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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
15 views8 pages

QP12BIO02PB23

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Uploaded by

sagarsk2312
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
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You are on page 1/ 8

KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGATHAN RO TINSUKIA

PREBOARD EXAMINATION 2023-24


SET II
Class XII
Biology (Subject Code-044)
Maximum Marks: 70 Time: 3 hours

General Instructions:
1. All questions are compulsory.
2. The question paper has five sections and 33 questions. All questions are compulsory.
3. Section–A has 16 questions of 1 mark each; Section–B has 5 questions of 2 marks each; Section– C has 7
questions of 3 marks each; Section– D has 2 case-based questions of 4 marks each; and Section–E has 3 questions
of 5 marks each.
4. There is no overall choice. However, internal choices have been provided in some questions. A student has to
attempt only one of the alternatives in such questions.
5. Wherever necessary, neat and properly labeled diagrams should be drawn.

SECTION A
Q.NO. QUESTION MARKS
1. Micropylar end lacks
1
(a) Egg cell
(b) Synergids
(c) Egg-apparatus
(d) Integument
2. Natural selection is based on which of the following
1
I Variation exists within population.
II There is differential reproductive success within population.
III individuals must adapt to their environment.

(a) I only
(b) I and II only
(c) II and III only
(d) I, II and III
3. Proteins inhibiting viral multiplication, produced by vertebrate cells in response to viral
infections are referred to as? 1

(a) Lipoproteins
(b) Immuglobulins
(c) Interferons
(d) Antitoxins
4. Predation and parasitism involve which of the following types of interactions?
1
(a) (+, +)
(b) (+, 0)
(c) (+, –)
(d) (–, –)
5. Given below is the restriction site of a restriction endonuclease Pst-I and the cleavage
sites on a DNA molecule. 1

5’ C—T—G—C—A - G 3’
3’ G—A—C—G—T - C 5’

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Choose the option that gives the correct resultant fragments by the action of the enzyme
Pst-I.

(a) 5’ C – T – G C-A -G 3’
3’ G – A – C – G – T’ C 5’

(b) 5’ C – T G – C – A – G 3’
3’ G – A – G – C T – C 5’

(c) 5’ C – T – G – C A – G 3’
3’ G – A – C – G T’ – C 5’

(d) 5’ C – T – G – C – A 3’ G
3’ G A – C – G – T – C 5’
6. The diagram below shows a food web involving four organisms A, B, C and D in a
certain habitat. 1

Which one of the followings correctly represents A, B, C and D in this community?

A B C D
(a) Canivore Producer Herbivore Omnivore
(b) Herbivore Producer Carnivore Omnivore
(c) Producer Carnivore Herbivore Carnivore
(d) Producer Omnivore Carnivore Herbivore
7. The number of people in reproductive age is less than those in pre-reproductive age but
higher than those in post-reproductive age. The population is 1

(a) Growing
(b) Declining
(c) Stable
(d) Can not be predicted
8. Species diversity increases as one progresses from?
1
(a) High altitude to low altitude and high latitude to low latitude
(b) Low altitude to high altitude and high latitude to low latitude
(c) Low altitude to high altitude and low latitude to high latitude
(d) High altitude to low altitude and low latitude to high latitude
9. A cell at ovulation is at which stage
1
(a) Secondary oocyte
(b) First polar body
(c) Secondary polar body
(d) Primary oocyte

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10. Which of the following Induced Abortion is not necessary?
1
(a) There is a substantial risk of the child being born with serious complications
(b) Where the pregnancy is the result of rape
(c) When the foetus is not of the desired sex
(d) Unwanted pregnancy
11. In a family, the father has a blood group ‘A’ and the mother has a blood group ‘B’,
Children show 50% probability for a blood group “AB” indicate that 1

(a) Father is heterozygous


(b) Mother is heterozygous
(c) Either of the parent is heterozygous
(d) Mother is homozygous
12. What is normally given to a patient with myocardial infarction when they arrive at the
hospital? 1

(a) Penicillin
(b) Streptokinase
(c) Cyclosporin-A
(d) Statin

Question No. 13 to 16 consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these questions
selecting the appropriate option given below:

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.


(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
13. Assertion :The hnRNA in humans has exons and introns.
Reason : The primary transcript produced in eukaryotes is translated without undergoing 1
any modification or processing.
14. Assertion: Besides curdling of milk, LAB also improve its nutritional quality by
increasing vitamin-B12. 1
Reason: LAB, when present in human stomach, check disease causing microbes.
15. Assertion : Predation is an interspecific interaction with a feeding strategy.
Reason: Predation and their prey maintain fairly stable population through time and 1
rarely one population become abundant or scarce.
16. Assertion: Cellular defence mechanism in eukaryotes is RNAi. Reason: RNAi is
silencing of a specific tRNA. 1

SECTION B

17. What is the effect on decomposition rate if :–

a) Detritus is rich in lignin and chitin


b) Detritus is rich is nitrogen and sugars 2
18. In the given figure, Form (A) and Form (B) represents different forms of a proteinaceous
hormone secreted by pancreas in mammals. 2

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(a) What type of bonding is present between chains of this hormone?
(b) What are these form (A) and form (B). How these forms differ from each other?

OR

A bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis produces a toxic protein named ‘cry protein’ that is
lethal to certain insects but not to bacterium
(a) Why this toxin does not kill the bacteria?
(b) What type of changes occur in the gut of insects on consuming this protein?

19. In the given flow diagram, the replication of retrovirus in a host cell is shown. Examine it
and answer the following questions 2

(a) Why is virus called reterovirus?


(b) Fill in (1) and (2)

20. A smooth seeded & red – flowered pea plant (SsRr) is crossed with smooth seeded &
white flowered pea plant (Ssrr). Determine the phenotypic & genotypic ratio in f1 2
progeny?
21. How are the cells arranged in an embryo sac?
2

SECTION C

22. What is so special about tropics that might account for their greater biological diversity?
3
23. (a) When a pollen grain is shed at the 3-celled stage, which three cells are found?

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(b) Define self-incompatibility. How do self-incompatible plants pollinate? 3

OR
Continued self pollination lead to inbreeding depression. List three devices, which
flowering plant have developed to discourage self pollination?
24. After a brief medical examination a healthy couple came to know that both of them are
unable to produce functional gametes and should look for an ART Assisted Reproductive 3
Technique. Name the ART and the procedure involved that you can suggest to them to
help them bear a child.
25. (a) Give two reasons why both the strands of DNA is not copied during DNA
transcription. 3
(b) Using the given DNA strand, write down the bases of mRNA strand
DNA: 5’ T- A- C- A- A- G- T- A- C- T- T- G- T- T- T- C- T- T- A- A- A 3’

26. Figures given below are varieties of beaks in Darwin’s Finches


3

(a) Mention the specific geographical area where these are found.
(b) Name and explain the phenomenon that has resulted in the evolution of such diverse
species in the region.

27. Identify A, B, C, D, E and F in the table given below


3
Scientific name of the Product produced Use in human welfare
organism

Lactobacillus A Set milk into curd

B Cyclosporin-A C

Monascus purpureus D E

F Penicillin Treatment of bacterial disease

28. The clinical gene therapy is given to a 4 years old patient for an enzyme which is crucial 3
for the immune system to function.

Page 5 of 8
Observe the above flow chart shown above and answer the following:
(a) Complete the missing steps (B) and (D)
(b) Identify the disease to be cured.
(c) Scientists have developed a method to cure this disease permanently. How?

SECTION D

Q. No. 29 and 30 are case-based questions. Each question has 3 sub parts with internal choice in one sub part.
29. In the population of honey bees, the male honey bees or drones develop from unfertilized
ovum, and the number of chromosomes found in the them are 16. And they have half 2+2
number of the chromosomes with respect to the females. Male bees are haploid and
female bees are diploid. Female bees have 32 chromosomes. During gametogenesis male
bees undergo mitosis , whereas the female bees undergo meiosis.

(a) Why mitosis is not applicable during gametogenesis of female honeybees unlike male
honeybees?
(b) Drones do not have father as well as son but have grandfather and can have grandsons?
Justify the statement.

30. Cancer is one of the most feared diseases in the world and it affects over 11 lakh people
every year in India alone. Worldwide, more than 10 million people succumb to this 2+2
disease every year. In humans, cell differentiation and proliferation are highly
manipulated and regularized by the cell division mechanism.. Uncontrolled cell division
leads to formation of tumour except in blood cancer. It is often presumed that all tumour
are cancerous – but this is a misconception. A tumour becomes cancerous only when it
spreads to other parts of the body.

(a) Explain the property that prevents normal cells from becoming cancerous.
(b) All normal cells have inherent characteristic of becoming cancerous. Explain.

SECTION E

31 a. Three of the steps of neuro endocrine mechanism in respect of parturition are


mentioned below. 3+2

Write the missing steps in proper sequence.

Page 6 of 8
(i) Signals originate from fully developed foetus and placenta.
(ii) ______________________________.
(iii) ______________________________.
(iv) Oxytocin causes strong uterine contraction
(v) Uterine contraction stimulates further secretion of oxytocin.
(vi) ______________________________
b. Why there is no mensuration after fertilisation?

OR

T.S. of mammalian testis revealing seminiferous tubules show different types of cell.
(a) Name the two types of cells of germinal epithelium.
(b) Name of cells scattered in connective tissue and lying between seminiferous tubules.
(c) Differentiate between them on the basis of their functions.
32 (a) Observe the given sequence of nitrogenous bases on a DNA fragment and answer the
following question 3+2
5´ –GAATTC – 3´
3´ –CTTAAG – 5´
(i)Name a restriction enyzme which can recognise this DNA sequence.
(i) Write the sequence after digestion.
(ii) Why are the ends generated after digestion called sticky ends?

(b) What are Restriction enzyme? Why do bacteria have these restriction enzymes?

OR

In the given figure, one cycle of polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is shown-

(a) Name the steps A, B and C and give the purpose of each of these steps.
(b) State the advantage of bacterium Thermus aquaticus in this process.
(c) Why are primers used in PCR?
33 (a) Why is DNA a better genetic material when compared to RNA?
(b) A DNA segment has a total of 1000 nucleotides, out of which 240 of them are adenine 3+2

Page 7 of 8
containing nucleotides. How many pyrimidine bases this DNA segment possesses?

OR

Study the schematic representation of the genes involved in the lac operon given below
and answer the questions that follows

(i) Identify and name the regulatory gene in this operon. Explain its role in switching off
the operon.
(ii) Why is lac operon’s regulation referred to as negative regulation?
(iii) Name the inducer molecule and the products of the genes z and y of the operon.
Write the function of these gene products.

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