AIET-5-G12-PCM-MAINS

Instructions:

1. Subjects: Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics. 30 questions per subject.

2. MCQs: Physics (Q1-20), Chemistry (Q31-50), Mathematics (Q61-80).
3. Integer-type: Physics (Q21-30), Chemistry (Q51-60), Mathematics (Q81-90). Attempt
maximum 5 integer-type questions per subject.
4. Answer 75 questions. Select the correct option for MCQs and enter the integer for integer-type
questions.
5. Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, -1 for incorrect, no penalty for unattempted.

Duration: 180 minutes Total Marks: 300

Physics

Q1: In the figure the electric lines on the right have twice the separation of those on the left. If a charge particle
takes time t to move a distance x in left region, then it will take time to travel the same distance in the right side
region is:

A. t

2
B. t
C. √2t D. 2t

Q2: Figure shows a system of three concentric metal shells A, B and C with radii a, 2a and 3a respectively. Shell
B is earthed and shell C is given a charge Q. Now if shell C is connected to shell A, then the final charge on the
shell B, is equal to

A. − B. −
4Q 8Q

13 11

C. − D. −
5Q 3Q

3 7

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Q3: In the figure, the net electric flux

through the area A is ϕ = E → ⋅ A→
when the system is in air. On immersing the system in water the net electric flux through the area

A. becomes zero B. remains same

C. increases D. decreases

Q4: The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor is C (Fig a). A dielectric of dielectric constant K is inserted as
a

shown in fig (b) and (c) then

A. both C b
, Cc > Ca B. C c
> Ca while C b
< Ca

C. both C b
, Cc < Ca D. C a
= Cb = Cc

Q5: Two cells of the same emf E have different internal resistances r and r . They are connected in series with
1 2

an external resistance R and the potential difference across the first cell is found to be zero. Therefore, the
external resistance R must be

A. r 1
− r2 B. r 1
+ r2

C. 2r 1
− r2 D. r 1
− 2r 2

Q6: Two identical thin bar magnets each of length l and pole strength m are placed at right angles to each other.
with north pole of one touching south pole of the other. then the magnetic moment of the system is

A. 1 ml B. 2 ml
C. √2 ml D. ml/2

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Q7: A coil in the shape of an equilateral triangle of side l is suspended between the pole pieces of a permanent
magnet such that B → is in the plane of the coil. If due to a current i in the triangle a torque T acts on it, the side l
of the triangle is
1
1

A. B. 2(
2 T 2
2 T
( ) )
√3 Bi
√ 3B⋅i

C. 2

√3
(
T

B⋅i
) D. √3
1 T

Bi

Q8: If the flux of magnetic induction through a coil of resistance R and having n turns change from ϕ to ϕ , 1 2

then the magnitude of the charge that passes through the coil is.

A.
(ϕ 1 −ϕ 2 ) n(ϕ 2 −ϕ 1)

R
B. R

C.
(ϕ 2 −ϕ 1 )
D. nR

(ϕ 2 −ϕ 1 )
nk

Q9: Current in an ac circuit is given by i = 3 sin ωt + 4 cos ωt then

B. mean value of this current in one half period will be

A. rms value of current is 5 A
6/π

C. if voltage applied is V = V m sin ωt then the circuit D. if voltage applied is V , the circuit may
= V m sin ωt

must be containing resistance and capacitance. contain resistance and inductance.

Q10: The current (I ) in the inductance is varying with time according to the plot shown in figure.

Which one of the following is the correct variation of voltage with time in the coil?

A. B.

C.
D.

Q11: A given ray of light suffers minimum deviation in an equilateral prism P . Additional prisms Q and R of
identical shape and of same material as P are now added as shown in the figure. The ray will now suffer

A. greater deviation. B. no deviation

C. same deviation. D. total internal reflection.

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Q12: A driver stops his car at a red light. The car is fitted with side view mirror of focal length 10 m. An
ambulance is approaching the car at a constant speed of 16 ms . The speed of image of the ambulance, as seen
−1

by the driver in the side view mirror, when it is at distance of 50 m from the mirror will be

A. 1 ms −1
B. 4

9
ms
−1

C. 2

3
ms
−1
D. 2 ms −1

Q13: In Young's double slit experiment, if the widths of the slit are in the ratio 4 : 9, ratio of intensity of maxima
to intensity of minima will be

A. 25 : 1 B. 9 : 4
C. 3 : 2 D. 81 : 16

Q14: Assertion: Interference can be obtained by using two different lamps.

Reason: Two different lamps are incoherent sources as constant phase difference cannot be maintained between
them.

A. If both Assertion and Reason are true and the B. If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is
Reason is correct explanation of the Assertion. not explanation of the Assertion.
C. If Assertion is true but the Reason is false. D. If Assertion is false but Reason is true.

Q15: If the work functions of three photosensitive materials are 1eV , 2eV and 3eV respectively, then the ratio of
the respective frequencies of light that produce photoelectrons of the maximum kinetic energy of 1eV from each
of them is

A. 1 : 2 : 3 B. 2 : 3 : 4
C. 1 : 1 : 1 D. 3 : 2 : 1

Q16: The value of binding energy per nucleon of 40

20
Ca nucleus is
Given:
Mass of Ca nucleus = 39.962589 u
40
20

Mass of proton = 1.007825 u

Mass of neutron = 1.008665 u
and 1 u = 931 M eV C −2

A. 18.32 M eV B. 8.55 M eV
C. 9.94 M eV D. 14.72 M eV

Q17: If 200 M eV of energy is released in the fission of one nucleus of 236

92
U, the number of nuclei that must
undergo fission to release an energy of 1000 J is

A. 3.125 × 10 13
B. 6.25 × 10 13

C. 12.5 × 10 13
D. 3.125 × 10 14

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Q18: In a zener diode, the reverse bias voltage is 3V and the width of the depletion region is 300A.
˚
The electric
field intensity will be _________ V cm . −1

A. 10 4
B. 10 6

C. 10 8
D. 10 −2

Q19: In the given circuit, the binary inputs at A and B are both 1 in one case and both 0 in the next case. The
respective outputs at Y in these two cases will be:

A. 1, 1 B. 0, 0
C. 0, 1 D. 1, 0

Q20: A. Wavelength of microwaves is greater than that of ultraviolet rays.

B. The wavelength of infrared rays is lesser than that of ultraviolet rays.
C. The wavelength of microwaves is lesser than that of infrared rays.
D. Gamma-ray has the shortest wavelength in the electromagnetic spectrum.
What should be the correct statement from the given statements?

A. A and B are true B. B and C are true

C. C and D are true D. A and D are true

Q21: Two coils are fixed in space at some distance from each other such that there is a flux linkage between
them. When coil 1 has no current and the current in the coil 2 increases at the rate 15.0 A s , the emf in the coil
−1

1 is 25.0 mV . When coil 2 has a current of 3.6 A, the flux linkage in coil 1 (in mWb) is

Q22: A particle of mass m and charge q is projected from origin with zero initial velocity (u^i − v^j). Uniform
electric and magnetic fields exists in the region along y-axis of magnitudes E and B respectively. When the
particle definitely returns to the origin in minimum time, then find the value of vB/πE.

Q23: In gravity free space, a bead of charge 1 μC and mass 3 mg is threaded on a rough rod of friction coefficient
μ = 0.3. A magnetic field of magnitude 0.2 T exists perpendicular to the rod. The bead is projected along the rod

with a speed of 4 m/s. How much distance (in m) will the bead cover before coming to rest?

Q24: The image formed by a convex mirror of focal length 30 cm is a quarter of the size of the object. The
distance of the object from the mirror is__(in cm).

Q25: Ionisation potential of hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV . When hydrogen atoms in ground state are excited by a
supply of 12.1 eV , then the number of spectral lines emitted by hydrogen atoms according to Bohr's theory is

Maths

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Q26: If f ( 2x+3

3x+5
) = x + 4, x ≠
−5

3
,
2

3
and ∫ f (x)dx = Ax + B ln |3x − 2| + C, then 3B − A =

A. 64

9
B. −52

51

C. −10

3
D. −8

Q27: The number of point(s) of minima of the polynomial y = 10x 6

− 24x
5
+ 15x
4
− 40x
2
+ 108 is(are) equal to

A. 1 B. 2
C. 3 D. 4

Q28: If two different numbers are taken from the set {0, 1, 2, 3, … , 10}, then the probability that their sum as
well as absolute difference are both multiple of 3 is:

A. 12

55
B. 14

45

C. 7

55
D. 6

55

Q29: The value of the integral ∫

−1

is equal to (where, c is an arbitrary constant)

−1
3 sin x 1 3 cos x
e ( + e )dx
√ 1−x 2

√ −1

B. e
−1 π

A.
3 sin x 3π √
e 3 sin x
+ xe 2 + c + e 2 + c
3

−1

C. D. e
3sin x 3π
e π/3 x(π/2)
+ xe 2 + c + e + c
3

Q30: Let A = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5} and f : A → A be an injective function such that f (i) ≠ i, ∀i ∈ A then number of
such functions f are:

A. 120 B. 96
C. 44 D. None of these

Q31: Number of triplets of a, b and c for which the system of equations, ax − by = 2a − b and
(c + 1)x + cy = 10 − a + 3b have infinitely many solution and x = 1, y = 3 is one of the solutions, is:

A. exactly one B. exactly two

C. exactly three D. infinitely many

Q32: 1 + cot 2
(sin
−1
x) =

A. 1/2x B. x 2

C. 1/x 2
D. 2/x

Q33: A locker can be opened by dialing a fixed three digit code (between 000 and 999). A stranger who does not
know the code tries to open the locker by dialing three digits at random. The probability that the stranger
succeeds at the kth trial is

A. 999
k
B. k

1000

C. k−1

1000
D. None of these

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Q34: If the two lines l 1 :

x−2

3
=
y+1

−2
,z = 2 and l 2 :
x−1

1
=
2y+3

α
=
z+5

2
perpendicular, then an angle between the
lines l and l
2 3 :
1−x

3
=
2y−1

−4
=
z

A. cos −1
(
29

4
) B. sec −1
(
29

4
)

C. cos −1
(
2

29
) D. cos −1
(
√ 29
2
)

Q35: If f (x) = x 3
+ bx
2
+ cx + d and 0 < b 2
< c, then in x ∈ (−∞, ∞)

A. f (x) is a strictly increasing function B. f (x) has a local maxima

C. f (x) is an increasing function D. f (x) is bounded

→, →b, c→ be unit vectors such that a

Q36: Let a → + →b + c→ = x
→, a → = 1, →b ⋅ x
→⋅x →= 3

2
→| = 2. Then angle between c→ and x
, |x → is
:

A. cos −1
(
1

4
) B. cos −1
(
3

4
)

C. cos −1
(
3

8
) D. cos −1
(
5

8
)

Q37: Let p be an odd prime number and T be the following set of 2×2 matrices P

a b
TP = {A = [ ]; a, b, c ∈ {0, 1, 2, . . . (p − 1)}}
c a

The number of A in T such that A is either symmetric or skew - symmetric or both, and det(A) is divisible by p
P

is

A. (p − 1) 2
B. 2(p − 1)
C. (p − 2) 2
D. 2p − 1

1 0 0
⎛ ⎞
Q38: Let A = 0 cos t sin t

⎝ ⎠
0 − sin t cos t

Let λ , λ , λ be the roots of det(A − λI ) = 0, where I denotes the identity matrix. If λ

1 2 3 3 3 1 + λ 2 + λ 3 = √ 2 + 1,

then the set of possible values of t, −λ ≤ t < π is

A. a void set B. { π

4
}

C. {− π

4
,
π

4
} D. {− π

3
,
π

3
}

Q39: A and B are two square matrices such that A 2

B = BA and if (AB) 10 k
= A B
10
, then k is :

A. 1000 B. 1050
C. 1023 D. 1025

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Q40: If g(x) = ,
2h(x)+|h(x)|

2h(x)−|h(x)|

where h(x) = sin x − sin n

x, n ∈ R
+
, the set of positive real numbers,
π π
[g(x)], x ∈ (0, ) ∪ ( , π)
and f (x) = { 2

π
2
,
3, x =
2

where, [x] denotes the greatest integer function, then

A. f (x) is continuous and differentiable at x = π

2
, B. f (x) is continuous and differentiable at x = π

2
,
when 0 < n < 1 when n > 1
C. f (x) is continuous but not differentiable at x = π

2
D. f (x) is continuous but not differentiable at x = π/2
, when 0 < n < 1 , when n > 1

Q41: The range of the function y = 2 sin −1

[x
2
+
1

2
] + cos
−1
[x
2
−
1

2
] is (where, [⋅] denotes the greatest integer
function)

A. (0, π) B. [π, 3π

2
]

C. {π} D. {π, 3π

2
}

Q42: If the solution of the differential equation y x cos(x )dx + sin(x 3 2 3 3 2

)y dy =
x

3
dx is 2 sin(x 3
)y
k
= x
2
+ C

(where C is an arbitrary constant), then the value of k is equal to

A. 3 B. 2
C. 1 D. 4

−2, −2 ≤ x < 0
Q43: Consider { 2
} and g(x) = |f (x)| + f (|x|). Then, in the interval (−2, 2), g(x) is
x − 2, 0 ≤ x ≤ 2

A. not differentiable at one point B. differentiable at all points

C. not continuous D. not differentiable at two points

x 2
t

Q44: The points of extremum of the function F (x) = ∫ e

−
2 (1 − t )dt
2
are :-
1

A. ±1 B. 0
C. ±1/2 D. ±2

Q45: Area included between y = and y = is

2 3
x 8a
2 2
4a x +4a

A. B.
2 2
a a
(6π − 4) (4π + 3)
3 3

C. a

3
(8π + 3) D. None of these

Q46: The probability that a married man watches a certain T.V. show is 0.6 and the probability that a married
woman watches the show is 0.5. The probability that a man watches the show given that his wife does watch is
0.8. If the probability that a wife watches the show given that her husband does watch is k, then 3k is equal to

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−
−
−
−→ → → →

Q49: If I n
= ∫
nπ

Q50: Consider a differential equation

(x tan(

C. CH Cl
2O
y

x
) − y sec (

with the initial condition y(2) =

− H Cl

3 − CH 3 OH
max (|sin x|, sin

2 y

x
))dx + x sec (

∣
Q47: If ABCDEF is a regular hexagon, then AD+EB+F C = kAB what is the value of k.

Q48: If A, B, C, D are four points in space satisfying

AB ⋅ CD = K [|AD| + |BC| − |AC| − |BD| ] then the value of 2K is
2 2

−1

4
x
y

Q51: Which one of the following is an example of a maximum boiling azeotrope?

A. H
2

(sin x) )dx

)dy = 0
AIET-5-G12-PCM-MAINS

, then I

, then the value of x tan

Chemistry
2
+ I4

Q52: Two Faraday of electricity is passed through a solution of CuSO . The mass of copper deposited at the
cathode is
(at. mass of Cu = 63.5 amu)

A. 0 g
C. 2 g

on:

A. [water] since it is present in a large quantity

C. [water] and [ester] both since both react to give
product

Q54: For the reaction,

3A + 2B → C + D,

The differential rate law can be written as:

A.
C. +
1

3
d[A]

3
dt

d[A]

dt
=

=
d[C]

dt

d[C]

dt
= k[A]

= k[A]
n
[B]

n
m

[B]
m

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y

B. H
D. CCl
has the value

B. 64 g
D. 127 g

B. −
D. −
d[A]

dt

3
4

Q53: The hydrolysis of ethyl acetate is a pseudo first order reaction. This means that rate of reaction practically depends

d[A]

dt
=
d[C]

=
dt
4
λπ

is (round off to nearest integer)

2O − C 2 H 5 OH

− CH 3 OH

B. [ester] since it is more reactive

2

; where λ is

D. [ester] its concentration change measurably.

= k[A]

d[C]

dt
= k[A]
n
[B]

n
m

[B]
m

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Q55: Metal (M ) shows crimson red colour in flame test and its halide is deliquescent then metal (M ) could be

A. Li B. M g
C. Ca D. Ba

Q56: A substance on treatment with dilute H SO liberates a colourless gas which produces (i) turbidity
2 4

with baryta water and (ii) turns acidified dichromate solution green. The reaction indicates the presence of :

A. CO 2−

3
B. S 2−

C. SO 2−

3
D. N O −

Q57: In group 15, the melting points of the elements :

A. increase regularly on moving down the group. B. decrease regularly on moving down the group.
D. first increase from N to As and then decrease to Bi.
C. first decrease upto As and then increase to Bi.

Q58: Which element of chalcogens has maximum tendency to show catenation ?

A. Oxygen B. Selenium
C. Sulphur D. Tellurium

Q59: The order of negative electron gain enthalpy of halogens is :

A. F > Cl > Br > I B. Cl > Br > F > I

C. Cl > F > Br > I D. I > Br > Cl > F

Q60: Which of the following pair of transition metal oxides are amphoteric in nature?

A. M n 2
O 7 , CrO 3 B. CrO 3
, V2 O5

C. V 2
O 5 , Cr 2 O 3 D. V 2
O 3 , CrO

Q61: Which of these transition metal ions have same magnetic moment in aqueous solution?

1. V 3+

2. Sc 2+

3. Cu 2+

4. F e 3+

A. 1, 3 and 4 B. 2, 3 and 4
C. 2 and 3 D. All of these

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Q62: In the context of lanthanoids, which of the following statements is incorrect ?

A. There is gradual decrease in the radii of the B. All the members generally exhibit +3 oxidation
members with increasing atomic number in the series state
D. Availability of 4f -electrons result in the formation
C. Because of similar physical properties, the
of compounds in only +4 state for all members of the
separation of lanthanoids is difficult.
series

Q63: The correct order for the wavelengths of absorption in the visible region for the following is:
I. [N i(N O ) ]
2 6
4−

II. [N i(N H ) ]
3 6
2+

III. [N i(H O) ]
2 6
2+

A. I>II>III B. II>I>III
C. III>II>I D. III>I>II

Q64: Which of the following statements is correct regarding the rate of hydrolysis of compounds (A) & (B) by
S 1 reaction?
N

A. A reacts faster than B B. B reacts faster than A

C. A and B react at the same rate D. Cannot say

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Q65: Give the decreasing order of reactivity of the following compounds with H Br.

I.

II.

III.

IV.

A. III > IV > II > I B. III > II > IV > I

C. III > II > I > IV D. II > III > IV > I

Q66: Base catalysed aldol condensation occurs most readily with

A. Propionaldehyde B. Benzaldehyde
C. 2-Methylpropionaldehyde D. 2, 2-Dimethylpropionaldehyde

Q67: Which of the following statements regarding C = O group is not correct?

B. The carbon atom of CO group in the transition state

A. The carbon atom of CO group in aldehydes is sp 2

formed during the addition reaction across CO group

hybridized
is sp hybridized
3

C. The aryl group in aromatic aldehydes speeds up the D. The carbon atom of CO group in aldehydes has
addition reaction across the CO group partial positive charge

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Q68:
Product is

A. B.

C. D.

Q69: Which of the following compounds will form significant amount of meta product during mono-nitration reaction?

A. B.

C. D.

Q70: Glucose on reaction with reagent X forms a compound Y , which produces saccharic acid on reaction with
nitric acid. X and Y respectively are

A. H Cl , Gluconic acid B. Br water, Gluconic acid

2

C. Br water , Pyruvic acid

2 D. H N O , Gluconic acid
3

Q71: 18 g of glucose (C H O ) is added to 178.2 g water. The vapour pressure of water (in torr) for this aqueous
6 12 6

solution is x T orr. Find x.

(Write answer in whole number)
(Temperature of system assume to be 100 degree)

Q72: A Zn rod weighing 25 g as kept in 100 mL of 1 M CuSO solution. After a certain time the molarity of
4

Cu in solution was 0.8. What was the mass of Zn rod after cleaning? (At. W t of Zn = 65.4, Cu = 60.0)
2+

(Write the answer in whole number)

Q73: Compounds A and B react to form C and D in a reaction that was found to be second-order overall and
second-order in A. The rate constant at 30℃ is 0.50 Lmol min . What is the half-life of A when 4.0×10 M
−1 −1 −2

of A is mixed with excess B?

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Q74: How many geometrical isomers with formula [M ABCD] E.g.: [P t(N H 3 )(P y)(N H 2 OH )(N O 2 )]
+
are
possible?

Q75:
X = Total number of substitution and elimination product(s). Find the value of X .

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