal chloride
(3) Terminal alkyne (4) Formic acid 178. Which of the following reaction involves proton
169. Which of the following is formed on reacting an transfer in the intermediate stage?
aldehyde with ethylene glycol in the presence of dry
HCN
HCl gas? (1) CH 3 CHO  
OH 

(1) Hemiacetal (2) Cyclic acetal

3 NaHSO
(2) CH3 CHO 
(3) Semicarbazone (4) Glycolic acid
 electrolysis
170. Addition of ammonia derivatives to carbonyl (3) CH3 COONa (aq.)  
( Anode)
compounds takes place in
Zn Hg
(1) Strongly acidic medium (4) CH3 COCH3  
conc. HCl

(2) Weakly acidic medium

179. Acetaldehyde & acetone can not be distinguished
(3) Strongly alkaline medium by
(4) Moderately alkaline medium
(1) Fehling solution (2) Schiff’s reagent
171. Biological specimens can be preserved in an
aqueous solution of (3) Iodoform test (4) All of these

(1) Acetone (2) Formaldehyde 180. Benzoic acid can be obtained on large scale by the
alkaline hydrolysis of
(3) Benzaldehyde (4) Formic acid
(1) Ethylacetate (2) Chloral
172. Ketones can be obtained by reacting dialkyl
cadmium with (3) Benzotrichloride (4) Toluene
(1) Alkyl halides (2) Acid chlorides


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 29/11/2019
A
CODE

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, Plot No.-8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005
Ph.: 011-47623456

MM : 720 Practice Test-05 for AIATS-04 Time : 3 Hrs.

ANSWERS
1. (3) 37. (1) 73. (1) 109. (1) 145. (2)
2. (1) 38. (4) 74. (2) 110. (2) 146. (4)
3. (1) 39. (2) 75. (3) 111. (2) 147. (3)
4. (4) 40. (3) 76. (3) 112. (3) 148. (1)
5. (1) 41. (2) 77. (1) 113. (1) 149. (2)
6. (2) 42. (1) 78. (4) 114. (2) 150. (4)
7. (3) 43. (2) 79. (2) 115. (1) 151. (3)
8. (3) 44. (4) 80. (2) 116. (2) 152. (4)
9. (2) 45. (2) 81. (4) 117. (3) 153. (2)
10. (2) 46. (4) 82. (1) 118. (1) 154. (2)
11. (1) 47. (2) 83. (1) 119. (1) 155. (1)
12. (4) 48. (4) 84. (3) 120. (2) 156. (2)
13. (1) 49. (3) 85. (2) 121. (2) 157. (2)
14. (4) 50. (2) 86. (3) 122. (4) 158. (1)
15. (2) 51. (4) 87. (3) 123. (4) 159. (2)
16. (2) 52. (4) 88. (4) 124. (2) 160. (3)
17. (3) 53. (2) 89. (1) 125. (1) 161. (4)
18. (3) 54. (3) 90. (2) 126. (1) 162. (2)
19. (2) 55. (4) 91. (2) 127. (2) 163. (3)
20. (4) 56. (3) 92. (3) 128. (2) 164. (4)
21. (3) 57. (1) 93. (3) 129. (3) 165. (2)
22. (3) 58. (4) 94. (4) 130. (2) 166. (4)
23. (1) 59. (3) 95. (1) 131. (2) 167. (2)
24. (2) 60. (4) 96. (2) 132. (2) 168. (4)
25. (2) 61. (2) 97. (2) 133. (2) 169. (2)
26. (2) 62. (3) 98. (1) 134. (3) 170. (2)
27. (3) 63. (1) 99. (2) 135. (1) 171. (2)
28. (1) 64. (4) 100. (1) 136. (3) 172. (2)
29. (3) 65. (4) 101. (3) 137. (2) 173. (4)
30. (3) 66. (2) 102. (2) 138. (1) 174. (2)
31. (2) 67. (4) 103. (3) 139. (4) 175. (2)
32. (1) 68. (2) 104. (1) 140. (4) 176. (4)
33. (3) 69. (4) 105. (2) 141. (3) 177. (1)
34. (2) 70. (4) 106. (1) 142. (2) 178. (2)
35. (4) 71. (3) 107. (2) 143. (1) 179. (3)
36. (4) 72. (2)
108. (3) 144. (2) 180. (3)
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