UNIVERSITY OF PANGASINAN – PHINMA EDUCATION

COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING AND ARCHITECTIRE

MACHINE DESIGN AND SHOP PRACTICES ELEMENTS

(Module 14)

1) The principle of developing plan is based on the following:

a. Selection of materials and machine tool

b. Analysis of parts, raw materials, machine tool, manufacturing operations and machining
conditions
c. Selection of machine tool according to cost
d. Optimization of cutting speed
2) Determination of manufacturing operations and their sequences is based on the following:
a. Possibility of manufacturing operations on machine tool
b. Availability of machine tool
c. Operations required for manufacturing and sequence of operations
d. Availability of machine tool, operations to be performed and sequence of manufacturing
3) Group technology is the technology of grouping of
a. Workshops
b. Labourers
c. Machine Tools
d. Managers
4) Geometric classification of families is based on
a. Size of workplace
b. Shape of workpiece
c. Size and shape of workpiece
d. Sequence of operations of the workpiece
5) Group technology results in
a. Reduced implementation cost
b. Quick change in product design
c. Variation of machine tools
d. None of the above
6) Part family means a collection of parts that are similar in
a. Geometric shape and size
b. Sequence of operations
c. Geometric shape and sequence of operations
d. Size only
7) Production flow analysis (PFA) deals with
a. Raw material of parts
b. Tools required for machine
c. Machine tools
d. Sequence of operations in fabrication
8) Hybrid coding deals with
a. Mono codes
b. Polycodes
c. Mixed codes
d. Decimal codes
9) Code system is
a. Two-digit system
b. Five-digit system
c. Eight-position hexadecimal system
d. Five-digit with four digits supplementary code system
10) An industrial robot is a multifunctional manipulator that has been designed to move
a. Tools
b. Materials
c. Special devices
d. All the above
11) Which one of the following in not a basic element of a robot?
a. Mechanical structure
b. On-board control regulating unit
c. Fixture
d. The power unit
12) The drive system generally used in industrial robots is
a. Electrical drive
b. Hydraulic Drive
c. Pneumatic drive
d. All the above
13) The first step in NC part programming is the preparation of
a. NC coordinate drawing from blue point
b. Blue print of the object
c. Punched tape
d. Punched tape and its verification
14) Bit is an abbreviation of
a. Binary Unit
b. Decimal Unit
c. Character
d. Block
15) The total number of G-codes is
a. 10
b. 64
c. 26
d. 100
16) The total number of M-codes is
a. 10
 b. 64
c. 26
d. 100
17) According to EIA and ISO, the number of formats used for compiling on NC data into suitable blocks of
information are
a. 1
b. 3
c. 2
d. F
18) G00 code in part programming refers to
a. Linear interpolation mode of control
b. Point-to-point positioning mode of control
c. Circular interpolation (clockwise)
d. Rotation of the job
19) The following word specifies speed rate of job
a. R
b. N
c. S
d. F
20) The term ATC in CNC machine tools means
a. Automatic tool control
b. Automatic tool changer
c. Automatic tool contour
d. Automatic tool coding
21) A fixed zero in a CNC machine tool is a location on the machine table generally at
a. The centre of the table
b. Left hand lower corner of the table
c. Right hand corner of the table
d. Top right hand corner of the table
22) Process planning determines
a. The cost of raw materials
b. The cost of manufacturing
c. How a component will be manufactured
d. The sale price of the component
23) The primary purpose of process planning is
a. The selection of machine tool
b. To translate the design requirements for parts into manufacturing process details
c. The selection of tool parameters
d. Estimating the design requirements
24) Selection of a raw workpiece is based on the following
a. Shape, size and material of the workpiece
b. Cost of the workpiece
 c. Weight of the workpiece
d. Cutting speed of the workpiece
25) Group technology has the following benefits:
a. Lead time is lesser
b. Output is more
c. Material handling time is less
d. All the above
26) Selection of proper tool material for EDM depends on
a. Size of the electrode
b. Volume of metal to be removed
c. Surface finish and tolerance required
d. All the above
27) The following law governs the process of metal removal rate in electrochemical machining:
a. Stefan’s law
b. Faraday’s law
c. Kirchoff’s law
d. Boyle’s law
28) The machining process in which the metal of the workpiece gets dissolved into the electrolytic solution is known
as
a. Electro discharge machining
b. Electro chemical machining
c. Chemical machining
d. Electro hydraulic machining
29) Abrasive slurry is used un the following type of machining process:
a. Chemical machining
b. Electrochemical machining
c. Ultrasonic machining
d. Hot machining
30) Electrochemical machining is advantageous over EDM process, because the former
a. Can cut harder materials
b. Uses lesser electricity
c. Is more accurate
d. Has negligible tool wear
31) The following electrolyte is used in electro-chemical machining process:
a. Brine solution
b. Water
c. Kerosene
d. Linseed oil
32) Ultrasonic machining process is based on
a. Uniform pressure
b. Uniform heating
c. Wave vibrations of high frequency
 d. Chemical machining
33) The following type of waves are used in USM:
a. Transverse waves
b. Longitudinal waves
c. Sheer waves
d. Transmission waves
34) The following principle is used for converting electrical energy into mechanical energy in USM:
a. Faraday’s law
b. Stefan’s law
c. Piezoelectric effect
d. Thomson’s law
35) The following abrasive shows maximum machining rate for machining of tungsten carbide by ultrasonic
machining:
a. Silicon carbide
b. Aluminum oxide
c. Boron carbide
d. Graphite particles
36) In USM, removal of metal takes place by
a. Action of slurry
b. Action of abrasive
c. Chemical reaction
d. Electrochemical reaction
37) Tool used in ultrasonic machining
a. Has the same shape as that of the hole to be made
b. Is made of soft material
c. Oscillates at a frequency of 20-30k cycle/s
d. All the above actions take place simultaneously
38) As compared to horizontal castings, vertical castings are spun at
a. Higher speed
b. Lower speed
c. Same speed
d. First lower and then higher speed
39) Wax pattern is used in the following method of casting:
a. Centrifuging
b. Permanent mould
c. Continuous casting
d. Investment casting
40) Sand slinger gives
a. Uniform packing of sand in mould
b. Uniform packing near pattern
c. Uniform density of packing
d. None of the above
41) The term honeycombing/sponginess in castings refer to
a. Surface oxidation
b. Surface decarburization
c. Presence of impurities in molten metal
d. Formation of number of cavities in close proximity in castings
42) Scope of buckles in casting occur due to
a. Presence of excess quantity of silicon
b. Presence of excess amount of impurities
c. Shearing of some sand from the cope
d. Poor venting of moulding sand
43) Drossing in foundry practice refers to
a. Formation of oxides on the molten metal surface
b. Formation of oxides on the solid casting surface
c. Chilling effect in castings
d. Low temperature of molten metal
44) The internal cracks in castings can be detected by the following method
a. Liquid penetrate test
b. Magnetic particle test
c. Ultrasonic test
d. Sound test
45) The surface and sub-surface cracks in non-magnetic alloys can be detected by
a. Magnetic particles test
b. X-ray test
c. Impact test
d. Sonography
46) The surface and non-surface cracks in non magnetic alloys can be located by the following process:
a. X-ray testing
b. Dye penetrant testing
c. Gamma ray testing
d. Ultrasonic testin
47) The following method is used for the inspection of internal hot tear defect in castings
a. Hardness test
b. Radiography
c. Stiffness test
d. Damping test
48) Hot tears in metal casting occur due to
a. Shearing of some sand during the flow of molten metal
b. Discontinuity in metal casting due to hindrance in the flow of metal
c. Pouring of metal at low temperature
d. Pouring of metal at high temperature
49) Casting defect known as cold shuts occurs due to
a. Shearing of some sand during the flow of molten metal
 b. Two streams of metals that are too cold to fuse properly
c. Pouring of metal at low low temperature
d. Pouring of metal at high temperature
50) For compensation shrinkage of metal we use
a. Carpenters scale
b. Filter scale
c. Pattern maker’s scale
d. Mathematical calculation for providing allowances for pattern
51) The following material has more shrinkage allowance
a. cast iron
b. steel
c. aluminum
d. lead
52) The following part is an added projection on a pattem and forms a seat to support and locate the core in a mould:
a. mould print
b. core print
c. соре
d. drag
53) Cores are used to
a. remove patterns easily
b. make desired recess in casting
c. control flow of metal
d. support skeleton patterns
54) For pattern making, wood is considered dry when its moisture content is less than
a. 3%
b. 5%
c. 10%
d. 15%
55) For grey cast iron, the patter shrinkage allowance is
a. 2-4 mm/m
b. 5-7 mm/m
c. 8-10 mm/m
d. 13-15 mm/m
56) Surfaces to be machined are marked on the patiem by the following colour:
a. Red
b. Black
c. Yellow
d. green
57) Blue colour on the patter is used for
a. machined surface
b. rough surface.
c. unmachined surface
 d. not used on patter surfaces
58) Loose piece pattems are
a. similar to cope and drag patterns
b. similar to skeleton patterns
c. used when single-piece pattern cannot be withdrawn from the mould
d. used for casting pulleys
59) Colour scheme is employed on pattems
a. for making core print, etc.
b. for rough surfaces
c. for machining
d. for protection against weather
60) Wooden patters are preferred over metallic patters in foundry as they
a. are rigid
b. are strong
c. provide good surface finish
d. can be made to different shapes easily
61) Shrinkage allowance is provided on a patter by
a. adding to internal and external dimensions
b. subtracting from internal and external dimensions
c. adding to external dimension and subtracting from internal dimensions
d. subtracting from external dimensions and adding to internal dimensions
62) Foundry sands are graded according to their
a. source of availability
b. moisture content
c. strength
d. clay content and grain size
63) In ultrasonic machining, diamond powder is used for cutting of
a. tungsten carbide
b. hardened tool steel
c. diamond
d. glass
64) The following device is used for converting electrical impulses into mechanical vibrations in ultrasonic machining:
a. Transducer
b. Oscillator
c. Trunk
d. Pump

65) In electrochemical machining process, metal removal rate depends on

a. hardness of tool
b. hardness of workpiece
c. both on hardness of tool and workpiece
d. is independent of the hardness of tool and workpiece
66) In electrochemical machining process, removal of metal takes place
a. by dissolution of metal from the job
b. by shearing action of cutting tool
c. by bombardment of abrasive particles
d. by sparking of the job
67) In abrasive jet machining, removal of metal takes place by bombardment of fine-grained particles.
a. with air at high speed
b. with water at high speed
c. with kerosene at high speed
d. at controlled rate in brine
68) A countour of exact dimensions is to be cut on tungsten carbide tool. The most appropriate method
a. electro discharge machining
b. ultrasonic machining
c. plasma arc machining
d. electron beam machining
69) Sharp comers cannot be produced by the following method:
a. electro chemical machining
b. electro discharge machining
c. laser beam machining
d. plasma arc machining
70) The following method is used for machining very hard, fragile and heat-sensitive materials.
a. high-velocity forming
b. hot machining
c. Electro hydraulic forming
d. electrical discharge machining
71) Lathes can be made automatic by incorporating the following devices:
a. gears and mechanical devices
b. cams and mechanical devices
c. pulleys and gears
d. pulleys and hydraulic systems
72) Which one of the following is not a special purpose machine?
a. gear shaper
b. gear hobber
c. jig boring
d. broaching machine
73) The following machine is most suitable for making watch components:
a. tool room lathe
b. capstan lathe.
c. CNC lathe
d. multiple-spindle automatic machine
74) The following is not a feature of turret-type automatic screw machine:
a. It is suitable for machining heavy castings
 b. Interchangeability of cams is quick
c. In has micrometer tool setting
d. It is provided with five tool slides
75) Loam sand used for making moulds comprises of
a. 40% clay, 10% moisture
b. 60% clay, 15% moisture
c. 50% clay, 18% moisture
d. 80% clay, 20% moisture
76) Dilameter is used to find out
a. hot strength
b. cold strength
c. clay content
d. Compactness
77) In the case of machine moulding, the patterns are mounted on
a. moulding table
b. match plate
c. moulding boards
d. follow boards
78) Sprue in casting refers to
a. pattem projections
b. gate
c. horizontal passage
d. vertical passage
79) Wax pattern is used for making the following type of mould
a. centrifugal casting
b. semi-centrifugal casting
c. investment casting
d. slush molding
80) In a permanent mould casting method,
a. liquid metal is fed into the cavity and it flows under the action of gravity to fill the mould
b. metal is forced under pressure
c. first vacuum is created and then metal is fed
d. sand moulds are used
81) Pipes subjected to very high pressure are made by
a. extrusion process
b. Bessemer process
c. sand casting
d. forging
82) In centrifugal casting, cores made of
a. steel are used
b. wax are used
c. lead are used
 d. no core is used
83) The method of making components by centrifugal casting is used to ensure
a. the purity of the material
b. strong central portion
c. rapid chilling effect
d. pure castings of high density
84) Hot chamber die casting method is used to cast
a. Steel
b. cast iron
c. brass
d. alloys of lead, tin and zinc
85) In hot chamber die casting process,
a. only low melting point alloys can be cast
b. high melting point alloys are cast
c. die is kept hot by electrical heating
d. only ornaments are cast
86) In cold chamber method of die casting
a. only low melting point metals can be cast
b. high melting point metals can be cast
c. die is kept hot by electrical heating
d. heating is done by induction
87) Steel and cast iron pipes are cast by the following process
a. Centrifuging
b. true centrifuging
c. investment casting
d. Corthias process
88) Jolt machine produces uniform ramming
a. around the pattem
b. about the flask
c. throughout the mould
d. at parting line
89) In sand casting, the central part of a three-box mould is called as
a. Cope
b. Drag
c. Cheek
d. Support
90) A green sand
a. is green in colour
b. gets green colour after pouring the metal
c. contains moisture when molten metal is poured
d. is used after drying the box
91) The maximum quantity of water in moulding sand is
 a. 5%
b. 8%
c. 12%
d. 15%
92) In sand moulding, the bottommost part is called as
a. Cope
b. Drag
c. Cheek
d. support box
93) Chaplets are used for
a. chilling the casting
b. supporting the core
c. directional solidification
d. controlling the shrinkage
94) Chills are provided at appropriate locations in the mould walls
a. to increase the freezing rate
b. to decrease the freezing rate
c. for progressive solidification
d. for directional solidification
95) Riddie is:
a. a round sieve
b. used for sand preparation
c. used for repairing the corners of the mould
d. used for cutting the runners
96) The quantity of gas generated in a mould made from synthetic sand as compared to silica sand is
a. more
b. less
c. same
d. unpredictable
97) Fluidity of metal is greatly influenced by
a. carbon content
b. silicon content
c. pouring temperature of molten metal
d. addition of inoculants
98) The mold is housed in a
a. moulding flask
b. cope
c. drag
d. cheek
99) Gate is provided in moulds to
a. ompensates for shrinkage
b. avoid cavities
 c. feed the casting at a constant rate
d. give passage to gases
100) Lifter is:
a. a round sieve
b. used for cutting gates
c. used to scoop sand deep in the mould
d. used to lift sand from floor and pour in moulding box
101) The following type of sand is used to prevent the green sand from sticking to the mould
a. parting sand
b. loam sand
c. moulding sand
d. core sand
102) The following type of sand is better for steel castings
a. fine grain sand
b. coarser grain sand
c. facing sand
d. reclaimed sand
103) The term “group cell” is mainly used for a group of
a. One to two machines
b. Three to four machines
c. Six to eight machines
d. 12 to 16 machines
104) Which one of the following is not a part of FMS data file
a. Part program file
b. Routing file
c. Pallet reference file
d. Maintenance file
105) CAD is used for
a. Designing of components
b. Optimization of design
c. Modification of design
d. All the above
106) The generally used application of CAD is
a. Graphic input-output device to perform many routine aspects of design
b. To portray an object in a three-dimensional view
c. Quick calculation and results in engineering design
d. All the above
107) A programmable controller stores instructions for implementing the following functions
a. Sequencing of operations
b. Arithmetic calculations
c. Industrial applications like welding and casting
d. All the above
108) A good design requires
a. Analysis only
b. Synthesis only
c. Analysis and Synthesis
d. Analysis, Synthesis and Scheduling
109) Morphology of the design consists of the following steps:
a. Feasibility study and preliminary design
b. Detailed design and planning for manufacturing
c. Planning for distribution and use
d. All the above
110) A satisfactory design must
a. Meet the required performance specifications
b. rigid in construction
c. Fulfil machining functions
d. All of the above
111) CAM database system is extensively used in
a. Numerical control part programming
b. Lathe
c. Milling machine
d. Jig boring
112) CIMS incorporates the technologies of
a. CNC only
b. DNC only
c. Industrial robotics and group technology
d. All of the above
113) Which of the following is a manufacturing system?
a. Manufacturing cell
b. Manufacturing unit
c. Production castings
d. Rolling mill
114) The production rate of the following type of manufacturing system is the lowest:
a. Special manufacturing system
b. Manufacturing cell
c. Flexible manufacturing system
d. Magnum cell
115) In a pallet-type multipurpose automatic machine
a. One operation is performed on a spindle
b. Each operation if performed on each spindle of the machine
c. Various operations are performed in stages
d. Only ceramic tools are used for machining
116) Which of the following is not an advantage of transfer machining
a. Loading and unloading time is eliminated
 b. Life of cutting tools is enhanced considerably
c. It is suitable for general purpose of work
d. Components produced are cheap and accurate
117) The following system of instructions is used on the tape of NC machine tools:
a. Numeric
b. Alphanumeric
c. Binary numbers
d. Binary coded decimal
118) The operation of NC machine tools is based on
a. Feedback system
b. Numerical controls
c. A series of coded instruction
d. Direct wired NC
119) Conventional NC system is also known as
a. Hard wired system
b. Soft wired system
c. Computerized numerical control
d. Direct wired NC
120) In an NC machine tools, the instructions are fed in the form of machine language and implemented with
the help of magnetic cabinet that controls the direction and length of tool travel. It is done with the help of a
a. Microprocessor
b. Servomotor
c. Transducer
d. Slides
121) In an NC machine tool, all steps are
a. Written in the form of a manuscript and programmed tape is developed
b. Developed directly on the programmed tape
c. Developed with the help of computer
d. Developed by the drawing and then transferred to computer
122) Point-to-point positioning method of operation
a. Is done with the help of computer
b. Is done without computer
c. Any of the above
d. Is one in which the programmer uses pseudo-English language also called APT
123) A device that allows a computer to transmit information over a telephone line is known as
a. Modem
b. E-mail
c. Fax
d. Internet
124) The criteria for selection of a CNC machine tool is
a. Good quality production
b. Automatic production
 c. Operators ease
d. All of the above
125) Linear interpolation is used for generating
a. Straight lines
b. Circles
c. Hyperbola
d. Parabola
126) A jig is a device that
a. Holds the job
b. Rotated the job
c. Reciprocated the job
d. Holds the job and guides the tool
127) A fixture is a device that
a. Holds the job
b. Holds the tool
c. Rotates the job
d. Rotate the job and guide the cutter
128) Jigs and fixtures are used om industry to
a. Increase the rate of production
b. Reduce the time of machining
c. Increase machining accuracy
d. Enable employment of class-skilled operator
129) A jig is commonly used on the following type of machine
a. Lathe
b. Milling machine
c. Drilling machine
d. Shaper
130) A jig and fixture is used when
a. High degree of accuracy Is required
b. A few components are to be produced
c. Different types of components are produced
d. Mass production of parts if required
131) The commonly used material for making jigs and fixture is
a. Brass
b. Wrought iron
c. Steel
d. Aluminum
132) The six-point location of a rectangular block uses the following method of location
a. 1-1-4 method
b. 2-2-2 method
c. 3-2-1 method
d. Any of the above
133) The commonly used material for making bushes is
a. Aluminum
b. Copper
c. Wrought iron
d. Hardened steel
134) Electro discharge machining (EDM) or spark erosion process can be used for machining
a. Conducting materials only
b. Non-conducting materials only
c. Semi-conducting materials only
d. All types of machining
135) In EDM process of machining, for drilling deep holes of small diameter, the following tool material should
be used:
a. Brass wire
b. Stainless steel wire
c. Tungsten wire
d. Copper wire
136) In electro discharge machining (EDM), metal removal takes place by
a. Erosion of metal
b. Dissolution of metal
c. Corrosion of metal
d. Chemical reaction of metal
137) The temperature developed due to the formation of spark in EDM process is
a. 2000 deg. C
b. 4000 deg. C
c. 5000 deg. C
d. 10000 deg. C
138) In EDM process for formation of spark,
a. The tool must be completely immersed in the dielectric fluid
b. The job must be completely immersed in the dielectric fluid
c. Both tool and job must be completely immersed in the dielectric fluid
d. No fluid is required
139) Slag inclusion in casting is a
a. Surface defect
b. Internal defect
c. Design defect
d. Metal pouring defect
140) The system of manufacturing, in which the dimensions of parts liw within some specified limits, is known
as
a. Mass production system
b. Batch production system
c. Interchangeable system
d. Group technology
141) In an interchangeable system of manufacturing
a. Individual fittings take place
b. The components assemble together at random
c. Components can be produces on traditional machines
d. Highly skilled labor is needed to operate the machine
142) Tolerances are specified on components
a. Because it is not possible to produce the exact size
b. To obtain desired fits
c. To have proper allowances
d. To facilitate inspection
143) In the system of limits and fits, the term allowance refers to
a. Minimum clearance between shaft and hole
b. Maximum clearance between shaft and hole
c. Difference between maximum and minimum size of hole
d. Difference between maximum and minimum size of shaft
144) Surface roughness on a drawing is represented by
a. Squares
b. Circles
c. Triangles
d. Dots
145) The system of expressing the size as 25.4 (raised to -0.05) mm is known as
a. Unilateral tolerance system
b. Bilateral tolerance system
c. Limiting dimension system
d. Universal tolerance system
146) The system of expressing the size as 25.4 – 0.20+0.00 mm is known as
a. Unilateral dimension system
b. Bilateral dimension system
c. Limiting dimension system
d. Universal dimension system
147) The most suitable method of mass production of gears is
a. Milling
b. Shaping
c. Casting
d. Forming
148) The following is a gear finishing operation
a. Milling
b. Shaping
c. Hobbing
d. Shaving or Bumishing
149) Gear shaping is related to\
a. Casting
 b. Forming
c. Hobbing
d. Generating
150) Bumishing operation is related to
a. Gear finishing
b. Gear production
c. Heat treatment of gears
d. Gear shaving
151) Delta iron is stable
a. At room temperature
b. Above melting point
c. Between 910 and 1410 deg. C
d. Between 1410 and 1539 deg. C
152) Ferromagnetic alpha iron transforms to paramagnetic alpha iron at the following temperature on heating
a. 723 deg. C
b. 910 deg. C
c. 777 deg. C
d. 1400 deg. C
153) Eutectoid steel contains the following amount of carbon:
a. Less than 0.3%
b. 0.8%
c. 1.3-0.6%
d. 1.2-2.0%
154) The minimum amount of carbon in cast iron is
a. 0.6%
b. 2.0%
c. 0.8%
d. 4.3%
155) In grey cast iron, carbon is present in the following form
a. Free carbon
b. Flakes
c. Cementite
d. Nodular aggregates of graphite
156) In malleable iron, carbon exists in the following form
a. Free carbon
b. Flakes
c. Cementite
d. Nodular aggregates of graphite
157) Annealing of white cast iron is done to obtain
a. Malleable iron
b. Spheroidal iron
c. Nodular iron
 d. Wrought iron
158) Depth of hardness of steel increases by addition of
a. Silicon
b. Nickel
c. Vanadium
d. Chromium
159) Hardness of martensite on Rockwell C scale is
a. 45 Re
b. 50 Re
c. 55 Re
d. 65 Re
160) High-speed steel contains
a. 18% tungsten. 4% chromium and 1% vanadium
b. 18% tungsten, 4% vanadium and 1% chromium
c. 18% tungsten, 8% nickel and 1% manganese
d. 18% tungsten, 4% manganese and 1% nickel
161) Cupola is used for production of the following material
a. Mild steel
b. Pig iron
c. Cast iron
d. Wrought iron
162) Balls used in ball bearings are made of
a. Carbon-nickel steel
b. Carbon-chromium steel
c. Carbon-tungsten steel
d. Carbon-vanadium steel
163) Corrosion resistance of steel is increased by adding
a. Manganese and nickel
b. Chromium and tungsten
c. Chromium and nickel
d. Chromium and vanadium
164) Hot chisel is made from
a. 4% nickel
b. 4% chromium
c. 4% tungsten
d. 4% vanadium
165) Hammers are used in fitting shop are made of
a. Wrought iron
b. Low-carbon steel
c. Medium-carbon steel
d. High-carbon steel
166) The following process is not used for production of gears
 a. Milling
b. Broaching
c. hot rolling
d. extruding
167) Cutting of gears on gear hobbing machine is faster than milling machine because
a. indexing time is less
b. hob rotates faster
c. several teeth can be cut at a time
d. work rotates faster
168) The following method produces gear by generating process:
a. Casting
b. Milling
c. Broaching
d. Hobbing
169) The following type of gear can withstand shock and vibrations:
a. gears with stub teeth
b. hybrid gears
c. bevel gear
d. hardened gears
170) The following type of motion does not take place while cutting gears with a hob
a. rotation hub
b. indexing of work
c. radial feed of hob
d. rotation of blank
171) Gears from sheet metal for mass production are produced by the following
a. gear milling
b. gear shaping
c. stamping
d. casting
172) For milling operating can be used for cutting the following type of gears
a. Spur
b. Bevel
c. Worm
d. all of the above
173) Gear shaper can cut the following types of gear
a. internal gears
b. external gears
c. gears to great accuracy
d. all of the above
174) Stub tooth in gears means
a. standard tooth
b. longer than standard tooth
 c. shorter than standard tooth
d. special profile tooth
175) The part of the tooth between the pitch circle and the dedendum circle is called a as
a. Profile
b. Flank
c. Face
d. Curvature
176) Press working is a
a. chipless metal removal process done on sheet metal
b. chipless metal removal process carries out for reducing thickness of job
c. metal removål process carried out by a tool
d. metal deformation process carried above recrystallization temperature
177) Which one of the following is a press working operation?
a. Spinning
b. Blanking
c. Upsetting
d. Extrusion
178) Which one of the following is not a press working operation?
a. Notching
b. Swaging
c. Blanking
d. Squeezing
179) The process of cutting or shearing the piece to the required contour the stock is known as.
a. Shaving
b. Blanking
c. Notching
d. Punching
180) The plate on which the die is mounted is known as a
a. die block
b. die set
c. die holder
d. die stock
181) The desired property of a material for press working operation is
a. Hardness
b. Ductility
c. Elasticity
d. fatigue resistance
182) The clearance for blanking operation is provided on
a. die only
b. punch only
c. both die and punch
d. die and base plate
183) The die and punch used in pressworking is made of the following steel
a. high-speed steel
b. high cobalt steel
c. chromium nickle steel
d. high carbon high chromium steel
184) Which one of the following is not a pressworking die:
a. vee bending die
b. extrusion die
c. deep drawing die
d. progressive die
185) Progressive dies possess the following advantage over simple dies:
a. skill involved in manufacturing the die is lesser
b. tool maintenance cost is lesser
c. cost of making the die is lesser
d. material handling is lesse
186) Heat treatment is necessary on the following steel components.
a. rolled parts
b. all the above
c. forgings
d. castings
187) Annealing of components is done to increase
a. Hardness
b. wear resistance
c. machinability
d. all of the above
188) Selection of heat treatment process depends on
a. chemical composition of metal
b. recrystallization temperature of metal
c. critical temperature of metal
d. structural changes required
189) Which one of the following is not a heat treatment process
a. Annealing
b. Sintering
c. Tempering
d. Cyandind
190) At room temperature ferrite has a
a. cubic structure
b. BCC structure
c. FCC structure
d. CPH structure
191) The main constituent of 0.8% annealed steel is
a. Ferrite
 b. Cementite
c. Martensite
d. pear lits
192) The main constituent of 0.8% hardened steel is
a. Cementite
b. Martensite
c. Ledebrite
d. Sorbite
193) The hardness of a component is reduced considerably by
a. Annealing
b. Hardening
c. Tempering
d. stress relieving
194) Mild steel is also known as
a. low carbon steel
b. medium carbon steel
c. high carbon steel
d. alloy steel
195) The following type of drive is used in robots for great speed and strength
a. electrical drive
b. hydraulic drive
c. pneumatic drive
d. mechanical drive
196) The following type of drive system is used for smaller robots
a. electrical drive
b. hydraulic drive
c. pneumatic drive
d. all of the above
197) The device mounted on the wrists of robots to perform specified tasks known as
a. Range
b. end effector
c. accuracy
d. sensor
198) The mechanism that permits relative movement between parts of a robot is known as
a. robot joint
b. spatial resolution
c. end effector
d. sensor
199) The ability of a robot to position its end at a desired target point within its reach is called as
a. Accuracy
b. Casting
c. assembly of jobs
 d. number of jobs
200) General purpose robot is designed to perform the following jobs
a. Welding
b. Casting
c. assembly jobs
d. number of jobs
201) A limited sequence robot is
a. the most ordinary type of robot
b. provided with controller
c. a playback robot
d. can intelligent robot
202) An automated guided vehicle system (AGVS) has programming capabilities
a. Positioning
b. path selection
c. destination
d. all of the above
203) An AGVS comes to a dead stop automatically before any damage is done to personnel materials or
structure. It is done by the application of
a. Sensor
b. Controllers
c. Microprocessors
d. servo system
204) An on board microprocessor is used on each AGVS to guide the vehicle
a. to destination
b. along the prescribed path
c. to make corrections in path
d. both B and C
205) The components of AGVS include
a. control unit
b. guide path
c. computer interface
d. all of the above
206) An AGVS is suitable to meet service requirements of
a. one type only
b. two types only
c. maximum of four types
d. different types
207) The following types of AGVS was used for the first time and is still very popular.
a. GVS pallet trucks
b. AGVS towing vehicles
c. AGVS forklift trucks
d. AGVS light load transporters
208) Main advantage of AGVS guidance system is
a. low cost
b. flexibility
c. high cost initially
d. none of these
209) AGVS towing vehicle is
a. a single compartment vehicle
b. a multi compartment vehicle
c. an automated guided tractor
d. a special device
210) CNC machine tool ensure
a. quality production of small batches of complex contours
b. production of small components like nuts and bolts
c. rapid production of sheet metal components
d. rapid production with the help of templates
211) A CNC machine tool must possess
a. strength to enable machining at rapid speeds
b. stiffness against deformation
c. accuracy of moving parts and components to be produced
d. all of the above
212) The main function of spindle is
a. holding the job
b. holding the tool
c. holding the centering the job
d. holding and rotating the job about central axis
213) The following device is used for transmitting energy in CNC machine tools
a. pulley and belt
b. gears
c. screw and nut assembly
d. recirculating ball screw and nut assembly
214) A CNC machine tool consists of a maintenance and repairing system. This system is known as
a. machine control
b. diagnostics
c. in process compensation
d. line maintenance
215) The method by which the control system calculates the interim mediate points and speed of the motor is
known as
a. control system
b. director
c. interpolator
d. motion control system
216) in C-L type motion control system, contour milling is carried out by using
 a. all the three axes on the worktable
b. two axis on the worktable and one on the cutter
c. one axis on the worktable and two.on the cutter
d. all the three axes on the cutter
217) The following machine tool is used for continuous path contouring
a. vertical column table machines
b. gantry type machine
c. machine centres
d. jig borers
218) The following machine has a non rotating workpiece and non rotating tool
a. Lathe
b. milling machine
c. shaper
d. grinder
219) The following machine has no spindle
a. Lathe
b. Turret
c. Shaper
d. milling machine
220) Sensing of errors and their rectification during processing is known as
a. Scrutinizing
b. Diagnostics
c. in process probing
d. MCU
221) Numerical control part programming is the procedure involving a sequence of steps to be performed by a
a. Programmer
b. computer.
c. Operator
d. machine tool
222) The primary function of AGVS guidance system is
a. keep the vehicle in its predetermined path
b. to initiate a tum
c. to increase and decrease speed
d. to change the path for shortest route
223) An AGVS control system, in which all the transactions and movements are controlled and monitored by
the system, is known as
a. manual control system
b. computer-controlled system
c. remote control system
d. remote dispatch control system
224) Flexible manufacturing system
a. is another name of group technology
 b. consists of a number of stations arranged according to sequence of operations
c. is capable of processing a variety of different types of parts simultaneously under CNC program
d. consists of a number of general-purpose machine tool
225) FMS is
a. another name of flexible automation
b. a combination of computer-controlled machine tools
c. an automated material handling device
d. Combination of A, B, and C above
226) Part similarities can be classified as
a. cutting tool attributes
b. machine tool attributes
c. design attributes and manufacturing attributes
d. process attributes only
227) An FMS consists of a group of processing stations. These processing stations predominantly consist of
a. NC Machine tools
b. CNC machine tools
c. special purpose machine tools
d. precision machine tools
228) Processing stations in a CNC flexible manufacturing system is used for
a. material handling and storage
b. machining of families of parts
c. coordination of activities
d. loading and unloading the work
229) A flexible system
a. possesses lesser flexibility than transfer lines
b. possesses greater flexibility than transfer lines
c. is capable of producing batch-type production only
d. is suitable for producing various types of simultaneously
230) A machining centre is
a. a computer-controlled single purpose machine
b. a computer-controlled general purpose machine
c. capable of performing a number of different machining operations on a workpiece in one setup
under program control
d. a highly precision boring machine tool
231) Prismatic parts resemble the shape of a
a. cube or cuboid
b. cylinder
c. sphere
d. hemisphere
232) When the part family is large, having substantial variations in the part configuration, the following type of
FMS is the most appropriate:
a. random-order FMS
b. prismatic FMS
c. round FMS
d. in-line FMS