VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS - KOLAPAKKAM

IIT FOUNDATION
VISTO – 2017 (SEASON – I)
SUB: M.P.C.B. GRAND TEST - 2
STD: VIII MAX. MARKS: 100

MATHEMATICS

1. The simplified form of is:

a) x + y b) y – x c) d)

2. If , then the value of x is:

a) b) c) d)

3. If then =
a) 0.1 b) 10 c) 1 d) 10000
4. The product of (2a + 3b) and (4a2 – 6ab + 9b2) is:
a) 8a3 – 27b3 b) 8a3 + 27b3 c) 8a2 - 9b2 d) 8a2 + 9b2
5. The sum of the interior angles of a polygon is 5 times that of its exterior angles. Then the
number of sides in the polygon is:
a) 12 b) 6 c) 18 d) 10
a n +b n 2 ab
n−1 n−1
=
6. If a +b a+ b Then n = ______
1 −1
a) 0 b) 2 c) 2 d) 1
1 1 1 1
+ + +. .. ..+ =_____
7. 2 6 12 n(n+1)
1 1 n 2(n−1 )
a) n b) n+1 c) n+1 d) n
8. If a2bc3 = 53 and ab2 = 56 then abc = ______
a) 5 b) 52 c) 53 d) 512
√ √
9. If 6084=78 , then 60.84+ √ 0.6084 +√ 0.006084 +√ 0.00006084 = ____
a) 9.6658 b) 2. 8966 c) 8,6658 d) 7,3423

√
108 x8
2 2
10. The value of 3 x y
6 x3
=_____

6 x2 6x 6 x3
2 2 2 2
a) x y b) x y c) xy d) y
11. The exterior angle of regular polygon is one third on its interior angle then the number of
sides of the polygon_____
a) 6 b) 8 c) 10 d) 12

12. If x=0.82, y=0.17 , A=0.7 ,B=0.2 Then [(x + y) + (A +B)] (x+y)+(A+B)

 a) 4 b) 2 c) 8 d) 16
87 5 3 p
=0 .75
13. If A = 32 = 2.71875, B= 8 = 0.625. C = 4 then A + B + C in q form as ____
409375 409375 409375 409375
a) 10000 b) 100000 c) 1000000 d) 1000

14. The value of √ 1+2008 √1+2009 √ 1+2010 √1+2011×2013 is ____

a) 2008 b) 2009 c) 2010 d) 2011
15. Which of the following statements is/are true?
I. A point whose x-coordinate is zero, will lie on the y-axis
II. The point (a, -3) lies in third quadrant , if a < 0
III. Points whose x and y coordinates are equal, lie on a line passing through the origin.
IV. The coordinates of the origin are (0, 0)
a) Only I b) Only II c) Only III d) All I, II, III & IV
16. In the adjacent figure, ABCD is a rhombus and, AC and
BD are its two diagonals intersecting at O. E and F are
two points on AC such that DE = EC and DF = FA. If
∠ DEA=50 0 , then which of the following is / are true?
0 0
I) ∠ Z=40 II) ∠ v=50 III) ∠ u =∠ v

a) Both I & II b) Both I and III

c) Both II and III d) All I, II and III
17. If a + b + c = 5 and a + b2 + c2 = 13 then the value of ab + bc + ca is P and If x + y + z
2

=2
and zy + yz + zx = 1 then the value of (y + z) 2+(z + x)2+(x+y)2 is Q. The relation
between P
and Q is
a) P > Q b) P < Q c) P = Q d) P – Q = 1
x a+b . x b+c . x c+a
a b c 2
18. The value of ( x . x . x ) is ____
a) x2 b) xa+b+c c) xabc d) x0
3 3
19. The simplified form of √ −2401× √ 16807 is _____
a) -216 b) -343 c) -512 d) -729
20. Given AB = 3cm, BC = 5cm AC = 9cm, AD = 6cm, CD = 2cm. Which of the following is
true
about the construction of a quadrilateral?
a) it is possible to draw the quadrilateral
b) It is not possible to draw the quadrilateral, since AD + DC < AC.
c) It is possible to draw the quadrilateral, since AD + DC < AC
d) None of these
21. To construct a quadrilateral ABCD, which of the following parts is necessary?
a) Length of AB b) Length of BC
c) Measure of ∠ A ,∠B∧∠C d) All of these
22. Which of the following is a front view of a cone?

a) b)
c) d) None of these
23. Assertion: The generalized form of a two digit number is 10a+b.
Reason: A number is said to be in generalized form if it is expressed as the sum of the
product of its digit with respect to its place values.
a) Both assertion and are true and reason is correct explanation of assertion.
b) Both assertion and are true but reason is not correct explanation of assertion.
c) Assertion is true but reason is false. d) Assertion is false but reason is true.
Paragraph: Q.NO: (24-28)
1200 students were asked to choose a game for their CCA. The pie chart given represents
their choices.

24. What percentage of the pupils chose table tennis?

a) 30% b) 40% c) 35% d) 45%
25. How many more pupils chose table tennis than foot ball?
a) 120 b) 30 c) 250 d) 300
26. The table-tennis group and the volley ball group should have the same number of pupils.
How many pupils should be transferred from the table tennis group to the volleyball
group?
a) 50 b) 27 c) 90 d) 112
27. What is the ratio of the number of pupils who chose tennis and table tennis to the number
of
pupils who chose the other games?
a) 7 : 13 b) 9 : 11 c) 11 : 9 d) 9 : 13
28. Which of the following is correct?
Game No.of pupils
a) Badminton 300
b Volley ball 300

c) Tennis 240
 d Soccer 360

29. Assertion: A cube is made of 24389cm3 of wood then the edge of cube is 29cm.
Reason: “s” is edge of the cube then its volume is s 3
a) Both assertion and are true and reason is correct explanation of assertion.
b) Both assertion and are true but reason is not correct explanation of assertion.
c) Assertion is true but reason is false. d) Assertion is false but reason is true.

30. Match the following:

P. Construction of a quadrilateral can 1) Two unequal sides and included
be possible if at least diagonal are given.
Q. Construction of quadrilateral must 2) Five independent elements are
satisfy given
R. A kite can be drawn if its 3) 4 sides, 4 angles and 2 diagonals
S. A quadrilateral 4) Triangle inequality and angle sum
property of a triangle.
Code:
P Q R S P Q R S
a) 3 2 4 1 b) 3 4 2 1
c) 2 4 1 3 d) 4 3 1 2
31. If ‘a’, ‘b’, ‘c’ and ‘d’ are consecutive natural numbers and a 3 = b3 + c3 + d3, then the least
value of ‘a’ is______
a) 6 b) 9 c) 3 d) 12
32. The cube of a number is 8 times the cube of another number. If the sum of the cubes of
numbers is 243, then the difference of the numbers is _____
a) 3 b) 5 c) 6 d) -6
1 1
4 3
33. If the value of a4 + a =119, the value of a3 - a is
a) 52 b) 48 c) 36 d) 29
34. Simplify (3a – 4b) (9a2 + 12ab + 16b2) + (4a – 3b) (16a2 + 12ab + 9b2)
a) 91a3 + 91b3 b) 0 b) 91a3 – 91b3 d) 1
35. Which of the following statements is true?
a) There is no difference between a cube and a cuboid
b) A cube has equal length, breadth and height where as a cuboid has different measures
for length, breadth and height.
c) A cube has different measures for length, breadth and height and a cuboid has equal
length, breadth and different height.
d) A cube and a cuboid are both 2-dimensional figures.
36. Which of the given geometric solids has the maximum number of vertices?
a) Cone b) Cylinder c) Cuboid d) Pyramid
37. Name the solid that can be formed from the given net.

a) Cylinder b) Cuboid c) Cone d) Cube

38. ABCD is a parallelogram as shown in the figure. If AB = 2AD

and P is the mid-point of AB, what is the measure of ∠ CPD ?

a) 900 b) 600
c) 450 d) 1350
39. In the figure, ABCD is a trapezium and AD = AE

Find the value of ‘x’.

a) 300 b) 400
0
c) 60 d) 500
40. Find D + E + F from the following.
D E F  10 D F
a) 12 b) 4 c) 3 d) 5

PHYSICS
41. Sound waves in air are _____ waves.
a) longitudinal b) radio c) Transverse d) Electromagnetic
42. Sound waves cannot pass through
a) A solid – liquid mixture b) An ideal gas
c) A liquid – gas mixture d) A perfect vacuum
43. Out of the following, which frequency is not clearly audible to the human ear?
a) 30Hz b) 30, 000Hz c) 300 Hz d) 3000Hz
44. The frequency of a wave is 5Hz. It refers to (type of wave)
a) Ultrasonic’s b) Microwaves c) Infrasonics d) radio waves
45. A wave completes 24 cycles in 0.8s. The frequency of the wave is
a) 30 Hz b) 8 Hz c) 24Hz d) 12Hz
46. The distance between two consecutive points in the same phase is called
a) Pitch b) Velocity c) Wavelength d) Period
47. The SI unit of amplitude of oscillation is
a) cm b) m c) km d) None of these
48. A rectangular iron block is kept over a table with different faces touching the table. In
different cases, the block exerts.
a) Same thrust and same pressure b) Same thrust and different pressure
c) Different thrust and same pressure d) Different thrust and different pressure
49. Pressure at a certain depth in river water is p 1 and at the same depth in sea water is p 2.
Then (Density of sea water is greater than that of river water).
a) p1 = p2 b) p1 > p2 c) p1 < p2 d) p1 – p2 = atmospheric pressure
50. A box of mass 10kg has a base area of 1m 2. What is the pressure exerted by it on the
ground? (Take 1kg wt = 10N)
a) 50Pa b) 70Pa c) 100Pa d) 120Pa
51. Assertion: Pressure exerted by the liquid depends upon depth of the liquid
Reason: pressure exerted by the liquid depends upon acceleration due to gravity.
a) Both Assertion and Reason are true, Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
b) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of
Assertion
c) Assertion is true and reason is false d) Assertion is false and reason is true.
52. If the atmospheric pressure (Po) acting on the free surface of liquid is also taken into
account
the total pressure in a liquid at a depth ‘h’ is
a) Atmospheric pressure + pressure due to liquid column
b) Atmospheric pressure – pressure due to liquid column
c) Atmospheric pressure  pressure due to liquid column
d) Atmospheric pressure / pressure due to liquid column
53. In a Bramah press a force of 10kg. wt is applied on a piston of area of cross section 5cm 2,
then the upward thrust exerted by the piston of area of cross section 50cm 2 is
a) 100kg .wt b) 200kg.wt c) 300kg.wt d) 400kg.wt
54. Two balls, one of iron and the other of aluminium experience the same upthrust when
dipped in water if
a) Both have same mass b) One has half the volume as that of the other
c) Both have equal volume d) One has one – fourth of the volume as that of the other.
55. Determine the buoyant force acting on a solid of volume 1.6m 3, immersed in sea water of
density 1030 kgm-3.(Take g = 10m/s2)
a) 16480N b) 164N c) 1648N d) 61840N
56. Force of friction is
a) Always a disadvantage b) always an advantage
c) Sometimes an advantage and sometimes a disadvantage
d) Neither an advantage nor disadvantage
57. Friction does not depend on the following factor
a) The nature of the surface b) The normal reaction
c) The roughness of the surface d) The area of contact
58. The maximum value of static friction is called
a) Limiting friction b) Static friction c) Kinetic friction d) Rolling friction
59. Arpita observes that the match stick is not catching fire even when she is rubbing it gently
against the corner of the matchbox. The match box had been used many times before
also.
The possible reason for the given problem is that the
a) Matchbox has lost its chemical b) Matchbox has lost its roughness
c) Quality of wood used in the match stick is not good
d) Quality of chemical used in the match stick is not good

60. Statement – I: Limiting friction is always greater than the kinetic friction
Statement – II: Static friction is always greater than kinetic friction.
a) Both statements are true, Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.
b) Both Statements are true, Statement II is not correct explanation of statement I.
c) Statement I is true, Statement II is false
d) Statement I is false, Statement II is true.
CHEMISTRY
61. Arrange the metals Cu, Zn and Fe in the decreasing order of their reactivity.
a) Cu > Zn > Fe b) Zn > Cu > Fe c) Fe > Cu > Zn d) Zn > Fe > Cu
62. Three elements X, Y and Z form oxides. The nature of oxide of X is acidic, nature of oxide
of
Y is basic while that of Z is amphoteric. Then X, Y and Z respectively belong to which of
the
following groups?
a) 1st, 2nd & 13th b) 17th, 1st & 13th c) 1st, 17th & 13th d) 1st, 13th & 17th
63. Poly wool is a mixture of
a) Polyamide + wool b) Polyester + woolc) Polyamide + cotton d) Polyalcohol + wool
64. Which of the following liberates colourless gas from dilute HCl solution?
a) Cu b) Ag c) Mg d) Au
65. Metals can conduct electricity due to the presence of
a) Free ions b) Free electrons c) Free molecules d) Free atoms
66. Which of the following is a natural polymer?
a) Rayon b) Starch c) Nylon d) Nylon 6, 6
67. Which of the following is thermosetting plastic?
a) Bakelite b) PVC c) Polythene d) Polystyrene
68. Metal X displaces metal Y. Metal Z does not displace X or Y. Then the correct order of
their
activity is
 a) X > Y > Z b) Y > Z > X c) X > Z > Y d) Z > Y > X
69. Which of the following is an example of disproportionation reaction?
a) P4 + 3NaOH + 3H2O  PH3 + 3NaH2PO2 b) Cl2 + 2NaOH  NaCl + NaClO + H2O
c) 3Br2 + 6NaOH  5NaBr + NaBrO3 + 3H2O d) All the above
70. Which of the following is best conductor of electricity?
a) Cu b) Hg c) Ag d) Zn
71. Which of the following is a biodegradable polymer?
a) Glyptal b) PHBV c) Bakelite d) Malamine
72. Match the following column A items with column B items.
A B
1. PVC I. Kitchenware
2. Rayon II. Parachutes
3. Melamine III. Carpets
4. Nylon IV. Toys
a) 1 – I, 2 – III, 3 – III, 4 – IV b) 1 – II, 2 – I, 3 – III, 4 – IV
c) 1 – IV, 2 – III, 3 – I, 4 – II d) 1 – III, 2 – IV, 3 – I, 4 – II
73. Which of the following statements is correct?
a) Rusting of iron is a physical change b) Melting of ice is a chemical change
c) Depositing a layer of zinc on iron surface is called galvanization d) All the above
74. Phosphorus burns in the presence of air to form its oxide which is soluble in water to form
a
compound X. The nature of ‘X’ is __________
a) Neutral b) Basic c) Amphoteric d) Acidic
75. Assertion (A): When iron is placed in copper sulphate solution, the intensity of blue
colour
of the solution increases.
Reason (R): More electropositive metal can displace less electropositive metal from its
salt
solution.
a) Both (A), (R) are true, (R) is correct explanation of (A)
b) Both (A), (R) are true, (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
c) (A) is false, (R) is true d) (A) is true, (R) is false
76. Which of the following liberates H 2 gas from dilute NaOH solution?
a) Mg b) Na c) Al d) Ba
77. Assertion (A): Among all the metals, alkali metals are highly reactive metals.
Reason (R): Alkali metals readily lose one electron to get stable inert gas configuration.
a) Both (A), (R) are true, (R) is correct explanation of (A)
b) Both (A), (R) are true, (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
c) (A) is false, (R) is true d) (A) is true, (R) is false
78. Which of the following is an example of condensation polymer?
a) Polythene b) Teflon c) Terylene d) PAN
79. Which one is correct statement about synthetic fibers?
I. Can handle heavy loads without breaking II. More durable
III. More expensive IV. Good elasticity
a) I and II are correct b) I, II and III are correct
c) I, II and IV are correct d) II, III and IV are correct
80. Phorsporous burns in presence of air to form its oxide which is soluble in water to
form
a compound X. X is ………….
a) Neutral b) Acidic c) Basic d) Amphoteric
BIOLOGY
81. There is a rich variety of crops grown in different parts of the country during different
seasons. Accordingly, the vegetables belong to which of the following categories?
a) Kharif crops b) Rabi crops c) Summer crops d) None of these
82. Cutting mature crop manually or by a machine is called:
a) Harvesting b) Weeding c) Irrigating d) Breeding
83. BCG vaccine given to infants protects there from____
a) Tuberculosis b) Chicken pox virus c) Malaria d) Polio
84. A place where animals are protected out of their natural habitat:
a) Sanctuary b) National park c) Zoo d) Botanical garden
85. Statement-I : Horticulture is a branch of agriculture that deals with the production of
vegetables, fruits, flowers and decorative flowers.
Statement-II : It is a similar to agriculture in many ways, but it is usually carried out on a
smaller scale.
a) Both Statement I and II are correct. b) Both Statement I and II are incorrect.
c) Statement I is correct and II is incorrect d) Statement I is incorrect and II is correct.
86. Deforestation results in
a) Acid rain b) Greenhouse effect
c) Increased oxygen content in the atmosphere
d) Decreased carbon dioxide content in the atmosphere.
87. Bacterium responsible for the curdling of milk is
a) Lactobacillus b) E.coli c) Rhizobium d) Plasmodium
88. Pasteurization is a method invented by
a) Edward Jenner b) Alexander Fleming
c) Louis Pasteur d) Robert Koch
89. Amoebic dysentery is caused by a
a) Virus b) Protozoa
c) A protozoan Entamoeba histolytica d) Bacteria
90. Alexander Flemming observed antibiotic activity in ……………
a) Fungi b) Bacteria c) Virus d) Protozoan
91. Which of the following is a biological nitrogen fixer?
a) Bacteriophage b) Lactobacillus c) Blue green algae d) Euglena
92. Observe the following diagram of Hoe and find the (X), (Y) & (Z) parts
 (X) (Y) (Z)
a) Beam Bent plate Grip
b) Grip Rod Bent plate
c) Handle Rod Grip
d) Bent plate Beam Handle
93. Match the following
List - I List – II
I) Fermentation 1. Virus
II) Cholera 2. Yeast
III) Malaria 3. Protozoan
IV) Hepatitis – A 4. Bacteria
5. Algae
I II III IV I II III IV
a) 5 4 3 2 b) 3 4 2 1
c) 1 2 3 4 d) 2 4 3 1

94. An edible fungus is

a) Aspergillus b) Polyporus c) Ustilago d) Morchella
95. Assertion: Fungal cellulose or chitin is a ploysacharide
Reason: It is made up of acetyl glucosamine
a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion
c) If assertion is true but reason is false d) If both assertion and reason are false
96. Biotic components of an ecosystem will not include
a) Flora b) Fauna c) Microorganisms d) rainfall
97. Transfer of genetic material with the help of a virus is called
a) Transference b) Transformation c) Transduction d) Transcription
98. The term biodiversity was coined for the first time by:
a) Wilson b) Jim Corbett c) William d) Robert Hooke
99. The large scale storage of food grains is done in
a) Gunny bag + Jute bags b) Jute bags + Metal bins
c) Metal bins + Grain silos d) Grain silos + gunny bag
100. Removal of anthers of some flowers during plant breeding is
a) Anthesis b) Emasculation c) Pollination d) For collection of pollen