Name: _______________________ Std. ______ Sec. ______ Roll no.

___

DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL, JODHPUR

PHYSICS SPIRAL

SESSION 2022-23

Class - X

1
 Split Up of Syllabus Physics X

Month Chapter
April & May  Light-Reflection
 Light- Refraction
July
PERIODIC I EXAM
 Human Eye & Colourful
August
World
September PERIODIC II EXAM
October  Current Electricity
 Magnetic Effects of Current
November
 Sources of Energy
December PERIODIC III
January  PRE BOARD EXAM
February  Revision

March BOARD EXAM

2
 LIST OF PRACTICALS ( for physics)

(Practicals will be conducted alongside the concepts taught in theory classes)

Month Practical
 To determine the focal length of concave mirror by
April & May obtaining the image of a distant object.
 To determine the focal length of convex lens by obtaining
the image of a distant object.
 To trace the path of a ray of light passing through a
rectangular glass slab for different angles of incidence.
July Measure the angle of incidence, angle of refraction, angle of
emergence and interpret the result.
 Finding the image distance for varying object distances in
case of a convex lens and drawing corresponding ray
diagrams to show the nature of image formed.
 To trace the path of the rays of light passing through a glass
August prism.
 To study the dependence of potential difference (V) across a
resistor on the current (I) passing through it and determine
October its resistance. Also plot a graph between V and I.
&November
 To determine the equivalent resistance of two resistors when
connected in series and parallel.

3
CHAPTER : LIGHT ( REFLECTION & REFRACTION )

Multiple Choice Questions

1. Laws of reflection hold good for -

(a) plane mirror. (b) concave mirror.
(c) convex mirror. (d) all types of mirrors.

2. Which of the following characteristics of a spherical mirror is given by the

ratio of the size of the image to the size of the object?
(a) aperture (b) magnification (c) focal length (d) radius of curvature

3. A convex lens has a focal length of 10 cm. The object of height 2 mm is

placed at a distance of 5 cm from the pole. The height of the image is –
(a) 4 cm (b) 6.67 mm (c) 4 mm (d) 3.33 mm

4. In the diagram shown here, a light ray is

incident on a convex mirror. Through which
point will the ray travel after reflecting off the
mirror?
(a) C (b) F (c) X (d) Z

5. While shaving, a man keeps a concave mirror at a distance of 25 cm from

his face. If an erect image 1.5 times the size of the face is observed by him,
focal length of the mirror would be -
(a) 75 cm (b) 25 cm (c) 15 cm (d) 60 cm

6. Which type of mirror produces an image that is always virtual, erect and of
the same size as the object is?
(a) Convex (b) Concave (c) Plane (d) Parabolic

7. Among the following media, light will travel slowest through -

(a) diamond (b) water (c) glass (d) air

4
8. An object 3 cm in height is placed at the centre of curvature of a concave
mirror with focal length 6 cm. The magnification of the image formed is -
(a) +1.5 (b) -1 (c) +1 (d) -1.5

9. A beam of light consisting of three rays P, Q and R is

incident on a transparent plastic block from air as
shown in the figure. Which of the following statements is
true?
(a) Refractive index for P is greater than that for Q.
(b) Refractive index for P is greater than that for R.
(c) Refractive index for R is greater than that for Q.
(d) Refractive index for P, Q and R is same.

10. A student studies that convex lens always forms virtual image irrespective
of its position. What causes the convex mirror to always form a virtual image?
(a) The reflected rays never intersect.
(b) The reflected rays converge at a single point.
(c) The incident ray traces its path back along the principal axis.
(d) The ray incident on a convex mirror gets absorbed in the mirror.

11. If a virtual, erect and enlarged image is formed by a lens, then which of the
following options are correct?
(a) It is a concave lens and the object is placed between pole and focus.
(b) It is a convex lens and the object is placed between focus and centre of
curvature.
(c) It is a convex lens and the object is placed between pole and focus.
(d) It is a concave lens and the object is placed between focus and centre of
curvature.

12. The refractive index of water is 1.33. The speed of light in water will be -
(a) 1.33×108 m/s (b) 3×108 m/s (c) 2.26×108 m/s (d) 2.66×108 m/s

5
For question numbers 1 to 5, two statements are given- one labelled Assertion
(A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these
questions from the codes (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) as given below.
i) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of the assertion.
ii) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
iii) A is true but R is false.
iv) A is false but R is true.

1. Assertion (A): The focal length of the convex mirror will increase, if it is
immersed in water.
Reason (R): The focal length of a convex mirror is half of its radius of
curvature R.
Ans.

2. Assertion (A): A ray of light incident along the normal to the plane
mirror retraces its path after reflection from the mirror.
Reason (R): A ray of light incident along the normal makes an angle of
incidence 00 and hence the angle of reflection is also 00.
Ans.

3. Assertion (A): A light ray passing from water to kerosene bends towards
normal.
Reason (R): The refractive index of kerosene is more than water.
Ans.

4. Assertion (A): Lemon kept in water in a glass tumbler appears larger in

size.
Reason (R): Ray of light travelling from water to air undergoes refraction
of light.
Ans.

5. Assertion (A): The refractive index of glass with respect to air is

different for red light and violet light.
Reason (R): Refractive index of a pair of media depends on the
wavelength of incident light.
Ans.

6
 Case study based questions:

Analyze the following observation table showing variation of image

distance (v) with object distance (u) in case of a convex lens and answer
the questions that follow (calculations need not to be done):
S.No. Object distance (cm) Image distance (cm)
i - 100 + 25
ii - 60 + 30
iii - 40 + 40
iv - 30 + 60
v - 15 + 120

(i) What is the focal length of the convex lens? Give reason to justify
your answer.

(ii) Write the serial number of the observation which is not correct.
On what basis have you arrived at this conclusion?

(iii) Draw a ray diagram for the observation at s.no. (ii). Also find
the approximate value of magnification.

7
 A student focused the image of a candle flame on a white screen using a
convex lens. He noted down the position of the candle screen and the lens
as under:
Position of candle = 12.0 cm
Position of convex lens = 50.0 cm
Position of the screen = 88.0 cm

(i) What is the focal length of the convex lens?

(ii) Where will the image be formed if he shifts the candle

towards the lens at a position of 31.0 cm?

(iii) What will be the nature of the image formed if he further shifts
the candle towards the lens?

 Identify the device used as a spherical mirror or a lens in the following cases,
when the image formed is virtual and erect in each case.
(a) Object is placed between device and its focus, image formed is enlarged
and behind it.

(b) Object is placed between the focus and device, image formed is enlarged
and on the same side as that of the object.

(c) Object is placed between infinity and device, image formed is diminished
and between focus and optical centre on the same side as that of the object.

(d) Object is placed between infinity and device, image formed is

diminished and between pole and focus, behind it.

8
CHAPTER : HUMAN EYE AND COLOURFUL
WORLD

Multiple Choice Questions

1: In which of the following optical phenomenon,
white light splits into its seven constituent
colours?
(a) Refraction (b) Reflection (c) Dispersion (d) Interference

2: A human eye can focus on objects at different distances by adjusting the

focal length of the eye lens. This phenomenon is due to:
(a) near sightedness. (b) long sightedness.
(c) power of accommodation. (d) persistence of vision.

3: A person standing at point Y is watching a car coming from a point X to O

as shown.

The table shows the variation in the

parts of eye while seeing the car at X
and O. Which change in the person’s
eye would likely to occur while
watching the car?
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 4 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 4

4: The human eye forms the image of an object at its

(a) cornea (b) iris (c) pupil (d) retina

5: The least distance of distinct vision for a young adult with normal vision is
about –
(a) 25 m (b) 2.5 cm (c) 25 cm (d) 2.5 m

9
6: A person cannot see objects clearly beyond 50 cm. The power of the lens
used to correct the vision is -
(a) +5 D (b) -0.5 D (c) -2 D (d) +2 D

7: Which phenomenon is responsible for the twinkling of stars?

(a) Atmospheric reflection (b) Atmospheric refraction
(c) Reflection (d) Total internal reflection

8: The change in focal length of an eye lens is caused by the action of the -
(a) pupil (b) retina (c) ciliary muscles (d) iris

9: What is the time difference between actual sunset and apparent sunset?
(a) 2 s (b) 20 s (c) 2 minute (d) 20 minute

10: When light passes through a prism, the colour which deviates the least is:
(a) red (b) blue (c) violet (d) green

11: A student learns that the scattering of sunlight depends on the wavelength
of the light and size of particles present in the atmosphere. The student collects
the data about the wavelength of the visible lights and size of the particle as
shown here.

Which particles will scatter blue light?

(a) P and R (b) R and S (c) P and Q (d) Q and S

12. The change in focal length of an eye lens to focus the image of objects at
varying distances is done by the ________.
(a) pupil (b) ciliary muscles (c) retina (d) blind spot

10
13. The cone cells of the retina are sensitive to
(a) frequency of light (b) intensity of light
(c) colour of light (d) speed of light

14. The defect observed only in old persons due to the weakening of ciliary
muscles is -
(a) myopia (b) hypermetropia (c) presbyopia (d) colour blindness

15. Separation of different colours of white light by a glass prism is called -

(a) refraction (b) diffraction (c) dispersion (d) reflection

16. The layer of atmosphere near the earth’s surface as compared to layers at
higher altitude is optically -
(a) rarer (b) denser (c) can be rarer or denser (d) same

17. The fluid between the retina and the eye lens is called as _______.
(a) aqueous humour (b) vitreous humour (c) aqua (d) humus

18. 1 D is the power of a lens of focal length ______ cm.

(a) 100 (b) 10 (c) 1/10 (d) 1/100

For question numbers 1 to 5, two statements are given- one labelled Assertion
(A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these
questions from the codes (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) as given below
i) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of the assertion.
ii) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
iii) A is true but R is false.
iv) A is false but R is true.

1. Assertion (A): Human eye can focus on far away as well as nearby objects.
Reason (R): Human eye can change the focal length of the eye.
Ans.

2. Assertion (A): In myopic eye the image is formed behind retina.

Reason (R): In myopia the converging power of eye lens increases.
Ans.
3. Assertion (A): A ray of white light on passing through a glass prism, splits in
seven colors.

11
 Reason (R): The splitting of white light on passing through a glass prism
occurs because different colors travel with different speed in glass prism.
Ans.
4. Assertion (A): Danger signals are red in colour.
Reason (R): Out of all the colours of visible light red colour has the smallest
wavelength and is scattered the most.
Ans.
5. Assertion (A): The clear sky appears blue in colour.
Reason (R): Violet and blue coloured light get scattered more than the light of
all other colours by the atmosphere.
Ans.

Case study based questions:

Until the 17th century, people didn’t know
how rainbow was formed and what it was
made of ! Before Isaac Newton discovered
the seven colours of light in rainbow,
everyone used to think there were only five
colours in the rainbow. Even today, average
Chinese people claim that there are only five
colors in a rainbow. We can obtain a band
of seven colours by passing a narrow beam
of white light through a triangular glass
prism. The pattern of the coloured bands
obtained on the screen is called spectrum.

a) Identify the phenomena shown in the above figure.

b) What is the reason of splitting of white light?

c) Name the colour which is deviated the least by the prism.

d) A spectrum is obtained by sending a beam of white light through a prism. How

can you obtain the beam of white light again from the spectrum?

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 Atmospheric optics is a collective name for
everything having to do with light and color in the
atmosphere. It deals with how the unique optical
properties of the earth’s atmosphere cause a wide
range of spectacular optical phenomena. Of all this,
everybody knows the rainbow; other examples are the
sunset colors, the flattening of the low sun, the
occasional solar rays, and the light curtains of Aurora.

1. At noon the sun appears white as:

(a) light is least scattered. (b) all the colours of white light are scattered away.
(c) blue colour is scattered the most. (d) red colour is scattered the most

2. Twinkling of stars is due to atmospheric -

(a) dispersion of light by water droplets.
(b) refraction of light by different layers of varying refractive indices.
(c) scattering of light by dust particles.
(d) internal reflection of light by clouds.

3. The clear sky appears blue because -

(a) blue light gets absorbed in the atmosphere.
(b) ultraviolet radiations are absorbed in the atmosphere.
(c) the size of particles in atmosphere is almost equal to the wavelength of blue
colour.
(d) wavelength of blue colour is higher than red and is scattered the most.

4. Which of the following phenomena of light are involved in the formation of

a rainbow?
(a) Reflection, refraction and dispersion
(b) Refraction, dispersion and total internal reflection
(c) Refraction, refraction and total internal refraction
(d) Dispersion scattering and total internal reflection

5. Advance sunrise and delayed sunset is due to ......... of sunlight.

(a) atmospheric refraction (b) dispersion
(c) scattering (d) total internal reflection

13
In an experiment, Pooja used a equilateral triangular glass prism and projected a
narrow beam of white light source from one side of the surface of the prism. She
placed a screen on the other side and saw many colours appearing as patches on
the screen. But when she used a red-light source, she could only see a red patch
on the screen. Similarly, she used a blue and green light source and could only
see one colour patch on both occasions.

1. The phenomenon that she was trying to demonstrate was:

A. Dispersion B. Reflection C. Refraction D. Scattering.

2. The reason why she could not see any other colour when the red light was
used was because:
A. Red colour does not refract in prism. B. Red colour is monochromatic.
C. The prism was defective. D. The prism is opaque to red colour.

3. Which of the following can be the correct explanation that Pooja can give
to her friends to explain this phenomenon?
A. Different colours of light travel faster in the glass prism at different rates.
B. Any light would disperse in the prism.
C. Different colours of light travel in the glass prism at same rates.
D. Different wavelengths travel at different speeds in the glass.

4. She also could relate to another natural phenomenon that we observe on a

rainy humid day as the sun comes out. What could be that phenomenon?
A. Lightning. B. Blueness of the sky.
C. Rainbow. D. Scattering of light

HOTS!

1. A man can read the number of a distant bus clearly but he finds difficulty in
reading a book. From which defect of the vision, he is suffering from?

2. The near point of a hypermetropic eye is at 75 cm from the eye. Find the
power of the lens required to enable him to read clearly a book held at 25 cm
from the eye.

14
 CHAPTER: ELECTRICITY

Multiple Choice Questions

1: A conducting wire carries 1021 electrons in 4 minutes. What is the current
flowing through the wire?
(a) 40 A (b) 6.67 A (c) 4 A (d) 0.67 A

2: A battery of 10 volt carries 20,000 C of charge through a resistance of 20 Ω.

The work done in 10 seconds is -
(a) 2 × 103 J (b) 2 × 105 J (c) 2 × 104 J (d) 2 × 102 J

3: The V – I graph of a resistor is shown here.

The value of resistance is -
(a) 0.25 Ω (b) 1.6 Ω (c) 4 Ω (d) 5 Ω

4: To get a net resistance of 2 Ω using only 6 Ω

resistors, the number of 6 Ω resistors required is -
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 6

5: A wire of length l, made of material resistivity r is cut into two equal parts.
The resistivity of the two parts are equal to -
(a) ρ/2 (b) ρ (c) 2 ρ (d) 4 ρ

6: Two resistors are connected in series gives an equivalent resistance of 10 Ω.

When connected in parallel, the resistance of the combination is 2.4 Ω. The
resistance individual resistors are -
(a) each of 5 Ω (b) 6 Ω and 4 Ω
(c) 7 Ω and 4 Ω (d) 8 Ω and 2 Ω

7: Which combination of a 2 Ω resistor and 4 Ω resistor offers the least

resistance to current in the circuit?
(a) Series combination, which results in a net resistance of 2 Ω.
(b) Parallel combination, which results in a net resistance of 2 Ω.
(c) Series combination, which results in a net resistance of 1.5 Ω.
(d) Parallel combination, which results in a net resistance of 0.5 Ω.

15
8: The temperature of a conductor is increased. The graph best showing the
variation of its resistance is –

9: Two resistors are connected in series gives an equivalent resistance of 10 Ω.

When connected in parallel, gives 2.4 Ω. Then the individual resistance are -
(a) each of 5Ω (b) 6Ω and 4Ω (c) 7Ω and 4Ω (d) 8Ω and 2Ω

10: If R1 and R2 be the resistance of the filament of 40 W and 60 W respectively

operating 220 V, then -
(a) R1 < R2 (b) R2 < R1 (c) R1 = R2 (d) R1 ≥ R2

11: A galvanometer is used to -

(a) measure potential difference (b) detect direction of current in the circuit
(c) measure amount of current flowing (d) measure electric power of the circuit

12. How much more heat is produced, if current is doubled?

(a) Twice the original amount (b) Thrice the original amount
(c) Four times the original amount (d) Five times the original amount

13. The image shows a combination of 4 resistors.

What is the net resistance between the two points
in the circuit?
(a) 0.5 Ω (b) 1.0 Ω (c) 1.5 Ω (d) 2.0 Ω

14. The maximum resistance ‘R’ obtained by using 2 Ω, 4 Ω, 1 Ω and 100 Ω is

(a) R > 100 Ω (b) R > 4 Ω (c) R > 1 Ω (d) R > 2 Ω

15. You are given ‘n’ resistors each of resistance R. The ratio of the maximum
to minimum resistance for their combinations will be
(a) 1/n2 (b) 1/n (c) n (d) n2

16
For questions numbered 1 to 5, two statements are given, one labelled
Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer from
the codes (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) as given below
i) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of the assertion.
ii) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
iii) A is true but R is false.
iv) A is false but R is true.

1. Assertion (A): Silver is not used to make electric wires.

Reason (R): Silver is a bad conductor of electricity.
Ans.

2. Assertion (A): Metals are good conductors of electricity whereas glass is a

bad conductor of electricity.
Reason (R): Metals are free electrons whereas glass does not have free
electrons.
Ans.

3. Assertion (A): Alloys are commonly used in making connecting wires in

electric circuit.
Reason (R): Alloys have high resistivity; high melting point and they do not
oxidize readily at high temperatures.
Ans.

4. Assertion (A): If a copper wire of resistance R is stretched to double its

length, is new resistance is 4R.
Reason (R): Resistance of a conductor is directly proportional to its length
and inversely proportional to its area of cross-section.
Ans.

5. Assertion (A): In an electric circuit two bulbs A and B of rating 60W and
100W respectively are connected in parallel to an electric source. The bulb
B will glow more brightly as compared to that of A.
Reason (R): An electric bulb consumes electric energy and converts it to
heat and light energy.
Ans.

17
 Case study based questions:
In order to make use of electric energy, the current has to be passed through
various devices and electric components. For this they need to be connected
properly with respect to each other and electric source. This systematic
arrangement of electric components and devices with the electric source is
called electric circuit. It is also important that the circuit arrangement be
represented schematically. The schematic representation of electric circuit is
called circuit diagram. In order to draw a circuit diagram, various electric
components and devices are represented by suitable symbols.
1.a) Draw a circuit diagram, comprising of two bulbs A and B rated 100W
220V and 60W 220V respectively, connected in parallel to electric supply
of 220V.

1.b) Find the current drawn by bulb A.

1.c) Find the ratio of the resistance of bulb A and bulb B.

Study the following table related to the values of electrical resistivity of some
substances, in ohm-metres at 20 °C.
Silver Copper Tungsten Mercury Iron Nichrome
1.60 x 10-8 1.62 x 10-8 5.2 x 10-8 94 x 10-8 10 x 10-8 1.0 x 10-5

2. a) Out of the two, nichrome and copper, which one is the better conductor of
electric current and why?

2. b) Name the material that you would advice to use as the heater element of
electric heating device. Give two reasons.

2. c) Out of silver, copper and iron, which one will you prefer to use in making
electrical wires for domestic circuits? Give reason.

The electrical energy consumed by an electrical appliance is given by the

18
product of its power rating and the time for which it is used. The SI unit of
electrical energy is Joule. Actually, Joule represents a very small quantity of
energy and therefore it is inconvenient to use where a large quantity of energy
is involved. So for commercial purposes we use a bigger unit of electrical
energy which is called kilowatt hour. 1 kWh is equal to 3.6 x 10 6 joules of
electrical energy.
(i) The energy dissipated by the heater is E. When the time of operating
the heater is doubled, the energy dissipated is
(a) doubled (b) halved (c) remains same (d) four times

(ii) The power of a lamp is 60 W The energy consumed in 1 minute is

(a) 360J (b) 36J (c) 3600J (d) 3.6 J

(iii) The electrical refrigerator rated 400 W operates 8 hours a day. The
cost of electrical energy is ₹5 per kWh. Find the cost of running the
refrigerator for one day?
(a) ₹32 (b) ₹16 (c) ₹8 (d) ₹4

(iv) Calculate the energy transformed by a 5 A current flowing through a

resistor of 2 ΩΩ for 30 minutes?
(a) 90 kJ (b) 80 kJ (c) 60 kJ (d) 40 kJ

(v) Which of the following is correct?

(a) 1 Wh = 3600 J
(b) l kWh = 36x106J
(c) Energy (in kWh) = power (in W) x time (in hr) / 1000
(d) Energy (in kWh) =V( volt )×I( ampere )×t( sec )1000

19
 Observe the given electric circuits carefully and answer the questions that follow:
Circuit A

1. Find the equivalent resistance of

the circuit?

2. What would be the reading in the ammeter?

3. What would be the reading in the voltmeter connected between the

points Q & R?

4. What would be the reading of a voltmeter connected between the points

P & S?

Circuit B
1. Which resistor carries the least current?

2. What is the current drawn by the 6 Ω resistor?

3. What would be the reading of the ammeter?

20
CHAPTER: MAGNETIC EFFECTS OF CURRENT
Multiple Choice Questions
1. The frequency of AC power supply used in India is
(a) 70Hz (b) 60 Hz (c) 50Hz (d) 30Hz

2. A device used to test whether the current is flowing

in a conductor or not is
(a) Ammeter (b) Galvanometer (c) Voltmeter (d) magnetometer

3. Relative strength of magnetic field at a point in the space surrounding the

magnet is shown by the
(a) length of magnet. (b) resistance offered by the surroundings.
(c) thickness of magnet. (d) degree of closeness of the field.

4. Current is passed through a straight wire. The magnetic field lines around it
are:
(a) circular (b) oval (c) straight (d) uniform

5. The first evidence that there exists a relationship between electricity and
magnetism was given by-
(a) Fleming (b) Tesla (c) Oersted (d) Coulomb

6. In the arrangement shown in the figure there are two coils wound on a non-
conducting cylindrical rod. Initially the key is not inserted. Then the key is
inserted and later removed. Then-
(a) the deflection in the galvanometer remains zero
throughout.
(b) there is a momentary deflection in the
galvanometer but it dies out shortly and there is no
effect when the keys is removed.
(c) there are momentary galvanometer deflections
that die out shortly; the deflections are in the same direction.
(d) there are momentary galvanometer deflections that die out shortly; the
deflection are in opposite directions.

21
7. Magnetic field inside a solenoid is:
(a) directly proportional to its length (b) directly proportional to current
(c) inversely proportional to number of turns (d) inversely proportional to current

8. A positively charged particle (alpha particle) projected

towards west is deflected towards north by a magnetic
field. The direction of magnetic field is:
(a) towards south. (b) towards east.
(c) downward. (d) upward.

10. A coil of insulated copper wire is connected to a galvanometer forming a

loop and a magnet is:
A: Held stationary
B: Moved away along its axis
C: Moved towards along its axis
There will be a induced current in which of the following cases:
(a) A only (b) A and B only (c) B and C only (d) A, B and C

11. The magnetic field inside the solenoid is

(a) non uniform (b) variable (c) same at all points (d) zero

12. Whose magnetic field is like a magnetic field of a bar magnetic?

(a) Current carrying wire (b) Current carrying ring
(c) Current carrying solenoid (d) Current carrying rectangular loop

13. A rectangular coil, ABCD is lying in the plane of the page

as shown. A bar magnet, with its north pole pointing towards
the page, is moved along a direction perpendicular to the plane
of the page. What is the direction of the induced current in the
coil?
(a) DABC (b) CBAD (c) Outwards (d) Inwards

14. A rectangular coil of copper wire is rotated in a magnetic field. The

direction of the induced current changes once in ------------- revolution(s).
(a) Two (b) One (c) Half (d) One-fourth

22
15. Which of the following statements correctly describes the magnetic field
near a long straight wire?
(a) The field consists of straight lines perpendicular to the wire.
(b) The field consists of straight lines parallel to the wire.
(c) The field consists of radial lines originating from the wire.
(d) The field consists of concentric circles centered on the wire.

16. The direction of magnetic field around a straight conductor carrying

current can be determined by:
(a) Right Hand Thumb rule (b) Fleming’s Right Hand rule
(c) Fleming's Left Hand rule (d) Maxwell’s cork screw rule

 For question numbers 1 to 5, two statements are given- one labelled

Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to
these questions from the codes (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) as given below
i) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of the assertion.
ii) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
iii) A is true but R is false.
iv) A is false but R is true.

1. Assertion (A): A fuse wire is always connected in parallel with the main line.
Reason (R): If current larger than the specified value flows through the
circuit, the fuse wire melts.
Ans.
2. Assertion (A): Electric appliances with metallic body have three pin
connections, where as an electric bulb has two pin connection.
Reason (R): Three pin connections reduce heating of connecting wires.
Ans.
3. Assertion (A): When a bar magnet is moved rapidly towards a coil connected
to a galvanometer the deflection in the galvanometer increases.
Reason(R): The magnitude of induced current depends on the rate of change
of magnetic flux in the coil.
Ans.
4. Assertion (A): Series arrangement is not used in domestic electric circuits.
Reason (R): If we switch off any one of the appliances, The circuit is broken
and all the appliances will stop working.
Ans.

23
5. Assertion (A): the deflection in the magnetic compass needle increases as we
move away from a straight current carrying conductor.
Reason (R): the strength of magnetic field decreases with the increase in the
distance from the current carrying conductor.
Ans.

Short Answer Questions:

1. Induced emf is directly proportional to the rate of change of magnetic flux.
[True/False]

2. When a coil and magnet both are stationary an induced emf is setup across
the coil. [True/False]

3. Name the device which is used to draw magnetic field lines.

4. A magnet AB is broken into two pieces. What is the polarity of A, B, C and D?

5. What is the direction of magnetic field lines inside and outside of a bar
magnet?

6. A magnetic needle deflects when it's brought near a current carrying

conductor. Why?

7. Suggest one way of discriminating a wire carrying current from a wire

carrying no current.

8. The diagram shows a coil of wire wound on a

soft iron core forming an electromagnet.
Current is passed through the coil in the
direction indicated by the arrows. Mark the N
& S poles produced in the iron core.

24
 9. What will the polarity be of one end of a solenoid if the current appears to
be flowing anticlockwise in it?

10. State the direction of magnetic field in the figures shown below:

11. An electron does not suffer any deflection while passing through a region of
uniform magnetic field. What is the direction of magnetic field?

12. A charged particle enters at right angles into a

uniform magnetic field as shown. What should be
the nature of charge on the particle if it begins to
move in a direction pointing vertically out of the
page due to its interaction with the magnetic field?

13. An electron beam is moving vertically upwards. If it passes through a

magnetic field which is directed from south to north in a horizontal plane,
then in which direction will the beam deflect?

14. The direction of electric current passed through

a vertical wire and through a horizontal card is
shown here.
Sketch the pattern of the magnetic field on the
card around the wire. Indicate the direction of
the magnetic field at any one point.

 Case study based questions:

25
Geothermal energy is heat energy contained in the rocks and fluids beneath the
earth’s crust and can be found as far down to the earth’s hot molten rock,
magma. To produce power from geothermal energy, wells are dug a mile deep
into underground reservoirs to access the steam and hot water there, which can
then be used to drive turbines connected to electric generators.

(a) What are the various forms of energy transformation taking place in the
geothermal power plant?

(b) State the principle of working of electric generator.

(c) What is the function of slip ring in an ac generator?

(d) Why ac is preferred over dc?

26
 CHAPTER: SOURCES OF ENERGY

Multiple Choice Questions

1. Rahul can use any source of energy for cooking, but
he wants to avoid production of smoke from the source. Which of these
sources should he use for cooking?
(a) coal (b) electricity (c) petroleum (d) wood

2. A student studies that efficiency of a fuel can be increased using new

technologies. How does increased efficiency benefits humans and
environment?
(a) production of fuel will increase
(b) cost of fuel production will decrease
(c) amount of fuel in reservoirs will increase
(d) pollution and consumption will decrease

3. Choose the incorrect statement

(a) We are encouraged to plant more trees so as to ensure clean environment and
also provide bio-mass fuel.
(b) Gobar-gas is produced when crops, vegetable wastes etc., decompose in the
absence of oxygen.
(c) The main ingredient of bio-gas is ethane and it gives a lot of smoke and also
produces a lot of residual ash.
(d) Bio-mass is a renewable source of energy.

4. Chief constituent of Natural gas is:

(a) Methane (b) Ethane (c) Butane (d) Propane

27
5. A student studies that bio-gas is produced from the residue left after
harvesting of crops, produces methane, which burns without releasing
smoke and leaves no ashes. He also studied that it is considered as ‘good’
source of energy. Why is it considered as a ‘good’ source of energy?
(a) as it produces ashes (b) as it burns without releasing smoke
(c) as it produces methane (d) as it decomposes in the absence of oxygen

6. Most of the sources of energy we use represent stored solar energy.

Which of the following is not ultimately derived from the Sun’s energy?
(a) Geothermal energy (b) wind energy (c) fossil fuels (d) bio-mass.

7. Green house effect is caused by gases like

(a) Helium (b) Oxygen (c) Nitrogen (d) Carbon dioxide

8. Which of these processes explains the extraction of energy from wind to

generate energy for a water-lifting pump?
(a) conversion of mechanical energy of wind into kinetic energy
(b) conversion of kinetic energy of wind into mechanical energy
(c) conversion of mechanical energy of wind into potential energy
(d) conversion of potential energy of wind into mechanical energy

9. The power plant which converts potential energy of falling water into
electricity is
(a) Nuclear plant (b) Thermal plant (c) Hydro power plant (d) Wind plant

10. Which of the following is the ultimate source of energy?

(a) Water (b) uranium (c) sun (d) fossil fuel

11. The main constituent of biogas is-

(a) Methane (b) carbon dioxide
(c) Hydrogen (d) hydrogen sulphide

12. Hydroelectric power plant utilizes the energy from-

(a) Flowing water (b) moving wind (c) fossil fuels (d) solar energy

13. The most commonly used material for manufacturing solar cell is-
(a) Aluminum (b) copper (c) silicon (d) bronze

28
14. Tidal energy is harnessed by constructing a-
(a) Bridge (b) road (c) dam (d) pipe

15. Which of the following causes the least pollution when burnt?
(a) Petrol (b) Diesel (c) Coal (d) Natural gas

16. Nuclear fusion reactions happen spontaneously in ______.

(a) the core of earth (b) the commercial nuclear reactor
(c) the atmosphere of the sun (d) the eruption of a volcano

17. Acid rain happens because-

(a) sun leads to heating of upper layer of atmosphere
(b) burning of fossil fuels release oxides of carbon, nitrogen and sulphur in the
atmosphere
(c) electrical charges are produced due to friction amongst clouds
(d) earth atmosphere contains acids

 For question numbers 1 to 5, two statements are given- one labelled

Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct
answer to these questions from the codes (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) as given
below
i) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of the assertion.
ii) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
iii) A is true but R is false.
iv) A is false but R is true.

1. Assertion (A): Biogas is a boon to the farmers.

Reason (R): Spent slurry is used as manure.
Ans.
2. Assertion (A): thermal power plants are setup near coal or oil fields
Reason (R): thermal power plants use coal or petroleum to heat
water. The cost of transportation of coal or petroleum is reduced.
Ans.
3. Assertion (A): In a hydroelectric power plant more electrical power
can be generated if water falls from a greater height.
Reason (R): Smaller amount of potential energy is converted into
kinetic energy

29
 Ans.
4. Assertion (A): In a solar cooker food can’t be cooked at night.
Reason (R): a solar cooker has a mirror which reflects the heat
radiations
Ans.
5. Assertion (A): There is a need to harness non-conventional sources
of energy
Reason (R):due to population explosion, rapid industrialization and
extensive use of energy-fed home appliances the energy demands are
increasing rapidly.
Ans.

Case study-based questions:

PARAGRAPH I
Renewable energy sources such as wind energy are vital for the Indian economy,
not only from the point of view of supply, but also from the perspective of
environmental and social benefits. India is the world’s fifth largest wind-power
producer and the largest windmill facilities in India are installed in Tamil Nadu.
Muppandal is a small village of Tamil Nadu and one of the most important sites
of wind-farm in the state. It uses wind from the Arabian Sea to produce
renewable energy. The suitability of Muppandal as a site for wind farms stems
from its geographical location as it has access
to the seasonal monsoon winds.
The electrical generators used on wind
turbines in sites like Muppandal, produce an
output AC of 240 V and a frequency of 50 Hz
even when the wind speed is fluctuating. A
transformer may be required to increase or
decrease the voltage so it is compatible with
the end usage, distribution or transmission
voltage, depending on the type of
interconnection.
1.a) State the principle behind working of electric generator.

1.b) The output frequency of wind turbine is 50 Hz. What is meant by this

30
statement?

1.c) Based on the data represented in the graph, which of the two cities A or B
would be an ideal location for establishing a wind-farm and why?

1.d) Why do you think Muppandal is at an advantageous position for this project?

31
 PARAGRAPH II
Operating on the same
principle as wind turbines, the
power in sea turbines comes
from tidal currents, which turn
blades similar to ships’
propellers, but, unlike wind,
the tides are predictable and
the power input is constant.
The technology raises the
prospect of many countries
becoming self-sufficient in
renewable becoming self-
sufficient in renewable energy
and drastically reducing its
carbon dioxide emissions. If tide, wind and wave power are all developed, Britain
would be able to close gas, coal and nuclear power plants and export renewable
power to other parts of Europe. Unlike wind power, which Britain originally
developed and then abandoned for 20 years allowing the Dutch to make it a major
industry, under sea turbines could become a big export earner to island nations
such as Japan and New Zealand
.
a) On what principle do the sea turbines operate?

b) What is the advantage of sea turbines over wind turbines?

c) If tide, wind and wave power are used by Britain which other energy
sources are likely to be closed by it?

d) For which countries sea turbines can become a good source of energy?

32
 PARAGRAPH II
Using a 50-50 mixture of deuterium 2H1 and tritium 3H1 scientists at Princeton
University in USA have produced a world-record setting burst of fusion energy
equivalent to three million watts (3 x 106 W) of power on December 10, 1997.

The power output in this experiment lasted only four seconds. The Princeton
group expects to increase the power of its reactor to 10 million watts very soon.
This raises the prospects for abundant and cheap electrical power in the future.

2.a) Name the process being employed in the passage in producing energy.

2.b) Calculate the amount of energy in joules produced in the experiment

explained in the passage.

2.c) What is the product of fusion reaction?

2.d) Under what condition of pressure and temperature does the above process
take place?

33
 Questions from Previous Years’ Board Exam Papers

1. (i) State Snell’s law of refraction of light. Write an expression to relate

refractive index of a medium with speed of light in vacuum.
(ii)The refractive index of a medium ‘a’ with respect to medium ‘b’ is 2/3 and
the refractive index of medium ‘b’ with respect to medium ‘c’ is 4/3. Find the
refractive index of medium ‘c’ with respect to medium ‘a’
2. It is desired to obtain an erect image of an object, using concave mirror of focal
length of 12 cm.
i) What should be the range of distance of an object placed in front of the
mirror?
ii) Will the image be smaller or larger than the object? Draw ray diagram to
show the formation of image in this case.
iii) Where will the image of this object be, if it is placed 24 cm in front of the
mirror? Draw a ray diagram for this situation.
3. Answer question numbers a-d on the basis of your understanding of the
following paragraph and the related studied concepts.
While dealing with the reflection of light by spherical mirrors, we follow a set of
sign conventions called the New Cartesian Sign Convention.

In this convention, the pole (P) of the mirror is taken as the origin. The
principal axis of the mirror is taken as the x -axis of the coordinate system. In a
spherical mirror, the distance of the object from its pole is called the object
distance u. The distance of the image from the pole of the mirror is called the
image distance v . Magnification m produced by a spherical mirror gives the
relative extent to which the image of an object is magnified with respect to the
object size. It is expressed as the ratio of the height of the image to the height of
the object.
a) How can you calculate the magnification of a spherical mirror?
b) What does a negative sign in the value of magnification indicates?
c) Find the focal length of a convex mirror whose radius of curvature is 32 cm.
d) Why does the height of the object is taken to be positive?
4. i) Write the characteristics of real image.

34
 ii) Name the mirror that
(a) can give real as well as virtual image of an object.
(b) will always give virtual image of same size of an object.
(c) will always give virtual and diminished image of an object.
(d) is used by a doctor in examining teeth.
iii) With the help of a ray diagram explain the use of concave mirror as solar
concentrators
5. a) Define the following terms in the context of spherical mirrors:
(i) Pole (ii) Centre of curvature (iii) Principal axis (iv) Principal focus
b) Draw ray diagrams to show the principal focus of a (i) Concave mirror and
(ii) Convex mirror
c) Consider the diagram in which M is a mirror
and P is an object and Q is its magnified image
formed by the mirror State the type of the
mirror M and one characteristic property of the
image Q.
6. a) Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of image by a convex lens when
an object is placed in front of the lens between its optical centre and principal
focus.
b) In the ray diagram drawn in q no (a) mark the object-distance ‘u’ and the
image-distance ‘v’ with their proper signs (+ve or –ve as per the new Cartesian
sign convention) and state how these distances are related to the focal length ‘f’
of the convex lens in the case.
c) Find the power of a convex lens which forms a real, and inverted image of
magnification -1 of an object placed at a distance of 20 cm from its optical
centre.
7. A student focused the image of a candle-flame on a white screen by placing the
flame at distances from a convex lens. He noted his observation in the following
table:

Analyze the above table and answer the following questions:

i) What is the focal length of convex lens?
ii) Which set of observations is incorrect and why?
iii) Draw the ray diagram to show the image formation for any correct set of

35
 observation.
8. (i) Explain the term refraction of light.
(ii) Letters written on a paper when seen through a thick glass slab appear to be
raised. Explain this phenomenon with the help of a ray diagram.
(iii) Light enters from air into diamond which has refractive index 2.42. The
speed of light in air is 3 x 10-8 m/s. Calculate the speed of light in diamond.
9. A student finds the writing on the blackboard as blurred and unclear when
sitting on the last desk of the class room. He however sees clearly when sitting
on the front desk of an approximate distance 2 m from the blackboard.
i) Draw the ray diagram to illustrate the formation of image of the blackboard
writing by his eye lens when he sits at the: (a) last desk (b) front desk
ii) Name the defect of vision the student is suffering from. Also, list two causes
of this defect.
iii) Name the kind of lens that would enable him to see clearly when he is
seated at the last desk. Draw the ray diagram to illustrate how this lens helps
him to see clearly.
10. i) What is meant by dispersion of light?
ii) Describe the formation of rainbow in the sky.
iii) What is meant by accommodation of eye? Name the part of eye which helps
in this phenomenon and state how does it help.
11. i) Two identical resistors each of resistance 10 ohm are connected in :
(a) Series (b) Parallel in turn to a battery of 6 V. Calculate the ratio of power
consumed by the combination of resistor in the two cases
ii) List two factors on which the resistance of a conductor depends.
iii) Write a difference between an ammeter and voltmeter.
12. A current of 1A flows in a series circuit containing an electric lamp and a
conductor of 5Ω when connected to a 10V battery. Calculate the resistance of
the electric lamp. Now if a resistance of 10Ω is connected in parallel with this
series combination, what change (if any) in current flowing through 5Ω
conductor and potential difference across the lamp will take place? Justify your
answer with the help of a circuit diagram.
13. i) State the commercial unit of electric energy and find its relation with its SI
unit.
ii) The current through a resistor is made three times its initial value. Calculate
how it will affect the heat produced in the resistor.
iii) Find the amount of heat generated in a conductor if a new conductor of
double resistance is connected in the circuit keeping all other factors
unchanged.
14. Questions numbered (a-d) are based on the two tables given below study these

36
 tables related to measurement of voltage and current and answer the questions
that follow.
Ideal measurement (Table A)
S No Voltmeter reading (mV) Ammeter reading (mA)
1. 4 2
2. 6 3
3. 8 4
4. 10 5
5. 12 6

Table B
Student S No Voltmeter reading Ammeter reading
(mV) (mA)
1. 2 1
Student
2. 4 2
A
3. 6 3
1. 14 6
Student
2. 16 8
B
3. 18 9
a) Which of the two students has taken a wrong reading in Table B?
b) What is the mathematical relation shown by voltmeter and ammeter readings?
c) Find the value of resistance.
d) Find the voltmeter reading when the ammeter reads 10 mA.
15. i) What do you understand by the term fuse in an electric circuit?
ii) State two properties of a material, which make it suitable for making a fuse
wire.
iii) Why is a fuse wire always placed in the live wire of an electric circuit?
iv) How does a fuse wire protect an electric circuit?
v) Two fuse wires A and B of the same length are rated 15 A and 5 A. Which
amongst the A and B will be thicker and why ?
16. Given table provides the resistivity of conductors, alloy and insulators. Study
the table and answer the following questions.

37
 (i) Why among iron is a better conductor than mercury?
(ii) Which material is the best conductor?
(iii) Copper and Aluminium have:
(a) Low resistivity (b) high resistivity
(c) zero resistivity (d) high energy losses.
(iv) Alloys are commonly used in electrical heating devices due to:
(a) Low resistivity as compared to all substance
(b) high resistivity as compared to metals
(c) Low resistivity as compared to metals
(d) oxidizing easily
17. i) What is a solenoid? Draw a sketch of the pattern of the field lines of the
magnetic field through and around a current carrying solenoid.
ii) Consider a circular loop of wire lying in the plane of the table. Let the
current pass through the loop clockwise. Apply the right-hand rule to find the
direction of the magnetic field inside and outside the loop.
18. Explain the underlying principle and working of an electric motor by drawing a
labelled diagram.
19. Explain the underlying principle and working of an electric generator by
drawing a labelled diagram.

38
20. Answer question numbers a-d on the basis of your understanding of the
following paragraph and the related studied concepts.
Traditional source of energy is the
kinetic energy of flowing water or
the potential energy of water at a
height. Hydro-power plants convert
the potential energy of falling water
into electricity. As a source of
potential energy, hydro-power
plants are associated with dams. In
the last century, a large number of
dams were built all over the world.
Hydro-power plants meet a quarter (25%) of our energy requirement in India.
In order to produce hydroelectricity, high-rise dams are constructed on the
river to obstruct the flow of water and thereby collect water in larger
reservoirs. The water level rises and, in this process, the kinetic energy of
flowing water gets transformed into potential energy. The water from the high
level in the dam is carried through pipes, to the turbine, at the bottom of the
dam. Since the water in the reservoir would be refilled each time it rains (hydro
power is a renewable source of energy) we would not have to worry about
hydroelectricity sources getting used up the way fossil fuels would get finished
on day. But, constructions of big dams have certain problems associated with it.
The dams can be constructed only in a limited number of places, preferably in
hilly terrains. Large areas of agricultural land and human habitation are to be
sacrificed as they get submerged. Large eco-systems are destroyed when
submerged under the water in dams. The vegetation which is submerged rots
under anaerobic conditions and gives rise to large amounts of methane which is
also a green-house gas. It creates the problem of satisfactory rehabilitation of
displaced people. Opposition to the construction of Tehri Dam on the river
Ganga and Sardar Sarovar project on the river Narmada are due to such
problems.
a) What percentage of our energy requirements is met by hydroelectric
power?
b) What sort of transformation in energy occurs in a hydroelectric plant?
c) What problems are associated with construction of dams?
d) Name a form of energy which is derived from water apart from
hydroelectricity.

39
21.

The fuel which we choose for a domestic or industrial use should have a
high calorific value. Carbon dioxide and water vapour are the harmless
products produced by the burning of fuels. But some fuels produce
poisonous gases like carbon mono oxide and Sulphur dioxide etc, which
pollute the air around us. The fuel should have a proper ignition
temperature which should be well above the normal room temperature.

1. The calorific value of the fuel which is to be use for a domestic or

industrial use should be
a) High b) low c) moderate d) zero

2. The harmless product produced by the burning of fuels are

a) Sulphur dioxide and carbon dioxide
b) Carbon dioxide and carbon monoxide
c) Carbon mono oxide and water vapour
d) Carbon dioxide and water vapour

3. The poisonous gases produced by burning of fossil fuels are

a) Carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide
b) Carbon monoxide and Sulphur monoxide
c) Carbon monoxide and Sulphur dioxide
d) Carbon dioxide and Sulphur dioxide

4. The ignition temperature of fuel should be ....... the room temperature.

a) above
b) below
c) same
d) less than

40