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Phy mock-p2

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hvmctnrvc8
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
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You are on page 1/ 18

OXFORD UNIVERSITY PRESS

NEW SENIOR SECONDARY Name

PHYSICS AT WORK Class


(SECOND EDITION) Class number

MOCK EXAMINATION (Set 2)


PHYSICS PAPER 2
Question-Answer Book
Time allowed: 1 hour
This paper must be answered in English

INSTRUCTIONS

(1) After the announcement of the start of the examination, you


should first insert the information required in the space
provided on Page 1.

(2) This paper consists of FOUR sections, Sections A, B, C


and D. Each section contains eight multiple-choice
questions and one structured question which carries
10 marks. Attempt ALL questions in any TWO sections.

(3) Write your answers to the structured questions in the


ANSWER BOOK provided. For multiple-choice questions,
blacken the appropriate circle with an HB pencil. You
should mark only ONE answer for each question. If you
mark more than one answer, you will receive NO MARKS
for that question.

(4) Graph paper and supplementary answer sheets will be


provided on request. Insert the information required, mark
the question number box on each sheet, and fasten them
with string INSIDE the Answer Book.

(5) The Question-Answer Book and Answer Book will be


collected SEPARATELY at the end of the examination.

(6) The diagrams in this paper are NOT necessarily drawn to


scale.

(7) The last two pages of this Question-Answer Book contain a


list of data, formulae and relationships which you may find
useful.

(8) No extra time will be given to candidates for inserting any


information or filling in the question number boxes after the
‘Time is up’ announcement.

New Senior Secondary Physics at Work (Second Edition)


Mock Exam (Set 2) Paper 2 1
© Oxford University Press 2015
Section A: Astronomy and Space Science
Q.1: Multiple-choice questions

(For questions 1.1 and 1.2) The figure below shows a photograph of the Sun taken with modern
telescope. There are some sunspots on the surface of the Sun.

1.1 The sunspot X in the photograph is about of the diameter of the Sun. Take the angular

diameter of the Sun to be 0.5. Estimate the actual diameter of sunspot X.

A 1.31  107 m
B 1.40  107 m A B C D
C 2.80  10 m 7

D 5.60  107 m

1.2 At Galileo’s time, what did the discovery of sunspots imply?


(1) The Sun is not a perfect sphere.
(2) The Sun rotates.
(3) Celestial objects may orbit the Sun.
A (1) only
B (1) and (2) only A B C D
C (2) and (3) only
D (1), (2) and (3)

New Senior Secondary Physics at Work (Second Edition)


Mock Exam (Set 2) Paper 2 2
© Oxford University Press 2015
(For questions 1.3 and 1.4) A cannonball is fired horizontally from the top of Mount Everest, which
is 8844 m above sea level. The cannonball moves round the Earth in an elliptical orbit as shown in the
figure below. P is a focus of the orbit and the length of the semimajor axis is 1.00 × 107 m. Take the
mass and radius of the Earth to be 5.97 × 1024 kg and 6.37  106 m respectively. Neglect air resistance.

Earth

orbit of the
cannonball

1.3 Find the closest distance of the orbit from P.

A 8844 m
B 6.37  106 m A B C D
C (6.37  10 + 8844) m
6

D 2  (6.37  106 + 8844) m

1.4 Find the orbital period of the cannonball.

A 1.41 hours
B 1.57 hours A B C D
C 1.98 hours
D 2.76 hours

1.5 Star X behaves like a spherical blackbody. Which of the following statements about star X is/are
correct?
(1) If its surface temperature is 30 000 K, it emits mostly ultra-violet radiation and is
therefore not visible to the human eye.
(2) The total energy emitted depends on its surface temperature only.
(3) We can determine its spectral class from its surface temperature only.
A (3) only
B (1) and (2) only A B C D
C (2) and (3) only
D (1), (2) and (3)

New Senior Secondary Physics at Work (Second Edition)


Mock Exam (Set 2) Paper 2 3
© Oxford University Press 2015
1.6 The table below lists the apparent and absolute magnitudes of stars P, Q and R. Which of them
is/are at a distance smaller than 10 pc from the Earth?

Star Apparent magnitude Absolute magnitude


P 2.0 –3.6
Q –1.47 1.42
R 0 3.5

A P only
B P and Q only A B C D
C Q and R only
D P, Q and R

1.7 Which of the following about stellar parallax is/are correct?


(1) The angle of parallax increases with the distance of the star away from Earth.
(2) The accuracy of distance measurement using the method of parallax would increase if the
semimajor axis of the Earth’s obit were larger.
(3) The stellar parallax is a shift in the actual position of a star relative to background stars.
A (2) only
B (1) and (2) only A B C D
C (2) and (3) only
D (1), (2) and (3)

1.8 The figure below shows a large distant celestial object. The radiation from point P, Q and R is
recorded.

Q
P R

Which of the following can be determined from the recorded radiation?


(1) Whether the object is moving towards or away from the Earth
(2) Whether the object is rotating
(3) Whether the object contains dark matter
A (1) only
B (1) and (2) only A B C D
C (1) and (3) only
D (2) and (3) only

New Senior Secondary Physics at Work (Second Edition)


Mock Exam (Set 2) Paper 2 4
© Oxford University Press 2015
Q.1: Structured question

The following diagram shows a model of the universe.

(a) In this model, why does Mars exhibit retrograde motion? (2 marks)

The radii of the orbits of Earth and Mars are 1.000 AU and 1.524 AU respectively. Assume their orbits
are circular.

(b) Find the orbital period of Mars in units of Earth year. (2 marks)

(c) Find the orbital angular velocities of the Earth and Mars respectively. Express your answers in
units of rad yr–1. (2 marks)

(d) Hence, estimate the time between two successive retrograde motions of Mars. (2 marks)

(e) The last retrograde motion of Mars began on 1 March 2014. Estimate the year and month when
next retrograde motion begins. (2 marks)

New Senior Secondary Physics at Work (Second Edition)


Mock Exam (Set 2) Paper 2 5
© Oxford University Press 2015
Section B: Atomic World
Q.2: Multiple-choice questions
2.1 A substance in bulk form is divided into nano-scale particles. Which of the following statements
about the substance is/are correct?
(1) Its optical properties may change.
(2) Its total surface area changes.
(3) Its total volume changes.
A (1) only
B (2) only A B C D
C (1) and (2) only
D (2) and (3) only

2.2 In a transmission electron microscope, an electron is accelerated from rest by a voltage V. The
mass and charge of an electron is me and e respectively. What is the momentum of the electron
after acceleration?

B 2eV
C

D A B C D

2.3 Fabrics containing nano particles are used to manufacture shirts. Which of the following
properties are favourable in manufacturing shirts?
(1) Stain-resistant
(2) Water-attractive
(3) Anti-bacterial
A (1) and (2) only
B (1) and (3) only A B C D
C (2) and (3) only
D (1), (2) and (3)

New Senior Secondary Physics at Work (Second Edition)


Mock Exam (Set 2) Paper 2 6
© Oxford University Press 2015
2.4 A hydrogen atom in the ground state is excited by a photon of 12.1 eV. A moment later, the
atom returns to the ground state. Which of the following is a possible energy value of the
photon released by the atom?
A 1.51 eV
B 1.89 eV A B C D
C 3.4 eV
D 4.91 eV

2.5 The figure shows the energy levels of a hydrogen atom. Electron transitions P, Q and R take
place in sequence.

3rd excited state


2nd excited state
P Q
1st excited state

ground state

Which of the following statements is/are correct?


(1) The frequency of the photon absorbed in transition P is equal to the sum of the
frequencies of the photons emitted in transitions Q and R.
(2) The wavelength of the photon absorbed in transition P is equal to the sum of the
wavelengths of the photons emitted in transitions Q and R.
(3) The angular momentum of the electron is the same before and after transition P.
A (1) only
B (3) only A B C D
C (1) and (2) only
D (1) and (3) only

2.6 Some iodine vapour is placed in front of a filament lamp. Which of the following statements is
correct?
A The iodine vapour absorbs visible light of all frequencies.
B The iodine vapour absorbs visible light of all frequencies except for some certain values.
C The iodine vapour emits visible light of all frequencies except for some certain values.
D The iodine vapour emits visible light of some certain frequencies.
A B C D

New Senior Secondary Physics at Work (Second Edition)


Mock Exam (Set 2) Paper 2 7
© Oxford University Press 2015
2.7 When a monochromatic light is incident on a metal plate, photoelectric effect takes place.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(1) The electrons emitted have different de Broglie wavelengths.
(2) The electrons emitted have absorbed different amounts of energy.
(3) Each electron emitted must have energy smaller than the work function of the metal plate.
A (1) only
B (2) only A B C D
C (1) and (2) only
D (2) and (3) only

2.8 Which of the following about scattering experiments are correct?


(1) In scattering experiments, particles are made to hit a target.
(2) Scattering experiments are commonly used to search for new particles.
(3) Bohr’s model of the hydrogen atom was proposed to explain the results of scattering
experiments.
A (1) and (2) only
B (1) and (3) only A B C D
C (2) and (3) only
D (1), (2) and (3)

New Senior Secondary Physics at Work (Second Edition)


Mock Exam (Set 2) Paper 2 8
© Oxford University Press 2015
Q.2: Structured question

The set-up in Figure 2.1 is used to study the photoelectric effect. Monochromatic light of certain
frequency is incident on the metal surface and the current is recorded. When the e.m.f. of the power
supply is varied, the current changes as shown in Figure 2.2.

monochromatic light

collector metal plate

power supply

Figure 2.1

I /  108 A

V/V
2 1 0 1 2

Figure 2.2
(a) When the e.m.f. is reduced from 0 V gradually, the current measured decreases. Explain this
phenomenon. (2 marks)

(b) The wavelength and intensity of light used are 400 nm and 0.02 W m2 respectively. The area of
the metal surface receiving light is 2  104 m2.

(i) Estimate the number of photons hitting the metal surface in one second. (3 marks)

(ii) Find the percentage of photons that are absorbed by electrons. (2 marks)

(c) Monochromatic light of shorter wavelength but the same intensity is used then.

(i) How would the answer to (b)(i) change? Explain your answer briefly. (2 marks)

(ii) How would the maximum current change? (1 mark)

New Senior Secondary Physics at Work (Second Edition)


Mock Exam (Set 2) Paper 2 9
© Oxford University Press 2015
Section C: Energy and Use of Energy
Q.3: Multiple-choice questions

3.1 Which of the following statements about an induction cooker is/are correct?
(1) Its top plate is usually made of metal.
(2) It emits electromagnetic waves which are absorbed by the food.
(3) It has a high end-use energy efficiency.
A (1) only
B (3) only A B C D
C (1) and (2) only
D (2) and (3) only

3.2 Which of the following statements must be correct when gas discharge lamps are turned on and
operating?
(1) The gas inside the lamps is ionized.
(2) An electric current flows through the gas.
(3) Visible light is produced directly by the electron transitions in the gas ions.
A (3) only
B (1) and (2) only A B C D
C (2) and (3) only
D (1), (2) and (3)

3.3 Which of the following factors affect(s) the thermal transmittance (U-value) of a wall?
(1) Thickness of the wall
(2) Area of the wall
(3) Temperature difference between the two sides of the wall
A (1) only
B (1) and (2) only A B C D
C (2) and (3) only
D (1), (2) and (3)

3.4 In a hydroelectric power station, the water level of the upper reservoir is 120 m above that of the
lower reservoir. If the power output of the station is 2 GW and its efficiency is 75%, how much
water flows through the dam each minute? (Given: 1 GW = 109 W)
A 2.27  106 kg
B 7.65  107 kg A B C D
C 1.02  10 kg 8

D 1.36  108 kg

New Senior Secondary Physics at Work (Second Edition)


Mock Exam (Set 2) Paper 2 10
© Oxford University Press 2015
3.5 A 1500-W air conditioner can remove 180 000 J of heat from a room in one minute. The
coefficient of performance of the air-conditioner is
A 2
B 3 A B C D
C 120
D 3000

3.6 A plane is illuminated by a light bulb which has an input power of 20 W and an efficacy of
80 lm W1. Assume that the light bulb is a point source. What is the illuminance at point X on
the plane?
light bulb

3m

X
plane
2m
A 8.15 lx
B 29.4 lx A B C D
C 35.3 lx
D 1600 lx

3.7 Which of the following is/are the advantage(s) of fossil-fuel vehicles over hybrid vehicles?
(1) The braking system is more efficient.
(2) The selling price is lower.
(3) The refuelling time is shorter.
A (1) only
B (2) only A B C D
C (1) and (3) only
D (2) and (3) only

3.8 Which of the following nuclides is the most stable?


Nuclide Binding energy / MeV
A He 28.3

B C 105

C Na 186
A B C D
D Mg 252

New Senior Secondary Physics at Work (Second Edition)


Mock Exam (Set 2) Paper 2 11
© Oxford University Press 2015
Q.3: Structured question

The London Array is the largest offshore wind farm in the world. It consists of 175 wind turbines. The
blades of each wind turbine are 53.5 m long. When the wind speed is 13 m s1, the maximum output
power of a wind turbine is about 3.6 MW.

Figure 3.1 (photo credit: London Array Limited)

(a) Wind power is a renewable energy source. What is a renewable energy source? (1 mark)

(b) State another renewable energy source. (1 mark)

(c) State the energy conversion of a wind turbine in generating electricity. (1 mark)

(d) Estimate the efficiency of a wind turbine in the London Array when the wind speed is 13 m s1.
The density of air is 1.225 kg m3. (2 marks)

(e) State THREE reasons to explain why the energy output of the turbine is much lower than the
energy of the wind. (3 marks)

(f) Estimate the maximum power output of the London Array when the wind speed is 13 m s1.
(1 mark)

(g) State ONE disadvantage of wind power. (1 mark)

New Senior Secondary Physics at Work (Second Edition)


Mock Exam (Set 2) Paper 2 12
© Oxford University Press 2015
Section D: Medical Physics
Q.4: Multiple-choice questions
4.1 Karl is looking at two LED lights but his eyes cannot resolve the two lights in normal daylight.
The two lights are placed closely to each other. Which of the following actions can help Karl
resolve the two lights?
(1) Walking towards the two lights.
(2) Dimming the light in the surrounding.
(3) Placing the two lights farther away from each other.
A (1) and (2) only
B (1) and (3) only A B C D
C (2) and (3) only
D (1), (2) and (3)

4.2 Which of the following statements about fibre optic endoscopy is/are correct?
(1) An endoscope makes use of an incoherent fibre bundle to transfer an image.
(2) An endoscope with finer optical fibres can produce images of higher resolution.
(3) In an optical fibre, the cladding is optically denser than the core.
A (1) only
B (2) only A B C D
C (1) and (3) only
D (2) and (3) only

4.3 Our ear can discriminate sounds of different frequencies. Which of the following statements
about this frequency discrimination is/are correct?
(1) Sounds within human’s audible frequency range are amplified by the outer ear while
sounds outside the range are not.
(2) Sounds outside human’s audible frequency range are filtered in the middle ear.
(3) The region near the base of the cochlea vibrates more vigorously with higher frequency
sounds than the region near the tip.
A (2) only
B (3) only A B C D
C (1) and (2) only
D (1) and (3) only

New Senior Secondary Physics at Work (Second Edition)


Mock Exam (Set 2) Paper 2 13
© Oxford University Press 2015
4.4 An ultrasound pulse travels from a medium with acoustic impedance Z1 to another medium with
acoustic impedance Z2. The ratio of Z1 to Z2 is 3 : 2. What is the ratio of the intensity of the
reflected pulse to that of the transmitted pulse?
A 2:3
B 1:4 A B C D
C 1 : 24
D 1 : 25

4.5 The following figure shows an ultrasound image.

Which of the following statements about areas X and Y must be correct?


A Area X absorbs more ultrasound than area Y.
B Area X attenuates more ultrasound than area Y.
C Area Y allows more ultrsound to pass through than area X.
D Area Y reflects more ultrasound than area X.

A B C D

4.6 The half-value thickness of a medium for X-rays is 3 cm. What is the intensity of the X-ray
beam after passing through 10 cm through the medium? Assume the initial intensity of the
X-ray beam is I0.
A 0.0992I0
B 0.125I0 A B C D
C 0.292I0
D 0.812I0

New Senior Secondary Physics at Work (Second Edition)


Mock Exam (Set 2) Paper 2 14
© Oxford University Press 2015
4.7 The physical half-life and the biological half-life of technetium-99m are 6 hours and 24 hours
respectively. A sample of technetium-99m is injected into a patient’s body at 12:00 noon. At
what time will the number of undecayed technetium nuclei in the patient’s body drop to half of
its original value?
A 4:48 p.m. on the same day
B 6:00 p.m. on the same day A B C D
C 8:00 p.m. on the same day
D 12:00 noon on the following day

4.8 The following figures show the same part of the body using different medical imaging methods
1 and 2.

Using method 1 Using method 2

Which of the following is the advantage of method 1 over method 2?


A The information on the function of an organ can be obtained.
B Less radiation is received by the patient.
C It can detect the movement of an organ in real time.
D Overlapping structures can be separately shown in the image.

A B C D

New Senior Secondary Physics at Work (Second Edition)


Mock Exam (Set 2) Paper 2 15
© Oxford University Press 2015
Q.4: Structured question

Judy’s right eye is suffering from a defect of vision and is wearing a corrective lens with a power of
1.5 D.

(a) Suggest ONE possible cause of this type of defect. (1 mark)

(b) The following diagrams illustrate Judy’s right eye without and with the corrective lens. X is the
uncorrected near point and Y is the corrected near point. Complete the diagrams to show how
the light rays fall onto the retina. (2 marks)

Without corrective lens.

With correvtive lens.

(c) After wearing the corrective lens, the near point is at 25 cm away from the eye. Find the
uncorrected near point. (2 marks)

(d) The far point of Judy’s right eye is at infinity without wearing the corrective lenses.

(i) Judy reads a book and then turns to look at a distant object. Describe how
accommodation is achieved in Judy’s eyes so that she can look at the object clearly.
(3 marks)

(ii) How does the far point of Judy’s right eye change when she wears the corrective lenses?
Explain your answer with calculation. (2 marks)

END OF PAPER

New Senior Secondary Physics at Work (Second Edition)


Mock Exam (Set 2) Paper 2 16
© Oxford University Press 2015
List of data, formulae and relationships
Data
molar gas constant R = 8.31 J mol1 K1
Avogadro constant NA = 6.02  1023 mol1
acceleration due to gravity g = 9.81 m s2 (close to the Earth)
universal gravitational constant G = 6.67  1011 N m2 kg2
speed of light in vacuum c = 3.00  108 m s1
charge of electron e = 1.60  1019 C
electron rest mass me = 9.11  1031 kg
permittivity of free space 0 = 8.85  1012 C2 N1 m2
permeability of free space 0 = 4  107 H m1
atomic mass unit u = 1.661  1027 kg (1 u is equivalent to 931 MeV)
astronomical unit AU = 1.50  1011 m
light year ly = 9.46  1015 m
parsec pc = 3.09  1016 m = 3.26 ly = 206 265 AU
Stefan constant  = 5.67  108 W m2 K4
Planck constant h = 6.63  1034 J s
Rectilinear motion Mathematics
For uniformly accelerated motion: Equation of a straight line y = mx + c
Arc length = r
v = u + at
Surface area of cylinder = 2rh + 2r2
s = ut +
Volume of cylinder = r2h
v2 = u2 + 2as
Surface area of sphere = 4r2

Volume of sphere =

For small angles, sin   tan    (in radians)


Astronomy and Space Science Energy and Use of Energy
U= gravitational potential energy illuminance
P = AT4 Stefan’s law
= rate of energy transfer by
  Doppler effect
conduction
U= thermal transmittance U-value

P= maximum power by wind turbine

Atomic World Medical Physics


= hf   Einstein’s photoelectric equation  Rayleigh criterion (resolving power)

power = power of a lens


En = = eV

L= intensity level (dB)


energy level equation for hydrogen
atom Z = c acoustic impedance
= = de Broglie formula
= = intensity reflection coefficient

 Rayleigh criterion (resolving power) I = I 0e   x transmitted intensity through a


medium
energy transfer during
A1. E = mcT D1. F= Coulomb’s law
heating and cooling

energy transfer during electric field strength due to a


A2. E = lm D2. E=
change of state point charge

equation of state for an electric field between parallel


A3. pV = nRT D3. E=
ideal gas plates (numerically)

A4. pV = kinetic theory equation D4. R= resistance and resistivity

A5. EK = molecular kinetic energy D5. R = R1 + R2 resistors in series

D6. = + resistors in parallel

B1. F= = force D7. P = IV = I2R power in a circuit

moment = F  force on a moving charge in a


B2. moment of a force D8. F = BQv sin 
d magnetic field
gravitational potential force on a current-carrying
B3. EP = mgh D9. F = BIl sin 
energy conductor in a magnetic field

magnetic field due to a long


B4. EK = kinetic energy D10. B=
straight wire

magnetic field inside a long


B5. P = Fv mechanical power D11. B=
solenoid

B6. a= = 2r centripetal acceleration D12. = induced e.m.f.

ratio of secondary voltage to


Newton’s law of
B7. F= D13.  primary voltage in a
gravitation
transformer

fringe width in
C1. y = E1. N = N0ekt law of radioactive decay
double-slit interference

diffraction grating
C2. d sin  = n E2. = half-life and decay constant
equation

activity and the number of


C3. = equation for a single lens E3. A = kN
undecayed nuclei

E4. E = mc2 mass-energy relationship

New Senior Secondary Physics at Work (Second Edition)


Mock Exam (Set 2) Paper 2 18
© Oxford University Press 2015

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