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Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024

Exam Date 30/09/2024

Exam
9:00 AM - 11:00 AM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 A sum invested at 5% simple interest per annum grows to ₹806 in 6 years. If the amount remains the same, how much will it
grow at a 12% simple interest rate in 5 years?
Ans 1. ₹985

2. ₹1,120

3. ₹992

4. ₹1,000

Q.2

Ans 1. 35%

2. 39%

3. 24%

4. 29%

Q.3 The average monthly income of A and B is ₹3,590. The average monthly income of B and C is ₹4,250. The average monthly
income of A and C is ₹6,500. What is the monthly income of C?
Ans 1. ₹8,190

2. ₹6,984

3. ₹7,160

4. ₹7,545
Q.4

Ans
1.

Q.5 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹3500 as a sum borrowed at 7% per year rate of interest for 6 years.
Ans 1. 1510

2. 1410

3. 1430

4. 1470

Q.6 The following bar graph shows the production of cement (in 10,000 tones) by 4 companies X, Y, Z and W during the period
2018 - 2020. Study the bar graph carefully and answer the question.
Which company has the maximum average production over the course of 3 years?

Ans 1. X

2. Y

3. Z

4. W

Q.7 A man sells an article at a certain price and suffers a loss of 20%. If he sells the article at ₹100 more, he gets a profit of 30%.
Find the cost price of the article (in ₹).
Ans 1. 300

2. 250

3. 400

4. 200

Q.8 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹3000 as a sum borrowed at 7% per year rate of interest for 5 years.
Ans 1. 1010

2. 1050

3. 990

4. 1090
Q.9 Riya offers 12% discount on all her goods and offers an additional discount of 6% to those customers who pay in cash. How
much will a customer have to pay for a fan marked for ₹2,400 if he pays in cash?
Ans 1. ₹2,122.50

2. ₹1,985.28

3. ₹1,900

4. ₹2,300.50

Q.10 In a 100-marks test, the average of marks scored by 50 students was found to be 65. Later on, it was discovered that a score
of 88 was misread as 68. Find the correct average.
Ans 1. 65.60

2. 65.40

3. 65.50

4. 65.70

Q.11 In a college, 20% of the number of boys are equal to the three-fourth of the number of girls. What is the ratio of boys and
girls in that college ?
Ans 1. 15 : 4

2. 7 : 6

3. 13 : 4

4. 5 : 3

Q.12 Atul sold two sacks of rice for ₹19,200 each. On one, he gained 20% and on the other, he lost 20%. Find his gain or loss
percentage in the whole transaction.
Ans 1. 4% loss

2. 8% profit

3. 7% profit

4. 5% loss

Q.13 The ratio of the present age of A and B is 3 : 1. Five years ago, the ratio of their ages was 5 : 1. The age of A (in years) after
eight years will be:
Ans 1. 38

2. 40

3. 22

4. 30

Q.14 A thief saw a policeman, and he started running at a speed of 18 m/s. After 12 seconds, the policeman starts running behind
the thief at a certain speed. If the policeman covered 864 meters distance to reach the thief, then the speed (in m/s) of the
policeman is:
Ans 1. 28

2. 15

3. 30

4. 24

Q.15 Rice worth₹43/kg and₹67/kg are mixed with a third variety in the ratio 2 : 1 : 5. If the mixture is worth₹96/kg,
the price (in ₹) of the third variety of rice per kg will be:
Ans 1. 123

2. 142

3. 159

4. 131
Q.16 Two trains, 148 m and 152 m long, are running towards each other on parallel lines at 62 km/h and 46km/h, respectively. In
what time will they be clear of each other from the moment they meet?
Ans 1. 15 sec

2. 20 sec

3. 10 sec

4. 5 sec

Q.17 20 identical solid hemispheres of radius 3 cm are melted to form a big solid hemisphere. What is the radius (in cm) of the
biggest hemisphere formed, if 20% of the solid is wasted during the process?
Ans 1.

Q.18 Three numbers are in the ratio of 6:7:3 and their LCM is 3654.Their HCF is:
Ans 1. 87

2. 28

3. 29

4. 27

Q.19 The average monthly expenditure of a family was ₹8,600 during the first three months, ₹9,750 during the next four months
and ₹9,920 during the last five months of a year. If the total savings during the year was ₹65,300, the average monthly
income (in ₹) of the family was:
Ans 1. 14,597

2. 15,794

3. 14,975

4. 15,479

Q.20

Ans
1.

Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1 In a code language, 'COLONY' is coded as '48' and 'INTERCHANGE' is coded as '88'. How will 'MOUNTAIN' be coded in the
same language?
Ans 1. 66

2. 64

3. 86

4. 84
Q.2 Seven people A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table, facing the center (but not necessarily in the same
order). C is sitting to the immediate right of E. D is sitting third to the left of C. A is the immediate neighbour of B and C. F is
not the immediate neighbour of E.

What is the position of G with respect to A?

Ans 1. Third to the left

2. To the immediate left

3. Second to the right

4. Second to the left

Q.3 In a code language, 'CAKE' is written as ‘ACIG’ and 'GOLD' is written as 'EQJF'. How will 'WIRE' be written in that language?
Ans 1. GPUK

2. GUKP

3. GUPK

4. UKPG

Q.4 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13, can be performed. Breaking down 13
into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
(4, 35, 11)
(1, 82, 61)
Ans 1. (8, 33, 15)

2. (2, 53, 6)

3. (13, 53, 20)

4. (21, 310, 23)

Q.5 In a certain code language, ‘I swim fast’ is coded as ‘cp lk bs’ and ‘may I go’ is coded as ‘ap sb lk’. How is ‘I’ coded in that
code language?
Ans 1. cp

2. lk

3. bs

4. sb
Q.6 Select the option figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the figure given below to complete the pattern.

Ans

4.
Q.7 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans
1.

Q.8 In a certain code language, ‘WING’ is coded as ‘2618’ and ‘NEAT’ is coded as ‘3469’. What is the code for ‘N’ in that
language?
Ans 1. 3

2. 8

3. 1

4. 6

Q.9 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘+’ and ‘–’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are
interchanged?

5 ÷ 6 × 3 – 4 + 11 = ?
Ans 1. 3

2. 14

3. 7

4. 11

Q.10 What will come in the place of ‘?’ in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘–‘ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?
39 ÷ 3 – 24 + 60 × 12 = ?
Ans 1. 190

2. 136

3. 86

4. 163
Q.11 Identify the figure from the given options that when put in place of the question mark (?) will logically complete the series.

Ans

4.
Q.12 Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series and complete
the pattern.

Ans

Statements:
Some chickens are hens.
No hen is an egg.

Conclusions:
(I) No chicken is an egg.
(II) All hens are chickens.
Ans 1. Only conclusion I follows

2. Both conclusions I and II follow

3. Neither conclusion I nor II follows

4. Only conclusion II follows

Q.14 What should come in place of ? in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?

ACE ,FHJ, KMO, PRT , ?

Ans 1. GJK

2. UWY

3. BCD

4. NOP
Q.15 What should come in place of '?' in the given series?

-12, +24, -48, +96, ?, +384

Ans 1. 108

2. -192

3. -108

4. 96

Q.16 HFLI is related to OMSP in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, KIOL is related to RPVS.
To which of the following is MKQN related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. RTXU

2. TRUX

3. TRXU

4. RTUX

Q.17 7 is related to 30 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 14 is related to 100. To which of the following is 22
related following the same logic?

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13
into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans 1. 180

2. 170

3. 189

4. 190

Q.18 JM12 is related to EH15 in a certain way. In the same way, QT34 is related to LO37. To which of the following is SV 23 related
following the same logic?
Ans 1. MP26

2. NP27

3. MQ27

4. NQ26

Q.19 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the
statement(s).

Statements:
No bus is a car.
No car is a truck.

Conclusions:
(I) No car is a bus.
(II) No truck is a car.

Ans 1. Only conclusion I follows.

2. Only conclusion II follows.

3. Neither conclusion I nor II follows.

4. Both conclusions I and II follow.

Q.20 Seven people A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same
order). A is sitting second to the right of E. Only one person is sitting between D and A. B is sitting third to the right of G. F
is an immediate neighbour of B. How many people are sitting between D and E when counted from the left of E?
Ans 1. Three

2. Two

3. One

4. Four
Section : General Awareness

Q.1 The red colour of tomatoes is due to the presence of:

Ans 1. limonene

2. alizarin

3. beta carotene

4. lycopene

Q.2 In which part of India is cool mountain climate observed?

Ans 1. South

2. North

3. West

4. East

Q.3 Who was the founder of the Mauryan dynasty?

Ans 1. Vikramaditya

2. Ashoka

3. Bindusara

4. Chandragupta Maurya

Q.4 Who among the following established the Indore gharana?

Ans 1. Tansen

2. Ustad Ghaghe Khuda Baksh

3. Ustad Amir Khan

4. Bhimsen Joshi

Q.5 As of 31st October 2023, the senior-most member (in terms of age) in the 17th Lok Sabha, Shafiqur Rahman Barq represents
which political party?
Ans 1. Samajwadi Party

2. Bharatiya Janata Party

3. Rashtriya Janata Dal

4. Indian National Congress

Q.6 The Pharmacy (Amendment) Bill, 2023 was introduced in Lok Sabha on 3 August 2023, which amends the ____________.
Ans 1. Pharmacy Act, 1948

2. Pharmacy Act, 1947

3. Pharmacy Act, 1949

4. Pharmacy Act, 1950

Q.7 With which sport is Sanjana Bathula associated?

Ans 1. Badminton

2. Shooting

3. Squash

4. Roller skating

Q.8 Kanak Rele, who established Nalanda Dance Research Centre, was a performer of which of the following classical dance
forms of India?
Ans 1. Mohiniyattam

2. Sattriya

3. Kathak

4. Manipuri
Q.9 The chemical compound present in turmeric is:
Ans 1. carotene

2. tartaric acid

3. capsaicin

4. curcumin

Q.10 With reference to medieval Indian architecture style, what is ‘Pietra Dura’?
Ans 1. Fine quality clothes used by the Mughals

2. Oil paintings on the walls of Taj Mahal

3. Decorating the walls with floral designs made of semi-precious stones

4. Sculpture art of the Mauryan period

Q.11 Who was the captain of Royal Challengers Bangalore in the Women's Premier League event 2023?
Ans 1. Harmanpreet Kaur

2. Deepti Sharma

3. Shafali Verma

4. Smriti Mandhana

Q.12 Which of the following acts introduced the system of dyarchy in the provincial administration in India?
Ans 1. The Government of India Act of 1935

2. The Government of India Act of 1947

3. The Government of India Act of 1919

4. The Government of India Act of 1909

Q.13 How many countries share their land borders with India?
Ans 1. Seven

2. Six

3. Eight

4. Nine

Q.14 Which of the following is one of the features of capital goods?

Ans 1. They are Giffen goods.

2. They are durable.

3. They are inexpensive.

4. They are inferior goods.

Q.15 The Rabi season of agriculture begins in October-November and ends in __________.
Ans 1. June-July

2. May-June

3. March-April

4. January-February

Q.16 On which date did Punjab abolish the Legislative Council?

Ans 1. 1 January 1977

2. 1 January 1970

3. 1 January 1975

4. 1 January 1971
Q.17 Which of the following dynasties established the Vijayanagara kingdom in fourteenth century?
Ans 1. Aravidu dynasty

2. Saluva dynasty

3. Tuluva dynasty

4. Sangama dynasty

Q.18 Which Union Territory had minimum literacy rate as per 2011 Census?
Ans 1. Lakshadweep

2. Delhi

3. Chandigarh

4. Dadra and Nagar Haveli

Q.19 Which of the following books is written by Dadabhai Naoroji?

Ans 1. Economics History of India

2. Poverty and Un-British Rule in India

3. Poverty and India

4. Important Chapters of Poverty

Q.20 In which state/union territory is Losar celebrated to mark the start of the new year in that region?
Ans 1. Kerala

2. New Delhi

3. Ladakh

4. Bihar

Q.21 In 1976, in which Part of the Indian Constitution under Article 51A were Fundamental Duties added?
Ans 1. VI

2. III

3. IV A

4. V

Q.22 Which of the following statements is/are correct about the famous place Mawsynram?
A. It is the wettest place on the earth.
B. It is located in Meghalaya state of India.
Ans 1. A and B both are correct.

2. Only A is correct.

3. Only B is correct.

4. Neither A nor B is correct.

Q.23 What is the chemical formula for sodium bicarbonate?

Ans 1. NaOH

2. NaCl

3. NaHCO3

4. Na2CO3

Q.24 The historical fiction ‘The Glory of Patan’ by KM Munshi was originally written in which Indian language?
Ans 1. Gujarati

2. Tamil

3. Bengali

4. Malayalam
Q.25 What is the decreasing order of the Padma awards?
Ans 1. Padma Shri, Padma Vibhushan, Padma Bhushan

2. Padma Shri, Padma Bhushan, Padma Vibhushan

3. Padma Vibhushan, Padma Bhushan, Padma Shri

4. Padma Bhushan, Padma Shri, Padma Vibhushan

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 The following sentence has been divided into four segments. One of them contains an error. Select the segment that
contains the error from the given options.
Neither Smith / nor Rose / were in / the classroom.
Ans 1. nor Rose

2. the classroom

3. were in

4. Neither Smith

Q.2 Select the sentence that has a grammatical error.

Ans 1. He works as a software developer.

2. The sun rises in the east.

3. She always eats healthy meals.

4. We watches movies every Friday night.

Q.3 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Cultural heritage is the lifeblood of any ________ and serves as a link between generations.
Ans 1. believe

2. civilisation

3. birthright

4. lethargy

Q.4 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

He is _________ tired to finish his homework.

Ans 1. to

2. too

3. most

4. more

Q.5 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Energy
Ans 1. Frailty

2. Power

3. Speed

4. strife

Q.6 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

A piece of cake
Ans 1. Easy to do or achieve

2. A cake that broke into pieces

3. A slice of cake for eating

4. A cake which is sold as a piece

Q.7 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

The workers had been repairing / the mall road in / town for / several days now.
Ans 1. town for

2. the mall road in

3. several days now

4. The workers had been repairing

Q.8 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
My secretary is disposed of / discuss everything in great detail / before she begins / the actual work.
Ans 1. My secretary is disposed of

2. discuss everything in great detail

3. before she begins

4. the actual work.

Q.9 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Accepting how wonderful you truly are and incorporating this _______ into your attitude and personality is perhaps one of
the most difficult things to do in life.
Ans 1. insight

2. glitch

3. folly

4. craziness

Q.10 Select the option that correctly rectifies the underlined spelling error.
The accideent on the highway caused a long traffic jam.
Ans 1. acicdent

2. acident

3. accidnt

4. accident

Q.11 What does it imply when people say to ‘read between the lines’?
Ans 1. To avoid detailed information

2. To read something fast

3. To read with an ability to infer the meaning

4. To skip initial and final lines in a paragraph

Q.12 Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word

The project’s tight deadline and complex requirements made it a gruelling task for the team.
Ans 1. Accessible

2. Challenging

3. Inclusive

4. Empowering

Q.13 Select the option that correctly rectifies the underlined spelling error.
The rainbow only appears after a hurican.
Ans 1. hurrican

2. hurricane

3. hurrecane

4. hurrecain
Q.14 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.
Ans 1. Consicstent

2. Surrender

3. Disgust

4. Trifle

Q.15 Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word.

The detective's job was to discern the truth from the web of lies.
Ans 1. Confuse

2. Ignore

3. Perceive

4. Fabricate

Q.16 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Please listen to all announcements _______.
Ans 1. attentively

2. hungrily

3. easily

4. generally

Q.17 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Ecstatic
Ans 1. Happy

2. Angry

3. Interested

4. Shocked

Q.18 Select the most appropriate synonym of the word 'pursue' from the given sentence.
Dr. Kalam's success in the field of science has inspired young Indians to dream big and chase those dreams with immense
hard work.
Ans 1. success

2. inspired

3. chase

4. immense

Q.19 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a phrasal verb error.

Mrs. Premlatha asked / Malini to hand down / all the / payment slips.
Ans 1. all the

2. payment slips

3. Mrs. Premlatha asked

4. Malini to hand down

Q.20 Select the most appropriate verb form to fill in the blank.

Arun __________ his bicycle to school every day.

Ans 1. rode

2. riding

3. rides

4. ride
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

My next pet, Ari, was a pigeon. He became convinced that he was not a bird at all and refused to ____ 1 ___. If he wanted to get on a
table or a chair, he stood below it, cooing until someone picked him up. He would even try to come ____ 2____ walks with us. This,
however, we had to stop for, _____ 3____ you carried him on your shoulder or else you let him walk behind. If you let him walk, you
had to slow down your own ______ 4_____ to suit his, for should you get too far ahead, you would find him running after you, cooing
frantically, his chest pouted out with ______5_____.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans 1. fly

2. file

3. flea

4. read

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans 1. by

2. on

3. at

4. in

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans 1. either

2. never

3. neither

4. ever
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans 1. piece

2. peace

3. space

4. pace

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans 1. inclination

2. indignation

3. intimation

4. ignition
Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 30/09/2024
Exam
12:30 PM - 2:30 PM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 If Anil takes 5 days to complete a task when he works for 8 hours a day, how many days will he take to complete
the task if he works 6 hours a day?
Ans
1.

Q.2 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹3500 as a sum borrowed at 5% per year rate of interest for 5 years.
Ans 1. 835

2. 915

3. 875

4. 815

Q.3 Find the area of a square whose diagonal is of 14 cm length.

Ans 1. 94 cm2

2. 95 cm2

3. 96 cm2

4. 98 cm2

Q.4 A policeman chases a thief. The speed of the policeman and thief are 10 kmph and 8 kmph, respectively. If the policeman
started 15 minutes late, find the time taken by the policeman to catch the thief.
Ans 1. 45 minutes

2. 60 minutes

3. 30 minutes

4. 15 minutes

Q.5 In the first 5 overs of a T-20 international cricket match, the run rate was only 5.6. What should be the run rate
(approximately) in the remaining 15 overs to reach a target of 185 runs?
Ans 1. 9.55

2. 10.46

3. 10.25

4. 11.15
Q.6 A trader marks his goods at 20% higher than the cost price. Further, he uses a weighing balance which shows 1200 grams
for a kilogram. What is his profit percentage?
Ans 1.

Q.7 The average of the sales of an electronics shop in the years 1991, 1992, 1993 and 1994 is 2000, and that for the years 1992,
1993, 1994 and 1995 is 2200. If the sales in 1995 are 1800, find the sales in 1991.
Ans 1. 1200

2. 1000

3. 800

4. 500

Q.8 The mean (rounded off to two decimal place) of the first 6 odd prime numbers is:
Ans 1. 9.33

2. 7.93

3. 8.61

4. 10.71

Q.9

Ans 1. 7.93%

2. 9.93%

3. 8.02%

4. 8.93%

Q.10 Rohan deposited ₹500 for 2 years, ₹650 for 4 years and ₹1,300 for 6 years, at the same rate of interest. He received the total
simple interest of ₹1,140. What is the rate of interest per annum?
Ans 1. 11%

2. 9.5%

3. 10.5%

4. 10%

Q.11 A policeman follows a thief, who is 150 metres ahead of him., and they run at the speed of 6 km/h and 5 km/h,
respectively.What distance does the policeman cover to catch up with the thief?
Ans 1. 890 metres

2. 880 metres

3. 900 metres

4. 870 metres
Q.12 A dishonest shopkeeper claims to sell rice at the cost price of ₹95 per kg, but the weight he uses has 1 kg written on it,
while it actually weighs 950 gm. The profit he thus earns on selling rice having an actual weight of 95 kg rice is:
Ans 1. ₹475

2. ₹500

3. ₹375

4. ₹275

Q.13 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹2500 as a sum borrowed at 6% per year rate of interest for 3 years.
Ans 1. 490

2. 450

3. 390

4. 410

Q.14 A shot-put made of iron with a diameter of 12 cm is melted into a solid cylinder with a height of 2 cm. What is the diameter of
the cylinder made?
Ans 1. 21 cm

2. 24 cm

3. 12 cm

4. 18 cm

Q.15 A right circular cone of height h and radius R is cut by a plane parallel to the base at a distance h/4 from the base. The ratio
of the curved surface areas of the resulting cone to the frustum is:
Ans 1. 7 : 16

2. 16 : 9

3. 9 : 7

4. 16 : 7

Q.16 In an election contested by two candidates, one candidate got 25% of the total votes and still lost by 20,000 votes. Find the
total number of votes cast? (all votes are valid)
Ans 1. 25000

2. 55000

3. 35000

4. 40000

Q.17 In a mock test conducted by a coaching institute, 20 students average scored 75% marks and the remaining 15 students
average scored 54% marks. Find the average score.
Ans 1. 66%

2. 63%

3. 62%

4. 67%
Q.18 The graph given below represents the number of students (in thousands), who opted for the given three subjects during the
given four years.

Out of the total number of students who opted for the given three subjects in the year 2022, 42% were girls. How many boys
chose the given three subjects?
Ans 1. 38,900

2. 29,300

3. 31,500

4. 40,600

Q.19 An oil dealer had three types of oil. 403 litres of the first kind, 434 litres of the second kind and 465 litres of the third kind.
Find the maximum volume of oil, filled in each barrel, if equal number of barrels are filled.
Ans 1. 31 litres

2. 48 litres

3. 41 litres

4. 52 litres

Q.20 The marked price of a scooter is ₹1,80,000. The shopkeeper gave a scheme discount of 4% on ₹1,20,000 and 2.5% on the
remaining amount. The selling price (in ₹) of the scooter is:
Ans 1. 1,73,070

2. 1,77,300

3. 1,73,700

4. 1,37,700

Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1

Ans 1. − and ×

2. ÷ and ×

3. + and ×

4. − and +
Q.2 Identify the figure given in the options which when put in place of (?) will logically complete the series.

Ans

Q.3 TAHO is related to XELS in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, HOVC is related to LSZG.
To which of the following is NUBI related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. RYKM

2. RYFM

3. RYGM

4. FYKM

Q.4 12 is related to 59 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 17 is related to 79. To which ofthe following is 24
related, following the same logic?(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbersinto its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13can be
performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1and 3 is not allowed)
Ans 1. 101

2. 107

3. 117

4. 96
Q.5 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

(20, 76, 91)

(87, 41, 123)
Ans 1. (40, 80, 15)

2. (57, 18, 100)

3. (47, 19, 51)

4. (84, 47, 126)

Q.6

Ans

Q.7 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the
statement(s).

Statements:
Some metals are iron.
Some iron are steel.

Conclusions:
(I) Some metals are steel.
(II) All steel are iron.
Ans 1. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

2. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

3. Only conclusion (II) follows.

4. Only conclusion (I) follows.

Q.8 In a certain code language, ‘FAST’ is coded as ‘6842’ and ‘TILE’ is coded as ‘5761’.What is the code for ‘T’ in the given code
language?
Ans 1. 1

2. 6

3. 5

4. 2

Q.9 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans
1.

Q.10 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
Some hooks are rags.
All rags are bottles.

Conclusions:
(I) Some bottles are hooks.
(II) All bottles are rags.
Ans 1. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow

2. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows

3. Only conclusion (I) follows

4. Only conclusion (II) follows

Q.11 Rajan, Pragyan, Kamal, Sachin, Ashok, Narendra, and Laksh are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre (but not
necessarily in the same order).
Rajan sits 3rd to the right of Narendra. Kamal sits 2nd to the right of Rajan. Ashok is an immediate neighbour of Narendra.
Pragyan sits to the immediate right of Sachin.
Who is sitting 3rd to the left of Narendra?
Ans 1. Laksh

2. Sachin

3. Pragyan

4. Kamal

Q.12 In a certain code language, ‘checked his mirror’ is written as ‘aw ar ae’ and ‘book inevitably mirror’ is coded as ‘al aw ao’.
How is ‘mirror’ coded in that language?
Ans 1. ae

2. al

3. ao

4. aw
Q.13 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are
interchanged?

140 × 2 − 4 ÷ 56 + 82 = ?
Ans 1. 212

2. 241

3. 268

4. 262

Q.14 GMIE is related to HNJF in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, KQMI is related to LRNJ.
To which of the following is NTPL related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. OUQM

2. UOQM

3. OUMQ

4. UOMQ

Q.15 Select the option in which the given figure is embedded (rotation is NOT allowed).

Ans

4.
Q.16 In a certain code language, ‘will make you’ is written as ‘ft fy fd’ and ‘you see what’ is writtenas ‘fi fo ft’. How will ‘you’ be
writtenin the given language?
Ans 1. fo

2. ft

3. fy

4. fd

Q.17 P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are sitting around a circular table facing the centre(but not necessarily in the same order). P is
sitting to the immediate right of V and third to the left of U. S is sitting fourth to the right of Q, who is not an immediate
neighbour of P and T. Q is sitting to the second right of U. R is sitting to the immediate right of Q and second to the left of P.
How many people are sitting between R and T when counted from the left of T?
Ans 1. Two

2. Three

3. Five

4. Four

Q.18 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?
EGC, IFG, MEK, QDO, ?
Ans 1. WSU

2. VWS

3. UCS

4. SWU

Q.19 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

34 51 85 102 136 ?
Ans 1. 146

2. 153

3. 157

4. 142

Q.20

Ans
1.

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 In animal cells, the breakdown of very long chain fatty acids through ꞵ-oxidation is conducted by which of the following
organelles?
Ans 1. Golgi apparatus

2. Peroxisome

3. Mitochondria

4. Ribosome
Q.2 Which of the following institutes/projects is declared as a masterpiece of oral and intangible heritage of humanity by
UNESCO in May 2001?
Ans 1. Music Academy Madras

2. Jawaharlal Nehru Manipur Dance Academy

3. National Project to support Kuttiyattam

4. National Institute of Kathak Dance

Q.3 In which of the following events did India get its first individual Olympic gold medal?
Ans 1. Weightlifting

2. Wrestling

3. Shooting

4. Boxing

Q.4 Which organelle contains ribosomal RNA and is involved in the production of ribosomes?
Ans 1. Nucleolus

2. Endoplasmic reticulum

3. Golgi apparatus

4. Nucleus

Q.5 Which programme, that was introduced in the year 2000-2001, aims to offer homes, drinking water, primary education and
basic healthcare in rural areas?
Ans 1. Pradhan Mantri Gramodaya Yojana

2. The Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana

3. Pradhan Mantri Vaya Vandana Yojana

4. Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi

Q.6 Which of the following dances is traditionally performed by the males of three adjacent states - Jharkhand, Odisha and West
Bengal?
Ans 1. Sattriya

2. Chhau

3. Odissi

4. Kuchipudi

Q.7 In the 1991 Census, which state was the highest in rank in terms of literacy rate and held higher than the national average of
literacy rate?
Ans 1. West Bengal

2. Karnataka

3. Kerala

4. Tamil Nadu

Q.8 In September 2023, after the retirement of Incumbent Sanjay Kumar Mishra, who was appointed as In-charge Director of ED?
Ans 1. Rahul Navin

2. Tushar Mehta

3. TV Somanathan

4. Samant Goel

Q.9 Which of the following dams is a part of the Damodar Valley Corporation?
Ans 1. Rihand

2. Salal

3. Maithon

4. Koyna
Q.10 In 1928, who among the following wrote the Congress Party’s Nehru Report, a future constitution for
independent India, based on the granting of dominion status?
Ans 1. Subhash Chandra Bose

2. Jawaharlal Nehru

3. Motilal Nehru

4. Mahatma Gandhi

Q.11 When a large amount of carbon dioxide dissolves in a water body, the water becomes acidic because of the formation of
which of the following acids?
Ans 1. Carbonic acid

2. Carbamic acid

3. Carbolic acid

4. Carboxylic acid

Q.12 How many cities have been selected to be developed as sustainable and responsible destinations as per the Swadesh
Darshan 2.0 scheme launched by the Union Ministry of Tourism in January 2023?
Ans 1. 45

2. 67

3. 21

4. 30

Q.13 As per Article 181, the ___________ can not preside while a resolution for his removal from office is under consideration in
State Legislative Assembly.
Ans 1. Deputy Chairman

2. Chairman

3. Speaker

4. Advocate General

Q.14 Raga Deepak has been associated with which famous musician?
Ans 1. Ali Khan Karori

2. Lal Kalawant

3. Tansen

4. Khusrau

Q.15 Calculate the revenue receipts from the following information.

Revenue deficit= 2.80% of GDP Revenue expenditure= 10.80% of GDP
Ans 1. 8.00

2. 2.70

3. 12.80

4. 13.60

Q.16 The autobiography 'Wings of Fire' chronicles the life of which notable Indian personality?
Ans 1. Ratan Tata

2. Kiran Bedi

3. Arundhati Roy

4. APJ Abdul Kalam

Q.17 The Patkai hills are part of the ____________ mountains.

Ans 1. Karakoram

2. Western Ghats

3. Eastern Ghats

4. Purvachal
Q.18 Who was the court poet of king Harshavardhana?
Ans 1. Kalidas

2. Banabhatta

3. Ravikirti

4. Vatsbhatti

Q.19 Which of the following architectural elements is excluded from the construction sites of the Indus Valley Civilisation?
Ans 1. Sun Dried Bricks

2. Mortar of Gypsum

3. Iron Slabs

4. Baked Bricks

Q.20 Which of the following correctly describes the nature of the Indian Constitution?

Ans 1. Flexible

2. Rigid

3. Neither rigid nor flexible

4. Very rigid and difficult to amend

Q.21 The 'Bathukamma' festival is associated with which state?

Ans 1. Tripura

2. Punjab

3. Sikkim

4. Telangana

Q.22 The term 'foot fault' is associated with which of the following games?
Ans 1. Archery

2. Basketball

3. Hockey

4. Tennis

Q.23 Select the INCORRECT pair of molecule/formula units and their molar mass from the following.
Ans 1. NaCl - 58.5

2. HCl - 36.5

3. CH4 - 16

4. HNO3 - 62

Q.24 Which of the following revolutionaries, who was arrested in Lahore conspiracy case by the British Government of India, was
martyred in the hunger strike of 63 days in jail?
Ans 1. Jatindra Nath Das

2. Rash Behari Bose

3. Ram Prasad Bismil

4. Prafulla Chaki

Q.25 Balban’s rule as an absolute despot led to which of the following events?
Ans 1. Granting Jagirs to Nobles

2. Destruction of the Forty

3. Respected common man

4. Appointed Hindus in administration

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given
sentence.

I long from travel outside the country, dreaming of adventures among the towering Alps and
basking in the turquoise waters of the Caribbean.
Ans 1. long for travelling

2. long at travel

3. long to travel

4. long for travelled

Q.2 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word in the given sentence.

The company plans to expand its operations into global markets soon.
Ans 1. Restrict

2. Diversify

3. Spread

4. Eliminate

Q.3 One of the four underlined words in the given sentence is incorrectly spelt. Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Let us appreciate, support and contribute our might to the promotional efforts of the comunity.
Ans 1. comunity

2. contribute

3. promotional

4. appreciate

Q.4 Select the most appropriate meaning of the idiom from the options given below.
To show the white feather
Ans 1. To act bravely

2. To show anger

3. To act cowardly

4. To maintain peace

Q.5 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined word.

I cannot see without my glasses.
Ans 1. A fragile object

2. A container

3. An unbreakable object

4. A device used to correct the defects of vision

Q.6 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Triumph
Ans 1. Delay

2. Lapse

3. Attentiveness

4. Failure

Q.7 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

A building where animals are butchered

Ans 1. Abattoir

2. Burrow

3. Cemetery

4. Decanter
Q.8 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The scientist conducted a series of experiments to _______ his hypothesis.

Ans 1. variable

2. vague

3. verify

4. variation

Q.9 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

My brother trains young girls at the football academy, whereas I gets a handsome salary to teach mathematics at the same
place.
Ans 1. at the football academy, whereas

2. to teach mathematics at the same place

3. I gets a handsome salary

4. My brother trains young girls

Q.10 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Reverent
Ans 1. Important

2. Related

3. Rushed

4. Respectful

Q.11 Rectify the sentence by selecting the correct spelling from the options.

All the political parties of India appaer lost in the physical exercise of fighting elections.
Ans 1. Apearr

2. Appear

3. Aapear

4. Apeear

Q.12 Select the grammatically correct sentence from the given options.
Ans 1. An unexpected power failure completely foiled a plan of a team.

2. An unexpected power failure completely foiled an plan of the team.

3. A unexpected power failure completely foiled the plan of a team.

4. An unexpected power failure completely foiled the plan of the team.

Q.13 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

They all felt that the movie was truly captivating and unforgettable.
Ans 1. relatable

2. charismatic

3. tantalising

4. repugnant

Q.14 In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option
to fill in the blanks.
Johannes Gutenberg invented the first printing press that could print thousands of ______________ a day. This made books
cheaper and information ______________ widely available.
Ans 1. pages; more

2. leaf; many

3. sheet; much

4. sides; most
Q.15 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

Although she is usually / rude with everyone, / she behaved nice / with all of us today.
Ans 1. Although she is usually

2. rude with everyone

3. with all of us today

4. she behaved nice

Q.16 Select the correct spelling of the underlined word in the given sentence.

After their disagreement, they decided to saparate their belongings and part ways.
Ans 1. separate

2. seprate

3. seperate

4. seprete

Q.17 In the following sentence the underlined part contains as error. Alternatives to the underlined part are given as options.
Select the correct alternative.
The bread was drier and stale.
Ans 1. dry

2. more drier

3. driest

4. much drier

Q.18 In the following sentence the underlined part contains an error. Alternatives to the underlined part are given as options.
Select the correct alternative.
All in all, he had the more splendid collection of antique paintings ever.
Ans 1. more splendider

2. most splendid

3. splendid

4. splendidest

Q.19 Select the option that has an error in the use of phrasal verb.
Ans 1. Why does she break out with all her near and dear ones?

2. We look forward to seeing you during the event.

3. Clean up the mess in the kitchen. It is unhygienic.

4. To earn a significant profit, you are advised to deal in electronic items.

Q.20 Select the most appropriate idiom that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

She is someone who always discourages our enthusiasm; therefore, we have decided to keep our distance from her.
Ans 1. a wet blanket

2. a cash cow

3. a nine days' wonder

4. a fish out of water

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

Goddess Shailputri is the first form of Goddess Durga, who is worshipped ____(1)___ Navaratri. In this form, she is worshipped as the
daughter of ___(2)__ Himalayas. She is the goddess ___(3)____ nature and is adorned with flowers. She ___(4)__ a bull and holds a
trident in one hand and a lotus flower in another. During Navaratri, nine different forms of Durga are worshipped. Durga is a ___(5)__,
___(6)___, ___(7)___ deity who is also known as Adishakti—the energy that manifested to create the universe.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans 1. during

2. b
y

3. to

4. among

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate article to fill in blank number 2.
Ans 1. an

2. no article

3. a

4. the

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans 1. around

2. w
ith

3. at

4. of

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans 1. was riding

2. rode

3. had ridden

4. rides
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blanks number 5.
Ans 1. radiant; Indian; powerful

2. Indian; radiant; powerful

3. powerful; Indian; radiant

4. powerful; radiant; Indian

Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 30/09/2024
Exam
4:00 PM - 5:30 PM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 एक परीक्षा में 64 लड़कों और एक निश्चित संख्या में लड़कियों द्वारा प्राप्त औसत अंक 59.15 हैं, जबकि लड़कों द्वारा प्राप्त औसत अंक 55.25 है। यदि
लड़कियों का औसत अंक 68.75 है, तो कितनी लड़कियों ने परीक्षा दी?
Ans 1. 28

2. 27

3. 25

4. 26

Q.2 शरद ने क्रमशः 7% और 9% वार्षिक दर से 6 वर्ष और 3 वर्ष के लिए दो बराबर राशियों का निवेश किया। उनके साधारण ब्याज का योग ₹1,587 है।
शरद द्वारा निवेशित राशि (₹ में) कितनी है?
Ans 1. 4,650

2. 4,600

3. 4,374

4. 4,550

Q.3 40 kg, 49 kg, 56 kg, 68 kg और 35 kg वजन के पांच सदस्यों वाले परिवार का औसत वजन (kg में) ज्ञात कीजिए।
Ans 1. 48.6

2. 49.6

3. 50.6

4. 51.6

Q.4 3 वर्षों के लिए 9% वार्षिक की ब्याज दर पर उधार ली गई राशि ₹3000 पर साधारण ब्याज (₹ में) ज्ञात कीजिए।
Ans 1. 810

2. 770

3. 750

4. 850

Q.5 रमानी अपनी कार सरला को 15% की हानि पर बेचती है। यदि सरला इसके लिए ₹1,91,250 का भुगतान करती है, तो रमानी के लिए कार का क्रय
मूल्य क्या है?
Ans 1. ₹2,25,600

2. ₹3,00,000

3. ₹2,25,000

4. ₹2,75,000
Q.6 संख्याओं 253, 245, 325, 120 और 115+2K का औसत 212 है। संख्याओं 353, 354, 225, 220 और 110+3K का औसत ज्ञात कीजिए।
Ans 1. 250

2. 251

3. 253

4. 252

Q.7

Ans 1. 840

2. 880

3. 900

4. 860

Q.8 2 वर्षों के लिए 9% वार्षिक की ब्याज दर पर उधार ली गई राशि ₹2000 पर साधारण ब्याज (₹ में) ज्ञात कीजिए।
Ans 1. 320

2. 360

3. 400

4. 300

Q.9 एक कु र्सी का अंकित मूल्य ₹1,800 है और अंकित मूल्य पर 18% की छू ट दी जाती है। निवल मूल्य (net price) ₹1,220 तक लाने के लिए ग्राहक को
अब कौन-सी अतिरिक्त छू ट दी जानी चाहिए? (दशमलव के बाद दो स्थानों तक पूर्णांकित करें ।)
Ans 1. 14.37%

2. 31.47%

3. 17.34%

4. 13.47%

Q.10

Ans 1. 225

2. 175

3. 250

4. 200
Q.11 एक समचतुर्भुज के दो विकर्णों की लंबाई 20 cm और 23 cm है। समचतुर्भुज का क्षेत्रफल ( cm2 में) क्या होगा?
Ans 1. 460

2. 230

3. 345

4. 115

Q.12 स्थिर जल में एक नाव की चाल 13 km/h है और धारा की चाल 4 km/h है। 68 km की दू री धारा की दिशा में तय करने में लगने वाले समय की तुलना
में धारा की विपरीत दिशा में समान दू री तय करने में उसे कितना अधिक समय लगेगा? (निकटतम मिनट तक सही)
Ans 1. 3 h 33 min

2. 2 h 55 min

3. 3 h 50 min

4. 3 h 30 min

Q.13

Ans 1. 45 : 32

2. 39 : 47

3. 47 : 39

4. 32 : 45

Q.14 ₹19.5 में एक वस्तु को बेचकर, एक विक्रे ता 10% का लाभ अर्जित करता है। उसे अपना विक्रय मूल्य (₹ में, दो दशमलव स्थान तक सन्निकटित)
कितना बढ़ाना चाहिए, ताकि 50% का लाभ अर्जित कर सके ?
Ans 1. 10.09

2. 7.09

3. 8.09

4. 9.09
Q.15

Ans
1.

Q.16 एक चुनाव में दो उम्मीदवारों ने भाग लिया। उनमें से एक ने कु ल वोटों का 62.5% हासिल किया और 996 वोटों से जीता। डाले गए वोटों की कु ल
संख्या कितनी है? (सभी वोट वैध हैं)
Ans 1. 3984

2. 1594

3. 2656

4. 2988

Q.17 115 विद्यार्थियों की एक कक्षा का औसत वजन 52.4 kg है। यदि 63 लड़कों का औसत वजन 60 kg है, तो कक्षा में लड़कियों का औसत वजन (kg में)
ज्ञात करें । (दशमलव के बाद एक स्थान तक पूर्णांकित)
Ans 1. 45.5

2. 43.2

3. 47.6

4. 41.8

Q.18 1500 m की एक वृत्ताकार दौड़ में, P और Q एक ही बिंदु से और एक ही समय पर क्रमश: 20 km/h और 35 km/h की चाल से दौड़ना शुरू करते हैं।
यदि वे एक ही दिशा में दौड़ रहे हैं तो वे ट्रैक पर पहली बार कितने समय बाद मिलेंगे?
Ans 1. 360 सेकं ड

2. 340 सेकं ड

3. 640 सेकं ड

4. 840 सेकं ड

Q.19 तीन संख्याएँ 3 : 4 : 5 के अनुपात में हैं और उनका महत्‍तम समापवर्तक (HCF), 60 है। ये संख्याएँ कौन-सी हैं?
Ans 1. 45, 60,75

2. 180, 240, 300

3. 90, 120, 150

4. 20, 15, 12

Q.20 एक पार्क में खरगोश और कबूतर 4 : 9 के अनुपात में हैं। यदि पैरों की गिनती की जाए, तो पैरों की कु ल संख्या 340 है। खरगोशों की संख्या ज्ञात
कीजिए।
Ans 1. 30

2. 70

3. 20

4. 40

Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1 अंग्रेजी वर्णानुक्रम के आधार पर UDLT किसी निश्चित प्रकार से XGOW से संबंधित है। ZIQY ठीक उसी प्रकार CLTB से संबंधित है। समान तर्क का
अनुसरण करते हुए IQYH निम्नलिखित में से किससे संबंधित है?
Ans 1. LTBK

2. LTCL

3. LGKK

4. MKBK

Q.2 निम्नलिखित समीकरण को गणितीय रूप से सही बनाने के लिए किन दो चिह्नों को आपस में बदला जाना चाहिए?
49 + 7 × 10 ÷ 6 – 3 = 73
Ans 1. × और ÷

2. + और –

3. – और ×

4. + और ÷

Q.3 यदि '+' और '−' को आपस में बदल दिया जाए तथा '×' और '÷' को आपस में बदल दिया जाए, तो निम्नलिखित समीकरण में प्रश्न चिह्न (?) के स्थान पर
क्या आएगा?
90 − 6 + 69 ÷ 54 × 27 = ?
Ans 1. −43

2. −45

3. −44

4. −42

Q.4 एक निश्चित कू ट भाषा में ‘clean the room’ को ‘rt yp fs’ लिखा जाता है और ‘room is good’ को ‘sw rt la’
लिखा जाता है। उसी कू ट भाषा में ‘room’ को कै से लिखा जाएगा?
Ans 1. sw

2. yp

3. fs

4. rt

Q.5 दिए गए कथनों और निष्कर्षों को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़िए। यह मानते हुए कि कथनों में दी गई जानकारी सत्य है, चाहे वह सामान्यतः ज्ञात तथ्यों से भिन्न
प्रतीत होती हो और निर्णय लीजिए कि दिए गए निष्कर्षों में से कौन-सा/कौन-से निष्कर्ष कथनों का तार्कि क रूप से अनुसरण करता है/करते हैं।

कथन:
कु छ लताएँ , पत्थर हैं।
कु छ पत्थर, कलियाँ हैं।
निष्कर्ष:
(I) कु छ कलियाँ, पत्थर हैं।
(II) कोई भी लता, कली नहीं है।
Ans 1. न तो निष्कर्ष I और न ही II अनुसरण करता है।

2. के वल निष्कर्ष II अनुसरण करता है।

3. के वल निष्कर्ष I अनुसरण करता है।

4. निष्कर्ष I और II दोनों अनुसरण करते हैं।

Q.6 दिए गए कथनों और निष्कर्षों को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़िए। यह मानते हुए कि कथनों में दी गई जानकारी सत्य है, चाहे वह सामान्यतः ज्ञात तथ्यों से भिन्न
प्रतीत होती हो और निर्णय लीजिए कि दिए गए निष्कर्षों में से कौन-सा/कौन-से निष्कर्ष कथनों का तार्कि क रूप से अनुसरण करता है/करते हैं।

कथन:
कु छ अभिनेता, नर्तक हैं।
कु छ नर्तक, गायक हैं।

निष्कर्ष:
(I) कु छ अभिनेता, गायक हैं।
(II) कोई गायक, नर्तक नहीं है।
Ans 1. न तो निष्कर्ष (I) और न ही निष्कर्ष (II) अनुसरण करता है

2. के वल निष्कर्ष (II) अनुसरण करता है

3. के वल निष्कर्ष (I) अनुसरण करता है

4. दोनों निष्कर्ष (I) और (II) अनुसरण करते हैं

Q.7 छ: छात्र धीरज, मोहन, लोके श, परम, रोहन और सुरे श एक वृत्ताकार मेज के चारों ओर कें द्र की ओर मुख करके बैठे हैं (परं तु जरूरी नहीं कि वे इसी
क्रम में बैठे हों)। रोहन, सुरे श के दाएँ से दू सरे स्थान पर बैठा है। परम, रोहन के दाएँ से तीसरे स्थान पर बैठा है। परम, लोके श और सुरे श दोनों का
निकटतम पड़ोसी है। मोहन और लोके श निकटतम पड़ोसी हैं। धीरज और मोहन दोनों का निकटतम पड़ोसी कौन है?
Ans 1. लोके श

2. रोहन

3. सुरे श

4. परम

Q.8 उस समुच्‍चय का चयन कीजिए जिसमें संख्याएँ ठीक उसी प्रकार संबंधित हैं, जिस प्रकार निम्नलिखित समुच्‍चयों की संख्याएँ संबंधित हैं।

(ध्यान दें: संख्याओं को उनके घटक अंकों में अलग-अलग किए बिना पूर्ण संख्याओं पर संक्रियाएं की जानी चाहिए। उदाहरण के लिए संख्या 13 -
संख्या 13 पर संक्रियाएं जैसे 13 को जोड़ना/घटाना/गुणा करना आदि किया जा सकता है। 13 को 1 और 3 में अलग-अलग करने की और फिर 1 और
3 पर गणितीय संक्रियाएं करने की अनुमति नहीं है।)

(16, 3, 27)
(10, 19, 37)
Ans 1. (15, 17, 30)

2. (5, 14, 20)

3. (7, 25, 40)

4. (19, 15, 32)

Q.9 दिए गए विकल्पों में से उस आकृ ति का चयन कीजिए जो निम्नलिखित श्रृंखला में प्रश्न चिह्न (?) के स्‍थान पर आ सकती है।

Ans

Q.10 एक निश्चित तर्क का अनुसरण करते हुए 10, 102 से संबंधित है। उसी तर्क का अनुसरण करते हुए 13, 171 से संबंधित है। समान तर्क का अनुसरण
करते हुए, 16 निम्नलिखित में से किससे संबंधित है?

2. 258

3. 268

4. 251

Q.11 ACDB एक निश्चित तरीके से ZXWY से संबंधित है। उसी तरीके से, EGHF, VTSU से संबंधित है। इसी तर्क का पालन करते हुए IKLJ निम्नलिखित में
से किससे संबंधित है?
Ans 1. RPQO

2. PRQO

3. PROQ

4. RPOQ

Q.12

Ans 1.

4.
Q.13 दी गई आकृ ति के उस सही दर्पण प्रतिबिंब को चुनिए, जो नीचे दर्शाए गए अनुसार दर्पण को MN पर रखने पर बनेगा।

Ans
1.

Q.14 अंग्रेजी वर्णमाला क्रम के आधार पर दी गई श्रृंखला में प्रश्न चिह्न (?) के स्थान पर क्या आना चाहिए?

HAF, KDI, NGL, QJO, ?

Ans 1. TMR

2. PQR

3. SKP

4. RTW

Q.15 एक निश्चित कू ट भाषा में, ‘Do you follow’ को ‘MP TQ IX’ के रूप में कू टबद्ध किया जाता है और ‘How are you’ को ‘TQ LV IJ’ के रूप में
कू टबद्ध किया जाता है। इसी कू ट भाषा में ‘you’ को किस प्रकार कू टबद्ध किया जाएगा?
Ans 1. IX

2. LU

3. TQ

4. MP

Q.16 S, T, U, V, W और X एक वृत्ताकार मेज के चारों ओर कें द्र की ओर मुख करके बैठे हैं (परं तु जरूरी नहीं कि वे इसी क्रम में बैठे हों)। W, U के दाएँ से
दू सरे स्थान पर बैठा है। T, W के दाएँ से दू सरे स्थान पर बैठा है। X, T के ठीक दाएँ बैठा है। X के ठीक दाएँ कौन बैठा है?
Ans 1. W

2. U

3. V

4. S
Q.17

Ans

Q.18 एक निश्चित कू ट भाषा में, ‘MICE’ को ‘6481’ के रूप में कू टबद्ध किया जाता है और ‘RICE’ को ‘1584’ के रूप में कू टबद्ध किया जाता है। दी गई कू ट
भाषा में ‘R’ के लिए कू ट क्या है?
Ans 1. 4

2. 1

3. 8

4. 5
Q.19 कागज़ की एक वर्गाकार शीट को दर्शाई गई दिशाओं में बिंदुदार रे खा के अनुदिश क्रमशः मोड़ा जाता है और अंतिम बार मोड़ने के बाद फिर इसमें
छे द किया जाता है। खोले जाने पर यह कागज़ कै सा दिखाई देगा?

Ans

Q.20 दी गई श्रृंखला में प्रश्नचिन्ह (?) के स्थान पर क्या आएगा?

162 184 206 228 250 ?

Ans 1. 262

2. 272

3. 277

4. 284

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 हिंदू मंदिर 'हिंगलाज माता (Hinglaj Mata)' और 'कटासराज (Katasraj)' भारत के किस पड़ोसी देश में स्थित हैं?
Ans 1. भूटान

2. नेपाल

3. श्रीलंका

4. पाकिस्तान

Q.2 निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा, रासायनिक सूत्र H2SO4 वाला यौगिक है?
Ans 1. नाइट्रि क अम्ल (Nitric Acid)

2. सल्फ्यूरस अम्ल (Sulfurous Acid)

3. हाइड्रोजन सल्फाइड (Hydrogen Sulfide)

4. सल्फ्यूरिक अम्ल (Sulfuric Acid)

Q.3 अनुच्छे द 74(1) के अनुसार मंत्रिपरिषद (Council of Ministers) का प्रमुख कौन होता है?
Ans 1. मुख्य न्यायाधीश

2. हाउस स्पीकर

3. प्रधान मंत्री

4. राष्ट्र पति

Q.4 भारत का निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा राज्य राष्ट्रीय बहुआयामी गरीबी सूचकांक: एक प्रगति समीक्षा 2023 में सबसे निचले स्थान पर है?
Ans 1. सिक्किम

2. के रल

3. गोवा

4. तमिलनाडु

Q.5 42वें संवैधानिक संशोधन अधिनियम द्वारा मौलिक कर्तव्यों पर निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा अनुच्छे द भारतीय संविधान में शामिल किया गया था?
Ans 1. 45A

2. 40

3. 51-A

4. 52-A

Q.6 निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा पूँजीगत प्राप्तियों का एक भाग नहीं है?

Ans 1. विनिवेश

2. ऋण ग्रहण

3. कर राजस्‍व

4. ऋण की वसूली

Q.7 ‘मेगालिथ (Megalith)’ शब्द दो ________ शब्दों से मिलकर बना है; ‘megas (मेगास)’ जिसका अर्थ है, महान और ‘lithas (लिथस)’ जिसका अर्थ है
पत्थर।
Ans 1. हीब्रु (Hebrew)

2. यूनानी (Greek)

3. अंग्रेज़ी (English)

4. लैटिन (Latin)

Q.8 अकबर के शासनकाल के दौरान ‘दीवान’ के नाम से जाना जाने वाला अधिकारी मुगल साम्राज्य के निम्नलिखित में से किस विभाग से संबंधित था?
Ans 1. अदालती

2. विदेशी मामले

3. वित्त

4. सैन्य

Q.9 निम्नलिखित में से फसल ऋतू और संबंधित फसल के गलत युग्म की पहचान कीजिए।
Ans 1. रबी - धान (Paddy)

2. ख़रीफ़ - ज्वार (Maize)

3. रबी - गेहूं (Wheat)

4. ख़रीफ़ - सोयाबीन (Soyabean)

Q.10 पुरुष वर्ग में चौथी एशियाई खो-खो चैम्पियनशिप (4th Asian Kho-Kho Championship) 2023 प्रतियोगिता किस देश ने जीती?
Ans 1. भारत

2. इंडोनेशिया

3. दक्षिण कोरिया

4. ईरान
Q.11 स्वतंत्रता के बाद के पहले राष्ट्रीय खेलों की मेजबानी निम्नलिखित में से किस नगर में की गई थी?
Ans 1. जबलपुर

2. लखनऊ

3. दिल्ली

4. मद्रास

Q.12 प्रसिद्ध हिंदी उपन्यास 'मैला आंचल (Maila Aanchal)' __________ द्वारा लिखा गया है।
Ans 1. मृदुला गर्ग (Mridula Garg)

2. फणीश्वर नाथ रे णु (Phanishwar Nath Renu)

3. श्रीलाल शुक्ला (Shrilal Shukla)

4. प्रेमचंद (Premchand)

Q.13 उस व्यक्ति के शरीर द्रव्यमान सूचकांक (Body Mass Index - BMI) की गणना कीजिए, जिसका भार 50 kg और ऊं चाई 1.5 m है।
Ans 1. 22.2 kg/m2

2. 18.0 kg/m2

3. 16.6 kg/m2

4. 25.0 kg/m2

Q.14 निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा एक भारतीय लोक नृत्य है?

Ans 1. बिहु

2. मोहिनीअट्टम

3. सत्रीया

4. भरतनाट्यम

Q.15 _____________ में गणेश-रथ बेहतरीन अखंड (monolithic) मंदिरों में से एक है।
Ans 1. गंगैकोंडचोलपुरम

2. कांचीपुरम

3. सारनाथ

4. महाबलीपुरम

Q.16 आर. मुथुकन्नमल, जिन्हें 2022 में पद्म श्री से सम्मानित किया गया था, एक ______________ नर्तकी हैं।
Ans 1. छाऊ

2. सादिर

3. गरबा

4. रऊफ

Q.17 निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा राष्ट्रीय उद्यान मध्य प्रदेश में स्थित है?
Ans 1. नंदा देवी (Nanda Devi)

2. मौन घाटी (Silent Valley)

3. बांधवगढ़ (Bandhavgarh)

4. पेरियार (Periyar)

Q.18 किसी अंडे को उबालने पर उसका बाहरी भाग अपारदर्शी और सफे द क्यों हो जाता है?
Ans 1. ऊष्मा अंडे के प्रोटीन की संरचना में परिवर्तन का कारण बनती है।

2. ऊष्मा अंडे की जर्दी (egg yolk) की क्रिस्टल संरचना में परिवर्तन का कारण बनती है।

3. ऊष्मा विकृ तीकरण का कारण बनती है, श्वेतक (albumin) को सख्त करती है और इसे अपारदर्शी सफे द रं ग देती है।

4. ऊष्मा पानी के साथ अंडे की अभिक्रिया का कारण बनती है और इसे अपारदर्शी बनाती है।
Q.19 ज्योतिबा फु ले किस राज्य से संबंधित थे?
Ans 1. तमिलनाडु

2. कर्नाटक

3. गुजरात

4. महाराष्ट्र

Q.20 निम्नलिखित में से किस राज्य में बेहदीनखलम महोत्सव (Behdienkhlam Festival) मनाया जाता है, जिसमें युवा हर घर की छत को बांस के डंडों से
पीटकर बुरी आत्मा, प्लेग और बीमारी को दू र भगाने का प्रतीकात्मक प्रदर्शन करते हैं?
Ans 1. ओडिशा

2. मणिपुर

3. मेघालय

4. बिहार

Q.21 प्रकाश वर्ष के संदर्भ में सूर्य और पृथ्वी के बीच औसत अंतराल (average separation) 8.311 मिनट है। यहाँ, मिनट _____________ इंगित करते
हैं।
Ans 1. चाल

2. समय

3. वेग

4. दू री

Q.22 वैश्विक प्रौद्योगिकी शिखर सम्मेलन (Global Technology Summit) 2022, कहाँ आयोजित किया गया था?
Ans 1. वाराणसी

2. नई दिल्ली

3. जयपुर

4. बेंगलुरु

Q.23 27 अक्टू बर 2019 को दुष्यंत चौटाला (Dushyant Chautala) ने निम्नलिखित में से किस राज्य के उपमुख्यमंत्री के रूप में शपथ ली?
Ans 1. पंजाब

2. हरियाणा

3. मध्य प्रदेश

4. हिमाचल प्रदेश

Q.24 प्राचीन संस्कृ त ग्रंथों को पढ़ाने के लिए वर्ष 1791 में हिंदू कॉलेज की स्थापना कहाँ की गई थी?
Ans 1. बनारस

2. मद्रास

3. आगरा

4. कलकत्ता

Q.25 मध्य प्रदेश सरकार द्वारा निम्नलिखित हस्तियों में से किसे संगीत में लता मंगेशकर पुरस्कार (Lata Mangeshkar Award for Music) 2021 से
सम्मानित किया गया?
Ans 1. दर्शन रावल

2. उदित नारायण

3. कु मार सानू

4. शान

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
In accordance to / the factual data / serious measures are required / to control the loss.
Ans 1. In accordance to

2. to control the loss

3. serious measures are required

4. the factual data

Q.2 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to
substitute it, select ‘No substitution’.

After she will get her degree, she moved to Germany.

Ans 1. After she gets her degree

2. No substitution

3. After she get her degree

4. After she got her degree

Q.3 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains an error.

A Gita is considered / to be a dialogue between / the Pandava prince, Arjuna, / and Lord Krishna.
Ans 1. and Lord Krishna

2. the Pandava prince, Arjuna

3. to be a dialogue between

4. A Gita is considered

Q.4 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank and complete the phrase/idiom.

When Jane realised that she had made a serious mistake at work, she knew she had to face the ______and take
responsibility for her actions.
Ans 1. mirror

2. band

3. fun

4. m
usic

Q.5 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

It is essential that you act in accordance with the rules and regulations of the organisation.
Ans 1. obey

2. fulfill

3. observe

4. comply

Q.6 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to
substitute it, select ‘No substitution’.

If you do not followed the rules, you will not be allowed to stay at this hostel.
Ans 1. If you should not follow the rules

2. No substitution

3. If you cannot be following the rules

4. If you do not follow the rules

Q.7 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans 1. Neutral

2. Mutual

3. Motevate

4. Nostalgia
Q.8 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The billionaire knows how to _____ money.

Ans 1. develop

2. make

3. form

4. do

Q.9 The given sentence is divided into four segments. Select the option that has the segment with the grammatical error.

Mahesh and his workers / will have been worked / on the project / for a long time.
Ans 1. will have been worked

2. for a long time

3. on the project

4. Mahesh and his workers

Q.10 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined word in the given sentence.

Mita is smart than many other kids in the school.

Ans 1. most smart

2. smarter

3. less smart

4. smartest

Q.11 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans 1. Conscience

2. Accommodate

3. Calender

4. Cemetery

Q.12 Which of the following sentences contains an error in the use of a phrasal verb?
Ans 1. It is wise to put up with one's quarrelsome neighbours.

2. While visiting the library, I came across an interesting book.

3. Can you please take care for my belongings for some time?

4. Let's call off the picnic as there is a possibility of heavy rain.

Q.13 Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word in the given sentence.

A detrimental attitude can always be cured with a cordial approach.

Ans 1. unmindful

2. cooperative

3. social

4. damaging

Q.14 Select the correct spelling of the underlined word.

"Today's whether is very pleasant", said Maya.

Ans 1. Wether

2. Weather

3. Wheather

4. Weathur
Q.15 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

He needs to ___________ as his exams are approaching.

Ans 1. learn the ropes

2. bury himself in

3. hit the books

4. hit the sack

Q.16 Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word.

The lavish party had a luxurious atmosphere and elegant decorations.
Ans 1. Simple

2. Middling

3. Happy

4. Excessive

Q.17 The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error. Select the part that contains the error
from the given options. If you don’t find any error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer.
By next December / we will has lived / in this city for 28 years.
Ans 1. no error

2. we will has lived

3. by next December

4. in this city for 28 years

Q.18 Select the most appropriate word to replace the underlined word in the following sentence.

The officer was polite to the workers.

Ans 1. adamant

2. harsh

3. humble

4. officious

Q.19 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word.

Rakesh committed the mistake, and he must be convicted.

Ans 1. Crucified

2. Punished

3. Sentenced

4. Acquitted

Q.20 Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word in the given sentence.
It is impossible to think of Lady Stranleigh as an ordinary mother.
Ans 1. Usual

2. Unlucky

3. Blessed

4. Strange
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

Credit cards originated in the 1920s in the US, with European references dating back to 1890. John Biggins, 1.______ of the first
bank-issued credit card, invented the 'Charge-It' programme in 1946, 2.______ bank customers and local merchants. In 1950, Diners
Club introduced their credit card in the US, 3.___________ customers to pay restaurant bills without cash. American Express
4._______ their first credit card in 1958, while the Bank of America introduced the Bank America Card (now Visa) in 1958. Visa, now
known as the Visa International Service Association, is accepted in over 150 countries, making it one of the most 5._______ credit
cards available.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans 1. discoverer

2. inventor

3. producer

4. finder

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans 1. untangling

2. splitting

3. smashing

4. connecting

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans 1. forbidding

2. prohibiting

3. allowing

4. enjoying
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans 1. issued

2. suppressed

3. published

4. censored

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans 1. universal

2. amateur

3. solidify

4. entitle
Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 01/10/2024
Exam
9:00 AM - 11:00 AM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹2500 as a sum borrowed at 7% per year rate of interest for 5 years.
Ans 1. 815

2. 835

3. 915

4. 875

Q.2

Ans 1. ₹760 crores

2. ₹780 crores

3. ₹820 crores

4. ₹800 crores

Q.3 Two successive increases of 15% each, is by what percentage more than the two successive decreases of 12% each?
(Rounded off to 2 decimal places)
Ans 1.

Q.4 A grocer mixes two varieties of tea worth ₹120/kg and ₹125/kg in a ratio to produce a new variety worth ₹122/kg. What is the
ratio of the varieties to be mixed to obtain the new variety?
Ans 1.

4.
Q.5 A borrows ₹89,500 for 3 years at 7% p.a. simple interest. B borrows the same amount at simple interest of 9% for the first
year, 8% for the second year, and 7% for the third year. What is the total simple interest (in ₹) paid by A and B?
Ans 1. 40,275

2. 42,075

3. 47,025

4. 45,027

Q.6 Ravi goes to college from his village at the speed of 5km/h and returns at the speed of 4km/h. If he takes 9 hours in all, find
the distance (in km) between the village and the college.
Ans 1. 9

2. 20

3. 18

4. 40

Q.7 The least number of square tiles required to pave the ceiling of a room 525 centimetre long and 378 centimetre broad is:
Ans 1. 150

2. 380

3. 450

4. 178

Q.8 Two trains running towards each other on parallel tracks, at speeds of 45 km/hr and 51 km/hr, take 21 seconds to cross each
other. If the length of one train is 290 m, then the length (in m) of the other train is:
Ans 1. 290

2. 230

3. 250

4. 270

Q.9 What sum (in ₹) will earn a simple interest of ₹240 in 4 years at 12% per year rate of interest?
Ans 1. 750

2. 1000

3. 500

4. 250

Q.10 Two mixers and one TV cost ₹7,000, while two TVs and one mixer cost ₹9,800. The value of one TV is:
Ans
1.

Q.11 The average weight of a certain number of students in a group was 72 kg. If 11 students, with an average weight of 76 kg
each, leave the group, and 5 students, each with an average weight of 79 kg, join the group, the average weight of the
students in the group decreases by 0.6 kg. The number of students initially in the group was:
Ans 1. 19

2. 17

3. 25

4. 21
Q.12 The ratio of the present ages of Ram and Shyam is 3 : 4, and 4 years ago the ratio was 2 : 3. What will be the ratio of the
ages of Ram and Shyam 4 years from now?
Ans 1. 4 : 5

2. 2 : 5

3. 1 : 5

4. 3 : 5

Q.13 A retailer allows a trade discount of 25% and a further discount of 8% on the marked price of the products, if paid along with
his shop’s membership card. He makes a net profit of 15% on the cost. By what percentage are the products marked up by
him?
Ans
1.

Q.14 The given bar graph shows the production of onions (in quintals) from the year 2018 to 2022. Study the graph and answer
the question that follows.

Considering the average production during this period, the number of years in which the production is above the average is:
Ans 1. 3

2. 2

3. 1

4. 4

Q.15 By selling an article for ₹20, a dealer makes a profit of 10%. By how much should he increase his selling price (in ₹, rounded
off to two decimal place) so as to make a profit of 20%?
Ans 1. 2.82

2. 4.82

3. 1.82

4. 3.82
Q.16 Find the area of the quadrilateral ABCD, the coordinates of whose vertices are A(6,-3),B(-4,-2),C(3,1) and D(5,0)?
Ans 1. 16 unit2

2. 25 unit2

3. 21 unit2

4. 30 unit2

Q.17 A cylindrical tank of height 10 m and radius 5 m has a small circular cut of 0.5 m radius on its top surface. What would be
the total surface area of the tank?
Ans 1.

Q.18 The average of 9 numbers is 3. If the average of the first 8 of these numbers is 2, the 9th number is:
Ans 1. 14

2. 11

3. 15

4. 12

Q.19 Find the average of 300, 129, 49, 120 and 102.
Ans 1. 120

2. 140

3. 130

4. 150

Q.20 A cylindrical disc of thickness 1 cm is made by melting two solid cylinders of radii 4 cm and 5 cm, and length 6 cm and 4
cm, respectively. The radius of the new cylinder is:
Ans 1. 28 cm

2. 21 cm

3. 7 cm

4. 14 cm

Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1 Select the figure that will come next in the following figure series.

Ans

Statements:
All parrots are eagles.
No parrot is a crow.

Conclusions:
(I) No eagle is a crow.
(II) All crows are parrots.
Ans 1. Only conclusion I follows

2. Both conclusions I and II follow

3. Only conclusion II follows

4. Neither conclusion I nor II follows

Q.3 Select the option figure in which the given figure (X) is embedded as its part (rotation is NOT allowed).

Ans

Q.4 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements:
Some carrots are radishes.
Some cucumbers are radishes.
Conclusions:
I. All cucumbers are carrots.
II. Some cucumbers are carrots.
Ans 1. Only conclusion I follows

2. Neither conclusion I nor II follows

3. Both conclusions I and II follow

4. Only conclusion II follows

Q.5 In a certain code language, ‘TALE’ is coded as ‘5173’ and ‘AIDS’ is coded as ‘6452’.What is the code for ‘A’ in the given code
language?
Ans 1. 2

2. 1

3. 6

4. 5
Q.6

Ans 1.

Q.7 In a certain code language, ‘PLAY’ is coded as ‘4831’ and ‘CLAY’ is coded as ‘1824’. What is the code for ‘C’ in that
language?
Ans 1. 2

2. 4

3. 1

4. 8

Q.8 Which of the following interchanges of signs would make the given equation correct?
15 − 54 × 18 + 16 ÷ 2 = 44
Ans 1. − and ÷

2. ÷ and ×

3. + and ×

4. − and +

Q.9 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into
1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

(12, 4, 160)
(6, 11, 157)
Ans 1. (9, 15, 90)

2. (14, 7, 245)

3. (21, 4, 168)

4. (6, 15, 90)

Q.10 Seven people A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table, facing the center (but not necessarily in the same
order). G is sitting third to the left of E. A is sitting to the immediate left of G. D is the immediate neighbour of A and B. F is
sitting to the immediate left of C.

How many people are sitting between F and D when counted from the right of F?
Ans 1. Two

2. Four

3. Five

4. Three

Q.11 P, Q, R, S, T and U are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order). P is second to
the left of T. Q is an immediate neighbour of both U and P. S and P are immediate neighbours. Who among the following has
both T and U as his immediate neighbours?
Ans 1. Q

2. S

3. R

4. P
Q.12 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?

TKU, UNP, VQK, WTF, ?

Ans 1. YXB

2. WAW

3. XXA

4. XWA

Q.13

Ans

4.
Q.14 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans
1.

Q.15 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

53, 52, 39, 38, ?, 24

Ans 1. 26

2. 25

3. 23

4. 28

Q.16 GY 16 is related to DV 23 in a certain way. In the same way, OD 11 is related to LA 18. To which of the following is LW 13
related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. HT 19

2. HS 20

3. IS 20

4. IT 20

Q.17 In a certain code language, 'EAGER' is writtenas ‘CGGTG’ and 'LEARN' is writtenas ‘GNAPT’. How will 'HINDI' be written in
that language?
Ans 1. KJNKF

2. JKNKF

3. KJNFK

4. KJPKF

Q.18 What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘–’ and ‘×’ are interchanged and ‘÷’ and ‘+’
are interchanged?

6 − 8 ÷ 12 + 3 × 9 + 3 ÷ 17 = ?
Ans 1. 56

2. 71

3. 66

4. 2

Q.19 18 is related to 80 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 23 is related to 100. To which ofthe following is 36
related, following the same logic?(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbersinto its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13can be
performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1and 3 is not allowed)
Ans 1. 152

2. 144

3. 142

4. 138
Q.20 UBIP is related to YFMT in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, IPWD is related to MTAH.
To which of the following is OVCJ related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. SZGN

2. SMGJ

3. SJZM

4. SZMG

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 Who was appointed as the Viceroy of India in place of Lord Wavell in February 1947?
Ans 1. Lord Irwin

2. Lord Mountbatten

3. Lord Willingdon

4. Lord Linlithgow

Q.2 t the Sansad Ratna Awards 2023, who among the following received the Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam Lifetime Achievement
A
Award?
Ans 1. HD Deve Gowda

2. TK Rangarajan

3. Nagendra Singh

4. Laxminarayan Yadav

Q.3 What is the approx width of broad-gauge railway network in India?

Ans 1. 1 metre

2. 1.3 metres

3. 1.2 metres

4. 1.6 metres

Q.4 ஒரு கடற் கரையோரப் பகுதி கடல் நீ ரில் மூழ் கியதால் , அருகிலுள் ள பகுதியில் அதிக உப்புப்படிவுகள்
ஏற்பட்டது. சில நாட்களுக்குப் பிறகு, பல தாவரங் கள் மடிந்து விட்டது காணப்பட்டது. இந்த கூற்றுகளின்
அடிப்படையில் , பின் வருவனவற்றில் தாவரங் கள் மடிந்ததற்கு மிகவும் சாத்தியமான காரணம் எது?

A. கடல் நீ ரில் பரவும் கிருமிகளால் ஏற்படும் தொற்று காரணமாக தாவரங் கள் மடிந்தன.
B. சூரிய ஒளி இல் லாததால் தாவரங் கள் மடிந்துவிட்டன.
C. தாவர உயிரணுக்களில் உள் ள பிளாஸ் மோலிசிஸ் காரணமாக தாவரங் கள் மடிந்தன.
D. தாவரங் கள் கடல் உயிரினங் களால் உண் ணப்பட்டதால் மடிந்தன.
Ans 1. B

2. A

3. C

4. D

Q.5 Who was the Indian match referee in the ICC - T20 World Cup 2021 tournament?
Ans 1. Rahul Dravid

2. Venkatesh Prasad

3. Javagal Srinath

4. Sunil Gavaskar

Q.6 The Mughal emperor, Babur was a devotee of the ______Sufi Silsila.
Ans 1. Naqshbandi

2. Qadri

3. Chisti

4. Suhrawardi
Q.7 Which musical duo is part of the Khayal singing lineage of the Banaras Gharana?
Ans 1. Salamat Ali and Nazakat Ali Khan

2. Sandhya and Prasun Banerjee

3. Rajan and Sajan Mishra

4. Subhan Kasim and Subhan Bab

Q.8 Who among the following deciphered the Brahmi Script of the Mauryan period?
Ans 1. Rakhal Das Banerji

2. Herbert Hope Risley

3. James Prinsep

4. James Mill

Q.9 Which of the following age groups is considered as working population or working age in India?
Ans 1. 15-40 years

2. 0-60 years

3. 25-65 years

4. 15-59 years

Q.10 The IUPAC name of CH3-(CH2)18-CH3 is ________.

Ans 1. decane

2. icosane

3. dodecane

4. triacontane

Q.11 Hornbill festival is organised every year in which of the following states?
Ans 1. Nagaland

2. Sikkim

3. Goa

4. Tripura

Q.12 The PM-SVANidhi Scheme (2020) is run by which Ministry of the Government of India?
Ans 1. Ministry of Labour and Employment

2. Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs

3. Ministry of Finance

4. Ministry of Rural Development

Q.13 The Universal Adult Franchise in Indian Constitution is applicable to Indian Citizens from the age of _______________.
Ans 1. 22 years

2. 21 years

3. 18 years

4. 17 years

Q.14 Which of the following novels is NOT written by Aravind Adiga?

Ans 1. Selection Day

2. The White Tiger

3. The English Teacher

4. Last Man in Tower

Q.15 The Bidar Fort of Karnataka is irregularly ______ in shape.
Ans 1. circular

2. rectangular

3. rhomboid

4. square

Q.16 After which of the following Acts did India come to be governed in the name of the British crown?
Ans 1. Government of India Act, 1858

2. Government of India Act, 1919

3. Charter Act of 1853

4. Charter Act of 1833

Q.17 Which of the following dances of Goa is performed to celebrate the victory of the Maratha warriors over the Portuguese?
Ans 1. Morulem

2. Goff

3. Zemmado

4. Ghodemodni

Q.18 Which of the following Kathak dancers received the Padma Shri of 2022?
Ans 1. Kamalini and Nalini Asthana

2. Sunayana Hazarlal Agrawal

3. Shakti and Mukti Mohan

4. Shovana Narayan

Q.19 Which of the following can be a basis of difference between a salamander and a house-wall lizard apart from their habitat?
Ans 1. Scales on the skin

2. Three-chambered heart

3. Egg-laying feature

4. Cold-blood

Q.20 Bawris are traditionally used for:

Ans 1. collecting garbage

2. storing and recharging water

3. getting petroleum oil

4. getting useful minerals

Q.21 A party recognised by the Election Commission of India that secures at least ________ of the total votes in
the General Election to Lok Sabha or Legislative Assembly in four or more states in addition to winning
four Lok Sabha seats is called a National Party.
Ans 1. three per cent

2. six per cent

3. one per cent

4. eight per cent

Q.22 In which stadium did Indian cricketer Saurav Ganguly take off and waive his t-shirt?
Ans 1. The Melbourne Cricket Ground, Australia

2. Perth Stadium, Australia

3. Lord’s Stadium, England

4. Cape Town Stadium, South Africa

Q.23 In general, deficit is considered as a ________ concept.
Ans 1. stock

2. surplus

3. margin

4. flow

Q.24 When was National Judicial Commission Bill, which is a private member bill to regulate the appointment of judges through
the National Judicial Commission, introduced in Rajya Sabha?
Ans 1. December 2022

2. July 2023

3. August 2023

4. March 2022

Q.25 According to Indian Meteorology, which of the following is NOT a season experienced in India?
Ans 1. Equatorial season

2. The cold weather season

3. The hot weather season

4. The southwest monsoon season

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 Select the option that rectifies the spelling error in the given sentence.
The student received an A+ for her exellent performance.
Ans 1. excellent

2. perfarmence

3. performence

4. excelleant

Q.2 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
The society / of the / our place / is good.
Ans 1. The society

2. is good

3. our place

4. of the

Q.3 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
The teacher checked / whether each of them / have a blanket / as it was a cold night.
Ans 1. The teacher checked

2. whether each of them

3. as it was a cold night

4. have a blanket

Q.4 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

Raghav, who studies tourism at present, is planning to go abroad after his graduation.
Ans 1. is studying

2. studied

3. study

4. will study
Q.5 Select the most appropriate expression that can substitute the underlined word in the given sentence.
Sonali is contemplating whether to accept the offer from Saanvi or not; she is still not in a position to be able to arrive at a
decision.
Ans 1. blowing hot and cold

2. getting her act together

3. raising the eyebrows

4. chewing the cud

Q.6 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The __________ of the scientific experiment raised questions about the validity of the results.
Ans 1. verbosity

2. ambiguity

3. transparency

4. meticulousness

Q.7 Select the present perfect tense of the verb given in the brackets to fill in the blank.

Alex _______ (study) two programming languages.

Ans 1. have study

2. has been studying

3. had studied

4. has studied

Q.8 Select the most appropriate synonym of ‘scanty’ in the sentence given below.
India has varied regions which have excess, moderate and deficient rainfall all through the year.
Ans 1. Varied

2. Excess

3. Moderate

4. Deficient

Q.9 Select the word that has the same meaning (SYNONYM) as the underlined word in the given sentence.

The disposal of hazardous waste in hospitals and factories is a serious problem and needs to be taken care of urgently.
Ans 1. hazy

2. benign

3. belligerent

4. dangerous

Q.10 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Inspire
Ans 1. Stimulate

2. Reach

3. Daunt

4. Aspire

Q.11 You overhear someone say, "He's always on cloud nine." What does this idiom mean in the given context?
Ans 1. Extremely happy

2. Always busy

3. Frequently daydreaming

4. Often absent
Q.12 The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error. Select the part that contains the error
from the given options. If you don’t find any error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer.

She is / as more intelligent as / her brothers are.

Ans 1. as more intelligent as

2. her brothers are.

3. She is

4. No error.

Q.13 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Please put the dishes in the _________ after you finish eating.
Ans 1. sync

2. sink

3. shrink

4. cinque

Q.14 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the
sentence.
She was deeply effected by the news, to the point of tears.
Ans 1. affected of

2. effected from

3. affected by

4. affect from

Q.15 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

He dropped out / at his friend's house / on his way home / the day before yesterday.
Ans 1. at his friend's house

2. on his way home

3. the day before yesterday

4. He dropped out

Q.16 Select the correctly spelt word to fill in the blank.

Arvind wanted to bake a cake for Riya's birthday, so he mixed the ______________, eggs and butter.
Ans 1. flour

2. flover

3. flawer

4. flower

Q.17 The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error. Select the part that contains the error
from the given options. If you don’t find any error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer.
I am / cleaning the sofa / when she called me.
Ans 1. No error

2. when she called me

3. cleaning the sofa

4. I am
Q.18 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The student leader has _____ politics recently.

Ans 1. approached

2. jumped

3. entered

4. gathered

Q.19 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans 1. tentative

2. belated

3. perepharal

4. stringent

Q.20 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word from the given sentence.

The gardener's meticulous care ensured the vibrent colours of the flowers.
Ans 1. Vibrent

2. Care

3. Meticulous

4. Gardener's

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

It was one January morning, very early — a pinching, frosty morning — the cove all grey ____ 1 ____ hoar-frost and the ripple
lapping softly on the stones. The captain had _____ 2____ earlier than usual and set out down the beach. Mother was upstairs with
father and I was _____ 3____ the breakfast table against the captain’s return when the parlour door opened and a man stepped in on
whom I had never set my eyes before. He was a pale, tallowy creature, wanting two fingers of the left hand, and ______ 4____ he
wore a cutlass, he did not look much like a fighter. I had always my eye open for seafaring ______ 5_____ with one leg or two, and I
remember this one puzzled me.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans 1. with

2. about

3. among

4. amongst

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans 1. waltzed

2. risen

3. written

4. danced
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans 1. throwing

2. lying

3. playing

4. laying

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans 1. threw

2. throw

3. though

4. through

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans 1. flowers

2. birds

3. plants

4. men
Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 01/10/2024
Exam
12:30 PM - 2:30 PM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 The average weight of a group of 20 women was calculated as 58.5 kg and it was later discovered that the weight of one of
the women was read as 35 kg, whereas her actual weight was 65 kg. What is the actual average weight of the group of 20
women?
Ans 1. 50 kg

2. 70 kg

3. 60 kg

4. 40 kg

Q.2 Study the given graph and answer the question that follows.
The graph shows the sales of three products: P, Q and R by four companies: A, B, C and D.

How much more in percentage is the total sales of R than total sales of P (rounded off to one decimal place)?
Ans 1. 29.6%

2. 26.9%

3. 22.9%

4. 26.2%

Q.3 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹2500 as a sum borrowed at 4% per year rate of interest for 5 years.
Ans 1. 460

2. 440

3. 500

4. 540
Q.4 A shopkeeper makes a 15% profit on a sale. He would have made 18%, if he had sold it for Rs.18 more. The cost price of the
article is:
Ans 1. Rs.550

2. Rs.600

3. Rs.650

4. Rs.500

Q.5 By selling an article for ₹19, a dealer makes a profit of 20%. By how much should he increase his selling price (in ₹, rounded
off to two decimal place) so as to make a profit of 40%?
Ans 1. 6.17

2. 3.17

3. 4.17

4. 5.17

Q.6 If 4% of (A + B) is equal to 28% of (A – B), then find A : B.

Ans 1. 4 : 3

2. 2 : 3

3. 3 : 4

4. 1 : 3

Q.7 A 725 m long train passes through a 235 m long tunnel in 48 sec. Find the speed of the train.
Ans 1. 54 km/h

2. 72 km/h

3. 66 km/h

4. 82 km/h

Q.8 A person deposited ₹2,500 in a bank that pays 8% simple interest. He withdrew ₹1,000 (from
amount) at the end of the first year. What will be his balance after 4 years?
Ans 1. ₹2,108

2. ₹2,018

3. ₹2,280

4. ₹2,480

Q.9 A class of 30 students appeared in a test. The average score of 12 students is 80, and that of the rest is 70. What is the
average score of the class?
Ans 1. 87

2. 74

3. 67

4. 77

Q.10

Ans 1. 1810.16

2. 1025.24

3. 1620.35

4. 745.36
Q.11 If the curved surface area of a cylindrical pipe is 44,000 cm2 and its diameter is 5 cm, find its length.

(Take π = )

Ans 1. 19 m

2. 24.5 m

3. 28 m

4. 14 m

Q.12 The number of three different types of motor bikes B1, B2, and B3 manufactured by a company in three months is given in
the following table. Study the given table carefully and answer the question that follows.
Motor Bikes / Octobe Novembe Decembe
Months r r r
B1 107 121 145
B2 95 100 80
B3 43 40 20

What is the average number of motor bikes manufactured by the company in the month of November?
Ans 1. 86

2. 87

3. 88

4. 89

Q.13 Manpreet offers two successive discounts of 12% and 8% on the sale of a sweater to his customers on the occasion of
Diwali. What is the equivalent single percentage discount offered by Manpreet?
Ans 1. 20.96%

2. 20.00%

3. 19.64%

4. 19.04%

Q.14 A merchant has 5000 kg of Basmati rice. He sells some part of this Basmati rice at 20% profit and the rest at 35% profit. He
gains 29% in the entire transaction. What is the quantity sold at 20% profit and 35% profit, respectively?
Ans 1. 2600 kg, 2400 kg

2. 2000 kg, 3000 kg

3. 1800 kg, 3200 kg

4. 2200 kg, 2800 kg

Q.15

Ans 1. 2268

2. 1664

3. 1012

4. 2024

Q.16 A train travelling at a speed of 60 km/h leaves station A at 7:00 a.m. and another train travelling at a speed of 84 km/h starts
from station A at 9:30 a.m. in the same direction on a parallel track. At what distance (in km) from station A and after how
many hours of travel of the second train will they be together? Express your answer in the same order.
Ans 1. 525, 6.25

2. 693, 8.25

3. 495, 8.25

4. 375, 6.25
Q.17 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹2500 as a sum borrowed at 4% per year rate of interest for 4 years.
Ans 1. 360

2. 400

3. 340

4. 440

Q.18 Sunil, Basid, Vikram, and Kuldeep receive salaries in the ratio of 3 : 7 : 8 : 13. If the difference between the salaries of Sunil
and Basid is ₹2,000, then what is the difference between the salaries (in ₹) of Vikram and Kuldeep?
Ans 1. 2,200

2. 2,400

3. 2,000

4. 2,500

Q.19 Find the HCF of 24, 36 and 60.

Ans 1. 4

2. 6

3. 360

4. 12

Q.20 If tea that costs ₹7.50 per kg is mixed with tea that costs ₹10.50 per kg in the proportion of 2 :1 then, what is the cost (in ₹) of
the resultant mixture per kg?
Ans 1. 8.50

2. 9.00

3. 7.00

4. 7.50

Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1 Which of the following letter-clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the given series to make it logically complete?
EMU, DNT, COS, BPR, ?
Ans 1. UBO

2. BST

3. FCD

4. AQQ

Q.2 In a certain code language, ‘make some noise’ is written as ‘ja sp ko’ and ‘noise is painful’ is writtenas ‘la ma sp’. How will
‘noise’ be writtenin that language?
Ans 1. sp

2. ma

3. la

4. ko
Q.3 In the following number-pairs, the second number is obtained by applying certain mathematical operations to the
first number. Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following
sets.

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their
constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying to 13 can be performed.
Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
8, 30
12, 46
Ans 1. 15, 61

2. 16, 61

3. 16, 62

4. 15, 62

Q.4 In a certain code language, ‘VOLT’ is coded as ‘3517’ and ‘TURN’ is coded as ‘2348’. What is the code for ‘T’ in that
language?
Ans 1. 2

2. 7

3. 3

4. 8

Q.5 What will come in the place of ‘?’ in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘×‘ are interchanged and ‘–’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?
17 + 77 – 7 × 37 ÷ 47 = ?
Ans 1. 167

2. 187

3. 177

4. 157

Q.6 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

10, 22, 46, 94, 190, ?

Ans 1. 385

2. 389

3. 387

4. 382
Q.7 Identify the figure given in the options which when put in place of (?) will logically complete the series.

Ans

Q.8 CE 77 is related to IK 87 in a certain way. In the same way, GJ 52 is related to MP 62. To which of the following is BG 43
related following the same logic?

Ans 1. HM 53

2. XY 35

3. NZ 30

4. WZ 20
Q.9 Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series and complete
the pattern.

Ans

4.
Q.10 Select the option figure in which the given figure is embedded as its part (rotation is NOT allowed).

Ans

Q.11 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are
interchanged?

456 × 4 − 3 ÷ 11 + 70 =?
Ans 1. 77

2. 84

3. 79

4. 87

Q.12 MJHI is related to TQOP in a certain way. In the same way, GDBC is related to NKIJ. To which of the following is XUST
related following the same logic?
Ans 1. EABZ

2. EBZA

3. DABZ

4. BZAC
Q.13 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the
statement(s).

Statements:
Some whales are sharks.
No shark is a dolphin.

Conclusions:
(I) No dolphin is a shark.
(II) Some sharks are whales.

Ans 1. Only conclusion II follows.

2. Neither conclusion I nor II follows.

3. Both conclusions I and II follow.

4. Only conclusion I follows.

Q.14 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans
1.

Q.15 Six friends are sitting on a circular table, facing towards the centre (but not necessarily in the same order) . X is to the
immediate left of Z and W is to the immediate right of Y. Z and U are separated by only one person sitting between them. W
is an immediate neighbour of U. Only V is sitting between Z and Y. Who among the following are the immediate neighbours
of U?
Ans 1. W and V

2. W and Y

3. Z and Y

4. X and W

Q.16 Seven people R, S, T, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same
order). T is sitting to the immediate right of G. R is sitting to the immediate right of E. Only two people are sitting between D
and S when counted from the right of S. E is an immediate neighbour of S. If F is not an immediate neighbour of S, who is
sitting third to the left of F?
Ans 1. S

2. E

3. T

4. R

Q.17 In a certain code language, 'BRIGHT' is coded as '371562', and 'GIRTHS' is coded as '653782'. What is the code for ‘B’ in
'BRIGHT'?
Ans 1. 8

2. 1

3. 7

4. 2
Q.18 In a certain code language, 'BORDER' is coded as ‘OBDRRE’ and 'BEYOND' is coded as ‘EBOYDN’. How will 'BURDEN' be
coded in the same language?
Ans 1. UBRDNE

2. NEDRUB

3. UBDREN

4. UBDRNE

Statements:
All shirts are trousers.
No trouser is a belt.

Conclusions:
(I) No shirt is a belt.
(II) Some belts may be trousers.
Ans 1. Neither conclusion I nor II follows

2. Both conclusions I and II follow

3. Only conclusion I follows

4. Only conclusion II follows

Q.20 10 is related to 75 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 6 is related to 47. To which of the following is 15
related following the same logic?

2. 123

3. 156

4. 110

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 As per Article 51A of the Constitution of India, Fundamental Duty (h) is to develop the ________________, humanism and the
spirit of inquiry and reform.
Ans 1. scientific temper

2. cultural temper

3. sociological temper

4. religious temper

Q.2 Which Indian dancer of the Manipuri style won the Tagore Award for Cultural Harmony in 2014?
Ans 1. Rajkumar Singhajit Singh

2. Elam Endira Devi

3. Guru Bipin Sinha

4. Nirmala Mehta

Q.3 Which Article of the Constitution of India specifically addresses the qualifications for the office of the President?
Ans 1. Article 56

2. Article 60

3. Article 50

4. Article 58
Q.4 The autobiography of which of the following actors is titled ‘The Substance And The Shadow: An Autobiography’?
Ans 1. Rajesh Khanna

2. Rishi Kapoor

3. Vinod Khanna

4. Dilip Kumar

Q.5 In the context of microfinance, what does ‘S’ stand for in SHG?
Ans 1. Self

2. Steady

3. Sustainable

4. Social

Q.6 In October 2023, Maharashtra government planned which of the following schemes to overhaul its medical system after the
death of 38 patients in Nanded?
Ans 1. Arogya Mission

2. Ayushman Maharashtra

3. Vision 2035

4. Sahakar Mitra

Q.7 During which centuries did several Buddhist pilgrims and scholars travel to China on the historic 'silk route'?
Ans 1. Fourth and fifth centuries AD

2. Sixth and seventh centuries AD

3. First, second and third centuries AD

4. Eighth and ninth centuries AD

Q.8 Non-polar molecules possess _______.

Ans 1. permanent dipole moment

2. instantaneous dipole moment

3. no dipole moment

4. partial charge

Q.9 In which state is 'Bhogali Bihu' festival celebrated?

Ans 1. Gujarat

2. Chhattisgarh

3. Jharkhand

4. Assam

Q.10 Which of the following statements is/are FALSE for the Harappan town planning?
1. Most of the towns have citadel in harappan civilization.
2. Every town had a temple in Harappan civilization.
3. Every building was made of sand stone in Harappan civilization.
Ans 1. Both 2 and 3

2. Only 1

3. Both 1 and 2

4. Both 1 and 3

Q.11 The Steel Authority of India Limited (SAIL) is an example of the ________ industry.
Ans 1. public sector

2. joint sector

3. private sector

4. cooperative sector
Q.12 __________ was the pioneer who modified the Hawaiian slide guitar to play classical ragas.
Ans 1. Krishna Ram Chaudhary

2. Palghat Raghu

3. Brij Bhushan Kabra

4. Buddhadev Dasgupta

Q.13 Who among the following led the Parliamentary delegation to participate in the 9th BRICS Parliamentary Forum in
September 2023?
Ans 1. Nitin Gadkari

2. Om Birla

3. Harivansh Narayan Singh

4. Jagdeep Dhankar

Q.14 What is the name of Formula E’s first ever race in India, which was hosted in collaboration with the Telangana government?
Ans 1. The 2023 Mahindra Mumbai E-Prix

2. The 2023 Greenko Hyderabad E-Prix

3. The 2023 Greenko Buddha Circuit E-Prix

4. The 2023 Mahindra Bangalore E-Prix

Q.15 Who among the following was the most important god of the Aryans?
Ans 1. Indra

2. Pashupatinath

3. Agni

4. Marut

Q.16 The Taj Mahal was built by who among the following?
Ans 1. Shah Jahan

2. Jahangir

3. Akbar

4. Babar

Q.17 Which edition of the Intercontinental Cup event was played in India in 2023?
Ans 1. 10th

2. 5th

3. 3rd
4.
st
1

Q.18 In which state is Kawal Wildlife Sanctuary located?

Ans 1. Gujarat

2. Maharashtra

3. Telangana

4. Odisha

Q.19 When was the All Bengal Students Conference held in the chairmanship of Jawaharlal Nehru?
Ans 1. 1939

2. 1928

3. 1920

4. 1934
Q.20
Which classical dance form is performed by the renowned artists; Sitara Devi, Rohini Bhate, Pandit Munnalal Shukla,
Kumudini Lakhia and Uma Sharma?
Ans 1. Bharatanatyam

2. Kuchipudi

3. Odissi

4. Kathak

Q.21 Which of the following options correctly matches column-A and column-B?

Column-A (Food component) Column-B (Enzyme involved in digestion)

i. Protein a. Amylase
ii. Carbohydrates b. Lipase
iii. Fats c. Trypsin

Ans 1. i-b, ii-a, iii-c

2. i-c, ii-a, iii-b

3. i-a, ii-c, iii-b

4. i-a, ii-b, iii-c

Q.22 The Ramoshi Uprising of 1824 took place in which of the following present states of India?
Ans 1. West Bengal

2. Tamil Nadu

3. Maharashtra

4. Uttar Pradesh

Q.23 Select the synthetic indicator from among the given options.
Ans 1. Turmeric

2. Methyl orange

3. Litmus solution

4. Cabbage juice

Q.24 A process like river bifurcation can create valuable landforms for the environment, providing growth of vegetation. An
example of such landform is _____.
Ans 1. cascades

2. V-shaped valleys

3. potholes

4. river deltas

Q.25 According to the National Multidimensional Poverty Index 2021, which Union Territory has the lowest proportion of poor?
Ans 1. Chandigarh

2. Delhi

3. Lakshadweep

4. Puducherry

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the highlighted word in the given sentence.
The athlete demonstrated remarkable agility during the gymnastics routine.
Ans 1. Stiffness

2. Nimbleness

3. Prowess

4. Flexibility
Q.2 In the following sentence the underlined part contains an error. Alternatives to the underlined part are given as options.
Select the correct alternative.
The children were merry than usual on Sunday.
Ans 1. more merrier

2. the merriest

3. merriest

4. merrier

Q.3 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The loud thunder _______ the children, making them cry.

Ans 1. fancied

2. fastened

3. frightened

4. fainted

Q.4 Change the following sentence into superlative degree.

No other mountain in the world is as high as the Mount Everest.

Ans 1. Mount Everest is high mountain in the world.

2. Mount Everest is the highest mountain in the world.

3. No other mountain is highest than Mount Everest.

4. Mount Everest is higher than any other mountain in the world.

Q.5 Select the word that has the same meaning (SYNONYM) as the underlined word in the given sentence.

She accused her sister of being vindictive when she was trying to defame her.
Ans 1. venerable

2. vigilant

3. revengeful

4. righteous

Q.6 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Enmity
Ans 1. Antipathy

2. Friendship

3. Malignity

4. Hostility

Q.7 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

My grandparents live in a beautiful house _________ the countryside.

Ans 1. at

2. onto

3. in

4. on

Q.8 Select the correct spelling of the underlined word in the given sentence.

Rahul’s personality is complamented by his confident looks.

Ans 1. compliminted

2. complamanted

3. complieminted
4. complemented
Q.9 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

They looked out the matter and found the root cause of the problem.

Ans 1. looked of the matter and found

2. looked into the matter and found

3. looked unless the matter and found

4. looked until the matter and found

Q.10 Select the option that will improve the underlined part of the given sentence. In case no improvement is needed, select 'No
improvement required'.

Placing a huge magnet atop the temple pose to being the biggest hurdle for the masons.
Ans 1. No improvement required

2. posing as be

3. poses for being

4. posed to be

Q.11 One of the four words in bold in the given sentence is incorrectly spelt. Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

The hurricane left behind a devasstating trail of destruction.

Ans 1. devasstating

2. trail

3. hurricane

4. destruction

Q.12 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Apple of one's eye
Ans 1. Very strong

2. Very precious

3. Very stubborn

4. Very docile

Q.13 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in future tense form.
Since next Friday, the team of three members has been tracking the animal.
Ans 1. From next Friday, the team of three members will be tracking the animal.

2. From next Friday, the team of three members are tracking the animal.

3. Since last Friday, the team of three members had tracked the animal.

4. From next Friday, the team of three members have been tracking the animal.

Q.14 Select the sentence with the most appropriate use of preposition.
Ans 1. Reetu slept all during the history class.

2. Reetu slept all through the history class.

3. Reetu slept all in the history class.

4. Reetu slept all into the history class.

Q.15 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word from the given sentence.

The artist's unique technique added a touch of individiuality to the painting.

Ans 1. Artist's

2. Individiuality

3. Technique

4. Unique
Q.16 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word in the given sentence.

The children's laughter was filled with exuberant joy.

Ans 1. euphoric

2. repressed

3. sarcastic

4. flawless

Q.17 Read the sentence given below and identify if there is an error in it. The error can be in any segment of the sentence which
are marked A, B, C, and D. Select option D if there is 'No error'.
(A) Ritika angrily / (B) spoke to Kartik / (C) after the meeting / (D) No error.
Ans 1. C

2. B

3. D

4. A

Q.18 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

When pigs fly

Ans 1. Something terrible

2. Something that spoils relationships

3. Something that will never happen

4. Something unplanned

Q.19 Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. Select the option that contains an error.

The farm cattle is grazing in the field when the tiger attacked.
Ans 1. The farm cattle

2. is grazing

3. in the field when

4. the tiger attacked.

Q.20 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Blunt
Ans 1. Insensitive

2. tactful

3. Rowdy

4. Adventurous

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

A monsoon is traditionally a seasonal reversing wind (1)________________ by corresponding changes in precipitation but is now
(2)___________ describe seasonal changes in atmospheric circulation and precipitation associated (3)_______________ annual
latitudinal oscillation of the Intertropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ) between its limits to the north and south of the equator. Usually, the
term monsoon (4)___________ refer to the rainy phase of a seasonally changing pattern, although technically there is also a dry
phase. The term is also sometimes used to (5)_________________ locally heavy but short-term rains.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans 1. accompanied

2. accompanies

3. accompany

4. accompanying
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans 1. using to

2. uses to

3. used to

4. use to

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans 1. for

2. on

3. with

4. of

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans 1. were used to

2. is used to

3. are used to

4. is use to
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans 1. describes

2. describe

3. described

4. describing
Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 07/10/2024
Exam
9:00 AM - 11:00 AM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 What is the area of the remaining portion of a circle of radius 14 cm when a square with maximum possible area inscribed in
it is removed from it? (Use π= 22/7)
Ans 1. 520 cm2

2. 224 cm2

3. 616 cm2

4. 518 cm2

Q.2 A sum of₹2,380 is lent out into two parts, one at 25% p.a. and another at 20% p.a. . If the total annual
income is₹500, find the money (in ₹) lent at 25% rate.
Ans 1. 320

2. 560

3. 240

4. 480

Q.3 The speed of a boat in still water is 15 km/h and the speed of the current is 3 km/h. How much distance (in km) can be
covered going downstream in 12 minutes?
Ans 1. 3.5

2. 3.6

3. 3.4

4. 3.7

Q.4 A hemispherical bowl is 264 cm round at the brim. Suppose that the bowl is half-full of beverage. If the beverage is served in
hemispherical glasses 6 cm in the diameter at the top, how many people would be served?
Ans 1. 1372

2. 1470

3. 1270

4. 1170

Q.5
Two vessels, A and B, contain spirit and water in the ratio 3 : 4 and 5 : 3,
respectively. Find the ratio in which these two mixtures be mixed to obtain
a new mixture in vessel C containing spirit and water in the ratio 4 : 3.
Ans 1. 5 : 8

2. 3 : 7

3. 3 : 8

4. 4 : 7
Q.6 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹3000 as a sum borrowed at 6% per year rate of interest for 4 years.
Ans 1. 760

2. 680

3. 720

4. 660

Q.7 If the cash difference between the selling price of an item at a gain of 3% and 6% is ₹9, which of the following options is the
correct ratio between the selling prices?
Ans 1. 103 : 100

2. 103 : 106

3. 101 : 103

4. 101 : 105

Q.8 The marked price of a folding bed is ₹18,000. Aman bought it after two successive discount
of 15% and 10%. He spent ₹830 on transportation and sold it for ₹18,440. Find his profit.
Ans 1. ₹3,148

2. ₹3,840

3. ₹2,869

4. ₹3,539

Q.9 The highest common factor of 84 and 108 is:

Ans 1. 6

2. 12

3. 8

4. 16

Q.10 In a student council election, there were three contestants. All the voters participated in the voting and 10% of votes were
declared invalid. The contestants got the votes in the ratio 8 : 7 : 5. If the second candidate in the list got 4725 votes, the
total number of valid votes is:
Ans 1. 9,000

2. 13,500

3. 11,500

4. 10,000

Q.11 Raju sold 4 laptops at a rate of ₹1,54,005 all together and incurred a loss of 25%. At what rate should he sell the laptops to
gain a profit of 25%?
Ans 1. ₹2,31,007.5

2. ₹2,05,340

3. ₹2,56,675

4. ₹2,25,820

Q.12 If the volume and surface area of a sphere are numerically the same, then find the volume (in cm3) of its semi − sphere.
(correct to two places of decimals, use π = 3.14)
Ans 1. 65.25

2. 56.25

3. 65.52

4. 56.52
Q.13 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹2500 as a sum borrowed at 9% per year rate of interest for 6 years.
Ans 1. 1310

2. 1350

3. 1290

4. 1390

Q.14 Surendra bought an old bicycle for ₹2,500 and spent ₹300 on its repair. He sold it for ₹3,000. Find his profit percentage.
Ans
1.

Q.15 The following graph shows the actual and target revenue (in crores) of an industry in five different branches. Study the
graph and answer the question:

The ratio of total actual revenue to the total target revenue over all the branches is:
Ans 1. 17 : 16

2. 16 : 17

3. 14 : 13

4. 13 : 14

Q.16 A person travels equal distances with speeds of 3 km/hr, 4 km/hr and 8 km/hr, respectively, and takes a total of 425 minutes.
What is the total distance (in km) travelled?
Ans 1. 27

2. 32

3. 28

4. 30

Q.17 The average age of a group of 32 women is 60 years and that of another group of 40 men is 33 years. The average age of the
two groups mixed together is:
Ans 1. 46.5 years

2. 45 years

3. 42 years

4. 48 years
Q.18 A vendor wants to gain 25% by adding water to milk and selling the mixture at the cost price. Find the ratio
of water and milk in the mixture.
Ans 1. 2 : 7

2. 2 : 5

3. 1 : 5

4. 1 : 4

Q.19

Ans 1. Company A, in 2011

2. Company C, in 2011

3. Company A, in 2010

4. Company B, in 2009

Q.20 The average age of 12 men is increased by 6 years when three of them, whose ages are 36, 40 and 44 years, are replaced by
3 persons. What is the average age of the 3 persons?
Ans 1. 50 years

2. 64 years

3. 58 years

4. 67 years

Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1 Read the given statement(s) and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even
if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statement(s).

Statements:
Some kites are rocks.
All rocks are stones.

Conclusions:
(I) Atleast some kites are stones.
(II) All stones are rocks.
Ans 1. Only conclusion (I) follows.

2. Only conclusion (II) follows.

3. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

4. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

Q.2 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?

GGB, HHD ,IKH, JPN, ?

Ans 1. KWV

2. PUV

3. OWV

4. OUV

Q.3 In the following number-pairs, the second number is obtained by applying certain mathematical operations to the
first number. Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following
sets.

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their
constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying to 13 can be performed.
Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
24, 73
27, 82
Ans 1. 32, 101

2. 33, 101

3. 33, 100

4. 32, 100

Q.4 519 is related to 781 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 642 is related to 904. To which ofthe following is 485
related, following the same logic?
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbersinto its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting / multiplying etc., to 13 canbe performed. Breaking down 13
into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3is not allowed.)
Ans 1. 747

2. 721

3. 794

4. 756

Q.5 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series?

1,17, 33, 49, 65 ,?

Ans 1. 77

2. 80

3. 81

4. 79

Q.6 In a certain code language, ‘father makes tea’ is coded as ‘ib fx ey’ and ‘tea and coffee’ is coded as ‘kr ey wn’. How is ‘tea’
coded in the given language?
Ans 1. fx

2. ey

3. kr

4. wn

Q.7 In a certain code language, ‘FLOAT’ is coded as ‘14238’ and ‘BLOAT’ is coded as ‘23849’. What is the code for ‘F’ in the given
code language?
Ans 1. 2

2. 9

3. 1

4. 4
Q.8 M, N, O, P, Q and R are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order). N sits to the
immediate right of R. M sits second to the right of N. P sits second to the right of M. O sits third to the right of P. Who sits to
the immediate right of Q?
Ans 1. O

2. P

3. R

4. M

Q.9 Seven friends, Kamala, Raveena, Amruta, Nisha, Gautami, Bhavana and Triveni, are sitting in a circular dining table facing
the centre (but not necessarily in the same order). Raveena is sitting second to the right of Nisha. Gautami has Kamala and
Triveni as immediate neighbours. Triveni is sitting third to the left of Nisha. Amruta is not an immediate neighbour of Nisha.
Who is seated fourth to the left of Bhavana?
Ans 1. Triveni

2. Nisha

3. Kamala

4. Raveena

Q.10 PLRN is related to QMSO in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, LHNJ is related to
MIOK. To which of the following is HDJF related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. IEGK

2. EIKG

3. EIGK

4. IEKG

Q.11 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
All planets are rocks.
All rocks are lakes.

Conclusions:
(I) All planets are lakes.
(II) All rocks are planets.
Ans 1. Both conclusions I and II follow.

2. Only conclusion II follows.

3. Neither conclusion I nor II follows.

4. Only conclusion I follows.

Q.12 FI29 is related to TW49 in a certain way. In the same way, LO38 is related to ZC58. To which of the following is RU65 related,
following the same logic?
Ans 1. FI85

2. FE85

3. EF58

4. IF58
Q.13 Identify the figure given in the options that when put in place of the question mark (?) will logically complete the series.

Ans

Q.14 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans
1.

4.
Q.15 Identify the figure given in the options which when put in place of (?) will logically complete the series.

Ans

Q.16 In a certain code language, ‘MOVE’ is coded as ‘3917’ and ‘EAST’ is coded as ‘4692’.
What is the code for ‘E in the given code language?
Ans 1. 9

2. 2

3. 7

4. 4

Q.17 What will come in the place of ‘?’ in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘–’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?
8+2–1×1÷1=?
Ans 1. 7

2. 10

3. 5

4. 3

Q.18 In a certain code language, ‘GIFT’ is coded as ‘5197’ and ‘FIST’ is coded as ‘4157’. What is the code for ‘S’ in that language?
Ans 1. 1

2. 4

3. 5

4. 9
Q.19 What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘×’ are interchanged and ‘÷’ and ‘−’
are interchanged?
15 ÷ 5 + 8 − 4 × 7 = ?
Ans 1. 25

2. 22

3. 12

4. 18

Q.20 Select the option figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the figure given below to complete the pattern.

Ans

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 The sister of Harshavardhana Rajyashri was married to___________, the king of Maukhari dynasty of Kanyakubja.
Ans 1. Sasanka

2. Devagupta

3. Grahavarman

4. Isanavarman

Q.2 Which of the following states had benefitted by the Indira Gandhi Canal?
Ans 1. Uttar Pradesh

2. Madhya Pradesh

3. Gujarat

4. Rajasthan
Q.3 Helium gas can be converted to the liquid form by the _______.
Ans 1. hydrogen bonding interaction

2. London forces of attraction

3. dipole-dipole forces of attraction

4. dipole-induced dipole forces of attraction

Q.4 Who among the following is the ex-officio Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha as on 10 October 2023?
Ans 1. Prakash Javdekar

2. Virendra Kumar

3. Piyush Goyal

4. Jagdeep Dhankar

Q.5 In which of the following systems was the charge of collecting the revenue and paying it to the Company given to the village
headman, rather than the zamindar?
Ans 1. Mahalwari

2. Ryotwari

3. Iqtadari

4. Zamindari

Q.6 Which team won the Women's Asian Hockey Champions Trophy in 2023?
Ans 1. Japan

2. India

3. Malaysia

4. South Korea

Q.7 Pandit Arvind Thatte belongs to which of the following gharanas?

Ans 1. Agra gharana

2. Mewati gharana

3. Indore gharana

4. Benaras gharana

Q.8 S Abdul Nazeer was appointed as the Governor of _______ in February 2023.
Ans 1. Maharashtra

2. Goa

3. Andhra Pradesh

4. Kerala

Q.9 Who among the following signed a pact with Lord Irwin on March 5, 1931?
Ans 1. Jawaharlal Nehru

2. Mahatma Gandhi

3. B R Ambedkar

4. Subhas Chandra Bose

Q.10 The digestive enzymes inside lysosomes are made by:

Ans 1. Golgi apparatus

2. mitochondria

3. plastids themselves

4. rough endoplasmic reticulum

Q.11 Who was the Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India for the 2011 Indian Census?
Ans 1. Jayant Kumar Banthia

2. Devender Kumar Sikri

3. Dr. C Chandramouli

4. Vivek Joshi

Q.12 Sarhul is an agricultural festival of tribals, which is primarily celebrated in the Indian state of ________.
Ans 1. Sikkim

2. Uttarakhand

3. Jharkhand

4. Gujarat

Q.13 Who was the famous Venetian traveller of the 13th century who visited Kerala?
Ans 1. Marco Polo

2. Abdur Razzaq

3. Nicolo Conti

4. Barthema

Q.14 What is the primary gas responsible for the leavening effect in bread when yeast ferments sugars?
Ans 1. Carbon dioxide

2. Helium

3. Nitrogen

4. Oxygen

Q.15 What is Cash Reserve Ratio?

Ans 1. Percentage of deposits that a bank must keep as cash reserves with any bank

2. Percentage of deposits that a central bank must keep as cash reserves with the bank

3. Percentage of deposits that a central bank must keep as cash reserves with the government

4. Percentage of deposits that a bank must keep as cash reserves with the central bank

Q.16 Which of the following is the style of temple architecture that is widely favoured in northern India?
Ans 1. Madapa

2. Dravid

3. Vihar

4. Nagar

Q.17 In the inaugural year of the Nehru Cup event for football in 1982, which team emerged as the winner of the first edition?
Ans 1. Poland

2. Ghana

3. Australia

4. Uruguay

Q.18 According to Census 2011, what is the sex ratio of India?

Ans 1. 950

2. 933

3. 998

4. 943
Q.19 Which of the following mountain peaks is a part of the Himalayas?
Ans 1. Taramati

2. Dhupgarh

3. Kalsubai

4. Kamet

Q.20 'My Country My Life' is the autobiography of:

Ans 1. Lal Krishna Advani

2. Manmohan Singh

3. Natwar Singh

4. Khushwant Singh

Q.21 Kalamandalam Krishnan Nair was a notable figure in which of the following classical dance forms of India?
Ans 1. Kuchipudi

2. Mohiniyattam

3. Kathakali

4. Bharatnatyam

Q.22 Which Tamil superstar founded the Tamilaga Vettri Kazhagam (TVK) political party in Tamil Nadu
and Puducherry on 2 February 2024 with the slogan 'Pirappokkum Ellaa Uyirkkum' (All are equal by
birth)?
Ans 1. Rajinikanth

2. Kamal Haasan

3. Dhanush

4. Vijay

Q.23 A river is capable of forming which of the following landscapes when the river is in its middle course?
Ans 1. A meander

2. V shaped valley

3. Waterfalls

4. A delta

Q.24 Which of the following is NOT related to goals of Fundamental Duties of Indian Citizens?
Ans 1. Courage

2. Preserve

3. Cherish

4. Respect

Q.25 ________was well known for creating fusion art by adapting European theatrical techniques to Indian classical dance
combined with Indian folk and tribal dance.
Ans 1. Birju Maharaj

2. Guru Bipin Singh

3. Kelucharan Mohapatra

4. Uday Shankar

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank
School classrooms have _________ very little over the last century.
Ans 1. freed

2. changed

3. startled

4. unconcerned

Q.2 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Entice
Ans 1. Allure

2. Repulse

3. Tangle

4. Invite

Q.3 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM to substitute the underlined word in the given sentence.
In what ways do you find technological advancements beneficial to your daily life?

Ans 1. unfavourable

2. unapproachable

3. unfathomable

4. unwarranted

Q.4 In the following sentence the underlined part contains an error. Alternatives to the underlined part are given as options.
Select the correct alternative.
The new almirah is big than this one.
Ans 1. biggest

2. more bigger

3. bigger

4. more big

Q.5 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Conscious
Ans 1. Unaware

2. Sensible

3. Sentimental

4. Secure

Q.6 Select the correctly spelt word to fill in the blank.

We are entering a point where technology will change at __________ speeds.
Ans 1. modarate

2. extreme

3. inferier

4. suprime

Q.7 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
He is waiting / at airport to receive / Mr. Smith, who is / coming from South Africa.
Ans 1. at airport to receive

2. Mr. Smith, who is

3. He is waiting

4. coming from South Africa.

Q.8 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
He cheated in the [A] / examination, making his [B] / already-falling academic [C] / credentials worst. [D]
Ans 1. C

2. B

3. D

4. A

Q.9 Select the option that rectifies the spelling of the underlined word in the given sentence.
The concert was canceeled due to rain.
Ans 1. Cancaeled

2. Cancelled

3. Cancealed

4. Cencelled

Q.10 Identify the ODD word from the given options.

Ans 1. Billiards

2. Carom

3. Golf

4. Table tennis

Q.11 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans 1. Spouse

2. Intransigence

3. Unambiguous

4. Endengered

Q.12 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains anerror in phrasal verb.

Tina dropped behind of / college and / went straight / into a good job.
Ans 1. college and

2. into a good job

3. Tina dropped behind of

4. went straight

Q.13 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Run errands
Ans 1. To participate in a race through unfair means

2. To finish running before the end point

3. To do something incorrectly or erroneous in haste

4. To go out to buy or do something

Q.14 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blanks.

Our _ conducted a _ to get everyone's opinion.

Ans 1. principle; pole

2. principal; pole

3. principal; poll

4. principle; poll
Q.15 Select the option that will improve the underlined part of the given sentence.

Arun asks Smita to copy the contents of the document word by word.
Ans 1. word par word

2. word with word

3. word for word

4. word to word

Q.16 Select the most appropriate degree of comparison to fill in the blank.

Many ornithologists believe that the northern mocking birds are __________ wild birds in the jungle.
Ans 1. the noisy

2. noisier

3. the noisiest

4. noisy

Q.17 Select the most appropriate synonym of the word given in brackets to fill in the blank.

The rivals in the institution _____ (fabricated) evidence and manipulated the whole dataset.
Ans 1. forged

2. fluctuated

3. destroyed

4. wrecked

Q.18 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom.

He gnashed his teeth at his son's actions.

Ans 1. expressed sadness

2. expressed disappointment

3. expressed joy

4. expressed rage

Q.19 The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error. Select the part that contains the error
from the given options. If you don’t find any error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer.

My friend, / Priya looks more cheerful today / as she celebrates her birthday.
Ans 1. No error

2. My friend,

3. Priya looks more cheerful today

4. as she celebrates her birthday

Q.20 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Leisure activities can improve an individual's physical and mental health by ________ stress, and offering a pleasurable
experience.
Ans 1. relieving

2. reconstructing

3. upsetting

4. irritating
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

Dolphins 1_________ regarded as the friendliest creatures in the sea, and stories of them helping drowning sailors have been
common since Roman times. The more we 2____________ about dolphins, the more we realise that their society is more complex
3__________ people previously imagined. They look 4____________ other dolphins when they are ill, care for pregnant
5___________ and protect the weakest in the community, as we do.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans 1. is

2. are

3. was

4. has

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans 1. learns

2. learned

3. learning

4. learn

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans 1. for

2. than

3. to

4. the

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans 1. into

2. after

3. on

4. up
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans 1. mothers

2. fathers

3. brothers

4. uncles
Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 07/10/2024
Exam
12:30 PM - 2:30 PM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 The average of seven consecutive numbers is 95. Find the middle number in the series of seven consecutive numbers.
Ans 1. 96

2. 98

3. 92

4. 95

Q.2 ₹20 में एक वस्तु को बेचकर, एक विक्रे ता 10% का लाभ अर्जित करता है। उसे अपना विक्रय मूल्य (₹ में, दो दशमलव स्थान तक सन्निकटित) कितना
बढ़ाना चाहिए, ताकि 50% का लाभ अर्जित कर सके ?
Ans 1. 9.27

2. 8.27

3. 10.27

4. 7.27

Q.3 The number of heads on the farm, as determined by the farmer, was 60. When he counted, he discovered there were 150
legs. If all that was present were pigeons or horses, and every horse on the property had four legs while every pigeon had
two, how many horses were there on the property?
Ans 1. 10

2. 14

3. 12

4. 15
Q.4 Study the bar graph and answer the question that follows.
The bar graph shows the income and expenditure (in ₹ crores) of a company in 5 years during 2018 to 2022.

In which year is the ratio of income to expenditure 2nd highest?

Ans 1. 2019

2. 2020

3. 2018

4. 2022

Q.5 Trader A gives a single discount of 45% and Trader B gives two successive discounts of 35% and 10% on an identical item
of the same marked price. If the discount given by A is ₹539 more than the discount given by Trader B, then what is the
marked price (in ₹) of the item?
Ans 1. 15,400

2. 14,500

3. 15,600

4. 16,500

Q.6 A 240 m long train crosses a man walking at a speed of 4.5 km/h in the opposite direction in 12 seconds. What is the speed
(in km/h) of the train?
Ans 1. 61.5

2. 58.5

3. 67.5

4. 60.5

Q.7

Ans 1. 1025π

2. 1458π

3. 1458

4. 1546

Q.8 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹3000 as a sum borrowed at 6% per year rate of interest for 5 years.
Ans 1. 860

2. 900

3. 840

4. 940
Q.9 141 is divided into two parts in such a way that the one-eighth part of the first and one-ninth
part of the second are in the ratio 5 : 6. Find the first part.
Ans 1. 48

2. 60

3. 72

4. 36

Q.10 A car can cover 275 km in 5 hours. If its speed is reduced by 5 km/h, then how much time will the car take to cover a
distance of 250 km?
Ans 1. 5 hr

2. 4 hr 30 min

3. 6 hr

4. 5 hr 30 min

Q.11 The radius of a cylinder is doubled due to which the volume of the new cylinder also gets doubled. The height of the new
cylinder is what percentage of the old cylinder?
Ans 1. 50%

2. 100%

3. 200%

4. 25%

Q.12 The average weight of a family of five members (in kg) whose weights are 40 kg, 49 kg, 56 kg, 67 kg and 36 kg is:
Ans 1. 48.6

2. 51.6

3. 49.6

4. 50.6

Q.13 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹4000 as a sum borrowed at 4% per year rate of interest for 3 years.
Ans 1. 420

2. 480

3. 440

4. 520

Q.14

Ans 1. 20

2. 25

3. 22

4. 18
Q.15 The largest number that can divide 147,183 and 271 leaving remainders 11,13 and 16, respectively, is:
Ans 1. 16

2. 17

3. 15

4. 14

Q.16 Anil sells sugar at cost price but uses false weights and thus makes 20% profit. How many grams of sugar does he give in 1
kilogram?
Ans 1. 833.13

2. 833.33

3. 823.33

4. 833.23

Q.17 The average weight of a family of five members (in kg) whose weights are 40 kg, 49 kg, 56 kg, 66 kg and 35 kg is:
Ans 1. 51.2

2. 49.2

3. 50.2

4. 48.2

Q.18

Ans 1.

Q.19 A hemispherical bowl with diameter 14 cm has to be painted inside and outside. How much it will be charged at the rate of
₹20 per 40 cm2?
Ans 1. ₹308

2. ₹154

3. ₹224

4. ₹616

Q.20 At what rate percent per annum on simple interest will ₹760 amount to ₹912 in 5 years?
Ans 1. 5%

2. 4%

3. 3%

4. 6%

Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements:
All roses are lilies.
Some lilies are sunflowers.
Conclusions:
(I): Some roses are sunflowers.
(II): All lilies are roses.
Ans 1. Both conclusions I and II follow.

2. Only conclusion I follows.

3. Neither conclusion I nor II follows.

4. Only conclusion II follows.

Q.2 What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’
are interchanged?
5÷4−3×1+2=?
Ans 1. 21

2. 16

3. 20

4. 19

Q.3 In a certain code language, 'BUY' is writtenas ‘ACTVXZ’ and 'CAP' is writtenas ‘BDZBOQ’. How will 'BOX' be written in that
language?
Ans 1. ACMPUY

2. CDPQYZ

3. ACMPWY

4. ACNPWY

Q.4 In a certain code language, ‘bring hot food’ is coded as ‘ud lp sj’ and ‘food is tasty’ is coded as ‘sj xk jt’. How is ‘food’ coded
in the given language?
Ans 1. xk

2. lp

3. sj

4. ud

Q.5 What should come in place of ‘?’ in the given series?

16, 8.5, 9.5, 15.75, 33.5, ?

Ans 1. 83.75

2. 67

3. 86.25

4. 69
Q.6 Select the option in which the given figure is embedded (rotation is NOT allowed).

Ans

Q.7 In the following number-pairs, the second number is obtained by applying certain mathematical operations to the first
number. Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into
1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

0 , 99
1
21, 440
Ans 1. 30, 899

2. 15, 285

3. 26, 298

4. 3, 23

Q.8 A, B, P, Q, Y and Z are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order). Q sits to the
immediate left of B. Y sits to the immediate right of B. A sits second to the right of B. P sits second to the right of A. Who sits
third to the right of Z?
Ans 1. P

2. A

3. Q

4. B
Q.9 Seven people A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table, facing the center (but not necessarily in the same
order). F is sitting fourth to the right of D. E is sitting second to the left of F. B is sitting to the immediate left of G. A is not an
immediate neighbour of F.

How many people are sitting between C and D when counted from the right of D?
Ans 1. Three

2. Four

3. Two

4. One

Q.10 What should come in place of question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?
XJP, VMN, TPL, RSJ, ?
Ans 1. PVH

2. QVG

3. PVG

4. PUG

Q.11 ead the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
R
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
Some lights are fans.
Some fans are beds.

Conclusions:
(I) Some lights are beds.
(II) All beds are fans.
Ans 1. Both conclusion I and II follow

2. Only conclusion I follows

3. Neither conclusion I nor II follows

4. Only conclusion II follows

Q.12 Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series and complete
the pattern.

Ans

4.
Q.13 Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

Ans

Q.14 EX04 is related to ZS16 in a certain way. In the same way, UN06 is related to PI36. To which of the following is WP07 related,
following the same logic?
Ans 1. RK94

2. RK49

3. KR94

4. KR49

Q.15 In a certain code language, ‘good bright boy’ is coded as ‘xd yf vj’ and ‘boy is lazy’ is coded as ‘sb xd ql’. How is ‘boy’ coded
in the given language?
Ans 1. ql

2. yf

3. xd

4. vj

Q.16 14 is related to 93 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 6 is related to 37. To which of the following is 11
related, following the same logic?
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into
1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans 1. 77

2. 67

3. 90

4. 72
Q.17 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans
1.

Q.18 What will come in the place of ‘?’ in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘–‘ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?
14 ÷ 7 − 27 × 9 + 12 = ?
Ans 1. 71

2. 89

3. 81

4. 79

Q.19 In a certain code language, ‘like my pet’ is written as ‘nj kj lk’ and ‘pet is wet’ is writtenas ‘lk mk bt’. How is ‘pet’ writtenin the
given language?
Ans 1. nj

2. mk

3. kj

4. lk

Q.20 GYEV is related to DBBY in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, XHVE is related to
UKSH. To which of the following is LTJQ related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. TYHU

2. IGWT

3. IGTR

4. IWGT

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 Dappu dance is a famous dance form of which of the following states?
Ans 1. Punjab

2. Kerala

3. Andhra Pradesh

4. Bihar

Q.2 Purushottam Dadheech, a renowned Kathak dancer who had been honoured with Padma Shri award for 2020, is associated
with which of the following places?
Ans 1. Haryana

2. Uttar Pradesh

3. Bihar

4. Madhya Pradesh
Q.3 अप्रैल 2023 में जारी अपनी 279वीं रिपोर्ट में भारत के विधि आयोग (Law Commission of India) ने किस कानून के प्रावधान को बरकरार रखने
की अनुशंसा की है?
Ans 1. राजद्रोह कानून (Sedition Law)

2. राजस्व कानून (Revenue Law)

3. श्रम कानून (Labour Law)

4. संविदा कानून (Contract Law)

Q.4 What was the amount earned by BCCI from the sale of five teams in the inaugural Women’s Indian Premier League (WPL) in
January 2023?
Ans 1. ₹4,669.99 crore

2. ₹1,289.50 crore

3. ₹7,245.89 crore

4. ₹951.25 crore

Q.5 According to Article _____, there shall be equality of opportunities for all citizens in matters relating to employment or
appointment to any office under the State.
Ans 1. 17

2. 16

3. 18

4. 19

Q.6 The architectural marvels, temples of Gangaikonda-Cholapuram, were built by which of the following king?
Ans 1. King Rajendra

2. King mahendravarman

3. King Vijayalaya

4. King Akabar

Q.7 किस घटना से अशोक की प्रशासनिक नीति में गहरा परिवर्तन आया?
Ans 1. उनका सीलोन में मिशनरी भेजना

2. उनका बौद्ध धर्म ग्रहण करना

3. कलिंग युद्ध

4. तृतीय बौद्ध संगीति

Q.8 Sahaswan gharana of Rampur was established by whom among the following personalities?
Ans 1. Abdul Karim Khan

2. Amanat Ali Khan

3. Ustad Inayat Hussain Khan

4. Ustad Ghaghe Khuda Baksh

Q.9 The Shore Temple at Mahabalipuram was built during the reign of the _________ king Narasimhavarman II.
Ans 1. Chola

2. Pallava

3. Chalukya

4. Chera

Q.10 The name of the autobiography of Saina Nehwal is called:

Ans 1. Playing it my way

2. Playing to win, my life on and off court

3. Straight from the heart

4. Unbreakable
Q.11 Which of the following is a mineral deficiency disease?
Ans 1. Rickets

2. Goitre

3. Marusmus

4. Scurvy

Q.12 In the PM-SVANidhi Scheme (2020), the urban street vendors are eligible to avail a Working Capital Loan up to 10,000 with a
tenure of:
Ans 1. 5 years

2. 1 year

3. 2 years

4. 3 years

Q.13 Epilepsy is a disorder that affects which of the following parts of the human body?
Ans 1. The muscles

2. The teeth and bones

3. Brain cells

4. The skin

Q.14 What does WFI stand for in the context of sports?

Ans 1. Women Federation of India

2. Winter Games Federation of India

3. Women Sports Federation of India

4. Wrestling Federation of India

Q.15 As on February 2024, Yanthungo Patton is the Deputy Chief Minister of which of the following states?
Ans 1. Meghalaya

2. Sikkim

3. Nagaland

4. Assam

Q.16 Which of the following options has all vector quantities?

Ans 1. Force, Velocity, Momentum, Energy and Acceleration

2. Force, Velocity, Momentum, Weight and Acceleration

3. Power, Momentum, Energy, Speed and Work

4. Force, Velocity, Momentum, Energy and Power

Q.17 With reference to ‘slash and burn’ agriculture, which of the following names is NOT related to Odisha?
Ans 1. Koman

2. Pama Dabi

3. Bringa

4. Roca

Q.18 While estimating Gross Domestic Product, the monetary value of only final goods are considered because ___________.
a. its immobility, the active economic flow is ended.
b. of the issues of double counting
c. the value added at each stage of the production process is included
Ans 1. Only a

2. Only b

3. All a, b and c

4. Only b and c
Q.19 National Rural Employment Guarantee Act was passed in which of the following years?
Ans 1. 2004

2. 2009

3. 2005

4. 2006

Q.20 Under which of the following Acts, was Warren Hastings appointed as the Governor-General of Bengal?
Ans 1. The Regulating Act, 1773

2. The Government of India Act, 1858

3. The Government of India Act, 1909

4. The Government of India Act, 1935

Q.21 Which of the following is NOT an example of a ‘Lagoon’?

Ans 1. Chilika

2. Pulicat

3. Kolleru

4. Nainital

Q.22 Mica is which type of mineral?

Ans 1. Energy mineral

2. Non-ferrous metallic

3. Ferrous metallic

4. N
on-metallic

Q.23 Which of the following social organisations was founded by Swami Dayananda Saraswati in 1875?
Ans 1. Brahmo Samaj

2. Satyashodhak Samaj

3. Prarthana Samaj

4. Arya Samaj

Q.24 Sekrenyi festival of Nagaland is celebrated annually in the month of ______ as part of the Mini Hornbill Tribal Festival which
is a celebration of purification accompanied with feasting and singing.
Ans 1. February

2. August

3. July

4. March

Q.25 The model of 'Quasi Federal' form of government in Indian constitution is borrowed from which country?
Ans 1. United Kingdom

2. Germany

3. Canada

4. Australia

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 Select the most appropriate synonym for the given word.
Fusion
Ans 1. Glide

2. Blend

3. Grind

4. Ingredient
Q.2 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom.
The situation was out of hand. So, the manager called the police station for help.
Ans 1. To be uncontrollable

2. To be abrupt

3. In an undecided state

4. To be serious

Q.3 Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word in the given sentence.

His decision to quit his stable job and travel the world was driven by a sudden caprice.
Ans 1. Determination

2. Impulse

3. Sorrow

4. Delight

Q.4 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

One of the most horrified serials of the Indian television industry was broadcast twenty years ago.
Ans 1. more horrify serials

2. most horrifying serials

3. horrified serials

4. most horror serials

Q.5 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the highlighted word.

The new syllabus of Final Semester of MBA is very difficult.

Ans 1. problematical

2. rigid

3. easy

4. perplexing

Q.6 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
It has been / noticed that / across all his faults, / he is admired.
Ans 1. It has been

2. across all his faults

3. he is admired

4. noticed that

Q.7 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans 1. Myriad

2. Explaination

3. Accolades

4. Proposal

Q.8 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Restraint
Ans 1. Self-acceptance

2. Self-appraisal

3. Self-esteem

4. Self-control
Q.9 Select the option that has an error in the use of phrasal verb.
Ans 1. Pushpa came across an old photo in the album and asked me to recognise the face in it.

2. Please suggest me some tips to get out nervousness.

3. Please turn up the heater. The weather is too cold today .

4. Back up your essential files. Technology is only sometimes reliable.

Q.10 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans 1. Elegant

2. Efficient

3. Defecteev

4. Crowded

Q.11 Select the most appropriate form of comparative degree that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

Bilingual children are so intelligent than those who speak just one language.
Ans 1. so intelligent to

2. better intelligent than

3. more intelligent than

4. the most intelligent to

Q.12 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
The gold watch / look really expensive / and is not affordable / for common people.
Ans 1. and is not affordable

2. look really expensive

3. for common people

4. The gold watch

Q.13 The given sentence is divided into four parts. One of them contains a grammatical error. Select the part that contains the
error from the given options.
He was acquitted to / a cyber crime / on the basis of evidence / given to the court.
Ans 1. He was acquitted to

2. given to the court

3. on the basis of evidence

4. a cyber crime

Q.14 Rectify the following sentence by selecting the correct spelling of the underlined word from the options.

Life is a collection of ephmeral moments.

Ans 1. Epmeral

2. Ephemerl

3. Ephameral

4. Ephemeral

Q.15 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined words in the given sentence.

My mother asked me who did accompany me to the airport.

Ans 1. whom I was accompanied

2. who accompany me

3. who must accompanied me

4. who accompanied me
Q.16 Select the most appropriate idiom that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

This is going to be overwhelming for you as you have taken on work beyond your capabilities.
Ans 1. put something on ice

2. at the eleventh hour

3. bitten off more than you can chew

4. called it a day

Q.17 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Foremost
Ans 1. Disposed

2. Premature

3. Forecast

4. Unimportant

Q.18 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined phrase.

This sentence can have multiple meanings. Could you please specify what it means?
Ans 1. Ambiguous

2. Homogeneous

3. Amorphous

4. Heterogeneous

Q.19 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
She is studying / the medicine / at university / to become a doctor.
Ans 1. the medicine

2. at university

3. to become a doctor.

4. She is studying

Q.20 In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option
to fill in the blanks.
Leif Erikson is a Viking ________ believed to have sailed from the Green Lands to Vinland. Vinland is now thought to be the
northern tip of Canada's Newfoundland island where ________ found evidence of Erikson's ________ in 1960s.
Ans 1. explorer; archaeologists; settlement

2. astronomer; sculptors; colony

3. calligrapher; historians; community

4. sailor; excavators; packed

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
The newspaper is one of the significant signs of (1) ________ civilisation. It is the most popular form of reading in the (2) ________
times because it interests all sorts of people. It is full of political news, sports and commercial news, as well as articles by well-known
writers. A newspaper keeps us (3) ______ entertained and informed.
In these days of democracy, public opinion rules everywhere. (4) ________ government can long withstand the pressure of a strong
public opinion. It is, therefore, quite clear that the press controls public opinion, and public opinion, in turn, controls the government.
Ultimately, the press controls the government. It acts as an interpreter between the government and the people and brings the rulers
and the ruled (5) ________.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans 1. prehistoric

2. ancient

3. modern

4. monolithic
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
The newspaper is one of the significant signs of (1) ________ civilisation. It is the most popular form of reading in the (2) ________
times because it interests all sorts of people. It is full of political news, sports and commercial news, as well as articles by well-known
writers. A newspaper keeps us (3) ______ entertained and informed.
In these days of democracy, public opinion rules everywhere. (4) ________ government can long withstand the pressure of a strong
public opinion. It is, therefore, quite clear that the press controls public opinion, and public opinion, in turn, controls the government.
Ultimately, the press controls the government. It acts as an interpreter between the government and the people and brings the rulers
and the ruled (5) ________.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans 1. past

2. future

3. present

4. dark

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans 1. both

2. either

3. or

4. nor

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans 1. Some

2. Both

3. All

4. No
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
The newspaper is one of the significant signs of (1) ________ civilisation. It is the most popular form of reading in the (2) ________
times because it interests all sorts of people. It is full of political news, sports and commercial news, as well as articles by well-known
writers. A newspaper keeps us (3) ______ entertained and informed.
In these days of democracy, public opinion rules everywhere. (4) ________ government can long withstand the pressure of a strong
public opinion. It is, therefore, quite clear that the press controls public opinion, and public opinion, in turn, controls the government.
Ultimately, the press controls the government. It acts as an interpreter between the government and the people and brings the rulers
and the ruled (5) ________.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans 1. apart

2. jointed

3. overall

4. together
Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 07/10/2024
Exam
4:00 PM - 5:30 PM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹3000 as a sum borrowed at 4% per year rate of interest for 3 years.
Ans 1. 300

2. 320

3. 360

4. 400

Q.2

Ans
1.

Q.3 The price of 24 movie tickets is ₹768. How much (in ₹) will 32 movie tickets cost? [Assume that all tickets here are equally
priced]
Ans 1. 1040

2. 1056

3. 992

4. 1024

Q.4

Ans 1. ₹61.54

2. ₹51.23

3. ₹58.37

4. ₹63.14

Q.5 A man spends 12% of his income on food, 18% on children’s education, and 70% of the remaining on house rent. What
percentage of his income is he left with?
Ans 1. 21%

2. 30%

3. 20%

4. 28%
Q.6 A man bought a bullock and a cart for ₹10,000. He sold the bullock at a gain of 30% and the cart at a loss of 20%, thereby
gaining 2% on the whole. Find the cost of the bullock.
Ans 1. ₹5,600

2. ₹4,400

3. ₹5,400

4. ₹4,600

Q.7 The below table shows the population of men and women (in ratio) for five cities. Study the below table carefully and answer
the question that follows.
City Population Men : Women
Kanpur 4500 5:4
Bangalore 1547 4:3
Pune 1818 5:1
Mumbai 1547 3:4
Jabalpur 1089 4:5

What is the difference between the total number of men of Mumbai and Pune together and number of women in Jabalpur
and Bangalore together?
Ans 1. 760

2. 747

3. 572

4. 910

Q.8 The mean of the first 8 odd natural numbers is:

Ans 1. 8

2. 7

3. 6

4. 5

Q.9 A dishonest shopkeeper promises to sell his goods at cost price. However, he uses a weight that actually weighs 49% less
than what is written on it. Find his profit percentage.
Ans
1.

Q.10 The average weight of a family of five members (in kg) whose weights are 40 kg, 49 kg, 56 kg, 66 kg and 37 kg is:
Ans 1. 51.6

2. 49.6

3. 48.6

4. 50.6

Q.11 A man covers the first half of the journey at the speed of 60 km/h and the remaining at the speed of 84 km/h. What is his
average speed (in km/h)?

Ans 1. 70

2. 60

3. 65

4. 75

Q.12 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹3500 as a sum borrowed at 3% per year rate of interest for 2 years.
Ans 1. 210

2. 150

3. 250

4. 170

Q.13

Ans 1. 2.25 m

2. 5.5 m

3. 7.5 m

4. 4.5 m

Q.14 A person has to cover a distance of 8 km in 1 hour. If he covers one-fourth of the distance in one-third of the total time, then
what should his speed (in km/h) be to cover the remaining distance in the remaining time so that the person reaches the
destination exactly on time?
Ans 1. 6

2. 8

3. 9

4. 7
Q.15 A closed cylindrical tank of height 280 cm and base radius 70 cm is to be made from a metal sheet. The required sheet for
the same, in m2, is:
Ans 1. 15.4

2. 14.4

3. 13.8

4. 12.8

Q.16 2 kg of copper at ₹15 per kg is mixed with 3 kg of zinc at ₹20 per kg. Find the average price of the mixture.
Ans 1. ₹18.5

2. ₹18

3. ₹17

4. ₹17.5

Q.17 Find the greatest number that exactly divides 12, 24 and 40.
Ans 1. 3

2. 40

3. 4

4. 2

Q.18 How many kilograms of tea, costing ₹250 per kg must be mixed with 25 kg of tea costing ₹400 per kg so that there may be a
profit of 10% on selling the mixture at ₹330 per kg?
Ans 1. 45 kg

2. 40 kg

3. 60 kg

4. 50 kg

Q.19 In view of Diwali, Rajnee, an electronics shop owner, offers a discount scheme to her customers that on buying 15
decorative bulbs, they get 5 decorative bulbs free. What is the effective percentage discount given by Rajnee to her
customers?
Ans 1. 25%

2. 33%

3. 30%

4. 20%

Q
.
2
0
A 1.
n
s
2.

Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1 In the following number-pairs, the second number is obtained by applying certain mathematical operations to the
first number. Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following
sets.

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their
constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying to 13 can be performed.
Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
27, 109
31, 125
Ans 1. 35, 144

2. 36, 145

3. 35, 145

4. 36, 144

Q.2 What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘–’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’
are interchanged?
2 ÷ 70 × 2 – 30 + 30 = ?
Ans 1. 69

2. 68

3. 70

4. 66

Q.3 HPML is related to MURQ in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, CJGF is related to
HOLK. To which of the following is RZWV related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. WEBA

2. ABWE

3. ABEW

4. WEAB
Q.4 Identify the figure given in the options that when put in place of the question mark (?) will logically complete the series.

Ans

Q.5 Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.
[6/5], [3/2], [9/5],[21/10], [12/5], ?
Ans 1. 5/2

2. 27/10

3. 29/10

4. 9/2

Q.6 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements:
A. No caps are hats.
B. Some hats are helmets.
Conclusions:
I. All helmets are caps.
II. Some helmets are hats.
Ans 1. Only conclusion I follows.

2. Only conclusion II follows.

3. Both the conclusions follow.

4. None of the conclusions follow.

Q.7 Which figure should replace the question mark (?) if the following series were to be continued?

Ans

Q.8 In a certain code language, ‘All men fight’ is coded as ‘AO EI UH’ and ‘men shave everyday’ is coded as ‘MN TP EI’. How is
‘men’ coded in that code language?
Ans 1. UH

2. TP

3. EI

4. AO

Q.9 In a certain code language, ‘find the key’ is written as ‘so hd sm’ and ‘key to success’ is writtenas ‘gj so la’. How is ‘key’
writtenin the given language?
Ans 1. gi

2. la

3. sm

4. so

Q.10 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans
1.

Q.11 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?

ABC, EFG, IJK, MNO ,?

Ans 1. QRS

2. STU

3. TUV

4. UVW

Q.12 Eight friends, J, K, L, M, N, O, P and Q are sitting around a round table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same
order). K is an immediate neighbour of both Q and M. N is an immediate neighbour of both P and J. L is sitting immediately
right to J. K is sitting at the immediate left of Q and is second to the right of O.
Who is sitting to the immediate right of M?
Ans 1. P

2. O

3. J

4. K
Q.13 Which two numbers should be interchanged to make the given equation correct?
52 + 44 − 38÷ 2 + 13× 4 − 26 = 97
(Note: Interchange should be done of entire number and not individual digits of a given number)
Ans 1. 44 and 38

2. 38 and 26

3. 44 and 26

4. 52 and 38

Q.14 49 is related to 96 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 54 is related to 106. To which ofthe following is 36
related following the same logic?
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbersinto its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13 canbe performed. Breaking down 13
into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3is not allowed.)
Ans 1. 78

2. 62

3. 70

4. 56

Q.15

Ans 1.

Q.16 In a certain code language, ‘CURD’ is coded as ‘2436’ and ‘DOGS’ is coded as ‘3719’. What is the code for ‘D’ in the given
code language?
Ans 1. 1

2. 2

3. 3

4. 6

Q.17 A square sheet of paper is folded along the dotted line successively along the directions shown and is then punched in the
last. How would the paper look when unfolded?

Ans

Q.18 In a certain code language, ‘HOME’ is coded as ‘7519’ and ‘MUST’ is coded as ‘6782’. What is the code for ‘M’ in that
language?
Ans 1. 7

2. 6

3. 1

4. 2
Q.19 A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order). C sits
second to the left of E, who is third to the left of A. G sits third to the right of B, who is not an immediate neighbour of F. D
sits second to the right of B.
How many people sit between D and A when counted from the left of D?
Ans 1. One

2. Two

3. Three

4. Four

Q.20 NGMI is related to LEKG in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, QJPL is related to OHNJ.
To which of the following is TMSO related following the same logic?
Ans 1. KRMQ

2. KEQM

3. RKMQ

4. RKQM

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 According to Labour and Employment Statistics 2022, match the states in the first column with their rate of unemployment
in the year 2020-21 given in the second column.
i) Kerala a) 6.3%
ii) Goa b) 10.1%
iii) Haryana c) 6.9%
iv) Uttarakhand d) 10.5%

Ans 1. i) a, ii) c, iii) d, iv) b

2. i) d, ii) b, iii) c, iv) a

3. i) d, ii) c, iii) b, iv) a

4. i) b, ii) d, iii) a, iv) c

Q.2 Which of the following dance forms is primarily associated with Eastern India states like Odisha,
Jharkhand and West Bengal?
Ans 1. Bharatanatyam

2. Kuchipudi

3. Chhau

4. Kathak

Q.3 Which Articles of the Constitution of India provide for a parliamentary form of government at the Centre?
Ans 1. Articles 74 and 75

2. Articles 71 and 72

3. Articles 79 and 80

4. Articles 76 and 77

Q.4 Which of the following crops is grown in the Kharif season in India?
Ans 1. Mustard

2. cucumber

3. Soyabean

4. Barley

Q.5 What was the percentage increase in the disbursal of 'Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana' (PMMY) loans in the first quarter of FY
2023-24 compared to the same quarter in the previous year, if the disbursal reached ₹81,597 crore, up from ₹62,650 crore?
Ans 1. 23%

2. 27%

3. 15%

4. 20%

Q.6 In which of the following years was the 'Quit India Movement' launched?
Ans 1. 1942

2. 1935

3. 1920

4. 1919

Q.7 A person having stunted growth and discoloured hair is most probably suffering from ________________.
Ans 1. Protein Deficiency

2. Lipid Deficiency

3. Glucose Deficiency

4. Vitamin A Deficiency

Q.8 In the case of reptiles, their heart is not properly divided in to four chambers i.e., it consists of two auricles and an
incompletely divided ventricle. Which of the following is an example of a reptile having a four-chambered heart?
Ans 1. Snake

2. Turtles

3. Crocodile

4. Lizard
Q.9 Samrat Choudhary and Vijay Kumar Sinha became the Deputy Chief Minister of ________________ on 28 January 2024.
Ans 1. Odisha

2. West Bengal

3. Bihar

4. Jharkhand

Q.10 Which of the following is the autobiography of Bhishma Sahni?

Ans 1. Aaj ke Ateet

2. Aatma Parichaya

3. Aarhdakatha

4. Pankhhin

Q.11 In which year was the Multi-dimensional Poverty Index launched in India?
Ans 1. 2021

2. 2022

3. 2020

4. 2023

Q.12 Valabhi type of Nagara temples are generally ___________ in shape, with a roof that rises into a vaulted chamber.
Ans 1. square

2. triangular

3. circular

4. rectangular

Q.13 Who among the following founded the Saluva dynasty of Vijayanagara empire?
Ans 1. Rama Deva Raya

2. Narsimha Deva Raya

3. Bukka Raya I

4. Krishanadeva Raya

Q.14 Who was the chairman of the drafting committee of the Constituent Assembly of India?
Ans 1. Bhimrao Ambedkar

2. Vallabhbhai Patel

3. Rajendra Prasad

4. JB Kripalani

Q.15 The Durg-Bastar-Chandrapur iron ore belt lies in which of the following groups of states?
Ans 1. Karnataka - Goa

2. Chhattisgarh - Maharashtra

3. Odisha - Jharkhand

4. Madhya Pradesh - Gujarat

Q.16 Which team won the Ultimate Kho-Kho League Season 2 event?
Ans 1. Chennai Quick Guns

2. Gujarat Giants

3. Telugu Yoddhas

4. Mumbai Khiladis

Q.17 Which of the following was the first Regional Rural Bank of India?
Ans 1. Utkarsh Bank

2. Vishwas Bank

3. Pratham Bank

4. Bandhan Bank

Q.18 The elements that are liquid at room temperature (25°C) are:
Ans 1. bromine and chlorine

2. helium and mercury

3. bromine and mercury

4. helium and chlorine

Q.19 Article __________ A supplements the 11th fundamental duty of the Indian Constitution?
Ans 1. 28

2. 46

3. 21

4. 33

Q.20 Maitraka dynasty was founded in which part of India?

Ans 1. Northern

2. Western

3. Eastern

4. Southern
Q.21 Sonu Nigam was awarded the Padma Shri in 2022 for which of the following fields?
Ans 1. Sports

2. Civil Service

3. Public Affairs

4. Art

Q.22 For transporting water from one place to another, some man-made structures used to distribute water to a place far away
are known as:
Ans 1. aquifuge

2. aquiclude

3. aqueducts

4. aquifer

Q.23 Which of the following awards is NOT sponsored by the Madhya Pradesh government?
Ans 1. Tagore Ratna

2. Devi Ahilyabai Award

3. Kishore Kumar Samman

4. Tulshi Samman

Q.24 Who among the following was the chief guest of India's first Republic Day in 1950?
Ans 1. Rana Abdul Hamid

2. Georgy Zhukov

3. Sukarno

4. Queen Elizabeth

Q.25 Who among the following was the first Indian representative in modern Olympics?
Ans 1. Milkha Singh

2. KD Jadhav

3. Nilima Ghose

4. Norman Pritchard

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

The head coach declared that the player who will score the most points in the game will clinch the trophy this year.
Ans 1. who scores the points maximum

2. who were score the maximum points

3. who have score the maximum points

4. who scores the maximum points

Q.2 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

Despite the challenges,/ they ultimate achieved / their goal of launching / their startup.
Ans 1. Despite the challenges,

2. their goal of launching

3. they ultimate achieved

4. their startup.

Q.3 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined word(s) in the given sentence.

Manik said that it is mandatory that each student pay his/her tuition fees every month.
Ans 1. each student paids

2. each student pays

3. each student paid

4. each students pay

Q.4 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.
Once the seminar was over, the host gave up the certificates to the active participants.
Ans 1. brought about

2. came by

3. gave away

4. put across

Q.5 Rectify the error in the given sentence by selecting the correct spelling from the options provided.

The nights of King Arthur were known for their chivalry.

Ans 1. knights

2. naughts

3. knots

4. nites

Q.6 In the following sentence the underlined part contains an error. Alternatives to the underlined part are given as options.
Select the correct alternative.
I want to buy the less expensive bike, but with the best mileage.
Ans 1. least

2. little

3. lesser

4. most less
Q.7 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The teacher asked us to ___________ the main idea of the passage in the exam.
Ans 1. conclusion

2. summarise

3. underestimate

4. plagiarise

Q.8 The following sentence has been split into four parts. Identify the part that contains a grammatical error.

The youngest employees/ are chosen by the/ organisation to/ manage the fieldwork.
Ans 1. The youngest employees

2. organisation to

3. manage the fieldwork.

4. are chosen by the

Q.9 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.
The most effective way to enhance your vocabulary is to look to unknown words in a dictionary.
Ans 1. look up

2. write off

3. set by

4. stand against

Q.10 The following sentence has been divided into four segments. Identify the segment that has a grammatical error.
The thieves had no alternative / but to acquiesce with / the orders of / the police.
Ans 1. the police.

2. The thieves had no alternative

3. but to acquiesce with

4. the orders of

Q.11 Identify the INCORRECTLY spelt word in the given sentence.

The microscopic chip that emits a uniqe signal has been embedded into your arm.
Ans 1. embedded

2. uniqe

3. emits

4. microscopic

Q.12 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Benevolent
Ans 1. Enthusiastic

2. Kind

3. Mysterious

4. Hostile

Q.13 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Careful
Ans 1. Cautious

2. Corrupt

3. Captivating

4. Corrosive

Q.14 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Poonam used a rubber band to keep the pencils together. 'Band' here means ____________.
Ans 1. a thin ring of rubber used for holding things together

2. a long rigid piece of wood or metal

3. a tube filled with water

4. a range of values or frequencies within a series

Q.15 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans 1. Altogether

2. Always

3. Until

4. Fulfeel

Q.16 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the highlighted word.

The partners ended up being traitorous to each other.

Ans 1. Faithful

2. Proficient

3. Disloyal

4. Fickle

Q.17 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.
A person who rules with absolute power and authority
Ans 1. Senator

2. Ruler

3. Dictator

4. Sovereign
Q.18 Select the appropriate option that can substitute the underlined idiom in the given sentence.

The entire audience was all ears when the Indian-born American economist started giving a speech.
Ans 1. was eager to speak plainly

2. was willing to exit the show

3. was arguing in favour of both sides

4. was keen to listen

Q.19 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word in the given sentence.
He is known for his humility.
Ans 1. Pride

2. Knowledge

3. Beauty

4. Agility

Q.20 Select the most appropriate idiom that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

Bheem has been shown in the popular culture as someone who eats in large quantity.
Ans 1. eat humble pie

2. eats like a horse

3. eat like a bird

4. chews the fat

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

Three big fat rats once found a new use for _____1_____ tails. During the night, they came ______2_____ into the larder and found a
jar with treacle in it. But the jar had a ____3___ neck, and try as they might, the rats could not reach the treacle either with their
mouths or their paws. At last, a bright idea ______4______ one of them. He climbed onto the jar and let his tail hang down into the
treacle. Then he pulled it out nicely coated with treacle and allowed the two rats to lick it _____5_______.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans 1. the

2. it's

3. their

4. there

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans 1. dreaming

2. acting

3. yelling

4. creeping

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans 1. narrow

2. funny

3. obese

4. slow

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans 1. flew

2. went

3. struck

4. stood
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans 1. at

2. by

3. in

4. off
Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 08/10/2024
Exam
9:00 AM - 11:00 AM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 एक व्यक्ति साइकिल चलाकर 12.5 सेकं ड में 75 मीटर की दू री तय करता है। उसकी चाल (km/hr में) कितनी है?
Ans 1. 21.6

2. 6

3. 11.1

4. 15.5

Q.2 एक क्रिके ट टीम के 11 खिलाड़ियों की औसत आयु में तब 2 महीने की वृद्धि हो जाती है, जब टीम के क्रमशः 20 वर्ष और 21 वर्ष की आयु वाले दो
खिलाड़ियों के स्थान पर दो नए खिलाड़ी टीम में आ जाते हैं। दोनों नए खिलाड़ियों की औसत आयु (वर्षों में) ज्ञात कीजिए।
Ans 1.

Q.3 निम्नलिखित दंड आलेख एक स्कू ल की पाँच कक्षाओं (VI से X) के वार्षिक परिणाम को दर्शाता है। दंड आलेख का ध्यानपूर्वक अध्ययन कीजिए और
नीचे दिए गए प्रश्न का उत्तर दीजिए:

दी गई पांच कक्षाओं में विद्यार्थियों की औसत संख्या क्या है?

Ans 1. 53

2. 44

3. 47

4. 57
Q.4

Ans 1. ₹1,234

2. ₹1,236

3. ₹1,230

4. ₹1,232

Q.5 एक कं प्यूटर के मूल्य में पहले वर्ष 10% की वृद्धि होती है, दू सरे वर्ष में 5% की कमी हो जाती है, और तीसरे वर्ष में 8% की वृद्धि होती है। यदि
वास्तविक मूल्य ₹ 50,000 था, तो अंतिम मूल्य (₹ में) ज्ञात कीजिए।
Ans 1. 55,830

2. 55,100

3. 54,120

4. 56,430

Q.6 15 cm आंतरिक त्रिज्या वाले एक अर्धगोलाकार कटोरे में एक तरल पदार्थ भरा है। तरल पदार्थ को 5 cm व्यास और 6 cm ऊँ चाई वाली बेलनाकार
बोतलों में भरा जाना है। कटोरे को खाली करने के लिए आवश्यक बोतलों की संख्या कितनी है?
Ans 1. 60

2. 40

3. 50

4. 30

Q.7 लक्ष्मण द्वारा भरत को ₹9,50,000 का एक फ्लैट 8% लाभ पर बेचा जाता है। यदि भरत इसे वापस लक्ष्मण को 3% हानि पर बेचता है, तो पूरे लेन-देन
में लक्ष्मण का लाभ/हानि (₹ में) ज्ञात कीजिए?
Ans 1. लक्ष्मण को ₹30,780 का लाभ

2. लक्ष्मण को ₹50,200 का लाभ

3. लक्ष्मण को ₹45,220 की हानि

4. लक्ष्मण को ₹45,220 का लाभ

Q.8 एक आयताकार खेत का क्षेत्रफल 396 m2 है तथा इसकी भुजाओं का अनुपात 11 : 9 है। आयताकार खेत का परिमाप ज्ञात करें ।
Ans 1. 76 m

2. 74 m

3. 80 m

4. 78 m

Q.9 राके श ने समर्थ को 6 वर्ष के लिए साधारण ब्याज दर पर एक राशि ब्याज पर दी। छठे वर्ष के अंत में, समर्थ ने राशि चुकाने के लिए राके श को राशि के

भाग का भुगतान किया। वार्षिक साधारण ब्याज की दर कितनी थी?

Ans
1.

4.
Q.10 6 वर्षों के लिए 3% वार्षिक की ब्याज दर पर उधार ली गई राशि ₹2500 पर साधारण ब्याज (₹ में) ज्ञात कीजिए।
Ans 1. 490

2. 450

3. 390

4. 410

Q.11 The average of the first six multiples of 7 is:

Ans 1. 24.5

2. 23.2

3. 25.1

4. 22.4

Q.12 तीन कारों की चाल का अनुपात 5 : 3 : 4 है। इन कारों द्वारा समान दू री को तय करने में लिए गए समय का अनुपात ज्ञात कीजिए।
Ans
1.

Q.13 70 और 90 का महत्तम समापवर्तक (HCF) ज्ञात कीजिए।

Ans 1. 5

2. 10

3. 7

4. 2

Q.14 दू ध और पानी का 21 लीटर मिश्रण है। मिश्रण में दू ध और पानी का अनुपात 4: 3 है। इस मिश्रण में पानी की कितनी मात्रा (लीटर में) मिलाई जानी
चाहिए, जिससे कि परिणामी मिश्रण में 50% पानी हो।
Ans 1. 2

2. 3

3. 1

4. 4

Q.15 40 kg, 49 kg, 56 kg, 70 kg और 39 kg वजन के पांच सदस्यों वाले परिवार का औसत वजन (kg में) ज्ञात कीजिए।
Ans 1. 49.8

2. 52.8

3. 50.8

4. 51.8
Q.16 निम्नलिखित तालिका का अध्ययन कीजिए और प्रश्न का उत्तर दीजिए।

125 cm से अधिक की लंबाई वाली लड़कियों की संख्या कितनी है?

Ans 1. 19

2. 23

3. 14

4. 25

Q.17 अल्फ्रे ड एक पुराना स्कू टर ₹4,700 में खरीदता है और इसकी मरम्मत पर ₹800 खर्च करता है। यदि वह स्कू टर को ₹5,800 में बेचता है, तो उसका
लाभ प्रतिशत कितना होगा?
Ans
1.

Q.18 4 वर्षों के लिए 3% वार्षिक की ब्याज दर पर उधार ली गई राशि ₹3000 पर साधारण ब्याज (₹ में) ज्ञात कीजिए।
Ans 1. 320

2. 300

3. 400

4. 360

Q.19 यदि 25% और 15% की दो क्रमागत छू टें दी जाती हैं, तो निवल छू ट प्रतिशत क्या होगा?
Ans 1. 36.20%

2. 36.15%

3. 36.10%

4. 36.25%
Q.20 एक चोर ने एक पुलिसकर्मी को देखा और वह 12 m/s की चाल से भागने लगा। एक निश्चित समय के बाद पुलिसकर्मी 18 m/s की चाल से चोर के
पीछे दौड़ना शुरू करता है। यदि पुलिसकर्मी चोर को पकड़ने के लिए 540 m की दू री तय करता है, तो कितने समय (सेकं ड में) के बाद पुलिसकर्मी
दौड़ना शुरू करता है?
Ans 1. 12

2. 10

3. 18

4. 15

Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1 दी गई आकृ ति के उस सही दर्पण प्रतिबिंब को चुनिए, जो नीचे दर्शाए गए अनुसार दर्पण को MN पर रखने पर बनेगा।

Ans
1.

Q.2 एक निश्चित तर्क के अनुसार 14, 68 से संबंधित है। उसी तर्क के अनुसार 17, 83 से संबंधित है। उसी तर्क के अनुसार, 21 निम्नलिखित में से किससे
संबंधित है?

2. 101

3. 103

4. 105

Q.3 दिए गए कथन और निष्कर्षों को ध्यान से पढि़ए। यह मानते हुए कि कथन में दी गई जानकारी सत्य है, चाहे वह सामान्य रूप से ज्ञात तथ्यों से भिन्न
प्रतीत होती हो, निर्धारित कीजिए कि दिए गए निष्कर्षों में से कौन-सा, कथन (कथनों) का तार्कि क रूप से अनुसरण करता है/करते हैं।

कथन:
सभी कद्दू , मटन हैं।
सभी मटन, मछलियाँ हैं।

निष्कर्ष:
(I) कु छ मछलियाँ, मटन हैं।
(II) सभी कद्दू , मछलियाँ हैं।
Ans 1. निष्कर्ष (I) और (II) दोनों अनुसरण करते हैं।
2. के वल निष्कर्ष (II) अनुसरण करता है।
3. न तो निष्कर्ष (I) अनुसरण करता है और न ही (II) अनुसरण करता है।
4. के वल निष्कर्ष (I) अनुसरण करता है।
Q.4 विकल्पों में दी गई उस आकृ ति की पहचान कीजिए, जिसे प्रश्न-चिह्न (?) के स्थान पर रखने पर श्रृंखला तार्कि क रूप से पूर्ण हो जाएगी।

Ans

4.
Q.5 उस विकल्प आकृ ति का चयन कीजिए, जिसमें दी गई आकृ ति उसके भाग के रूप में सन्‍निहित है (घुमाने की अनुमति नहीं है)।

Ans

Q.6 A, B, C, D, E, F और G एक वृत्ताकार मेज के चारों ओर कें द्र की ओर मुख करके बैठे हैं (परं तु जरूरी नहीं कि वे इसी क्रम में बैठे हों)। E के दाईं
ओर से गिनने पर E और A के बीच में के वल 3 व्यक्ति बैठे हैं। B, A के बाईं ओर दू सरे स्थान पर बैठा है। G, F के ठीक बाईं ओर बैठा है। B के दाईं
ओर से गिनने पर B और G के बीच में के वल 2 व्यक्ति बैठे हैं। C, E का निकटतम पड़ोसी है। E के सापेक्ष में D का स्थान क्या है?
Ans 1. दाईं ओर से दू सरा

2. दाईं ओर से तीसरा

3. बाईं ओर से दू सरा

4. बाईं ओर से तीसरा

Q.7 EF26 एक निश्चित तरीके से JK33 से संबंधित है। उसी तरीके से, TU27, YZ34 से संबंधित है। समान तर्क का अनुसरण करते हुए, JK28 निम्नलिखित
में से किससे संबंधित है?
Ans 1. OP35

2. PO36

3. OP36

4. PO35
Q.8 एक निश्चित कू ट भाषा में, 'BENT' को '4628' के रूप में कू टबद्ध किया जाता है और 'EARS' को '5471' के रूप में कू टबद्ध किया जाता है। उसी कू ट
भाषा में 'E' के लिए कू ट क्‍या है?
Ans 1. 4

2. 7

3. 6

4. 5

Q.9 विकल्पों में से उस आकृ ति का चयन कीजिए जो प्रश्न-चिह्न (?) के स्थान पर आ सकती है और श्रृंखला को तार्कि क रूप से पूरा कर सकती है।

Ans

Q.10 सात व्यक्ति S, E, C, T, I, O और N एक वृत्ताकार मेज के चारों ओर कें द्र की ओर मुख करके बैठे हैं (परं तु जरूरी नहीं कि वे इसी क्रम में बैठे हों)। E,
N के बाएँ से दू सरे स्थान पर बैठा है, जबकि N, S के बाएँ से दू सरे स्थान पर बैठा है। S के दाएँ से गिनने पर S और O के बीच में के वल एक व्यक्ति
बैठा है। C, E के ठीक दाएँ बैठा है, जबकि T, O के ठीक बाएँ बैठा है। I के ठीक दाएँ कौन बैठा है?
Ans 1. O

2. C

3. S

4. T

Q.11 दी गई श्रृंखला में प्रश्नचिन्ह (?) के स्थान पर क्या आएगा?

7 12 16 30 34 66 70 ?
Ans 1. 140

2. 136

3. 142

4. 138
Q.12 दिए गए कथनों और निष्कर्षों को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़िए। आपको मानना है कि कथनों में दी गई जानकारी सत्य है, चाहे वह सामान्यतः ज्ञात तथ्यों से अलग
प्रतीत होती हो और निश्चय करना है कि दिए गए निष्कर्षों में से कौन-सा/कौन-से निष्कर्ष तार्कि क रूप से कथन/कथनों का अनुसरण करता है/करते
हैं।
कथन:
कु छ पौधे, चट्टानें हैं।
कोई सब्जी, पौधा नहीं है।

निष्कर्ष:
I) कोई सब्जी, चट्टान नहीं है।
(II) कु छ चट्टानें, पौधे हैं।
Ans 1. के वल निष्कर्ष (I) अनुसरण करता है।

2. न तो निष्कर्ष (I) और न ही (II) अनुसरण करता है।

3. निष्कर्ष (I) और (II) दोनों अनुसरण करते हैं।

4. के वल निष्कर्ष (II) अनुसरण करता है।

Q.13 JT79 किसी निश्चित प्रकार से DN71 से संबंधित है। ठीक उसी प्रकार, KU22, EO14 से संबंधित है। समान तर्क का अनुसरण करते हुए, LV71
निम्नलिखित में से किससे संबंधित है?
Ans 1. FP66

2. FP63

3. PF63

4. PF66

Q.14 एक निश्चित कू ट भाषा में, 'I play football' को 'ku ch ta' के रूप में कू टबद्ध किया जाता है और 'he play cricket' को 'al bi ta' के रूप में कू टबद्ध
किया जाता है। दी गई भाषा में 'play' को किस प्रकार कू टबद्ध किया गया है?
Ans 1. ta

2. al

3. bi

4. ku

Q.15 निम्‍नलिखित समीकरण को सही करने के लिए किन दो संख्याओं को आपस में बदला जाना चाहिए?

(28 × 2) −16 × 6 + 8 × 3 + 5 × 7 = 39

(नोट: अदला-बदली पूरी संख्या की होनी चाहिए, न कि दी गई संख्या के अलग-अलग अंकों की।)
Ans 1. 2 और 3

2. 5 और 3

3. 6 और 7

4. 8 और 7

Q.16

Ans 1.

4.
Q.17 एक निश्चित तर्क का अनुसरण करते हुए 3, 15 से संबंधित है। उसी तर्क का अनुसरण करते हुए 12, 60 से संबंधित है। समान तर्क का अनुसरण करते
हुए, 5 निम्नलिखित में से किससे संबंधित है?

2. 25

3. 32

4. 35

Q.18 एक निश्चित कू ट भाषा में, 'WORD' को '7135' के रूप में कू टबद्ध किया जाता है और 'RISE' को '4658' के रूप में कू टबद्ध किया जाता है।
दी गई कू ट भाषा में 'R' के लिए कू ट क्या है?
Ans 1. 6

2. 3

3. 5

4. 4

Q.19 यदि निम्नलिखित समीकरण में '×' और '÷' को आपस में बदल दिया जाए तथा '–' और '+' को आपस में बदल दिया जाए, तो इस समीकरण में' ?' के
स्थान पर क्या आएगा?
23 ÷ 18 + 150 × 50 – 44 = ?
Ans 1. 515

2. 485

3. 455

4. 545

Q.20 अंग्रेजी वर्णमाला क्रम के आधार पर दी गई श्रृंखला में प्रश्न चिह्न (?) के स्थान पर क्या आना चाहिए?

BXL, DVN, FTP, ?, JPT

Ans 1. GRS

2. HRR

3. HST

4. GRR

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 भारतीय पुलिस सेवा के अधिकारियों के लिए प्रशिक्षण अकादमी का नाम ________ के नाम पर रखा गया है।
Ans 1. लाल बहादुर शास्त्री

2. जवाहर लाल नेहरू

3. महात्मा गांधी

4. सरदार वल्लभभाई पटेल

Q.2 हिन्दी उपन्यास 'तमस (Tamas)' किस लेखक ने लिखा है?

Ans 1. श्रीलाल शुक्ला

2. यशपाल

3. भीष्म साहनी

4. प्रेमचंद
Q.3 निम्नलिखित में से किस स्वतंत्रता सेनानी की जयंती पर स्वच्छ भारत मिशन आरं भ किया गया था?
Ans 1. चंद्रशेखर आजाद

2. भगत सिंह

3. महात्मा गांधी

4. सुभाष चंद्र बोस

Q.4 Which of the following cell organelles possesses their own DNA and can synthesise protein for their functions?
Ans 1. Centrosome

2. Endoplasmic reticulum

3. Golgi complex

4. Chloroplast

Q.5 निम्नलिखित में से कौन भरतनाट्यम का प्रसिद्ध उन्नायक (proponent) है/थे?

Ans 1. रुक्मिणी देवी अरुं डेल

2. कलावती देवी

3. सुनंदा नायर

4. कु मकु म मोहंती

Q.6 Below are two chemical equations:

Zn (s) + CuSO4 (aq) → ZnSO4 (aq) + Cu (s)
Pb (s) + CuCl2 (aq) → PbCl2 (aq) + Cu (s)
Why does copper get separated from its compound form in both the cases?
Ans 1. Zinc and Lead are more reactive than Copper.

2. Copper compounds break down under high pressure.

3. Copper is more reactive than Zinc and Lead.

4. Zinc and Lead are unstable in element form.

Q.7 'एक तारीख, एक घंटा, एक साथ (Ek Tareekh, Ek Ghanta, Ek Sath)' अभियान किस अवसर से संबंधित है?
Ans 1. गांधी जयंती

2. अंबेडकर जयंती

3. विवेकानन्द जयन्ती

4. सरदार पटेल जयंती

Q.8 निम्नलिखित में से किसने संस्कृ त महाकाव्य 'गीत गोविंद (Gita Govinda)' की रचना की है?
Ans 1. कल्हण

2. रामचंद्र

3. जयदेव

4. उदयराजा

Q.9 हिमालय की कं चनजंगा चोटी की ऊं चाई कितनी है?

Ans 1. 8798 मीटर

2. 8434 मीटर

3. 8598 मीटर

4. 8175 मीटर

Q.10 निम्नलिखित में से कौन भारत के पहले क्रिके ट टीम के कप्तान थे?
Ans 1. सी.के . नायडू (CK Nayudu)

2. सुनील गावस्कर (Sunil Gavaskar)

3. नवाब पटौदी (Navab Pataudi)

4. के . श्रीकांत (K Srikant)
Q.11 जल चक्र (water cycle) में सूर्य के प्रकाश की उपस्थिति में महासागरों, झीलों और नदियों में उपस्थित द्रव जल, गैसीय अवस्था में परिवर्तित हो जाता
है। इस चरण को क्या कहा जाता है?
Ans 1. संघनन (Condensation)

2. वर्षण (Precipitation)

3. वाष्पीकरण (Evaporation)

4. गलन (Melting)

Q.12 दक्षिण भारत के किस समाज सुधारक ने आत्म सम्मान आंदोलन (Self Respect Movement) की स्थापना की थी?
Ans 1. चेम्बेटी श्रीधरालु नायडू (Chembeti Sridharalu Naidu)

2. कं दुकु र वीरे शलिंगम (Kandukur Veeresalingam)

3. सी अयोधी पंडितार (C Iyodhee Pandithar)

4. ई॰वी॰ रामास्वामी नायकर (EV Ramaswamy Naicker)

Q.13 Which of the following statements about nutrients are correct?

Statement A: C, H, O, N, P and K are macro nutrients.

Statement B: Fe, Mn, Ni, Co and Mo are micronutrients.
Statement C: Micronutrients are not essential for our body.
Ans 1. Only statements B and C

2. All statements A, B and C

3. Only statements A and B

4. Only statements A and C

Q.14 What is the usual treatment on repo rates by the Reserve Bank of India in case of a hawkish monetary policy stance?
Ans 1. Increased

2. Reduced sharply by more than 100 bps

3. Reduced gradually

4. Kept the same

Q.15 निम्नलिखित में से किस वर्ष में जनगणना अधिनियम बनाया गया (enacted) और पूरे भारत में लागू किया गया था?
Ans 1. 1948

2. 1950

3. 1949

4. 1951

Q.16 भारतीय संविधान के निम्नलिखित में से किस अनुच्छे द में यह उल्लेख है कि प्रत्येक मंत्री और भारत के महान्यायवादी को संसद के किसी भी सदन में
बोलने और उसकी कार्यवाहियों में भाग लेने का अधिकार होगा?
Ans 1. अनुच्छे द 86

2. अनुच्छे द 89

3. अनुच्छे द 87

4. अनुच्छे द 88

Q.17 In cycling, what is a 'peloton'?

Ans 1. The finish line of a race

2. The starting line of a race

3. A cycling technique for climbing hills

4. A group of riders in a tight pack during a race

Q.18 Who were the first foreign rulers of northwest India in the post-Mauryan period?
Ans 1. Parthians

2. Sakas

3. Bactrian Greeks

4. Kushanas

Q.19 'कर्नाटक संगीत पितामह (Karnataka Sangeeta Pitamaha)' के रूप में किसे सम्मानित किया गया है?
Ans 1. जगन्नाथ दास

2. पुरं दर दास

3. गोपाल दास

4. विजय दास

Q.20 वर्ष 2023 तक प्राप्‍त जानकारी के अनुसार, भारत के प्रमुख लोक समुद्री बंदरगाहों (public seaports) की संख्या कितनी थी?
Ans 1. 12

2. 10

3. 13

4. 16

Q.21 जुलाई 2023 तक की स्थिति के अनुसार, कितने जिलों से 'एक जिला, एक उत्पाद (One District, One Product)' योजना के तहत 137 अनूठे उत्पाद
अधिसूचित किए गए हैं?
Ans 1. 657

2. 256

3. 538

4. 713

Q.22 भारत की जनगणना 2011 के अनुसार, भारत के निम्नलिखित में से किस राज्य में हिंदू आबादी का प्रतिशत सबसे अधिक है?
Ans 1. मध्य प्रदेश

2. उत्तर प्रदेश

3. हिमाचल प्रदेश

4. बिहार

Q.23 'अनुसूचित जाति, अनुसूचित जनजाति और अन्य कमजोर वर्गों के शैक्षिक और आर्थिक हितों को बढ़ावा देना' भारतीय संविधान के किस अनुच्छे द के
अंतर्गत आता है?
Ans 1. अनुच्छे द 56

2. अनुच्छे द 46

3. अनुच्छे द 36

4. अनुच्छे द 66

Q.24 भरतनाट्यम गुरु, ________ को 2023 में भारतीय ललित कला अकादमी (Indian Fine Arts Akademi), सैन डिएगो से नृत्य सेवा रत्न पुरस्कार
मिला।
Ans 1. रतिकांत महापात्र

2. विद्या सुब्रमण्यन

3. हेमा राजगोपालन

4. शैलजा

Q.25 सांची के महान स्तूप में कम्पास के दिग्‍बिंदुओं (cardinal points) पर ________ प्रवेश द्वार हैं जिन्हें 'तोरण (Toranas)' के नाम से जाना जाता है।
Ans 1. 4

2. 2

3. 8

4. 6
Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans 1. Poignant

2. Relevant

3. Eligible

4. Gourrmet

Q.2 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains anerror in phrasal verb.

Tara was late for the meeting / but somehow managed / to catch out with / everything she had missed.
Ans 1. to catch out with

2. everything she had missed

3. Tara was late for the meeting

4. but somehow managed

Q.3 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word in the given sentence.

I don't prefer to remain alone at home in the evenings because loneliness evokes a sense of melancholy and grief within me.
Ans 1. Absoluteness

2. Shyness

3. Cheerfulness

4. Readiness

Q.4 Select the option that will improve the underlined part of the given sentence. In case no improvement is needed, select 'No
improvement required'.

Monika said to her mother that, "I have passed the examination."
Ans 1. Monika said to her mother, "I have passed

2. No improvement required

3. Monika said to her mother that, "she has passed

4. Monika said to her mother that, "I am passed

Q.5 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word in the given sentence.

Uluru is the world's largest monolith and Australia's recognisable natural icon with an elliptical shape and a circumfarence
of around 94 kilometers.
Ans 1. Monolith

2. Kilometers

3. Elliptical

4. Circumfarence

Q.6 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

Good nutrition is the bedrock at child survival, health and development.

Ans 1. bedrock off child survival

2. bedrock of child survival

3. bedrock through child survival

4. bedrock from child survival

Q.7 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Living within our environmental limits is one of the central _________________ of sustainable development.
Ans 1. demonstrates

2. principles

3. illuminates

4. agencies
Q.8 The sentence below contains errors. Select the option with the correct use of tenses.
Your father will waiting for you when you reach home.
Ans 1. Your father will be waiting for you when you reach home.

2. Your father would waiting for you when you reach home.

3. Your father should waiting for you when you reach home.

4. Your father waiting for you when you reach home.

Q.9 Select the most appropriate word from the given options that can substitute the word ‘courage’ and make a meaningful
sentence.

I am not courage enough to take this risk.

Ans 1. encourage

2. courageous

3. discourage

4. discouraging

Q.10 Select the most appropriate synonym of the word in bold in the given sentence.
The future looks bleak for the fishing industry.
Ans 1. Fearless

2. Expensive

3. Ample

4. Depressing

Q.11 Select the appropriate option that can substitute the underlined word in the following sentence to make it grammatically
correct.

This almirah is made up of heavier metal.

Ans 1. heaviest

2. heavy

3. most heavier

4. most heaviest

Q.12 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Roger applied the __________ in advance as he anticipated an accident.
Ans 1. break

2. brake

3. broke

4. brig

Q.13 In the following sentence the underlined part contains as error. Alternatives to the underlined part are given as options.
Select the correct alternative.
The sky appeared to be greyest after the storm.
Ans 1. grey

2. most grey

3. greyer

4. more grey

Q.14 In the following sentence the underlined part contains as error. Alternatives to the underlined part are given as options.
Select the correct alternative.
Playing in the field, the young gayer students were laughing and giggling.
Ans 1. gayest

2. gay

3. most gay

4. more gay
Q.15 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.
Never ________ ever seen a more disgusting sight.
Ans 1. has I

2. did I

3. have I

4. I have

Q.16 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Bulging
Ans 1. Contracting

2. Swelling

3. Hanging

4. Weeping

Q.17 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans 1. Enthusiastic

2. Reliable

3. Spectaculor

4. Gracious

Q.18 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

She was barking up the wrong _______ when she filed a complaint against ragging with the students' union instead of the
university administration.
Ans 1. dog

2. pillar

3. disc

4. tree

Q.19 Select the most appropriate idiom to fill in the blank.

My car _______ on the way to college yesterday.

Ans 1. broke out

2. broke in

3. broke up

4. broke down

Q.20 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Blend
Ans 1. Mix

2. Divide

3. Disperse

4. Boil
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

Traditional medicines (TMs) make (1)___________ natural products and are of great importance. Such forms of medicine as
traditional Chinese medicine (TCM), Ayurveda, Kampo, traditional Korean medicine (TKM), and Unani (2)_________ natural products
and have been (3)__________ all over the world for hundreds or even thousands of years, and they (4)__________ blossomed into
orderly-regulated systems of medicine. In their various forms, they may have certain defects, but they (5)_________ still a valuable
repository of human knowledge.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans 1. used off

2. uses of

3. used of

4. use of

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans 1. employs

2. employ

3. employing

4. employed

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans 1. practises

2. practised

3. practice

4. practices
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans 1. has

2. have

3. have being

4. had

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans 1. am

2. was

3. is

4. are
Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 08/10/2024
Exam
12:30 PM - 2:30 PM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 The ratio of income to expenditure of a family is 18:15. Find the savings if the income of the family is ₹81,000.
Ans 1. ₹13,500

2. ₹15,000

3. ₹12,750

4. ₹17,500

Q.2 The curved surface area of a cylinder is three-fifth of its total surface area. Find the ratio
between the height and radius of the cylinder.
Ans 1. 3 : 2

2. 2 : 5

3. 8 : 3

4. 3 : 5

Q.3 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹3000 as a sum borrowed at 8% per year rate of interest for 5 years.
Ans 1. 1240

2. 1200

3. 1160

4. 1140

Q.4 In a 5-km race, A beats B by 750 metres and C by 1260 metres. By how many metres does B beat C in the same race?
Ans 1. 400 metres

2. 700 metres

3. 500 metres

4. 600 metres

Q.5 A car travels from Kanpur to Delhi at an average speed of 60 km/h and returns at an average speed of 90
km/h. Find the average speed of the car in the whole journey.
Ans 1. 78 km/h

2. 60 km/h

3. 65 km/h

4. 72 km/h

Q.6 The simple interest on a certain sum of money at the rate of 5% per annum for 9 years is ₹1,260. At what rate of interest can
the same amount of interest be received on the same sum after 6 years?
Ans 1.

4.
Q.7

Ans 1. 4 : 7

2. 3 : 4

3. 3 : 5

4. 2 : 3

Q.8 By selling an article for ₹20, a dealer makes a profit of 10%. By how much should he increase his selling price (in ₹, rounded
off to two decimal place) so as to make a profit of 40%?
Ans 1. 5.45

2. 7.45

3. 6.45

4. 8.45

Q.9 A man sold an article for ₹247.50, thereby gaining 12.5%. The cost of the article (in ₹) was:
Ans 1. 210

2. 220

3. 225

4. 224

Q.10 The average of the present ages of P and Q is 56 years and their ages are in the ratio 5:3. What will be the age of Q seven
years hence?
Ans 1. 54 years

2. 42 years

3. 49 years

4. 52 years

Q.11 Three red lights on the same road start blinking at the same time and blink repeatedly after every 4, 6 and 8 minutes,
respectively. How many times will they blink together in an interval of 3 hours, excluding blinking together at the starting
moment?
Ans 1. 5

2. 7

3. 4

4. 6

Q.12 A tunnel elevator can carry a maximum of 15 passengers with an average weight of 81 kg. However, four persons beyond
the maximum capacity entered the elevator, resulting in an average weight of 82 kg and causing it to be overloaded. Find the
average weight (in kg) of the additional four persons.
Ans 1. 90.41

2. 102.37

3. 85.75

4. 100
Q.13

Ans 1. 956

2. 712

3. 826

4. 789

Q.14 The average weight of three friends Ram, Ramesh and Shyam is 76 kg. Somesh joins them and the average weight of the
four friends becomes 74 kg. If Mohan, whose weight is 2 kg more than that of Somesh replaces Ramesh, the average weight
of Ram, Shyam, Somesh and Mohan becomes 68 kg. Find the weight of Ramesh.
Ans 1. 89 kg

2. 84 kg

3. 94 kg

4. 75 kg

Q.15 A shopkeeper declares the following three schemes of discounts. Which scheme is most beneficial to a customer?
A. Buy 25 items and get 30 of the same items
B. Two successive discounts of 12% and 18%
C. Two successive equal discounts of 15%
Ans 1. B and C

2. Only C

3. Only B

4. A

Q.16 In a mixture of 60 litres, milk and water are in the ratio 7 : 3. If 3 litres of water be added, find the ratio of milk and water in
the new mixture.
Ans 1. 2:3

2. 3:2

3. 1:2

4. 2:1

Q.17 The average weight of a family of five members (in kg) whose weights are 40 kg, 49 kg, 56 kg, 70 kg and 35 kg is:
Ans 1. 49

2. 52

3. 50

4. 51
Q.18 The given bar graph shows the number of bicycles produced by a company from 1996 to 2000. Study
the given bar graph and answer the question that follows.

The combined number of bicycles produced during 1996, 1997 and 2000 is what percentage (rounded
off to 1 decimal place) of the combined bicycles produced from 1996 to 2000?

Ans 1.

Q.19 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹2000 as a sum borrowed at 7% per year rate of interest for 4 years.
Ans 1. 520

2. 560

3. 500

4. 600

Q.20 A solid cone of base radius 7 cm and height 18 cm is melted and recast into a hollow metal hemisphere of internal and
external radii 20 cm and R cm, respectively. What is the value of R (in cm)?
Ans 1.

Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

39, 47, 55, 63, 71, ?

Ans 1. 79

2. 80

3. 77

4. 78

Q.2 T, U, V, W, X, and Y are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order). U is sitting
third to the right of V, who is sitting second to the left of W. Y is not an immediate neighbour of U. T is sitting to the
immediate left of V.
Who is sitting to the immediate left of T?
Ans 1. X

2. V

3. W

4. U

Q.3 What will come in the place of ‘?’ in the following equation, if ‘÷’ and ‘−‘ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘+’ are interchanged?
12 × 96 − 24 + 8 ÷ 38 = ?
Ans 1. 6

2. 16

3. −4

4. −14

Q.4 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans
1.

Q.5 In a certain code language, ‘EACH’ is coded as ‘6138’ and ‘CAME’ is coded as ‘1396’. What is the code for ‘M’ in that
language?
Ans 1. 1

2. 9

3. 3

4. 6
Q.6 Read the given statement(s) and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even
if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statement(s).

Statements:
Some cups are glasses.
No cup is a plate.

Conclusions:
(I) No glass is a plate.
(II) Some glasses are not cups.
Ans 1. Only conclusion I follows.

2. Neither conclusion I nor II follows.

3. Both conclusions I and II follow.

4. Only conclusion II follows.

Q.7 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?

EBF, IGG, MLH, QQI ,?

Ans 1. SUI

2. UVJ

3. SUJ

4. TUJ

Q.8 CA 19 is related to ID 14 in a certain way. In the same way, ML 53 is related to SO 48. To which of the following is GD 8
related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. NH 3

2. NF −3

3. MG 3

4. MH −3

Q.9 What will come in the place of ‘?’ in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘–‘ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?
56 − 33 × 3 ÷ 4 + 36 =?
Ans 1. 74

2. 66

3. 68

4. 64

Q.10 In a certain code language, ‘did we know’ is written as ‘kp as th’ and ‘we solve this’ is written as ‘nk kp bo’. How is ‘we’
written in the given language?
Ans 1. as

2. nk

3. kp

4. bo

Q.11 Seven people P, U, L, M, A, G and E are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same
order). P is sitting third to the left of M. G is sitting second to the right of M. Only one person is sitting between M and A
when counted from the left of M. L is sitting to the immediate right of G. Only one person is sitting between L and E . Who is
sitting to the immediate left of U?
Ans 1. G

2. M

3. P

4. A
Q.12 In a certain code language, 'CHOSEN' is coded as ‘YTMIWN’ and 'COMMON' is coded as ‘YMOOMN’. How will 'CLIENT' be
coded in the same language?
Ans 1. YPSVNF

2. YPSXNG

3. YPTXNG

4. YPSWNH

Q.13 Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series and complete
the pattern.

Ans

Q.14 Read the given statement(s) and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even
if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statement(s).
Statements:
No teacher is a male.
No male is an Engineer.
Conclusions:
I. No teacher is an Engineer.
II. Some male are teachers.
Ans 1. Only conclusion I follows.

2. Both conclusions I and II follow.

3. Only conclusion II follows.

4. Neither conclusion I nor II follows.

Q.15 The second number in the given number pairs is obtained by performing certain mathematical operation(s) on the first
number. Select the pair in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the given pairs.
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /deleting /multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and
3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

, 42
6
9, 63
Ans 1. 19, 123

2. 17, 102

3. 11, 67

4. 13, 91

Q.16 8 is related to 93 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 10 is related to 117. To which of the following is 14
related, following the same logic?
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into
1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans 1. 187

2. 166

3. 189

4. 165

Q.17 DFIE is related to CGHF in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, MOFC is related to LPED.
To which of the following is GRRP related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. FSQQ

2. FSQR

3. ERQQ

4. DSPQ
Q.18 Select the option figure in which the given figure (X) is embedded as its part (rotation is NOT allowed).

Ans

Q.19 In a certain code language, ‘toy is new’ is coded as ‘bz tq gl’ and ‘give me toy’ is coded as ‘hx vm tq’. How is ‘toy’ coded in
the given language?

Ans 1. vm

2. hx

3. bz

4. tq
Q.20 Identify the figure given in the options which when put in place of (?) will logically complete the series.

Ans

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 How much money was allotted by the Gujarat government in August 2023 for the One District, One Product (ODOP)
Programme to promote its indigenous products at the international level?
Ans 1. ₹58 crore

2. ₹25 crore

3. ₹100 crore

4. ₹10 crore

Q.2 In the context of microfinance in India, the concept of SHG-BLP is used. What does L stand for in SHG-BLP?
Ans 1. Link

2. Lending

3. Lend

4. Linkage
Q.3 Prerana Shrimali received the Sangeet Natak Akademi Award in which of the following years for her contribution to the
Kathak dance form?
Ans 1. 2003

2. 2012

3. 2015

4. 2009

Q.4 Annapurna Devi is associated with which of the following musical instruments?
Ans 1. Mridangam

2. Surbahar

3. Flute

4. Sarangi

Q.5 Who among the following is worshipped as Nataraja before many classical dance performances in India?
Ans 1. Indra

2. Brahma

3. Vishnu

4. Shiva

Q.6 Which of the given options is rod-shaped, carries genetic information, is visible only at cell division and is present in the
nucleus?
Ans 1. Ribosomes

2. Lysosomes

3. Cytoplasm

4. Chromosomes

Q.7 The famous ‘Tripartite struggle’ for supremacy occurred between which of the following powers?
Ans 1. Sen, Pala and Rashtrakuta

2. Chalukya, Sen and Pratihars

3. Chouhan, Pala and Gurjar

4. Gurjar-Pratihara, Rashtrakuta and Palas

Q.8 India won its first Olympic gold in hockey in which of the following years?
Ans 1. 1940

2. 1936

3. 1928

4. 1932

Q.9 What is the length of the men's kabaddi court?

Ans 1. 17 m

2. 15 m

3. 11 m

4. 13 m

Q.10 What is the retirement age of Judges serving at the Supreme Court of India?
Ans 1. 68 years

2. 65 years

3. 60 years

4. 62 years
Q.11 As per HDI 2021, which of the following neighbouring countries of India had the highest female life expectancy at birth?
Ans 1. Bangladesh

2. Sri Lanka

3. Bhutan

4. Maldives

Q.12 Gabbro is an example of which type of rocks?

Ans 1. Sedimentary rock

2. Metamorphic rock

3. Igneous rock

4. Organically formed sedimentary rock

Q.13 Rigveda is the earliest specimen of:

Ans 1. Indo-African language

2. Russian language

3. Indo European language

4. Indian language

Q.14 In which among the following years was Hindu widow remarriage declared legal in India?
Ans 1. 1856

2. 1893

3. 1899

4. 1872

Q.15 Which of the following peaks is NOT located in the Himalayan mountains?
Ans 1. Nanda Devi

2. Kalsubai

3. Kamet

4. Annapurna

Q.16 Which of the following Rights is mentioned in Article 21 of the Indian Constitution?
Ans 1. Right to Freedom of Religion: Freedom to manage religious affairs

2. Right to Freedom: Protection of life and personal liberty

3. Right against Exploitation: Prohibition of trafficking in human beings and forced labour

4. Right to Equality: Equality before law

Q.17 Four resistors of equal resistance R each are connected in various possible ways both in series and/or parallel to get
different combined resistances. Which of the following values of resistance cannot be achieved by using all the four
resistors?
Ans 1. 2.5 R

2. 2 R

3. 0.25 R

4. 1.33 R

Q.18 Who regarded Vedas as the source of all knowledge and known for the slogan ‘Go back to the Vedas’?
Ans 1. Raja Rammohun Roy

2. Swami Vivekananda

3. Keshav Chandra sen

4. Swami Dayanada Saraswati

Q.19 According to the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare 2022-23, which state of India is the largest producer of
sugarcane?
Ans 1. Uttar Pradesh

2. Karnataka

3. Andhra Pradesh

4. Bihar

Q.20 Which gas is released when you combine vinegar and baking soda in a balloon, causing it to inflate?
Ans 1. Hydrogen

2. Oxygen

3. Nitrogen

4. Carbon dioxide

Q.21 The Sahitya Akademi award winning novel ‘Zindaginama’ was written by:
Ans 1. Mannu Bhandari

2. Amrita Pritam

3. Krishna Sobti

4. Mahadevi Verma

Q.22 The remains of Great Bath have been found from the excavation at which of the following Harappan sites?
Ans 1. Kalibangan

2. Mohenjodaro

3. Harappa

4. Lothal

Q.23 From 13 September 2023, DMK MP Tiruchi Siva has been appointed the chairperson of the Committee on _______________.
Ans 1. Transport

2. Home

3. Industry

4. Information Technology

Q.24 The National Food Security Act (NFSA) was enacted in which year by the Government of India?
Ans 1. 2008

2. 2013

3. 2005

4. 2001

Q.25 Chithirai festival of Tamil Nadu is dedicated to which of the following Goddesses?
Ans 1. Muneeswaran

2. Meenakshi

3. Pidari

4. Mariamman

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
They were / interested / on / learning new languages.
Ans 1. on

2. interested

3. They were

4. learning new languages

Q.2 Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word.
The management gave kudos to Jithin for his performance.
Ans 1. punishment

2. admonishment

3. praise

4. criticism

Q.3 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Hamper
Ans 1. Accuse

2. Absorb

3. Urge

4. Hinder

Q.4 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans 1. Eighty

2. Addict

3. Medicin

4. Crazy

Q.5 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
While she / was watched / the movie, / her phone rang.
Ans 1. was watched

2. her phone rang

3. the movie,

4. While she

Q.6 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The way she elaborated on every detail with precision impressed everyone _____ the meeting.
Ans 1. at

2. off

3. above

4. into

Q.7 Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word in the given sentence.
The lenient ways of the manager prompted substandard work from his subordinates.
Ans 1. irritating

2. insane

3. ignorant

4. easygoing

Q.8 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

The project fell besides due to lack of funding and support.

Ans 1. fell along due to lack

2. fell about due to lack

3. fell through due to lack

4. fell until due to lack

Q.9 Select the appropriate option that can substitute the underlined idiom in the given sentence.

Everyone says that waking up early in the morning is beneficial for our health and overall well-being. But it is easier said
than done.
Ans 1. to start performing better than before

2. a life filled with excitement

3. not as easy as it seems to be

4. a step towards better health

Q.10 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

During the meeting, the employer's _________ was clear as he calmly addressed each team member's concerns and
provided insightful solutions.
Ans 1. composes

2. compose

3. composed

4. composure

Q.11 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
Sarah / will singing / at the concert / on Saturday.
Ans 1. will singing

2. on Saturday

3. at the concert

4. Sarah

Q.12 Select the most appropriate synonym of the following word.

Reluctant
Ans 1. Unrelenting

2. Pleasant

3. Unwilling

4. Curious

Q.13 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to
substitute it, select ‘No substitution required’.

The White man had to swallow his bombast and have completed the journey in mortified.
Ans 1. completes the journey mortifying

2. complete the journey in mortification

3. No substitution required

4. completing the mortifying journey

Q.14 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans 1. Colloquiel

2. Quiescent

3. Extraneous

4. Posthumous

Q.15 Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. Select the option that contains an error.
My sister-in-law is the most succeeded for all the industrialists in this country today.
Ans 1. succeeded for all

2. My sister-in-law is the most

3. in this country today

4. the industrialists
Q.16 Select the most appropriate verb / verb phrase to fill in the blank.
In 2030, advancements in technology ________________ the way we live, work and interact with each other.
Ans 1. will be reshaping

2. could be reshaped

3. have reshaped

4. shall have been reshaped

Q.17 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The new intern was eager to learn the _________ of the corporate world.
Ans 1. ropes

2. rides

3. tides

4. flies

Q.18 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

I hope that / yesterday's lunch / at Rahul's place / was at your liking.

Ans 1. yesterday's lunch

2. was at your liking.

3. at Rahul's place

4. I hope that

Q.19 Select the correct spelling of the underlined word in the given sentence.

The flight was about to take off when suddenly the authorities came to ensure the record of the maintanance department.
Ans 1. maintenance

2. maintnance

3. maintainance

4. maintainence

Q.20 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Panacea
Ans 1. Miracle

2. Survey

3. Pressure

4. Remedy

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

A phobia is an irrational fear of an object, situation or living thing. While fear is (1)_______ natural response to danger, phobias often
occur (2)____________ response to something unlikely to cause real harm. In some cases, a person with a (3)___________ will meet
the diagnostic criteria for a specific phobia, which is a type of anxiety disorder. Someone with a specific phobia will (4)_________
intense fear and anxiety when confronted with the source of the phobia, which could include blood, heights or specific animals like
dogs. Phobias are (5)______________ by significant distress and often cause a person to avoid the source of their fear or suffer from
extreme anxiety when faced with it. Someone experiencing a phobia that is interfering with everyday life should consider undergoing
treatment for their phobia, as outcomes for professional care are typically favourable.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans 1. a

2. those

3. these

4. one
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans 1. of

2. in

3. on

4. at

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans 1. trouble

2. violence

3. phobia

4. danger

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans 1. horizon

2. experience

3. aspire

4. dream
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans 1. characterised

2. classified

3. qualified

4. categorised
Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 08/10/2024
Exam
4:00 PM - 5:30 PM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 The centroid of a ∆XYZ is G. The area of ∆XYZ is 45 cm2. The area of ∆GYZ is:
Ans 1. 7.5 cm2

2. 22.5 cm2

3. 15 cm2

4. 30 cm2

Q.2

Ans 1. 14

2. 10.5

3. 7

4. 21

Q.3
40 kg, 49 kg, 56 kg, 66 kg এবং 38 kg ওজন বিশিষ্ট পাঁচজন সদস্যের একটি পরিবারের
গড় ওজন (kg তে) কত হবে?
Ans 1. 49.8

2. 51.8

3. 48.8

4. 50.8

Q.4 R earns ₹55,000 per month and his annual expenditure is ₹4,50,000. What is his percentage of savings per annum?
Ans 1. 38.12%

2. 36.21%

3. 31.82%

4. 32.81%

Q.5

Ans 1. 1780

2. 1720

3. 1740

4. 1760

Q.6 A fast train takes 1 hour less than a slow train for a journey of 96 km. If the speed of the slow train is 8 km/h less than that of
the fast train, then find the speeds of the fast train and slow train respectively.
Ans 1. 26 km/h, 34 km/h

2. 12 km/h, 14 km/h

3. 34 km/h, 28 km/h

4. 32 km/h, 24 km/h

Q.7 The HCF of 513,1134 and 1215 is:

Ans 1. 19

2. 45

3. 43

4. 27
Q.8 A car travels 80 km at the speed of 20 km/h and the next 30 km at the speed of 30 km/h. What is its average speed?
Ans 1. 22 km/h

2. 30 km/h

3. 20 km/h

4. 40 km/h

Q.9 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹4000 as a sum borrowed at 3% per year rate of interest for 6 years.
Ans 1. 680

2. 720

3. 760

4. 660

Q.10 Study the given bar graph carefully and answer the following question.

What was the difference in the production of food grains between 1991 and 1994?
Ans 1. 500 tons

2. 15000 tons

3. 5000 tons

4. 10000 tons

Q.11 By selling 20 cakes, a shopkeeper earns selling price of 4 cakes. Determine the profit percentage.
Ans 1. 25%

2. 10%

3. 20%

4. 4%

Q.12
There are 40 students in a class. Their average weight is 60 kg. Two
students left the class. Then the average weight is reduced by 500 g. Find
the weight of the two students who left the class (in kg).
Ans 1. 129

2. 139

3. 140

4. 130

Q.13 The mean of marks secured by 3 students in grade A of class XI is 83, that of 4 students of grade B is 76 and that of 5
students of grade C is 85. What will be the mean of marks of the students of three grades of Class XI?
Ans 1. 81.5

2. 81

3. 80.5

4. 80
Q.14 The table below shows the number of students enrolled in four colleges over the four years.

What is the average number of students studying per year in college Q over the given years?
Ans 1. 473

2. 548

3. 505

4. 455

Q.15 Reena sells an article at 12% below its cost price. Had she sold it for ₹540 more, she would
have gained 15%. At what price should she sell the article to gain 20%?
Ans 1. ₹2,004

2. ₹4,200

3. ₹2,400

4. ₹2,040

Q.16 A person got an article at 22% discount, if he got no discount, then he had to pay ₹1,760 more. How much did he pay (in ₹)
for the article?
Ans 1. 6,360

2. 5,640

3. 5,120

4. 6,240

Q.17 360 toffees are distributed among Pushkal, Quadir and Rustam in the ratio 2 : 3 : 4. After distribution, Quadir gives 20% of
his toffees to Pushkal and Rustam gives 25% of his toffees to Pushkal. What is the new ratio of toffees with Pushkal, Quadir
and Rustam?
Ans 1. 3 : 5 : 7

2. 7 : 3 : 5

3. 5 : 4 : 6

4. 6 : 4 : 5

Q.18 The average weight of a family of five members (in kg) whose weights are 40 kg, 49 kg, 56 kg, 65 kg and 38 kg is:
Ans 1. 49.6

2. 50.6

3. 48.6

4. 51.6

Q.19 What sum (in ₹) will earn a simple interest of ₹240 in 2 years at 16% per year rate of interest?
Ans 1. 1500

2. 1000

3. 750

4. 375

Q
.
2
0
A 1. 405
n
s
2. 540

3. 360

4. 240

Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1 L, M, N, O, P, Q and R are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order). Only three
people are sitting between R and O when counted from the left of R. Only M is sitting between L and N. N is an immediate
neighbour of O. P is sitting third to the right of L.

Who is sitting second to the left of O?

Ans 1. P

2. L

3. R

4. Q

Q.2 Select the figure from the given options that will replace the question mark (?) in the figure given below to complete the
pattern.

Ans

Q.3 A, B, C, L, M, Y and X are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order). Only two
people sit between B and L when counted from the right of L. X sits to the immediate left of Y. A sits to the immediate right of
M. Y is an immediate neighbour of L.
Who sits fourth to the right of C?
Ans 1. L

2. X

3. M

4. A

Q.4 What will come in the place of ‘?’ in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘÷‘ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘−’ are interchanged?
48 × 16 − 20 ÷ 21 + 7 = ?
Ans 1. −259

2. 269

3. −269

4. 259

Q.5 MHPL is related to OJRN in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, PKSO is related to
RMUQ. To which of the following is SNVR related following the same logic?
Ans 1. UPTX

2. UPXT

3. PUTX

4. PUXT

Q.6 Which two signs should be interchanged to make the following equation mathematically correct?
15 × 14 – 8 + 12 ÷ 4 = 5
Ans 1. × and –

2. × and +

3. ÷ and –

4. ÷ and +
Q.7 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements:
All leaves are trees.
Some trees are plants.
Conclusions:
(I) Some leaves are plants.
(II) All leaves are trees.
Ans 1. Both conclusions I and II follow

2. Only conclusion II follows

3. Only conclusion I follows

4. Neither conclusion I nor II follows

Q.8 ‘NQRP’ is related to ‘TWXV’ in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, ‘FHIG’ is related to
‘LNOM’. To which of the following is ‘LOPN’ related following the same logic?
Ans 1. RSQT

2. QSTR

3. RUVT

4. QTUS

Q.9 In a certain code language, ‘COPY’ is coded as ‘2846’ and ‘APES’ is coded as ‘7321’. What is the code for ’P’ in that
language?
Ans 1. 1

2. 2

3. 3

4. 4

Q.10 Select the figure from the options that can replace the question mark (?) and logically complete the series.

Ans

Q.11 What should come in place of the question (?) in the following series?
4 ,-27, -58, -89 ,-120 ,?
Ans 1. -151

2. -131

3. -141

4. 151
Q.12 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements:
All pencils are remotes.
Some pencils are ACs.
Conclusions:
[1] Some ACs are remotes.
[2] All remotes are Acs.
Ans 1. Only conclusion [2] follows

2. Neither conclusion [1] nor [2] follows

3. Both conclusions [1] and [2] follow

4. Only conclusion [1] follows

Q.13 Select the option in which the numbers share the same relationship as that shared by the given pair of numbers.
48 : 42
Ans 1. 48 : 24

2. 63 : 28

3. 65 : 28

4. 69 : 32

Q.14 16 is related to 176 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 21 is related to 231. To which of the following is 33
related, following the same logic?

(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding / subtracting / multiplying, etc., to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13
into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans 1. 361

2. 363

3. 362

4. 364

Q.15 Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series and complete
the pattern.

Ans

Q.16 In a certain code language, if HOUSE is coded as 67 and GROUND is coded as 83, then how will KITCHEN be coded?
Ans 1. 122

2. 119

3. 130

4. 110
Q.17 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?

SXG, QVI, OTK, MRM ,?

Ans 1. LPO

2. KPP

3. LPP

4. KPO

Q.18 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans
1.

Q.19 In a certain code language, 'MASTER' is coded as '917032', and 'STREAK' is coded as '372159'. What is the code for ‘K’ in
'STREAK'?
Ans 1. 9

2. 5

3. 7

4. 3

Q.20

Ans 1.

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 Which of the following statements is NOT true about Plastids?

Ans 1. They have their own ribosomes.

2. Starch, oils and protein granules are stored in chromoplasts.

3. They have their own DNA.

4. Stroma is found in chloroplast.

Q.2 Which of the following statements is/are correct about the Union Government budget in India?
a. The Budget reflects the vision of the government in fulfilling the aspirations of people.
b. The Budget is the summary report of the financial performance of the government in power.
c. The Budget provides details of expenditures meted out by various Union Government ministries.
Ans 1. Only c

2. Only a

3. Only a and b

4. All a, b and c

Q.3 Which of the following is NOT associated with the Iron Age in India?
Ans 1. Smelting

2. Mehrauli iron pillar

3. Painted grey ware

4. Northern black polished ware

Q.4 Kaal Baisakhi belongs to which state from the following?

Ans 1. Punjab

2. Bihar

3. West Bengal

4. Rajasthan
Q.5 In June 2023, which country conferred the ‘Order of the Nile’ award on Narendra Modi?
Ans 1. Lebanon

2. Turkey

3. Singapore

4. Egypt

Q.6 Which material was largely used to build the stupa at Piprahwa in Uttar Pradesh?
Ans 1. Bricks

2. Marble

3. Granite Stone

4. Sandstone

Q.7 Who among the following adopted the policy of consolidation in place of expansion by eliminating the rebels?
Ans 1. Nasiruddin Mahmud

2. Ghiyasuddin Balban

3. Shamsuddin Iltutmish

4. Raziya

Q.8 'Sange Meel Se Mulaqat' is the documentary of which famous musician?

Ans 1. MS Gopalakrishnan

2. Zakir Hussain

3. Hari Prasad Chaurasia

4. Bismillah Khan

Q.9 ‘The Namesake’, ‘Unaccustomed Earth’ and ‘The Lowland’ are novels written by who among the following authors?
Ans 1. Jhumpa Lahiri

2. Shobha De

3. Arundhati Roy

4. Aravind Adiga

Q.10 Which of the following war dances is performed in Ngada festival and is a performed by the tribes of Nagaland?
Ans 1. Jawara

2. Garadi

3. Rengma

4. Dalkhai

Q.11 Which of the following committees was set up to investigate into the infamous Jallianwala Bagh massacre?
Ans 1. Sadlar Committee

2. Butler Committee

3. Henry Fowler Committee

4. Hunter Committee

Q.12 From which of the following countries has the Indian Constitution borrowed the concept of the Concurrent List?
Ans 1. Australia

2. USA

3. Russia

4. Ireland

Q.13 How many components are there in the New India Literacy Program (NILP) scheme launched by the Union Ministry of
Education in March 2023?
Ans 1. Seven

2. Three

3. Five

4. Nine

Q.14 A ______ happens in chess when a player gives up material during the initiation to seek some kind of compensation.
Ans 1. Castling

2. Blockade

3. Gambit

4. Nick
Q.15 Two masses of 1 kg and 2 kg were dropped from a height of 3.2 metres. Their respective velocities just before touching the
ground will be:
(Assume acceleration due to gravity g = 10 m/s2)
Ans 1. 8 m/s for both

2. 3.2 m/s for both

3. 4 m/s and 8 m/s

4. 8 m/s and 4 m/s

Q.16 When is the National Unity Day celebrated in India?

Ans 1. 14 November

2. 31 October

3. 2 October

4. 26 January

Q.17 Which of the following types of emergencies is declared under Article 360 of the Indian Constitution?
Ans 1. National Emergency

2. Financial Emergency

3. Constitutional Emergency

4. State Emergency

Q.18 Mallika Sarabhai was honoured with the Padma Bhushan in 2010 for her contribution to which of the following fields?
Ans 1. Singing

2. Painting

3. Literature

4. Dance

Q.19 Which edition of the Pro Kabaddi League was started in December 2023?
Ans 1. 8th

2. 11th

3. 12th

4. 10th

Q.20 _________was launched by the Government of India in 2020 to make the country and its citizens independent and self-
sufficient in all respects.
Ans 1. Swachh Bharat Mission

2. Digital India Mission

3. Atmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyan

4. Smart Cities Mission

Q.21 According to National Multidimensional Poverty Index 2023 (A Progress Review), what was the proportion of population in
multidimensional poverty (Headcount Ratio) in urban India in 2019-2021?
Ans 1. 11.32%

2. 6.96%

3. 5.27%

4. 2.12%

Q.22 The igneous, sedimentary and metamorphic rocks are interconvertible through a continuous process called:
Ans 1. weathering and erosion

2. metamorphism

3. rock cycle

4. lithification

Q.23 Match the political parties of British India in column A with their respective founders in column B.

Ans 1. a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii

2. a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii

3. a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii

4. a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i

Q.24 In which of the followings years was the National Population Policy of India released?
Ans 1. 1952

2. 2000

3. 1995

4. 2015

Q.25 In the animal kingdom, which of the following phyla includes animals with a segmented body?
Ans 1. Chordata

2. Annelida

3. Arthropoda

4. Mollusca

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined words in the given sentence.

The walls of the marriage hall were covered by beautiful purple curtains.
Ans 1. covered on

2. covered of

3. covered upon

4. covered with

Q.2 Change the following sentence into positive degree.

Yash is not better than Harsh.

Ans 1. Yash is best than Harsh.

2. Yash is as good as Harsh.

3. Yash and Harsh both are good.

4. Yash is not good than Harsh.

Q.3 Select the most appropriate synonym of the word 'Pamper' from the given sentence.
I always feel that nuclear families always mollycoddle their kids without directing them to the correct path or denying their
unrealistic demands.
Ans 1. Nuclear

2. Demands

3. Path

4. Mollycoddle

Q.4 Select the grammatically correct sentence.

Ans 1. The teacher from the South explained the theory in a detailed manner.

2. A teacher from South explained the theory in the detailed manners.

3. The teacher from a South explained the theory in the detailed manner.

4. The teacher from an South explained a theory in a detailed manner.

Q.5 Select the option that rectifies the spelling of the underlined word in the given sentence.
The children were excited to ride the carusel.
Ans 1. Carrousel

2. Karusel

3. Carousell

4. Carousel

Q.6 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Clear as mud
Ans 1. A dirty surrounding

2. Very difficult to understand

3. A clean surface

4. Very easy to understand

Q.7 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment without changing its meaning in the given
sentence.
Family planning programs play a crucial role in promoting reproductive health and empowering individuals to make
informed choices, contributing to sustainable population growth and a healthier society.
Ans 1. promoting a viable population increase

2. discouraging a sustainable population upswing

3. fostering an unbalanced population growth

4. supporting sustainable population explosion

Q.8 Select the most appropriate adjective to fill in the blank.

They needed a __________ answer for every question.

Ans 1. precise

2. most precise

3. preciser

4. more precise

Q.9 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The old man shared his __________ wisdom with the young generation.
Ans 1. sagacious

2. trivial

3. ephemeral

4. frivolous

Q.10 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Vigorous
Ans 1. Academic

2. Guarded

3. Furious

4. Energetic

Q.11 In the following sentence the underlined part contains an error. Alternatives to the underlined part are given as options.
Select the correct alternative.
Playing ‘hide-n-seek’ is the one of the fond memories of my childhood.
Ans 1. fondest

2. fonder

3. more fonder

4. most fondest

Q.12 Based on the situation in the given sentence, select the most appropriate idiom for the underlined segment.
Having known to the facts, the manager disregarded the arguments of the customer.
Ans 1. Turned a deaf ear

2. Turned against

3. Turned out

4. Bite the Bullet

Q.13 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Contrary
Ans 1. Transformational

2. Similar

3. Reverse

4. Forward

Q.14 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The CEO came up with a groundbreaking strategy to _______________ new markets and capitalise on emerging trends.
Ans 1. break out

2. break into

3. break down

4. break off

Q.15 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the word given in brackets to fill in the blank.
He was able to do _____(tedious) jobs and hence decided to be in the airline service, which demanded 12 long hours of
service.
Ans 1. irksome

2. riotous

3. timid

4. delightful

Q.16 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blanks.

If 2023 was ___ year consumers helped stave off a recession with an unexpected surge in spending, many economists
_________ 2024 will be the time shoppers finally tighten their belts.
Ans 1. a, wanted

2. the, predict

3. an, thought

4. a, see
Q.17 Select the sentence that contains a spelling error.
Ans 1. He has made significant improvement in the last few weeks.

2. We saw a pride of lions nonchalantly roaming in the forest.

3. They had been disgrantled with the company due to various reasons.

4. Despite his formidable appearance, he possesses a kind heart.

Q.18 Select the correct spelling of the underlined word.

She has a magnificient personality.

Ans 1. Megnifecent

2. Magnifecient

3. Magnificent

4. Megnificent

Q.19 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Haste
Ans 1. Delay

2. Twist

3. Quick

4. Speed

Q.20 The given sentence is divided into four segments. Select the option that has the segment with a grammatical error.

I left my / coat in the / hospital when I / had visit Alex.

Ans 1. hospital when I

2. I left my

3. had visit Alex.

4. coat in the

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
We should remember that all religions (1)________ good conduct in life, the foundation of which should rest on (2)_________.
Without the basis of morality, philosophy would remain mere polemics, and religion would be (3)_________ and vain. Nobody can say
that he is religious unless he is (4)_________ and unselfish. It is realised that by constant endeavour through thought, word and deed,
one could (5)_________ absolute peace of mind.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans 1. depart

2. abandon

3. refrain

4. preach

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans 1. boundaries

2. unconscientiousness

3. evil

4. ethics

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans 1. useful

2. rational

3. popular

4. meaningless
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
We should remember that all religions (1)________ good conduct in life, the foundation of which should rest on (2)_________.
Without the basis of morality, philosophy would remain mere polemics, and religion would be (3)_________ and vain. Nobody can say
that he is religious unless he is (4)_________ and unselfish. It is realised that by constant endeavour through thought, word and deed,
one could (5)_________ absolute peace of mind.

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans 1. grotesque

2. truthful

3. lethargic

4. insensitive

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans 1. divide

2. scatter

3. forfeit

4. acquire
Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 09/10/2024
Exam
9:00 AM - 11:00 AM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 In an office, the data of employees in four different categories from three different cities B, C and D is given below in bar
graph.

In which category is the difference between the numbers of employees from any two different cities maximum?
Ans 1. 4

2. 1

3. 3

4. 2

Q.2 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹2500 as a sum borrowed at 9% per year rate of interest for 4 years.
Ans 1. 840

2. 860

3. 940

4. 900

Q.3 In 2016, the price of a refrigerator increased by 5%, and in 2017, it decreased by 5%. At the end of the year 2017, its price
was ₹47,880. What was its price at the beginning of the year 2016?
Ans 1. ₹48,000

2. ₹46,000

3. ₹48,560

4. ₹54,050
Q.4 A chemist prepares 100 grams of medicine by mixing two ingredients X and Y. The rate of X is ₹1,500 per 100 grams and that
of Y is ₹50 per 10 grams. X and Y are mixed in such a way that the cost of the resulting medicine is ₹13 per gram. What is the
quantity of X (in grams) in the medicine?
Ans 1. 20

2. 80

3. 30

4. 10

Q.5 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹2500 as a sum borrowed at 7% per year rate of interest for 3 years.
Ans 1. 485

2. 465

3. 525

4. 565

Q.6

Ans 1. 3

2. 6

3. 5

4. 4

Q.7 Two vendors calculate their profit percentage on the cost price and selling price, respectively. What will be the difference
between the profits (in ₹) if both the vendors declare a profit of 28% on the goods sold for ₹3,200?
Ans 1. 896

2. 700

3. 196

4. 548

Q.8 The cost price of an article is 76% of its marked price. Find the gain percentage after allowing a discount of 5%.
Ans 1. 24%

2. 27.5%

3. 25%

4. 22.5%

Q.9 The average of four girls' age is 12 years. The ages of three of them are 7, 12 and 13 years. Find the age of the fourth girl.
Ans 1. 15 years

2. 16 years

3. 17 years

4. 14 years

Q.10 The area of a rectangular park of length 15 m and breadth 12 m is:

Ans 1. 144 m2

2. 170 m2

3. 54 m2

4. 180 m2

Q.11 A cyclist covers a distance of 2.5 km in 4 minutes 10 seconds. How long will he take to cover a distance of 6 km at the same
speed?
Ans 1. 9 minutes

2. 10 minutes

3. 12 minutes

4. 11 minutes
Q.12 At a certain rate of simple interest, a sum becomes ₹9,430 in 3 years and ₹11,070 in 7 years. Find the sum.
Ans 1. ₹7,800

2. ₹8,350

3. ₹8,000

4. ₹8,200

Q.13

Ans
1.

Q.14 A commodity is made of two metals, A and B, which cost ₹35 per kg and ₹40 per kg, respectively, in the ratio of 2 : 3. What is
the cost (in ₹) of 12 kilograms of this commodity?
Ans 1. 456

2. 152

3. 228

4. 38

Q.15

Ans
1.

Q.16

Ans 1. 1403

2. 1402

3. 1401

4. 1404
Q.17 A person sold an article and got a loss of 9%. If he sold it for ₹51 more he would gain 8%. Find the C.P.
Ans 1. Rs.400

2. Rs.250

3. Rs.300

4. Rs.350

Q.18 The average weight of a family of five members (in kg) whose weights are 40 kg, 49 kg, 56 kg, 71 kg and 39 kg is:
Ans 1. 53

2. 51

3. 52

4. 50

Q.19 A car can cover 275 km in 5 hours. If its speed is reduced by 5 km/h, then how much time will the car take to cover a
distance of 300 km?
Ans 1. 5 hr 30 min

2. 5 hr

3. 4 hr 30 min

4. 6 hr

Q.20 In a company, if 40 workers can make 50 bags in 4 days, then how many bags will 24 workers
will make in 8 days?
Ans 1. 60

2. 40

3. 54

4. 45

Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1 DKNF is related to YFIA in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, QYCR is related to LTXM.
To which of the following is PEVM related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. IYQH

2. KZQH

3. IYPG

4. KZPG

Q.2 Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.
23, ?, 89, 177, 353, 705
Ans 1. 45

2. 47

3. 42

4. 49

Q.3 Which two numbers should be interchanged to make the given equation correct?
(24 + 14− 6) ÷ 2 + 18 × 3 − 20 = 40
(Note: Interchange should be done of entire number and not individual digits of a given number)
Ans 1. 20 and 24

2. 2 and 3

3. 20 and 14

4. 14 and 18
Q.4 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are
interchanged?
12 ÷ 3 – 8 + 16 × 4 = ?
Ans 1. 48

2. 42

3. 44

4. 40

Q.5 Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

Ans

Q.6 122 is related to 145 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 37 is related to 50. To which of the following is 82
related, following the same logic?

(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 –
Operations on 13 such as adding / subtracting / multiplying, etc.. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then
performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans 1. 101

2. 96

3. 98

4. 89

Q.7 What should come in place of question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?
AYF, FUI, KQL, PMO, ?
Ans 1. UIR

2. UJR

3. VIQ

4. VIR
Q.8 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans
1.

Q.9 In the following number-pairs, the second number is obtained by applying certain mathematical operations to the first
number. Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/ subtracting /multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
16, 80
22, 110
Ans 1. 21, 33

2. 25, 125

3. 15, 20

4. 17, 32

Statements:
All kurtas are sarees.
All sarees are blouse.

Conclusions:
(I) All kurtas are blouse.
(II) No blouse is a saree.
Ans 1. Only conclusion I follows

2. Both conclusions I and II follow

3. Only conclusion II follows

4. Neither conclusion I nor II follow

Q.11 In a certain code language, ‘nothing to hide’ is written as ‘tg mk sa’ and ‘hide and seek’ is writtenas ‘mk wd lq’. How will
‘hide’ be written in that language?
Ans 1. tg

2. wd

3. mk

4. lq

Q.12 In a certain code language, ‘BEST’ is coded as ‘4982’ and ‘STEM’ is coded as ‘6489’. What is the code for ‘B’ in that
language?
Ans 1. 2

2. 6

3. 8

4. 4
Q.13 Select the figure from the given options that will replace the question mark (?) in the figure given below to complete the
pattern.

Ans

Q.14 In a certain code language, ‘HAVE’ is coded as ‘2648’ and ‘VOLT’ is coded as ‘3961’.What is the code for ‘V’ in the given code
language?
Ans 1. 6

2. 1

3. 4

4. 3

Q.15 A, B, C, P, X, Y and Z are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order). Y sits third
to the left of A. B sits second to the left of C. Z sits to the immediate left of B. P sits third to the left of Z. A is not an
immediate neighbour of C. Who sits third to the left of Y?
Ans 1. Z

2. B

3. X

4. Y
Q.16

Ans 1.

Q.17 Five girls P, Q, R, S and T sit around a circular table facing towards the centre (not necessarily in the same order). Only one
girl sits between S and T. P sits to the immediate left of R. P is not an immediate neighbour of S.
Who sits third to the right of T?
Ans 1. R

2. S

3. Q

4. P

Q.18 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statement(s).

Statements: All planets are stars. All stars are galaxies.

Conclusion (I): All stars are planets.
Conclusion (II): All planets are galaxies.
Ans 1. Only conclusion I follows

2. Both conclusions I and II follow

3. Neither conclusion I nor II follows

4. Only conclusion II follows

Q.19 AE10 is related to CG20 in a certain way. In the same way, KO20 is related to MQ30. To which of the following is CG30
related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. GI45

2. EF40

3. EI45

4. EI40
Q.20

Ans

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 According to National Multidimensional Poverty Index 2023 (A Progress Review), which state has the highest proportion of
multidimensionally poor people (Headcount Ratio)?
Ans 1. Bihar

2. Odisha

3. Rajasthan

4. Jharkhand

Q.2 Due to the popularity of Indian clothes in Britain, a law was passed to ban Indian clothes. Which of the following was that
law?
Ans 1. Muslin act

2. Calso act

3. Textile act

4. Calico Act
Q.3 Based on the Tendulkar committee, the National poverty line was defined as which of the following?
i. ₹816 per capita per month for rural areas
ii. ₹1,000 per capita per month for urban areas.
Ans 1. Only i is correct

2. Both i and ii are incorrect

3. Both i and ii are correct

4. Only ii is correct

Q.4 Moti Masjid in Agra fort was constructed by which of the following Mughal Emperors?
Ans 1. Aurangzeb

2. Akbar

3. Jahangir

4. Shahjahan

Q.5 In which of the following religions was the agriculture prohibited for its followers?
Ans 1. Jainism

2. Shaivism

3. Vaishnavism

4. Buddhism

Q.6 Which of the followings is NOT one of the government accounts of India?
Ans 1. General Provident Fund

2. Contingency Fund of India

3. Consolidated Funds of India

4. Public Accounts of India

Q.7 Anorexia nervosa is an eating disorder in teenagers. Here body weight:

Ans 1. does not change

2. loses drastically

3. increases slightly

4. increases drastically

Q.8 Few renowned artists of __________ dance style in India are Roshan Kumari, Shovana Narayan, Maya Rao and Kumudini
Lakhia.
Ans 1. Chhau

2. Odissi

3. Manipuri

4. Kathak

Q.9 What is the chemical formula for the compound commonly known as 'laughing gas'?
Ans 1. N2O

2. NO2

3. N2O3

4. NO

Q.10 Odissi Guru, ________, received the first Utkal Pratibha Samman 2023 at Bhubaneswar.
Ans 1. Ratikant Mohapatra

2. Sailaja

3. Hema Rajagopalan

4. Vidhya Subramanian
Q.11 According to average rainfall in India, the Ladakh Union Territory is located in ___________.
Ans 1. areas of medium rainfall

2. areas of low rainfall

3. areas of high rainfall

4. areas of inadequate rainfall

Q.12 ‘Navroz’ is celebrated as the new year by which of the following communities?
Ans 1. Sikh

2. Parsi

3. Buddhist

4. Christian

Q.13 To mark the 75 years of Indo-Lanka Diplomatic Relations, External Affairs Minister Jaishankar inaugurated the 'Geoffrey
Bawa: It is Essential To be There' Exhibition in March 2023. Who was Geoffrey Bawa?
Ans 1. Sri Lankan Poet

2. Indian Poet

3. Indian Architect

4. Sri Lankan Architect

Q.14 Where was the Intercontinental Football Cup 2023 organised?

Ans 1. Chandigarh

2. Jalpaiguri

3. Dispur

4. Bhubaneswar

Q.15 The Indian Constitution has adopted the parliamentary form of Government from ___________.
Ans 1. USA

2. Russia

3. France

4. Britain

Q.16 Carbon dioxide plays a vital role in changing the earth's climate, leading to a critical condition known
as ________.
Ans 1. Greenhouse Effect

2. Thermal Conduction

3. Temperature Convection

4. Ozone Depletion

Q.17 Amer Fort was built with red sandstone and white marble by which ruler in the 16th century?
Ans 1. Raja Udai Singh

2. Raja Jai Singh

3. Raja Man Singh I

4. Raja Amar Singh

Q.18 In 2023, Congress MP Shashi Tharoor has been named as the chairperson of the Parliamentary Committee on
_______________.
Ans 1. Chemicals and Fertilisers

2. Finance and Health

3. External Affairs

4. Housing and Urban Affairs

Q.19 Which Article deals with the provisions in case of failure of the constitutional machinery in the State?
Ans 1. Article 356

2. Article 448

3. Article 342

4. Article 395

Q.20 Who among the following was the top run-scorer for India at the 1983 Cricket World Cup final with 38 runs?
Ans 1. Mohinder Amarnath

2. Kapil Dev

3. Krishnamachari Srikkanth

4. Sandeep Patil

Q.21 To get relief from constipation, which of the following is prescribed to be eaten in large amount?
Ans 1. Meat

2. Fibre

3. Protein

4. Fish

Q.22 Who among the following is known for his/her books ‘The Algebra of Infinite Justice’, ‘Kashmir: The Case for Freedom’ and
‘Capitalism: A Ghost Story’?
Ans 1. Arundhati Roy

2. Salman Rushdie

3. Amitav Ghosh

4. Jhumpa Lahiri

Q.23 According to Economic Survey 2023-24, which of the following states is the largest wheat producing state of India?
Ans 1. Uttar Pradesh

2. Bihar

3. Assam

4. West Bengal

Q.24 In 1974, classical singer Naina Devi was awarded the Padma Shri for her contribution to which of the following singing
styles?
Ans 1. Dadra

2. Kajari

3. Thumri

4. Tappa

Q.25 Who was the Viceroy of India when the Indian Arms Act, 1878, was passed?
Ans 1. Lord Lytton

2. Lord Curzon

3. Lord Dufferin

4. Lord Ripon

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. Select the option that contains an error.

My son, who is a cricketer too, is a M.A. from Delhi University.

Ans 1. from Delhi University

2. is a M.A.

3. My son, who is

4. a cricketer too

Q.2 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

The gift of the gab

Ans 1. The ability to speak easily and confidently

2. Life full of quarrels

3. Impossible

4. Just at the last moment

Q.3 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blanks.

Kiara was born in India but she went to ______ university in ________ United Kingdom.
Ans 1. a; the

2. No article required; the

3. the; No article required

4. a; No article required

Q.4 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Knuckle down
Ans 1. To crush someone to the extent that they cannot get up

2. To start working or studying hard

3. To make others do their share of hard work using power

4. To engage in street fighting

Q.5 Select the most appropriate idiom that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

The comedian's jokes were so funny that the audience was laughing uncontrollably.
Ans 1. in stitches

2. in bits and pieces

3. on the ball

4. as easy as pie

Q.6 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined word.

There are so many flies on the food.
Ans 1. Insects with wings

2. To move from one place to another

3. Various types of bacteria

4. To hover up in the sky

Q.7 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans 1. Vacuum

2. Weired

3. Separate

4. Until
Q.8 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Hollow
Ans 1. Spurious

2. Worthwhile

3. Crafty

4. Arched

Q.9 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans 1. Parallel

2. Miscellaneous

3. Mediterranean

4. Peculliar

Q.10 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

A person who eats too much

Ans 1. Fatalist

2. Sycophant

3. Glutton

4. Misogamist

Q.11 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Inanimate
Ans 1. Lifeless

2. Imitate

3. Inhumane

4. Cartoon

Q.12 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined word in the given sentence.
Exclusion of someone from a common group harms the human society.
Ans 1. Inclination

2. Prohibition

3. Admission

4. Submission

Q.13 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the underlined group of words.

Because the politician's speech was high-flown and pretentious, it gained popularity.
Ans 1. schematising

2. austere

3. mnemonic

4. bombastic

Q.14 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans 1. foreign

2. interupt

3. committee

4. apparently
Q.15 Select the most appropriate synonym of the word ‘Plain’ from the given sentence.
Mr. Das believes and follows the principle of simple living and high thinking.
Ans 1. Simple

2. principle

3. believes

4. High

Q.16 The following sentence has been split into four parts. Identify the part that contains a grammatical error.

Jack probably/ strained his back/ as the box was/ too heavier.
Ans 1. as the box was

2. strained his back

3. too heavier.

4. Jack probably

Q.17 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

As technology evolves, consumers increasingly _______________________ products with enhanced features and greater
efficiency.

Ans 1. demand

2. might demand

3. were demanding

4. has demanded

Q.18 Select the option that can be used as one-word substitute for the given group of words.

One who performs daring gymnastic feats

Ans 1. Adonis

2. Acrobat

3. Addict

4. Advocate

Q.19 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Personally, Ramesh was ____________ to his villagers than his elder brother.
Ans 1. more helpful

2. helped

3. most helpful

4. helpfuller

Q.20 The given sentence is divided into four segments. Select the option that has the segment with a grammatical error.
She forbade / him not / to enter that / room.
Ans 1. she forbade

2. him not

3. to enter that

4. room.
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
The standard of living of any country means the average (1)________ share of the goods and services which the country produces. A
country’s standard of living, therefore, (2)________ first and foremost on its capacity to produce wealth. ‘Wealth’, in this sense, is not
money, for we do not live (3)________ money but on things that money (4)________ buy; ‘goods’ such as food and clothing and
‘services’ such as transport and entertainment. A country’s capacity to produce wealth depends upon many factors, most of which
have an effect on one another. Wealth depends to a great extent (5)________ a country’s natural resources, such as coal, gold and
other minerals, water supply and so on.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 1.
Ans 1. person’s

2. per son

3. persons’

4. person

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
The standard of living of any country means the average (1)________ share of the goods and services which the country produces. A
country’s standard of living, therefore, (2)________ first and foremost on its capacity to produce wealth. ‘Wealth’, in this sense, is not
money, for we do not live (3)________ money but on things that money (4)________ buy; ‘goods’ such as food and clothing and
‘services’ such as transport and entertainment. A country’s capacity to produce wealth depends upon many factors, most of which
have an effect on one another. Wealth depends to a great extent (5)________ a country’s natural resources, such as coal, gold and
other minerals, water supply and so on.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 2.
Ans 1. depended

2. dependent

3. depending

4. depends

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 3.
Ans 1. in

2. on

3. by

4. into
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
The standard of living of any country means the average (1)________ share of the goods and services which the country produces. A
country’s standard of living, therefore, (2)________ first and foremost on its capacity to produce wealth. ‘Wealth’, in this sense, is not
money, for we do not live (3)________ money but on things that money (4)________ buy; ‘goods’ such as food and clothing and
‘services’ such as transport and entertainment. A country’s capacity to produce wealth depends upon many factors, most of which
have an effect on one another. Wealth depends to a great extent (5)________ a country’s natural resources, such as coal, gold and
other minerals, water supply and so on.

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 4.
Ans 1. should

2. ought

3. can

4. must

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 5.
Ans 1. over

2. in

3. upon

4. with
Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 09/10/2024
Exam
12:30 PM - 2:30 PM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 Akash, Ajay, Sonia, Anju and Rohit are in a group. The average marks scored by their group is 27. Akash left the group and
now the average of the remaining students is 24. How many marks did Akash score?
Ans 1. 15

2. 39

3. 35

4. 32

Q.2

Ans 1. 21 cm

2. 12 cm

3. 15 cm

4. 17 cm

Q.3 The diameter of a cylinder is equal to its height. If the height of the cylinder is 14 cm, find the total surface area of the

cylinder.

Ans 1.

4.
Q.4 The bar graph given below represents the number of students(in thousands), who opted three different specialization during
four given years in a University.

The total number of students in the university in 2021 was 1,60,000; find the percentage of the students who opted for the
given three subjects.
Ans 1. 73.45%

2. 43.75%

3. 47.35%

4. 45.73%

Q.5 Radha walks to her office 5 km away from home. In the morning, she covers the distance in 1 hour whereas, while returning
home in the evening, she takes 15 more minutes to cover the same distance. Find her average speed (in km/h) during the
two-way journey.
Ans
1.

Q.6 What sum (in ₹) will earn a simple interest of ₹240 in 3 years at 16% per year rate of interest?
Ans 1. 250

2. 500

3. 1000

4. 750

Q.7 Find the simple interest on ₹36,000 at an annual rate of 22% over an 8 month period.
Ans 1. ₹5,280

2. ₹5,290

3. ₹5,270

4. ₹5,275
Q.8 Two numbers are in the ratio 3 : 7. Their L.C.M. is 126. Find the sum of the numbers.
Ans 1. 90

2. 60

3. 69

4. 64

Q.9

Ans 1. 16L : 9(R + L)

2. 9L : 16(R + L)

3. 9(R + L) : 16L

4. 16(R + L) : 9L

Q.10 Find the selling price of an article (in ₹) if the cost price is ₹4,500 and gain is 5%.
Ans 1. 4,725

2. 5,175

3. 5,527

4. 4,657

Q.11 The average age of a family consisting of parents and a child five years ago was 27 years. Three years ago, the average age
of parents was 41. The child was born ______ years ago.
Ans 1. 16

2. 8

3. 2

4. 4

Q.12 The average weight of a family of five members (in kg) whose weights are 40 kg, 49 kg, 56 kg, 69 kg and 37 kg is:
Ans 1. 50.2

2. 52.2

3. 49.2

4. 51.2

Q.13 If 40% of A is equal to 64% of B, then what will be A : B?

Ans 1.

Q.14 If a boatman can row upstream at 10 km/h and downstream at 12 km/h, then find the ratio of the speed of the boat in still
water and the speed of the current.
Ans
1.

4.
Q.15 How much sugar at ₹68/kg should be added to 20 kg of tea worth ₹440/kg so that the mixture be worth ₹130/kg?
Ans 1. 80 kg

2. 120 kg

3. 110 kg

4. 100 kg

Q.16 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹3000 as a sum borrowed at 9% per year rate of interest for 2 years.
Ans 1. 540

2. 480

3. 500

4. 580

Q.17

Ans 1. Hindi

2. Science

3. Mathematics

4. English

Q.18 The average weight of a family of 8 members is 56 kg. The grandfather and the grandmother came to visit the family. Now,
the average weight of 10 members of the family is 64 kg. Find the average weight (in kg) of the grandparents.
Ans 1. 90

2. 92

3. 94

4. 96
Q.19 A dishonest shopkeeper promises to sell his goods at cost price. However, he uses a weight that actually weighs 18% less
than what is written on it. Find his profit percentage.
Ans
1.

Q.20 A shopkeeper buys two varieties of sugar at ₹120 and ₹80 per kg, respectively, and mixes them in the ratio 2 : 3. He then
sets the marked price of each kg of the blended sugar at 50% above the cost he incurred per kg of the same, and then sold it
after offering a 25% discount on the marked price. At what price (in ₹) did the shopkeeper sell each kg of the blended sugar?
Ans 1. 114

2. 120

3. 108

4. 144

Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1 Seven people P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same
order). U is sitting second to the right of S. Q is sitting third to the left of U. R is sitting fifth to the right of P. T is sitting third
to the left of V. What is the position of S with respect to V?
Ans 1. Second to the left

2. To the immediate left

3. To the immediate right

4. Third to the right

Q.2 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans
1.

4.
Q.3

Ans 1.

Q.4 EO 19 is related to AK 13 in a certain way. In the same way, UD 17 is related to QZ 11. To which of the following is VH 23
related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. RD 17

2. RD 18

3. QC 17

4. RC 17

Q.5 In a certain code language, ‘FOAM’ is coded as ‘9618’ and ‘MUST’ is coded as ‘4536’. What is the code for ‘M’ in that
language?
Ans 1. 4

2. 3

3. 5

4. 6

Q.6 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

(6, 17, 41)

(3, 20, 32)
Ans 1. (12, 15, 53)

2. (7, 16, 14)

3. (9, 6, 40)

4. (23, 4, 96)

Q.7 What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’
are interchanged?
60 + 9 ÷ 63 − 72 × 12 = ?
Ans 1. −504

2. −501

3. −502

4. −503

Q.8 Which of the following interchanges of signs would make the given equation correct?
8 − 42 + 104 ÷ 13 × 4 = 18
Ans 1. − and ×

2. − and +

3. + and ×

4. ÷ and −
Q.9

Ans

Q.10 In a certain code language, ‘PINK’ is coded as 15 and ‘PAINT’ is coded as 24. How will ‘WILDNESS’ be coded in the same
language?
Ans 1. 63

2. 48

3. 52

4. 51

Q.11 What should come in place of question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?
ZWT, WUQ, TSN, QQK, ?
Ans 1. MOH

2. NOQ

3. NOH

4. MOG

Q.12 In a certain code language, ‘RISK’ is coded as ‘2369’ and ‘CRAP’ is coded as ‘1876’. What is the code for ‘R’ in the given
code language?
Ans 1. 7

2. 9

3. 6

4. 8

Q.13 425 is related to 85 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 265 is related to 53. To which of the following is 655
related, following the same logic?

(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding / subtracting / multiplying, etc., to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13
into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans 1. 131

2. 132

3. 130

4. 136
Q.14 Two statements are given followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. Assuming the statements to be true, even if
they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements:
I. All strawberries are fruits.
II. Some berries are strawberries.
Conclusions:
I. All berries are fruits.
II. Some fruits are strawberries.
III. No berry is a fruit.
Ans 1. Either conclusion I or III follows.

2. Only conclusion II follows.

3. Both conclusions II and III follow.

4. Only conclusion III follows.

Q.15 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

8796, 4392, 1092, 176, ?, −4.4

Ans 1. 22

2. 11.6

3. 16

4. 38

Q.16 Seven people A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same
order). G is sitting second to the right of B. Only two people are sitting between E and C when counted from the left of E. G
is an immediate neighbour of E. A is sitting second to the left of C. D is not an immediate neighbour of B.
What is the position of F with respect to G?
Ans 1. Third to the left

2. Third to the right

3. Fourth to the left

4. Second to the right

Q.17 Select the option figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the figure given below to complete the pattern.

Ans

Q.18 This question has two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to
be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions
logically follow(s) from the given statements.
Statements:
No motor is a yak.
Some yaks are wipes.
Conclusions:
(I) No wipe is a yak.
(II) Some wipes are yaks.
Ans 1. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow

2. Only conclusion (I) follows

3. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows

4. Only conclusion (II) follows

Q.19 KQNT is related to QWTZ in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, IOLR is related to
OURX. To which of the following is DJGM related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. PJSM

2. PJMS

3. JPMS

4. JPSM

Q.20 Identify the figure from the given options that when put in place of the question mark (?) will logically complete the series.

Ans

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 Pakhu Itu dance is performed by the Apatani tribe of which of the following states?
Ans 1. Assam

2. Arunachal Pradesh

3. Chhattisgarh

4. Himachal Pradesh
Q.2 When was the National Digital Communications Policy launched in India?
Ans 1. 2018

2. 2020

3. 2016

4. 2015

Q.3 What is the main objective of zero-based budgeting?

Ans 1. Establishing a relationship between inputs and outputs

2. To assess the effectiveness of each programme and activity with the output

3. Examining the objectives for which funds are provided

4. Re-evaluation of all the activities every year when budget provisions are made

Q.4 The duration of bouts in each round of the International Boxing Association (AIBA Open Boxing) match for Elite and Youth
Men’s and Women’s Competitions should be __________.
Ans 1. 2 minutes

2. 3 minutes

3. 4 minutes

4. 5 minutes

Q.5 The layer made up of unconsolidated rock, dust, soil, etc. that is deposited on a bed rock surface like a blanket is known as:
Ans 1. Talus

2. Protolith

3. Regolith

4. Scree

Q.6 Pellagra is a deficiency disease that usually occurs due to lack of which of the following nutrients?
Ans 1. Iodine

2. Vitamin E

3. Niacin

4. Riboflavin

Q.7 In which year did the Government of India pass the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act?
Ans 1. 2003

2. 1999

3. 2001

4. 2005

Q.8 India played its first test match cricket against which of the following countries?
Ans 1. New Zealand

2. England

3. Australia

4. West Indies

Q.9 In the year 1946, a three-tiered confederation for transfer of power to India was proposed by the ________.
Ans 1. Simon Commission

2. Rowlatt Act

3. Regulating Act

4. Cabinet Mission
Q.10 In December 2022, the Parliament passed the Energy Conservation (Amendment) Bill, 2022. This bill aims to make use of
_____.
Ans 1. subsidy on petrol vehicles

2. tungsten filament bulbs in houses

3. non-fossil fuels

4. electric vehicles

Q.11 What monumental site in India houses Magan Niwas, Hriday Kunj and Vinoba-Mira Kutir?
Ans 1. Ramchandra Mission

2. Sabarmati Ashram

3. Auroville

4. Vinoba Ashram

Q.12 Who is a famous Kuchipudi Dancer to receive Padma Shri in 2001?

Ans 1. Rekha Raju

2. Padmini

3. Sobha Naidu

4. Mukti Mohan

Q.13 Pandit Shiv Kumar Sharma is credited with single-handedly popularising which musical instrument?
Ans 1. Santoor

2. Sitar

3. Tabla

4. Sarod

Q.14 Find the odd one out.

Vacuoles, Nucleus, Ribosomes, Lysosomes
Ans 1. Vacuoles

2. Nucleus

3. Lysosomes

4. Ribosomes

Q.15 The famous autobiography ‘Lessons life taught me unknowingly’ is related to:
Ans 1. LK Advani

2. Anupam Kher

3. Jhulan Goswami

4. Sharad Pawar

Q.16 Which of the following places in India receive the highest rainfall?
Ans 1. Mawsynram

2. Imphal

3. Patna

4. Guwahati

Q.17 Who among the following rulers introduced the ‘jharokha darshan’ in the Mughal dynasty?
Ans 1. Humayun

2. Aurangzeb

3. Akbar

4. Shahjahan
Q.18 Which property of an element is inversely related to its ionisation energy?
Ans 1. Atomic radius

2. Electron affinity

3. Electronegativity

4. Atomic mass

Q.19 According to Census 2011 of India, what was the percentage of Christian communities of the total population in India?
Ans 1. 0.7%

2. 2.3%

3. 1.7%

4. 0.4%

Q.20 In a Parliamentary system, who among the following is known as the head of the Government?
Ans 1. Chief Justice

2. Chief Minister

3. President

4. Prime Minister

Q.21 In which of the following states is the Alpasi Festival celebrated annually, where a holy bath of the deities in the sea is the
primary attraction?
Ans 1. Karnataka

2. Andhra Pradesh

3. Telangana

4. Kerala

Q.22 Which of the following features of the Indian Constitution is taken from the USA's constitution?
Ans 1. Cabinet System

2. Removal of Supreme Court Judges

3. Prerogative Writs

4. Parliamentary Privileges

Q.23 What is the maximum amount of home loan the eligible beneficiaries can get under the ‘Mo Ghara’ scheme launched by the
Government of Odisha in May 2023?
Ans 1. Upto ₹5.5 lakh

2. Upto ₹4 lakh

3. Upto ₹2 lakh

4. Upto ₹3 lakh

Q.24 Match the army officers of the Mauryan empire in column A with the respective salaries given to them in column B.

Ans 1. a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii

2. a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i

3. a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv

4. a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii

Q.25 Which of the following statements is INCORRECT related to Macaulay?
Ans 1. He strongly advocated giving English language education to Indians.

2. Macaulay was an orientalist scholar.

3. He considered Indian and Arab literature inferior to the Western literature.

4. He believed that India is an uncivilised country which needs to be taught the lessons of civilisation.

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word in the given sentence.

Mithya's remarkable generosity extended to everyone she knew.

Ans 1. Awkwardness

2. Cowardice

3. Selfishness

4. Perfection

Q.2 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The athlete's performance was __________, earning him a standing ovation.

1. average
Ans

2. moderate

3. mediocre

4. exceptional

Q.3 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
(1) Malini’s family (2) doesn’t know (3) how she bears out (4) the work pressure.
Ans 1. doesn’t know

2. how she bears out

3. the work pressure.

4. Malini’s family

Q.4 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical/spelling error.

Jack along with / his family visited / his aunt living / at America.
Ans 1. Jack along with

2. his family visited

3. at America

4. his aunt living

Q.5 Select the most appropriate option with the correct usage of the preposition to substitute the underlined segment in the
given sentence.

The United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) was born during 16 November 1945.
Ans 1. was born in 16 November 1945

2. was born at 16 November 1945

3. was born by 16 November 1945

4. was born on 16 November 1945

Q.6 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word in the given sentence.

The restaurent's atmosphere was pleasant and inviting.

Ans 1. pleasant

2. atmosphere

3. inviting

4. restaurent's
Q.7 Select the most appropriate idiom that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

I cannot call him directly as I have lost his support.

Ans 1. am out of favour with him

2. am in character

3. am in my own light

4. am quite at sea with him

Q.8 Select the most appropriate synonym of the word 'Flash' from the given sentence.
My cousin Zara, who loves to explore outer space in her free time, once noticed or observed a disc-shaped object blinking
in the sky.
Ans 1. explore

2. observed

3. noticed

4. blinking

Q.9 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Sycophant
Ans 1. Arrogant

2. Uppity

3. Independent

4. Fawner

Q.10 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.
A short stay at a place.
Ans 1. Topiary

2. Xenophobe

3. Sojourn

4. Embargo

Q.11 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blanks.

____ architect designed ____ modern office building and ____ traditional residential home, showcasing ____ blend of
contemporary and classic architectural styles.
Ans 1. An; a; a; an

2. An; a; a; a

3. A; a; an; a

4. An; a; an; a

Q.12 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
His skills in programming / are more superior than / most developers / in the company.
Ans 1. are more superior than

2. most developers

3. in the company

4. His skills in programming

Q.13 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Burn the midnight oil
Ans 1. To set things on fire

2. To waste time

3. To work late into the night

4. To sleep early
Q.14 Identify the INCORRECTLY spelt word in the following sentence and select its correct spelling from the given options.

The teacher assessed the student’s flyer for writing.

Ans 1. flare

2. fire

3. friar

4. flair

Q.15 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The Indian Government has launched the National Rural Livelihoods Mission, a _________ programme aimed at reducing
rural poverty.
Ans 1. regressive

2. controversial

3. designer

4. flagship

Q.16 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
A famous economist / says that / the government should do more / for create enough jobs.
Ans 1. A famous economist

2. for create enough jobs

3. says that

4. the government should do more

Q.17 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to
substitute it, select ‘No substitution’.

Suman will be fired if she did not complete the delegated target set by her boss.
Ans 1. if she does not complete the delegated target

2. No substitution

3. if she had not complete the delegated target

4. if she do not complete the delegated target

Q.18 Select the correct spelling from the given options to fill in the blank.
I hope you will excuse me for doing what is only my duty, although it may appear ________.
Ans 1. impertaint

2. impertiant

3. impertinant

4. impertinent

Q.19 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Fast
Ans 1. Barely

2. Languid

3. Quick

4. Tardy

Q.20 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Vacant
Ans 1. Popular

2. Full

3. Brutal

4. Empty
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

One day we saw Kala Nag. The monsoons had burst with all their fury, and it had rained in the night. The earth, which had lain
parched and dry under the withering heat of the summer sun, was teeming ____1___ life. In little pools, frogs croaked. The muddy
ground was littered with ____2___ worms, centipedes and velvety lady-birds. Grass ____3____ begun to show and the banana
leaves glistened bright and glossy green. The _____4___ had flooded Kala Nag’s hole. He sat in an open patch on the lawn. His
shiny black hood glistened in the sunlight. He was big, almost six feet in _____5____ and rounded and fleshy, as my wrist. “Looks like
a King Cobra. Let’s get him."

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans 1. before

2. with

3. at

4. in

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans 1. crawling

2. talking

3. reading

4. singing

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans 1. will

2. had

3. is

4. was
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans 1. snow

2. heat

3. rain

4. clouds

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans 1. weight

2. length

3. looks

4. circles
Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 09/10/2024
Exam
4:00 PM - 5:30 PM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 A merchant gives 800 g instead of 1000 g to a customer. What is the merchant’s percentage profit?
Ans 1. 10%

2. 20%

3. 25%

4. 15%

Q.2 A dozen oranges cost ₹96, 2 dozen apples cost ₹240 and 4 pineapples costs ₹180. What is the average cost (in ₹) per piece?
Ans 1. 16.2

2. 19.2

3. 12.6

4. 12.9

Q.3

Ans 1. 22.500

2. 19.404

3. 21.404

4. 20.500
Q.4

Ans 1. Civil

2. Mechanical

3. Computer Science

4. Electrical

Q.5 A solution of phenyl and water is 28 litres, with phenyl and water in ratio 4 : 3. 21 litres phenyl-water solution which has
phenyl to water ratio as 2 : 1 is added to the 28 litres phenyl-water solution. Again 51 litres phenyl-water solution that has
phenyl to water ratio as 9 : 8 is added to this. What is ratio of water to phenyl in the final mixture?
Ans 1. 59 : 41

2. 43 : 57

3. 57 : 43

4. 41 : 59
Q.6

Ans 1. Delhi

2. Lucknow

3. Patna

4. Mumbai

Q.7

Ans 1.

Q.8 The cost of a raw material increased with equal percentage in two years. The price increased to ₹145.20 from ₹120. What is
the equal annual percentage increase?
Ans 1. 11.5%

2. 11%

3. 10%

4. 10.5%

Q.9 The speed of a boat in still water is 8 km/h, while it takes 2 hours for the boat to cover a distance of 20 km downstream.
What is the speed (in km/h) of the stream?
Ans 1. 1.5

2. 2

3. 1.75

4. 2.5

Q.10 A conical tent is to accommodate 12 persons. Each person must have 5 m2 of the space on the ground and 20 m3 of air to
breathe. The height of the tent should be:
Ans 1. 12 m

2. 12.5 m

3. 22 m

4. 13 m
Q.11 A train is moving in from north to south direction. It overtakes Raj and Madhur who are walking in the same direction at the
rate of 2 km/h and 4 km/h in 9 sec and 10 sec, respectively. If the train is x metres long, find the value of x.
Ans 1. 90

2. 30

3. 50

4. 70

Q.12 For 8 innings, a cricketer has an average of 68 runs. In the ninth inning, he scores 220 runs. His average
score increased by (rounded off to the nearest whole number):
Ans 1. 23

2. 17

3. 61

4. 85

Q.13 The average weight of a family of five members (in kg) whose weights are 40 kg, 49 kg, 56 kg, 65 kg and 37 kg is:
Ans 1. 49.4

2. 48.4

3. 50.4

4. 51.4

Q.14 A specific amount of money is loaned out at a simple interest rate, resulting in ₹15,000 in 2 years and ₹20,000 in 4 years. The
rate percentage per annum is:
Ans 1. 15%

2. 18%

3. 25%

4. 20%

Q.15 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹3000 as a sum borrowed at 9% per year rate of interest for 6 years.
Ans 1. 1580

2. 1620

3. 1560

4. 1660

Q.16 Each of the two merchants sell an article for ₹1,000. If Merchant A computes his profit on the cost price, while Merchant B
computes his profit on the selling price, then they both end up making profits of 25%. By how much is the profit made by
Merchant B more than that of Merchant A?
Ans 1. ₹40

2. ₹50

3. ₹45

4. ₹35

Q.17 A rectangular sheet of length 28 cm and breadth 16 cm is folded to meet the edges so that it is made into a cylindrical pipe
in two possible ways – one along the length and the other along the breadth. The larger volume is how much percentage of
smaller volume?
Ans 1. 175%

2. 185%

3. 165%

4. 180%
Q.18 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹2000 as a sum borrowed at 8% per year rate of interest for 2 years.
Ans 1. 260

2. 320

3. 280

4. 360

Q.19 A shopkeeper bought 10 dozen eggs at the rate of ₹5 per egg. 12 eggs broke in transit. He sold the remaining eggs at the
rate of ₹6 per egg. Find his profit percentage.
Ans 1. 10%

2. 20%

3. 8%

4. 15%

Q.20 The dimensions of a room are 1650 cm × 1350 cm × 900 cm. What should be the size of the longest tape with which the three
dimensions can be measured exactly?
Ans 1. 200 cm

2. 150 cm

3. 300 cm

4. 250 cm

Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘+’ and ‘–’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are
interchanged?

12 ÷ 2 × 6 – 11 + 12 = ?
Ans 1. 3

2. 6

3. 5

4. 9
Q.2

Ans

Q.3 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
Some herbs are trees.
Some trees are plants.

Conclusions:
(I) Some herbs are plants.
(II) At least some trees are herbs.
Ans 1. Only conclusion II follows

2. Neither conclusion I nor II follows

3. Both conclusion I and II follow

4. Only conclusion I follows

Q.4 What will come in the place of ‘?’ in the following equation, if ‘×’ and ‘−‘ are interchanged and ‘+’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?
16 – 66 + 6 × 26 ÷ 36 = ?
Ans 1. 166

2. 186

3. 241

4. 204

Q.5 In a certain code language, ‘can you swim’ is coded as ‘MQ TO LO’ and ‘He can drive’ is coded as ‘LO AB PQ’. How is ‘can’
coded in that code language?
Ans 1. LO

2. TO

3. AB

4. MQ

Q.6 Identify the figure given in the options that when put in place of the question mark (?) will logically complete the series.

Ans

4.
Q.7 Select the figure that will come next in the following figure series.

Ans

Q.8 7 is related to 33 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 9 is related to 41. To which of the following is 14 related
following the same logic?

2. 56

3. 65

4. 67

Q.9 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the given sets.
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

(29, 77)
(24, 62)
Ans 1. (19, 47)

2. (31, 93)

3. (26, 88)

4. (22, 86)

Q.10 AB10 is related to CD29 in a certain way. In the same way, KL65 is related to MN84. To which of the following is UV25 related,
following the same logic?
Ans 1. ZX44

2. WX44

3. WX45

4. ZX45

Q.11 In a certain code language, 'DEVICE' is coded as ‘EDWHDD’ and 'DENIAL' is coded as ‘EDOHBK’. How will 'DEMAND' be
coded in the same language?
Ans 1. EDLZMC

2. EDNBOC

3. EDNBMC

4. EDNZOC
Q.12 In a certain code language, ‘GIRL’ is coded as ‘3618’ and ‘ROAD’ is coded as ‘7462’.What is the code for ‘R’ in the given code
language?
Ans 1. 3

2. 6

3. 8

4. 1

Q.13 A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order) . Only two
people sit between F and C when counted from the right of F. Only three people sit between B and G when counted from the
right of G. C sits to the immediate right of G. D sits to the immediate right of A.
Who sits fourth to the right of E?
Ans 1. D

2. A

3. F

4. G

Statements:
All sharks are whales.
No whale is a dolphin.

Conclusions:
(I) No shark is a dolphin.
(II) No dolphin is a whale.

Ans 1. Neither conclusion I nor II follows.

2. Only conclusion I follows.

3. Only conclusion II follows.

4. Both conclusions I and II follow.

Q.15 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

1, 2, 5, 12, ?, 58, 121

Ans 1. 15

2. 27

3. 20

4. 25

Q.16 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans
1.

4.
Q.17 In a code language, 'RAM' is written as ‘Q14’ and ‘CAR’ is written as ‘B19’. How will 'MARK' be written in that language?
Ans 1. M29

2. M30

3. L26

4. L30

Q.18 SK −1 is related to OO 3 in a certain way. In the same way, IA 2 is related to EE 6. To which of the following is EO 5 related,
following the same logic?
Ans 1. AS −1

2. AS 1

3. AS 9

4. AT 9

Q.19 A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table facing away from the centre (but not necessarily in the same order).
Only 3 people sit between D and F when counted from the right of D. E and G are both immediate neighbours of A. B sits
immediately to the left of C. Only 1 person sits between B and G when counted from the right of G. What is the position of E
with respect to B?
Ans 1. Second to the right

2. Third to the right

3. Second to the left

4. Third to the left

Q.20 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?

CVF, GTJ, KRN, ?, SNV

Ans 1. OPS

2. OPR

3. PRO

4. ROQ

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 Tax, known as bhaga, was levied on which of the following during Mahajanapada period of Ancient India?
Ans 1. Tax on artisans

2. Tax on merchants

3. Tax on cattle breeders

4. Tax on cultivators

Q.2 Which state finished second in the first edition of the Khelo India Para Games?
Ans 1. Uttar Pradesh

2. Haryana

3. Madhya Pradesh

4. Rajasthan

Q.3 According to Newland’s Law of Octaves, every eighth element has properties similar to those of the first element. Which of
the following elements has properties similar to those of N?
Ans 1. P

2. S

3. Al

4. B
Q.4 If the tax rate increases with the taxable base, then this type of taxation is called:
Ans 1. digressive

2. regressive

3. proportional

4. progressive

Q.5 Who among the following launched the Home Rule League in September 1916 at Madras?
Ans 1. Rash Behari Bose

2. Sucheta Kriplani

3. Annie Besant

4. Lokmanya Tilak

Q.6 Usain Bolt shared the journey of his life in which of the following autobiographies?
Ans 1. Running for My Life

2. Let Your Mind Run

3. Race of My Life

4. Faster Than Lightning

Q.7 The Quwwat-ul-Islam Mosque was constructed in around 1197 AD by the sultan of which of the following dynasties of Delhi
Sultanate?
Ans 1. Tughlaq

2. Lodhi

3. Mamluk

4. Khalji

Q.8 The Irani Cup is a first-class cricket competition played between the winner of the Ranji Trophy and which other team?
Ans 1. India A

2. Rest of India

3. Board President's XI

4. India B

Q.9 Who among the following was the founder of Indian Association in Bengal?
Ans 1. Chittaranjan Das

2. Surendra Nath Banerjee

3. P Ananda Charlu

4. Rash Behari Bose

Q.10 Which executive system is present in India?

Ans 1. Parliamentary System

2. Both Parliamentary and Presidential System

3. Collegiate System

4. Presidential System

Q.11 Which of the following is the National waterway no. 4 in India?

Ans 1. Godavari and Krishna rivers along with Kakinada Puducherry

2. The Ganga River between Allahabad-Haldia

3. Mahanadi and Brahmani rivers and East Coast Canal

4. The Brahmaputra river between Sadiya and Dhubri

Q.12 Vinod Mankara’s documentary 'Mohinyattathinte Amma' is based on which of the following world renowned Mohiniyattam
dancers?
Ans 1. P Madhuri

2. Sunanda Nair

3. Jayaprabha Menon

4. Kalamandalam Kalyanikutty

Q.13 A 5% decrease in poverty by 2007 was one of main objectives of the ________ plan.
Ans 1. Tenth Year Plan (2002-2007)

2. Ninth Five-Year Plan (1997-2002)

3. Fourth Five-Year Plan (1966-1974)

4. Seventh Five-Year Plan (1985-90)

Q.14 Identify the INCORRECT pair (State and Iron-ore producing region) from the following.
Ans 1. Madhya Pradesh - Ratnagiri

2. Odisha - Badampahar

3. Chhattisgarh - Bailadila

4. Karnataka - Kudremukh

Q.15 Which Fundamental Right guarantees protection of interests of the minorities in the matter of their language, script or
culture?
Ans 1. Right to Freedom

2. Right to Equality

3. Right against Exploitation

4. Cultural and Educational Rights

Q.16 The microscopic channels, which traverse the cell walls of plant cells and some algal cells, enabling transport and
communication between them is called:
Ans 1. desmosomes

2. lysosomes

3. plasmodesmata

4. ribosomes

Q.17 Select the INCORRECT statement.

Ans 1. Functional segments of DNA are called genes.

2. Chromosomes are composed of DNA and carbohydrates.

3. The chromatin material gets organised into rod-shaped chromosomes only when the cell is about to divide.

4. DNA molecules contain the information necessary for constructing and organising cells.

Q.18 In 2022, Arjun Singh Dhurve was honoured with the Padma Shri Award for his contribution in which of the following Indian
folk-dance forms?
Ans 1. Laho

2. Bihu

3. Chhau

4. Baiga

Q.19 ___________ is mainly celebrated by Maharashtrians as New Year's Day.

Ans 1. Bihu

2. Pongal

3. Gudi Padwa

4. Ugadi
Q.20 Krishnarao Shankar Pandit belonged to which of the following music gharanas?
Ans 1. Atrauli gharana

2. Mewati gharana

3. Agra gharana

4. Gwalior gharana

Q.21 According to the Census of India 2011, which states of India have population density more than 1000 persons per sq. km?
Ans 1. Kerala and Tamil Nadu

2. Uttar Pradesh and Haryana

3. Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra

4. Bihar and West Bengal

Q.22 Select the odd one from the following saltwater lakes on the basis of their formation?
Ans 1. Pulicat lake

2. Kolleru lake

3. Sambhar lake

4. Chilika lake

Q.23 As of February 2024, who among the following is the Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha?
Ans 1. Harivansh Narayan Singh

2. Prakash Javadekar

3. Dharmendra Pradhan

4. Jagat Prakash Nadda

Q.24 In October 2023, Indrasena Reddy Nallu has been appointed the Governor of which of the following states in India?
Ans 1. Kerala

2. Goa

3. Assam

4. Tripura

Q.25 Who among the following was sent by Akbar to lead the Mughal army in the Battle of Haldighati which was fought in 1576?
Ans 1. Raja Todarmal

2. Raja Maharana Pratap

3. Raja Man Singh

4. Raja Medini Rai

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

The brave and courageous soldiers / of our motherland / fell into the enemy / and won the battle.
Ans 1. The brave and courageous soldiers

2. fell into the enemy

3. and won the battle

4. of our motherland
Q.2 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

All in the same boat

Ans 1. When a task can be accomplished together

2. When everyone has to start all over again

3. When everyone is dealing with the same situation

4. When everybody is travelling in the same vehicle

Q.3 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blanks.

Whenever addressed, she comes ____ and performs her ____in a great way.
Ans 1. fourth, roll

2. forth, role

3. fourth, role

4. forth, roll

Q.4 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The manager swiftly overtook him, ____________ effortlessly past the skinny Englishman, with a practiced ease.
Ans 1. kindling

2. sliding

3. rendering

4. dawdling

Q.5 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans 1. Outburst

2. Celebrate

3. Entertenment

4. Conscious

Q.6 Select the most appropriate degree of comparison to fill in the blank.

The underground railway network, ‘The Tube’ in London is said to be __________ transport in London.
Ans 1. the expensive

2. expensive

3. more expensive

4. the most expensive

Q.7 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to
substitute it, select 'No substitution required'.

The keys were lies on the table.

Ans 1. lay on the table

2. lie on the table

3. No substitution required

4. lying on the table

Q.8 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined phrase.

Jared deliberately set fire to a property and got arrested by the police.
Ans 1. Dementia

2. Insomnia

3. Dystrophy

4. Arson
Q.9 Select the option with the correct spelling to replace the underlined word in the given sentence.
Self-esteem is an important aspekt of one's self.
Ans 1. aspet

2. aspikt

3. aspect

4. aaspet

Q.10 Select the most appropriate verb form to fill in the blank in the given sentence.

She ________ her keys on the kitchen counter.

Ans 1. lying

2. lain

3. lays

4. laid

Q.11 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The pencil has a tip made of _______.

Ans 1. steal

2. lewd

3. led

4. lead

Q.12 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
The new/ smartphone is/absolutely best than/ the latest model.
Ans 1. smartphone is

2. absolutely best than

3. the latest model

4. The new

Q.13 Based on the situation in the given sentence, select the most appropriate idiom for the underlined segment.
There are several people who find themselves a dominating person in a group
Ans 1. A man of his words

2. A white elephant

3. Cock of the walk

4. A bone of contention

Q.14 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
Manish has being applying / for colleges / ever since he passed / his entrance test in March.
Ans 1. manish has being applying

2. for colleges

3. his entrance test in March

4. ever since he passed

Q.15 Select the option that rectifies the spelling error in the following sentence.

The poet was able to compose the long poem in a tranquill atmosphere.
Ans 1. trancuel

2. tranquil

3. tranquel

4. trankwil
Q.16 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.
The success and achievements of a school mostly _________ on its experience and resourcefulness.
Ans 1. depend

2. begin

3. credit

4. achieve

He will be / waiting for me when / I reaches his home.

Ans 1. waiting for me when

2. I reaches his home.

3. No error

4. He will be

Q.18 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Gracious
Ans 1. Mythical

2. Rude

3. Lonely

4. Keen

Q.19 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

jeopardy
Ans 1. strict

2. mighty

3. safety

4. silence

Q.20 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word in the given sentence.

He is habituated to using words spoken with an unusual amount of venom when it comes to his in-laws.
Ans 1. ambiguousness

2. benevolence

3. irony

4. satire

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

He knew everyone on the island. Whenever his car stopped, half a dozen voices ____ 1 _____ shout out his name. Policemen,
agricultural labourers of low social status and priests waved and smiled ____ 2 ____ he passed; everyone greeted him as a brother.
They respected his honesty, and belligerence, and above all, they adored his typically Greek scorn and fearlessness when dealing
with any _____ 3 ____ of Governmental red tape. On arrival, two of our cases containing linen and other things had been ______ 4
____ by the Customs on the curious ground that they were merchandise. So, when we moved out to the villa and the problem of bed
linen arose, Mother told Spiro ______ 5 _____ our cases in the Customs and asked for his advice.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans 1. should

2. could

3. can

4. would
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans 1. nor

2. so

3. as

4. thus

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans 1. form

2. forum

3. from

4. farm

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans 1. concealed

2. confiscated

3. contributed

4. collected
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans 1. about

2. within

3. behind

4. from
Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 14/10/2024
Exam
9:00 AM - 11:00 AM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 A dishonest dealer professes to sell his goods at cost price but uses a false weight and thus gains 15%. For a kilogram he
uses a weight of ____ grams.
Ans 1. 930.43

2. 830.43

3. 1130.43

4. 869.57

Q.2 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹2500 as a sum borrowed at 6% per year rate of interest for 5 years.
Ans 1. 750

2. 710

3. 790

4. 690

Q.3 The average weight of a family of five members (in kg) whose weights are 40 kg, 49 kg, 56 kg, 67 kg and 37 kg is:
Ans 1. 51.8

2. 50.8

3. 49.8

4. 48.8

Q.4 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹3500 as a sum borrowed at 6% per year rate of interest for 3 years.
Ans 1. 630

2. 670

3. 590

4. 570

Q.5 The data for the production of four products P, Q, R and S by four cities A, B, C and D is given in the table.

Which product has the highest total production by all cities?

Ans 1. P

2. R

3. Q

4. S
Q.6

Ans 1.

Q.7 A mixture contains 8 kg of tea costing ₹295per kilogram and 10 kg of tea costing₹250 per kilogram. The average price per
kilogram (in ₹) of the mixture is:
Ans 1. 270

2. 259.60

3. 250.70

4. 273

Q.8 A solid cuboid with dimensions 2 m × 4 m × 10 m is melted to form small solid cubes of side 8 cm. How many such cubes
can be formed?
Ans 1. 1,56,250

2. 1,60,000

3. 1,62,250

4. 1,58,250

Q.9 If two numbers are 6.25% and 25% more than a third number, respectively, then the first number is how much per cent of the
second number?
Ans 1. 95%

2. 85%

3. 90%

4. 80%
Q.10 A rectangular sheet of paper of length 10π cm and width 5 cm is rolled along its length (width of the sheet becomes the
height of the cylinder) to form a cylinder. What would be the radius of the cylinder?
Ans 1. 10 cm

2. 6 cm

3. 5 cm

4. 2.5 cm

Q.11 Find the value of 5 + 32 ÷ 2 + 6 × 2.5.

Ans 1. 40

2. 36

3. 15

4. 34

Q.12 In a school, the average salary of 12 teachers was ₹71,400. If the average salary of the teachers, principal and vice principal
was ₹89,500, then what was the average salary of the principal and vice principal (in ₹)?
Ans 1. 1,76,800

2. 2,11,000

3. 1,98,100

4. 1,18,900

Q.13 If 2744 identical small spheres are made out of a big sphere of radius 7 cm, then what is the surface area of each small
sphere?
Ans 1. 2π cm2

2. 3π cm2

3. π cm2

4. 4π cm2

Q.14 The ratio of the number of boys and girls in a hostel is 5 : 7. If 40% of boys and 50% of girls are getting scholarships for their
studies, what is the percentage of hostel students who are not getting any scholarships?
Ans
1.

Q.15 Raman paid ₹18,656 for a mobile phone, after a single discount of 12%. If Raman is given successive discounts of 4% and
8%, then how much Raman would pay?
Ans 1. ₹17,238.84

2. ₹13,728.84

3. ₹18,723.84

4. ₹17,283.84

Q.16 Find the average of the prime numbers lying between 68 and 91.
Ans 1. 76

2. 77

3. 78

4. 79
Q.17 The simple interest on a certain sum for 4 years at 23% per annum is ₹11,960 less than the simple interest on the same sum
for 8 years. Find the sum.
Ans 1.

Q.18 Two trains of lengths 125 m and 175 m respectively are running in the same direction at 40 km/h and 22 km/h respectively.
How much time will they take to pass each other completely?
Ans
1.

Q.19 A boat can travel at a speed of 28 km/h in still water. If the speed of the stream is 4 km/h, what is the average speed (in km/h)
of the boat if it travels 192 km downstream, stops there for one hour and then returns to the starting point?
Ans 1. 25.6

2. 24.8

3. 36.5

4. 28.5

Q.20 If the cost price of an article is 75% of its selling price, then the profit percent is:
Ans
1.

Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1 A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order). F is sitting
second to the left of B. F is sitting third to the left of D. B is sitting to the immediate right of E. A is sitting third to the left of
E. A is sitting to the immediate right of G. What is the position of F with respect to E?
Ans 1. Second to the left

2. Immediate left

3. Third to the right

4. Immediate right

Q.2 In a certain code language, ‘ train was late’ is coded as ‘ch px zt’ and ‘journey by train’ is coded as ‘fk zt bu’. How is ‘train’
coded in the given language?
Ans 1. zt

2. ch

3. bu

4. px
Q.3 Select the figure from the options that can replace the question mark (?) and logically complete the series.

Ans

Q.4 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘+’ and ‘×’ are interchanged and ‘−’ and ‘÷’ are
interchanged?

55 × 16 − 4 ÷7 + 3 = ?
Ans 1. 28

2. 12

3. 38

4. 17

Q.5 In a certain code language, ‘solve the puzzle’ is written as ‘sp di cy’ and ‘puzzle is tricky’ is coded as ‘qp vt di’. How is
‘puzzle’ coded in the given language?
Ans 1. di

2. sp

3. cy

4. qp
Q.6

Ans

Q.7 HLQC is related to KOTF in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, WTAN is related to
ZWDQ. To which of the following is FXCM related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. GZFQ

2. HZEO

3. IAFP

4. IAEO

Q.8 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series?

97, 88, 85, 76, 73, ?, 61

Ans 1. 72

2. 64

3. 65

4. 70
Q.9 In a certain code language, ‘GULF’ is coded as ‘7391’ and ‘FANS’ is coded as ‘2438’.What is the code for ‘F’ in the given code
language?
Ans 1. 1

2. 2

3. 3

4. 4

Q.10 EJGL is related to INKP in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, KPMR is related to OTQV.
To which of the following is NSPU related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. RWTY

2. RWYT

3. WRYT

4. WRTY

Q.11 P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are sitting around a circular table, facing towards the centre (but not necessarily in the same order).
P is an immediate neighbour of both T and U.
S is sitting second to the right of P.
Immediate neighbours of R are U and Q.
S is not an immediate neighbour of U.
Who is sitting to the immediate left of Q?
Ans 1. R

2. V

3. U

4. S

Statements: All cocktails are mocktails.

Some cocktails are juices.
Conclusion (I): Some mocktails are juices.
Conclusion (II): Some juices are not cocktails.
Ans 1. Only conclusion II follows

2. Only conclusion I follows

3. Neither conclusion I nor II follow

4. Both conclusions I and II follow

Q.13 Which two numbers should be interchanged to make the following equation correct?

36÷ 2 + 4× 8 −11× 3 + 28 = 49

(Note: Interchange should be done of the entire number and not individual digits of a given number.)
Ans 1. 36 and 28

2. 4 and 3

3. 2 and 4

4. 2 and 3
Q.14 Identify the figure given in the options that when put in place of the question mark (?) will logically complete the series.

Ans

Q.15 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?

RVQ, OSN, LPK ,IMH, ?

Ans 1. FJE

2. EFJ

3. EJF

4. JEF

Q.16 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans
1.

4.
Q.17 3 is related to 24 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 4 is related to 60. To which ofthe following is 6 related,
following the same logic?(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the
numbersinto its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13can be
performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1and 3 is not allowed)
Ans 1. 216

2. 230

3. 210

4. 236

Statements:
All carrots are onions.
No onion is a tomato.

Conclusions:
(I) No carrot is a tomato.
(II) All onions are carrots.
Ans 1. Neither conclusion I nor II follows.

2. Only conclusion II follows.

3. Both conclusions I and II follow.

4. Only conclusion I follows.

Q.19 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.

2. (8, 7, 58)

3. (14, 2, 28)

4. (3, 11, 53)

Q.20

Ans 1.

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 If four resistances of 4 ohm each are connected in parallel, what will be their effective resistance?
Ans 1. 4 ohm

2. 1 ohm

3. 10 ohm

4. 16 ohm

Q.2 Bhavnath Mahadev fair is held every year in which of the following places?
Ans 1. Jabalpur

2. Chennai

3. Agra

4. Junagarh
Q.3 As per the 2001 Census, what is the specific age, for a person to be called literate?
Ans 1. 9 years

2. 6 years

3. 7 years

4. 8 years

Q.4 A section of an active fault that has produced earthquakes in the past but is now quiet and is believed that the fault segment
is capable of producing earthquake on some other basis is known as:
Ans 1. Hypocenter

2. Seismic Gap

3. Epicenter

4. Seismic Wave

Q.5 When was the Wildlife Protection Act passed?

Ans 1. 1972

2. 1955

3. 1980

4. 1951

Q.6 In July 2023, Tribhuvaneshwar Saran Singh Deo was appointed as Deputy Chief Minister of which of the following states?
Ans 1. West Bengal

2. Jharkhand

3. Chhattisgarh

4. Odisha

Q.7 The Mahananda River rising in the ________ is a tributary of Ganga.

Ans 1. Chota Nagpur plateau

2. Darjeeling hills

3. Kaimur hills

4. Nanda Devi peak

Q.8 Which of the following is a traditional game of India?

Ans 1. Volleyball

2. Kabaddi

3. Basketball

4. Football

Q.9 A group of natural substances with variable phenolic structures, which are found in fruits, vegetables, and grains is called:
Ans 1. Hopanoids

2. Pectins

3. Resins

4. Flavonoids

Q.10 The Moplah Uprising, an organised opposition of Muslim cultivators, occurred in which modern state of India?
Ans 1. Punjab

2. Kerala

3. Tamil Nadu

4. Bihar
Q.11 What is the major purpose of the Salal Dam located on Chenab River in Jammu and Kashmir?
Ans 1. Hydroelectricity

2. Drinking

3. Irrigation

4. Navigation

Q.12 Who amongst the following stated the Grameen model of microfinance?
Ans 1. Prof. Abhijit Banerjee

2. Prof. Muhammad Yunus

3. Prof. Amartya Sen

4. Dr. Manmohan Singh

Q.13 In February 2023, there have been protests in Punjab to release a group of Sikh prisoners who have been in jail for more
than 30 years since militancy was wiped out in Punjab in the 1990s. What are these prisoners called?
Ans 1. Bandi Singhs

2. Babbar Bandis

3. Khalsa Tigers

4. Qaidi Sikhs

Q.14 Who is the author of the book called ‘Beneath the Surface: My Story’?
Ans 1. Kobe Bright

2. Michael Phelps

3. Milkha Singh

4. Tiger Woods

Q.15 The state religion of Bangladesh is:

Ans 1. Christianity

2. Hinduism

3. Buddhism

4. Islam

Q.16 Which of the following was authored by Harisenacharya?

Ans 1. Rajatarangini

2. Brihatkatha Kosh

3. Brihat Katha Manjari

4. Lilavati

Q.17 Who among the following was ‘Senani’ in the Rig Vedic period?
Ans 1. A war hero

2. A tax officer

3. A spy

4. A priest

Q.18 Which among the following is considered the first experiment of Satyagraha by Gandhiji in India?
Ans 1. Kheda

2. Champaran

3. Rowlatt Satyagraha

4. Ahmedabad
Q.19 Who became the first folk artist from India to walk the Cannes red carpet in 2022?
Ans 1. Mame Khan

2. Swaroop Khan

3. Sartaj Khan

4. Sarwar Khan

Q.20 Sonal Mansingh is a famous proponent of which of the following dance forms?
Ans 1. Mohiniyattam

2. Manipuri

3. Odissi

4. Kathak

Q.21 The union list from the Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution consists of how many subjects as of May 2024?
Ans 1. Ninety three

2. Ninety five

3. Ninety nine

4. Hundred

Q.22 Anita Sharma, Sangeet Natak Akademi Award winner, is an exponent of ________ dance form.
Ans 1. Odissi

2. Mohiniyattam

3. Sattriya

4. Kathakali

Q.23 In weight lifting, when an athlete misses all three attempts in the snatch or the clean and jerk, failing to post a total, it is
known as _________.
Ans 1. Bombing-out

2. Take-off

3. Delivery

4. Attempt

Q.24 Which of the following statements about Viharas is/are correct?

a)Viharas consist of a verandas, cell and hall around the walls of the hall.
b)Ajanta cave and Nashik cave are important parts of Vihara architecture.
Ans 1. Neither a nor b

2. Both a and b

3. Only b

4. Only a

Q.25 Which of the following phyla contains Leech?

Ans 1. Platyhelminthes

2. Coelenterata

3. Nematoda

4. Annelida

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 Select the most appropriate synonym of the word in bold in the given sentence.
He was so enraged at the article about him that he sued the newspaper.
Ans 1. Generated

2. Determined

3. Angered

4. Enhanced

Q.2 Recognise the sentence with the correct transitive verb form of break.

A. The cyclone broke the window.

B.The window broke.
C. The cyclone caused the breaking of window.
D.The cyclone caused the broken window.
Ans 1. C

2. A

3. B

4. D

Q.3 Identify the INCORRECTLY spelt word in the given sentence.

BBC Media has shown exponenteal growth in their revenue this year.
Ans 1. exponenteal

2. revenue

3. media

4. year

Q.4 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Leisure activities are activities that people ___________ in during their free time while they are not working.
Ans 1. encourage

2. engage

3. evaluate

4. exempt

Q.5 Select the option that has used the correct tense.
Ans 1. By the time we arrive at the party, they had been waiting for over an hour.

2. By the time we arrived at the party, they had been waiting for over an hour.

3. By the time we arrives at the party, they had been waiting for over an hour.

4. By the time we arriving at the party, they had been waiting for over an hour.

Q.6 The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error. Select the part that contains the error
from the given options. If you don’t find any error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer.

It is a common perception / that the rich sometimes / despise poor.

Ans 1. No error

2. that the rich sometimes

3. despise poor.

4. It is a common perception
Q.7 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Searing
Ans 1. Mocking

2. Pressing

3. Freezing

4. Thrilling

Q.8 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Prem is an excellent chess player. He is the _______ student of the class too.
Ans 1. most intelligent

2. intelligently

3. intelligent

4. more intelligent

Q.9 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Boisterous
Ans 1. Noisy

2. Benevolent

3. Buoyant

4. Quiet

Q.10 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the highlighted group of words in the given sentence.

The minister went to visit the monuments set up for people who were buried in other countries.
Ans 1. graves

2. cemetery

3. cenotaphs

4. coffins

Q.11 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

Sushil, who recently joined our school / was awarded the Gold Cup / as he worked hardly / throughout the year.
Ans 1. throughout the year.

2. Sushil, who recently joined our school

3. was awarded the Gold Cup

4. as he worked hardly

Q.12 Select the most appropriate idiom that can substitute the underlined words in the given sentence.

His sudden resignation left the company in a very difficult situation and to have to make a hard decision as they scrambled
to find a replacement.
Ans 1. in the dark

2. with a silver lining

3. between a rock and a hard place

4. on cloud nine

Q.13 Select the correct spelling of the underlined word in the given sentence.

The weather was absolutley perfect for the outdoor event.

Ans 1. absolutely

2. absoultely

3. absoluttley

4. absolutly
Q.14 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

an open book
Ans 1. someone who gives advice based on theory not practice

2. a helpful person

3. a person of whom her mother is extremely proud

4. a person or thing that is easy to learn about and understand

Q.15 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Meticulous
Ans 1. Persevering

2. Exemplary

3. Determined

4. Regardless

Q.16 Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. Select the option that contains an error.
I have never seen so beautiful a landscape than this one.
Ans 1. I have never seen

2. so beautiful

3. a landscape

4. than this one

Q.17 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.
A post without any remuneration
Ans 1. Illegible

2. Bigot

3. Effeminate

4. Honorary

Q.18 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Corroborate
Ans 1. Suggest

2. Support

3. Contend

4. Elaborate

Q.19 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given phrase.
Belonging or pertaining to an individual from birth
Ans 1. Congregational

2. Congenital

3. Congruent

4. Congenial

Q.20 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans 1. Damaged

2. Fantastic

3. Expensive

4. Forgetfull
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

Though people are becoming health-conscious these days, (1)________ simple lifestyle habits they are prone to fatal diseases.
(2)________ a new study published in ‘The Journal of the American College of Cardiology’, (3)________ food more sparingly is linked
to a lower risk of heart disease, heart failure , and ischemic heart disease. A significant risk factor for cardiovascular disease, high
blood pressure, is demonstrated to be correlated (4)________ high sodium intake. As per the research, a person’s individual sodium
intake over time may be predicted by how (5)____ they salt their food. It is found that people who do not put a little additional salt to
their food very often had a much lower risk of heart disease event regardless of lifestyle factors and pre-existing disease.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans 1. for

2. because of

3. because

4. but

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans 1. According with

2. Accordingly

3. In according with

4. According to

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans 1. salt

2. salted

3. salting

4. salt with
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans 1. in

2. of

3. with

4. for

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans 1. soundly

2. hefty

3. burly

4. frequently
Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 14/10/2024
Exam
12:30 PM - 2:30 PM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 By selling an article for ₹19, a dealer makes a profit of 10%. By how much should he increase his selling price (in ₹, rounded
off to two decimal place) so as to make a profit of 50%?
Ans 1. 9.91

2. 8.91

3. 7.91

4. 6.91

Q.2 The cost price of 20 articles is the same as the selling price of 15 articles. The profit percentage in the transaction is:
Ans 1.

Q.3 The average weight of 20 boys in a class is 65 kg and that of remaining 35 boys is 32 kg. What is the average weight of all
the boys in the class?
Ans 1. 56 kg

2. 44 kg

3. 48 kg

4. 46 kg
Q.4

Ans 1. 15%

2. 25%

3. 20%

4. 10%

Q.5 A sum of money invested at simple interest becomes 5 times in 12 years. How many times will it become in 27 years?
Ans 1. 12

2. 9

3. 11

4. 10

Q.6 In what ratio must a shopkeeper mix two types of rice worth ₹60/kg and ₹80/kg, respectively, so that, the average cost of the
mixture is ₹75/kg?
Ans 1. 1 : 3

2. 3 : 4

3. 2 : 3

4. 1 : 2

Q.7

Ans 1. 1980 cm3

2. 27,900 cm3

3. 29,700 cm3

4. 19,800 cm3
Q.8 The length and breadth of a rectangular field are in the ratio 3 : 2. If the area of the field is 3456 m2, then the cost of fencing
the field at ₹3.50 per metre is:
Ans 1. Rs. 420

2. Rs. 240

3. Rs. 840

4. Rs. 480

Q.9 A policeman sees a thief at a distance of 100 m and starts chasing him at a speed of 6 m/s while the thief runs at a speed of
5 m/s. What is the distance (in m) covered by the thief when he is caught?
Ans 1. 300

2. 600

3. 500

4. 400

Q.10 Out of 8 lecturers of a college, one lecturer retires and at his place a new lecturer of age 32 years joins. As a result, the
average age of lecturers is reduced by 4 years. The age of the retired lecturer is:
Ans 1. 65 years

2. 63 years

3. 64 years

4. 62 years

Q.11 The average of five numbers, where the difference between any two consecutive numbers is 5, is 215. Find the least number.
Ans 1. 205

2. 225

3. 220

4. 215

Q.12 If x : 6 :: 6 : y and x : y :: y : 6, then which of the options below gives the correct values of x and y in that order?
Ans 1. 12 and 6

2. 6 and 12

3. 6 and 6

4. 12 and 12

Q.13 The LCM of 140,180 and 240 is:

Ans 1. 1008

2. 5000

3. 1680

4. 5040

Q.14 Two stations A and B are 1800 km apart. A train starts from A towards B at 7 A.M. at a speed of 100 km/h. Another train starts
from B towards A at 8 A.M. on the same day at a speed of 325 km/h. At what time will they cross each other?
Ans 1. 3 P.M.

2. 11 A.M.

3. 12 P.M.

4. 9 A.M.

Q.15 What sum (in ₹) will earn a simple interest of ₹240 in 3 years at 4% per year rate of interest?
Ans 1. 4000

2. 3000

3. 2000

4. 1000
Q.16 Due to a fault in the voting machine, the invalid votes are counted in votes of the candidate B, who gets 5 times the invalid
votes. A gets the votes 8 times the invalid votes and wins the election by 28. What is the total number of votes polled?
Ans 1. 176

2. 196

3. 184

4. 168

Q.17 Study the given bar graph and answer the question that follows.
The bar graph given below shows the percentage of marks obtained by four students A, B, C and D in Maths, Science and
English.

If the full marks in Maths are 150, Science are 100 and English are 140, then find the total marks obtained by Student B in
Maths and Student A in English.
Ans 1. 275

2. 250

3. 247

4. 257

Q.18 What sum (in ₹) will earn a simple interest of ₹240 in 3 years at 8% per year rate of interest?
Ans 1. 500

2. 1000

3. 1500

4. 2000

Q.19
A tradesman marks his goods 30% more than the cost price. If he allows a discount of , then his gain percentage is:

Ans
1.

4.
Q.20

Ans 1. 286

2. 289

3. 283

4. 280

Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1 In a certain code language, ‘INTO’ is coded as ‘2684’ and ‘OPEN’ is coded as ‘3567’.What is the code for ‘O’ in the given code
language?
Ans 1. 4

2. 3

3. 6

4. 5

Q.2 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are
interchanged?
2 ÷ 8 − 25 × 5 + 9 = ?
Ans 1. 30

2. 12

3. 6

4. 27

Q.3 In a certain code language, ‘HEAP’ is coded as ‘7395’ and ‘PEAS’ is coded as ‘9571’.
What is the code for ‘S’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 7

2. 5

3. 9

4. 1

Q.4 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans
1.

4.
Q.5 Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series and complete
the pattern.

Ans

Q.6 Six teachers are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order). C is an immediate
neighbour of both A and F. E is sitting second to the left of F. D is sitting fourth to the left of C. A is sitting second to the right
of F. Which of the following statements is true?
Ans 1. B is immediate left of F.

2. F and D are immediate neighbours.

3. D is to the immediate right of E.

4. B is immediate right of F.

Q.7 WY 13 is related to UW 16 in a certain way. In the same way, SU 19 is related to QS 22. To which of the following is OQ 17
related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. MO 19

2. MN 20

3. NM 19

4. MO 20
Q.8 21 is related to 73 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 28 is related to 94. To which ofthe following is 35
related, following the same logic?(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbersinto its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13can be
performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1and 3 is not allowed)
Ans 1. 101

2. 105

3. 110

4. 115

Q.9 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?

ESG, GTK, IUO, KVS, ?

Ans 1. MWW

2. NWX

3. MWX

4. NWW

Q.10 18 is related to 60 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 42 is related to 140. To which ofthe following is 33
related, following the same logic?
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbersinto its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding / subtracting / multiplying etc., to 13 canbe performed. Breaking down 13
into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3is not allowed.)
Ans 1. 130

2. 110

3. 95

4. 80

Q.11 Read the given statement(s) and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even
if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statement(s).

Statements:
All bars are clubs.
Some bars are gyms.

Conclusions:
(I) Some clubs are gyms.
(II) Some gyms are not bars.
Ans 1. Only conclusion II follows.

2. Neither conclusion I nor II follows.

3. Only conclusion I follows.

4. Both conclusions I and II follow.

Q.12 Seven people A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table, facing the center (but not necessarily in the same
order). C is sitting to the immediate right of B. E is sitting third to the left of B. D is the immediate neighbour of E and F. A is
sitting to the immediate right of C.

What is the position of G with respect to B?

Ans 1. Third to the right

2. To the immediate left

3. Second to the left

4. Second to the right

Q.13 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements:
A. Some guns are swords.
B. All swords are onions.
Conclusions:
I. All guns are onions.
II. Some guns are swords.
Ans 1. None of the conclusions follow.

2. Only conclusion II follows.

3. Only conclusion I follows.

4. Both the conclusions follow.

Q.14 In a certain code language, ‘TIME’ is coded as 61 and ‘POND’ is coded as 59. How will ‘BLUE’ be coded in the same
language?
Ans 1. 72

2. 69

3. 71

4. 68

Q.15 BI 2 is related to EF 5 in a certain way. In the same way, KR 8 is related to NO 11. To which of the following is TI 3 related,
following the same logic?
Ans 1. WF 8

2. WF 6

3. WG 6

4. WG 8

Q.16 Select the figure from the given options that will replace the question mark (?) in the figure given below to complete the
pattern.

Ans

4.
Q.17 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

6, ?, 7, 10, 8, 11
Ans 1. 12

2. 8

3. 5

4. 9

Q.18 What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘−’
are interchanged?
18 ÷ 6 + 2 − 3 × 4 = ?
Ans 1. 38

2. 23

3. 32

4. 26

Q.19 In a certain code language, ‘BALE’ is coded as ‘2496’ and ‘LORD’ is coded as ‘3759’. What is the code for ‘L’ in the given
code language?
Ans 1. 3

2. 9

3. 5

4. 2
Q.20 Identify the figure from the given options that can replace the question mark (?) and logically complete the series.

Ans

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 अंतरराष्ट्रीय मानकों के अनुसार क्रिके ट में विके ट के स्टंप की ऊं चाई कितनी होती है?
Ans 1. 28 इंच

2. 31 इंच

3. 30 इंच

4. 29 इंच

Q.2 'Straight from the Heart' is an autobiography of the famous cricketer ______________.
Ans 1. Kapil Dev

2. Madan Lal

3. Sunil Gavaskar

4. Mohinder Amarnath
Q.3 Identify the primary characteristic of the Cooperative Development Foundation (CDF) model of SHGs regarding its focus on
membership from the following.
Ans 1. It includes both poor and non-poor members.

2. It exclusively targets poor members.

3. It exclusively targets non-poor members.

4. It excludes women from membership.

Q.4 Who among the following dancers won the prestigious Padma Shree award in the year 2021, for her contribution to folk
dance?
Ans 1. Teejan Bai

2. Kumudini Lakhia

3. Amubi Singh

4. Matha B Manjamma Jogathi

Q.5 Which state government of India launched the 'Swanirbhar Nari' aimed at making the weavers of the state self-reliant?
Ans 1. Jharkhand

2. Chhattisgarh

3. Assam

4. Bihar

Q.6 In 1974, MS Subbulakshmi became the first Indian musician to win _____________.
Ans 1. Right Livelihood Award

2. Grammy Award

3. Pulitzer Prize Award

4. Ramon Magsaysay Award

Q.7 Seleucus Nicator was a contemporary of ______________.

Ans 1. Chanakya

2. Ashoka

3. Kalashoka

4. Kanishka

Q.8 The number of organisms in the population divided by a regular unit of area or volume is called _______.
Ans 1. population density

2. death rate

3. birth rate

4. population size

Q.9 As per Census of India 2011, which of the following states has the highest percentage of urban population in India?
Ans 1. Mizoram

2. Tamil Nadu

3. Maharashtra

4. Gujarat

Q.10 Which of the following dance forms is inspired by the sculptures of the ancient temple of Chidambaram?
Ans 1. Sattriya

2. Bharatanatyam

3. Kuchipudi

4. Manipuri
Q.11 With which of the following Amendment Acts of the Indian Constitution was 11th Fundamental Duty added?
Ans 1. 86th

2. 70th

3. 42nd

4. 53rd

Q.12 In November 2023, who was re-appointed as the Chairman of the Armed Forces Tribunal?
Ans 1. Justice NV Ramana

2. Justice RF Nariman

3. Justice Sharad Arvind Bobde

4. Justice Rajendra Menon

Q.13 Which of the following sultans of Delhi set up three different markets for different commodities in Delhi?
Ans 1. Ghiyasuddin Balban

2. Muhammad Bin Tughlaq

3. Alauddin Khalji

4. Sikandar Lodi

Q.14 With which of the following festivals does the five-day long festival of Diwali end?
Ans 1. Bhai Dooj

2. Govardhan Puja

3. Dhanteras

4. Narak Chaturdashi

Q.15 The zone where the earthquake waves are not observed is called:
Ans 1. Hypocentre

2. Shadow Zone

3. Benthic Zone

4. Epicentre

Q.16 In Jain Basti temple of Karnataka, over the garbhagriha is raised a __________ storied nirandhara vimana
with a square griva and sikhara.
Ans 1. three

2. five

3. eleven

4. seven

Q.17 Bhakra Dam is built on which of the following rivers?

Ans 1. Chenab

2. Satluj

3. Ravi

4. Beas

Q.18 The Permanent Settlement introduced by Cornwallis was NOT prevalent in which of the following regions of India?
Ans 1. Odisha

2. Bengal

3. Bihar

4. Punjab
Q.19 Which of the two following countries were formed as a result of the partition of India?
Ans 1. India and Sri Lanka

2. India and Pakistan

3. India and Bangladesh

4. India and Nepal

Q.20 Which Article of the Constitution of India governs the Population Census?
Ans 1. Article 233

2. Article 246

3. Article 179

4. Article 128

Q.21 Select the INCORRECT statement from the following.

Ans 1. Boiling is a bulk phenomenon.

2. Evaporation is a surface phenomenon.

3. Evaporation causes cooling.

4. Both boiling and evaporation are bulk phenomena.

Q.22 According to the advancing of monsoon in India, which of the following cities receives rainfall after 15 June every year?
Ans 1. Imphal

2. Jaipur

3. Bengaluru

4. Hyderabad

Q.23 Neville Steven Joseph D'Souza is associated with which game?

Ans 1. Football

2. Tennis

3. Kabaddi

4. Wrestling

Q.24 The iodine value of oil and fat indicates:

Ans 1. degree of saturation

2. number of iodine atoms present

3. degree of unsaturation

4. number of C atoms present

Q.25 भारतीय संविधान के भाग VI का कौन-सा अध्याय राज्य विधानमंडलों (State Legislatures) से संबंधित है?
Ans 1. अध्याय VII

2. अध्याय V

3. अध्याय II

4. अध्याय III

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in present perfect continuous tense form
Rama is working on this project.
Ans 1. Rama has been working on this project since six months.

2. Rama has been working on this project for six months.

3. Rama has worked on this project for six months

4. Rama is working on this project for six months.

Q.2 Identify the spelling error in the given sentence.

The restaurant offered a diverse menu with a wide renge of culinary options.
Ans 1. diverse

2. renge

3. options

4. restaurant

Q.3 Which of the following sentences contains an error in the use of a phrasal verb?
Ans 1. The old lady broke down when she heard her son lost his job.

2. Clean out the backyard this weekend.

3. Make over the bed daily. It is a good habit.

4. Try your level best before you decide to give up.

Q.4 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word to fill in the blank.
Averted
Rohit ______ looking at Sheena’s face while we were talking about domestic violence.
Ans 1. fostered

2. avoided

3. saw

4. confronted

Q.5 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given word.

Fragile
Ans 1. Strong

2. Brittle

3. Juicy

4. Florid

Q.6 Select the most appropriate idiom that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

Lisa was very excited about her promotion; she was very happy and delighted.
Ans 1. on cloud nine

2. on the ball

3. on the attack

4. under the weather

Q.7 Select the option that rectifies the given sentence.

She runs very quick in marathons.
Ans 1. She run much quickly in marathons.

2. She run very quick in marathons.

3. She runs very quickly in marathons.

4. She runs much quickly in marathons.

Q.8 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

A dime a dozen
Ans 1. Very rare

2. To take revenge

3. Very common

4. To be in a difficult situation
Q.9 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Brought to light
Ans 1. In favour of

2. To seem likely

3. To burn

4. To disclose

Q.10 The following sentence contains an error. Select the option that correctly rectifies the error.

Along with his friend, he walked till the end of the street and came back immediately.
Ans 1. Near with his friend,

2. for came back immediately

3. end by the street

4. he walked to the

Q.11 Select the option that can be used as one-word substitute for the given group of words.

Detailed examination of something complex

Ans 1. Dialysis

2. Analysis

3. Symbiosis

4. Synthesis

Q.12 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Odious
Ans 1. Pleasant

2. Repugnant

3. Beautiful

4. Acceptable

Q.13 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The charismatic leader's speeches were known for their __________ impact on motivating people to take positive actions.
Ans 1. impenitence

2. frugal

3. profound

4. doldrums

Q.14 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

"The architekture of the building is marvellous", said the spectators.

Ans 1. Architekture

2. Marvellous

3. Spectators

4. Building

Q.15 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The Kumbh Mela (the festival of the sacred Pitcher) is the world's biggest peaceful gathering of pilgrims, with participants
bathing or taking the dip in the _____ river.
Ans 1. profane

2. sacred

3. depth

4. shallow
Q.16 Select the correct spelling from the given options to fill in the blank.
They may vary and seem very different, but they are not ________.
Ans 1. irrecincilable

2. irreconcilable

3. ireconcilable

4. irrecosilable

Q.17 Select the most appropriate synonym that can substitute the underlined word in the given sentence.

The author's writing was so captivating that readers were enthralled by every word.
Ans 1. annoyed

2. fascinated

3. bored

4. jaded

Q.18 In the following sentence the underlined part contains an error. Alternatives to the underlined part are given as options.
Select the correct alternative.
The table looks proper in the centre than in the corner.
Ans 1. properly

2. more proper

3. most proper

4. properer

Q.19 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Illicit
Ans 1. Inaugural

2. Integral

3. Inessential

4. Illegal

Q.20 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

He climbed of / the steep mountain trail, / his backpack heavy / with supplies for the journey.
Ans 1. He climbed of

2. his backpack heavy

3. the steep mountain trail,

4. with supplies for the journey.

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

Hyojeng, a twenty-five-year-old South Korean Youtuber (1)_________since the age of 16. She (2)_______around twenty-five
countries so far. (3)________ India was high on her wish list. She is currently soaking in the energy of Mumbai and planning to
(4)________ more of this beautiful city. Unfortunately, her experience of the city turned sour recently. She was filming on the streets of
Mumbai and two men tried to hug and kiss her, which was captured in her video. The video (5)_________ viral and the Mumbai police
swung into action.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans 1. will be travelling

2. has been travelling

3. would have travelled

4. have been travelling

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans 1. had been covered

2. was covered

3. has covered

4. will have covered

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans 1. Visiting

2. Visit

3. Moving

4. Moved

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans 1. explore

2. having explored

3. exploring

4. to be explored
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans 1. went

2. gone

3. going

4. go
Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 14/10/2024
Exam
4:00 PM - 5:30 PM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 एक दुकानदार 25% छू ट देता है और 20% लाभ प्राप्त करता है। अंकित मूल्य, क्रय मूल्य से कितने प्रतिशत अधिक है?
Ans 1. 60%

2. 80%

3. 50%

4. 20%

Q.2 ₹550 पर 8 माह के लिए 3 पैसे प्रति रुपए प्रति माह की दर से साधारण ब्याज ज्ञात कीजिए?
Ans 1. ₹134

2. ₹130

3. ₹131
4. ₹132

Q.3 दिया गया बार ग्राफ चार अलग-अलग वर्षों में एक परिवार की आय और व्यय (हजार ₹ में) को दर्शाता है।

संदर्भ: Income - आय, Expenditure - व्यय, Years - वर्ष

शुरुआती दो वर्षों (2017 और 2018) में परिवार की कु ल बचत की तुलना में अंतिम दो वर्षों (2019 और 2020) में परिवार की कु ल बचत कितने
प्रतिशत, अधिक या कम है?
(बचत = आय - व्यय)
Ans 1. 12.5% अधिक

2. 10.5% अधिक

3. 11.5% कम

4. 13.5% कम
Q.4 तीन उम्मीदवारों ने एक चुनाव लड़ा और उन्‍हें क्रमशः 1136, 7636 और 11628 मत प्राप्त हुए। हारने वाले प्रत्याशी (सबसे आखिर में आने वाला) को
कु ल मतों के कितने प्रतिशत मत मिले? (दो दशमलव स्थान तक गणना करें )।
Ans 1. 5.57%

2. 7.89%

3. 6.34%

4. 3.89%

Q.5 ₹38 प्रति किलोग्राम के गेहूं को ₹26 प्रति किलोग्राम के गेहूं के साथ किस अनुपात में मिलाया जाए ताकि मिश्रण को ₹39 प्रति किलोग्राम पर बेचने पर
30% का लाभ हो?
Ans 1. 1 : 2

2. 2 : 3

3. 1 : 3

4. 3 : 4

Q.6 9 व्यक्तियों का एक समूह 30 दिनों तक ₹8,100 में गुज़ारा कर सकता है। 7 व्यक्तियों का समूह ₹8,400 में कितने समय तक गुज़ारा कर सकता है?
Ans 1. 43 दिन

2. 40 दिन

3. 31 दिन

4. 25 दिन

Q.7 एक दुकानदार सामान को उसी मूल्य दर पर बेचता है जिस मूल्य दर पर उसने इन्हें खरीदा था, लेकिन वह ग्राहक को 20% कम मात्रा देता है। उसका
लाभ प्रतिशत ज्ञात कीजिए।
Ans 1. 15%

2. 20%

3. 30%

4. 25%

Q.8 दो रे लगाड़ियां समान चाल से विपरीत दिशाओं में चल रही हैं। प्रत्येक रे लगाड़ी की लंबाई 180 m है। यदि वे 12 सेकं ड में एक-दू सरे को पार करती हैं,
तो प्रत्येक रे लगाड़ी की चाल (km/h में) क्या है?
Ans 1. 63

2. 36

3. 54

4. 45
Q.9

Ans 1. 332

2. 368

3. 300

4. 259

Q.10 एक आदमी ने 3 बोरी सीमेंट प्रत्येक ₹2,200 की दर से, 4 बोरी सीमेंट प्रत्येक ₹2,550 की दर से और 5 बोरी सीमेंट प्रत्येक ₹3,120 की दर से खरीदा।
एक बोरी सीमेंट की औसत कीमत कितनी है?
Ans 1. ₹2,700

2. ₹2,805

3. ₹2,800

4. ₹2,623

Q.11 यदि किसी गोले के आयतन को उसके पृष्ठीय क्षेत्रफल से विभाजित किया जाता है, तो परिणाम 54 cm होता है। गोले की त्रिज्या कितनी है?
Ans 1. 166 cm

2. 162 cm

3. 111 cm

4. 182 cm
Q.12 65 लड़कों की एक कक्षा की औसत आयु 14 वर्ष है। उनमें से 20 लड़कों की औसत आयु 14 वर्ष है, और अन्य 15 लड़कों की औसत आयु 12 वर्ष है।
शेष लड़कों की औसत आयु (वर्ष में) ज्ञात करें ।
Ans 1. 16

2. 17

3. 15

4. 14

Q.13 3 वर्षों के लिए 6% वार्षिक की ब्याज दर पर उधार ली गई राशि ₹2000 पर साधारण ब्याज (₹ में) ज्ञात कीजिए।
Ans 1. 400

2. 300

3. 320

4. 360

Q.14 3 वर्षों के लिए 7% प्रति वर्ष की ब्याज दर पर उधार ली गई राशि ₹3500 पर साधारण ब्याज (₹ में) ज्ञात कीजिए।
Ans 1. 675

2. 695

3. 775

4. 735

Q.15 512 और 296 का महत्तम समापवर्तक कितना है?

Ans 1. 4

2. 8

3. 37

4. 32

Q.16

Ans 1. 75

2. 156

3. 66

4. 351

Q.17 एक चोर 12.40 p.m. पर एक बाइक चुराता है और इसे 45 km/h की चाल से भगाता है। चोरी के बारे में 1 p.m. पर पता चलता है और मालिक 65
km/h की चाल से कार में उस दिशा में जाता है, जिस दिशा में चोर जा रहा था। मालिक चोर को कितने बजे पकड़ सकता है?
Ans 1. 1:45 p.m.

2. 2:00 p.m.

3. 1:30 p.m.

4. 2:10 p.m.

Q.18 50 छात्रों के एक समूह की औसत लंबाई 175 cm है। यदि 180 cm की औसत लंबाई वाले 40 छात्रों के एक अन्य समूह को इसमें शामिल किया जाता
है, तो दोनों समूह को मिलाकर औसत (cm में, निकटतम cm तक पूर्णांकित) ज्ञात करें ।
Ans 1. 174

2. 176

3. 177

4. 178
Q.19 एक व्यापारी अपना माल 25% लाभ पर बेचता है। यदि वह इसे 10% अधिक पर खरीदता और इसे ₹75 अधिक पर बेचता, तो उसे 25% का लाभ
होता। माल का क्रय मूल्य क्‍या है?
Ans
1.

Q.20 एक बड़े अर्धगोलाकार लोहे के कटोरे के शीर्ष की बाह्य परिधि 565.2 cm है और कटोरा 6 cm मोटा है। इस कटोरे को बनाने के लिए आवश्यक लोहे
का आयतन (cm3 में) ज्ञात करें । (π = 3.14 का उपयोग करें ।)
Ans 1. 2,85,312.96

2. 2,85,212.96

3. 2,85,232.96

4. 2,85,132.96

Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1 अंग्रेजी वर्णानुक्रम के आधार पर EKQW किसी निश्चित प्रकार से JPVA से संबंधित है। ठीक उसी प्रकार, BHNT, GMSX से संबंधित है। उसी तर्क का
अनुसरण करते हुए, PVBH निम्नलिखित में से किससे संबंधित है?
Ans 1. UBGL

2. UAGL

3. UABL

4. UCGL

Q.2 सात मित्र, मोनू, अभय, विक्की, चिट्टी, देवा, हमज़ा और संजय, हमज़ा की जन्मदिन की पार्टी मना रहे हैं और एक वृत्ताकार व्यवस्था में कें द्र की ओर
मुख करके बैठे हैं। (परं तु जरूरी नहीं कि वे इसी क्रम में बैठे हों)।
अभय और देवा का निकटतम पड़ोसी मोनू है।
अभय, हमज़ा के बाएं से दू सरे स्थान पर बैठा है।
संजय, हमज़ा के निकटतम पड़ोसियों में से एक है।
देवा और विक्की दोनों का निकटतम पड़ोसी चिट्टी है।
मोनू के बाएं से तीसरे स्थान पर कौन बैठा है?
Ans 1. संजय

2. हमज़ा

3. विक्की

4. देवा

Q.3 छः खिलाड़ी जडेजा, अश्विन, कार्तिक, मुरली, सरफराज और विराट एक वृत्ताकार मेज के चारों ओर कें द्र की ओर मुख करके बैठे हैं (परं तु जरूरी नहीं
कि वे इसी क्रम में बैठे हों)। विराट, जडेजा के ठीक दाईं ओर बैठा है। विराट और मुरली के बीच में के वल सरफराज बैठा है। जडेजा, अश्विन का
निकटतम पड़ोसी है। सरफराज और कार्तिक दोनों का निकटतम पड़ोसी कौन है?
Ans 1. विराट

2. मुरली

3. अश्विन

4. जडेजा
Q.4 उस विकल्प का चयन कीजिए जिसमें दी गई आकृ ति सन्निहित है (घूर्णन की अनुमति नहीं है)।

Ans

Q.5 एक निश्चित कू ट भाषा में, 'BEAM' को '5791' के रूप में कू टबद्ध किया जाता है और 'MINT' को '2467' के रूप में कू टबद्ध किया जाता है।
दी गई कू ट भाषा में 'M' के लिए कू ट क्या है?
Ans 1. 7

2. 2

3. 1

4. 6

Q.6 एक निश्चित तर्क का अनुसरण करते हुए 181, 417 से संबंधित है। उसी तर्क का अनुसरण करते हुए 149, 385 से संबंधित है। समान तर्क का
अनुसरण करते हुए, 262 निम्नलिखित में से किससे संबंधित है?

2. 437

3. 465

4. 498
Q.7 विकल्पों में से उस आकृ ति का चयन कीजिए जो प्रश्न-चिह्न (?) के स्थान पर आकर श्रृंखला को तार्कि क रूप से पूर्ण कर सकता है।

Ans

Q.8 दी गई श्रृंखला में प्रश्नवाचक चिन्ह (?) के स्थान पर क्या आएगा?

89 92 98 107 119 ?
Ans 1. 114

2. 124

3. 144

4. 134

Q.9 अंग्रेजी वर्णमाला क्रम के आधार पर दी गई शृंखला में प्रश्न-चिह्न (?) के स्‍थान पर क्या आएगा?

SDW, OHS, KLO, GPK, ?

Ans 1. BSG

2. BTG

3. CTG

4. CSG

Q.10 किसी कू ट भाषा में, 'ARVL' को ‘FOAI’ के रूप में कू टबद्ध किया जाता है और 'DOXY' को ‘ILCV’ के रूप में कू टबद्ध किया जाता है। उसी भाषा में
'MPSB' को किस प्रकार कू टबद्ध किया जाएगा?
Ans 1. QMWY

2. RMXY

3. RNXZ

4. QNWZ
Q.11 दिए गए विकल्पों में से उस आकृ ति को चुनिए जो निम्नलिखित श्रृंखला में प्रश्न चिह्न (?) के स्थान पर आ सकती है और पैटर्न को पूरा कर सकती है।

Ans

Q.12 यदि निम्नलिखित समीकरण में '+' और '–' को आपस में बदल दिया जाए तथा '×' और '÷' को आपस में बदल दिया जाए, तो समीकरण में प्रश्न चिह्न '?'
के स्थान पर क्या आएगा?

13 + 4 × 2 ÷ 5 – 2 = ?
Ans 1. 5

2. 2

3. 7

4. 3

Q.13 दिए गए कथनों और निष्कर्षों को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़िए। यह मानते हुए कि कथनों में दी गई जानकारी सत्य है, भले ही यह सामान्यतः ज्ञात तथ्यों से भिन्न
प्रतीत होती हो, तय कीजिए कि दिए गए निष्कर्षों में से कौन-सा/से निष्कर्ष कथनों का तार्कि क रूप से अनुसरण करता/करते है/हैं।
कथन:
कु छ पोसम, बाइसन हैं।
कोई पोसम, भेड़िया नहीं है।
निष्कर्ष:
[1] सभी भेड़िए, बाइसन हो सकते हैं।
[2] सभी बाइसन, भेड़िए हैं।
Ans 1. न तो निष्कर्ष [1] और न ही [2] अनुसरण करता है

2. निष्कर्ष [1] और [2] दोनों अनुसरण करते हैं

3. के वल निष्कर्ष [1] अनुसरण करता है

4. के वल निष्कर्ष [2] अनुसरण करता है

Q.14 एक निश्चित कू ट भाषा में, 'barks a lot' को 'qw er ui' के रूप में लिखा जाता है और 'the dog barks' को 'op ji er' के रूप में लिखा जाता है। उस
भाषा में 'barks' को कै से लिखा जाएगा?
Ans 1. qw

2. er

3. ji

4. ui

Q.15 MAZE, अंग्रेजी वर्णानुक्रम के आधार पर एक निश्चित प्रकार से QEDI से संबंधित है। ठीक उसी प्रकार YMLQ, CQPU से संबंधित है। उसी तर्क का
अनुसरण करते हुए OCBG निम्नलिखित में से किससे संबंधित है?
Ans 1. SFGK

2. SGFK

3. SGKF

4. GKSF

Q.16 दी गई आकृ ति के उस सही दर्पण प्रतिबिंब को चुनिए, जो नीचे दर्शाए गए अनुसार दर्पण को MN पर रखने पर बनेगा।

Ans
1.

Q.17 उस समुच्चय का चयन कीजिए जिसमें संख्याएँ आपस में उसी प्रकार संबंधित हैं जिस प्रकार निम्नलिखित समुच्चयों की संख्याएँ आपस में संबंधित हैं।

(25, 8, 400)
(12, 14, 336)
Ans 1. (16, 21, 672)

2. (19, 8, 152)

3. (22, 9, 198)

4. (17, 11, 189)

Q.18 यदि '+' और '−' को आपस में बदल दिया जाए तथा '×' और '÷' को आपस में बदल दिया जाए, तो निम्नलिखित समीकरण के प्रश्न चिह्न (?) के स्थान पर
क्या आएगा?

22 × 11 + 13 − 12 ÷ 2 = ?
Ans 1. 22

2. 13

3. 35

4. 17
Q.19 दिए गए कथनों और निष्कर्षों को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़िए। यह मानते हुए कि कथनों में दी गई जानकारी सत्य है, चाहे वह सामान्यतः ज्ञात तथ्यों से भिन्न
प्रतीत होती हो और निर्णय लीजिए कि दिए गए निष्कर्षों में से कौन-सा/कौन-से निष्कर्ष कथनों का तार्कि क रूप से अनुसरण करता है/करते हैं।

कथन:
सभी मुर्गियाँ, चूज़े हैं।
सभी चूज़े, अंडे हैं।

निष्कर्ष:
(I) सभी मुर्गियाँ, अंडे हैं।
(II) सभी अंडे, चूज़े हैं।
Ans 1. के वल निष्कर्ष I अनुसरण करता है।

2. न तो निष्कर्ष I और न ही II अनुसरण करता है।

3. के वल निष्कर्ष II अनुसरण करता है।

4. नि
ष्कर्ष I और II दोनों अनुसरण करते हैं।

Q.20 एक कू ट भाषा में, 'RAMESH' को 'UAPEVK' के रूप में लिखा जाता है और 'TOM' को 'WOP' के रूप में लिखा जाता है। उसी भाषा में
'MEGHANA' को किस प्रकार लिखा जाएगा?
Ans 1. QEJKAQA

2. PEJKAQA

3. PDJKAQA

4. QDJKAQA

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा चाँदी का सिक्का सुल्तान शमसुद्दीन इल्तुतमिश (Sultan Shamsuddin Iltutmish) ने चलवाया था?
Ans 1. टका (Tanka)

2. दीनार (Dinar)

3. जीतल (Jittal)

4. अदाली (Adali)

Q.2 भारत और पाकिस्तान के बीच लाहौर घोषणा पत्र (Lahore declaration) पर हस्ताक्षर कब किए गए थे?
Ans 1. फरवरी 1999

2. दिसंबर 1991

3. अगस्त 1998

4. जुलाई 1948

Q.3 किस क्षेत्र में भूजल (groundwater) का सर्वाधिक उपयोग किया जाता है?
Ans 1. औद्योगिक

2. घरे लू

3. कृ षि

4. शिक्षा

Q.4 2024 में किस राज्य को खेल को बढ़ावा देने के लिए स्पोर्टस्टार एसेस सर्वश्रेष्ठ राज्य (Sportstar ACES Best State) का पुरस्कार मिला?
Ans 1. तमिलनाडु

2. ओडिशा

3. हरियाणा

4. पंजाब
Q.5 भारत में विधायी शक्तियों को तीन सूचियों में विभाजित किया गया है, जो संघ सूची, राज्य सूची और _____________ हैं।
Ans 1. क्षेत्रीय सूची

2. विशेष सूची

3. समवर्ती सूची

4. संघीय सूची

Q.6 निम्नलिखित में से किसने कहा था कि सरकारी राजकोषीय नीति का उपयोग उत्पादन और रोजगार के स्तर को स्थिर करने के लिए किया जाना
चाहिए?
Ans 1. जेएम कीन्स (JM Keynes)

2. लियोनेल चार्ल्स रॉबिंस (Lionel Charles Robbins)

3. अल्फ्रे ड मार्शल (Alfred Marshall)

4. एडम स्मिथ (Adam Smith)

Q.7 आवर्त सारणी में, जब आप किसी आवर्त (क्षैतिज पंक्ति) में बाएँ से दाएँ जाते हैं तो परमाणु त्रिज्या क्या प्रवृत्ति दर्शाती है?
Ans 1. परमाणु त्रिज्या घटती है

2. परमाणु त्रिज्या बढ़ती है

3. परमाणु त्रिज्या अनियमित व्यवहार प्रदर्शित करती है

4. परमाणु त्रिज्या स्थिर रहती है

Q.8 वैश्विक बहुआयामी गरीबी सूचकांक 2022 के अनुसार, 2020 में भारत में गरीब व्यक्तियों की जनसंख्या कितनी है?
Ans 1. 128.9 मिलियन

2. 228.9 मिलियन

3. 328.9 मिलियन

4. 428.9 मिलियन

Q.9 राजस्थान की कालबेलिया जनजाति की प्रसिद्ध लोक नृत्‍यांगना गुलाबो सपेरा को वर्ष ________ में पद्म श्री प्राप्त हुआ।
Ans 1. 2016

2. 2023

3. 2017

4. 2021

Q.10 नीति आयोग द्वारा जारी किया गया निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा श्वेत पत्र (white papers) भारत में सार्वजनिक स्वास्थ्य निगरानी (Public Health
Surveillance) से संबंधित है?
Ans 1. आरोग्य मिशन

2. विजन 2035

3. मिशन कर्मयोगी

4. ध्रुव मिशन

Q.11 निम्नलिखित समाज सुधारकों में से किसने ब्रह्म प्रसंविदा (Brahmo Covenant) लिखी, जो ब्रह्म समाज के पंथ का एक वृतांत (statement) था?
Ans 1. के शव चंद्र सेन

2. राजा राम मोहन राय

3. देबेंद्रनाथ टैगोर

4. ईश्वर चंद्र विद्यासागर

Q.12 2023 में एकल पैरा एशियाई खेल स्पर्धा (single Para Asian Games event) में दो स्वर्ण पदक जीतने वाली पहली महिला कौन बनी?
Ans 1. नीमा रानी

2. शीतल देवी

3. सरिता देवी

4. दिशा धयाल
Q.13 निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा विकल्प किसी पारिस्थितिकी तंत्र में विघटक (decomposer) का एक उदाहरण है?
Ans 1. कवक (Fungus)

2. मांसाहारी (Carnivore)

3. शाकाहारी (Herbivore)

4. उत्पादक (Producer)

Q.14 निम्नलिखित में से किस राज्य में प्रसिद्ध अंतर्राष्ट्रीय रे त कला महोत्सव (International Sand Art Festival) आयोजित किया जाता है, जहाँ कलाकार
रे त पर विविध विचारों और उनकी व्याख्या से मंत्रमुग्ध हो जाते हैं?
Ans 1. पश्चिम बंगाल

2. असम

3. ओडिशा

4. बिहार

Q.15 सामा चके वा (Sama Chakeva) एक लोक नृत्य है, जो भाई-बहन सामा और चके वा की पौराणिक कहानी पर आधारित है, जिसमें भाई अपनी बहन
को बचाने के लिए किसी भी हद तक चला जाता है। इस लोक नृत्य का संबंध भारत के निम्नलिखित में से किस राज्य से है?
Ans 1. बिहार

2. असम

3. पंजाब

4. हरियाणा

Q.16 निम्नलिखित में से किस फसल को उगाने में लगभग एक वर्ष का समय लगता है?
Ans 1. गन्ना (Sugarcane)

2. रागी (Ragi)

3. सोयाबीन (Soyabean)

4. मूंगफली (Groundnut)

Q.17 दू धसागर झरना (Dudhsagar waterfall), ________ राज्य का एक प्रमुख पर्यटन स्थल है।
Ans 1. छत्तीसगढ

2. गोवा

3. मेघालय

4. नागालैंड

Q.18 भारत के निम्नलिखित में से किस गवर्नर जनरल ने भारतीय बुनकरों की दुर्दशा के बारे में "कपास बुनकरों की हड्डियाँ भारत के मैदानों में बिखरी पड़ी
हैं (The bones of the cotton weavers are scattered on the plains of India)" लिखा?
Ans 1. लॉर्ड एमहर्स्ट (Lord Amherst)

2. लॉर्ड विलियम बेंटिंक (Lord William Bentinck)

3. सर जॉन शोर (Sir John Shore)

4. लॉर्ड मिंटो (Lord Minto)

Q.19 चाँदी के आभूषणों पर बनने वाली काली परत क्या है?

Ans 1. AgCl

2. AgNO3

3. Ag2CO3

4. Ag2S

Q.20 वासिफु द्दीन डागर (Wasifuddin Dagar) निम्नलिखित में से किस शास्त्रीय संगीत शैली से जुड़े थे?
Ans 1. ध्रुपद

2. तराना

3. ग़ज़ल

4. ख्याल
Q.21 महापाषाण स्थल (Megalithic site) __________ घोड़ नदी, जो भीमा (Bhima) नदी की एक सहायक नदी है, पर स्थित एक स्थल है।
Ans 1. हिरे बेनकाल (Hire benakal)

2. हल्‍लूर (Hallur)

3. पोट्रु (Pottru)

4. इनामगाँव (Inamgaon)

Q.22 'विधि का शासन' भारतीय संविधान की एक प्रमुख विशेषता है, जिस सिद्धांत का श्रेय __________ को दिया जाता है।
Ans 1. एडम स्मिथ (Adam Smith)

2. प्लेटो (Plato)

3. काल मार्क्स (Karl Marx)

4. अल्बर्ट वेन डाइसी (Albert Venn Dicey)

Q.23 निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सी एल.के . आडवाणी की आत्मकथा है?

Ans 1. एग्जाम वारियर्स (Exam Warriors)

2. विंग्स ऑफ फायर (Wings of Fire)

3. माय कं ट्री माय लाइफ (My Country My Life)

4. डेयर टु ड्रीम (Dare to Dream)

Q.24 13 फरवरी 2023 तक की स्थिति के अनुसार, सर्वोच्च न्यायालय में न्यायाधीशों की संख्या बढ़कर कितनी हो गई है?
Ans 1. 28

2. 26

3. 30

4. 34

Q.25 मंदिर का वह भाग जिसमें मंदिर के मुख्य देवी/देवता विराजित होते हैं, उसे _______ कहा जाता है।
Ans 1. मंडप

2. स्तूप

3. शिकारा

4. गर्भ गृह

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans 1. Excess

2. Harass

3. Express

4. Aresst

Q.2 Identify the ANTONYM pair.

Ans 1. Encourage and Support

2. Influence and Motivate

3. Dissuade and Encourage

4. Convince and Persuade

Q.3 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the word given in brackets to fill in the blank.
After the floods, Uttarakhand was in a _______(ravaged) condition.
Ans 1. ratified

2. restored

3. languid

4. influenced
Q.4 Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word.

The team worked together to execute the challenging task.

Ans 1. accomplish

2. announce

3. analyse

4. abandon

Q.5 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.
A person who abstains from any sort of alcoholic drinks
Ans 1. Teetotaller

2. Samaritan

3. Veteran

4. Termagant

Q.6 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined phrase.

I should look into my past and decide what the next course of action should be.
Ans 1. Retrospect

2. Introspect

3. Prospect

4. Disrespect

Q.7 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom.

She finally spilled the beans about the surprise party.
Ans 1. Caused a mess

2. Revealed a secret or disclosed information

3. Dropped a container of beans

4. Prepared a bean dish

Q.8 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to
substitute it, select ‘No substitution’.

Commodity prices are the dearer in the present economic scenario.

Ans 1. quite dear

2. dear

3. dearest

4. No substitution

Q.9 In the following sentence the underlined part contains an error. Alternatives to the underlined part are given as options.
Select the correct alternative.
Which flower do you like best?
Ans 1. better

2. good

3. the best

4. most good

Q.10 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
The artist believes that this new collection of paintings / has being / a masterpiece that / will redefine contemporary art.
Ans 1. a masterpiece that

2. The artist believes that this new collection of paintings

3. will redefine contemporary art

4. has being
Q.11 Select the option with the correct spelling to replace the underlined word in the given sentence.

Polluted air can be dangeros, even if the pollutants are invisible.

Ans 1. dangeres

2. dangerus

3. dangeris

4. dangerous

Q.12 Select the correct spelling of the underlined word in the given sentence.

We do not expet Reema to follow all the rules from the first day of work.
Ans 1. execpt

2. expect

3. expict

4. expact

Q.13 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to
substitute it, select 'No substitution required'.

If she had gone to the party, she could have met Amit.
Ans 1. had go to the party

2. has gone to the party

3. have went to the party

4. No substitution required

Q.14 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Timid
Ans 1. Bold

2. Oppress

3. Modest

4. Humble

Q.15 The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error. Select the part that contains the error
from the given options. If you don’t find any error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer.

The students were diligently / studying for their exams / for weeks before you arrived.
Ans 1. The students were diligently

2. No error

3. studying for their exams

4. for weeks before you arrived

Q.16 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.
Something that is so extraordinary or unbelievable that it's hard to believe it
Ans 1. Ordinary

2. Incredible

3. Exquisite

4. Horrible

Q.17 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom.

Sushant looked blue in the face after the marathon.

Ans 1. good

2. sad

3. exhausted

4. happy
Q.18 The following sentence contains an error. Select the option that correctly rectifies the error.

His aunt who lives at America brought a lot of gifts for him and his sister.
Ans 1. and her sister

2. lot of gifts by him

3. His aunt which lives

4. in America brought a

Q.19 Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word.

The students demonstrated their excitement by volunteering for community service.

Ans 1. freedom

2. ignorance

3. anxiety

4. enthusiasm

Q.20 The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error. Select the part that contains the error
from the given options. If you don’t find any error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer.

Alaska in the USA / is the colder / of all the states.

Ans 1. is the colder

2. of all the states.

3. Alaska in the USA

4. No error

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

A brigantine is a two-masted sailing vessel (1)_____ fore-and-aft rigging on the mainmast and square rigging on the foremast. The
pirates that (2)______ the Mediterranean in the sixteenth century loved it for its speed and ease of handling. The brigantine
(3)_________ into a true sailing vessel in the waters of northern Europe. Although the words began to be used interchangeably, it was
(4)_______ from the fully square-rigged brig by its gaff-rigged mainsail. True brigantines, for (5)_____, were defined as having square
topsails above a gaffed mainsail.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans 1. attending

2. featuring

3. focusing

4. predicting

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans 1. transpired

2. ravaged

3. integrated

4. fixed
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans 1. garnished

2. discharged

3. submitted

4. evolved

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans 1. join

2. split

3. spill

4. mourned

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans 1. mention

2. instance

3. location

4. case
Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 15/10/2024
Exam
9:00 AM - 11:00 AM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 A runner runs 300 metres race in 36 seconds. The runner’s speed in km/h is:
Ans 1. 30

2. 24

3. 36

4. 48

Q.2 The greatest possible length of a scale that can exactly measure a cloth of lengths 250 cm, 420 cm and 710 cm is:
Ans 1. 460 cm

2. 71 cm

3. 10 cm

4. 170 cm

Q.3 The batting average of a cricket player for 40 innings is 60 runs. His highest score in an innings exceeds his lowest score by
110 runs. If these two innings are excluded, the average score of the remaining 38 innings is 58 runs. Find his highest score.
Ans 1. 220

2. 153

3. 290

4. 310

Q.4 The average age of 14 students and their teacher is 18 years. If the teacher's age is excluded, the average reduces by 1 year.
What is the teacher's age?
Ans 1. 32

2. 34

3. 37

4. 35

Q.5 If the diagonal of a rectangle is 16 cm long and its perimeter is 48 cm long, find the area of the rectangle.
Ans 1. 160 cm2

2. 140 cm2

3. 148 cm2

4. 120 cm2
Q.6 A dishonest shopkeeper promises to sell his goods at cost price. However, he uses a weight that actually weighs 19% less
than what is written on it. Find his profit percentage.
Ans
1.

Q.7 In an amusement park, all rides are equally priced, and the entry ticket for the park costs an additional ₹180. Rohan had 15
rides and paid a total of ₹1,380 for his visit to the park. How much (in ₹) in all would Rohan have to pay for his visit to the
amusement park if he had opted for 20 rides?
Ans 1. 1840

2. 1800

3. 1760

4. 1780

Q.8 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹2000 as a sum borrowed at 7% per year rate of interest for 3 years.
Ans 1. 380

2. 360

3. 420

4. 460

Q.9 A person sees another person snatching a chain from a lady, at a distance of 300 metres. He starts running and catches the
thief by running at 10 km/h after running a total distance of 1.5 km. The speed at which the thief was running was:
Ans 1. 9.5 km/h

2. 9 km/h

3. 8.5 km/h

4. 8 km/h

Q.10 Vipul, Ashima, and Priya invested a total of ₹21,000 at 3%, 6%, and 5% per annum, respectively, on simple interest. If at the
end of the year, all three persons received an equal amount of interest, then the amount (in ₹) invested by Ashima is:
Ans 1. 4,000

2. 5,000

3. 2,000

4. 3,000
Q.11

Ans 1. 201 : 194

2. 194 : 201

3. 291 : 101

4. 121 : 291

Q.12 The cost price of 25 balls is the same as the selling price of 20 balls. Find the profit percentage.
Ans 1. 15%

2. 25%

3. 16.66%

4. 18%

Q.13 If the average marks of three batches of 40, 50 and 60 students, respectively, is 50, 60 and 75, then the average marks of all
the students is:
Ans 1. 65.50

2. 70.00

3. 63.33

4. 61.25

Q.14 An investment grows by 15% in the first month, 20% in the second month, and then decreases by 10% in the third month. If
the initial investment was ₹5000, then the final amount (in ₹) is:
Ans 1. 6,210

2. 6,420

3. 6,602

4. 6,340
Q.15 When a class of 40 students took a science test, 25 students had an average score of 80, and the remaining students had an
average score of 90. What was the average score of the whole class?
Ans 1.

Q.16 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹3000 as a sum borrowed at 8% per year rate of interest for 6 years.
Ans 1. 1480

2. 1380

3. 1440

4. 1400

Q.17

Ans 1. 364

2. 462

3. 588

4. 284

Q.18

Ans 1. 862 cm²

2. 826 cm²

3. 704 cm²

4. 628 cm²

Q.19 A wholesale dealer announced during the festival season that they are offering 'buy 4 shirts, get one free', then find the net
discount percentage given by the dealer.
Ans 1. 15%

2. 20%

3. 5%

4. 10%
Q.20

Ans 1. 36.08%

2. 38.06%

3. 30.68%

4. 30.33%

Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1 M, N, O, P, Q, R and S are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order). Q is an
immediate neighbour of both R and P. M sits second to the left of R. O sits second to the left of M. S is not an immediate
neighbour of O. The position of how many persons will remain unchanged if all persons are arranged in alphabetical order
in a clockwise direction starting from ‘M’?
Ans 1. Five

2. Seven

3. Four

4. Six

Q.2 Read the given statement(s) and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even
if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statement(s).

Statements:
Some branches are leaves.
Some leaves are cables.

Conclusions:
(I) Atleast some cables are branches.
(II) Some cables are leaves.
Ans 1. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

2. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

3. Only conclusion (I) follows.

4. Only conclusion (II) follows.

Q.3 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

647 614 581 548 515 ?

Ans 1. 505

2. 402

3. 491

4. 482
Q.4 Identify the figure given in the options which when put in place of (?) will logically complete the series.

Ans

4.
Q.5 Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series and complete
the pattern.

Ans

Q.6 In a certain code language, ‘DONE’ is coded as ‘7139’ and ‘TERM’ is coded as ‘6874’.What is the code for ‘E’ in the given
code language?
Ans 1. 6

2. 7

3. 9

4. 8

Q.7 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.
(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /deleting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed)
(9, 63, 7)
(27, 189, 21)
Ans 1. (45, 315, 35)

2. (45, 315, 33)

3. (40, 315, 35)

4. (45, 310, 35)

Q.8 FD7 is related to KI12 in a certain way. In the same way, PN18 is related to US23. To which of the following is AY21 related
following the same logic?
Ans 1. HF25

2. HF26

3. FD25

4. FD26

Q.9 Which two numbers should be interchanged to make the following equation correct?

(15 ÷ 3)× 11 + 48 −21 × 2 + 8 = 57

(Note: Interchange should be done of the entire number and not individual digits of a given number.)
Ans 1. 21 and 8

2. 11 and 8

3. 15 and 21

4. 15 and 48

Q.10 In a certain code language, ‘MANAGE’ is coded as ‘IKEREQ’ and ‘RACE’ is coded as ‘IGEV’. What is the code for
‘SYMPHONY’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. CRSLTPCW

2. CRSLTRCW

3. CRSLTQCW

4. CRSLSQCW

Statements:
No book is a copy.
All stones are books.

Conclusions:
(I) No copy is a stone.
(II) All books are stones.
Ans 1. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows

2. Only conclusion (I) follows

3. Only conclusion (II) follows

4. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow

Q.12 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans
1.

Q.13 In a certain code language, 'CAREER' is coded as ‘EBTFGS’ and 'CARING' is coded as ‘EBTJPH’. How will 'CENTER' be
coded in the same language?
Ans 1. DFPVFT

2. DGOVFT

3. EFPUGS

4. EFPVGS

Q.14 4 is related to 32 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 11 is related to 88. To which of the following is 6 related,
following the same logic?
(Note: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 - Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into
1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans 1. 48

2. 36

3. 42

4. 56
Q.15 Select the option in which the given figure is embedded (rotation is NOT allowed).

Ans

Q.16 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are
interchanged?
18 ÷ 5 + 8 × 4 − 3 = ?
Ans 1. 91

2. 83

3. 78

4. 85

Q.17 VOJP is related to SLGM in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, XQLR is related to UNIO.
To which of the following is ZSNT related following the same logic?
Ans 1. WPQK

2. PWQK

3. PWKQ

4. WPKQ
Q.18 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the English alphabetical order?
YDY, WGT ,UJO ,SMJ, ?
Ans 1. PPF

2. QPE

3. PPD

4. PPE

Q.19 In a code language, 'HWCY' is coded as ‘KBJH’ and 'REPU' is coded as ‘UJWD’. How will 'AXMQ' be coded in that language?
Ans 1. DCTZ

2. ECUZ

3. DBTY

4. CBSY

Q.20 Seven people A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same
order). Only three people are sitting between C and G when counted from the right of C. E is sitting third to the left of G.
Exactly one person is sitting between E and F when counted from the left of E. D is sitting to the immediate left of B. How
many people are sitting between A and D when counted from the left of A?
Ans 1. 2

2. 1

3. 3

4. 4

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 Who among the following is the dance guru from Odisha credited with having revived the Odissi dance form?
Ans 1. Sujata Mohapatra

2. Kelucharan Mohapatra

3. Birju Maharaj

4. Vyjayanthimala

Q.2 Which of the following river valleys is NOT known for coal deposits in India?
Ans 1. Son

2. Godavari

3. Satluj

4. Mahanadi

Q.3 In 2023, which repository is proposed to be set up in a digital epigraphy museum, with digitisation of one lakh ancient
inscriptions in the first stage?
Ans 1. Bharat Shared Repository of Inscriptions
2. Indian Repository of Classical Coins
3. Progressive Repository of Indigenous Folklore

4. Amrit Repository of Numismatic Collection

Q.4 In 1836, _______ became the Governor General of India.

Ans 1. Earl of Auckland

2. Robert Clive

3. Lord Curzon

4. Lord Hastings
Q.5 Which of the following harvest and cultural festivals is celebrated by the Tamil community every year in January?
Ans 1. Pongal

2. Makaravillakku

3. Vishu

4. Theyyam

Q.6 Who is the author of the novel ‘Life and Death of Sambhaji’ published in the year 2021?
Ans 1. Chitra Banerjee Divakaruni

2. Medha Deshmukh Bhaskaran

3. Amish Tripathi

4. Rita Banerji

Q.7 In February 2023, who was appointed as the new Governor of Himachal Pradesh?
Ans 1. Satyadev Narayan Arya

2. Shiv Pratap Shukla

3. Kalraj Mishra

4. Bandaru Dattatreya

Q.8 The amount of dissolved oxygen in water becomes lowest at what time of the day?
Ans 1. In the dawn

2. In the evening

3. In the afternoon

4. At night time

Q.9 The last Chalukyan King, defeated by the Rashtrakuta King Dantidurga, was ___________________.
Ans 1. Pulakesin II

2. Kirtivarman II

3. Vikramaditya I

4. Vikramaditya II

Q.10 Which of the following microfinance units were established in India at the time of independence?
Ans 1. Rural Cooperatives

2. Grameen Model Banks

3. Self Help Groups

4. Joint Liability Groups

Q.11 As per Article 163 of the Constitution of India, any advice tendered by Ministers to the ________ shall not be inquired into in
any court.
Ans 1. President

2. Chief Minister

3. Governor

4. Chief Justice

Q.12 As per Census 2011, which of the following states has the highest percentage of Buddhist population in India?
Ans 1. Sikkim

2. Karnataka

3. Arunachal Pradesh

4. Himachal Pradesh
Q.13 In which of the following cities was the first successful textile mill established in India in the year 1854?
Ans 1. Bhopal

2. Bombay

3. Calcutta

4. New Delhi

Q.14 The percentage of sunlight energy absorbed by the green plants in a terrestrial ecosystem is about _______.
Ans 1. 1%

2. 0.5%

3. 2%

4. 1.5%

Q.15 Who is properly known as the ‘Grand Old Lady’ of the Independence Movement?
Ans 1. Usha Mehta

2. Aruna Asaf Ali

3. Madam Kama

4. Sarojini Naidu

Q.16 The Early Vedic economy was primarily based on_________ activity.
Ans 1. trading

2. Mining Iron ore

3. agricultural

4. pastoral

Q.17 The temperature of −273.15°C is called _________.

Ans 1. freezing point of water

2. zero-point energy

3. absolute zero temperature

4. standard temperature

Q.18 What does Age Structure represent?

Ans 1. The number of females per 100 males in a given area at a specified time period

2. The proportion of persons in different age groups relative to the total population

3. A measure comparing the portion of a population composed of dependents with the portion that is in the working age group

4. The number of females per 1000 males in a given area at a specified time period

Q.19 The Directive Principles of State Policy are influenced by which of the following?
Ans 1. Gandhian philosophy

2. French declaration of human rights

3. Rule of Law of England

4. American declaration of independence

Q.20 Which of the following awards was conferred upon the Chhau dancer Siba Prasad Das in 2022?
Ans 1. Sangeet Natak Akademi Fellowship

2. Sangeet Natak Akademi Amrit Award

3. Ustad Bismillah Khan Yuva Puraskar

4. Padma Shri
Q.21 A disease like COVID-19 is a kind of:
Ans 1. Foodborne disease

2. Protein Deficiency disease

3. Zoonotic disease

4. Waterborne disease

Q.22 The GV Raja Memorial Trophy, Sir Ashutosh Mukherjee Trophy and Santosh Trophy are related to which of the
following sports in India?
Ans 1. Cricket

2. Football

3. Tennis

4. Hockey

Q.23 Chitti Babu is a famous player of which of the following musical instruments?
Ans 1. Mridangam

2. Nadaswaran

3. Sarangi

4. Veena

Q.24 In which year was the first Senior Women's National Football Championship held in India?
Ans 1. 2000

2. 1950

3. 1992

4. 1995

Q.25 Select the correct combination of famous palaces and their locations in Rajasthan.
Ans 1. Taj Lake Palace – Jaipur

2. Umaid Bhawan Palace – Udaipur

3. Rambagh Palace – Jodhpur

4. Lalgarh Palace - Bikaner

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word in the given sentence.

Although our new boss knew he was wrong, he was too obstinate to accept that.
Ans 1. Competent

2. Fearless

3. Adamant

4. Flexible

Q.2 In the following sentence the underlined part contains as error. Alternatives to the underlined part are given as options.
Select the correct alternative.
He was studying in the dimmer light.
Ans 1. dim

2. most dim

3. more dim

4. dimmest
Q.3 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.
Please _____ with me for a while
Ans 1. bar

2. bare

3. bear

4. bairn

Q.4 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

at top of your lungs

Ans 1. extremely loudly

2. extremely silly

3. exhausted

4. pretend superiority

Q.5 In the following sentence the underlined part contains as error. Alternatives to the underlined part are given as options.
Select the correct alternative.
He is truest to his words.
Ans 1. truer

2. true

3. truly

4. most truly

Q.6 Select the option that will improve the underlined part of the given sentence.

Seizing the opportunity, Akhil decided to take the bull with the horns.

Ans 1. take the bull in the horns

2. take the bull by the horns

3. take the bull at the horns

4. take the bull on the horns

Q.7 The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error. Select the part that contains the error
from the given options. If you don’t find any error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer.
This is the best novel / I have read, / in a very long time.
Ans 1. No error

2. in a very long time

3. This is the best novel

4. I have read

Q.8 The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error. Select the part that contains the error
from the given options. If you don’t find any error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer.
Sam and Teena / had wondering / what to do this weekend.
Ans 1. what to do this weekend

2. had wondering

3. No error

4. Sam and Teena

Q.9 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

_________ we gave them was some homemade ice cream.
Ans 1. What

2. When

3. Which

4. While
Q.10 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word.
You seem to be mean to your seniors.
Ans 1. apathetic

2. modest

3. sympathetic

4. rude

Q.11 Select the option that correctly rectifies the underlined spelling error in the given sentence.
Women and children were often employed in the textile industry during the first centuary of industrialisation.
Ans 1. centurie

2. centuari

3. century

4. centuarie

Q.12 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Like a bat out of hell
Ans 1. Defeated

2. In a bad situation

3. Very fast and wildly

4. Impossible

Q.13 Select the option that rectifies the spelling error in the following sentence.

In his persuit of excellence, he forgot to take care of his health.

Ans 1. persoot

2. pursuite

3. pursuit

4. persuite

Q.14 Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word.

Her austere lifestyle reflected her minimalist approach to living.
Ans 1. Sombre

2. Luxurious

3. Giddy

4. Happy

Q.15 The given sentence is divided into three segments. Select the option that has the segment with a grammatical error. If there
is no error, select ‘No error’.
The committee has careful / considered the report which you sent us / and has decided to take action.
Ans 1. No error

2. and has decided to take action.

3. The committee has careful

4. considered the report which you sent us

Q.16 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

The sky is covering / with dark clouds and / I hope soon it / will begin to rain.
Ans 1. with dark clouds and

2. The sky is covering

3. will begin to rain

4. I hope soon it
Q.17 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

Heba dropped of the club unexpectedly to say hello and catch up.

Ans 1. dropped by the club unexpectedly

2. dropped besides the club unexpectedly

3. dropped between the club unexpectedly

4. dropped for the club unexpectedly

Q.18 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Procrastination
Ans 1. Hesitance

2. Hawing

3. Eagerness

4. Timidness

Q.19 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The rising interest in and concern about animal welfare resulted in legislative laws and the formation of The Animal
____________ Committee in many nations.
Ans 1. Customs

2. Considers

3. Resistant

4. Ethics

Q.20 Identify the word that can replace the INCORRECTLY spelt word in the given sentence.

The explorer discovered a hiddden cave deep in the heart of the jungle.
1. hiddeen
Ans

2. hiddenn

3. hiden

4. hidden

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

Language is a powerful device that (1)____________ communication and interaction between individuals. It serves as a crucial tool
for expressing thoughts, emotions, and ideas. (2)____________ richness of language can be observed in various forms, including
spoken and written interaction. People employ language to convey their intentions, share knowledge, and build relationships. It is a
fundamental aspect of human interaction and plays a vital role in shaping societies and cultures. Without language, cooperation would
be (3)___________, as it serves as the foundation for collaboration and understanding among diverse communities. Furthermore,
language is dynamic and stationary, evolving over time to adapt to changing environments. New words are (4)____________ into the
vocabulary, reflecting advancements in technology, science and culture. The ability to modify and adapt language is a key aspect of
linguistic competence. (5)____________, the importance of language cannot be underestimated. It is a fundamental tool for human
expression and interaction, facilitating the exchange of ideas and the formation of connections among people.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans 1. facilitates

2. qualifies

3. delays

4. experiences
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans 1. An

2. A

3. No article

4. The

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans 1. challenges

2. challenging

3. challenger

4. challenge

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans 1. integral

2. integrated

3. integration

4. integrity
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans 1. In spite of

2. In order to

3. In conclusive

4. In any case
Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 15/10/2024
Exam
12:30 PM - 2:30 PM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 The average weight of a certain number of apples in a basket was 0.5 kg. If 10
apples with an average weight of 0.7 kg are removed from the basket and 5 apples
with an average weight of 0.6 kg are added to the basket, then the average weight
of the apples in the basket decreases by 0.1 kg. What was the initial number of
apples in the basket?
Ans 1. 21

2. 18

3. 20

4. 19

Q.2 Three students of class VII participated in a race during a school sports day. In a 1 km race, A wins the race with B by 100 m,
and in a 300 m race, B beats C by 50 m. Then in the race of 1 km, with what margin will A beat C?
Ans 1. 150 m

2. 700 m

3. 750 m

4. 250 m

Q.3

Ans 1. 7128

2. 7156

3. 7166

4. 7186

Q.4

Ans 1. 0 to 1

2. 5 to 6

3. 1 to 3

4. 2 to 4

Q.5 A man sold an article for ₹237, there by gaining 18.5%. The cost of the article (in ₹) was:
Ans 1. 193

2. 291

3. 200

4. 281

Q.6 What is the ratio between the area of a square having side of 6 cm and that of the rhombus having diagonals of 8 cm and 6
cm?
Ans 1. 4 : 5

2. 3 : 4

3. 2 : 5

4. 3 : 2
Q.7 The following bar graph shows the number of scooters manufactured by 4 different companies, P, Q, R and S, during the
years 2015 - 2017. The x - axis indicates the number of scooters manufactured and the y - axis indicates the companies.
Study the bar graph carefully and answer the question that follows.
Manufacture of scooters by 4 companies

In which year(s) was the percentage increase in the manufacturing of scooters as compared to the previous years the
maximum for the company R?
Ans 1. 2016 and 2017

2. 2015 and 2017

3. Only 2017

4. Only 2016

Q.8 Find the HCF of 90, 230 and 325.

Ans 1. 3

2. 1

3. 5

4. 2

Q.9 The average weight of 30 male workers in a company is 62.5 kg and that of the remaining 20 female workers is 54.5 kg. The
average weight of the total workers in the company is:
Ans 1. 59.3 kg

2. 59.5 kg

3. 58.3 kg

4. 58.5 kg

Q.10 The average weight of a family of five members (in kg) whose weights are 40 kg, 49 kg, 56 kg, 72 kg and 39 kg is:
Ans 1. 52.2

2. 53.2

3. 51.2

4. 50.2

Q
.
1
1
A 1. 48 : 31
n
s
2. 31 : 48

3. 33 : 91

4. 91 : 33

Q.12 The average mark in an exam was 60. Due to some assessment errors, the marks of 115 students had to be changed from 85
to 50 each, and the new average is 55. The total number of students who appeared in the examination was:
Ans 1. 1000

2. 763

3. 902

4. 805

Q.13 The original breadth of a rectangular box is 25 cm. The box was then remade in such a way that its length was increased by
30% but the breadth decreased by 20% and the area increased by 100 cm2. What is the length (in cm) of the new box?
Ans 1. 100

2. 91

3. 130

4. 109

Q.14 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹2500 as a sum borrowed at 8% per year rate of interest for 6 years.
Ans 1. 1240

2. 1140

3. 1160

4. 1200
Q.15 The mean proportional between the numbers p and q is 8. Which of the following pairs of numbers can be the values of p
and q?
Ans 1. 16 and 4

2. 12 and 16

3. 10 and 6

4. 12 and 3

Q.16 The salary of an employee is reduced by 80% and then the reduced salary is increased by 80%. The percentage loss in the
salary of the employee is:
Ans 1.

Q.17 A product having an MRP of ₹29,800 is on sale for ₹28,608 in-store. How much of a discount is being offered on the
product?
Ans 1. 2%

2. 1%

3. 3%

4. 4%

Q.18 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹2000 as a sum borrowed at 9% per year rate of interest for 5 years.
Ans 1. 840

2. 940

3. 900

4. 860

Q.19 By selling an article for ₹20, a dealer makes a profit of 10%. By how much should he increase his selling price (in ₹, rounded
off to two decimal place) so as to make a profit of 35%?
Ans 1. 4.55

2. 5.55

3. 6.55

4. 7.55

Q.20

Ans 1. 22 min 30 sec

2. 18 min

3. 27 min

4. 4 min 30 sec

Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans
1.

Q.2 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘−‘ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are
interchanged?
304 ÷ 3 + 55 × 5 − 2 = ?
Ans 1. 904

2. 903

3. 902

4. 901
Q.3 Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series and complete
the pattern.

Ans

Q.4 ead the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
R
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
All actors are singers.
All singers are dancers.

Conclusions:
(I) At least some singers are actors.
(II) Some dancers may not be singers.
Ans 1. Only II follows

2. Only I follows

3. Neither I nor II follows

4. Both I and II follow

Q.5 In a certain code language, ‘played the piano’ is written as ‘lo le li’ and ‘sparkles a piano’ is coded as ‘lu li la’. How is ‘piano’
coded in that language?
Ans 1. li

2. le

3. lu

4. la

Q.6 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

348 350 354 360 368 ?

Ans 1. 372

2. 374

3. 376

4. 378

Q.7 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?

SRQ ,ONM, KJI, GFE, ?

Ans 1. ABC

2. CBA

3. BAZ

4. DCB

Q.8 A, B, C, D, E and F are six friends sitting around a circular dinner table, facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same
order). E is an immediate neighbour of F. B is sitting second to the left of A. D is sitting to the immediate right of F. Who is
sitting third to the left of A?
Ans 1. D

2. B

3. F

4. C
Q.9 Select the option figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the figure given below to complete the pattern.

Ans

Q.10 Seven people P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same
order). S is sitting to the immediate left of Q. V is sitting third to the left of S. R is sitting third to the right of T. U is sitting
second to the left of R. How many people are sitting between S and R when counted from the right of R?
Ans 1. 4

2. 2

3. 1

4. 0

Q.11 In a certain code language, ‘PURE’ is coded as ‘3792’ and ‘BURP’ is coded as ‘9537’. What is the code for ‘B’ in the given
code language?
Ans 1. 5

2. 7

3. 9

4. 3

Q.12 DJFL is related to HNJP in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, GMIO is related to KQMS.
To which of the following is IOKQ related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. SMUO

2. MSOU

3. MSUO

4. SMOU

Q.13 312 is related to 104 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 363 is related to 121. To which of the following is
375 related, following the same logic?

(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding / subtracting / multiplying, etc., to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13
into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans 1. 125

2. 115

3. 145

4. 135

Q.14 What will come in the place of ‘?’ in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘×‘ are interchanged and ‘−’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?
18 ÷ 6 + 5 × 14 − 7 = ?
Ans 1. −10

2. 0

3. −5

4. 10
Q.15 22 is related to 132 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 35 is related to 210. To which of the following is 18
related following the same logic?(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the
numbersinto its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13can be
performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1and 3 is not allowed)
Ans 1. 108

2. 113

3. 110

4. 101

Q.16 In a certain code language, ‘write this sentence’ is coded as ‘aw pm nl’ and ‘this is mine’ is coded as ‘nl wb cd’. How is ‘this’
coded in that code language?
Ans 1. cd

2. aw

3. wb

4. nl

Q.17 Select the figure that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

Ans

Q.18 In a certain code language, ‘COKE’ is coded as ‘1357’ and ‘JOKE’ is coded as ‘5673’. What is the code for ‘J’ in the given
code language?
Ans 1. 6

2. 3

3. 5

4. 7

Q.19 PWSO is related to RYUQ in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, MTPL is related to
OVRN. To which of the following is JQMI related following the same logic?
Ans 1. SLKO

2. LSOK

3. SLOK

4. LSKO

Q.20 This question has two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to
be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions
logically follow(s) from the given statements.
Statements:
Some stones are hurting.
Some stones are beautiful.
Conclusions:
(I) Some beautiful stones are hurting.
(II) Some hurting stones are beautiful.
Ans 1. Only conclusion (II) follows

2. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows

3. Only conclusion (I) follows

4. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 Suspended solids in water can increase the haziness of the water. Which of the following represents the measurement of
haziness of water?
Ans 1. Viscosity

2. Solubility

3. Salinity

4. Turbidity

Q.2 In January 2024, Prime Minister Narendra Modi paid tributes to Savitribai Phule on her birth anniversary. In which field did
Savitribai Phule make significant contributions, as highlighted by Prime Minister Modi?
Ans 1. Education and social reform

2. Military strategy and warfare

3. Politics and government leadership

4. Literature and poetry

Q.3 Which of the following communicable diseases is caused by bacteria?
Ans 1. Influenza

2. Dengue

3. Malaria

4. Cholera

Q.4 At which sports event in India is the Raja Bhalindra Singh Trophy awarded?
Ans 1. Khelo India Youth Games

2. Senior National Kabaddi Championship

3. National Games of India

4. SGFI Games

Q.5 What is Gross Domestic Product (GDP) in the context of National Income Accounting?
Ans 1. The total exports of a country

2. The total savings of a nation

3. The total value of all goods and services produced within a country's borders in a specific period

4. The total income of a country's government

Q.6 The Sarda River rises in the ________ glacier in the Nepal Himalayas.
Ans 1. Siachen

2. Bokhar Chu

3. Machoi

4. Milam

Q.7 Which of the following iron and steel plants is located in Odisha?
Ans 1. Bokaro

2. Vishakhapatnam

3. Rourkela

4. Vijay Nagar

Q.8 International Day of Non-violence is observed on ___________.

Ans 1. 15 August

2. 26 November

3. 26 January

4. 2 October

Q.9 In which year was the first-ever motion to remove a Supreme Court Justice signed by the members of Parliament?
Ans 1. 1991

2. 1995

3. 1993

4. 1988

Q.10 After the ________ of Hakim Mirza, Kabul was annexed by Akbar and given to Raja Man Singh as ‘jagir’.
Ans 1. marriage

2. victory

3. death

4. capture

Q.11 In which region of Bangladesh do the Chakma people predominantly live, among the country's various indigenous ethnic
groups?
Ans 1. Rajshahi Division

2. Chittagong Hill Tracts

3. Sundarbans Mangrove Forest

4. Sylhet Division

Q.12 What is the product of the following chemical reaction?

NaCl + H2O + CO2 + NH3

Ans 1. Washing soda

2. Gypsum

3. Baking soda

4. Bleaching powder

Q.13 For which English novel was Ruskin Bond honoured with the Sahitya Akademi Award in 1992?
Ans 1. Our Trees Still Grow in Dehra

2. The Room on the Roof

3. A Little Book of Happiness

4. The Blue Umbrella

Q.14 Which of the following wars took place in the year 1761?
Ans 1. Wandiwash

2. Buxar

3. Panipat III

4. Panipat II
Q.15 Which Ministry of India launched the Pradhan Mantri Rojgar Protsahan Yojana (PMRPY)?
Ans 1. Ministry of Rural Development

2. Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment

3. Ministry of Labour & Employment

4. Ministry of Finance

Q.16 Minor points called 'Yuko' are part of which of the following sports?
Ans 1. Judo

2. Boxing

3. Lawn bowls

4. Skating

Q.17 Who was the successor of Vima Kadphises in Kushana dynasty?

Ans 1. Kanishka

2. Menander

3. Kharavela

4. Kujula Kadphises

Q.18 What is the frequency (f) of a wave with a period of 0.04 seconds?
Ans 1. 50 Hz

2. 40 Hz

3. 25 Hz

4. 100 Hz

Q.19 Which great Indian classical dancer choreographed the songs for Madhuri Dixit in 'Devdas' and 'Dil To Pagal Hai' movies?
Ans 1. Ganesh Hegde

2. Birju Maharaj

3. Prabhu Deva

4. Farah Khan

Q.20 Who received the National Nritya Shiromani award 2019 for promoting Kathak dance form across the world?
Ans 1. Aparna Satheesan

2. Jatin Goswami

3. Anita Sharma

4. Anindita Neogy Anaam

Q.21 Which Indian dynasty is associated with the creation of highly skillful bronze sculptures?
Ans 1. Chola

2. Pallava

3. Mughal

4. Mauryan

Q.22 Which famous medieval singer was born in Gwalior, Madhya Pradesh in the year 1506?
Ans 1. Chaitanya Deva

2. Gopal Nayek

3. Swami Haridas

4. Tansen

Q.23 In 1917, Mahatma Gandhi started his first satyagraha in India against the forced cultivation of indigo by Europeans in which
of the following districts of British India?
Ans 1. Champaran

2. Kheda

3. Buxar

4. Ahmedabad

Q.24 If a citizen is helping the government in protecting the monuments in his/her area, which of the following fundamental duties
is he/she performing?
Ans 1. Cherishing and following noble ideas

2. Providing opportunities to obtain education

3. Valuing and preserving the rich heritage and culture

4. Promoting scientific temper

Q.25 In June 2023, who was appointed as the new Research and Analysis Wing (RAW) chief?
Ans 1. Rajiv Kumar

2. Samant Goel

3. Arun Kant

4. Ravi Sinha

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word.

Samira is a lady who needs extrinsic motivation and will not work on her own.
Ans 1. Outward

2. Intriguing

3. Amicable

4. Adventurous

Q.2 Select the most appropriate option with the correct usage of the preposition to substitute the underlined segment in the
given sentence.

World Press Freedom Day will be dedicated to the importance of journalism and freedom in expression in the context of the
current global environmental crisis.
Ans 1. freedom at expression

2. freedom of expression

3. freedom on expression

4. freedom from expression

Q.3 Change the following sentence into positive degree.

Mercury is the smallest planet in the solar system.

Ans 1. Mercury is smaller than any other planet in the solar system.

2. The most smallest planet in the solar system is mercury.

3. Mercury is the smallest planet than any other one.

4. No other planet is as small as Mercury in the Solar System.

Q.4 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.
The allowance that is given by a husband to his wife on separation
Ans 1. Matrimonial

2. Dowry

3. Affianced

4. Alimony

Q.5 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined words in the given sentence.

Thousands of people were killed by the train accident that took place last Wednesday.
Ans 1. killed to

2. killed from

3. killed of

4. killed in

Q.6 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Caught in a time warp
Ans 1. To remain unchanged from a time in the past

2. To be extremely happy

3. To make extra effort

4. To avoid talking about what’s important

Q.7 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined words in the given sentence.

In the beauty contest, Parul won the award for being the beautiful one.
Ans 1. least beautiful

2. more beautiful

3. less beautiful

4. most beautiful

Q.8 Select the most appropriate synonym of the word given in brackets to fill in the blank.

My teacher's _______ (stern) warning made all the students quiet and calm.
Ans 1. watchful

2. biased

3. pliant

4. strict

Q.9 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The library books were long __________________, their pages bearing the weight of the passage of time.
Ans 1. overdrew

2. overdo

3. overdue

4. overdate

Q.10 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word in the given sentence.
He was not able to answer as the question was ambiguous.
Ans 1. Superficial

2. Deep

3. Clear

4. Unsuitable
Q.11 Select the most appropriate present tense form of the verb to fill in the blank.

They __________ football every day.

Ans 1. will play

2. play

3. had been playing

4. plays

Q.12 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

I remember________ when she used to wash dishes in a restaurant.
Ans 1. the time

2. the area

3. the profile

4. the business

Q.13 Select the sentence that has a grammatical error.

Ans 1. After a tiring day, I had a cup of coffee with Sudhir.

2. There is a man sitting beside cat.

3. She saw an excellent episode of the series.

4. She asked an easy question, and I took an hour to crack it.

Q.14 Identify the word with a spelling error in the following sentence. Select the option that correctly rectifies the error.
She had swam the English Channel twice.
Ans 1. swim

2. swimmed

3. swimming

4. swum

Q.15 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

She recieved a beautiful surprise from her partner.

Ans 1. Surprise

2. Beautiful

3. Received

4. Partner

Q.16 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a spelling error.

This item is in the public domain / and can be used, / copied and modefied / without any restrictions.
Ans 1. without any restrictions

2. copied and modefied

3. This item is in the public domain

4. and can be used,

Q.17 The bat flew silently through the night, searching for insects to eat. The bat in this context refers to _______.
Ans 1. a measurement unit in digital information systems

2. the act of delivering a forceful strike or hit

3. a wooden tool utilised in sports like baseball or cricket

4. a mammal known for nocturnal flight and insect consumption

Q.18 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

I will try to _______ because he is a good friend of mine.
Ans 1. get him off the hook

2. avoid him like the plague

3. stop him in his tracks

4. show him the door

Q.19 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

Dolphins are named among the intelligent animals on earth.

Ans 1. more intelligent

2. intelligentest

3. most intelligent

4. intelligenter

Q.20 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The teacher asked us to _________ our homework by tomorrow.

Ans 1. completing

2. completes

3. completed

4. complete
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
Forests provide essential ecosystem services (1)__________ benefit both the environment and human society. One crucial service is
carbon sequestration, as forests absorb and store large amounts of carbon dioxide, helping mitigate climate change. Additionally,
forests regulate water cycles (2)__________ influencing precipitation patterns and maintaining water quality. (3)__________, forests
offer recreational opportunities, cultural significance, and economic benefits through timber production and (4)__________. Thus,
preserving and sustainably managing forests is imperative for maintaining these (5)__________ ecosystem services.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans 1. than

2. this

3. then

4. that

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
Forests provide essential ecosystem services (1)__________ benefit both the environment and human society. One crucial service is
carbon sequestration, as forests absorb and store large amounts of carbon dioxide, helping mitigate climate change. Additionally,
forests regulate water cycles (2)__________ influencing precipitation patterns and maintaining water quality. (3)__________, forests
offer recreational opportunities, cultural significance, and economic benefits through timber production and (4)__________. Thus,
preserving and sustainably managing forests is imperative for maintaining these (5)__________ ecosystem services.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans 1. between

2. by

3. off

4. about

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans 1. Though

2. Moreover

3. As long as

4. Whatever

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans 1. degradation

2. industrialisation

3. deforestation

4. ecotourism

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans 1. vitally

2. vital

3. vitality

4. vitalise
Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 15/10/2024
Exam
4:00 PM - 5:30 PM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹2000 as a sum borrowed at 7% per year rate of interest for 2 years.
Ans 1. 280

2. 320

3. 220

4. 240

Q.2 Two trains 280 metres and 260 metres long, respectively, are running towards each other on parallel lines, one at the
speed of 58 km/hr and another at the speed of 50 km/hr. How much time (in seconds) will they take to cross each other?
Ans 1. 15

2. 18

3. 17

4. 12

Q.3 A sum of ₹312 was divided among 100 boys and girls in such a way that each boy gets ₹3.60 and each girl ₹2.40. The
number of girls is:
Ans 1. 65

2. 60

3. 40

4. 35

Q.4 Find the area of an equilateral triangle whose side is 14 cm.

Ans 1.

Q.5 A trader sells 25 kg of rice at ₹1,400. A customer asks for 15% discount. The shopkeeper agrees to it but instead of 1 kg he
gives 10% less rice. What is the effective discount that the customer gets (correct to one decimal place)?
Ans 1. 5.8%

2. 5.7%

3. 5.6%

4. 5.1%
Q.6 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹4000 as a sum borrowed at 4% per year rate of interest for 5 years.
Ans 1. 840

2. 740

3. 800

4. 760

Q.7 Raman purchased an iron at a cost of ₹2,400 and sold it to Rohan at a loss of 8%. Rohan sold
it to Soham at a gain of 12.5%. At what price should Soham sell the iron to gain 15%?
Ans 1. ₹2,568.60

2. ₹2,658.60

3. ₹2,856.60

4. ₹2,860.56

Q.8 A student's final grade is determined by their final examination scores (weighted at 60%) and a final project score (weighted
at 40%). If the student scores 75 in the final examination and 90 in the project, then the final grade of the student is:
Ans 1. 81.5

2. 82.5

3. 82

4. 81

Q.9 The ratio of the base radii of two cylinders is 5 : 6 and the ratio of their corresponding heights is 49 : 36. Find the ratio of
their volumes.
Ans
1.

Q.10
Find the simple interest on ₹3,500 at 15% per annum for 5 years.
Ans 1.

Q.11 As part of the partial work from home process, Amita went to office every 2nd day, Amrita went to office every 3rd day, and
Tosita went to office every 6th day, respectively. All three went to office on 31 October 2021. On how many days did all three
attend office on the same date during the remaining two months of the year?
Ans 1. 9

2. 10

3. 11

4. 12
Q.12

Ans 1. More, 21%

2. Less, 24%

3. Less, 21%

4. More, 24%

Q.13 The ratio of the incomes of Rama and Ganga is 4 : 3 and the ratio of their expenditures is 3 : 2. If each person saves₹2,700,
then find their expenditures, respectively.
Ans 1. ₹8,100 and ₹5,000

2. ₹8,000 and ₹5,000

3. ₹8,100 and ₹5,400

4. ₹8,000 and ₹5,400

Q.14 In an election between A and B, A gets double the votes of B and wins with a margin of 150 votes. 10% of votes were invalid.
What is the total number of votes polled in the election?
Ans 1. 550

2. 600

3. 450

4. 500

Q.15 The average weight of a family of five members (in kg) whose weights are 40 kg, 49 kg, 56 kg, 67 kg and 38 kg is:
Ans 1. 51

2. 52

3. 50

4. 49
Q.16

Ans 1. 90%

2. 89%

3. 93%

4. 87%

Q.17 The marked price of an article is ₹1,500 and it is sold at a discount of 19%. If there is a gain of 8%, then by what per cent
above the cost price was the article marked?
Ans
1.

Q.18 A solid metallic sphere of radius 15 cm is melted and recast into solid spherical balls of radius 3 cm each. What is the ratio
of the surface area of the original sphere to the sum of the surface areas of all the balls?
Ans 1. 2 : 7

2. 3 : 8

3. 1 : 5

4. 1 : 3

Q.19 The average of nine consecutive integers is 54. The second largest of these numbers is:
Ans 1. 57

2. 50

3. 58

4. 59
Q.20 A thief is spotted by a policeman at a distance of 300 m. the policeman chases the thief at speed of 10 km/h and the thief is
running at a speed of 11 km/h, then the distance between them after 12 minutes is:
Ans 1. 100 m

2. 200 m

3. 500 m

4. 250 m

Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1 Select the option figure in which the given figure (X) is embedded as its part (rotation is NOT allowed).

Ans

Q.2 In a code language, 'FORK' is coded as ‘GLWD’ and 'CAVF' is coded as ‘DXAY’. How will 'TRHA' be coded in that language?
Ans 1. UOPR

2. UONQ

3. UNMS

4. UOMT
Q.3

Ans 1.

Q.4

Ans

4.
Q.5 Select the figure that will come next in the following figure series.

Ans

Q.6 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans
1.

4.
Q.7 In the following number-pairs, the second number is obtained by applying certain mathematical operations to the first
number. Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/ subtracting /multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
22, 31
26, 35
Ans 1. 38, 47

2. 44, 59

3. 48, 52

4. 32, 49

Q.8 In a certain code language, ‘CORNER’ is written as ‘REORNC’ and ‘BUDGET’ is written as ‘TEUDGB’. How will ‘DEVICE’ be
written in that language?
Ans 1. ECIVED

2. EVECID

3. EDEVIC

4. ECEVID

Q.9 What will come in the place of ‘?’ in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘–‘ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?
35 × 7 ÷ 6 + 3 − 14 = ?
Ans 1. 41

2. 42

3. 35

4. 39

Statements:
All pens are markers.
Some erasers are pens.

Conclusions:
(I) Some markers are erasers.
(II) All markers are pens.
Ans 1. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows

2. Only conclusion (I) follows

3. Only conclusion (II) follows

4. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow

Q.11 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?

BDG, EGJ , HJM, KMP, ?

Ans 1. PSN

2. PNS

3. NSP

4. NPS

Q.12 JMGI is related to QTNP in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, GJDF is related to NQKM.
To which of the following is DGAC related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. NKJH

2. NKHJ

3. KNHJ

4. KNJH
Q.13 What will come in the place of ‘?’ in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘–‘ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?

16 ÷ 8 + 13 + 36 × 18 − 3 = ?
Ans 1. 100

2. 98

3. 116

4. 96

Q.14 A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order).D sits third
to the left of E. G sits second to the left of B. Only E sits between F and G. A is not an immediate neighbour of D.Who sits
fourth to the right of C?

Ans 1. A

2. D

3. E

4. B

Q.15 Seven friends, A, B, C, D, E, F and G, are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same
order) . D is an immediate neighbour of both A and F. B is sitting to the immediate right of F. C is sitting second to the left of
A. G and E both are C’s immediate neighbours and G is not an immediate neighbour of A.
Who is the immediate neighbour of both B and D?
Ans 1. F

2. G

3. A

4. C

Q.16 3 is related to 8 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 24 is related to 35. To which of the following is 99 related,
following the same logic?
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13
– Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing
mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans 1. 80

2. 143

3. 110

4. 120

Q.17 CJ16 is related to EL26 in a certain way. In the same way, MT42 is related to OV52. To which of the following is HO11 related
following the same logic?
Ans 1. JQ21

2. JK21

3. KS31

4. JQ31

Q.18 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

2, 3, 6, 12, 10, 21, 14, ?

Ans 1. 25

2. 27

3. 29

4. 30
Q.19 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements:
Some flutes are violins.
Some violins are tablas.
All tablas are sitars.
Conclusions:
(I): Some violins are sitars.
(II): Some flutes are tablas.
Ans 1. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows

2. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow

3. Only conclusion (II) follows

4. Only conclusion (I) follows

Q.20 In a certain code language, ‘car drive steady’ is coded as ‘mi ku pa’ and ‘steady is safe’ is coded as ‘tu an mi’. How is
‘steady’ coded in the given language?
Ans 1. an

2. tu

3. ku

4. mi

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 Harshvardhan's ambitions of extending his power to Deccan and South India were stopped by:
Ans 1. Vikramaditya

2. Pulakesin II

3. Rajaraja I

4. Ashoka

Q.2 When was India’s first ever budget presented?

Ans 1. 1935

2. 1857

3. 1948

4. 1860

Q.3 The cytoplasmic zone surrounding the Golgi complex possesses no cell organelles. This zone of clear cytoplasm is called:
Ans 1. cytosine

2. cytochrome

3. zone of exclusion

4. cytosol

Q.4 Which of the following statements is/are correct in context of Buddhist architecture?
i. Uddeshika stupa was created as a memorial.
ii. Paribhogika stupa contained the buried bodily remains of Buddh
iii. Bharhut stupa is situated in Uttar Pradesh.
Ans 1. Only i and ii

2. i, ii and iii

3. Only i and iii

4. Only i
Q.5 If an Indian citizen is denied entry to a public place because of his caste, which of the following Fundamental Rights is
denied to him?
Ans 1. Right to constitutional remedies

2. Right against exploitation

3. Right to equality

4. Cultural and educational right

Q.6 ‘Ram Navami’ is celebrated in India to commemorate the:

Ans 1. death of Ravana.

2. coronation ceremony of Lord Rama as a king.

3. return of Lord Rama from forest.

4. birth of Lord Rama.

Q.7 In February 2024, who took an oath as the 12th Chief Minister of Jharkhand?
Ans 1. Babulal Marandi

2. Arjun Munda

3. Champai Soren

4. Saryu Rai

Q.8 Udit Narayan was conferred the Padma Bhushan in 2016 for which of the following fields?
Ans 1. Art - Classical Dance

2. Art - Theatre

3. Public Affairs

4. Art - Playback Singing

Q.9 Which river is known as ‘Langchen Khambab’ in Tibet?

Ans 1. Tista

2. Indus

3. Sutlej

4. Kosi

Q.10 Bal Gangadhar described ______ as a diamond of India.

Ans 1. Baba Saheb Ambedkar

2. Mahatma Gandhi

3. Gopal Krishna Gokhale

4. Motilal Nehru

Q.11 ‘The Blue Umbrella’, ‘The Cherry Tree’, ‘The Hidden Pool’ are novels written by who among the following authors?
Ans 1. Ruskin Bond

2. Anant Pai

3. Sudha Murthy

4. Twinkle Khanna

Q.12 What is the overarching programme introduced in the Union Budget, 2018-19 by Government of India, for the school
education sector?
Ans 1. Right to Education

2. Rashtriya Unnat Shiksha Abhiyan

3. Sarva Vidya Abhiyan

4. Samagra Shiksha
Q.13 Who was the highest run scorer in Men’s World Cup cricket - 2019?
Ans 1. Rohit Sharma

2. Virat Kohli

3. DA Warner

4. Shikhar Dhawan

Q.14 The approximate number of water molecules present in 9 gm of water is _____.

Ans 1. 9.023 × 1023

2. 6.022 × 1023

3. 3.011 × 1023

4. 6.022 × 1022

Q.15 Who among the following was one of the founders of the Indian National Congress in 1885?
Ans 1. Annie Besant

2. Mahatma Gandhi

3. Charles Freer Andrews

4. Allan Octavian Hume

Q.16 Who among the following was defeated by Babur in the Battle of Khanwa in 1527 CE?
Ans 1. Rana Sanga

2. Hasan Khan

3. Ibrahim Lodi

4. Medini Rai

Q.17 Where was the inaugural match of the first edition of the Women's Premier League (WPL) organised in the year 2023?
Ans 1. Mumbai

2. Bengaluru

3. Dharamshala

4. Gujarat

Q.18 ‘Chakyar Koothu’, the folk dance form in which the entire story is presented by a single performer, primarily belongs to
which of the following states?
Ans 1. Tripura

2. Kerala

3. Sikkim

4. Tamil Nadu

Q.19 Which of the following sectors had the largest percentage of workforce in urban India in the year 2019-2020?
Ans 1. Agriculture

2. Industry

3. Service

4. Mining

Q.20 National Prophylaxis Program, which was launched in 1970 as an immediate remedial measure to address which of the
following medical conditions /diseases caused by nutritional deficiencies?
Ans 1. Blindness

2. Hypercalcemia

3. Goitre

4. Beriberi
Q.21 Which Article of the Constitution directs the Council of Ministers to aid and advise the Governor?
Ans 1. Article 167

2. Article 153

3. Article 163

4. Article 157

Q.22 As per the reforms of the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Amendment Bill, 2023, how many minerals have
been removed from the list of atomic minerals?
Ans 1. 8

2. 3

3. 11

4. 6

Q.23 K Kalyanasundaram Pillai was honoured with the Sangeet Natak Akademi Award, 1999, for his contribution to which of the
following dance forms?
Ans 1. Kuchipudi

2. Manipuri

3. Bharatnatyam

4. Mohiniyattam

Q.24 A portion of landmass from the shore line up to the shelf break that is submerged under shallow water is known as:
Ans 1. Trenches

2. Continental Drift

3. Oceanic Basin

4. C
ontinental Shelf

Q.25 Which of the following is NOT included in the three main dimensions of the New Industrial Policy, 1991, announced by the
Government of India?
Ans 1. Liberalisation

2. Privatisation

3. Globalisation

4. Urbanisation

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 What is the correct substitution for the word ‘screw’ in the idiom ‘Hit the screw on the head’?
Ans 1. Bolt

2. Crew

3. Nail

4. Tack

Q.2 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to
substitute it, select ‘No substitution required’.

She prepares an unique dish in the cooking competition and won it.
Ans 1. prepares a unique

2. prepared an unique

3. No substitution required

4. prepared a unique
Q.3 In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option
to fill in the blanks.
Mosquito means small fly. It has a transmitter segmented body and a _________________ of wings. Male mosquitoes mainly
feed on plant ________________.
Ans 1. kind; drink

2. set; beverage

3. pair; nectar

4. couple; liquor

Q.4 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

He had always wanted to work for himself; so, last year he _________ his job at the bank and is now running a tool
business.
Ans 1. left

2. bereft

3. halted

4. cleft

Q.5 Select the most appropriate degree of comparison to fill in the blank.

Work in this office is done in the _________ way.

Ans 1. little efficient

2. lesser efficient way

3. less efficient

4. least efficient

Q.6 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word from the given sentence.

The chef's delicious recipies are a favourite among the restaurant's patrons.
Ans 1. Delicious

2. Recipies

3. Chef's

4. Restaurant's

Q.7 Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word in the following sentence.

I graciously welcomed my boss at my birthday party.

Ans 1. Bravely

2. Cleverly

3. Courageously

4. Nicely

Q.8 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Futile
Ans 1. Vicious

2. Adequate

3. Useless

4. Thoughtful

Q.9 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
I have lived with my parents / in Mumbai / in a residential flat / yet two years.
Ans 1. yet two years

2. in Mumbai

3. I have lived with my parents

4. in a residential flat
Q.10 Select the most appropriate synonym of the word given in brackets to fill in the blank.

Many fraud companies _____ (deceive) innocent customers and earn millions of dollars.
Ans 1. hamper

2. facilitate

3. mislead

4. resolve

Q.11 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

We have perhaps never seen an ablest series of advocates than these ten standing in a row.
Ans 1. more able

2. abler

3. the ablest

4. most ablest

Q.12 Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word in the given sentence.
To his surprise, it swung back at his touch.
Ans 1. Anger

2. Regret

3. Shock

4. Boredom

Q.13 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Ephemeral
Ans 1. Ugly

2. Permanent

3. Pleasing

4. Transient

Q.14 Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. Select the option that contains an error.
A fox and an hyena were spotted in the animal reserve.
Ans 1. A fox

2. were spotted in

3. and an hyena

4. the animal reserve

Q.15 Select the sentence that has a grammatical error.

Ans 1. She always cuts out unhealthy snacks.

2. The manager cuts the discussion to address an urgent matter.

3. Can you cut through the traffic to get here on time?

4. They need to cut down the old tree in the garden.

Q.16 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

The questions in part B looks difficult than the questions in part A.

Ans 1. difficultier

2. difficultly

3. more difficult

4. most difficult
Q.17 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given proverb.

Bite the bullet

Ans 1. To be the first to attack someone

2. To take the blame for something one didn't do

3. To buy something with no prior inspection

4. To face up to trouble with fortitude

Q.18 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The student received an __________ for his outstanding performance.

Ans 1. accolad

2. acolade

3. accolade

4. acolayd

Q.19 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to
substitute it, select ‘No substitution required’.

The soldiers are all on their toes and anxiously waiting for the orders to start marching towards the enemy.
Ans 1. No substitution required

2. all on their toes and anxiously dancing

3. all on their fingers and anxiously waiting

4. paying through the nose

Q.20 Select the option that rectifies the spelling of the underlined word in the given sentence.

We have pledged our allegance to the nation.

Ans 1. allegaince

2. allegiance

3. alegiance

4. ellegance

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
Are you familiar with the movie ‘Jurassic Park’? Do you recall the enormous dinosaurs? Do you know that there is still a mammal that
is as big and amazing as them? Blue whales are the world’s largest living things and (1)________ vast oceanic expanses. The adult is
more than 100 feet long and (2)_____ more than 190 metric tons. According to scientists, a blue whale’s heart weighs as much as a
car while its tongue weighs as much as an elephant! They eat meat, but they don’t have teeth. They gulp and swallow huge quantities
of krill and shrimp for their diet. Their mouths have bristles that look like combs and remove water while keeping their food
(3)_______.
Whales are social animals that live in ‘pods’, which are made up of more females than males. They take care of their children. Another
female takes over and cares for the calf if one mother is unable to provide it with milk. Their bond is very strong, and they cry when
another whale dies. The male makes sure that everyone in the pod gets their fair share of food.
Whistles, clock-like sounds, and songs—frequent, high-pitched sounds—are the means by which the whales (4)_________ with one
another. It assists them in locating one another, locating the position of the pod, searching for prey, and attracting mates. Every pod
has a distinctive song that sets it apart from the others. These songs can be heard for not only hours, but also days (5)_______ miles
of ocean.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 1.
Ans 1. employ

2. depart

3. inhabit

4. engage
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
Are you familiar with the movie ‘Jurassic Park’? Do you recall the enormous dinosaurs? Do you know that there is still a mammal that
is as big and amazing as them? Blue whales are the world’s largest living things and (1)________ vast oceanic expanses. The adult is
more than 100 feet long and (2)_____ more than 190 metric tons. According to scientists, a blue whale’s heart weighs as much as a
car while its tongue weighs as much as an elephant! They eat meat, but they don’t have teeth. They gulp and swallow huge quantities
of krill and shrimp for their diet. Their mouths have bristles that look like combs and remove water while keeping their food
(3)_______.
Whales are social animals that live in ‘pods’, which are made up of more females than males. They take care of their children. Another
female takes over and cares for the calf if one mother is unable to provide it with milk. Their bond is very strong, and they cry when
another whale dies. The male makes sure that everyone in the pod gets their fair share of food.
Whistles, clock-like sounds, and songs—frequent, high-pitched sounds—are the means by which the whales (4)_________ with one
another. It assists them in locating one another, locating the position of the pod, searching for prey, and attracting mates. Every pod
has a distinctive song that sets it apart from the others. These songs can be heard for not only hours, but also days (5)_______ miles
of ocean.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 2.
Ans 1. lifts

2. weighs

3. counts

4. loads

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 3.
Ans 1. beckon

2. brokerage

3. fair

4. intact
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
Are you familiar with the movie ‘Jurassic Park’? Do you recall the enormous dinosaurs? Do you know that there is still a mammal that
is as big and amazing as them? Blue whales are the world’s largest living things and (1)________ vast oceanic expanses. The adult is
more than 100 feet long and (2)_____ more than 190 metric tons. According to scientists, a blue whale’s heart weighs as much as a
car while its tongue weighs as much as an elephant! They eat meat, but they don’t have teeth. They gulp and swallow huge quantities
of krill and shrimp for their diet. Their mouths have bristles that look like combs and remove water while keeping their food
(3)_______.
Whales are social animals that live in ‘pods’, which are made up of more females than males. They take care of their children. Another
female takes over and cares for the calf if one mother is unable to provide it with milk. Their bond is very strong, and they cry when
another whale dies. The male makes sure that everyone in the pod gets their fair share of food.
Whistles, clock-like sounds, and songs—frequent, high-pitched sounds—are the means by which the whales (4)_________ with one
another. It assists them in locating one another, locating the position of the pod, searching for prey, and attracting mates. Every pod
has a distinctive song that sets it apart from the others. These songs can be heard for not only hours, but also days (5)_______ miles
of ocean.

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 4.
Ans 1. meet

2. horrid

3. catch

4. communicate

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 5.
Ans 1. across

2. beside

3. although

4. off
Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 16/10/2024
Exam
9:00 AM - 11:00 AM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 ছয়টি ছেলের ওজন (kg তে) হল 55, 56, 57, 60, 59 এবং 55 । একটি নতু ন ছেলে দলে যোগ দেয় এবং দলের গড় ওজন 62 kg হয়।
নতু ন ছেলের ওজন (kg তে) নির্ণয় করুন।
Ans 1. 90

2. 92

3. 82

4. 94

Q.2 একজন বিক্রেতা একটি পণ্য ₹19-এ বিক্রয় করে 25% লাভ করেন। 50% লাভ করার জন্য তার বিক্রয় মূল্য (₹তে) কত বৃদ্ধি করা
উচিত?
Ans 1. 5.8

2. 3.8

3. 6.8

4. 4.8

Q.3 শিখর, মুকেশ, অনিল এবং অনীশ চারটি ছেলের গড় বয়স 25 বছর। যদি শিখর, মুকেশ এবং অনিলের বয়স যথাক্রমে 15, 25, এবং
29 বছর হয়, তাহলে অনীশের বয়স (বছরে) কত?
Ans 1. 30

2. 32

3. 31

4. 29

Q.4 6 বছরের জন্য ধার নেওয়া ₹3500-এর বার্ষিক 4% সুদের হারে সরল সুদ (₹ তে) কত হবে?
Ans 1. 800

2. 880

3. 780

4. 840

Q.5
20 cm ভূ মির ব্যাস এবং 20 cm উচ্চতা বিশিষ্ট একটি নিরেট শঙ্কু কে গলিয়ে R cm ব্যাসার্ধবিশিষ্ট

একটি নিরেট ধাতব অর্ধ-গোলক গঠন করা হয়। অর্ধ-গোলকের সমগ্রতলের ক্ষেত্রফল (cm2 এ, 2
দশমিক স্থানে আসন্নমান) কত হবে?

( ব্যবহার করুন।)
Ans 1. 942.86

2. 1036.72

3. 892.55

4. 924.86
Q.6 একটি দলে 98 জন মহিলা রয়েছেন এবং তাদের গড় ওজন 52kg। যদি 60 kg গড় ওজন বিশিষ্ট 7 জন মহিলা দল ছেড়ে চলে যান এবং
80 kg গড় ওজন বিশিষ্ট দু'জন নতু ন মহিলা দলে যোগ দেন, তাহলে মহিলাদের ওই দলটির গড় ওজন কত হবে?
Ans 1. 56 kg

2. 50 kg

3. 54 kg

4. 52 kg

Q.7 13 ∶ 15 অনুপাতটিকে শতাংশে প্রকাশ করুন। (দুই দশমিক স্থান পর্যন্ত আসন্নমান)
Ans 1.

Q.8

Ans 1. 2012

2. 2014

3. 2015

4. 2013

Q.9 একটি শহরে স্কু লের সংখ্যা শহরের জনসংখ্যার সাথে সমানুপাতিক। 2020 সালে, শহরে 125 টি স্কু ল ছিল এবং শহরের জনসংখ্যা ছিল
1,80,000 জন। 2023 সালে, শহরে স্কু লের সংখ্যা 180 ছিল। 2020 থেকে 2023 সাল পর্যন্ত শহরের জনসংখ্যা কত শতাংশ বৃদ্ধি
পেয়েছে?
Ans 1. 45%

2. 46%

3. 42%

4. 44%

Q.10 বার্ষিক 17% সুদের হারে 3 বছরের জন্য একটি অর্থরাশি থেকে প্রাপ্ত সরল সুদ, 5 বছরের জন্য একই অর্থরাশি থেকে প্রাপ্ত সরল
সুদের চেয়ে ₹7,140 কম। অর্থরাশির পরিমাণ নির্ণয় করুন।
Ans 1. ₹21,000

2. ₹23,000

3. ₹22,000

4. ₹20,000
Q.11 6.3 cm ব্যাসার্ধবিশিষ্ট অর্ধ-গোলকের সমগ্রতলের ক্ষেত্রফল নির্ণয় করুন।
Ans 1. 3,742 cm2

2. 374.2 cm2

3. 3,524 cm2

4. 3,777 cm2

Q.12 একটি বৃত্তাকার মাঠের চারপাশে অজিত প্রতি ঘণ্টায় দুই রাউন্ড গতিতে দৌড়ান আর মোহিত প্রতি ঘণ্টায় 10 রাউন্ড গতিতে দৌড়ান।
তারা 6.30 a.m. এ একই বিন্দু থেকে একই দিকে দৌড় শুরু করলে কোন সময় একে অপরকে অতিক্রম করবেন?
Ans 1. 06 : 37 : 20

2. 06 : 37 : 50

3. 06 : 37 : 30

4. 06 : 40 : 00

Q.13 বার্ষিক 7% সুদের হারে 6 বছরে ₹3000-এর সরল সুদ কত (₹তে) হবে?
Ans 1. 1200

2. 1300

3. 1220

4. 1260

Q.14
1.4 m দৈর্ঘ্য বিশিষ্ট উভয় দিকে উন্মুক্ত একটি পুরু চোঙাকৃ তি নলের অভ্যন্তরীণ এবং বাহ্যিক ব্যাস

যথাক্রমে 60 cm এবং 80 cm। এটিকে সব দিকে রং করা হয়। যদি রং করার দর ₹110/m2 হয়, তাহলে

রং করতে কত ব্যয় (₹ এ) হবে? ( ধরুন)

Ans 1. 734

2. 712

3. 726

4. 748

Q.15 গড় সম্পর্কে নিচের কোনটি সঠিক?

Ans 1. ছয়টি ক্রমিক বিজোড় পূর্ণসংখ্যার গড় হবে একটি বিজোড় পূর্ণসংখ্যা।

2. ছয়টি ক্রমিক বিজোড় পূর্ণসংখ্যার গড় হবে একটি জোড় পূর্ণসংখ্যা।

3. ছয়টি ক্রমিক বিজোড় পূর্ণসংখ্যার গড় হবে একটি বিজোড় স্বাভাবিক সংখ্যা।

4. ছয়টি ক্রমিক জোড় পূর্ণসংখ্যার গড় হবে একটি জোড় স্বাভাবিক সংখ্যা।

Q.16 একটি টেবিলের মুদ্রিত মূল্য ₹10,500 এবং এটি ₹9,450-তে বিক্রি হয়েছে। এই লেনদেনে কত শতাংশ ছাড় দেওয়া হয়েছে?
Ans 1. 10%

2. 10.5%

3. 9%

4. 9.5%

Q.17 একজন শিক্ষক ঠিক 10 বা 12 বা 15 জন সদস্য সহ ছাত্রদের দল তৈরি করতে চান। প্রয়োজনীয় দলগুলি তৈরি করতে ক্লাসে ন্যূনতম
কত সংখ্যক ছাত্র থাকতে হবে?
Ans 1. 37

2. 120

3. 60

4. 150
Q.18
ষোল বছর বয়সী 85 জন ছেলের একটি নমুনায় দৈনিক ফল ব্যবহারের বন্টন নীচের গ্রাফে দেওয়া
হয়েছে।

গ্রাফটি দেখুন এবং নিম্নলিখিত প্রশ্নের উত্তর দিন।

এই ছেলেদের কত শতাংশ দৈনিক পাঁচটি বা তার বেশি ফল ব্যবহার করে? (2 দশমিক স্থান পর্যন্ত

আসন্নমান)
Ans 1. 21.18%

2. 14.32%

3. 17.13%

4. 20.04%

Q.19
যদি এক ডজন আমের ক্রয়মূল্য, নয়টি আমের বিক্রয়মূল্যের সমান হয়, তাহলে ক্ষতি বা লাভের
শতাংশ কত?
Ans
1. লাভ

2. ক্ষতি

3. লাভ

4. ক্ষতি

Q.20
একজন ব্যক্তি 400 km এর একটি যাত্রার প্রথম 120 km পথ 80 km/h বেগে এবং পরবর্তী 150 km পথ
75 km/h বেগে অতিক্রম করেন। যদি তাকে 5 ঘন্টার কম সময়ে পুরো যাত্রাটি শেষ করতে হয় তবে
তাকে বাকি দূরত্ব ন্যূনতম কত গতিতে অতিক্রম করতে হবে?
Ans 1. 84.72 km/h

2. 86.66 km/h

3. 88.56 km/h

4. 90.21 km/h

Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1 ইংরেজি বর্ণানুক্রমের উপর ভিত্তি করে ADKR একটি নির্দিষ্ট উপায়ে CBMP এর সাথে সম্পর্কিত। একইভাবে, GXQL এর সাথে IVSJ
সম্পর্কিত। একই যুক্তি অনুসরণ করে, নিচের কোনটির সাথে OPYD সম্পর্কিত ?
Ans 1. BANQ

2. QANB

3. QNAB

4. QBAN

Q.2 একটি নির্দিষ্ট সাংকেতিক ভাষায়, ‘TASK’ কে ‘3762’ এবং ‘CAST’ কে ‘2436’ হিসাবে লেখা হয়। সেই ভাষায় ‘K’ এর সংকেত কী হবে?
Ans 1. 6

2. 2

3. 4

4. 7

Q.3 একটি নির্দিষ্ট কোড ভাষায়, 'HARD' কে '1596' হিসাবে কোড করা হয় এবং 'CARD' কে '5689' হিসাবে কোড করা হয়। প্রদত্ত কোড
ভাষায় 'C'-এর কোড কী?
Ans 1. 6

2. 9

3. 8

4. 5

Q.4 নিম্নলিখিত সেটের সংখ্যাগুলির ন্যায় যে সেটটিতে সংখ্যাগুলি সম্পর্কিত সেটি নির্বাচন করুন।

(দ্রষ্টব্যঃ সংখ্যাগুলিকে এদের উপাদান অঙ্কে বিভাজিত না করে, সমগ্র কার্যক্রমটি অখণ্ড সংখ্যার উপরেই সম্পাদন করতে হবে।
যেমন,13 এর ক্ষেত্রে, 13 এর উপরেই যাবতীয় কার্যক্রম সম্পাদন করতে হবে। অর্থাৎ,13 এর সঙ্গেই যোগ/ বিয়োগ/ গুণ ইত্যাদি
করতে হবে। কিন্তু 13 কে তার উপাদান অঙ্ক 1 এবং 3 এ বিভাজিত করে তারপর 1 এবং 3 এর উপর কোনওপ্রকার গাণিতিক কার্যক্রম
সম্পাদন করা যাবে না।)

(34, 22, 63)

(61, 76, 144)
Ans 1. (3, 22, 61)

2. (26, 83, 16)

3. (45, 41, 93)

4. (86, 13, 96)

Q.5
নিচে যে’ভাবে দেখানো হয়েছে, সে’ভাবে একটি দর্পণকে MN রেখায় স্থাপন করা হলে, প্রদত্ত
চিত্রটির সঠিক প্রতিবিম্ব কোনটি হবে?

Ans
1.

4.
Q.6

Ans 1.

Q.7 যদি '+' ও '−' পরস্পর স্থান বিনিময় করে এবং '×' ও '÷' পরস্পর স্থান বিনিময় করে, তাহলে নিম্নলিখিত সমীকরণে প্রশ্ন চিহ্নটির (?)
স্থানে কী বসবে?
69 − 36 × 6 ÷ 12 + 5 = ?
Ans 1. 128

2. 130

3. 129

4. 136

Q.8 প্রদত্ত ক্রমের প্রশ্নবোধক চিহ্নটির (?) স্থানে কি বসবে?

247 258 280 313 357 ?

Ans 1. 426

2. 388

3. 401

4. 412

Q.9 প্রদত্ত বিবৃতি এবং সিদ্ধান্তগুলি মনোযোগ সহকারে পড়ু ন। বিবৃতিতে প্রদত্ত তথ্যগুলি সাধারণভাবে
জানা তথ্যের থেকে ভিন্ন বলে মনে হলেও সেগুলিকে সত্য বলেই ধরে নিন। প্রদত্ত সিদ্ধান্তগুলির
মধ্যে কোনটি/কোনগুলি বিবৃতিগুলিকে যুক্তিযুক্তভাবে অনুসরণ করে তা নির্ধারণ করুন।
বিবৃতি:
কিছু পিজা হয় বার্গার।
কিছু পিজা হয় সসেজ।
সিদ্ধান্ত:
(I) অন্তত কিছু সসেজ হয় বার্গার।
(II) কিছু সসেজ হয় পিজা।
Ans 1. শুধুমাত্র সিদ্ধান্ত (I) অনুসরণ করে

2. (I) এবং (II) উভয় সিদ্ধান্ত অনুসরণ করে

3. সিদ্ধান্ত (I) বা (II) কোনওটিই অনুসরণ করে না

4. শুধুমাত্র সিদ্ধান্ত (II) অনুসরণ করে

Q.10 একটি নির্দিষ্ট সাংকেতিক ভাষায়, ‘joy salt area’ কে 'sd vt de' হিসেবে এবং ‘area kit care’ কে ‘vt fu pv’ হিসেবে লেখা হয়। এই
ভাষায় ‘area’ কে কিভাবে লেখা হবে?
Ans 1. de

2. fu

3. sd

4. vt
Q.11 প্রদত্ত বিকল্পগুলির মধ্যে থেকে এমন চিত্রটি নির্বাচন করুন যা নিম্নলিখিত ক্রমের প্রশ্নচিহ্নটিকে (?) প্রতিস্থাপন করে বিন্যাসটি সম্পূর্ণ
করতে পারে।

Ans

Q.12 BI54 একটি নির্দিষ্ট উপায়ে XE64 এর সাথে সম্পর্কিত। একইভাবে, DK76 সম্পর্কিত ZG86 এর সাথে । একই যুক্তি অনুসরণ করে,
নিচের কোনটির সাথে FM43 সম্পর্কিত?
Ans 1. BI53

2. BE35

3. IB53

4. EB35

Q.13
P, Q, R, S, T এবং U একটি বৃত্তাকার টেবিলের চারপাশে কেন্দ্রের দিকে মুখ করে বসে আছে (কিন্তু
এই ক্রমে থাকা আবশ্যক নয়)। R বসেছে P-এর ঠিক বাম দিকে এবং T-এর ঠিক ডান দিকে। Q
বসেছে T-এর ঠিক বাম দিকে। U বসে আছে Q-এর ঠিক বাম দিকে। P বসেছে S-এর ঠিক বাম দিকে।
S-এর ঠিক ডান দিকে কে বসেছে?
Ans 1. U

2. R

3. T

4. Q
Q.14 ইংরাজি বর্ণানুক্রম অনুসারে নিম্নলিখিত ক্রমটির প্রশ্নচিহ্নটির (?) স্থানে বসবে এমন বিকল্পটি নির্বাচন
করুন।
DKO, GJL, JII, MHF, ?
Ans 1. PGB

2. PGC

3. QGB

4. QGC

Q.15 যে বিকল্প চিত্রটিতে প্রদত্ত চিত্রটি (X) অন্তর্নিহিত রয়েছে তা নির্বাচন করুন (ঘূর্ণনের অনুমতি নেই) ।

Ans

Q.16 যদি '+' ও '×' পরস্পর স্থান বিনিময় করে এবং '−' ও '÷' পরস্পর স্থান বিনিময় করে, তাহলে নিম্নলিখিত সমীকরণে প্রশ্ন চিহ্নটির (?)
স্থানে কী বসবে?
100 − 4 ÷7 + 5 × 12 = ?
Ans 1. 5

2. 6

3. 2

4. 4
Q.17 13 একটি নির্দিষ্ট যুক্তি অনুসরণ করে 38 এর সাথে সম্পর্কিত। একই যুক্তি অনুসরণ করে, 15 সম্পর্কিত 44 এর সাথে। একই যুক্তি
অনুসরণ করে 26 নিচের কোনটির সাথে সম্পর্কিত?

(দ্রষ্টব্যঃ সংখ্যাগুলিকে এদের উপাদান অঙ্কে বিভাজিত না করে, সমগ্র গাণিতিক কার্যক্রম অখণ্ড সংখ্যার উপরেই সম্পাদন করতে
হবে। যেমন, 13 এর ক্ষেত্রে, 13 এর উপরেই যাবতীয় কার্যক্রম সম্পাদন করতে হবে। অর্থাৎ 13 এর সঙ্গেই যোগ/ বিয়োগ/ গুণ ইত্যাদি
করতে হবে কিন্তু 13 কে তার উপাদান অঙ্ক 1 এবং 3 এ বিভাজিত করার পর, 1 এবং 3 এর উপর কোনও প্রকার গাণিতিক কার্যক্রম
সম্পাদন করা যাবে না।)
Ans 1. 68

2. 77

3. 86

4. 71

Q.18
A, B, C, D, E এবং F কেন্দ্রের দিকে মুখ করে একটি বৃত্তাকার টেবিলের চারপাশে বসে আছে (কিন্তু
এই ক্রমে থাকা আবশ্যক নয়)। F বসেছে A এর বামদিকে তৃ তীয় স্থানে। D বসেছে A এর ঠিক
বামদিকে। C বসেছে A এর ডানদিকে দ্বিতীয় স্থানে। A এবং C এর মাঝে শুধুমাত্র E বসেছে। A এর
ডানদিক থেকে গণনা করা হলে, B এর ঠিক বামদিকে কে বসেছে?
Ans 1. E

2. F

3. C

4. A

Q.19 নিম্নলিখিত ক্রমের প্রশ্ন চিহ্নটির (?) স্থানে কোন বিকল্প চিত্রটি বসবে নির্বাচন করুন।

Ans

4.
Q.20 প্রদত্ত বিবৃতি (গুলি) এবং সিদ্ধান্তগুলি মনোযোগ সহকারে পড়ু ন। বিবৃতি (গুলি)তে প্রদত্ত তথ্য সাধারণভাবে পরিচিত তথ্যের থেকে
ভিন্ন বলে মনে হলেও সত্য বলে ধরে নিন এবং নির্ধারণ করুন যে বিবৃতি(গুলি)কে প্রদত্ত সিদ্ধান্তগুলির কোনটি/গুলি যৌক্তিকভাবে
অনুসরণ করে।

বিবৃতি:
সব পিঁপড়া হয় বল।
সব পিঁপড়া হয় পুতু ল।

সিদ্ধান্ত:
(I) কিছু বল হয় পুতু ল।
(II) সব পুতু ল হয় পিঁপড়া।
Ans 1. সিদ্ধান্ত (I) বা (II) কোনটিই অনুসরণ করে না।

2. উভয় সিদ্ধান্ত (I) এবং (II) অনুসরণ করে।

3. শুধুমাত্র সিদ্ধান্ত (I) অনুসরণ করে।

4. শুধুমাত্র সিদ্ধান্ত (II) অনুসরণ করে।

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 নিচের কোনটি প্রথম উপমহাদেশীয় সাম্রাজ্য ছিল?

Ans 1. গুপ্ত সাম্রাজ্য

2. সাতবাহন সাম্রাজ্য

3. কু ষাণ সাম্রাজ্য

4. মৌর্যসাম্রাজ্য

Q.2 ব্রিটিশ শাসনকালে ______ -এ ফোর্ট উইলিয়াম কলেজ প্রতিষ্ঠিত হয়।

Ans 1. কলকাতা

2. দিল্লি

3. মাদ্রাজ

4. বম্বে

Q.3 নিম্নলিখিতদের মধ্যে কে স্বাধীন ভারতের প্রথম আইন ও বিচার মন্ত্রী ছিলেন?
Ans 1. জগজীবন রাম

2. রাজকু মারী অমৃত কৌর

3. জন মাথাই

4. বি আর আম্বেদকর

Q.4 C2H6 রাসায়নিক সংকেত বিশিষ্ট একটি অণু হল একটি _______ অণু।
Ans 1. বিউটেন

2. মিথেন

3. প্রোপেন

4. ইথেন

Q.5 নিচের কোনটি ভারতের রাষ্ট্রায়ত্ত খাতের একটি শিল্প?

Ans 1. স্টিল অথরিটি অফ ইন্ডিয়া লিমিটেড (SAIL)

2. টাটা আয়রন অ্যান্ড স্টিল কোম্পানি (TISCO)

3. বাজাজ

4. হিন্দুস্থান ইউনিলিভার লিমিটেড

Q.6 ওড়িশি ধ্রুপদী নৃত্যকে পুনরুজ্জীবিত করার জন্য কে 2000 সালে পদ্মবিভূ ষণ পেয়েছিলেন?
Ans 1. কেলুচরণ মহাপাত্র

2. হরিপ্রসাদ চৌরাসিয়া

3. টি বালাসরস্বতী

4. পণ্ডিত যশরাজ

Q.7 বিখ্যাত কিলা-ই-কু হ্ ‌না (পুরানো দুর্গের মসজিদ) _________দ্বারা নির্মিত হয়েছিল।
Ans 1. হুমায়ুন

2. আকবর

3. আলাউদ্দিন খিলজি

4. শের শাহ

Q.8
রাইবোজোম সম্পর্কে নিচের কোন বিবৃতিগুলি সঠিক?

বিবৃতি A: রাইবোজোমে কোনো ঝিল্লি বা পর্দা থাকে না।

বিবৃতি B: রাইবোজোমে পাচক হাইড্রোলাইটিক উৎসেচক উপস্থিত থাকে।
বিবৃতি C: এগুলিকে আত্মঘাতী ব্যাগ বলা হয়।
বিবৃতি D: রাইবোজোম প্রোটিন সংশ্লেষণে গুরুত্বপূর্ণভূ মিকা পালন করে।
Ans 1. শুধুমাত্র বিবৃতি A এবং C

2. শুধুমাত্র বিবৃতি A এবং D

3. শুধুমাত্র বিবৃতি A, B এবং C

4. শুধুমাত্র বিবৃতি A এবং B

Q.9 2023 সালের মে মাসে, প্রধানমন্ত্রী নরেন্দ্র মোদীকে প্রশান্ত মহাসাগরীয় দ্বীপ দেশগুলির পাপুয়া নিউ গিনি এবং _________ দ্বারা
সর্বোচ্চ সম্মানে ভূ ষিত করা হয়েছে।
Ans 1. টু ভালু

2. নাউরু

3. কিরিবাটি

4. ফিজি

Q.10 নিচের কোন মাসে নাগাল্যান্ডের সুমি উপজাতির মানুষেরা তু লুনি (Tuluni) উৎসব পালন করে?
Ans 1. জুন

2. জুলাই

3. মে

4. আগস্ট

Q.11 17 শতকের প্রথম দিকে উত্তর ভারতে ছড়িয়ে পড়া ফসলগুলির মধ্যে কোনটির উল্লেখ আইন-ই-আকবরীতে বর্ণিত উত্তর ভারতের
ফসলের তালিকায় নেই?
Ans 1. অরহর

2. জোয়ার

3. গম

4. তামাক
Q.12 SHG-এর SAPAP-এ ক্ষমতায়ন মডেলের তিনটি উপাদান কী?
Ans 1. জনসম্পদ বরাদ্দ, সক্ষমতা বৃদ্ধি এবং ক্ষু দ্রঋণ

2. সামাজিক সংহতি, মূলধন গঠন এবং সক্ষমতা বৃদ্ধি

3. সামাজিক সংহতি, অর্থনৈতিক উন্নয়ন এবং শিক্ষা

4. যৌথ ক্ষমতায়ন, মূলধন গঠন এবং দারিদ্র্য দূরীকরণ

Q.13 2016 সালে ভারত সরকারের কোন মন্ত্রক দ্বারা প্রধানমন্ত্রী রোজগার প্রোৎসাহন যোজনা (PMRPY) প্রকল্পটি চালু হয়েছিল?
Ans 1. অর্থমন্ত্রক

2. আবাসন ও নগর বিষয়ক মন্ত্রক

3. শ্রম ও কর্মসংস্থান মন্ত্রক

4. গ্রামীণ উন্নয়ন মন্ত্রক

Q.14 টেনিসে 'লাভ' (love) স্কোরের অর্থকী?

Ans 1. যখন কোনও খেলোয়াড়ের শূন্য পয়েন্ট থাকে তখন যা স্কোর হয়

2. একটি খেলায় সর্বোচ্চ সম্ভাব্য স্কোর

3. যখন কোনও খেলোয়াড় খেলায় প্রথম পয়েন্ট জেতে তখন যে স্কোর হয়

4. খেলা টাই হলে যে স্কোর হয়

Q.15 ইন্ডিয়ান ব্যুরো অফ মাইনস (IBM) ________ সালে প্রতিষ্ঠিত হয়।

Ans 1. 1973

2. 1960

3. 1948

4. 1985

Q.16 পণ্ডিত রবিশঙ্কর চারবার কোন পুরস্কারটি জিতেছিলেন?

Ans 1. CMA পুরস্কার

2. আন্তর্জাতিক শাস্ত্রীয় সঙ্গীত পুরস্কার

3. গ্র্যামি পুরস্কার

4. BRIT পুরস্কার

Q.17 পৃথিবীর নিফ (Nife) স্তর ________ এ অবস্থিত।

Ans 1. গুরুমণ্ডল (Mantle)

2. অশ্মমণ্ডল (Lithosphere)

3. কেন্দ্রমণ্ডল (Core)

4. ভূ ত্বক (Crust)

Q.18 নিম্নলিখিত রাজ্যগুলির মধ্যে কোনটি 2023 সালের মার্চ মাসে মুখ্যমন্ত্রী বৃক্ষ সম্পদ যোজনা(Mukhya Mantri Vriksh Sampada
Yojana) চালু করেছে?
Ans 1. কর্ণাটক

2. মধ্যপ্রদেশ

3. পাঞ্জাব

4. ছত্তিশগড়

Q.19 বিখ্যাত লোকনৃত্য 'যক্ষগান' কোন রাজ্যের সাথে যুক্ত?

Ans 1. কেরালা

2. মণিপুর

3. কর্ণাটক

4. বিহার
Q.20 'গেটিং আ গ্রিপ: অন মাই বডি, মাই মাইন্ড, মাই সেলফ' (Getting A Grip: On My Body, My Mind, My Self) নিম্নলিখিত কোন টেনিস
আইকনের আত্মজীবনী?
Ans 1. অ্যানা কু র্নিকোভা (Anna Kournikova)

2. মনিকা সেলেস (Monica Seles)

3. স্টেফি গ্রাফ (Steffi Graf)

4. মারিয়া শারাপোভা (Maria Sharapova)

Q.21 XXII কমনওয়েলথ গেমস 2022 এর আয়োজন কোন শহর করেছিল?

Ans 1. গোল্ড কোস্ট

2. দিল্লী

3. বার্মিংহাম

4. গ্লাসগো

Q.22 নিম্নলিখিত কোন জোড়াটি ঠিকভাবে মেলে না?

Ans 1. সমবর্তী সূচি - অস্ট্রেলিয়া

2. বিধি দ্বারা স্থাপিত প্রক্রিয়া - জাপান

3. রাষ্ট্রপতির কার্য- ফ্রান্স

4. আইনের শাসন - ব্রিটেন

Q.23 নিম্নলিখিত কোন অনুচ্ছেদে রাজ্য বিধানমণ্ডলে উপযোজন বিধেয়কসমূহ সম্পর্কে উল্লেখ করা হয়েছে?
Ans 1. অনুচ্ছেদ 204

2. অনুচ্ছেদ 209

3. অনুচ্ছেদ 213

4. অনুচ্ছেদ 216

Q.24
ভারতের আদমশুমারি-2011 অনুযায়ী নিচের কোন বিবৃতিটি/ বিবৃতিগুলি সঠিক?
(a) সাত বছর বা তার বেশি বয়সের একজন ব্যক্তি, যিনি যেকোনো ভাষা বুঝতে, পড়তে এবং
লিখতে পারেন, তাঁকে সাক্ষর বলে গণ্য করা হয়।
(b) যে ব্যক্তি শুধু পড়তে পারেন কিন্তু লিখতে পারেন না, তিনি সাক্ষর নন।
Ans 1. (a) বা (b) কোনোটিই সঠিক নয়

2. (a) এবং (b) উভয়ই সঠিক

3. শুধুমাত্র (b) সঠিক

4. শুধুমাত্র (a) সঠিক

Q.25 কোন কোষীয় গঠনটি কোষীয় উপাদান এবং অণুকে ভেঙে সেটিকে পুনর্ব্যবহারের জন্য দায়বদ্ধ?
Ans 1. নিউক্লিয়াস

2. রাইবোজোম

3. লাইসোজোম

4. মাইটোকন্ড্রিয়া

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 Select the option with the correct spelling to replace the underlined word in the given sentence.
Development does not take place in a vaccum.
Ans 1. vacuuem

2. vacuum

3. vaccim

4. vakum
Q.2 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blanks.

Our ______ has so many magnificent tourist destinations, with unimaginable potential, yet to ____ fully explored.
Ans 1. land; has

2. country; be

3. national; have

4. s tate; been

Q.3 Select the most appropriate idiom to fill in the blank.

Getting a sudden promotion and increment in my current profile was like _________.
Ans 1. a ballpark figure

2. a foul play

3. a fish out of water

4. a bolt from the blue

Q.4 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Vague
Ans 1. Intact

2. Distinct

3. Indefinite

4. Dissimilar

Q.5 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Fluctuate
Ans 1. Mitigate

2. Wobble

3. Descend

4. Steady

Q.6 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Extensive
Ans 1. Limited

2. Abstract

3. Expensive

4. Concrete

Q.7 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Expand
Ans 1. Protect

2. Network

3. Shrink

4. Inflate

Q.8 The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error. Select the part that contains the error
from the given options. If you don’t find any error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer.
Her decision, / given the complex circumstances, / was too impulsively made.
Ans 1. given the complex circumstances,

2. was too impulsively made.

3. Her decision,

4. No error
Q.9 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Amplify
Ans 1. Defy

2. Contract

3. Enlarge

4. Exert

Q.10 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

He is the healthy person I have ever met in life.

Ans 1. healthier

2. healthiest

3. most healthy

4. more healthy

Q.11 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains an error.

Stephan, however, contrived / to put away / his departure / for eighteen months.
Ans 1. to put away

2. Stephan,however,contrived

3. for eighteen months

4. his departure

Q.12 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans 1. Supperannuation

2. Phytoplankton

3. Suppressant

4. Accentuation

Q.13 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

I could make out from my son's voice that he was _____ as his exam did not go well.
Ans 1. rejected

2. confused

3. abrogated

4. sad

Q.14 The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error. Select the part that contains the error
from the given options. If you don’t find any error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer.

Chetan's room is clean / than Ram's room because / Chetan cleans it more often than Ram.
Ans 1. No error

2. Chetan cleans it more often than Ram

3. Chetan's room is clean

4. than Ram's room because

Q.15 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.
The space or room that is at the top of a building or just below the main roof
Ans 1. Ceiling

2. Dome

3. Attic

4. Stairs
Q.16 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Once in a blue moon

Ans 1. A rare occurrence

2. A regular activity

3. A frequent event

4. A pleasant surprise

Q.17 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

You know that I am fond of reading / and also that all books are my favourite / but you don’t know that this is one of / my
favourite book.

Ans 1. and also that all books are my favourite

2. You know that I am fond of reading

3. my favourite book.

4. but you don’t know that this is one of

Q.18 Select the option that correctly rectifies the underlined spelling error.

The worlds you and I belong to are very defferent.

Ans 1. deferent

2. deffirent

3. diferent

4. different

Q.19 Select the grammatically correct sentence from the options given.
Ans 1. Neither a boy nor a mother could identify the man.

2. Neither the boy nor the mother could identify the man.

3. Neither the boy nor a mother could identify a man.

4. Neither a boy nor the mother could identify a man.

Q.20 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

We can observed from the poll that the award is likely to go to the horror movie director this year.
Ans 1. had observe from

2. are observing of

3. have been observing of

4. can observe from

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

She went on a quest for ancient things ___(1)____ could have a soul of their own, something ___(2)___ Aladdin's lamp that was
home to a genie. She searched flea markets, met with art dealers and even went to excavation sites. She ___(3)__ searching for
something that would have seen some ancient history when an ___(4)___, ___(5)___, ___(6)____ apothecary table caught her
attention. It was perhaps owned by a __(7)____, ___(8)___, __(9)____ woman who was a wise medic but was deemed a witch.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans 1. which

2. that

3. who

4. whose
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans 1. like

2. upstairs

3. by

4. of

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans 1. was

2. were

3. is

4. has been

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blanks numbered 4, 5 and 6 respectively.
Ans 1. antique; heavy; chestnut brown

2. chestnut brown; antique; heavy

3. antique; chestnut brown; heavy

4. heavy; antique; chestnut brown

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blanks numbered 7, 8 and 9 respectively.
Ans 1. old; small; hunch-backed

2. small; old; hunch-backed

3. hunch-backed; old; small

4. small; hunch-backed; old

Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 16/10/2024
Exam
12:30 PM - 2:30 PM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹3500 as a sum borrowed at 6% per year rate of interest for 4 years.
Ans 1. 800

2. 840

3. 880

4. 780

Q.2 In a group of 260 people, one-fourth are women, two-fifth are men and the rest are children.
The average age of women is five-sixth of the average age of men, average age of children is
one-third of the average age of men. If the average age of men is 48 years, what is the
average age of the group in years?
Ans 1. 38.4

2. 42.7

3. 34.8

4. 32.7

Q.3 If the cost price of 30 books is same as the selling price of 20 books, then the gain percentage is:
Ans 1. 25%

2. 15%

3. 50%

4. 40%

Q.4 Find the simple interest (in₹) on ₹940 for 3 years at 5% per annum.
Ans 1. ₹143

2. ₹142

3. ₹141

4. ₹140

Q.5 Aniruddh invested ₹15,000 in the shares of a company. The shares rose by 15% one day and fell by 10% on the other day.
What is the current value (in ₹) of Aniruddh’s investment?
Ans 1. 15450

2. 15750

3. 15500

4. 15525
Q.6 Two classes took the same test. One class of 20 students made an average grade of 85%, the other class of 30 students
made an average grade of 70%. The average grade for all students across both classes is:
Ans 1. 75%

2. 74%

3. 76%

4. 72%

Q.7 The average weight of 12 students and two teachers is 55 kg. When one teacher weighing 68 kg is included in the group,
then the average weight of the group (in kg) is:
Ans 1. 54.5

2. 55

3. 56.5

4. 56

Q.8 Annual income of five schools (in lakhs)

For school R, income from Miscellanous is what percentage (in%) of income from Donation?
Ans 1. 250

2. 225

3. 75

4. 125

Q.9 A and B are running in the same direction at the speeds of 9km/h and 3km/h, respectively,on a circular track of length 27 km.
They will meet again after:
Ans 1. 4 hours

2. 3.5 hours

3. 4.5 hours

4. 3 hours

Q.10 A cylinder with a radius of 12 cm and height of 38 cm is cut parallel to the base into two pieces of different sizes. The total
surface area of the larger piece formed is 60% of the total surface area of the given cylinder. The smaller piece is melted and
used to create a sphere. Find the radius (in cm) of the sphere.
Ans
1.

4.
Q.11 If 12 : x :: x : 27 and 25 : y :: y : 36, where x and y are both positive numbers, then find x : y.
Ans 1. 3 : 5

2. 4 : 7

3. 7 : 9

4. 5 : 6

Q.12

Ans 1. 588 cu.cm

2. 462 cu.cm

3. 396 cu.cm

4. 858 cu.cm

Q.13 Find the ratio of the curved surface areas of two cones if the diameters of the bases are equal and slant heights are in the
ratio 5 : 3.
Ans 1. 3 : 2

2. 5 : 3

3. 2 : 3

4. 7 : 5

Q.14 A man bought an article for ₹500 and sold it for ₹600. Find his profit percentage.
Ans 1. 20%

2. 10%

3. 30%

4. 40%

Q.15 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹3500 as a sum borrowed at 5% per year rate of interest for 2 years.
Ans 1. 310

2. 290

3. 390

4. 350

Q.16 In the what ratio must a shopkeeper mix 2 types of rice worth₹80/kg and₹100/kg, so that the average cost of the mixture
is₹95/kg?
Ans 1. 1 : 4

2. 1 : 2

3. 1 : 3

4. 2 : 3
Q.17 A car driver covers a total distance of 120 km. He covers the first 80 km at a uniform speed of 50 km/h and the next 40 km at
a uniform speed of 40 km/h. The average speed of the car is:
Ans
1.

Q.18 The difference between discounts on a bill for ₹22,500 under two schemes, a discount of 40% and two successive discounts
of 36% and 4%, is:
Ans 1. ₹365

2. ₹342

3. ₹324

4. ₹356

Q.19 The actual and targeted production (in thousands) of shoes of a company during the last five years are given in the
following bar graph. Study the bar graph carefully and answer the question that follows:

The total actual production in 2020 and 2021 is what per cent of the total targeted production in 2021 and 2022? (correct up
to two decimal places)
Ans 1. 70.59%

2. 80.95%

3. 77.67%

4. 67.59%
Q.20

Ans
1.

Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1 Seven people P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same
order). S is sitting third to the left of V. T is sitting second to the right of S. P is sitting fourth to the right of Q. U is sitting
second to the left of P. What is the position of R with respect to T?
Ans 1. To the immediate left

2. Third to the right

3. Second to the left

4. Third to the left

Q.2 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans
1.

4.
Q.3 Select the option figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the figure given below to complete the pattern.

Ans

Q.4 This question has two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to
be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions
logically follow(s) from the given statements.
Statements:
All bags are purses.
No purse is a wallet.
Conclusions
(I) At least some wallets are purses.
(II) No bag is a wallet.
Ans 1. Only conclusion (II) follows

2. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow

3. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows

4. Only conclusion (I) follows

Q.5 Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series and complete
the pattern.

Ans

Q.6 ead the given statement(s) and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even
R
if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statement(s).

Statements:
All chocolates are juices.
No juice is a biscuit.

Conclusions:
(I) No chocolate is a biscuit.
(II) No biscuit is a juice.
Ans 1. Only conclusion I follows.

2. Neither conclusion I nor II follows.

3. Both conclusions I and II follow.

4. Only conclusion II follows.

Q.7 What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘÷’ and ‘+’ are interchanged and ‘−’ and ‘×’
are interchanged?

17 ÷ 27 × 7 − 9 + 3 = ?
Ans 1. 122

2. 34

3. 76

4. 23
Q.8 In a certain code language, 'FOUR' is coded as '3157' and 'RENT' is coded as '2384'.
What is the code for 'R' in the given code language?
Ans 1. 4

2. 7

3. 3

4. 2

Q.9 MHLG is related to IDHC in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, PKOJ is related to LGKF.
To which of the following is SNRM related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. JONI

2. JOIN

3. OJIN

4.
OJNI

Q.10 43 is related to 87 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 63 is related to 127. To which of the following is 52
related, following the same logic?

(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding / subtracting / multiplying, etc., to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13
into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans 1. 101

2. 108

3. 111

4. 105
Q.11 Identify the figure given in the options which when put in place of (?) will logically complete the series.

Ans

Q.12 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g., 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding / subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13
into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
(8, 320, 4)
(1, 70, 7)
Ans 1. (3, 22, 5)

2. (3, 10, 7)

3. (2, 110, 5)

4. (2, 40, 2)

Q.13 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the English alphabetical order?
PAX, RCV, TET, VGR, ?
Ans 1. XJP

2. XIP

3. XJQ

4. XIQ
Q.14 A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order). A is sitting
third to the left of B. C is sitting second to the right of F. A is sitting to the immediate left of C. D is not an immediate
neighbour of C.
What is the position of B with respect to E?
Ans 1. Second to the left

2. Immediate right

3. Second to the right

4. Immediate left

Q.15 What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged and ‘−’ and ‘×’
are interchanged?
4 − 6 × 27 ÷ 72 + 6 = ?
Ans 1. 9

2. 1

3. 14

4. 6

Q.16 In a certain code language, ‘she is intelligent’ is written as ‘le me re’ and ‘she is studious’ is written as ‘re de me’. How is
‘studious’ written in the given code language?
Ans 1. de

2. le

3. re

4. me

Q.17 What should come in place of ‘?’ in the given series?

5040, 6064, 6576, 6832, 6960, ?

Ans 1. 7024

2. 7216

3. 7472

4. 7088

Q.18 In a certain code language, ‘MONK’ is coded as ‘1238’ and ‘HONK’ is coded as ‘8326’. What is the code for ‘H’ in that
language?
Ans 1. 2

2. 3

3. 8

4. 6

Q.19 RZ31 is related to TB25 in a certain way. In the same way, JR46 is related to LT40. To which of the following is GO18 related
following the same logic?
Ans 1. IQ15

2. IQ12

3. JP12

4. JP15

Q.20

Ans 1.

4.
Section : General Awareness

Q.1 In September 2023, which Chief Minister of an Indian state won the Lee Kuan Yew Exchange Fellowship for his
distinguished contribution to public service?
Ans 1. Yogi Adityanath

2. Himanta Biswa Sarma

3. Naveen Patnayak

4. Shivraj Singh Chouhan

Q.2 The Maukharies ruled over ________ in western Uttar Pradesh, which later on replaced Pataliputra as the political centre of
northern India.
Ans 1. Kanauj

2. Jhansi

3. Agra

4. Mathura

Q.3 Who among the following became the first Indian to win a gold medal at the World Athletics Championships event?
Ans 1. Murli Shree Sankar

2. Duti Chand

3. Milkha Singh

4. Neeraj Chopra

Q.4 Air and National Defence are examples of which of the following goods?
Ans 1. Private goods

2. Club goods

3. Public goods

4. Common goods

Q.5 Who among the following was NOT associated with the ‘Prarthana Sabha’?
Ans 1. RG Bhandarkar

2. Govind Ranade

3. Mahatma Gandhi

4. Atmaram Pandurang

Q.6 Match list I of cell organelles with their functions in list II.
List I:
(a) Endoplasmic reticulum
(b) Vacuoles
(c) Golgi apparatus
(d) Mitochondria
List II:
(i) for packaging of materials synthesised near the ER and dispatching them to various targets.
(ii) generates ATP.
(iii) are storage sacs for solid or liquid contents.
(iv) serve as channels for the transport of proteins.
Ans 1. (a) - (i); (b) - (iv); (c) - (iii); (d) - (ii)

2. (a) - (iv); (b) - (i); (c) - (ii); (d) - (iii)

3. (a) - (iv); (b) - (iii); (c) - (i); (d) - (ii)

4. (a) - (iv); (b) - (i); (c) - (iii); (d) - (ii)

Q.7 Which food is a good source of complete protein?
Ans 1. Eggs

2. Spinach

3. Rice

4. Lentils

Q.8 Captain Hawkins visited India during the reign of:

Ans 1. Shahjahan

2. Babur

3. Akbar

4. Jahangir

Q.9 The first ICC Women's T20 Cricket World Cup was hosted by ________.
Ans 1. India

2. England

3. South Africa

4. Australia

Q.10 'Gaur Maria' dance is performed in which of the following state?

Ans 1. Rajasthan

2. Gujarat

3. Telengana

4. Chhattisgarh

Q.11 Identify the INCORRECT pair.

Ans 1. Nor Westers - West Bengal

2. Bardoisila - Assam

3. Blossom Shower - Andhra Pradesh

4. Mango Shower - Kerala

Q.12 Gulbarga and Bidar style of architecture was patronised by which of the following dynasties?
Ans 1. Nanda dynasty

2. Bahmani dynasty

3. Maratha dynasty

4. Tuluva dynasty

Q.13 Which of the following Articles of the Constitution mentions that, “There shall be paid to the Judges of the Supreme Court,
such salaries as may be determined by the Parliament by law, and until provision in that behalf is so made, such salaries as
are specified in the Second Schedule”?
Ans 1. 125

2. 126

3. 124

4. 127

Q.14 Who was named as the president of Shiv Sena (Shinde Group) during the party's national executive meeting in Mumbai in
February 2023?
Ans 1. Uddhav Thackeray

2. Sanjay Raut

3. Eknath Shinde

4. Aaditya Thackeray
Q.15 Which of the following initiatives of the Government of India promises 100 days of guaranteed wage employment to all the
rural households who volunteer to do unskilled manual work?
Ans 1. Pradhan Mantri Rojgar Protsahan Yojana

2. National Career Service

3. Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Rojgar Abhiyaan

4. Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme

Q.16 Which type of molecules show dipole-dipole interaction?

Ans 1. Molecules possessing transient dipole

2. Non-polar molecules

3. Ionic molecules

4. Molecules possessing permanent dipole

Q.17 Darshana Jhaveri, a famous Manipuri dancer, was awarded the Padma Shri in which of the following years?
Ans 1. 2005

2. 2001

3. 2003

4. 2002

Q.18 Who among the following personalities said, “What I object to is the ‘craze’ for machinery as such. The craze is for what
they call labour-saving machinery. Men go on ‘saving labour’ till thousands are without work and thrown to the open streets
to die of starvation.”?
Ans 1. Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru

2. Mahatma Gandhi

3. Lal Bahadur Shastri

4. Swami Vivekananda

Q.19 The property of rock or soil that indicates the ability of allowing fluids to flow through it is called:
Ans 1. Plasticity

2. Permeability

3. Stability

4. Density

Q.20 Who is the writer of the novel ‘A Suitable Boy’?

Ans 1. Arvind Adiga

2. Mahesh Rao

3. Neel Mukherjee

4. Vikram Seth

Q.21 From which of the following countries was the concept of the Fundamental Duties borrowed?
Ans 1. USA

2. Ireland

3. Russia

4. Australia

Q.22 In which state is the Jhumming cultivation known as Dahiya?

Ans 1. Odisha

2. Rajasthan

3. Madhya Pradesh

4. Andhra Pradesh
Q.23 Kishori Amonkar, one of the finest classical singers of Hindustani music, was from which state?
Ans 1. Maharashtra

2. Gujarat

3. Uttar Pradesh

4. Bihar

Q.24 Mahatma Gandhi Kashi Vidyapith was founded by Shiv Prasad Gupta and Bhagwan Das in the year _______.
Ans 1. 1922

2. 1921

3. 1920

4. 1919

Q.25 For how many days is the Chhat Puja celebrated?

Ans 1. Four

2. One

3. Five

4. Two

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 Rectify the sentence by selecting the correct spelling of the underlined word from the options.
He was startled by the loud thander during the storm.
Ans 1. thundre

2. thundar

3. thondar

4. thunder

Q.2 Select the most appropriate word from the options to fill in the blank.
Adithya ordered a juicy _________________ cooked to perfection at the highway restaurant.
Ans 1. stink

2. steak

3. stoke

4. stake

Q.3 Select the word that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word in the given sentence.

The name should also be beneficial to a strong, long-lasting marketing campaign.

Ans 1. Causal

2. Advantageous

3. Detrimental

4. Desirable

Q.4 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

He was constantly / gazing on the / crime scene to / find some clues.

Ans 1. He was constantly

2. crime scene to

3. gazing on the

4. find some clues

Q.5 Select the most appropriate idiom that can substitute the underlined words in the given sentence.

I heard management is planning to transfer me to another department and demote me. I need to confirm if this is true by
hearing it directly from the person involved and from my manager.
Ans 1. straight from the horse's mouth

2. in the seventh heaven

3. bearing a grudge

4. on pins and needles

Q.6 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word in the given sentence.

Although she is virtuous in her deeds, people misinterpret her because of her open and bold nature.
Ans 1. commendable

2. wicked

3. sane

4. moral

Q.7 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

I have a __________ for reading and want to become a writer when I grow up.
Ans 1. tallow

2. dream

3. unity

4. passion

Q.8 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

I checked the ____________ to see if it will rain or not.

Ans 1. whether

2. wether

3. weather

4. wither

Q.9 Select the correct idiom to substitute the underlined segment in the following sentence.
Sean is notorious for revealing the secrets about the company.
Ans 1. Being in bad blood

2. Biting the dust

3. Spilling the beans

4. Biting the bullet

Q.10 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
There has been / an increase of the number / of road / accidents recently.
Ans 1. of road

2. an increase of the number

3. There has been

4. accidents recently

Q.11 Select the most appropriate option that can replace the underlined segment in the given sentence.

No sooner had they left their home that it started raining heavily.

Ans 1. their home than it started

2. there home than it started

3. their home than it starts

4. their home that it start

Q.12 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

Osmium is heavy metal in the periodic table.

Ans 1. more heavy

2. the heaviest

3. heavier

4. the most heavy

Q.13 Select the option that rectifies the error in the usage of the future tense in the given sentence.

Shivani go to school tomorrow for prize distribution.

Ans 1. Shivani has gone to school tomorrow for prize distribution.

2. Shivani goes to school tomorrow for prize distribution.

3. Shivani had gone to school tomorrow for prize distribution.

4. Shivani will go to school tomorrow for prize distribution.

Q.14 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given phrase.
Something that has the quality of being easily broken
Ans 1. Broken

2. Damage

3. Hard

4. Brittle

Q.15 Select the option that correctly rectifies the underlined spelling error.
The scientist made an appauling discovery about the environmental impact of the drug.
Ans 1. appaulling

2. appalling

3. apalling

4. appawling

Q.16 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans 1. Accessible

2. Concieve

3. Convenience

4. Separate

Q.17 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The coaches decided to _____ the regulations more strictly because the candidates were not paying attention during their
training sessions.
Ans 1. provide

2. supply

3. enforce

4. enjoy

Q.18 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Excessive
Ans 1. Moderate

2. Inordinate

3. Desirable

4. Flow
Q.19 Select the option that has used the correct tense.
Ans 1. Yesterday, we was painting the door when a neighbour stopping by to say hello.

2. Yesterday, we are painting the door when a neighbour stop by to say hello.

3. Yesterday, we were painting the door when a neighbour stopped by to say hello.

4. Yesterday, we will be painting the door when a neighbour stops by to say hello.

Q.20 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined words in the given sentence.

Solving the riddle given by our teacher is farther beyond our capacity.
Ans 1. farthest

2. far

3. fare

4. fair

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

It was just before noon on June 26, 1975, and my friend and I were out exploring the bustling by-lanes of Delhi’s Karol Bagh, unaware
that the Emergency had been declared, and that it would change our lives in ways we could have never ___1___. Though Indira
Gandhi had herself announced the Emergency in a national broadcast at 8 am, IST, the news took its own time to reach the common
people who went about their business as always. However, two hours into our outing, we ___2___ something was wrong. The
pavement shops began to thin out as we watched and the bigger outlets too looked ready to ___3___; many of them worked behind
half-downed shutters. We were young but fancied ourselves as political animals, which at the time was shorthand for being
passionately anti-Congress and anti-Indira. There was no way we were going to head home without knowing what had happened.
There was already considerable excitement in our small friends’ circle over two ___4___ developments: the June 12, 1975 Allahabad
high court ruling unseating Indira for electoral malpractices and the Congress’s unexpected defeat in the State election in Gujarat. The
Supreme Court had allowed Indira to continue as prime minister but that did not ___5___ our joy; it was a technical reprieve that did
not lessen the political blow she had received.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans 1. undermined

2. imagined

3. targeted

4. betrothed

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans 1. sensed

2. created

3. feigned

4. received
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans 1. chicken out

2. open up

3. pop up

4. wrap up

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans 1. production

2. mistakes

3. landmark

4. flaws

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans 1. adopted

2. magnified

3. diminished

4. dampen
Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 16/10/2024
Exam
4:00 PM - 5:30 PM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 An item is listed for ₹450 with 15% trade discount. Find the amount of trade discount.
Ans 1. ₹67.50

2. ₹517.50

3. ₹52.50

4. ₹382.50

Q.2 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹3000 as a sum borrowed at 4% per year rate of interest for 2 years.
Ans 1. 240

2. 200

3. 280

4. 180

Q.3 Lokesh received an amount of ₹10,500 in 5 years, including simple interest, on a principal amount of ₹7,500. What would be
the total amount he receives if the interest rate is increased by 4%?
Ans 1. ₹12,595

2. ₹12,000

3. ₹11,500

4. ₹12,550

Q.4 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹3000 as a sum borrowed at 4% per year rate of interest for 6 years.
Ans 1. 660

2. 760

3. 720

4. 680

Q.5 Find the least number which when divided by 20,25,35 and 40 leaves remainders 14,19,29and 34, respectively.
Ans 1. 1284

2. 1294

3. 1394

4. 1384

Q.6 The average of 17 results is 62. The average of the first eighth is 48 and that of the last eighth is 84, the ninth result is:
Ans 1. −2

2. 2

3. 2.5

4. −1.5
Q.7 A solid cylinder has a total surface area of 352 cm2. Its curved surface area is one-eighth of the total surface area. The
radius (in cm) of the cylinder is:
[Useπ = 22/7]
Ans 1. 8

2. 7

3. 9

4. 11

Q.8 If the height of a triangle is increased by 20% and the base is increased by 12%. What is the new area (in cm2) if the old area
of the triangle was 200 cm2?
Ans 1. 268.8

2. 254.4

3. 234.4

4. 216.7

Q.9 A train travels at a speed of 120 km/h. How many metres will it travel in 60 minutes?
Ans 1. 140000

2. 120000

3. 145000

4. 135000

Q.10 Study the given bar graph carefully and answer the following question.

What was the percentage (in%) drop in the production of food grains from 1991 to 1992?
Ans 1. 30

2. 20

3. 15

4. 25
Q.11 A dishonest shopkeeper promises to sell his goods at cost price. However, he uses a weight that actually weighs 11% less
than what is written on it. Find his profit percentage.
Ans
1.

Q.12 The management batch of a college has two sections, A and B. Section A has 22 students and their average marks are 75,
whereas section B has 30 students and their average marks are 60. What are the average marks of the whole batch? (Round
off to two decimal places)
Ans 1. 65.23

2. 58

3. 59.34

4. 66.35

Q.13 Rajneesh drove his car at a speed of 99 km/h for 2 hours and then he took a rest for one hour. Then, he further drove for 3
hours at a speed of 60 km/h. What was Rajneesh’s average speed (in km/h) during his entire journey?
Ans 1. 67

2. 69

3. 63

4. 65

Q.14

Ans 1. 17.5%

2. 18.2%

3. 20.3%

4. 24.5%
Q.15 In an examination, there are four subjects of 100 marks each. A student scores 78% in the first subject, 75% in the second
subject and 90% in the third subject. She scored 85% in aggregate. Her percentage of marks in the fourth subject is:
Ans 1. 97%

2. 81%

3. 95%

4. 87%

Q.16 The cost price of 12 bananas is equal to the sale price of 10 bananas. What is the percentage of profit?
Ans 1. 12%

2. 24%

3. 20%

4. 16%

Q.17 In a jeep driving at a speed of 9 m/s, a thief is fleeing on a straight road. He is being pursued by a police officer riding a
motorbike at a speed of 10 m/s. How long would it take a police officer to apprehend the burglar if there is a 100 m
instantaneous distance between the vehicle and the motorbike?
Ans 1. 102 s

2. 100 s

3. 95 s

4. 98 s

Q.18 24 boys and a certain number of girls appeared for an exam. The average score of the boys was 42 and the average score of
the girls was 34, while the combined average score was 38. How many girls appeared for the exam?
Ans 1. 30

2. 28

3. 26

4. 24

Q.19

Ans 1.

Q.20 What should be subtracted from 30, 56, 40 and 76 so that the remaining numbers may be proportional?
Ans 1. 10

2. 4

3. 6

4. 8

Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1 Select the option in which the given figure is embedded (rotation is NOT allowed).

Ans

Q.2 What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘−’ and ‘+’ are interchanged and ‘÷’ and ‘×’
are interchanged?

13 ÷ 4 + 16 × 2 − 21 = ?
Ans 1. 42

2. 65

3. 59

4. 61

Q.3 In a certain code language, ‘bring cold water’ is coded as ‘qh pw ut’ and ‘water is pure’ iscoded as ‘mk zv qh’. How is ‘water’
coded in the given language?
Ans 1. ut

2. qh

3. pw

4. zv
Q.4 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?

BFL, HLR, NRX, TXD, ?

Ans 1. DZJ

2. JDZ

3. ZDJ

4. ZJD

Q.5 In a certain code language, 'JARS' is coded as '3175' and 'SIDE' is coded as '4832'.
What is the code for 'S' in the given code language?
Ans 1. 3

2. 5

3. 8

4. 4

Q.6 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

3 16 66 201 406 ?
Ans 1. 409

2. 412

3. 410

4. 411

Q.7 Read the given statement(s) and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statement(s) is true, even
if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statement(s).

Statements:
No chair is a recliner.
No recliner is a sofa.
No recliner is a mat.

Conclusions:
(I) No chair is a sofa.
(II) Some mats are sofa.
Ans 1. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

2. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

3. Only conclusion (I) follows.

4. Only conclusion (II) follows.

Q.8 394 is related to 242 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 461 is related to 309. To which of the following is
428 related, following the same logic?

2. 282

3. 257

4. 276

Q.9 LIFE is related to NKHG in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, SLOPE is related to
UNQRG. To which of the following is DUAL related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. FXDN

2. FXCN

3. FWCN

4. FWDN
Q.10 Identify the figure given in the options which when put in place of (?) will logically complete the series.

Ans

Q.11 P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order). T sits to the
immediate right of V. S sits second to the right of Q. U is an immediate neighbour of both V and S. P sits second to the left of
U. Who is sitting to the immediate left of R?
Ans 1. S

2. T

3. Q

4. P

Q.12 In a certain code language, ‘WILD’ is coded as ‘3197’ and ‘LOVE’ is coded as ‘2346’. What is the code for ‘L’ in that
language?
Ans 1. 6

2. 9

3. 3

4. 2
Q.13 Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series and complete
the pattern.

Ans

Q.14 Seven people A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same
order). C is sitting second to the left of A. Only one person is sitting between B and C when counted from right of B. E is
sitting third to the right of F. D is sitting to the immediate left of E. The position of how many persons excluding A will
remain unchanged if all the persons are arranged in the English alphabetical order in clockwise direction, starting from A,
keeping the position of A unchanged?
Ans 1. None

2. Two

3. One

4. Three

Q.15 13 is related to 104 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 17 is related to 136. To which ofthe following is 23
related, following the same logic?(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbersinto its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13can be
performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1and 3 is not allowed)
Ans 1. 184

2. 92

3. 138

4. 207
Q.16 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are
interchanged?
60 × 12 − 6 ÷ 4 + 15 = ?
Ans 1. 12

2. 11

3. 14

4. 13

Q.17 This question has two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to
be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions
logically follow(s) from the given statements.
Statements:
Some hoops are cows.
All cows are bulls.
Conclusions:
(I) Some bulls are hoops.
(II) Some hoops are bulls.
Ans 1. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows

2. Only conclusion (II) follows

3. Only conclusion (I) follows

4. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow

Q.18 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans
1.

Q.19 In a certain code language, ‘POT’ is coded as ’15-14-19’ and ‘SPLIT’ is coded as ’18-15-11-8-19’. What is the code for
‘PERFORM’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 15-4-17-6-14-17-12

2. 15-4-17-5-14-17-13

3. 15-4-17-5-15-17-12

4. 15-4-17-5-14-17-12

Q.20 HP21 is related to XF34 in a certain way. In the same way, KS72 is related to AI85. To which of the following is NV39 related,
following the same logic?
Ans 1. DL55

2. LD52

3. DL52

4. LD55

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 Which of the following was NOT found in the Harappan excavation sites?
Ans 1. Dwelling houses

2. Public hospital

3. Public buildings

4. Public bath

Q.2 Dhamma is the __________ word for the Sanskrit word ‘Dharma’.
Ans 1. Abahatta

2. Tamil

3. Pali

4. Prakrit

Q.3 Which of the following pollutants is responsible for the acidification of ocean?
Ans 1. Sulphur dioxide (SO2)

2. Nitrogen Dioxide (NO2)

3. Carbon dioxide (CO2)

4. Carbon monoxide (CO)

Q.4 Which of the following Union Territories has the lowest population as per the Census of India 2011?
Ans 1. Daman and Diu

2. Delhi

3. Lakshdweep

4. Andaman and Nicobar

Q.5 According to Koeppen’s Scheme of climatic regions of India, in which of the following states is the ‘BWhw’ and ‘BShw’ type
climate found?
Ans 1. Bihar

2. Rajasthan

3. Andhra Pradesh

4. Maharashtra

Q.6 Squash player Anahat Singh belongs to which city in India?

Ans 1. Haryana

2. Delhi

3. Mumbai

4. Bengaluru

Q.7 The Shuddhi Movement to reconvert to the Hindu fold the converts to other religions, was started by which of the following
organisations?
Ans 1. Satyashodhak Samaj

2. Dharma Sabha

3. Brahmo Samaj

4. Arya Samaj

Q.8 Muscle cells and muscle fibres are developed from embryonic precursor cells known as:
Ans 1. myocyte

2. myoblasts

3. myofibril

4. myonuclei
Q.9 According to the Census of India 2001, how much percentage of the immigrant population was from Sri Lanka?
Ans 1. 7.1%

2. 2.9%

3. 1.6%

4. 8.1%

Q.10 Which of the following are the major objectives of governments engaged in the budgetary process in India?
a. Stabilising the level of aggregate demand in the economy
b. Redistributing incomes of people as per constitutional principles
c. Floating schemes to appeal to citizens in a democratic way on a regular basis
d. Allocating funds to various economic activities
Ans 1. Only a, b and c

2. All a, b, c and d

3. Only a, b and d

4. Only a and b

Q.11 Who is the author of ‘Temple Tales: Secrets & Stories of India’s Sacred Places’?
Ans 1. Mulk Raj Anand

2. Shashi Tharoor

3. Sudha G Tilak

4. Malathi Ramachandran

Q.12 Lachhu Maharaj has been associated with which dance form?
Ans 1. Odissi

2. Manipuri

3. Bharatanatyam

4. Kathak

Q.13 To which state does Indian shooter Abhinav Bindra belong?

Ans 1. Punjab

2. Uttarakhand

3. Madhya Pradesh

4. Rajasthan

Q.14 Which of the following is considered unicellular green algae?

Ans 1. Cladophora

2. Oedogonium

3. Chlorophyta

4. Chlamydomonas

Q.15 Which raga was composed by music emperor Mian Tansen to bring rain?
Ans 1. Megh Pushpa

2. Mayurapriya

3. Megh Malhar

4. Sharvari Tarang

Q.16 Which of the following temples is NOT an example of Nagara style of architecture?
Ans 1. Sun temple, Konark

2. Kailasha temple, Kanchipuram

3. Lingaraja temple, Bhubaneshwar

4. Kandariya temple, Madhya Pradesh

Q.17 Which of the following is NOT a religious festival?
Ans 1. Guru Purab

2. Gandhi Jayanti

3. Muharram

4. Good Friday

Q.18 The Integrated Goods and Services Tax (Amendment) Bill, 2023 was introduced in Lok Sabha on 11 August 2023, which
amends the ________________________.
Ans 1. Integrated Goods and Services Tax (IGST) Act, 2016

2. Integrated Goods and Services Tax (IGST) Act, 2017

3. Integrated Goods and Services Tax (IGST) Act, 2014

4. Integrated Goods and Services Tax (IGST) Act, 2015

Q.19 In September 2023, at the BRICS Innovation Forum in Moscow, who among the following, who is a Chief Innovation Officer
from Telangana, received the World Innovation Award?
Ans 1. KT Rama Rao

2. T Harish Kumar

3. Kalvakuntla Chandrashekar Rao

4. Shanta Thoutam

Q.20 The structure of methanol is CH3OH. This kind of representation is known as _________.
Ans 1. complete structural formula

2. condensed structural formula

3. bond-line structural representation

4. wedge-and-dash representation

Q.21 Who among the following is the author of the book named 'Streepurushtulna'?
Ans 1. Pandit Ramabai

2. Sarojini Naidu

3. Tarabai Shinde

4. Rashasundari Devi

Q.22 The Constitution of India has borrowed many provisions from different countries as well as from the Government of India
Act of ___________.
Ans 1. 1949

2. 1919

3. 1935

4. 1942

Q.23 Which of the following is the headquarter of East Central Railway?

Ans 1. Hajipur

2. Guwahati

3. Kanpur

4. Kolkata

Q.24 From which of the following countries has the Indian Constitution borrowed the procedure of making amendments in the
Constitution?
Ans 1. Ireland

2. Australia

3. South Africa

4. Russia
Q.25 VP Dhananjayan and Shanta Dhananjayan were honoured with Rukminidevi Memorial Award in 2009 for which of the
following Indian classical dance forms?
Ans 1. Mohiniyattam

2. Sattriya

3. Bharatanatyam

4. Odissi

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom.

Despite their differences, the counties found common ground and buried the hatchet.
Ans 1. To continue a conflict

2. To seek revenge in the future

3. To settle a dispute peacefully

4. To disagree publicly

Q.2 Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. Select the option that contains an error.
Please bring two bananas and the piece of cake from the market.
Ans 1. two bananas

2. Please bring

3. and the piece of cake

4. from the market

Q.3 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
We / enjoyed lunch / he gave / us.
Ans 1. us

2. enjoyed lunch

3. We

4. he gave

Q.4 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word.

The meteorological department predicted heavy rain over the coming days.
Ans 1. Drizzly

2. Rare

3. Plentiful

4. Light

Q.5 Identify the sentence with the adverbial error.

Ans 1. She ran the incredibly marathon fast.

2. She ran the marathon fast incredibly.

3. She ran incredibly the marathon fast.

4. She ran the marathon incredibly fast.

Q.6 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
Rahul speaks fluently English / although he makes / quite a lot of mistakes /while writing.
Ans 1. quite a lot of mistakes

2. while writing

3. although he makes

4. Rahul speaks fluently English

Q.7 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word in the following sentence.
His performace in the play was outstanding.
Ans 1. play

2. His

3. performace

4. outstanding

Q.8 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

Exactly the same words as were used originally.

Ans 1. Precise

2. Verbatim

3. Factual

4. Ornate

Q.9 Select the correctly spelt word to fill in the blank and make the sentence meaningful.
Sheetal has been studying engineering for five years, ____________________ countless hours to her coursework.
Ans 1. deddicating

2. daidicating

3. dedecating

4. dedicating

Q.10 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Green thumb
Ans 1. To visit the vegetable market

2. Indulging in corruption

3. Being good at growing plants

4. Preparing for war

Q.11 Select the appropriate option that can substitute the underlined word in the following sentence to make it grammatically
correct.

Only the beautiful painting is to be displayed in the exhibition.

Ans 1. the most beautiful

2. beautiful

3. more beautiful

4. the much beautiful

Q.12 Select the sentence that has a grammatical error.

Ans 1. I wish I had eraser to erase all the mistakes in my life.

2. I have a lot of work to complete.

3. This is a very difficult task to accomplish.

4. A young boy offered her his seat.

Q.13 Select the option that rectifies the underlined spelling error.

The impacts of climate change on different sectors of society are interelated.

Ans 1. interreleted

2. interrelated

3. enterrelated

4. interrilated
Q.14 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.
Fatigued
Ans 1. Furious

2. Tired

3. Tricky

4. Famous

Q.15 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blanks.

His dog did not _________ when thieves were slashing the _________ of his precious tree.
Ans 1. stem

2. bark

3. shout

4. claw

Q.16 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

If you don’t have a lump sum to ______ in a fixed deposit, you can surely opt for a long-term recurring deposit.
Ans 1. invest

2. gather

3. draw

4. publish

Q.17 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Proficient
Ans 1. Callous

2. Recalcitrant

3. Accomplished

4. Glamorous

Q.18 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word in the given sentence.

As the orchestra played, the audience was mesmerised by the beautiful melodies.
Ans 1. abstracted

2. turbid

3. dirty

4. alienated

Q.19 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

A person or entity that is unable to pay debts.

Ans 1. Insurgent

2. Recluse

3. Busted

4. Insolvent

Q.20 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

He couldn't attend the meeting _________ he was sick.

Ans 1. but

2. because

3. so

4. although
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
Sniffer dog Tucker uses (1)________ nose to help researchers find out why a killer whale population off the northwest coast of the
United States is (2)________ the decline. He searches for whale faeces floating on the surface of the water, which are then collected
for examination. He is one of the elite team members of detection dogs used by scientists studying a (3)________ of species including
right whales and killer whales.
Conservation canines are fast becoming indispensable tools for biologists according to Aimee Hurt, associate director and co-founder
of Working Dogs for Conservation, (4)________ in Three Forks, Montana.
Over the last few years, though, so many new conservation dog projects have sprung up that Hurt can no (5)________ keep track of
them all. Her organisation’s dogs and their handlers are fully booked to assist field researchers into 2012.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Choose the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 1.
Ans 1. her

2. his

3. its

4. him

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
Sniffer dog Tucker uses (1)________ nose to help researchers find out why a killer whale population off the northwest coast of the
United States is (2)________ the decline. He searches for whale faeces floating on the surface of the water, which are then collected
for examination. He is one of the elite team members of detection dogs used by scientists studying a (3)________ of species including
right whales and killer whales.
Conservation canines are fast becoming indispensable tools for biologists according to Aimee Hurt, associate director and co-founder
of Working Dogs for Conservation, (4)________ in Three Forks, Montana.
Over the last few years, though, so many new conservation dog projects have sprung up that Hurt can no (5)________ keep track of
them all. Her organisation’s dogs and their handlers are fully booked to assist field researchers into 2012.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Choose the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 2.
Ans 1. on

2. off

3. at

4. after

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Choose the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 3.
Ans 1. number

2. cadre

3. cacophony

4. division
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
Sniffer dog Tucker uses (1)________ nose to help researchers find out why a killer whale population off the northwest coast of the
United States is (2)________ the decline. He searches for whale faeces floating on the surface of the water, which are then collected
for examination. He is one of the elite team members of detection dogs used by scientists studying a (3)________ of species including
right whales and killer whales.
Conservation canines are fast becoming indispensable tools for biologists according to Aimee Hurt, associate director and co-founder
of Working Dogs for Conservation, (4)________ in Three Forks, Montana.
Over the last few years, though, so many new conservation dog projects have sprung up that Hurt can no (5)________ keep track of
them all. Her organisation’s dogs and their handlers are fully booked to assist field researchers into 2012.

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Choose the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 4.
Ans 1. based

2. living

3. rested

4. surviving

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Choose the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 5.
Ans 1. moreover

2. lesser

3. shorter

4. longer
Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 17/10/2024
Exam
9:00 AM - 11:00 AM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 Three candidates contested an election and received 1234, 8448 and 20180 votes, respectively. What percentage of the total
votes did the winning candidate get? (Rounded off to 2 decimal places)
Ans 1.

Q.2 Which of the following options is equal to the radius of the new sphere, if three spheres of radii 5cm, 3cm and 4cm are
melted into form a new sphere?
Ans 1. 8cm

2. 6cm

3. 5cm

4. 6.5cm

Q.3

Ans 1. 35

2. 28

3. 24

4. 21

Q.4 Pure ghee costs ₹100 per kg. After adulterating it with vegetable oil costing ₹50 per kg, a shopkeeper sells the mixture at the
rate of ₹96 per kg, thereby making a profit of 20%. In what ratio does he mix the two?
Ans 1. 3 : 2

2. 3 : 1

3. 1 : 2

4. 4 : 1
Q.5 A man’s average driving speed for 9 hours is 88 km/hr. During the first five hours of his journey, he drove at 74 km/hr, and
last two hours he drove at 82 km/hr. What was his average speed (in km/hr) for the sixth and the seventh hour?

Ans 1. 101

2. 92

3. 120

4. 129

Q.6 A policeman saw a thief at a distance of 800m. When the policeman started chasing the thief, the thief started running. If the
ratio of the speeds of the policeman to the thief is 3:2, then the distance travelled by the policeman to catch the thief is
Ans 1. 2.4 km

2. 2 km

3. 3.2 km

4. 1.6 km

Q.7 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹2000 as a sum borrowed at 6% per year rate of interest for 5 years.
Ans 1. 540

2. 560

3. 640

4. 600

Q.8 A batsman scored the following runs in the last 5 innings. Find his score in the 4th innings if the average score is 43.
Innings Score (in runs)
1st - 92
2nd - 53
3rd - 35
4th - X
5th - 27
Ans 1. 4

2. 10

3. 12

4. 8
Q.9

Ans 1. 18.27%

2. 20.36%

3. 21.47%

4. 23.25%

Q.10 The average weight of a family of five members (in kg) whose weights are 40 kg, 49 kg, 56 kg, 72 kg and 37 kg is:
Ans 1. 49.8

2. 51.8

3. 50.8

4. 52.8

Q.11 By selling an article for ₹20, a dealer makes a profit of 10%. By how much should he increase his selling price (in ₹, rounded
off to two decimal place) so as to make a profit of 45%?
Ans 1. 9.36

2. 7.36

3. 8.36

4. 6.36

Q.12 A student's overall grade is determined by their scores in three subjects: Mathematics, English, and Science, with weights
of 40%, 30%, and 30%, respectively. If the student scores 80, 90, and 75 in these subjects, respectively, the overall grade of
the student is:
Ans 1. 82.5

2. 81.5

3. 81

4. 82

Q.13 The length and the breadth of the floor of a rectangular hall are 98 feet and 70 feet, respectively. If all persons in the hall are
allotted equal square spaces as workstations, what will be the area of the largest such workstation that can be allotted to
any user, assuming no space in the hall is left unoccupied?
Ans 1. 256 sq. ft

2. 144 sq. ft

3. 196 sq. ft

4. 100 sq. ft
Q.14 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹2500 as a sum borrowed at 8% per year rate of interest for 2 years.
Ans 1. 340

2. 440

3. 400

4. 360

Q.15 A certain sum of money will be ₹10,800 in 5 years. If simple interest is two-third of the principal, then the rate of interest p.a.
is equal to:
Ans
1.

Q.16 Study the given bar graph and answer the question that follows.
The given bar graph represents the average percentage marks obtained in English, Hindi and General Knowledge by
students of four centres (A, B, C and D).

If the full marks in English is 150, Hindi is 50 and General Knowledge is 200, then find the difference between the total marks
of the centre A and D.
Ans 1. 27.5

2. 29.5

3. 25

4. 28.25

Q.17 A shopkeeper offers two schemes, the first being a single discount of 30%, and the second being two successive discounts
of 25% and 5%. What is the difference (in ₹) in the discounts of both the schemes if the customer did the shopping of ₹5,000
each in both the schemes?
Ans 1. 65

2. 62.50

3. 67.50

4. 70
Q.18 A cone of radius 16 cm and height 12 cm is cut, parallel to the base, at some height closer to the top. If the ratio of the
heights of the solids is 1∶ 3, then the ratio of the total surface areas of the two solids formed is approximately given by:
Ans 1. 1 : 8

2. 2 : 15

3. 7 : 180

4. 9 : 143

Q.19 The average weight of 20 boys is 60 kg. Together with 30 girls, the average weight of all boys and girls is 54 kg. What is the
average weight of 30 girls in kg?
Ans 1. 54

2. 52

3. 50

4. 55

Q.20 The ratio of prices of coffee and tea is 5 : 7 and the ratio of their quantities consumed by a family is 7 : 9. Find the ratio of
expenditures on coffee and tea.
Ans 1. 9 : 5

2. 7 : 9

3. 7 : 5

4. 5 : 9

Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements:
Some ants are flies.
All flies are bees.
Conclusions:
(I): No ant is a bee.
(II): Some ants are bees.
Ans 1. Only conclusion (II) follows.

2. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

3. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

4. Only conclusion (I) follows.

Q.2 A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order).Only two
people sit between E and F when counted from the right of E. Only two people sit between F and C. Only three people sit
between E and B. D sits to the immediate left of A. How many people sit between A and G when counted from the left of A?

Ans 1. 4

2. 3

3. 2

4. 1

Q.3 In a certain language, 'INCH' is coded as '9631', and 'THIN' is coded as '3269'. What is the code for ‘T’ in 'THIN'?
Ans 1. 9

2. 6

3. 2

4. 3
Q.4 NUQM is related to PWSO in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, JQMI is related to
LSOK. To which of the following is QXTP related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. ZSVR

2. ZSRV

3. SZRV

4. SZVR

Q.5 ODGM is related to NBFK in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, TAYP is related to
SYXN. To which of the following is RJFB related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. PFCC

2. RHDC

3. QHEZ

4. PGDD

Q.6 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order ?

BDG, HJM, NPS, TVY, ?

Ans 1. ACF

2. YAD

3. ZBE

4. XZC

Q.7 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into
1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
(8, 64, 2)
(12, 12, 1)
Ans 1. (4, 256, 4)

2. (10, 3426, 7)

3. (8, 722, 9)

4. (6, 214, 6)

Q.8 A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a round table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order). C is sitting to
the immediate left of A and immediate right of E. E is sitting to the immediate right of B. D is sitting to the immediate left of B
and immediate right of F. A is sitting to the immediate left of G. Who is sitting to the immediate right of G?
Ans 1. F

2. A

3. D

4. E

Q.9 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts,decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements:
All parrots are eagles.
Some parrots are ostriches.
Conclusions:
(I) Some eagles are parrots.
(II) Some eagles are ostriches.
Ans 1. Only conclusion II follows

2. Neither conclusion I nor II follows

3. Only conclusion I follows

4. Both conclusions I and II follow

Q.10 In a certain code language, ‘TURF’ is coded as ‘5691’ and ‘RAFT’ is coded as ‘6935’.
What is the code for ‘A’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 5

2. 9

3. 3

4. 6

Q.11

Ans

Q.12

Ans 1.

4.
Q.13 12 is related to 81 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 24 is related to 153. To which ofthe following is 19
related, following the same logic?(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbersinto its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13can be
performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1and 3 is not allowed)
Ans 1. 131

2. 123

3. 125

4. 129

Q.14 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

115 117 123 125 131 ?

Ans 1. 133

2. 132

3. 135

4. 134

Q.15 Select the option figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the figure given below, to complete the pattern.

Ans

Q.16 What will come in the place of ‘?’ in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘–’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?
5 + 3 – 10 × 2 ÷ 2 = ?
Ans 1. 13

2. 15

3. 17

4. 12
Q.17 Identify the figure given in the options which when put in place of (?) will logically complete the series.

Ans

Q.18 Which two numbers should be interchanged to make the given equation correct?
(24 ÷ 6) + (18 × 4) – 54 + 42 = 99
(Note: Interchange should be done of entire number and not individual digits of a given number)
Ans 1. 18 and 24

2. 54 and 42

3. 4 and 6

4. 24 and 54

Q.19 In a certain code language,‘legs hands ears’ is coded as ‘du ph bq’,‘hands eyes hearts’ is coded as ‘ak fd du’,‘ears hearts
arms’ is coded as ‘fd bq dy’. What is the code for‘eyes’ in that language?(Note: All the codes are two-letter coded only.)

Ans 1. du

2. ak

3. fd

4. ph
Q.20 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans
1.

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 In January 2023, the Warehouse Development Regulation Authority (WDRA) signed a memorandum of understanding with
_________________ of India to help farmers get low interest rate loans.
Ans 1. State Bank of India

2. Canara Bank

3. Bank of Baroda

4. Union Bank of India

Q.2 What is the standard length of an Olympic-size swimming pool?

Ans 1. 40 metres

2. 50 metres

3. 70 metres

4. 60 metres

Q.3 Geeta Chandran received the Padma Shri in 2007 who is an acclaimed ________ dancer.
Ans 1. Mohiniyattam

2. Sattriya

3. Odissi

4. Bharatanatyam

Q.4 As per Planning Commission of India, in 2004–05, the percentage of total population of India below poverty line (Lakadawala
Poverty Estimates combined) was:
Ans 1.

Q.5 Ustad Ghagge Khuda Baksh was associated with which of the following gharanas?
Ans 1. Benaras gharana

2. Delhi gharana

3. Agra gharana

4. Gwalior gharana
Q.6 Who among the following has written the famous novels (originally in Bangla) ‘Devdas’ and ‘Parineeta’?
Ans 1. Sarat Chandra Chattopadhyay

2. Bankim Chandra Chatterjee

3. Nabin Chandra Sen

4. Rabindra Nath Tagore

Q.7 Which of the following is considered as a day of mourning among the Muslim community?
Ans 1. Shab-e-Barat

2. Bakri Eid

3. Barah Wafat

4. Muharram

Q.8 Which Article of the Constitution of India lays down qualifications for the membership of the Parliament?
Ans 1. Article 84

2. Article 80

3. Article 85

4. Article 105

Q.9 Who among the following was the Viceroy of India during the announcement of the Partition of Bengal in 1905?
Ans 1. Lord Curzon

2. Lord Canning

3. Lord Hastings

4. Lord Dalhousie

Q.10 Who among the following was the captain of the Indian cricket team during the 1983 Cricket World Cup event?
Ans 1. Mohinder Amarnath

2. Kapil Dev

3. Sachin Tendulkar

4. Sandeep Patil

Q.11 Who first postulated that cells are generated from pre-existing cells?
Ans 1. Carl Linnaeus

2. Rudolf Virchow

3. William Harvey

4. Jennifer Doudna

Q.12 Who was the first feudatory of Pallavas?

Ans 1. Harshvardhan

2. Vijayalaya

3. Ashoka

4. Rajendra

Q.13 In October 2023, Raghubar Das has been appointed the Governor of which of the following states of India?
Ans 1. West Bengal

2. Maharashtra

3. Odisha

4. Chhattisgarh
Q.14

Ans 1. 1-(C); 2 -(D); 3 -(A); 4 -(B)

2. 1-(A); 2 -(B); 3 -(C); 4 -(D)

3. 1-(D); 2 -(C); 3 -(B); 4 -(A)

4. 1-(C); 2 -(A); 3 -(D); 4 -(B)

Q.15 Jaiminiya and Kausitaki dances are mentioned in which of the following?
Ans 1. Puranas

2. Vedas

3. Agamas

4. Brahmanas

Q.16 In which of the following states is shifting agriculture locally called Penda?
Ans 1. West Bengal

2. Madhya Pradesh

3. Orissa

4. Andhra Pradesh

Q.17

Ans 1. 1-d, 2-a, 3-b, 4-c

2. 1-d, 2-a, 3-c, 4-b

3. 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a

4. 1-d, 2-b, 3-a, 4-c

Q.18 It is observed that a child's heart rate is 135 times per minute. The beat frequency of heart is ____.
Ans 1. 2.25 Hz

2. 8100 Hz

3. 135 Hz

4. 1.12 Hz

Q.19 Which of the following is NOT an important function of the Supreme Court?
Ans 1. It acts to check on executive authorities and enforce the rule of law

2. It maintains of land records and revenue collection

3. It maintains federal equilibrium

4. It is the protector and guarantor of fundamental rights

Q.20 Recreation services are an example of _________.
Ans 1. inferior goods

2. intermediate goods

3. consumer goods

4. capital goods

Q.21 The Ebony, Mahogany, Cinchona etc. are trees found in which type of forests in India?
Ans 1. Mangrove Forests

2. Tropical Evergreen Forests

3. Thorny Forests

4. Tropical Deciduous Forests

Q.22 All living organisms on the Earth are made up of carbon compounds. Many years ago, dead and buried plants started slowly
modifying into coal under high temperature and high pressure. This process is called:
Ans 1. peat formation

2. carbonization

3. black gold formation

4. composting

Q.23 As per the National Multidimensional Poverty Index Report 2021, which of the following states has the least population
under poverty?
Ans 1. Tamil Nadu

2. Punjab

3. Himachal Pradesh

4. Sikkim

Q.24 Analgesic medicines are used for _________________.

Ans 1. reducing pain and in fever

2. correcting deficiencies due to vitamins and nutrients

3. killing or weakening microbes and infections

4. supporting physiological functions

Q.25 What kind of structures are generally used by Buddhists for containing remains of their monks and nuns?
Ans 1. Stupas

2. Viharas

3. Garbha griha

4. Grihas

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 Select the grammatically correct sentence.

Ans 1. It is an obvious that child needs love and attention of parents.

2. It is a obvious that child needs love and attention of parents.

3. It is the obvious that child needs love and attention of parents.

4. It is obvious that a child needs love and attention of parents.

Q.2 In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option
to fill in the blanks.
The touch-sensitive surface is one of the reasons why tablets and smart phones are so smart. All touchscreens generate an
electric field ______________ the screen. Your finger interferes with the field, and the device's operating system
______________ your touch or swipe.
Ans 1. onto; chases

2. beyond; escorts

3. past; attends

4. across; follows

Q.3 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word.

Ritesh remarked, "Honesty is a great virtue."

Ans 1. Wickedness

2. Rectitude

3. Integrity

4. Probity

Q.4 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

A room in a hospital used especially for sunbathing or therapeutic exposure to light

Ans 1. Solarium

2. Sanatorium

3. Planetarium

4. Podium

Q.5 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Exemplary
Ans 1. Average

2. Ordinary

3. Bad

4. Excellent

Q.6 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
Maria was unhappy / because she terribly performed / in the examination / conducted last month.
Ans 1. conducted last month

2. in the examination

3. because she terribly performed

4. Maria was unhappy

Q.7 Correct the underlined part of the sentence.

The rabbit runs fastly.

Ans 1. as fast as

2. fast

3. fastest

4. faster

Q.8 Identify the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans 1. Condescend

2. Alliteration

3. Banquet

4. Deliverence
Q.9 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given word.
Improbable
Ans 1. Implausible

2. Practical

3. Plausible

4. Tenable

Q.10 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

There was no one left in the world whom they could call _______.
Ans 1. there's

2. their

3. their's

4. theirs

Q.11 The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error. Select the part that contains the error
from the given options. If you don’t find any error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer.
She was amazed by / the unique architecture of / the Sydney Opera House.
Ans 1. the Sydney Opera House

2. She was amazed by

3. the unique architecture of

4. No error

Q.12 In the following sentence the underlined part contains as error. Alternatives to the underlined part are given as options.
Select the correct alternative.
It is very hottest over here.
Ans 1. hot

2. most hot

3. hotter

4. more hot

Q.13 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

It's raining cats and dogs.
Ans 1. The rain is very light.

2. There are cats and dogs in the rain.

3. It's raining very heavily.

4. It's a perfect day for a picnic.

Q.14 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the word in brackets to fill in the blank.
He spoke softly and ____________ (tensely), trying to diffuse the tense situation.
Ans 1. excitingly

2. madly

3. furiously

4. calmly

Q.15 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans 1. Conscientous

2. Achieve

3. Necessary

4. Committee
Q.16 Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word.
He is reluctant to do the work.
Ans 1. disposed

2. eager

3. happy

4. hesitant

Q.17 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank and complete the expression.

I begin to pronounce the sequence of words and numbers that will prevent her from giving him a piece of her ____________.
Ans 1. art

2. mind

3. music

4. cake

Q.18 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

He told / his senior, "I / will sung a song / at the party tonight."
Ans 1. will sung a song

2. He told

3. his senior, "I

4. at the party tonight."

Q.19 Select the correctly spelt word to fill in the blank and make the sentence meaningful.
Anuradha travelled to Italy last summer and _____________________ the historic ruins of Rome.
Ans 1. explored

2. explaured

3. acsplored

4. explord

Q.20 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The students were captivated by the __________ story told by their teacher.
Ans 1. superfluous

2. compelling

3. obsolete

4. mundane

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most
appropriate option to fill in each blank.
As community-minded creatures who want (1)_________________ to belong, we often mirror others,
including on social media, where we adopt phrasing, tone and expressions of emotion. In the past few years,
social media has had a (2)________________ on hyper positivity: think cheery emojis and
(3)____________________ quotes plastered over sunsets. Some put this 'good vibes only' trend down to the
pandemic and a (4)______________ to avoid painful feelings when (5)____________________ on difficult
realities. However, attempting to convey constant happiness is not only difficult but impossible.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans 1. deeply

2. laudatory

3. abiotically

4. crisply
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most
appropriate option to fill in each blank.
As community-minded creatures who want (1)_________________ to belong, we often mirror others,
including on social media, where we adopt phrasing, tone and expressions of emotion. In the past few years,
social media has had a (2)________________ on hyper positivity: think cheery emojis and
(3)____________________ quotes plastered over sunsets. Some put this 'good vibes only' trend down to the
pandemic and a (4)______________ to avoid painful feelings when (5)____________________ on difficult
realities. However, attempting to convey constant happiness is not only difficult but impossible.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans 1. focus

2. dispersion

3. blemish

4. disregard

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans 1. motivational

2. inobtrusive

3. deterring

4. reticent

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans 1. desire

2. listlessness

3. apathy

4. indolence
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most
appropriate option to fill in each blank.
As community-minded creatures who want (1)_________________ to belong, we often mirror others,
including on social media, where we adopt phrasing, tone and expressions of emotion. In the past few years,
social media has had a (2)________________ on hyper positivity: think cheery emojis and
(3)____________________ quotes plastered over sunsets. Some put this 'good vibes only' trend down to the
pandemic and a (4)______________ to avoid painful feelings when (5)____________________ on difficult
realities. However, attempting to convey constant happiness is not only difficult but impossible.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans 1. stagnating

2. collaborating

3. laminating

4. ruminating
Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 17/10/2024
Exam
12:30 PM - 2:30 PM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 It takes15 seconds for a 375-m long train to pass a pole. How long will it take to pass a 975-m long platform?
Ans 1. 72 seconds

2. 90 seconds

3. 54 seconds

4. 60 seconds

Q.2 When the price of a laptop was reduced by 15%, its sales increased by 10%. What was the net effect on the sale?
Ans 1. 6.5% decrease

2. 6.5% increase

3. 3.5% decrease

4. 3.5% increase

Q.3 In what proportion must a man mix milk worth₹3.3/litre with milk worth₹1.8/litre so that the mixture may be worth ₹2.4/litre?
Ans 1. 1 : 3

2. 2 : 3

3. 3 : 2

4. 4 : 5

Q.4

Ans
1.

Q.5 The average weight of a family of five members (in kg) whose weights are 40 kg, 49 kg, 56 kg, 71 kg and 38 kg is:
Ans 1. 50.8

2. 49.8

3. 51.8

4. 52.8
Q.6 Five athletes are weighed consecutively, and after each measurement, their average weight is calculated. If the average
weight increases by 1.5 kg each time, then how much heavier is the last player than the first player?
Ans 1. 10 kg

2. 15.5 kg

3. 12 kg

4. 18 kg

Q.7 Ramesh purchased a piano, marked at ₹18,000 at a successive discounts of 12% and 15%, respectively. Ramesh gave ₹536
as transportation charge and sold it at ₹21,000. What is his gain percentage?
Ans 1. 40%

2. 48%

3. 35%

4. 50%

Q.8 What is the cost of a tadpole required to make a conical tent with slant height 15 m and height 9 m, when one square meter
tadpole costs ₹147?
Ans 1. Rs.83,160

2. Rs.67,842

3. Rs.49,896

4. Rs.62,370

Q.9

Ans 1. 25%

2. 35%

3. 15%

4. 5%

Q.10 A thief steels a bike at 10:30 am and drives it at 50 km/hr. But the thief is found after half an hour. The bike owner started to
chase him by another bike at 60 km/hr. The time at which the thief is caught is:
Ans 1. 1: 30 pm

2. 12: 30 pm

3. 1: 00 pm

4. 2: 30 pm

Q.11 The greatest number of four digits which is divisible by each one of the numbers 15, 25, 40 and 75 is:
Ans 1. 9800

2. 9500

3. 9400

4. 9600

Q.12 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹2500 as a sum borrowed at 5% per year rate of interest for 3 years.
Ans 1. 335

2. 375

3. 315

4. 415
Q.13 A conical cavity is drilled in a solid circular cylinder of 7 cm height and 48 cm base diameter. The height and base diameter
of the cone are the same as those of the cylinder. What is the total surface area of the remaining solid?
Ans 1. 1512π cm2

2. 1420π cm2

3. 1654π cm2

4. 1076π cm2

Q.14 Rakesh obtained a simple interest of ₹3,195 on a certain principal in 6 years at the rate of 15% per annum. What amount of
simple interest would he get if he invested ₹1,250 more than the previous principal for 3 years at the same rate of interest?
Ans 1. ₹2,160

2. ₹2,255

3. ₹2,050

4. ₹2,400

Q.15 The following graph represents the production of electric scooters (in thousands) for the years 2020 and 2021 from five
manufacturers P, Q, R, S, and T.

The ratio of the average production by allmanufacturers in 2021 to the average production by allmanufacturers in 2020 is:
Ans 1. 14 : 15

2. 15 : 17

3. 17 : 13

4. 13 : 14

Q.16

Ans 1. 25,872 m3

2. 28,747 m3

3. 17,248 m3

4. 12,936 m3
Q.17 Shankar comes to buy a T-shirt in a showroom. He purchases a shirt which costs ₹1,020 after a discount. He pays his bill in
the form of 50 paise, 20 paise and 10 paise coins in the ratio 2 : 3 : 4 (assume for the sake of the problem). What is the
number of 10 paise coins he used to pay his bill?
Ans 1.

2.
3.

Q.18 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹2000 as a sum borrowed at 7% per year rate of interest for 6 years.
Ans 1. 780

2. 840

3. 880

4. 800

Q.19 The average age of a class of 39 students is 20 years. If the age of the teacher is included, then the average increases by 6
months. Find the age of the teacher (in years).
Ans 1. 50

2. 30

3. 45

4. 40

Q.20

Ans 1. B and D

2. Band C

3. C and E

4. A and D

Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1

Ans

Q.2 OT11 is related to PU15 in a certain way. In the same way, WB21 is related to XC25. To which of the following is DI31 related,
following the same logic?
Ans 1. EJ35

2. EJ53

3. EF53

4. DJ35

Q.3 What will come in the place of ‘?’ in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘–‘ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?
14 ÷ 6 + 9 × 3 − 2 = ?
Ans 1. 76

2. 83

3. 75

4. 81
Q.4 ead the given statements and conclusions carefully. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to
R
be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which conclusion/s logically follow/s from the given
statements.
Statements:
All boxes are glasses. All glasses are cups. Some cups are bottles.
Conclusions:
(I): All boxes are cups.
(II): Some glasses are bottles.
Ans 1. Both conclusions I and II follow.

2. Neither conclusion I nor II follows.

3. Only conclusion I follows.

4. Only conclusion II follows.

Q.5 Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series and complete
the pattern.

Ans

4.
Q.6 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans
1.

Q.7 In a certain code,‘curtain door window’ is coded as ‘la ph ba’,‘lock window key’ is coded as ‘ep zm la’,‘key curtain handle’ is
coded as ‘fd ba zm’. What is the code for ‘curtain’ in that language?(Note: All the codes are two-letter coded only.)
Ans 1. ep

2. ba

3. la

4. zm

Q.8 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?

GJD ,IHH, KFL, MDP, ?

Ans 1. OBS

2. OBT

3. PAT

4. PBT

Q.9 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

219 222 227 234 ? 254

Ans 1. 243

2. 244

3. 242

4. 241

Q.10 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

(37, 58, 100)

(35, 70, 110)
Ans 1. (85, 75, 65)

2. (8, 13, 26)

3. (74, 33, 12)

4. (43, 44, 132)

Q.11 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘−‘ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are
interchanged?
66 × 6 − 15 ÷ 3 + 9 = ?
Ans 1. 48

2. 47

3. 46

4. 49

Statements:
Some books are wood.
All wood is fire.

Conclusions:
(I) Some fire is wood.
(II) All books are fire.
Ans 1. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows

2. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow

3. Only conclusion (I) follows

4. Only conclusion (II) follows

Q.13 A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order).
Only one person sits between D and A when counted from the right of D. Only one person sits between A and B. Only one
person sits between D and G. Only two people sit between E and B, when counted from the right of E. Only one person sits
between F and G.
Who sits third to the right of C ?

Ans 1. D

2. F

3. A

4. B

Q.14 In a certain code language, ‘this is book’ is written as ‘lo mo ro’ and ‘this is me’ is written as ‘mo lo po’. How is ‘me’ written in
the given code language?
Ans 1. po

2. ro

3. mo

4. lo
Q.15 Identify the figure given in the options which when put in place of ? will logically complete the series.

Ans

Q.16 In a certain code language, ‘FITCH’ is coded as ‘47601’ and ‘DITCH’ is coded as ‘70619’. What is the code for ‘D’ in the given
code language?
Ans 1. 1

2. 0

3. 9

4. 7

Q.17 17 is related to 119 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 31 is related to 217. To which of the following is 32
related, following the same logic?

(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding / subtracting / multiplying, etc., to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13
into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans 1. 228

2. 226

3. 230

4. 224
Q.18 A, D, K, N, Y and Z are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order). Z is sitting
third to the right of D. K is not the immediate neighbour of Z. A is sitting second to the left of Z. N is not the immediate
neighbour of A.
Who is the immediate neighbour of both between A and K?
Ans 1. D

2. N

3. Y

4. Z

Q.19 In a certain code language, ‘complete the task’ is written as ‘je tc xo’ and ‘work is complete’ is coded as ‘xo ig lx’. How is
‘complete’ coded in the given language?
Ans 1. je

2. xo

3. tc

4. lx

Q.20 IOZU is related to HNYT in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, PDYC is related to OCXB.
To which of the following is EJSW related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. DIRW

2. DJSV

3. DIRV

4. EIRV

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 Devendra Fadnavis became the ___________ of the state of Maharashtra on 30th June 2022.
Ans 1. Chief Minister

2. Chief Justice of High Court

3. Deputy Chief Minister

4. Governor

Q.2 What is the full form of INSAT?

Ans 1. Indian National Standard System

2. Indian National Satellite System

3. International Navigation Satellite System

4. Indian Navigational Satellite System

Q.3 As per the treaty of Purandar, how many forts were surrendered by Shivaji to Mughals?
Ans 1. 18

2. 23

3. 11

4. 35

Q.4 'Unbreakable' is an autobiography of _________________ published in 2013.

Ans 1. Geeta Phogat

2. Abhinav Bindra

3. Milkha Singh

4. MC Mary Kom
Q.5 Where does the cash grants in aid from foreign countries are classified?
Ans 1. Tax revenue

2. Non-tax revenue

3. Capital receipt

4. Revenue expenditure

Q.6 What is the chemical reaction that occurs when sugar is heated and turns into a caramel syrup?
Ans 1. Maillard reaction

2. Precipitation

3. Neutralisation

4. Caramelisation

Q.7

Ans 1. a-(iii), b-(i), c-(ii), d-(iv)

2. a-(ii), b-(iv), c-(iii), d-(i)

3. a-(iv), b-(iii), c-(i), d-(ii)

4. a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iv), d-(iii)

Q.8 In a laterite soil profile, which of the following elements is present in an excessive amount?
Ans 1. feldspar

2. Iron

3. Lime

4. Nitrogen

Q.9 The Fundamental Rights Sub-Committee of the Constituent Assembly was headed by ____________.
Ans 1. JB Kripalani

2. Harnam Singh

3. Alladi Krushnaswami Ayyar

4. Jawaharlal Nehru

Q.10 The Hathigumpha Inscription was inscribed in which of the following historical regions of India?
Ans 1. Kalinga

2. Taxila

3. Suvarnagiri

4. Vaishali
Q.11 The transportation mechanism in cells by which food or other useful molecules from the outside are carried inside the cell
is known as _______________.
Ans 1. Osmosis

2. Endocytosis

3. Exocytosis

4. Fusion

Q.12 The number of Rajya Sabha members to be elected from each State of India has been fixed by the _________ Schedule of
the Constitution.
Ans 1. Fourth

2. Sixth

3. Third

4. Eighth

Q.13 At what temperature do Celsius and Fahrenheit scales have the same value?
Ans
1.

Q.14 In which year was the first session of the Indian National Congress held?
Ans 1. 1885

2. 1887

3. 1882

4. 1886

Q.15 In which of the following months is the Konark Dance festival organised in Odisha?
Ans 1. January

2. December

3. March

4. June

Q.16 Which of the following para athletes is associated with the javelin throw event?
Ans 1. Sharad Kumar

2. Devendra Jhajharia

3. Pramod Bhagat

4. Karamjyoti Dalal

Q.17 ‘Bayalata’ is a famous folk dance of which of the following Indian states?
Ans 1. Bihar

2. Punjab

3. Himachal Pradesh

4. Karnataka

Q.18 National Urban Livelihood Mission (NULM) was launched in which of the following Five Year plans?
Ans 1. Sixth Five Year Plan

2. Tenth Five Year Plan

3. Twelfth Five Year Plan

4. Eighth Five Year Plan

Q.19 Which of the following States/Union Territories is NOT a part of Indus River Basin?
Ans 1. Ladakh

2. Himachal Pradesh

3. Sikkim

4. Jammu and Kashmir

Q.20 When was ‘Nai Chetna-Pahal Badlav Ki’ campaign launched?

Ans 1. March 2023

2. December 2022

3. November 2022

4. January 2023

Q.21 Which of the following events took place in the year 1928?
Ans 1. Kheda Satyagraha

2. Bardoli Satyagraha

3. Dandi March

4. Kakori Incident

Q.22 Who among the following is known as the 'Mozart of Madras'?

Ans 1. Shankar Mahadevan

2. AR Rahman

3. Ilaiyaraaja

4. MM Kreem

Q.23 Under the influence of the Greeks, which of the following art styles flourished in India?
Ans 1. Amravati

2. Kandhar

3. Mathura

4. Gandhar

Q.24 According to Census 2011 of India, which Union Territory has the second highest percentage of urban population?
Ans 1. Chandigarh

2. Daman and Diu

3. Puducherry

4. Delhi

Q.25 Sachin Tendulkar scored his 100th international century against which country?
Ans 1. Australia

2. England

3. Bangladesh

4. Pakistan

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined word in the given sentence.

Reduced price of cooking gas brought happy to the face of every citizen.
Ans 1. happily

2. happiest

3. happier

4. happiness
Q.2 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.
Delay
Ans 1. Intervene

2. Hasten

3. Wait

4. Lag

Q.3 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans 1. Idol

2. Machinary

3. Motto

4. Hymn

Q.4 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
In addition with / the existing crisis in economy, / the rise of hunger index / is another cause of worry.
Ans 1. the existing crisis in economy

2. In addition with

3. the rise of hunger index

4. is another cause of worry

Q.5 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to
substitute it, select 'No substitution required'.

Rishi Sunak, the Prime Minister of the United Kingdom and Leader of the Conservative Party, was born into Southampton to
parents of Indian descent who immigrated to Britain from East Africa in the 1960s.
Ans 1. No substitution required

2. was born with

3. was born on

4. was born in

Q.6 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

My sister Mona / never drinks coffee; / she prefer tea / in the morning.
Ans 1. in the morning

2. My sister Mona

3. never drinks coffee;

4. she prefer tea

Q.7 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

The team was gradually realising that the social gatherings were draining.
Ans 1. flippant

2. absorbing

3. unfruitful

4. frivolous

Q.8 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Beat around the bush
Ans 1. To speak convincingly

2. To speak abusively

3. To avoid getting to the point of an issue

4. To speak rashly
Q.9 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word in the given sentence.
The neighbour came in disgoise and attacked her children.
Ans 1. disgoise

2. children

3. attacked

4. neighbour

Q.10 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word in the given sentence.

Many biologists have stated the fact that most of the herbs are perinnial and have healing qualities with added flavour.
Ans 1. Perinnial

2. Healing

3. Qualities

4. Biologists

Q.11 Read the following sentence and select its future tense form from the following options.

The food company promoted newly launched products at affordable prices.

Ans 1. The food company promotes newly launched products at affordable prices.

2. The food company will be promoting newly launched products at affordable prices.

3. The food company had promoted newly launched products at affordable prices.

4. The food company is promoting newly launched products at affordable prices.

Q.12 Select the most appropriate adverb to fill in the blank.

The explorers trekked __________ through the dense jungle.

Ans 1. before

2. rarely

3. bravely

4. ever

Q.13 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The inclusion of Durga Puja in the UNESCO's list of Intangible Cultural Heritage was only possible due to the arduous
________ of all stakeholders.
Ans 1. efforts

2. ignorance

3. affects

4. passivity

Q.14 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

In order to maintain good governance, every government servant must be held ______ for his/her decisions.
Ans 1. accountable

2. irresponsible

3. unaccountable

4. flexible

Q.15 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the bracketed word to fill in the blank.

The rainbow arched gracefully across the sky, painting it in __________ (lifeless) hues.
Ans 1. spiritual

2. ashless

3. vibrant

4. muted
Q.16 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
Most probably, / he come / to office / next Tuesday.
Ans 1. to office

2. he come

3. most probably

4. next Tuesday

Q.17 Select the option that will improve the underlined part of the given sentence.

The bishop sadly declared that the poor gentleman who was dead was quieter of the community.
Ans 1. quiet

2. the quieter

3. most quiet

4. the quietest

Q.18 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the highlighted word in the given sentence.
The author's writing style is characterised by a subtle and nuanced use of language.
Ans 1. Elaborate

2. Elegant

3. Sturdy

4. Delicate

Q.19 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Pacify
Ans 1. Enrage

2. Negate

3. Restore

4. Amuse

Q.20 Select the option that will improve the underlined part of the given sentence.

The moment James saw Regena, he fell head on to his heels in love with her.
Ans 1. head over heels

2. heads in the heels

3. heels of the head

4. head and heels

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most
appropriate option to fill in each blank.
We’re a society fixated on numbers. So, it’s no (1)_______ we use measurements and equations to score our
weight. The most (2)_______ is BMI, a measure of our body weight to height ratio. BMI (3)_______ bodies as
underweight, normal or healthy weight, overweight or obese and can be a useful tool for weight and health
(4)_______. But it shouldn’t be used as the single (5)_______ of what it means to be a healthy weight when
we set our weight loss goals.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans 1. surprise

2. resolution

3. persistence

4. vibrance
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most
appropriate option to fill in each blank.
We’re a society fixated on numbers. So, it’s no (1)_______ we use measurements and equations to score our
weight. The most (2)_______ is BMI, a measure of our body weight to height ratio. BMI (3)_______ bodies as
underweight, normal or healthy weight, overweight or obese and can be a useful tool for weight and health
(4)_______. But it shouldn’t be used as the single (5)_______ of what it means to be a healthy weight when
we set our weight loss goals.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans 1. uncharted

2. indistinct

3. imprecise

4. popular

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans 1. speculates

2. classifies

3. dissuades

4. meanders

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans 1. landing

2. planting

3. screening

4. hastening
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most
appropriate option to fill in each blank.
We’re a society fixated on numbers. So, it’s no (1)_______ we use measurements and equations to score our
weight. The most (2)_______ is BMI, a measure of our body weight to height ratio. BMI (3)_______ bodies as
underweight, normal or healthy weight, overweight or obese and can be a useful tool for weight and health
(4)_______. But it shouldn’t be used as the single (5)_______ of what it means to be a healthy weight when
we set our weight loss goals.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans 1. evanesce

2. measure

3. serendipity

4. wobble
Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 17/10/2024
Exam
4:00 PM - 5:30 PM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 A well with an internal diameter 10 m is dug to a depth of 10 m. Earth taken out of it is spread all around the well to a width
of 12 m to form an embankment. What is the height (in m, rounded off to 2 decimal places) of the embankment?
Ans 1. 0.88

2. 0.95

3. 1.12

4. 1.02

Q.2 Refer the following data table and answer the question.
Day of the week Distance jogged (in kms)
Monday 3.5
Tuesday 4
Wednesday 4.2
Thursday 5.3
Friday 6.1
Saturday 3
Sunday 5.9

If 750 calories are burnt by jogging 6 km, how many calories were burnt in the given week?
Ans 1. 2500

2. 3500

3. 4000

4. 3000

Q.3 A dealer marked the price of an item 30% above the cost price. He allowed two successive discounts of 15% and 20% to a
particular customer. As a result, he incurred a loss of ₹696. At what price did he sell the item to the customer?
Ans 1. ₹7,805

2. ₹5,304

3. ₹6,205

4. ₹4,904

Q.4 Amithab has scored an average of 72 runs in his six interschool matches. In the next match, he scored 96 runs. What is his
revised average score?
Ans 1. 75

2. 74

3. 75.3

4. 75.428
Q.5 If the radius of the base of a right circular cylinder is reduced to one-third, keeping the height same, what is the ratio of the
volume of the reduced cylinder to that of the original?
Ans 1. 1 : 9

2. 1 : 2

3. 2 : 3

4. 2 : 4

Q.6

Ans
1.

Q.7 A thief is noticed by a policeman from a distance of 150 m. The thief starts running, and the policeman chases him. The thief
and the policeman run at the rate of 8 m/s and 10 m/s, respectively. Find the distance travelled by the thief before being
caught.
Ans 1. 600 m

2. 700 m

3. 550 m

4. 500 m

Q.8 Raima saves 14% from her income of ₹35,000. How much is her expenditure (in ₹)?
Ans 1. 28600

2. 32000

3. 34000

4. 30100

Q.9 The average of 70 values is 40. If each value is multiplied by 20, what will be the changed average?
Ans 1. 1400

2. 90

3. 800

4. 60

Q.10 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹3000 as a sum borrowed at 7% per year rate of interest for 3 years.
Ans 1. 570

2. 630

3. 670

4. 590
Q.11

Ans 1. 100 m

2. 200 m

3. 150 m

4. 350 m

Q.12 What sum (in ₹) will earn a simple interest of ₹360 in 2 years at 8% per year rate of interest?
Ans 1. 4500

2. 3000

3. 2250

4. 1125

Q.13

Ans
1.

Q.14 A length of a violin string varies inversely with respect to the frequency of its vibrations. The frequency of a 14-inch-long
violin string is 450 cycles per second. Find the frequency of a 12-inch violin string.
Ans 1. 515 cycles per second

2. 510 cycles per second

3. 520 cycles per second

4. 525 cycles per second

Q.15 Study the following graph carefully and answer the question given below it.

In which of the following years was the percentage increase in production from the previous year the maximum among the
given years?
Ans 1. 1990

2. 1993

3. 1995

4. 1991

Q.16 A shopkeeper marks his goods k% more than their cost price. If the shopkeeper allows a 20% discount and still gains 25%,
then find the value of k.
Ans
1.

Q.17 If two kinds of resins costing ₹160 per kg and ₹210 per kg are mixed in the ratio of
2 : 3, then find the cost (in ₹) of the mixture per kg.
Ans 1. 190

2. 200

3. 185

4. 180

Q.18 A person invested a certain sum of money at 6% per annum simple interest and another sum at 8% per annum simple
interest at the same time. After 4 years, he received interest ₹1,560 from both sums. One-fifth of the first sum is equal to
one-sixth of the second sum. Find the total sum invested.
Ans 1. ₹6,000

2. ₹5,500

3. ₹5,000

4. ₹4,500

Q.19 The side of a square exceeds the side of another square by 3 cm and the sum of the areas of the two squares is 225 cm2 .
Find the sum of the perimeter (in cm) of both squares.
Ans 1. 94

2. 74

3. 84

4. 64
Q.20 The average weight of a group of 8 people is 70 kg. After a new person joins the group, the average weight becomes 72 kg.
What is the weight (in kg) of the new person?
Ans 1. 86

2. 89

3. 87

4. 88

Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1 Select the figure from the given options, which when put in place of the question mark (?) will logically complete the series.

Ans

Q.2 326 is related to 335 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 419 is related to 428. To which of the following is
566 related, following the same logic?

(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding / subtracting / multiplying, etc., to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13
into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans 1. 582

2. 599

3. 575

4. 571
Q.3

Ans

Q.4 KB 9 is related to ED 2 in a certain way. In the same way, XF 11 is related to RH 4. To which of the following is UH 8 related,
following the same logic?
Ans 1. OK 1

2. OK 3

3. OJ 3

4. OJ 1

Q.5 A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table facing the centre(but not necessarily in the same order). F is sitting
third to the left of A. A is sitting second to the left of G. G is sitting to the immediate right of E. B is sitting to the immediate
left of D. What is the position of F with respect to E?
Ans 1. Immediate left

2. Third to the right

3. Immediate right

4. Second to the left

Q.6 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans
1.

Q.7 LQ87 is related to VA55 in a certain way. In the same way, QV59 is related to AF27. To which of the following is BG49 related,
following the same logic?
Ans 1. LQ18

2. LQ17

3. LQ19

4. QL17

Q.8 In a certain code language, ‘LIKE’ is coded as ‘4682’ and ‘BEAM’ is coded as ‘1358’.What is the code for ‘E’ in the given code
language?
Ans 1. 5

2. 8

3. 2

4. 3

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into
1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

1, 66
1
26, 156
Ans 1. 20, 130

2. 18, 108

3. 15, 75

4. 26, 152

Q.10 T, N, S, P, R and M are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order). S is sitting
second to the left of T. Only two people are sitting between S and R. M is not the immediate neighbour of S. P is sitting
second to the right of R.
How many people are sitting between N and M, when counted from the right of N?
Ans 1. Four

2. Two

3. Three

4. One
Q.11 In a certain code language, ‘TREE’ is coded as ‘POCD’ and ‘FOOT’ is coded as ‘BLMS’. How will ‘MIND’ be coded in the same
language?
Ans 1. IFLC

2. IEKD

3. JEKD

4. JFLD

Q.12 What will come in place of the question mark (?) of the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are
interchanged?

45 × 3 + 9 – 18 ÷ 1 = ?
Ans 1. 24

2. 12

3. 15

4. 6

Q.13 Select the option figure in which the given figure is embedded as its part (rotation is NOT allowed).

Ans

4.
Q.14 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
All doors are locks.
Some locks are handles,

Conclusions:
(I) All handles are locks.
(II) No door is a handle.
Ans 1. Only conclusion I follows

2. Only conclusion II follows

3. Neither conclusion I nor II follows

4. Both conclusions I and II follow

Q.15 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series?
255, 248, 241, 234 ,227, ?
Ans 1. 220

2. 221

3. 217

4. 207

Q.16 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statement(s).
Statements: All cabbages are roses. All cabbages are tulips.
Conclusions: (I) At least some tulips are roses.
(II) All roses are cabbages.
Ans 1. Only conclusion (II) follows

2. Only conclusion (I) follows

3. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows

4. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow

Q.17 In a certain code language, ‘apple pen card’ is coded as ‘136’, ‘doctor no apple’ is coded as ‘243’ and ‘card is blocked’ is
coded as ‘695’. How is ‘apple’ coded in the given code language?
Ans 1. 6

2. 1

3. 3

4. 4

Q.18 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?

PKQ ,OJP, NIO ,MHN, ?

Ans 1. MGL

2. NGL

3. LGN

4. LGM

Q.19 Which two signs should be interchanged to make the given equation correct?
11 × 7 − 48 + 6 ÷ 37 = 106
Ans 1. − and ×

2. + and ×

3. − and +

4. ÷ and +
Q.20 In a code language, ‘I want food’ is written as ' sickota dongre dujubu’, ‘I want drink’ is written as ‘bluto sickota dujubu',
‘food and drink’ is written as ‘dongre peppin bluto’, then what is the code for the word 'peppin' in this language?
Ans 1. and

2. food

3. drink

4. I

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 In Harappan civilisation, cities were planned with the streets generally oriented along the __________ directions.
Ans 1. incognito

2. anonymous

3. cardinal

4. ordinal

Q.2 Rabindranath Tagore referred to ____________ as Nritya Samragini, which translates to 'the empress of dance'.
Ans 1. Mrinalini Sarabhai

2. Rukmini Arundale

3. Gangu Bai

4. Sitara Devi

Q.3 Ujjwala was the mascot of which national sports event held in 2023?
Ans 1. Khelo India Para Games 2023

2. Khelo India Youth Games 2023

3. National Games 2023

4. Khelo India University Games 2022

Q.4 Who among the following received the Padma Shri 2021 for Panthi folk dance?
Ans 1. Bhuri Bai

2. Gulfam Ahmed

3. Jagdish Chaudhary

4. Radhe Shyam Barle

Q.5 In june 2022, Eknath Sambhaji Shinde became the Chief Minister of which of the following states?
Ans 1. Gujarat

2. Haryana

3. Maharashtra

4. Rajasthan

Q.6 The term 'Aus', 'Aman' and 'Boro' are associated with which crop in India?
Ans 1. Paddy

2. Maize

3. Jute

4. Wheat

Q.7 Which of the following Mughal emperors issued silver coins in the honour of his wife Mehrunnisa?
Ans 1. Akbar

2. Aurangzeb

3. Jahangir

4. Humayun
Q.8 To which of the following groups do whales belong?
Ans 1. Pisces

2. Arthropoda

3. Amphibia

4. Mammalia

Q.9 The weaker warm storms that grow stronger over time are finally converted into huge storms or hurricanes. Which of the
following climate regions is the origin of such hurricanes?
Ans 1. Tropical climate region

2. Arid climate region

3. Continental climate region

4. Semi-arid climate region

Q.10 Anorexia Nervosa is an eating disorder characterised by _________.

a) an abnormally heavy body weight
b) an intense fear of losing weight
c) a distorted perception of weight
d) trying to lose weight by exercising excessively
Ans 1. c and d

2. a and c

3. b and c

4. a and b

Q.11 Which Census decade recorded the highest population growth rate (in terms of percentage) in India?
Ans 1. 2001-2011

2. 1941-1951

3. 1971-1981

4. 1961-1971

Q.12 In which of the following states is the Bissu Mela organised to thank Santoora Devi for the good harvest?

Ans 1. Haryana

2. Himachal Pradesh

3. Punjab

4. Uttarakhand

Q.13 Which of the following Fundamental Rights entails trafficking of human beings and forced labour?
Ans 1. Right to Equality

2. Cultural and Educational Rights

3. Rights against Exploitation

4. Right to Freedom
Q.14 Which of the following is the correct statement about the Rajya Sabha?
Ans 1. It is known as the lower house of the parliament.

2. The term of the members is for 5 years.

3. It is known as the Council of the States.

4. All the members are directly elected by the people.

Q.15 Buddhadev Dasgupta was a famous instrumentalist of which of the following instrument?
Ans 1. Sarod

2. Santoor

3. Surbahar

4. Sitar

Q.16 Who among the following founded the 'Satyashodhak Samaj' in 1873?
Ans 1. Vinayak Damodar Savarkar

2. Jyotiba Phule

3. Gopal Ganesh Agarkar

4. Vinoba Bhave

Q.17 Who among the following founded the Asiatic Society of Bengal?
Ans 1. Warren Hastings

2. Henry Colebrook

3. Robert Clive

4. William Jones

Q.18 India launched the ‘National Social Assistance Programme’ in:

Ans 1. 1990

2. 1985

3. 2000

4. 1995

Q.19 In Union Budget 2023, a sub-scheme of which of the following Yojanas has been proposed with the investment of ₹6,000
crore to enable activities of fishermen, fish vendors and micro and small enterprises?
Ans 1. PM Matsya Sampada Yojana

2. PM Fasal Bima Yojana

3. PM Ujjwala Yojana

4. PM Mudra Yojana

Q.20 How many chances does a high jumper get for overcoming a certain height?
Ans 1. Six chances

2. Two chances

3. Four chances

4. Three chances

Q.21 The Iron Age site named Tekwada is located in _________.

Ans 1. Tamil Nadu

2. Andhra Pradesh

3. Maharashtra

4. Madhya Pradesh
Q.22 What is the percentage of 's' character in the carbon atom of acetylene?
Ans 1. 50%

2. 75%

3. 33.33%

4. 25%

Q.23 Which of the following is NOT a physiographic division of India?

Ans 1. The Himalayan Mountains

2. The Peninsular Plateau

3. The Tibetan Plateau

4. The Northern Plains

Q.24 The author of the Hindi novel ‘Kohre Mein Kaid Rang’ is:
Ans 1. Kamleshwar

2. Govind Mishra

3. Uday Prakash

4. Chitra Mudgal

Q.25 Which type of loan is supported by MUDRA?

Ans 1. Primary loan

2. Non-farm loan

3. Real estate loan

4. Corporate loan

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. Select the option that contains an error.

Rose painted the most beautifullest picture ever at the art class today!
Ans 1. art class today!

2. the most beautifullest

3. picture ever at the

4. Rose painted

Q.2 Select the most appropriate to substitute the underlined word in the given sentence.
Rohit asked Nita what was the most intriguing book she has read recently.
Ans 1. encircled

2. subdued

3. tedious

4. arraigned

Q.3 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word...

Ans 1. Cheerful

2. Battle

3. Comfortable

4. Depresed
Q.4 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

Everyone disliked the new CEO, Kushal, but nobody is ready to put themselves in dangerous situation by telling him their
feelings.
Ans 1. rule the roost

2. pull a long face

3. bell the cat

4. sit on the fence

Q.5 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The ancient Greeks and pagans used to worship natural _________ as Gods and Goddesses.
Ans 1. instincts

2. mixtures

3. impulses

4. elements

Q.6 Select the most appropriate idiom that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.
Most women are facing the same problem when it comes to job satisfaction because of the pay parity in institutions.
Ans 1. comparing apples to oranges

2. in the same boat

3. armchair experts

4. a drop in the ocean

Q.7 Select the grammatically correct sentence.

Ans 1. An intrepid explorer stumbled upon the uncharted cavern deep within a heart of the rainforest.

2. The intrepid explorer stumbled upon an uncharted cavern deep within a heart of the rainforest.

3. An intrepid explorer stumbled upon an uncharted cavern deep within the heart of the rainforest.

4. The intrepid explorer stumbled upon the uncharted cavern deep within the heart of the rainforest.

Q.8 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

I am calling to thank you _________ the present you sent.
Ans 1. for

2. with

3. of

4. in

Q.9 Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word in the given sentence.

Any declarations or practices of religious antipathy against ethnic minorities in a democratic country should not be
tolerated.
Ans 1. Conformity

2. Devaluation

3. Enmity

4. Passivity

Q.10 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

My brother asked me, "Can I exchange my phone from you?"

Ans 1. my phone since yours

2. my phone off yours

3. my phone within yours

4. my phone with yours

Q.11 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in future perfect tense form.

I hope you wash all the clothes before you come into the house again.
Ans 1. I hope you will have wash all the clothes before you come into the house again.

2. I hope you will be washing all the clothes before you come into the house again.

3. I hope you shall wash all the clothes before you come into the house again

4. I hope you will have washed all the clothes before you come into the house again.

Q.12 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

He pressed the _________ just in time to avoid the accident.
Ans 1. beak

2. bike

3. brake

4. break

Q.13 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans 1. Kerbstone

2. Inflamous

3. Subjugator

4. Arrangement

Q.14 Select the grammatically correct sentence..

Ans 1. The traffic on the highway was heavy during an evening.

2. A traffic on the highway was heavy during an evening.

3. The traffic on the highway was heavy during the evening.

4. The traffic on a highway was heavy during an evening.

Q.15 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word.

Raju is lazy and smart, but he does not attend the classes.
Ans 1. lax

2. genius

3. industrious

4. snobbish

Q.16 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word..

Ans 1. Believe

2. Receive

3. Occurrance

4. Conscious

Q.17 Read the sentence given below and identify if there is an error in it. The error can be in any segment of the sentence which
are marked A, B, C, and D. Select option D if there is 'No error'.
(A) She sings / (B) the song / (C) beautiful in the party / (D) No error.
Ans 1. A

2. C

3. B

4. D
Q.18 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word in the given sentence.

Even if an unlaced shoe is spotless, it is not neat.

Ans 1. requisite

2. forged

3. agile

4. soiled

Q.19 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.
one who does something for pleasure
Ans 1. Aggressor

2. Atheist

3. Anarchist

4. Hedonist

Q.20 Correct the underlined part of the sentence.

This mango is bitterer.

Ans 1. bitterest

2. bitter

3. more bitter

4. most bitter

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

Newspapers are like mirrors (1)___________ the diverse facets of society, capturing the voices, stories, and events that define our
shared human experience. They serve as a forum (2)___________ dialogue, debate, and discussion, amplifying voices from all walks
of life and fostering (3)___________ sense of community. Beyond reporting news, newspapers also celebrate achievements, highlight
cultural (4)___________, and showcase human resilience in the face of adversity. They are archives of history, chronicling the
triumphs and trials of generations, and serving as a reminder of how far we have come and how much further we can go. In an age of
digital transformation, newspapers continue to (5)___________, adapting to new mediums while upholding the core values of
journalism: accuracy, integrity, and accountability.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans 1. reflect

2. reflecting

3. reflects

4. reflected

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans 1. on

2. for

3. into

4. by
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans 1. a

2. No article required

3. the

4. an

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans 1. richest

2. richness

3. richly

4. richer

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans 1. revolve

2. involve

3. evolve

4. dissolve
Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 18/10/2024
Exam
9:00 AM - 11:00 AM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 A shopkeeper sells a notebook that has a marked price of ₹80 at a discount of 8% and gives
a pen costing ₹8.60 free with each notebook. Even then he makes a profit of 17%. Find the
cost price of each note book correct to two places of decimals.
Ans 1. ₹45.35

2. ₹55.56

3. ₹51.32

4. ₹49.75

Q.2 What is the mean proportional between 9 and 25?

Ans 1. 34

2. 15

3. 17

4. 16

Q.3 x,y and z are divisible by 2,3 and 4, respectively. What is the highest common factor (HCF) of 6x,4y and 3z?
Ans 1. At least 12

2. At least 16

3. At least 18

4. At least 36

Q.4 The average of five numbers is 206. The average of two of them is 205. The average of another two of those numbers is
207.5. How many numbers can be accurately identified with this information?
Ans 1. None

2. Three

3. One

4. Two

Q.5

Ans 1. 6252.4 gm

2. 5264.2 gm

3. 5262.4 gm

4. 6254.2 gm
Q.6

Ans 1.

Q.7

Ans 1. 2

2. 1

3. 3

4. 0

Q.8 The average of some natural numbers is 27. If 69 is added to the first number and 12 is subtracted from the last number, the
average becomes 32.7, then the number of natural numbers is:
Ans 1. 5

2. 7

3. 10

4. 8

Q.9 By selling an article for ₹19.5, a dealer makes a profit of 30%. By how much should he increase his selling price (in ₹) so as
to make a profit of 50%?
Ans 1. 3

2. 5

3. 4

4. 6

Q.10 A thief is spotted by a policeman from a distance of 400 metres. When the policeman starts to chase the thief also starts
running. If the speed of the thief is18km/h and that of the policeman 20 km/h, then how far would the thief have run before
he is overtaken?
Ans 1. 1.8 km

2. 2.5 km

3. 3.6 km

4. 9 km
Q.11 The average weight of a family of five members (in kg) whose weights are 40 kg, 49 kg, 56 kg, 67 kg and 39 kg is:
Ans 1. 52.2

2. 50.2

3. 49.2

4. 51.2

Q.12 The price of a product increased by 20%. After some time, it decreased by 15%. What is the overall percentage change in the
price?
Ans 1. 3%

2. 2%

3. 4%

4. 1%

Q.13 Pushkar buys an article for ₹27.50 and sells it for ₹28.60. Find his gain percentage.
Ans 1.

Q.14 There are five persons with weights 58 kg, 38 kg, 45 kg, 34 kg and 55 kg. What is the average weight (in kg) of those persons
whose weight is less than the average weight of the five persons?
Ans 1. 39

2. 37

3. 43

4. 41

Q.15 Two bicycle riders started at a speed of 7 m/sec and 8 m/sec on a circular path in opposite directions at the same point. If
the circumference of the circle is 300 m, then in what time will they first meet?
Ans 1. 12 sec

2. 20 sec

3. 30 sec

4. 24 sec

Q.16 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹2500 as a sum borrowed at 6% per year rate of interest for 6 years.
Ans 1. 860

2. 840

3. 940

4. 900
Q.17 The bar graph given below shows the sale of toys (in thousands) from five branches of a manufacturer for two consecutive
years, 2021 and 2022.

Total sales of branch B4 for both years is what percentage of the total sales of branch B2 for both years? (up to two decimal
places)
Ans 1. 85.85%

2. 91.89%

3. 108.82%

4. 116.47%

Q.18 An iron ball of radius 20 cm is melted and recast into 64 spherical balls of same radius. Find the radius of each spherical
ball.
Ans 1. 7 cm

2. 5 cm

3. 6 cm

4. 8 cm

Q.19 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹3500 as a sum borrowed at 7% per year rate of interest for 2 years.
Ans 1. 530

2. 430

3. 490

4. 450

Q.20 From a square with area a2 another square made on mid points of the sides of the square is removed. What is the area left in
the square?
Ans
1.

Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1 15 is related to 92 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 18 is related to 110. To which of the following is 7
related, following the same logic?
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into
1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans 1. 67

2. 76

3. 44

4. 56

Q.2 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?

DXZ, HTV ,LPR ,PLN, ?

Ans 1. THK

2. THJ

3. SHJ

4. SHK

Q.3 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘+’ and ‘–’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are
interchanged?
135 × 5 – 12 ÷ 11 + 8 = ?
Ans 1. 169

2. 151

3. 136

4. 121

Q.4 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements:
All bowling are billiards.
Some billiards are not chess.
Conclusions:
[1] All chess are bowling.
[2] All billiards are chess.
Ans 1. Both conclusions [1] and [2] follow

2. Only conclusion [2] follows

3. Neither conclusion [1] nor [2] follows

4. Only conclusion [1] follows

Q.5 In a certain code language, ‘BOAT’ is coded as ‘5197’ and ‘AIRS’ is coded as ‘2418’.
What is the code for ‘A’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 1

2. 4

3. 2

4. 9
Q.6 Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

Ans

Q.7 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.

2. (3, 20, 5)

3. (2, 52, 32)

4. (4, 14, 2)

Q.8 U, V, W, X, Y, Z and A are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order).
Only three people sit between X and Y when counted from the left of X. Only three people sit between Z and U when counted
from the right of U. V sits to the immediate right of Z. W is an immediate neighbour of U as well as Y.
Who sits to the second to the left of A?
Ans 1. Z

2. W

3. U

4. Y

Q.9 In a certain code language, ‘does she hear’ is written as ‘mt sp dt’ and ‘hear the music’ is written as ‘rb mt ch’. What is the
code for ‘hear’ in that language?
Ans 1. rb

2. sp

3. ch

4. mt
Q.10 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans
1.

Q.11 Six boys A, B, C, D, E and F sit around a circular table facing towards the centre (not necessarily in the same order). Two
boys sit between B and F when counted either from the right or left of B. One boy sits between A and B when counted from
the right of A. E sits second to the left of A. D sits second to the left of C.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are not correct?
I. A is an immediate neighbour of D.
II. C is an immediate neighbour of F.
Ans 1. Only II

2. Only I

3. Neither I nor II

4. Both I and II

Q.12 HOJF is related to IPKG in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, KRMI is related to LSNJ.
To which of the following is MTOK related following the same logic?
Ans 1. NUPL

2. UNLP

3. NULP

4. UNPL

Q.13 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series?

4, 10 ,28, 82, 244, ?

Ans 1. 731

2. 734

3. 730

4. 732

Q.14 KPMI is related to LQNJ in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, NSPL is related to OTQM.
To which of the following is RWTP related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. XSQU

2. SXQU

3. SXUQ

4. XSUQ
Q.15 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
No child is a man.
No man is an adult.

Conclusions:
(I) Some men are child.
(II) No child is an adult.
Ans 1. Only conclusion I follows

2. Both conclusions I and II follow

3. Only conclusion II follows

4. Neither conclusion I nor II follow

Q.16 Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series and complete
the pattern.

Ans

Q.17 In a certain code language, ‘will you go’ is written as ‘ht dt gt’ and ‘you can go’ is written as ‘gt st dt’. How will ‘can’ be
written in the given code language?
Ans 1. ht

2. gt

3. dt

4. st
Q.18 Select the option in which the given figure is embedded (rotation is NOT allowed).

Ans

Q.19 In a certain code language, 'SAND' is coded as '2468' and 'WEST' is coded as '3574'.
What is the code for 'S' in the given code language?
Ans 1. 4

2. 8

3. 2

4. 7

Q.20 What will come in the place of ‘?’ in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘–‘ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?
4 ÷ 8 × 2 − 7 +3 = ?
Ans 1. 18

2. 15

3. 20

4. 16

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 Who among the following scholars gave reference to the history of Kashmir?
Ans 1. Kalhana

2. Kalidas

3. Harsha

4. Banbhatta

Q.2 ‘Ace Against Odds’ is the autobiography of a sports personality playing the game of ___________.
Ans 1. Tennis

2. Cricket

3. Badminton

4. Shooting

Q.3 Which inorganic compound is known to undergo solid state reaction to form urea?
Ans 1. Ammonium acetate

2. Ammonium nitrate

3. Ammonium cyanate

4. Ammonium phosphate

Q.4 Which of the following cultural festivals of Himachal Pradesh is organised on the auspicious occasion of Basant Panchami
at Hadimba Temple?
Ans 1. Doongri

2. Bisua

3. Mopin

4. Ziro

Q.5 Shovana Narayan, a Padma Shri recipient, is an exponent of ________.

Ans 1. Kuchipudi

2. Bharatanatyam

3. Sattriya

4. Kathak

Q.6 Which of the following states has the lowest child sex ratio according to Census of India, 2001?
Ans 1. Haryana

2. Himachal Pradesh

3. Uttarakhand

4. Kerala

Q.7 In May 2023, the Union Housing and Urban Affairs Ministry has extended the deadline of its Smart Cities Mission to
________.
Ans 1. June 2025

2. June 2027

3. June 2024

4. June 2026

Q.8 At which of the following places was the Indian Civil Service Examination held for the first time in India?
Ans 1. Delhi

2. Calcutta

3. Surat

4. Allahabad
Q.9 Which of the following is NOT an example of public goods?
Ans 1. Access to clean air

2. Law enforcement

3. National defence

4. Driveway at our home

Q.10
The excavated ruins of the Nalanda University indicate that bright red _____ was/were
used in its construction.
Ans 1. bricks

2. stone

3. granite

4. marble

Q.11 Despite being eligible for the job of a Legal Officer, Mr. X was not called for an interview for the aforementioned post. Which
of his rights was Mr. X unable to exercise?
Ans 1. Protection against arrest

2. Right to education

3. Equality before law

4. Equality of opportunity

Q.12 The Pitti Bird Sanctuary is located in which Union Territory/State of India?
Ans 1. Andaman and Nicobar Islands

2. Lakshadweep

3. Manipur

4. Tamil Nadu

Q.13 Which of the following factors is primarily responsible for soil formation?
Ans 1. Degradation

2. Irrigation

3. Mining

4. Weathering

Q.14 The classical dance form ‘Kathakali’ traces its origin to which of the following states of India?
Ans 1. Kerala

2. Andhra Pradesh

3. Tamil Nadu

4. Odisha

Q.15 The author of ‘Arthashastra’ was a contemporary of which of the following rulers?
Ans 1. Samudragupta

2. Ashoka

3. Chandragupta Maurya

4. Chandragupta Vikramaditya

Q.16 As per Census 2011, which of the following states recorded negative growth in child sex ratio?
Ans 1. Punjab

2. Maharashtra

3. Himachal Pradesh

4. Haryana
Q.17 Sunil Chhetri made history by becoming the first Indian to score a hat-trick in the Hero ISL, which came in the ________
edition.
Ans 1. 2015

2. 2014

3. 2016

4. 2013

Q.18 Where was the Hindustani classical singer Kumar Gandharva born?
Ans 1. Karnataka

2. Odisha

3. Tamil Nadu

4. Tripura

Q.19 With reference to agriculture in India, the term 'penda' is the name given to ________________.
Ans 1. plantation agriculture

2. agricultural season

3. tea farming

4. slash and burn agriculture

Q.20 In January 2023, three Indian-origin researchers were among nine scientists named recipients of the
Blavatnik Awardsfor Young Scientists in the UK. Which of the following is NOT one of these three
scientists?
Ans 1. Gagandeep Kang

2. Tanmay Bharat

3. Rahul R Nair

4. Mehul Malik

Q.21 Article 157 of the Constitution of India mentions the qualifications required for appointment of the _________________ of a
State.
Ans 1. Governor

2. Chief Justice of High Court

3. Election Commissioner

4. Chief Minister

Q.22 Which of the following is the first event in a triathlon?

Ans 1. Running

2. Swimming

3. Cycling

4. Putting the shot

Q.23 According to sympatric speciation, the rising of a new species occurs when:
Ans 1. two groups of the same species cannot interbreed among themselves despite living in the same geographic location

2. one species is separated into different groups due to geologic events like mountain formation

3. organisms from the same species start to show different behavioural characteristics

4. the two groups of organisms from the same species would phenotypically look different
Q.24 What is the primary function of the excretory system in animals?
Ans 1. Digestion

2. Reproduction

3. Respiration

4. Removal of waste products

Q.25 In which of the following years was the Child Marriage Restraint Act passed?
Ans 1. 1902

2. 1872

3. 1856

4. 1929

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

The branches of the tree is very long.

Ans 1. has

2. was

3. had

4. are

Q.2 Select the appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

At the drop of a hat
Ans 1. Willingness to do something instantly

2. Crying without any reason

3. Become easily frightened

4. Reveal a secret carelessly

Q.3 Select the option that will improve the underlined part of the given sentence. In case no improvement is needed, select 'No
improvement required'.
He received the best employee award because he was the more hardworking.
Ans 1. No improvement required

2. hardworking

3. the hardworking

4. most hardworking

Q.4 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans 1. Amendment

2. Mischievous

3. Incorrigible

4. Exhilerate

Q.5 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Due to _________ 'eve teasing', parents conclude that it is not worth the danger of sending their daughters to school.
Ans 1. rectified

2. narrow

3. widespread

4. localised
Q.6 Which of the following sentences contains an adverbial error?
Ans 1. She writes slowly and steadily.

2. He sang beautifully at the talent show.

3. They danced gracefully across the stage.

4. The teacher spoke clear and concise.

Q.7 select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank to complete the idiom and make the sentence meaningful.
During the interview, the candidate was challenged to provide chapter and ___________ on his proposed plan.
Ans 1. lines

2. page

3. verse

4. cover

Q.8 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word..

Ans 1. weather

2. resistance

3. separate

4. tendancy

Q.9 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.
The place where soldiers live
Ans 1. Barracks

2. Unit

3. Brigade

4. Regiment

Q.10 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

David decided to __________ his old boat to get a new one.
Ans 1. sell

2. ceil

3. sale

4. cell

Q.11 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The teacher asked the students to stay _________ during the exam.

Ans 1. quiet

2. quite

3. quote

4. quit

Q.12 Select the most appropriate synonym of the word in bold in the given sentence.
It is universally acknowledged that trees are indispensable to us.
Ans 1. Essential

2. Rational

3. Unusual

4. Fierce
Q.13 In the following sentence the underlined part contains an error. Alternatives to the underlined part are given as options.
Select the correct alternative.
Yesterday was the worse day of my life.
Ans 1. bad

2. worst

3. ill

4. most bad

Q.14 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The Chinese government has accepted slower economic development as the ‘new normal’, recognising the need for China
to adopt a new growth model that depends less on fixed investment and exports and more on private consumption,
services, and innovation to _____________ economic growth.
Ans 1. drive

2. exhale

3. success

4. bridle

Q.15 Select the word that has the same meaning (SYNONYM) as the underlined word in the given sentence.

The teacher made judicious use of technology to explain a sensitive topic.

Ans 1. judgmental

2. difficult

3. prominent

4. prudent

Q.16 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

He possesses one of the slimmer handsets in the world.

Ans 1. slimmest

2. most slimmest

3. slim

4. most slim

Q.17 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans 1. Excellent

2. Abandoned

3. Celibrate

4. Dangerous

Q.18 Read the following sentence and select its future tense form from the options given below:

Ramya finished her dissertation early.

Ans 1. Ramya has finished her dissertation early.

2. Ramya is finishing her dissertation early.

3. Ramya had finished her dissertation early.

4. Ramya will finish her dissertation early.

Q.19 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the word provided in the brackets to fill in the blank.
The painting exhibited a __________________ blend of colours. (harmonious)
Ans 1. discordant

2. quavering

3. polyphonic

4. thrilling
Q.20 Select the correct option of the given sentence.

Smt. Savithri is wisest than all others in the group.

Ans 1. Smt. Savithri is the wise than all others in the group.

2. Smt. Savithri is wise than all others in the group.

3. Smt. Savithri is the wiser than all others in the group.

4. Smt. Savithri is wiser than all others in the group.

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
It is the mad (1)_______ for speed that is responsible for many motor accidents. Only last year, I (2)_______ what might have been a
(3)_______ accident on Kashmir Road. I was motoring down (4)________ Srinagar; and as I was nearing Kohala, I came upon the
(5)_______ of two cars on the road.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans 1. boredom

2. luck

3. craze

4. block

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans 1. witnessed

2. checked

3. argued

4. anticipated

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans 1. happening

2. fatal

3. wonderful

4. harmless
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
It is the mad (1)_______ for speed that is responsible for many motor accidents. Only last year, I (2)_______ what might have been a
(3)_______ accident on Kashmir Road. I was motoring down (4)________ Srinagar; and as I was nearing Kohala, I came upon the
(5)_______ of two cars on the road.

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans 1. from

2. on

3. since

4. besides

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans 1. collision

2. pile

3. cluster

4. clatter
Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 18/10/2024
Exam
12:30 PM - 2:30 PM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 In an election, 750 votes were cast for the two contestants, Bharti and Manya. Bharti defeated Manya by 16% votes. If there
were no invalid vote, then how many votes did Manya get?
Ans 1. 335

2. 315

3. 430

4. 120

Q.2 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹3000 as a sum borrowed at 3% per year rate of interest for 6 years.
Ans 1. 540

2. 580

3. 480

4. 500

Q.3

Ans 1. 378

2. 162

3. 265

4. 216

Q.4 P sold an article to Q at 11% profit and Q sold it to R at 11% loss. If R paid ₹19,758 for it, then at what price (in ₹) was the
article purchased by P?
Ans 1. 19,750

2. 19,500

3. 20,000

4. 22,500

Q.5 A shopkeeper offers buy three, get one free; what is the percentage discount being offered by the shopkeeper in this
scheme?
Ans 1. 33.33%

2. 20%

3. 25%

4. 30%

Q.6 A thief is running away on a straight road on a bike moving at the speed of 28 m/s. A policeman chases him in a car moving
at the speed of 30 m/s. if the instantaneous separation of the bike from the car is 400 m, how long will it take for the
policeman to catch the thief?
Ans 1. 200 seconds

2. 300 seconds

3. 150 seconds

4. 100 seconds
Q.7 Anand wanted to make a cylindrical kaleidoscope of length 30 cm and radius 7 cm. If he is using handmade sheets to make
it, then how much sheet will be required for this?
Ans 1. 1320 cm2

2. 1440 cm2

3. 1520 cm2

4. 660 cm2

Q
.
8
A 1. 24
n
s
2. 22

3. 26

4. 20

Q.9 A chef has two cans of acids and water mixture. He combines the contents of both cans in a beaker. The resulting mixture
has half water and half acid. What is the quantity in which he mixed the contents of can 1 and can 2, given that can 2 has an
acid-to-water ratio of 2 : 3 and can 1 has an acid-to-water ratio of 5 : 3?
Ans 1. 2 : 3

2. 3 : 7

3. 4 : 5

4. 4 : 7

Q.10 The simple interest on a sum of₹4,200 at the end of 3 years is₹756. What will be the simple
interest (in₹) on₹5,400 at the same rate and for the same time period?
Ans 1. 987

2. 980

3. 998

4. 972

Q.11 Find the HCF of 36 and 84.

Ans 1. 4

2. 18

3. 12

4. 6

Q.12

Ans 1. 50.49 kg

2. 45.09 kg

3. 54.90 kg

4. 59.40 kg

Q.13 The average weight of a family of five members (in kg) whose weights are 40 kg, 49 kg, 56 kg, 72 kg and 36 kg is:
Ans 1. 51.6

2. 52.6

3. 49.6

4. 50.6

Q.14 In a class, there are 30 boys and 20 girls. The average score of boys in Physics is 92, whereas the average score of girls in
Physics is 83. Find the average score of the whole class in Physics.
Ans 1. 89.3

2. 92.6

3. 96.2

4. 88.4

Q.15 In an office, the average salary of 22 staff members was ₹81,400. If the average salary of staff and the Vice Chairman was
₹89,600, then how much is the salary of the Vice Chairman (in ₹)?
Ans 1. 2,70,000

2. 1,97,300

3. 2,17,000

4. 3,00,000
Q.16 A sold an article to B at 40% profit and B sold it to C at 15% profit. If C paid ₹4,914 for the article, how much (in ₹, rounded
off to the nearest integer) did A pay for it?
Ans 1. 2,576

2. 3,520

3. 3,052

4. 3,250

Q.17 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹4000 as a sum borrowed at 4% per year rate of interest for 6 years.
Ans 1. 960

2. 1000

3. 900

4. 920

Q.18

Ans 1. 3

2. 6

3. 3.5

4. 7

Q.19

Ans 1. 3

2. 4.8

3. 4.4

4. 3.7

Q.20 A and B start running simultaneously, around a circular track of 1200 m, in the same direction, at a speed of 8 m/s and 12
m/s, respectively. A and B will meet at the starting point for the first time after:
Ans 1. 80 s

2. 100 s

3. 300 s

4. 150 s

Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?

OSM, LPJ ,IMG, FJD ,?

Ans 1. CGA

2. BGA

3. CAG

4. BAG
Q.2 TGKP is related to QDHM in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, XBWL is related to
UYTI. To which of the following is VEAH related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. RAYE

2. SBYF

3. SBXE

4. RAXF

Q.3 R, S, T, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order). Only three
people are sitting between E and T when counted from the right of E. Only two people are sitting between R and G. S is
sitting to the immediate left of D. Only two people are sitting between T and R. How many people are sitting between F and S
when counted from the left of F?
Ans 1. One

2. Four

3. Three

4. Two

Q.4 37 is related to 89 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 43 is related to 101. To which of the following is 28
related, following the same logic?(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbersinto its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13can be
performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1and 3 is not allowed)
Ans 1. 55

2. 78

3. 51

4. 71

Q.5 In a certain code language, ‘derive the formula’ is written as ‘le ro da’ and ‘formula to win’ is writtenas ‘ka wb ro’. How will
‘formula’ be writtenin the given language?
Ans 1. wb

2. da

3. le

4. ro

Statements:
Some trees are blue.
All blue is green.

Conclusions:
(I) All trees are blue.
(II) Some trees are green.
Ans 1. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follows

2. Neither conclusion (I) not (II) follows

3. Only conclusion (II) follows

4. Only conclusion (I) follows.

Q.7 In a certain code,

‘pen pencil eraser’ is coded as ‘dy ph mt’,
‘pencil box crayon’ is coded as ‘lp ph st’ and
‘box pen board’ is coded as ‘st bq dy’.
All the codes are two-letter codes only.
What is 'board' coded as?
Ans 1. dy

2. bq

3. lp

4. st
Q.8 Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series and complete
the pattern.

Ans

Q.9 Select the option figure in which the given figure (X) is embedded as its part (rotation is NOT allowed).

Ans

4.
Q.10 In a certain code language, ‘GAME’ is coded as ‘8536’ and ‘MEAN’ is coded as ‘5983’. What is the code for ‘N’ in that
language?
Ans 1. 5

2. 8

3. 3

4. 9

Q.11 What will come in the place of the question mark (‘?’)in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘×’ are interchanged and ‘÷′ and ‘–‘
are interchanged?
19 × 7 ÷ 8 × 306 – 17 = ?
Ans 1. 32

2. 36

3. 41

4. 44

Q.12 In a certain code language, ‘RENT’ is coded as ‘1957’ and ‘GRIM’ is coded as ‘2469’.What is the code for ‘R’ in the given code
language?
Ans 1. 9

2. 4

3. 6

4. 1

Q.13 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

3, ?, 13, 18, 23, 28, 33

Ans 1. 7

2. 9

3. 8

4. 5

Q.14 P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are sitting around a circular table facing out to the centre (but not necessarily in the same order). P is
sitting second to the left of U. R is sitting third to the right of S. S is an immediate neighbour of V. V is sitting to the
immediate left of P. T is not an immediate neighbour of U.
How many people are sitting between P and Q when counted from the right of P?
Ans 1. Two

2. Four

3. Three

4. One

Q.15 Select the figure from the given options, which when put in place of the question mark (?) will logically complete the series.

Ans

4.
Q.16 What will come in the place of ‘?’ in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘×‘ are interchanged and ‘−’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?
41 × 1 + 390 − 10 ÷ 15 =?
Ans 1. 55

2. 73

3. 75

4. 65

Q.17 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements:
Some bulls are rocks. Some rocks are stones.
Conclusions:
(I): Some bulls are stones.
(II): All stones are rocks.
Ans 1. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

2. Only conclusion (I) follows.

3. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

4. Only conclusion (II) follows.

Q.18 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.

2. (30, 5, 49)

3. (5, 3, 26)

4. (23, 1, 56)

Q.19 FLRX is related to KQWC in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, GMSY is related to
LRXD. To which of the following is HNTZ related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. MSYW

2. MSYE

3. MDSY

4. MSYD

Q.20 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans
1.

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 Which of the following groups of ports are located on the bank of the Bay of Bengal?
Ans 1. Haldia and Kandla

2. Tuticorin and Cochin

3. Paradip and New Mangalore

4. Haldia and Paradip

Q.2 In November 2023, who was appointed as the President-elect of the Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and
Industry (FICCI)?
Ans 1. Adi Godrej

2. Suraj Mahindra

3. Anish Shah

4. N Chandrasekaran
Q.3 Select the correct order of processes used for water purification in waterworks.
1. Filtration
2. Chlorination
3. Suspended impurity sedimentation
4. Solid impurity sedimentation
Ans 1. 4-3-2-1

2. 4-3-1-2

3. 1-2-3-4

4. 2-1-4-3

Q.4 The Betul, Hoshangabad and Chhindwara districts of Madhya Pradesh is a part of which of the following Biosphere
Reserves?
Ans 1. Agasthyamalai

2. Seshachalam

3. Manas

4. Pachmarhi

Q.5 Foods containing fats and carbohydrates are also called ____________.
Ans 1. fermented foods

2. body building foods

3. energy giving foods

4. roughage

Q.6 Which of the following is the oldest dated forts in India, as first mentioned in Alexander the Great’s war records, bringing it
to the 4th century BCE?
Ans 1. Kumbhalgarh Fort

2. Mehrangarh Fort

3. Kangra Fort

4. Gwalior Fort

Q.7 Which of the following is an example of anaerobic activity?

Ans 1. Walking

2. Skipping

3. Jumping

4. Swimming

Q.8 In the year of the coronation of Akbar, who among the following was designated as the Wakil of the Mughal kingdom with
the title of ‘Khan-i-Khanan’?
Ans 1. Munim Khan

2. Bairam Khan

3. Abdur Rahim

4. Hakim Mirza

Q.9 The Kalidas Samman award is presented by which of the following governments?
Ans 1. Manipur

2. Madhya Pradesh

3. Odisha

4. Tamil Nadu

Q.10 As per the National Multidimensional Poverty Index 2021, which of the following groups of states is the poorest?
Ans 1. Kerala, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu

2. Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Jharkhand

3. Punjab, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand

4. Gujarat, Maharashtra, Telangana

Q.11 In which of the places was Arya Samaj founded?

Ans 1. Bombay

2. Lahore

3. Calcutta

4. Madras

Q.12 Which folk dance has its roots in Maharashtra?

Ans 1. Garba

2. Bihu

3. Dandiya

4. Lavani
Q.13 Which of the following is observed on the birthday of Dr. Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan?
Ans 1. Constitution Day

2. Engineers’ Day

3. Students’ Day

4. Teachers’ Day

Q.14 What is the standard length of a cricket pitch?

Ans 1. 18 yards

2. 22 yards

3. 20 yards

4. 24 yards

Q.15 Which of the following is a precious mineral?

Ans 1. Platinum

2. Bauxite

3. Hematite

4. Mica

Q.16 Which financial products are commonly offered by Microfinance Institutions in India?
Ans 1. Savings, credit and insurance services tailored for low-income individuals

2. Exclusive services for high-income individuals

3. Specialised services for multinational corporations

4. Complex investment options

Q.17 What is the name of the scheme launched by the Government of India in 2023 to effectively resolve pending contractual
disputes?
Ans 1. Vivad se Vishwas II

2. Vivad se Adhar II

3. Vivad se Vishwas I

4. Vivad se Janadhar I

Q.18 Ravikirti was the court poet of which ruler?

Ans 1. Dantidurga

2. Rajaraja

3. Pulakeshin II

4. Harshavardhana

Q.19 The basic structure of the Indian Constitution stands on the Government of India Act, ___________.
Ans 1. 1949

2. 1942

3. 1950

4. 1935

Q.20 Which of the following programmes is taken up by the Government of India for improvement of female literacy rates in
India?
Ans 1. Beti Sikhao, Beti Padhao

2. Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao

3. Beti Jagaron, Beti Padhao

4. Beti Shikshan, Beti Bachao

Q.21 Which edition of the ODI Cricket World Cup was held in India in 2023?
Ans 1. 14th

2. 16th

3. 13th

4. 15th

Q.22 'Waiting for a Visa' is the autobiography of:

Ans 1. Shyama Prasad Mukherjee

2. Bhimrao Ambedkar

3. Jawaharlal Nehru

4. Vallabhbhai Patel
Q.23 Which of the following Articles of the Constitution has a provision that ‘all executive actions of the Government of India
shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the President’?
Ans 1. Article 77 (1)

2. Article 75 (1A)

3. Article 71 (1)

4. Article 76 (2)

Q.24 Shuddhi movement was initiated by which of the following organisations?

Ans 1. Arya Samaj

2. Satyashodak Samaj

3. Paramhans Mandali

4. Ramakrishna Mission

Q.25 Mysore Brothers are known for playing which musical instrument?
Ans 1. Mandolin

2. Guitar

3. Violin

4. Flute

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans 1. Prescription

2. Beginer

3. Disappointment

4. Ceremony

Q.2 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined words in the given sentence.

Losing my job turned out to be an unexpected benefit because it pushed me to start my own business, which has been
more successful than I ever imagined.
Ans 1. a diamond in rough

2. a mixed blessing

3. a golden opportunity

4. a blessing in disguise

Q.3 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word..

Ans 1. Scari

2. Reflect

3. Shadow

4. Music

Q.4 Select the most appropriate form of comparative degree that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

Rohit Sharma is better than more other batsman in the world.

Ans 1. better batsmen

2. better than most other batsmen

3. as good as the most other batsmen

4. the best batsmen

Q.5 Select the most appropriate form of comparative degree that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

Maheshwari is three years junior than me.

Ans 1. junior than that of me

2. more junior than me

3. junior to me

4. junior than any other to me

Q.6 Identify the error in the given sentence.

Ajit got to work earliest than everyone else today.
Ans 1. Ajit got to work

2. everyone else

3. earliest than

4. today
Q.7 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.
Antique
Ans 1. Novel

2. Modern

3. Ancient

4. Young

Q.8 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The concert was __________ due to the bad weather.

Ans 1. commenced

2. celebrated

3. cancelled

4. continued

Q.9 Select the most appropriate idiom to replace the underlined segment.
He thinks his new plan will undoubtedly produce the desired result .
Ans 1. go pear-shaped

2. sour grapes

3. bear fruit

4. go suck a lemon

Q.10 Select the most appropriate synonym of the word given in brackets to fill in the blank.

Many orthodox people have a ____(hostile) attitude towards the idea of women getting educated and employed.
Ans 1. meticulous

2. belligerent

3. friendly

4. elaborate

Q.11 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

The analysis of a person's handwriting to determine his/her personality

Ans 1. Calligraphy

2. Graphology

3. Numismatics

4. Philology

Q.12 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word in the given sentence.

Anupama was a very industrious child and submitted all her assignments on time.
Ans 1. intense

2. lazy

3. laborious

4. industrial

Q.13 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word in the given sentence.
He was very inquisitive and wanted to know each and every detail.
Ans 1. Indeterminate

2. Intelligent

3. Uncanny

4. Indifferent

Q.14 Identify the INCORRECTLY spelt word in the given sentence.

Are you sure that you can’t even write a single sentnce properly?
Ans 1. single

2. properly

3. sentnce

4. write

Q.15 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

The branch of geography that studies mountains and their formation

Ans 1. Mythography

2. Orthography

3. Orography

4. Palaeography
Q.16 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

The happy and cheerful girls / is always running towards / the ice cream cart in / front of the garden.
Ans 1. is always running towards

2. the ice cream cart in

3. front of the garden

4. the happy and cheerful girls

Q.17 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blanks.

I bought a _____ but it is ______.
Ans 1. chip; cheap

2. cane; cain

3. cheap; chip

4. cain; cane

Q.18 Select the grammatically correct sentence.

Ans 1. Rahul is very naughty as he is the youngest sibling among Rama’s three brothers.

2. Rahul is very naughty as he is the most young sibling among Rama’s three brothers.

3. Rahul is very naughty as he is the youngest sibling between Rama’s three brothers.

4. Rahul is very naughty as he is the most young sibling between Rama’s three brothers.

Q.19 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The students were __________ for their hard work with certificates and praise.
Ans 1. reprimanded

2. punished

3. penalised

4. rewarded

Q.20 Select the grammatically correct sentence..

Ans 1. Rukmini put the book on an table and sat down.

2. Rukmini put an book on the table and sat down.

3. Rukmini put the book on the table and sat down.

4. Rukmini put a book on an table and sat down.

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

The computer can become a threat to man. It can (1)______________ his survival and privacy. It also offers excellent encouragement
for unethical or criminal activities. It can (2)_______________ the unemployment problem as employers prefer the computer and the
'computer- controlled robots' to humans for obvious reasons. The information storage facility the computer provides has
(3)___________ to collection of personal information about individuals and storage of this information in data banks by several
employing agencies. If care is not exercised (4)__________ data gathering, data integrity may suffer. That is, questionable or
imperfect methods may be employed; as a result, incorrect or incomplete data may be stored, and this (5)____________ become a
permanent source and used for any given purpose.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 1.
Ans 1. endanger

2. tranformative

3. protect

4. encourage

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 2.
Ans 1. improve

2. worsen

3. control

4. beat
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 3.
Ans 1. led

2. stored

3. involved

4. experienced

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 4.
Ans 1. when

2. during

3. unless

4. by

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 5.
Ans 1. may

2. must

3. have to

4. should
Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 18/10/2024
Exam
4:00 PM - 5:30 PM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 The simple interest on a certain deposit at 5.5% per annum is ₹264 in one year. How much additional interest will be earned
in one year on the same deposit at 6.5% per annum?
Ans 1. ₹47.5

2. ₹46.5

3. ₹48

4. ₹49

Q.2 The population of a village is increased by 3%. Had there been 122 less, there would have been a decrease of 1%. Find the
original population.
Ans 1. 3050

2. 3550

3. 3000

4. 3555

Q.3 A tradesman marks his goods at 45% above the cost price but allows a discount of 20% at the time of sale. His gain is:
Ans 1. 16%

2. 26%

3. 25%

4. 17%

Q.4

Ans 1.

Q.5 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹2500 as a sum borrowed at 9% per year rate of interest for 3 years.
Ans 1. 615

2. 635

3. 715

4. 675
Q.6 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹3000 as a sum borrowed at 5% per year rate of interest for 5 years.
Ans 1. 690

2. 750

3. 790

4. 710

Q.7

Ans 1. 15,600

2. 15,400

3. 16,100

4. 16,300

Q.8

Ans 1. ₹1,444

2. ₹1,432

3. ₹1,428

4. ₹1,438

Q.9 Aravind purchased a book for Rs.450 and sold it for Rs.500. What is the profit percentage?
Ans
1.

Q.10 By selling 120 note books, a shopkeeper gains the selling price of 40 note books. Find his gain percentage.
Ans 1.

4.
Q.11 In what ratio must tea at ₹82/kg be mixed with tea at ₹92/kg so that the mixture be worth ₹84.50/kg?
Ans 1. 3 : 1

2. 2 : 3

3. 2 : 1

4. 3 : 2

Q.12

Ans 1. 925 : 605

2. 892 : 731

3. 995 : 761

4. 606 : 925

Q.13
Eight persons went to a restaurant for lunch. Seven of them spent ₹80
each on their meals, while the eighth person spent ₹70 more than the
average expenditure of all eight persons. What was the total amount spent
by all the individuals?
Ans 1. ₹640

2. ₹720

3. ₹780

4. ₹560
Q.14 A person walks alonga rectangular field, whose dimensions are 6 km long and 3 km wide. For the first 1 hour, he walks
at a speed of 2 km/hr. After 1 hour, he increases his speed to 4 km/hr. Next 1 hour, his speed is decreased to 2 km/hr.
For the next 1 hour, he increases his speed to 4 km/hr. Find his average speed (in km/hr).
Ans 1. 3

2. 2

3. 5

4. 4

Q.15 How many seconds will a boy take to run one complete round around a square field of side 38 metres, if he runs at a speed
of 6 km/h?
Ans 1. 50.1

2. 61.2

3. 91.2

4. 71.2

Q.16 Three different types of pulses costing ₹180, ₹240 and ₹200 per kg, respectively, are mixed in the ratio 1 : 5 : 4. What will be
the cost for 1 kg of the mixture?
Ans 1. ₹200

2. ₹206

3. ₹240

4. ₹218

Q.17 What is the average of the first 40 natural numbers?

Ans 1. 40.5

2. 20.5

3. 10.5

4. 50.5

Q.18 A solid sphere of iron having radius 15 cm is to be melted and recast in the shape of a cylindrical pipe having internal and
external radii 4 cm and 6 cm, respectively. Find the length (in m) of the pipe thus formed.
Ans 1. 2.35

2. 2.45

3. 2.15

4. 2.25

Q.19

Ans 1. 385

2. 1815

3. 33

4. 165
Q.20

Ans
1.

Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Statements:
All horses are donkeys.
All donkeys are mules.

Conclusions:
(I) All donkeys are horses.
(II) Some mules are donkeys.
Ans 1. Only conclusion II follows

2. Both conclusion I and II follow

3. Only conclusion I follows

4. Neither conclusion I nor II follows

Q.2 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the given sets.

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/ subtracting /multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

(444, 74, 6)
(666, 37, 18)
Ans 1. (80, 11, 8)

2. (96, 17, 8)

3. (256, 32, 8)

4. (80, 17, 8)

Q.3 In a certain code language, ‘FINE’ is coded as ‘9632’ and ‘LINE’ is coded as ‘2946’. What is the code for ‘F’ in that language?
Ans 1. 2

2. 3

3. 9

4. 6

Q.4 What should come in place of the question mark(?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?

ABA, BDB, CFC, DHD, ?

Ans 1. EJE

2. EKE

3. GJE

4. GJG
Q.5 NQRP is related to TWXV in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, EHIG is related to
KNOM. To which of the following is LOPN related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. RUTV

2. RTVU

3. TVUR

4. RUVT

Q.6 Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series and complete
the pattern.

Ans

Q.7 Six people A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order). F
is sitting second to right of D. C is sitting third to left of F. B is sitting to the immediate right of D. A is not an immediate
neighbour of C. How many people are sitting between E and B when counted from right of E?
Ans 1. 3

2. 1

3. 2

4. 4
Q.8 Which two numbers should be interchanged to make the following equation correct?

12 × 2 −6 × 7 + 3× 5× 4 + 10 = 46

(Note: Interchange should be done of the entire number and not individual digits of a given number.)
Ans 1. 7 and 5

2. 2 and 4

3. 12 and 10

4. 3 and 6

Q.9 In a certain code language, ‘FISH’ is coded as ‘4268’ and ‘RATS’ is coded as ‘2357’.What is the code for ‘S’ in that language?
Ans 1. 5

2. 6

3. 2

4. 7

Q.10 Identify the figure given in the options which when put in place of ? will logically complete the series.

Ans

4.
Q.11 Select the option in which the given figure is embedded (rotation is NOT allowed).

Ans

Q.12 In this question, two statements are given, followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Assuming the statements to be
true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusion(s) logically
follows/follow from the statements.
Statements: All cows are goats. Some goats are lions.
Conclusions:
I. All lions are goats.
II. Some cows are lions.
Ans 1. Both Conclusions I and II follow.

2. Only Conclusion I follows.

3. Only Conclusion II follows.

4. Neither Conclusion I nor II follow.

Q.13 Six people—A, B, C, D, E, and F—are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same
order). A is an immediate neighbour of both E and C. B is an immediate neighbour of both D and C. F is to the immediate
right of D.
Who among the following is an immediate neighbour of both F and A?
Ans 1. D

2. B

3. C

4. E

Q.14 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series?

11, 18, 25, 32, 39, ?

Ans 1. 46

2. 81

3. 90

4. 78

Q.15 In a certain code language, ‘cake is delicious’ is written as ‘kg fv bu’ and ‘you like cake’ is coded as ‘bu wl ma’. How is ‘cake’
coded in the given language?
Ans 1. ma

2. bu

3. fv

4. kg

Q.16 Which two numbers should be interchanged to make the given equation correct?
7 × 4− 8 × 2 + 3 × 14 × 5− 9 = 133
(Note: Interchange should be done of entire number and not individual digits of a given number)
Ans 1. 9 and 8

2. 2 and 4

3. 14 and 9

4. 7 and 14

Q.17 46 is related to 414 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 52 is related to 468. To which ofthe following is 67
related, following the same logic?

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbersinto its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13can be performed. Breaking down 13
into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1and 3 is not allowed)
Ans 1. 624

2. 633

3. 603

4. 658
Q.18 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans
1.

Q.19 GN76 is related to UB53 in a certain way. In the same way, KR34 is related to YF11. To which of the following is OV98 related,
following the same logic?
Ans 1. JC88

2. CJ78

3. CJ75

4. JC68

Q.20 In a certain code language, ‘Try to act’ is coded as ‘ZX MN HO’ and ‘act your age’ is coded as ‘CO MB ZX’. How is ‘act’ coded
in that code language?
Ans 1. CO

2. ZX

3. HO

4. MB

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 Which percussionist from Maharashtra received Padma Vibhushan 2023?

Ans 1. Zakir Hussain

2. Nayan Ghosh

3. Swapan Chaudhuri

4. Yogesh Samsi

Q.2 Which of the following pacts suspended the Civil Disobedience Movement?
Ans 1. Gandhi-Irwin Pact

2. Liaquat–Nehru Pact

3. Rajah-Moonje Pact

4. Sirima–Gandhi Pact

Q.3 Which of the following is referred to as ‘Near Money’?

Ans 1. Currency notes

2. Coins

3. Bank money

4. National savings deposits

Q.4 By which of the following Amendments was the right to property removed from Part III of the Indian Constitution?
Ans 1. 64th Amendment

2. 50th Amendment

3. 70th Amendment

4. 44th Amendment

Q.5 Which Article of the Constitution of India states that the Parliament consists of the President of India and the two Houses of
Parliament known as Council of States (Rajya Sabha) and House of the People (Lok Sabha)?
Ans 1. Article 67

2. Article 62

3. Article 79

4. Article 73

Q.6 Kamalini Asthana is associated with which of the following dance forms?
Ans 1. K
athak

2. Odissi

3. Manipuri

4. Mohiniattam

Q.7 Bokaro, Burnpur, Rourkela, etc., are famous for development of which of the following industries?
Ans 1. Iron and Steel

2. Software

3. Dairy

4. Automobile

Q.8 Which of the following was the capital of the Pallava Dynasty?
Ans 1. Badami

2. Aihole

3. Madurai

4. Kanchipuram

Q.9 What is the chemical formula for potassium permanganate?

Ans 1. K3MnO4

2. KMn2O7

3. K2MnO3

4. KMnO4

Q.10 The founders of Vijayanagar empire, Harihara and Bukka Raya were the ministers of:
Ans 1. Kampili

2. Kadamba

3. Eastern Ganga

4. Western Chalukya

Q.11 Who among the following formed a group of non-violent revolutionaries, the Khudai Khidmatgars (known as Red Shirts)?
Ans 1. Jawaharlal Nehru

2. Chakravarti Rajagopalachari

3. Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan

4. Abbas Tayabji
Q.12 Which edition of the Santosh Trophy event did Karnataka win in the 2022-23 season?
Ans 1. 73rd

2. 78th

3. 76th

4. 75th

Q.13 Ortho-sulphobenzimide is one of the artificial sweeteners. It is also known as ________.

Ans 1. saccharin

2. alitame

3. sucralose

4. aspartame

Q.14 Which of the following statements about pteridophytes are correct?

Statements:
A. They include horsetails and ferns.
B. Pteridophytes are used for medicinal purposes and as soil-binders.
C. They are very advanced type of plants on earth, which evolved very recently.
D. Evolutionarily, they are the first terrestrial plants to possess vascular tissues – xylem and phloem.
Ans 1. Only A, B and C

2. Only A, B and D

3. Only A and C

4. Only C and D

Q.15 Divergent plate boundary is a boundary that occurs between two tectonic plates:
Ans 1. that are moving away from one another

2. that are sliding horizontally past each other

3. where one plate slides beneath the other

4. that are moving towards one another

Q.16 In July 2023, the District Rural Development Agency (DRDA) in Tirupathur district, Tamil Nadu, achieved a
monumental achievement by constructing 1546 farm ponds in just 30 days, setting a new world record.
This remarkable initiative was carried out under which government scheme?
Ans 1. Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme

2. Jal Jeevan Mission

3. Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojna

4. Mission Amrit Sarovar

Q.17 Who discovered the Bharhut stupa?

Ans 1. James Fergusson

2. James Burgess

3. Alexander Cunningham

4. James Tod

Q.18 Which state has the highest population in India as per the projected data of 2024?
Ans 1. Uttar Pradesh

2. Bihar

3. Rajasthan

4. Kerala
Q.19 In May 2023, which Chief Minister was honoured with the Bharat Ratna Dr. Ambedkar award for creating a fear-free state?
Ans 1. Mamata Banerjee

2. Ashok Gehlot

3. Yogi Adityanath

4. Arvind Kejriwal

Q.20 ICC Women's T-20 Cricket World Cup is a/an ________ event.
Ans 1. biennial

2. triennial

3. annual

4. quarterly

Q.21 Identify the group of states that is a part of Garib Kalyan Rojgar Abhiyaan (As of June 2022).
Ans 1. Tamil Nadu and Chhattisgarh

2. Uttar Pradesh and Jharkhand

3. Assam and West Bengal

4. Haryana and Punjab

Q.22 Hareli festival is celebrated in which of the following states?

Ans 1. Manipur

2. Karnataka

3. Chhattisgarh

4. Maharashtra

Q.23 Which of the following is NOT an iron-ore producing belt of India?

Ans 1. Bilaspur-Panipat belt

2. Durg-Bastar-Chandrapur belt

3. Odisha-Jharkhand belt

4. Maharashtra-Goa belt

Q.24 Which of the following is an autobiography of Abul Kalam Azad, the first education minister of India?
Ans 1. India Wins Freedom

2. My Country My Life

3. The Story of My Experiments with Truth

4. Long Walk to Freedom

Q.25 Which of the following statements with reference to Padma Subrahmanyam is/are correct?
1) Padma Subrahmanyam is a famous Bharatanatyam dancer.
2) She received the Padma Shri and Padma Bhushan awards.
3) She was also honoured with the Sangeet Natak Akademi Award for Dance.
Ans 1. Only 1 and 2

2. Only 1 and 3

3. Only 2 and 3

4. 1, 2, and 3

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.
Don’t be such an ________; we have plenty of time to complete the task.
Ans 1. eat crow

2. easy money

3. eager beaver

4. elephant in the room

Q.2 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blanks.

Chocolate can be ______ without milk; mix cocoa butter, sugar and a puree of fermented, roasted cocoa beans, and you
_______ a perfectly respectable dark chocolate.
Ans 1. make; have

2. making; have

3. made; have

4. made; has

Q.3 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans 1. Exaggerate

2. Perseverence

3. Camouflage

4. Connoisseur

Q.4 Select the correct spelling of the underlined word in the given sentence.

Scince explores and explains the natural world through observation and experimentation.
Ans 1. scinece

2. sience

3. sceince

4. science

Q.5 Based on the context of the given sentence, select the most appropriate idiom to fill in the blank.

After spending hours working non-stop on the project, the team decided to ___________ and go home.
Ans 1. take it easy

2. run out of steam

3. hit the books

4. call it a day

Q.6 Select the option that will improve the underlined part of the given sentence.

Swati came here with the intent of insulting me.

Ans 1. for insulting me

2. to insult me

3. off insulting me

4. from insulting me

Q.7 Select the option that changes the degree of comparison in the given sentence from superlative to positive without
changing the meaning of the sentence.

Kalpana Ahuja is the tallest girl in the colony.

Ans 1. Kalpana Ahuja is as tallest as other girls of the colony.

2. No other girl in the colony is as tall as Kalpana Ahuja.

3. No other girl in the colony is as taller as Kalpana Ahuja.

4. Many girls in the colony are taller than Kalpana Ahuja.

Q.8 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.
Gandhi’s ways of life, if followed in their entirety, will aid us in the creation of a society of peace and _______.
Ans 1. harmony

2. agitation

3. cacophony

4. discord

Q.9 Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. Select the option that contains an error.
When I was studying Economics in Delhi University, Ritu was senior than me.
Ans 1. senior than me

2. in Delhi University

3. When I was studying Economics

4. Ritu was

Q.10 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The company's success is attributed to its __________ business strategies.

Ans 1. downtrodden

2. mundane

3. innovative
4. worst

Q.11 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Abundant
Ans 1. Skimpy

2. Elusive

3. Rare

4. Ample

Q.12 Select the most appropriate form of comparative degree that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

Neha’s house is far from the city than everyone else’s.

Ans 1. far from the city to

2. farther from the city than

3. further from the city than

4. more far from the city to

Q.13 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Congenial
Ans 1. Ethical

2. Trivial

3. Ignorant

4. Pleasant

Q.14 Select the sentence that has a grammatical error.

Ans 1. The train leaves the station at 8:00 a.m. every day.

2. He don't like spicy food.

3. She usually walks her dog in the park every morning.

4. They play chess together on weekends.

Q.15 Select the most appropriate synonym of the word given in brackets to fill in the blank.

In an _____(endeavour) to improve the environment of their society, they planted many trees surrounding the parking area.
Ans 1. epitome

2. aim

3. axiom

4. ecstasy

Q.16 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM for the underlined word.

My teacher is very diligent.

Ans 1. Skilful

2. Kind

3. Hardworking

4. Idle

It is a fact that / girls' hair is usually / long than the boys' hair.
Ans 1. girls' hair is usually

2. It is a fact that

3. long than the boys' hair

4. No error

Q.18 Change the following sentence into positive degree.

Ramesh is not stronger than Mahesh.
Ans 1. Mahesh is as strong as Ramesh.

2. Mahesh is strongest than Ramesh.

3. Mahesh is stronger than Ramesh.

4. Ramesh is as strong than Mahesh.

Q.19 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word..

Ans 1. Obliterate

2. Pursuit

3. Occassionaly

4. Synopsis

Q.20 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Elevation
Ans 1. Demotion

2. Creation

3. Presentation

4. Promotion
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

That was a jolly story _____1_____ Arthur Ransome told the other day in one of his messages from Petrograd, a place in Russia. A
stout old lady was walking __2___ her basket down the middle of a street to the _____3_____ confusion of the traffic and with no
small peril to herself. It was pointed _____4_____ to her that the _____5_____ was the place for the foot passengers, but she replied,
“I’m going to walk where I like. We’ve got liberty now.”

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans 1. off

2. which

3. about

4. form

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans 1. with

2. in

3. at

4. beside

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans 1. great

2. greet

3. grate

4. garret

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans 1. in

2. by

3. so

4. out
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans 1. market

2. bay

3. road

4. pavement
Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 21/10/2024
Exam
9:00 AM - 11:00 AM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 A man bought an article for ₹500 and sold it for ₹400. Find his loss percentage.
Ans 1. 25%

2. 20%

3. 30%

4. 100%

Q.2 Two numbers are in the ratio of 7:9 and their LCM is 630. Find the numbers
Ans 1. 56, 72

2. 77, 99

3. 70, 90

4. 63, 81

Q
.
3

A 1. 20%
n
s
2. 10%

3. 25%

4. 15%

Q.4 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹3500 as a sum borrowed at 4% per year rate of interest for 4 years.
Ans 1. 600

2. 520

3. 500

4. 560

Q.5

Ans 1. 10,437.43

2. 11,282.85

3. 10,182.86

4. 10,128.85
Q.6 One train is moving with at twice the speed of a second train. The lengths of the trains are equal. The ratio of the time taken
by these trains to cross each other when moving in the same direction and in opposite directions, respectively, is:
Ans 1.

Q.7 A boat can travel at a speed of 42 km/hr in still water. If the speed of the stream is 3 km/hr, how much time (in hours and
minutes) will be taken by the boat to go 157.5 km downstream, and then 78 km upstream?
Ans 1. 6 h 20 min

2. 4 h 45 min

3. 5 h 30 min

4. 7 h 25 min

Q.8 A vessel contains 80 litres of a mixture of alcohol and water in the ratio of 3 : 7. If 40 litres of the mixture is taken out from
the vessel and replaced with 40 litres of water, then the ratio of alcohol and water becomes:
Ans 1. 3 : 17

2. 1 : 11

3. 3 : 23

4. 2 : 15

Q.9 The average weight of a family of five members (in kg) whose weights are 40 kg, 49 kg, 56 kg, 65 kg and 39 kg is:
Ans 1. 48.8

2. 49.8

3. 50.8

4. 51.8

Q.10 There are two groups C and D of a class consisting of 32 and 40 students, respectively. If the average weight of group C is
60 kg and that of group D is 33 kg, then find the average weight of the whole class.
Ans 1. 46.5 kg

2. 45 kg

3. 45.2 kg

4. 44 kg

Q.11 b is the sum of two quantities, one of which varies inversely as the square of a2 , and the other of which varies directly as a.
Identify the relationship between a and b if b = 49 when a = 3 or 5.
Ans 1. a = 3b

2. a = 3b2 − 7/a

3. b = 8a + 225/a2
4. b = 2a

Q.12 If apples and pears in a basket are in the ratio of 5 : 8, then find the percentage of pears (correct to two decimal places) in
the basket.
Ans 1. 69.5%

2. 63.45%

3. 61.54%

4. 59.44%
Q.13 Study the given table carefully and answer the question that follows.
The below table shows the production of the number of bottles (1 L) of soft drinks of three companies during 2016-2020.
Year A (in lakhs) B (in lakhs) C (in lakhs)
2016 38000 43000 52000
2017 42000 52000 58000
2018 53000 65000 63000
2019 30000 35000 32000
2020 20000 25000 28000
What was the percentage decrease in B's production in 2020 as compared to B's production in 2018 (approximate to two
decimals)?
Ans 1. 60%

2. 75.50%

3. 85.56%

4. 61.54%

Q.14 The whole surface area of a right circular cone of radius 15 metres and height 8 metres is:
Ans 1.

Q.15 The average weight of two persons A and B is 70 kg. Another person C joins A and B and the average weight now becomes
72 kg. If another person D, whose weight is 2 kg less than that of C, replaces A, then the average weight of B, C and D
becomes 70 kg. Find the weight of A (in kg).
Ans 1. 75

2. 80

3. 73

4. 74

Q.16 The bar graph shows the number of cars and the number of total vehicles in thousands, registered in given months. What
was the total number of vehicles other than cars registered in the given months?

Ans 1. 48000

2. 54000

3. 55000

4. 52000
Q.17 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹2500 as a sum borrowed at 5% per year rate of interest for 5 years.
Ans 1. 665

2. 585

3. 625

4. 565

Q.18 Akhil bought two articles at ₹4,500 each. He sold one article at a 12% gain but had to sell the second article at a loss. If he
had suffered a loss of ₹395 on the whole transaction, then what was the selling price of the second article?
Ans 1. ₹3,500

2. ₹3,595

3. ₹3,565

4. ₹3,550

Q.19 A cylinder of radius 10 cm and height 30 cm is cut, parallel to the base, into two pieces of different sizes. The total surface
area of the larger piece formed is 70% of that of the given cylinder. The smaller piece is melted and made into a sphere. The
radius (in cm) of the sphere is:
Ans
1.

Q.20
A sum of money was lent on simple interest. After 7 years it’s simple
interest became of it. Find the rate of interest per annum.
Ans 1. 10%

2. 12%

3. 8%

4. 5%

Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans
1.

4.
Q.2 Select the option in which the given figure is embedded (rotation is NOT allowed).

Ans

Q.3 Seven friends - P, Q, R, A, X, Y, and Z - are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same
order). Y is sitting sixth to the right of Q. P is sitting third to the left of Y. A has Q and X as immediate neighbours. Z is to the
immediate right of P.
Who is sitting to the immediate right of R?
Ans 1. Q

2. P

3. Y

4. X

Q.4 What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘–’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’
are interchanged?
25 – 45 × 9 ÷ 5 + 20 = ?
Ans 1. 30

2. 35

3. 33

4. 32
Q.5 In a certain code language, ‘life is rude’ is written as ‘tp ck gn’ and ‘this isn’t life’ is written as ‘gn dl sb’. How is ‘life’ written
in that code language?
Ans 1. ck

2. gn

3. tp

4. dl

Q.6 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

7 ? 22 37 57 82
Ans 1. 17

2. 20

3. 10

4. 12

Q.7

Ans 1.

Q.8 In a certain code language, ‘COST’ is coded as ‘5971’ and ‘SALE’ is coded as ‘8692’. What is the code for ’S’ in that
language?
Ans 1. 8

2. 9

3. 6

4. 7
Q.9 Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series and complete
the pattern.

Ans

Q.10 VDIZ is related to ZGKA in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, HNAS is related to LQCT.
To which of the following is BJWP related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. DKXR

2. ENAS

3. FMYQ

4. DLZR

Q.11 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

(5, 14, 24)

(9, 6, 24)
Ans 1. (15, 19, 89)

2. (17, 10, 42)

3. (21, 23, 55)

4. (11, 12, 34)

Q.12 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘+’ and ‘–’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are
interchanged?
121 + 1 – 6 ÷ 16 × 8 = ?
Ans 1. 164

2. 132

3. 124

4. 145
Q.13 CTVU is related to EVXW in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, BKGI is related to DMIK.
To which of the following is SAEH related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. MPEF

2. LOJI

3. HYTF

4. UCGJ

Q.14 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts,decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements:
All eggs are chickens.
No chicken is a hen.
Conclusions:
(I) All chickens are eggs.
(II) No egg is a hen.
Ans 1. Only conclusion II follows

2. Neither conclusion I nor II follows

3. Only conclusion I follows

4. Both conclusions I and II follow

Q.15 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?

AZB, BYC, CXD, DWE ,?

Ans 1. EFU

2. GUH

3. FVE

4. EVF

Q.16 A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order). Only 2
people sit between B and D when counted from the left of D. E and C are immediate neighbours of A. G sits immediately to
the right of F. Only 1 person sits between F and E when counted from the right of E. Who sits immediately to the left of F?
Ans 1. G

2. A

3. B

4. D

Statements:
Some mats are carpets.
All carpets are sheets.

Conclusions:
(I) Some mats are sheets.
(II) All sheets are carpets.
Ans 1. Only conclusion (I) follows.

2. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

3. Only conclusion (II) follows.

4. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

Q.18

Ans

Q.19 5 is related to 77 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 9 is related to 137. To which of the following is 3 related,
following the same logic?

(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding / subtracting / multiplying etc., to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13
into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans 1. 44

2. 47

3. 49

4. 45

Q.20 In a certain code language, 'HOST' is coded as '2846' and 'TEAM' is coded as '3587'.
What is the code for 'T' in the given code language?
Ans 1. 3

2. 7

3. 6

4. 8

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 Who among the following was awarded the Sansad Ratna Award 2023 and represents the Indian National Congress in Lok
Sabha from West Bengal?
Ans 1. Kuldeep Rai Sharma

2. Adhir Ranjan Chowdhury

3. Sudhir Gupta

4. Bidyut Baran Mahato

Q.2 Where is the Kala Ghoda Arts Festival organised every year?
Ans 1. Mumbai

2. New Delhi

3. Chennai

4. Bengaluru
Q.3 Who wrote the novel ‘Amrit Aur Vish’?
Ans 1. Vishnu Prabhakar

2. Shreelal Shukla

3. Amritlal Nagar

4. Ramdhari Singh Dinkar

Q.4 Who inaugurated 'Vibrant Village Program' in april 2023?

Ans 1. Ashwini Vaishnav

2. Hardeep Puri

3. Amit Shah

4. Narendra Modi

Q.5 The ‘Dhansiri’ and ‘Subansiri’ are the tributaries of ________ River.
Ans 1. Sutlej

2. Brahmaputra

3. Godavari

4. Mahanadi

Q.6 Why are wealth taxes and gift taxes treated as paper taxes in India?
Ans 1. It is not mandatory for the government to collect these taxes.

2. They do not generate much revenue in comparison to others.

3. Tax payers need to fill out forms only in paper and submit returns.

4. They are paid only by government employees, members of the Parliament and Legislative assemblies.

Q.7 What is the primary role of autotrophic organisms in an ecosystem?

Ans 1. Breaking down dead organisms

2. Producing organic matter from inorganic substances

3. Preying on other organisms for food

4. Converting organic matter into energy

Q.8 Which of the following water bodies are also known as nurseries of the ocean?
Ans 1. Lagoons

2. Estuaries

3. Dams

4. Bogs

Q.9 Identify the Kuchipudi dancer, actor and film producer who won the best choreography award at the 68th National Film
Awards 2022.
Ans 1. Birju Maharaj

2. Ganesh Acharya

3. Sandhya Raju

4. Remo D'Souza

Q.10 Tanras Khan is associated with which of the following gharanas?

Ans 1. Delhi gharana

2. Benaras gharana

3. Agra gharana

4. Indore gharana

Q.11 According to the standard definition of Census of India, the marginal worker is a person who works for less than _______
days in a year.
Ans 1. 180

2. 173

3. 170

4. 183
Q.12 The Banaras session of the Indian National Congress in 1905 was presided over by _________.
Ans 1. Mahatma Gandhi

2. Subhas Chandra Bose

3. Jawaharlal Nehru

4. Gopal Krishna Gokhale

Q.13 The ‘Agaria’ community of the 19th century was associated with which of the following industries?
Ans 1. Iron industry

2. Cotton textile industry

3. Wood industry

4. Agro Industry

Q.14 Pushyamitra Sunga's capital was at:

Ans 1. Pataliputra

2. Kalinga

3. Nalanda

4. Cuttack

Q.15 What is the charge of an electron?

Ans 1. Positive

2. Neutral

3. Variable

4. Negative

Q.16 Excessive bleeding from wounds may happen due to lack of ____.
Ans 1. Vitamin E

2. Vitamin A

3. Vitamin B12

4. Vitamin K

Q.17 What is the term for a dome-shaped monument that contains sacred relics in Buddhism?
Ans 1. Vihar

2. Stambha

3. Chaitya

4. Stupa

Q.18 In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court of India propound the Basic Structure Doctrine of the Constitution?
Ans 1. Kesavanad Bharati vs. State of Kerala Case

2. Maneka Gandhi vs Union of India Case

3. Golakhnath vs. State of Punjab Case

4. Indira Gandhi vs. Raj Narayan Case

Q.19 Anahat Singh is associated with which of the following sports events?
Ans 1. Squash

2. Chess

3. Badminton

4. Wrestling

Q.20 Fugdi is famous dance of the state of _________.

Ans 1. Tamil Nadu

2. Uttarakhand

3. Punjab

4. Goa
Q.21 The Border-Gavaskar trophy is played between _________.
Ans 1. India and New Zealand

2. India and Pakistan

3. India and Australia

4. India and England

Q.22 Which of the following reports is considered as a piecemeal effort to provide resilience to the successful working of federal
system?
Ans 1. Sarkaria Commission

2. Kothari Commission

3. Thakkar Commission

4. Kapur Commission

Q.23 In 1527, Babur defeated Rana Sanga, the Rajput ruler of Mewar in the Battle of ________.
Ans 1. Tarain

2. Khanwa

3. Chanderi

4. Panipat

Q.24 According to the Multidimensional Poverty Index 2023, which union territory has the least percentage of poor?
Ans 1. Lakshadweep

2. Puducherry

3. Delhi

4. Chandigarh

Q.25 The North-South National Highway Corridor connects which two UTs/States of India?
Ans 1. Jammu and Kashmir - Telangana

2. Ladakh - Kerala

3. Delhi - Odisha

4. Jammu and Kashmir - Tamil Nadu

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined phrase.

In the absence of government rule, riots have broken out all over the country and everything is in a state of
complete chaos.
Ans 1. Anarchy

2. Oligarchy

3. Dictatorship

4. Monarchy

Q.2 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The detail given by the instructor was the ______ one.
Ans 1. more updation

2. most updated

3. updating

4. updates

Q.3 Select the option that will improve the underlined part of the given sentence.
You can do your work well within the stipulated time and be more productive if you learn to keep video games at the length
of your arm.
Ans 1. at arm of his length

2. at arm's weight

3. at arm of your length

4. at arm’s length
Q.4 Select the most appropriate homophone to fill in the blank.

Looking up, she realised she had swum __________ than she’d thought.
Ans 1. farther

2. furthest

3. farthest

4. further

Q.5 The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error. Select the part that contains the error
from the given options. If you don’t find any error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer.

The recommendations of the committee / regarding changes in the eligibility criteria / was not accept.
Ans 1. No Error

2. regarding changes in the eligibility criteria

3. The recommendations of the committee

4. was not accept

Q.6 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
He sings good / among all the / contestants in / the singing competition.
Ans 1. contestants in

2. He sings good

3. the singing competition

4. among all the

Q.7 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans 1. humorous

2. achieve

3. familiar

4. paralel

Q.8 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans 1. Consciencious

2. Unanimous

3. Millennium

4. Inconvenience

Q.9 Select the grammatically correct sentence.

Ans 1. A myriad of possibilities unfolds when the artist embarks on the journey of creative experimentation.

2. A myriad of possibilities unfolds when an artist embarks on a journey of creative experimentation.

3. The myriad of possibilities unfolds when the artist embarks on a journey of creative experimentation.

4. The myriad of possibilities unfolds when an artist embarks on the journey of creative experimentation.

Q.10 Select the word that has the same meaning (SYNONYM) as the underlined word in the given sentence.

The prisoners were living in appalling conditions.

Ans 1. daring

2. ingenuous

3. risky

4. shocking

Q.11 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

One who brings a legal action against someone in court.

Ans 1. Sanctimonious

2. Numismatic

3. Pragmatist

4. Plaintiff
Q.12 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans 1. Abstract

2. Abscess

3. Abstinent

4. Absense

Q.13 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to
substitute it, select ‘No substitution’.

There have been numerous attempts made by the citizens to restore parity.
Ans 1. No substitution

2. Most numerous

3. More numerous

4. Quite numerous

Q.14 Select the word that is opposite in meaning (ANTONYM) to the highlighted word in the given sentence.

We enjoyed the gentle breeze that was blowing.

Ans 1. violent

2. garnished

3. modest

4. soft

Q.15 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Siva is a hard worker. He works ___________.
Ans 1. bad

2. scarcely

3. hardly

4. hard

Q.16 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blanks.

I could _____ the reason for being _____.
Ans 1. bard; barred

2. fine; find

3. find; fined

4. barred; bard

Q.17 Select the option that will improve the underlined part of the given sentence. In case no improvement is needed, select 'No
improvement required'.

Siliguri has joined the nation to celebrate the golden jubilee of the first conquest of Mount Everest by an Indian.
Ans 1. joins the celebratory nation

2. joining the nation celebrate

3. No improvement required

4. joined the national celebration

Q.18 Select the grammatically correct sentence.

Ans 1. Our Principal is a great teacher and administrator.

2. Our Principal is a great teacher and a great administrator.

3. Our Principal is a great teacher and an administrator.

4. Our Principal is great teacher and administrator.

Q.19 Select the most appropriate idiom to substitute the underlined word segment in the given sentence.

If the two families could forget their past quarrels forever, both could benefit immensely.
Ans 1. cut to the quick

2. catch a tartar

3. do a good turn

4. bury the hatchet

Q.20 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Presumably
Ans 1. Certainly

2. Liberally

3. Unlikely

4. Successfully

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
The habit of reading is highly advantageous to us intellectually, emotionally and spiritually. As one gets into the habit of reading, one
gets mental (1)________. It helps us acquire (2)________and attain intellectual (3)_________. Reading takes away our
(4)_________. Reading can bring (5)__________ in our sorrowful times and guide us in our duties.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans 1. coverage

2. success

3. satisfaction

4. exhaustion

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans 1. readiness

2. employment

3. knowledge

4. strategies

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans 1. creation

2. stagnation

3. compression

4. expansion

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans 1. time

2. vigour

3. boredom

4. concern
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
The habit of reading is highly advantageous to us intellectually, emotionally and spiritually. As one gets into the habit of reading, one
gets mental (1)________. It helps us acquire (2)________and attain intellectual (3)_________. Reading takes away our
(4)_________. Reading can bring (5)__________ in our sorrowful times and guide us in our duties.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans 1. comfort

2. resentment

3. lethargy

4. oppression
Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 21/10/2024
Exam
12:30 PM - 2:30 PM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 The average of nine consecutive numbers is 45. The largest number among these numbers is:
Ans 1. 50

2. 41

3. 49

4. 48

Q.2 The following table indicates the distances (in km) travelled by 4 vehicles (A, B, C and D) in 2 days and the bar graph
indicates the time (in hours) taken by the vehicles to travel the distances, respectively. The x - axis indicates the time (in
hours) and the y - axis indicates the vehicles. Study the bar graph carefully and answer the question that follows.

Time taken by 4 vehicles to travel thedistances.

Which of the following vehicles travelled at the same speed on both the days?
Ans 1. Only A and C

2. Only A and D

3. A, C and D

4. Only C and D
Q.3 A sum of money amounts to ₹7,436 after 6 years and ₹9,460 after 10 years at the same rate of simple interest. Find the rate
of interest per annum.
Ans 1. 11.5%

2. 12%

3. 13%

4. 12.5%

Q.4 Distance between A and B is 1200 km. If they start moving towards each other at same time, they will meet in 24 hrs. If A
starts 10 hrs after B, then they will meet after another 20 hrs. What are their respective speeds?
Ans 1. 40 km/h, 25km/h

2. 35 km/h, 25 km/h

3. 25 km/h, 35 km/h

4. 30 km/h, 20 km/h

Q.5

Ans 1. 978 g

2. 975 g

3. 981 g

4. 985 g

Q.6 The price of a commodity is increased by 20% and then again by 25%. By what per cent should the increased price be
reduced to get back to the initial price?
Ans
1.

3. 25%

4. 45%

Q.7 Find the HCF of 576,324 and 360

Ans 1. 36

2. 72

3. 108

4. 144

Q.8

Ans 1. 18 cm

2. 21 cm

3. 15 cm

4. 12 cm

Q.9 Find the volume of the largest right circular cone which is inscribed in a hollow cube of length 6 units and is standing on its
base.
Ans 1. 21π units3

2. 18π units3

3. 9π units3

4. 10π units3
Q.10 Raghav covers a distance of 45 km in 1 hour 40 minutes. Assuming he maintains a constant speed throughout his journey,
what is Raghav’s speed (in m/s)?
Ans 1. 6

2. 9

3. 7.2

4. 7.5

Q.11 A tradesman marks his goods at 40% above the cost price and then allows customers a discount of 15%. What is the profit
percentage for the tradesman?
Ans 1.

Q.12 The table shows the production of different types of cars (in thousands).

What is the ratio of the total production of cars of type Q in 2020 and type R in 2022 taken together to the total production of
cars of type S in 2019 and type P in 2021 taken together?
Ans 1. 35 : 16

2. 16 : 35

3. 17 : 22

4. 22 : 17

Q.13
A can contains a mixture of two liquids, grape juice and
pineapple juice in the ratio 13 : 11. When 8 litres of the
mixture is drawn off, and the can is filled with pineapple juice,
the ratio becomes 13 : 14. How many litres of pineapple juice
was initially contained in the can?
Ans 1. 14 litres

2. 33 litres

3. 28 litres

4. 11 litres

Q.14 Find the arithmetic mean of 5, 15, 25, 26, and 27.
Ans 1. 17.6

2. 19.6

3. 18.6

4. 20.6
Q.15 A shopkeeper buys 15 mobiles and sells 12 mobiles at the cost price of 15 mobiles. If the shopkeeper sells all the mobiles at
the same price at which he sold the 12 mobiles in the first case, what is the profit percentage?
Ans 1. 22.5%

2. 27.5%

3. 25%

4. 20%

Q.16 If the average of 53 consecutive even numbers is 1280. Find the difference between the smallest and the largest number.
Ans 1. 34

2. 124

3. 24

4. 104

Q.17 A total of 24 men working 7 hours a day can complete a task in 10 days. In how many days will 21 men working9 hours a day
complete the same task?
Ans
1.

Q.18 Find the area of a parallelogram with a base of 12 m and a height of 20 m.

Ans
1.

Q.19 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹3500 as a sum borrowed at 3% per year rate of interest for 6 years.
Ans 1. 630

2. 570

3. 670

4. 590

Q.20 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹2500 as a sum borrowed at 5% per year rate of interest for 6 years.
Ans 1. 710

2. 690

3. 750

4. 790

Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1 In a certain code language, ‘SOAP’ is coded as ‘4729’ and ‘POSE’ is coded as ‘9257’. What is the code for ‘E’ in that
language?
Ans 1. 5

2. 2

3. 9

4. 7
Q.2 In a certain code language, ‘BLUE’ is coded as ‘5193’ and ‘CABS’ is coded as ‘3246’.What is the code for ‘B’ in the given
code language?
Ans 1. 4

2. 6

3. 3

4. 5

Statements:
All kites are eagles.
All eagles are birds.

Conclusions:
(I) All birds are kites.
(II) Some birds are eagles.
Ans 1. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows

2. Only conclusion (II) follows

3. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow

4. Only conclusion (I) follows

Q.4 GNJF is related to IPLH in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, KRNJ is related to MTPL.
To which of the following is OVRN related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. QXTP

2. XQTP

3. XQPT

4. QXPT

Q.5

Ans 1. ÷ and ×

2. + and ×

3. + and ÷

4. − and +

Q.6 In the following number-pairs, the second number is obtained by applying certain mathematical operations to the first
number. Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/ subtracting /multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
18, 29
49, 60
Ans 1. 86, 99

2. 92, 123

3. 88, 79

4. 84, 95

Q.7 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?

MSN, LRM, KQL, JPK, ?

Ans 1. JOI

2. IOJ

3. IJO

4. JIO
Q.8 In a certain code language, ‘MILK’ is coded as ‘5642’ and ‘LIKE’ is coded as ‘8425’. What is the code for ‘E’ in that language?
Ans 1. 8

2. 4

3. 6

4. 5

Q.9 4 is related to 41 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 9 is related to 91. To which of the following is 13 related,
following the same logic?
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into
1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans 1. 129

2. 130

3. 131

4. 127

Q.10 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

6, 12, ?, 144, 720 ,4320, 30240

Ans 1. 42

2. 38

3. 40

4. 36

Q.11 A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order). Only three
people sit between E and F when counted from the left of E. Only three people sit between G and D when counted from the
right of D. A sits to the immediate right of G. C is an immediate neighbour of D as well as F.
Who sits second to the left of B?
Ans 1. E

2. G

3. C

4. A

Q.12

Ans 1.

4.
Q.13

Ans

4.
Q.14 Identify the figure given in the options that when put in place of the question mark (?) will logically complete the series?

Ans

Q.15 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements:
Some horses are goats.
All goats are jackals.
Conclusions:
(I): Some horses are jackals.
(II): All jackals are goats.
Ans 1. Only conclusion (II) follows.

2. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

3. Only conclusion (I) follows.

4. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

Q.16 Select the option figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the figure given below to complete the pattern.

Ans

Q.17 ZMJI is related to UIGG in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, TIMN is related to OEJL.
To which of the following is PHJI related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. GKHF

2. KGDF

3. KJED

4. KDGG

Q.18 Which two numbers should be interchanged to make the following equation correct?
(8÷ 2)× 11 −9× 3 + (51÷ 17) × 6 = 30
(Note: Interchange should be done of the entire number and not individual digits of a given number.)
Ans 1. 11 and 6

2. 9 and 6

3. 9 and 11

4. 3 and 6
Q.19 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans
1.

Q.20 Five friends, Ashish, Bipin, Chandu, Dinesh and Emmanuel, went on a trek. On the mountain top, they lit a campfire and sat
around it in a circle facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order).
It was recalled that there was only one person sitting between Ashish and Chandu, while Chandu himself was sitting second
to the left of Bipin.
If Dinesh was an immediate neighbour of both Chandu and Bipin, who was sitting to the immediate right of Ashish?
Ans 1. Emmanuel

2. Bipin

3. Chandu

4. Dinesh

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 Who among the following married the Mughal emperor Jahangir in 1611 and received the title ‘Nur Jahan’?
Ans 1. Mehrunnisa

2. Mumtaz Mahal

3. Jahanara Begum

4. Hasina Begum Sahiba

Q.2 Which of the following options contains groups of cropping seasons in India?
Ans 1. Rabi, Kharif and Jhum

2. Rabi, Podu and Zaid

3. Ray, Kharif and Zaid

4. Rabi, Kharif and Zaid

Q.3 On which of the following days is National Integration Day observed?

Ans 1. 2 October

2. 19 November

3. 15 August

4. 26 January
Q.4 How many other members are there in the Finance Commission EXCEPT, Chairman?
Ans 1. 4

2. 5

3. 3

4. 6

Q.5 A tunnel that runs through the cell wall between two plant cells is known as:
Ans 1. peroxisome

2. ribosome

3. plasmodesmata

4. protoplasm

Q.6 Which state topped the medal tally at the 37th National Games event held in Goa?
Ans 1. Haryana

2. Maharashtra

3. Punjab

4. Kerala

Q.7 ‘The Best Mistakes of My Life’ is an autobiography of which Indian Actor?

Ans 1. Sanjay Khan

2. Shahrukh Khan

3. Dilip Kumar

4. Salman Khan

Q.8 According to Article 51A of the Indian Constitution, it is the fundamental duty of every person to uphold and protect the
sovereignty, unity and ______________________.
Ans 1. harmony of India

2. integrity of India

3. diversity of India

4. spirituality of India

Q.9 Deodhar Trophy is given in ________.

Ans 1. cricket

2. football

3. tennis

4. hockey

Q.10 Who among the following are the target beneficiaries for the ‘Vishwakarma Yojana’ launched by Government of India on 17
September 2023?
Ans 1. Individuals skilled in traditional folk dance

2. Individuals skilled in traditional craftsmanship

3. Individuals skilled in traditional folklore

4. Individuals skilled in traditional folk songs

Q.11 The process by which a water body gradually becomes enriched with nutrients and minerals, mainly phosphorus and
nitrogen, leading to enormous growth of algae on the surface of the water, thus decreasing the amount of dissolved oxygen
in the water is known as:
Ans 1. Biomagnification

2. Hypoxia

3. Eutrophication

4. Bioaccumulation
Q.12 What solution should be used to test for the presence of starch in food?
Ans 1. Ethylene glycol – water solution

2. Magnesium solution

3. Iodine solution

4. Talc solution

Q.13 Who among the following led the Indian delegation to attend the 56thAnnual General Meeting of the Board of Governors of
Asian Development Bank (ADB) along with Investor/ Bilateral and other associated meetings, in Incheon, the Republic of
Korea, from 2 to 5 May 2023?
Ans 1. Renuka Singh Saruta

2. Smriti Irani

3. Nirmala Sitharaman

4. Meenakshi Lekhi

Q.14 Who introduced ‘Objective Resolution’ in the Constituent Assembly?

Ans 1. Vallabhbhai Patel

2. BR Ambedkar

3. Jawaharlal Nehru

4. Rajendra Prasad

Q.15 The elements in Group 17 of the periodic table are known as:
Ans 1. halogens

2. noble gases

3. alkali metals

4. transition metals

Q.16 The Buland Darwaza was the structure built by Akbar at which of the following places in India?
Ans 1. Lahore

2. Agra

3. Fatehpur Sikri

4. Delhi

Q.17 Which of the following banking institutions played an instrumental role in financial inclusion through microfinance loans
and their expansion in India?
Ans 1. State Bank of India

2. National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development

3. Central Bank of India

4. Reserve Bank of India

Q.18 Bhangra and Giddha dance forms are associated with which Indian state?
Ans 1. Maharashtra

2. Punjab

3. Gujarat

4. Odisha

Q.19 Thetakudi Harihara Vinayakram, who became the first Carnatic musician to win a Grammy, is known for playing which
musical instrument?
Ans 1. Kanjira

2. Mridangam

3. Shehnai

4. Ghatam
Q.20 As per Census 2011, which of the following union territories has the highest percentage of rural population?
Ans 1. Delhi

2. Daman and Diu

3. Chandigarh

4. Puducherry

Q.21 Who among the following freedom fighters was associated with the series of nine articles known as ‘New Lamp for Old’?
Ans 1. Sardar Ajit Singh

2. Swami Vivekananda

3. Aurobindo Ghose

4. Bhagat Singh

Q.22 Which of the following ministries has launched the National Career Service Portal (www.ncs.gov.in) ?
Ans 1. Ministry of Labour and Employment

2. Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports

3. Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions

4. Ministry of Education

Q.23 Raja and Radha Reddy were awarded the Padma Bhushan in 2000 for giving a new dimension to which dance form?
Ans 1. Kuchipudi

2. Manipuri

3. Odissi

4. Sattriya

Q.24 During the Mauryan society, Megasthenes divided the Indian society into seven distinct groups. In which distinct group
were the ‘king’s counsellors’ placed?
Ans 1. First

2. Second

3. Fifth

4. Seventh

Q.25 Which of the following is not a tributary of Godavari River?

Ans 1. Indravati

2. Pranhita

3. Kameng

4. Manjra

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Jurisdiction
Ans 1. Descent

2. Governance

3. Violation

4. Expression
Q.2 Select the most appropriate idiom for the underlined segment in the given sentence.

Sarvana failed in the examination last week and is in extreme depression these days.
Ans 1. In the red

2. In the doldrums

3. In the lurch

4. In cold blood

Q.3 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the highlighted group of words in the given sentence.

RK Laxman was well-known for his drawings of people in such a highly exaggerated manner as to cause laughter.
Ans 1. portraits

2. articles

3. caricatures

4. sketches

Q.4 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

I always prefer a small, cosy cottage ______ a high-rise apartment.

Ans 1. from

2. to

3. than

4. for

Q.5 Select the word that has the same meaning (SYNONYM) as the underlined word in the given sentence.

Shylock, the Jewish moneylender, and Antonio, the rich Merchant of Venice loathed each other.
Ans 1. lathered

2. admired

3. abhorred

4. latte

Q.6 Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word in the following sentence.

Success demands hard work, diligence and perseverance.

Ans 1. Effort

2. Coolness

3. indolence

4. Trouble

Q.7 In the following sentence the underlined part contains an error. Alternatives to the underlined part are given as options.
Choose the correct alternative.

She is late than we expected.

Ans 1. latest

2. latter

3. later

4. more late

Q.8 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains anerror in phrasal verb.

Bindu asked Arya to fill out for / her so that she could / take care of / her sick father.
Ans 1. take care of

2. her sick father

3. her so that he could

4. Bindu asked Arya to fill out for

Q.9 Select the correctly spelled sentence.
Ans 1. The audience applauded the muzicians performance.

2. The audience applauded the musician's performance.

3. The audiance applauded the musicans performance.

4. The audiance applauded the musician's perfomance.

Q.10 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.
A person who travels from place to place, especially for work
Ans 1. Pilgrim

2. Vagrant

3. Nomad

4. Itinerant

Q.11 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The restaurant's menu featured a variety of __________ dishes.
Ans 1. delicius

2. delicious

3. delecious

4. delitious

Q.12 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Head in the clouds
Ans 1. Being punctual and sincere

2. Working hard

3. Thinking about the sky and clouds

4. Being impractical

Q.13 Select the grammatically correct sentence.

Ans 1. If you want to have an sound working knowledge of Japanese, you must read this book.

2. If you want to have a sound working knowledge of Japanese, you must read this book.

3. If you want to have a sound working knowledge of the Japanese, you must read this book.

4. If you want to have sound working knowledge of the Japanese, you must read this book.

Q.14 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans 1. parliment

2. pastime

3. perseverance

4. perceive

Q.15 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Woodcutting involves the removal of useless trees first, ________ by medium and finest quality timber trees.
Ans 1. enacted

2. followed

3. compared

4. adjusted

Q.16 Select the grammatically correct sentence.

Ans 1. The intricate dance of neurotransmitters in the synaptic cleft plays a crucial role in neural communication.

2. An intricate dance of neurotransmitters in a synaptic cleft plays a crucial role in neural communication.

3. An intricate dance of neurotransmitters in the synaptic cleft plays the crucial role in neural communication.

4. The intricate dance of neurotransmitters in a synaptic cleft plays the crucial role in neural communication.
Q.17 Choose the correctly spelt word to fill in the blank meaningfully.
His _______________ is a brilliant student.
Ans 1. sune

2. sone

3. son

4. sun

Q.18 Change the following sentence into positive degree.

Sushma is one of the smartest girls in the class.

Ans 1. No other girl is as smart as Sushma.

2. Few girls in the class are as smart as Sushma.

3. Sushma is smarter than any other girls in the class.

4. Sushma is the smart girl of the class.

Q.19 Select the most appropriate synonym of ‘clarify’ in the sentence given below.
The last question of the examination paper confused me when it asked to illustrate the Pythagoras’ theorem with the help of
examples.
Ans 1. Last

2. Confused

3. Illustrate

4. Help

Q.20 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
The dancer / performed weird / but the music was / highly enchanting.
Ans 1. but the music was

2. highly enchanting.

3. The dancer

4. performed weird

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most
appropriate option to fill in each blank.
We are familiar with the quote, " "If winter comes, can spring be far ___1___?" Winters are depressing, but we bear because we know
that it will not ___2___ till perpetuity. Spring ___3___ a new life in us. As the spring begins to set itself, the nights become shorter and
the days get longer. Gardens and lawns become colourful, buds ___4___ as flowers, birds chirp and butterflies fly from one flower to
another to ___5____ on the sweet nectar. The dullness is taken over by brightness.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans 1. behind and far

2. behind and below

3. behind

4. far behind
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most
appropriate option to fill in each blank.
We are familiar with the quote, " "If winter comes, can spring be far ___1___?" Winters are depressing, but we bear because we know
that it will not ___2___ till perpetuity. Spring ___3___ a new life in us. As the spring begins to set itself, the nights become shorter and
the days get longer. Gardens and lawns become colourful, buds ___4___ as flowers, birds chirp and butterflies fly from one flower to
another to ___5____ on the sweet nectar. The dullness is taken over by brightness.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans 1. last

2. rest

3. hold

4. hold on

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans 1. infuses

2. immerse

3. inculcate

4. imbue

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans 1. come out

2. fall over

3. pull out

4. take out

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans 1. gulp

2. food

3. gobble

4. suck
Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 21/10/2024
Exam
4:00 PM - 5:30 PM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 The average age of 40 students in a class is 12 years. The average age of the students increased by 4 months due to 20 new
admissions in the class. The average age of the newly admitted students is:
Ans 1. 14 years

2. 13 years 4 months

3. 13 years

4. 14 years 6 months

Q.2 If p is directly proportional to q and is p = 7 when q = 6, then what is the value of p when q = 21?
Ans 1. 25.0

2. 23.5

3. 24.5

4. 24.0

Q.3

Ans 1. 2.2 cm

2. 3.5 cm

3. 3.8 cm

4. 2.9 cm

Q.4 Rohit made a profit of 22% when he sold a jacket for ₹7,930. Find the cost price of the jacket.
Ans 1. ₹6,500

2. ₹7,500

3. ₹6,000

4. ₹7,000
Q.5 Geeta went to her home town at a distance of 270 km from her house. She started her journey at 10:00 a.m. and reached the
destination at 02:00 p.m. by travelling 20 km by cab at a speed of 60 km/h and 240 km by train running at a speed of 80 km/h.
She covered the remaining distance by an auto to reach her place. What was the speed of the auto?
Ans 1. 4 km/h

2. 18 km/h

3. 20 km/h

4. 15 km/h

Q.6 The sum of length and breadth of a rectangle is 68 m and the ratio of length and breadth is 11:23. What is the area of the
rectangle (in m2 )?
Ans 1. 976

2. 1012

3. 253

4. 1331

Q.7 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹3000 as a sum borrowed at 3% per year rate of interest for 3 years.
Ans 1. 270

2. 210

3. 230

4. 310

Q.8 On a 200-m-long circular track, two people start from the same point, at the same time, at speeds of 12 km/h and 15 km/h,
respectively. After how much time will they meet again for the first time if they are running in the same direction?
Ans 1. 240 seconds

2. 220 seconds

3. 180 seconds

4. 200 seconds

Q.9 Maria buys a dress for ₹3,000. She could not decide between a discount of 35% and three successive discounts of 20%, 10%
and 5%. The difference between both discounts (in ₹) is:
Ans 1. 0

2. 20

3. 68

4. 102

Q.10 What is the single equivalent price increase for two successive price increases of 12% and 18% on an article?
Ans 1. 15%

2. 30%

3. 32.16%

4. 30.24%
Q.11 The following bar graph represents the quantity of grains produced in a state in the years 2014, 2015 and 2016. Study the
given bar graph and answer thequestion that follows.

What is the difference in the percentage of wheat production in the year 2014 to the percentage of wheat production in the
year 2016? (Round up to two decimal places)
Ans 1. 4.23%

2. 2.35%

3. 1.92%

4. 3.45%

Q.12 The average age of a class of 39 students is 15 years. If the age of the teacher be included, then the average increases by 3
months. Find the age of the teacher.
Ans 1. 26 years

2. 24 years

3. 27 years

4. 25 years

Q.13
Divyansh invested of his capital at 10%, at 20% and the remaining at 30% simple interest
per annum, respectively. If his annual income is₹3,220, then find the capital (in₹).
Ans 1. 13,500

2. 14,000

3. 15,300

4. 17,000
Q.14

Ans 1. B

2. A

3. Both B and C

4. C

Q.15

Ans 1. 239

2. 231

3. 233

4. 234

Q.16 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹2500 as a sum borrowed at 3% per year rate of interest for 4 years.
Ans 1. 260

2. 240

3. 300

4. 340

Q.17 The average age of a husband and wife, and their child 3 years ago, was 27 years, and that of the wife and the child 5 years
ago was 20 years. The present age of the husband is:
Ans 1. 35 years

2. 45 years

3. 40 years

4. 50 years
Q.18 15 kg of superior quality of wheat is mixed with 5 kg of inferior quality of wheat. The price of superior quality and inferior
quality wheat is ₹80 and ₹60, respectively. Find the average price per kg of the mixture.
Ans 1. ₹65

2. ₹75

3. ₹70

4. ₹150

Q.19 Shikha sells a bookshelf to Vansh at a loss of 5%, Vansh sells the same bookshelf to Swarnima at a profit of 10%, and
Swarnima sells the same bookshelf to Nikhil at a loss of 20%. If Nikhil purchased the bookshelf for ₹16,720, then what was
the cost (in ₹) of the bookshelf for Shikha?
Ans 1. 18,000

2. 19,500

3. 20,000

4. 21,500

Q.20 Find the LCM of 8, 12, 18, 24 and 36.

Ans 1. 36

2. 64

3. 72

4. 27

Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1 Six people A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order). E
is sitting second to the left of C. C is an immediate neighbour of both A and B. F is sitting third to the right of A.
How many people are sitting between D and C when counted from the left of D?
Ans 1. 1

2. 4

3. 2

4. 3

Q.2 What will come in the place of ‘?’ in the following equation, if ‘−’ and ‘×‘ are interchanged and ‘+’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?
28 ÷ 18 + 6 × 6 − 4 = ?
Ans 1. 9

2. 17

3. 7

4. 14

Q.3 Seven people R, S, T, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same
order). G is sitting second to the right of E. Only one person is sitting between G and R. Only one person is sitting between
R and T. F is sitting second to the left of D. D is an immediate neighbour of T. How many people are sitting between S and T
when counted from the left of S?
Ans 1. One

2. Two

3. Three

4. Four
Q.4 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans
1.

Q.5 12 is related to 61 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 15 is related to 76. To which of the following is 16
related, following the same logic?

(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding / subtracting / multiplying, etc., to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13
into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans 1. 84

2. 81

3. 86

4. 88

Q.6 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements:
All bongos are sitars.
No cymbal is a sitar.
Conclusions:
[1] All sitars are bongos.
[2] Some bongos are cymbals.
Ans 1. Both conclusions [1] and [2] follow

2. Neither conclusion [1] nor [2] follows

3. Only conclusion [2] follows

4. Only conclusion [1] follows

Q.7

Ans 1.

4.
Q.8 Read the given statement(s) and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even
if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statement(s).
Statements: All crocs are frogs. All crocs are turtles.
Conclusions:
(I) All turtles are frogs.
(II) At least some frogs are crocs.
Ans 1. Only conclusion (I) follows.

2. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

3. Only conclusion (II) follows.

4. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

Q.9 Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series and complete
the pattern.

Ans

Q.10 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into
1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
(12, 77, 5)
(21, 87, 3)
Ans 1. (15, 127, 7)

2. (11, 188, 6)

3. (12, 197, 3)

4. (17, 401, 9)
Q.11 Select the option in which the given figure is embedded (rotation is NOT allowed).

Ans

Q.12 In a certain code language, ‘they are smart’ is written as ‘bt mt rt’ and ‘she is smart’ is written as ‘rt kt st’. How is ‘smart’
written in the given code language?
Ans 1. mt

2. rt

3. st

4. kt

Q.13 In a certain code language, 253 stands for ‘chairs are old’, 378 stands for ‘make good chairs’ and 546 stands for ‘lady is old’.
Which of the following stands for ‘are’ in the same code language?
Ans 1. 5

2. 4

3. 3

4. 2
Q.14 Which two signs should be interchanged to make the given equation correct?
45 − 33 ÷ 3 × 4 + 67 = 22
Ans 1. + and ×

2. ÷ and ×

3. − and ×

4. − and +

Q.15 Select the figure from the given options, which when put in place of the question mark (?) will logically complete the series.

Ans

Q.16 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?
25000, 5000, 1000, 200, 40, ?
Ans 1. 12

2. 20

3. 16

4. 8

Q.17 In a certain code language, ‘JOKE’ is coded as ‘NIOY’ and ‘TRICKY’ is coded as ‘XLMWOS’. What is the code for
‘SPEAKERS’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. WJILOYVM

2. WJHUOYVM

3. WJIUOYVM

4. WJIUOYUM
Q.18 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?

GKS, MQY, SWE, YCK, ?

Ans 1. EIQ

2. EQW

3. EWR

4. EIO

Q.19 QFRG is related to NCVK in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, KZZO is related to
HWDS. To which of the following is ETHW related, following the same logic?

Ans 1. BPMZ

2. APLZ

3. BQLA

4. CRKB

Q.20 BEAR is related to YBXO in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, WATCH is related to
TXQZE. To which of the following is LOTUS related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. ILQRP

2. IJRRP

3. IKQRP

4. IJQQP

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 Who among the following was the first President of Indian National congress?
Ans 1. Womesh Chandra Banerjee

2. Dadabhai Naoroji

3. George Yule

4. Badruddin Tyabji

Q.2 Who among the following was the famous ruler of the Gauda Kingdom?
Ans 1. Rajyavardhan

2. Grahavarman

3. Rudradaman

4. Shashanka

Q.3 Which of the following countries hosted the ACC Under-19 Asia Cup cricket in the year 2023?
Ans 1. Sri Lanka

2. Pakistan

3. UAE

4. India

Q.4 Coimbatore, which is located in the state of ________, is famous for the cotton textile industry.
Ans 1. Kerala

2. Karnataka

3. Andhra Pradesh

4. Tamil Nadu
Q.5 What is the duration for which a member of a House of Legislature of a State is, without permission of the House, absent
from all meetings, thereof the house may declare his seat vacant?
Ans 1. 60 days

2. 30 days

3. 90 days

4. 180 days

Q.6 In December 2023, which former Tata Consultancy Services (TCS) CEO and MD joined the Indian Institute of Technology
Bombay (IIT Bombay) as Head of Translational Research and Entrepreneurship?
Ans 1. Subramaniam Ramadorai

2. Rajesh Gopinathan

3. FC Kohli

4. Natarajan Chandrasekaran

Q.7 Mangalampalli Balamuralikrishna was an Indian Carnatic singer born in Sankaraguptam village of which state?
Ans 1. Andhra Pradesh

2. Karnataka

3. Kerala

4. Tamil Nadu

Q.8 The Parliamentary form of Government is a key feature given in the Indian Constitution and its provisions are detailed in
Articles _____________ of Part V (Chapter II).
Ans 1. 124 to 168

2. 211 to 236

3. 79 to 122

4. 170 to 203

Q.9 What is the main purpose of the office of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG)?
Ans 1. Formulating the national budget

2. Regulating tax collection

3. Investigating and reporting on financial transactions

4. Enforcing government policies

Q.10 In the South Indian temples, the pyramidal tower is called the _________.
Ans 1. mandapa

2. vahan

3. shikhara

4. vimana

Q.11 In India, documented by a study, in which level of education is the majority of the population unemployed?
Ans 1. Middle school

2. Matriculates

3. Graduate and post-graduate

4. Primary school

Q.12 In the year 2010, Commonwealth Games was hosted by which of the following countries?
Ans 1. England

2. Canada

3. Australia

4. India
Q.13 Who among the following is the author of the book ‘The Hungry Tide’?
Ans 1. Amitav Ghosh

2. RK Narayan

3. Mulk Raj Anand

4. Ruskin Bond

Q.14 Select the INCORRECT statement from the following.

Ans 1. The development of the cotton textile industry in Britain led to the decline of Indian textile producers.

2. The first cotton textile mill in India was established in Bombay in 1854.

3. The Sale and Devang communities of South India were famous for weaving.

4. Cotton clothes made in England had driven Indian clothes out of the markets of Europe and America in the beginning of the
20th century.

Q.15 Odissi dancer ____________ was awarded the Sangeet Natak Akademi Award 2022 in the dance category.
Ans 1. Debi Vasu

2. Shubhada Varadkar

3. Kumkum Mohanty

4. Niranjan Rout

Q.16 The famous Jain temple of Dilwara, built by Solanki rulers, is located at which place?
Ans 1. Mount Abu

2. Ajmer

3. Jaipur

4. Surat

Q.17 ‘Dollu Kunitha’ is primarily a folk dance of which of the following Indian states?
Ans 1. Karnataka

2. Goa

3. Kerala

4. Tamil Nadu

Q.18 According to the census of India 2011, which of the following states has the highest percentage of rural population?
Ans 1. Bihar

2. Assam

3. West Bengal

4. Uttar Pradesh

Q.19 Which of the following raw materials is NOT used to prepare the baking soda?
Ans 1. NH3

2. Na2CO3

3. H2O

4. NaCl

Q.20 Hampi Utsava is a colourful cultural festival that emulates the ethos and grandeur of which of the following empires?
Ans 1. Satavahana

2. Kadamba

3. Chalukya

4. Vijayanagara
Q.21 In June 2023, which state Government launched a project named ‘Pride’ to provide employment opportunities to the
transgender community in diverse and innovative sectors?
Ans 1. Kerala

2. Sikkim

3. Rajasthan

4. Goa

Q.22 Which of the following are edible polysaccharides?

Ans 1. Cellulose, chitin and myosin

2. Starch, alginates, pectins and chitosans

3. Sucrose, glucose and cellulose

4. Methyl cellulose, chitin and actin

Q.23 Which of the following is a molecular compound?

Ans 1. CaO

2. CO2

3. MgSO4

4. NaCl

Q.24 Which of the following States/Union Territories is included in the ‘Areas of Inadequate Rainfall’ of India?
Ans 1. Haryana

2. Meghalaya

3. Andaman and Nicobar Islands

4. Ladakh

Q.25 Eutrophication is a condition where excessive growth of algal bloom occurs on the surface of a water body because of
abundant nutrients. Which of the following are the key nutrients for eutrophication?
Ans 1. Nitrogen and potassium

2. Phosphorus and iron

3. Phosphorus and nitrogen

4. Iron and nitrogen

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the highlighted group of words in the given sentence.

We had to study a poem of lamentation, especially for the dead, written by Thomas Gray.
Ans 1. an elegy

2. a report

3. an essay

4. an account

Q.2 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

'Hold someone's feet to the fire'
Ans 1. Agree upon a shared venture with full conviction

2. Take big risks without knowing the consequences

3. Think over a new proposal

4. Insist that someone fulfil their promises or obligations

Q.3 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word in the given sentence.

The mellow tune of the flute soothes me.

Ans 1. harsh

2. lyrical

3. golden

4. quiet

Q.4 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the highlighted group of words in the given sentence.

The practice of having two or more spouses at the same time was quite common in the olden days.
Ans 1. Parochialism

2. Patricide

3. Patriarchy

4. Polygamy

Q.5 Select the option that rectifies the spelling of the underlined word in the given sentence.

A hospital's hygine is the standard against which cleanliness is measured.

Ans 1. higenie

2. hygiene

3. hygeine

4. hygene

Q.6 Select the appropriate option to fill in the blank.

I haven't seen him _______ last week.

Ans 1. for

2. beyond

3. since

4. to

Q.7 Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. Select the option that contains an error.

The team with a high motivation level succeeded in its project despite of the challenges it faced.
Ans 1. succeeded in its project

2. a high motivation level

3. The team with

4. despite of the challenges it faced.

Q.8 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM for the underlined word in the given sentence.

Such specifications have revived our designers and manufacturers, whereas this new arrangement will free them.
Ans 1. productive

2. restrain

3. swatted

4. senior

Q.9 Select the most appropriate idiom that can complete the given sentence.

Recent research says that most of our cottage industries lack finance. Thus, they are ____________.
Ans 1. thrown out of gear

2. worn and torn

3. taking somebody for a ride

4. under a cloud
Q.10 Select the correct spelling of the underlined word in the given sentence.

The miracle of resurection is not medically proven.

Ans 1. resurrecsion

2. ressurrection

3. resurrection

4. ressurection

Q.11 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Disposed
Ans 1. Retained

2. Pretended

3. Detained

4. Minded

Q.12 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans 1. Affiliate

2. Affliction

3. Apraisal

4. Anxious

Q.13 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Sloppy
Ans 1. Untidy

2. Humid

3. Rough

4. Dashing

Q.14 In the following sentence the underlined part contains an error. Alternatives to the underlined part are given as options.
Select the correct alternative.
It is easiest to stay calm than to protest.
Ans 1. easier

2. the easier

3. more easier

4. easy

Q.15 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Some types of ________ suck blood.

Ans 1. latch

2. leak

3. leach

4. leech

Q.16 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

This boy performed / extremely good / in the / dance competition.

Ans 1. extremely good

2. This boy performed

3. in the

4. dance competition
Q.17 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Active community involvement _____________ a sense of belonging and contributes to the overall well-being of society.
Ans 1. forgets

2. collects

3. fails

4. fosters

Q.18 Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. Select the option that contains an error.
Nagamani, a brave student, lodged a F.I.R. against the criminal.
Ans 1. Nagamani, a brave

2. against the criminal

3. student, lodged

4. a F.I.R.

Q.19 The given sentence has an error. Select the option that correctly rectifies the error.

India is not on war with Pakistan.

Ans 1. for Pakistan

2. not at

3. not of

4. at Pakistan

Q.20 The following sentence has been divided into four segments. Identify the segment that has a grammatical error.
He will have to / knuckle up really seriously, / if he wants to / crack the upcoming deal.
Ans 1. crack the upcoming deal.

2. He will have to

3. knuckle up really seriously

4. if he wants to

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

Throughout human history, there have been numerous, strange and unexplainable events that have occurred on our (1)______. From
mysterious disappearances to bizarre natural phenomena, these (2)_____ continue to captivate our imagination and spark curiosity.
On 30 June 1908, a massive explosion (3)______ in the remote Tunguska region of Siberia. The (4)_____ of the explosion is still
debated, but it is believed to have been caused by a meteor or comet. Another fascinating phenomenon, the Bermuda Triangle is a
region in the western part of the North Atlantic Ocean where ships and planes have mysteriously (5)________.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans 1. country

2. planet

3. neighbourhood

4. home
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans 1. changes

2. adventures

3. events

4. advent

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans 1. conspired

2. took place

3. appeared

4. came about

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans 1. cause

2. commencement

3. stages

4. beginning
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans 1. disappeared

2. besotted

3. invisible

4. concealed
Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 22/10/2024
Exam
9:00 AM - 11:00 AM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 During the evening patrolling, a policeman noticed a thief snatching a lady’s mobile phone at a distance of 200 m. The thief
starts running at a speed of 15 km/hr. If the policeman is chasing him at a speed of 16 km/hr, then the time taken to catch the
thief is:
Ans 1. 18 minutes

2. 12 minutes

3. 24 minutes

4. 30 minutes

Q.2 A television costs₹20,500 for a trader. He fixes its marked price as₹24,000 and gives a discount of 15%.He further gives a
discount of 5%for cash payment. Find his percentage of profit or loss.
Ans
1.

Q.3 The average of 42 numbers is 25 and that of other 28 numbers is 40. What is the average of all the numbers?
Ans 1. 31

2. 70

3. 69

4. 30

Q.4 What sum (in ₹) will earn a simple interest of ₹240 in 4 years at 8% per year rate of interest?
Ans 1. 1000

2. 375

3. 1500

4. 750

Q.5 When 80% of a number is added to 80, the result is the same number. Find the number.
Ans 1. 420

2. 380

3. 320

4. 400

Q.6

Ans 1. 3696

2. 3256

3. 3854

4. 3145

Q.7 The perimeter of a rhombus is 160 cm and one of its diagonals has a length 50 cm. Find the area (in cm2) of the rhombus.
Ans 1.

Q.8 The average of runs scored by a player in 22 innings is 40 runs. How many runs should he score in the 23rd innings so that
his average is increased by 6 runs?
Ans 1. 148 runs

2. 178 runs

3. 188 runs

4. 158 runs
Q.9 In a box, Refrigerator covers and Washing Machine covers are in the ratio of 7 : 11. If the Washing Machine covers are 660,
how many Refrigerator covers are there?
Ans 1. 430

2. 410

3. 420

4. 400

Q.10

Ans
1.

Q.11 P, Q and R start running around a circular track and complete one round in 18, 22 and 30 seconds, respectively. In how
much time will they meet again at the starting point?
Ans 1. 16 min 30 sec

2. 16 min 50 sec

3. 11 min 30 sec

4. 11 min 50 sec

Q.12 Aditya bought a mobile for ₹21,500 and sold it for ₹18,500. Find the loss percentage (up to two decimal places) in the
complete process.
Ans 1. 10.69%

2. 12.38%

3. 13.95%

4. 11.25%

Q.13

Ans 1. 1678

2. 1898

3. 1520

4. 1799

Q
.
1
4

A 1. 17.5 cm
n
s
2. 19 cm

3. 31.5 cm

4. 25 cm

Q.15 A borrows ₹7,500 for 4 years at 8% p.a. simple interest. B borrows the same amount at simple interest of 9% for the first
year, 10% for the second year and 6% for the next two years. What is simple interest paid by A and B in total (in ₹)?
Ans 1. 4,275

2. 4,175

3. 4,725

4. 4,545
Q.16 The given bar given shows the income and expenditure (in ₹ lakh) of 5 companies (A, B, C, D, and E) in the year 2022. Study
the graph and answer the question that follows.

Which company earned the maximum percentage profit in the year 2022?
Ans 1. B

2. E

3. C

4. D

Q.17 Find the HCF of the numbers 216, 360 and 504.
Ans 1. 72

2. 108

3. 252

4. 180

Q.18 There are two types of dal. Type 1 dal costs ₹100 per kg and type 2 dal costs ₹120 per kg, respectively. If both the dal are
mixed in the ratio 2 : 3, find the cost of the mixed dal per kg.
Ans 1. ₹110

2. ₹115

3. ₹114

4. ₹112

Q.19 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹3000 as a sum borrowed at 9% per year rate of interest for 4 years.
Ans 1. 1120

2. 1020

3. 1080

4. 1040

Q
.
2
0
A 1.
n
s
2.

Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1 UKCT is related to QGYP in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, LPBR is related to
HLXN. To which of the following is DGYJ related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. ZCUF

2. XBUF

3. ZBSF

4. YCSE
Q.2 Identify the figure given in the options which when put in place of (?) will logically complete the series.

Ans

Q.3 Select the option figure in which the given figure is embedded as its part (rotation is NOT allowed).

Ans

Q.4 In a certain code language, ‘SANE’ is coded as ‘5168’ and ‘GOAT’ is coded as ‘6437’.What is the code for ‘A’ in the given
code language?
Ans 1. 3

2. 1

3. 5

4. 6
Q.5 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into
1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

(8, 24, 12)

(16, 20, 5)
Ans 1. (21, 88, 16)

2. (17, 75, 18)

3. (13, 24, 8)

4. (19, 57, 12)

Q.6 What should come in place ofthe question mark (?) in the given series?

5 ,15, 45, 135 ,405 ,?

Ans 1. 1215

2. 1255

3. 1315

4. 1125

Q.7 I, J, K, L, M, N and O are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order). J sits fourth
to the right of I. K sits to the immediate right of J. L sits to the immediate right of I. N sits fourth to the left of M. M is not an
immediate neighbour of K. How many people sit between O and N when counted from the right of O?
Ans 1. 2

2. 4

3. 5

4. 3

Q.8 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘+’ and ‘×’ are interchanged and ‘−’ and ‘÷’ are
interchanged?
14 ÷ 12 − 2 + 2 × 16 = ?
Ans 1. 18

2. 42

3. 24

4. 20

Q.9

Ans

Q.10 This question has two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to
be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions
logically follow(s) from the given statements.
Statements:
All jugs are taps.
Some taps are hats.
Conclusions:
(I) Some taps are jugs.
(II)All hats are jugs.
Ans 1. Only conclusion (I) follows

2. Only conclusion (II) follows

3. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows

4. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow

Q.11 Find the missing term in the below series:
B2, C3, E5, G7, __, M13, Q17.
Ans 1. I10

2. K11

3. J10

4. H7

Q.12 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans
1.

Q.13

Ans 1.

Statements:
Some potatoes are tomatoes.
No tomato is an onion.

Conclusions:
(I) Some tomatoes may be potatoes.
(II) No potato is an onion.
Ans 1. Both conclusions I and II follow

2. Only conclusion I follows

3. Only conclusion II follows

4. Neither conclusion I nor II follows

Q.15 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘+’ and ‘–’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are
interchanged?

3–2÷8×4+2=?
Ans 1. 8

2. 5

3. 14

4. 17

Q.16 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 - Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into
1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
(5, 40, 7)
(12, 65, 5)
Ans 1. (3, 14, 3)

2. (6, 24, 2)

3. (2, 10, 3)

4. (9, 41,5)

Q.17 DG 25 is related to FH 21 in a certain way. In the same way, GI 19 is related to IJ 15. To which of the following is MI 24 related,
following the same logic?
Ans 1. OK 20

2. OJ 20

3. PJ 20

4. PO 20

Q.18 In a certain code language, ‘COPY’ is coded as ‘2465’ and ‘PLAN’ is coded as ‘3759’. What is the code for ‘P’ in the given
code language?
Ans 1. 5

2. 6

3. 7

4. 3
Q.19 In a certain code language, ‘MELT’ is coded as ‘6284’ and ‘TUNE’ is coded as ‘9758’. What is the code for ‘T’ in that
language?
Ans 1. 8

2. 4

3. 5

4. 9

Q.20 Seven people A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same
order). Exactly three people are sitting between A and B when counted from the right of A. Exactly two people are sitting
between D and G when counted from the left of G. B is not an immediate neighbour of G. D is sitting to the immediate left of
B. Exactly three people are sitting between E and F when counted from the right of E. B and E are not immediate
neighbours. How many people are sitting between E and G when counted from the right of E?
Ans 1. 2

2. 1

3. 3

4. 4

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 0.25 g of an organic compound, on treatment with fuming nitric acid followed by AgNO3, gave 0.22 g of AgBr. The
percentage of bromine in the compound is ______.
Ans 1. 34.04%

2. 88.00%

3. 37.45%

4. 50.00%

Q.2 Rani ki Vav is a UNESCO world heritage monument, situated in which of the following states?
Ans 1. Haryana

2. Gujarat

3. Maharashtra

4. Karnataka

Q.3 Bathukamma festival is celebrated in which of the following states?

Ans 1. Uttar Pradesh

2. Telangana

3. Manipur

4. Chhattisgarh

Q.4 What is the collection of Vedic hymns or ‘mantras’ called?

Ans 1. Samhita

2. Smriti

3. Shruti

4. Upanishad

Q.5 Usha Barle, who won Padma Shri 2023, is popularly associated with which genre of music?
Ans 1. Lavani

2. Pandwani

3. Panihari

4. Kajari

Q.6 In which of the following years India hosted the Women's Asia Cup ODI Cricket?
Ans 1. 2005

2. 2007

3. 2004

4. 2006

Q.7 Alarmel Valli was associated with which of the following dances?
Ans 1. Odissi

2. Bharatanatyam

3. Kathak

4. Manipuri

Q.8 When protein-rich gelatinous egg white is heated, it turns to solid white due to:
Ans 1. Protein Denaturation

2. Emulsification

3. Fermentation

4. Gluten Formation

Q.9 In which of the following states are the Nor Westers known as ‘Bardoisila’?
Ans 1. Bihar

2. Assam

3. Odisha

4. Goa
Q.10 Which of the following statements is/are correct?
A)Balshastri Jambhekar started the first Anglo- Maratha newspaper - ‘Durpun’, in 1832.
B)He is remembered as the father of Marathi journalism.
C)Balshastri Jambhekar published the first Marathi monthly magazine - ‘Digdurshun’ in 1840.
Ans 1. Only B

2. Only A

3. Both A and B

4. A, B and C

Q.11 Identify the correct statement with reference to the Padma awards.
Ans 1. The Padma award can be used as a suffix or prefix to the awardees’ name

2. The total number of Padma awards to be given in a year should not more than 150.

3. The Padma Awards are given annually.

4. The names of the awardees are never published in the Gazette of India.

Q.12 Which of the following is NOT a component of revenue receipt?

Ans 1. Amount borrowed from World Bank

2. GST

3. Fees paid for the registration of property

4. Grant received by UNESCO

Q.13 According to the Census of India 2011, what was the population growth rate in Kerala?
Ans 1.

Q.14 In April 2023, who was appointed as the chairman of the National Technical Research Organisation (NTRO) by the centre?
Ans 1. Arvind Kumar

2. Arun Sinha

3. Anil Dhasmana

4. Ajit Doval

Q.15 Which of the following is an example of the first garden-tomb on the Indian subcontinent?
Ans 1. Tomb of Tansen

2. Safdarjung's tomb

3. Humayun’s tomb

4. Tomb of Itimad-ud-Daulah

Q.16 According to the Census 2011, what was the annual population growth rate of India (in percentage)?
Ans 1. 1.97%

2. 2.16%

3. 2.22%

4. 1.64%

Q.17 The Indian Forest Service was created under the All India Service Act, 1951 in ______.
Ans 1. 1954

2. 1966

3. 1060

4. 1957

Q.18 Organisation of agriculture and animal husbandry is included in which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution?
Ans 1. Article 48

2. Article 47

3. Article 46

4. Article 45

Q.19 In which of the following Indian states is the M.A. Chidambaram Stadium located?
Ans 1. West Bengal

2. Kerala

3. Karnataka

4. Tamil Nadu

Q.20 The famous English novel ‘Em and the Big Hoom’ is written by:
Ans 1. Esther David

2. Amitav Ghosh

3. Jerry Pinto

4. Shashi Tharoor

Q.21 Which of the following is NOT an element of weather?

Ans 1. Temperature

2. Humidity

3. Plants

4. Rainfall
Q.22 Which of the following organisms is used in bread and alcohol industries?
Ans 1. Clostridium

2. Nitrobacter

3. Yeast

4. Penicillium

Q.23 In Union Budget 2023-24, annual production of 5 MMT under Green Hydrogen Mission is to be targeted by the year
___________ to facilitate transition of the economy to low carbon intensity.
Ans 1. 2032

2. 2030

3. 2023

4. 2027

Q.24 The Prime Minister in India is ________.

Ans 1. a nominal executive

2. the real executive

3. the Supreme Commander of Armed Forces

4. the head of the judiciary

Q.25 According to the Census of India-2011, what is the share of workforce engaged in the agriculture sector?
Ans 1. 54.6%

2. 65.3%

3. 48.9%

4. 45.8%

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 Select the correct spelling to fill in the blank.

Wedding is an auspicious _______ for all.

Ans 1. occassion

2. occation

3. occasion

4. ocassion

Q.2 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Commence
Ans 1. Subvert

2. Exert

3. Start

4. Escort

Q.3 In the given sentence, one of the four underlined words is incorrectly spelt. Identify the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

She dabbled in drawing and painting, but scalpture was her favourite medium.
Ans 1. drawing

2. favourite

3. dabbled

4. scalpture

Q.4 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

I couldn't believe how _______ the math problem was; it took me hours to solve it.
Ans 1. good

2. complicated

3. simply

4. easily

Q.5 Read the following sentence and select its future tense form from the options given below:
Sarah and Fidha entered into an agreement to share the resources that are currently accessible.
Ans 1. Sarah and Fidha are entering into an agreement to share the resources that are currently accessible.

2. Sarah and Fidha will enter into an agreement to share the resources that are currently accessible.

3. Sarah and Fidha had entered into an agreement to share the resources that are currently accessible.

4. Sarah and Fidha were entered into an agreement to share the resources that are currently accessible.

Q.6 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blanks.

When Mr. Bhanot was told a few years back that he needed to lose _____ or face health problems, he transformed his life
with the _________ of a personal trainer.
Ans 1. weight; help

2. money; instructions

3. wait; assistance

4. patience; guidance
Q.7 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Confession is good for the soul ________________ after the soul has been claimed.

Ans 1. since

2. though

3. still

4. even

Q.8 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

She was a , __astronaut.

Ans 1. smart, tall, Indian

2. tall, smart, Indian

3. smart, Indian, tall

4. tall, Indian, smart

Q.9 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Callous
Ans 1. Augment

2. Desolate

3. Tender

4. Beguile

Q.10 Select the most appropriate synonym for the given word.
Species
Ans 1. Whole

2. Type

3. Detail

4. Multiply

Q.11 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Tranquil
Ans 1. Composed

2. Serene

3. Shabby

4. Unquiet

Q.12 Identify the word with a spelling error in the following sentence. Select the option that correctly rectifies the error.
In Shakespeare’s play ‘Hamlet’, Hamlet’s flaw is defined as procrustineition.
Ans 1. pracrostination

2. procristineition

3. procrustination

4. procrastination

Q.13 In the following sentence the underlined part contains an error. Alternatives to the underlined part are given as options.
Select the correct alternative.
Mary is the quieter student of the class.
Ans 1. quiet

2. most quiet

3. more quiet

4. quietest

Q.14 Select the sentence with the most appropriate comparative degree.
Ans 1. She is the talent of all musicians in the orchestra.

2. She is the talentedest musician in the orchestra.

3. She is more talented musician in the orchestra.

4. She is the most talented musician in the orchestra.

Q.15 Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. Select the option that contains a grammatical error.

Ms. Malathi is old much to join a college now.

Ans 1. a college now

2. to join

3. Ms. Malathi is

4. old much

Q.16 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Let the cat out of the bag
Ans 1. To buy a cat and a bag

2. To reveal a secret

3. To not allow a cat into the bag

4. To release a cat out of a bag

Q.17 Based on the situation in the sentence, choose the most appropriate idiom to fill in the blank.
You cannot _________________ before replicating your successes and achievements multiple times; otherwise, people will
deem your success a stroke of dumb luck.
Ans 1. play devil's advocate

2. sit on the fence

3. cut to the chase

4. rest on your laurels

Q.18 Select the correct indefinite article to fill in the blank.

My neighbour is ______ passionate photographer.

Ans 1. one

2. an

3. a

4. the

Q.19 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the bracketed word in the sentence given below.

Surrounded by lush greenery, the house stood _____________ (submissively) atop a hill.
Ans 1. Silently

2. Civilly

3. Magically

4. Proudly

Q.20 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

Shebna decided to take a break in social media, but she found it difficult to disconnect completely.

Ans 1. a break of social media

2. a break from social media

3. a break up social media

4. a break down social media

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

Education is fundamental for achieving full human potential, developing an equitable and (1)__________ society, and promoting
national development. Providing universal (2)__________ quality education is the key to India’s continued ascent, and leadership on
the global stage in terms of economic growth, social justice and equality, scientific advancement, national integration, and cultural
preservation. Universal high-quality education is the best way (3)__________ for developing and maximising our country's rich talents
and resources for the good (4)__________ the individual, the society, the country and the world. India (5)___________ the highest
population of young people in the world over the next decade, and our ability to provide high-quality educational opportunities to them
will determine the future of our country.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans 1. just

2. much

3. such

4. more

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans 1. access at

2. access to

3. access from

4. access for

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans 1. outcome

2. output

3. result

4. forward
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans 1. of

2. from

3. at

4. for

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans 1. will have

2. were having

3. might had

4. can has
Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 22/10/2024
Exam
12:30 PM - 2:30 PM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹3500 as a sum borrowed at 3% per year rate of interest for 5 years.
Ans 1. 565

2. 465

3. 485

4. 525

Q.2 Rajeev saves 75% of his monthly income. If his monthly expenditure is ₹37,500, then his monthly saving (in ₹) is:
Ans 1. 1,12,500

2. 1,10,500

3. 1,11,500

4. 1,20,250

Q.3 Raj prepares a 60 gm mixture by combining two ingredients X and Y. The cost of ingredient X is ₹80 per 5 gm, and the cost
of ingredient Y is ₹80 per 10 gm. Ingredients X and Y are mixed in a manner that the cost of the resulting mixture is ₹14 per
gm. What is the quantity of ingredient X (in gm) in the mixture?
Ans 1. 45

2. 60

3. 15

4. 30

Q.4 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹3500 as a sum borrowed at 5% per year rate of interest for 3 years.
Ans 1. 465

2. 525

3. 565

4. 485
Q.5
The bar graph presents the quantity of biscuits exported (in lakh tons) and their value (in crore ₹) over
the given years.

What was the percentage increase in value of the biscuits exported from 1985 to 1987 (correct to 2

decimal places)?
Ans 1. 44.36%

2. 44.22%

3. 48.48%

4. 44.25%

Q.6 In a scheme, a shopkeeper offers 4% discount if you buy three or more products. Ritu buys three bottles of guava juice for
₹330. If the shopkeeper still makes a profit of 10%, find the profit he would make if had sold it without discount (rounded off
to 2 decimal places).
Ans 1. 15.74%

2. 15%

3. 14.58%

4. 15.28%

Q.7 A person has to cover a distance of 8 km in 1 hour. If he covers one-fourth of the distance in one-third of the total time, then
what should his speed (in km/h) be to cover the remaining distance in the remaining time so that the person reaches the
destination exactly on time?
Ans 1. 9

2. 8

3. 7

4. 6

Q.8 A earns ₹88 per hour and works for 10 hours. B earns ₹95 per hour and works for 8 hours. The ratio of per day wages of A to
B is:
Ans 1. 19 : 21

2. 21 : 19

3. 22 : 19

4. 19 : 22
Q.9 Which of the following options is equal to the LCM of 12, 36, 72, 144, 288 and 576?
Ans 1. 144

2. 576

3. 72

4. 288

Q.10 A tradesman marks his goods 25% above the cost price and allows his customers 12% reduction on their bills. What
percentage profit does he make?
Ans 1. 12%

2. 10%

3. 9%

4. 11%

Q.11 By selling an article for ₹19, a dealer makes a profit of 10%. By how much should he increase his selling price (in ₹, rounded
off to two decimal place) so as to make a profit of 40%?
Ans 1. 7.18

2. 5.18

3. 6.18

4. 8.18

Q.12 Water in a conical flask with radius 7 cm and height 48 cm is poured into a cylindrical flask with radius 14 cm. The water
level in the cylindrical flask is:
Ans 1. 2 cm

2. 4 cm

3. 5 cm

4. 3 cm

Q.13 The average height of 50 students in a class was 105 cm. A group of five students with an average height of 95 cm were
admitted to this class. What is the average height (in cm) of the class of 55 students? (correct to the nearest integer)
Ans 1. 102

2. 104

3. 100

4. 105

Q.14

Ans 1. Wednesday

2. Monday

3. Tuesday

4. Friday
Q.15 A hemispherical bowl of internal radius 24 cm contains liquid. The liquid is to be filled into cylindrical container of diameter
8 cm and height 12 cm. What is the number of containers that are necessary to empty the bowl?
Ans 1. 45

2. 50

3. 48

4. 39

Q.16 The diagonals of two squares are in the ratio of 5 : 6. What is the ratio of their areas?
Ans
1.

Q.17
A person borrow some money on simple interest. After 15 years, the simple interest will be of the

borrowed amount. What is the rate of interest per annum?

Ans
1.

Q.18 15 kg rice costing ₹60 per kg and 8 kg rice costing ₹55 per kg are mixed with 7 kg rice costing ₹40 per kg. Find the average
per kg price of mixed rice.
Ans 1. ₹56

2. ₹48

3. ₹54

4. ₹45

Q.19 Walking at a speed of 5.4 km/h, Rohit takes 40 minutes to reach his school from his home. What time will he take if he walks
8 km/h?
Ans 1. 23 minutes

2. 27 minutes

3. 24 minutes

4. 25 minutes

Q.20 John has scored 60% in statistics and 70% in mathematics. A weightage of 2 is given to statistics and a weightage of 4 is
given to mathematics. Which of the following expressions represents the weighted average of the two scores?
Ans
1.

Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1 Six friends - A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting around a circular table facing away from the centre (but not necessarily in the
same order). F is an immediate neighbour of both B and C. D is sitting second to the right of B. A is sitting to the immediate
right of D. Who among the following is sitting to the second to the left of F?
Ans 1. D

2. A

3. E

4. B

Q.2 In a certain code language, ‘PAID’ is coded as ‘3195’ and ‘GRAB’ is coded as ‘2346’.What is the code for ‘A’ in the given code
language?
Ans 1. 4

2. 3

3. 2

4. 1

Q.3 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans
1.

Statements:
All shirts are pants.
All pants are watches.

Conclusions:
(I) All pants are shirts.
(II) All shirts are watches.
Ans 1. Both conclusions I and II follow

2. Only conclusion I follows

3. Neither conclusion I nor II follows

4. Only conclusion II follows

Q.5 Seven people R, S, T, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same
order). R is sitting third to the right of D. Only one person is sitting between G and E when counted from the left of G. S is
sitting to the immediate right of T. Only one person is sitting between G and T when counted from the right of G. Who is
sitting third to the right of F?
Ans 1. D

2. T

3. S

4. G
Q.6 DZRG is related to HDOD in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, LHLA is related to PLIX.
To which of the following is TPFU related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. XTCR

2. YTDS

3. YUBQ

4. WSCQ

Q.7 What should come in place of ‘?’ in the given series?

14, 30, 93, 470, 3297, ?

Ans 1. 23086

2. 36278

3. 36267

4. 29682

Q.8 21 is related to 189 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 35 is related to 315. To which of the following is 43
related, following the same logic?

(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding / subtracting / multiplying, etc., to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13
into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans 1. 397

2. 387

3. 395

4. 385

Q.9 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?
ADG, JMP, SVY, BEH, ?
Ans 1. LMO

2. KMO

3. KNQ

4. LNQ

Q.10 What will come in the place of ‘?’ in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘×‘ are interchanged and ‘−’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?
5 + 625 − 25 × 75 ÷ 65 =?
Ans 1. 165

2. 145

3. 135

4. 125

Q.11 DBCA is related to HDFB in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, BACD is related to
DBFH. To which of the following is FDAC related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. LHBF

2. LBGH

3. LPTG

4. LEFG
Q.12 Select the option in which the given figure is embedded (rotation is NOT allowed).

Ans

4.
Q.13 Identify the figure given in the options that when put in place of the question mark (?) will logically complete the series.

Ans

Q.14 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements:
Some plants are spices.
No spice is a lentil.
Conclusions:
(I) Some lentils are plants.
(II) Some spices are plants.
Ans 1. Only conclusion (I) follows

2. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow

3. Only conclusion (II) follows

4. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows

Q.15 In a certain code language, ‘CASH’ is coded as ‘2486’ and ‘HIRE’ is coded as ‘3257’.What is the code for ‘H’ in the given code
language?
Ans 1. 3

2. 6

3. 7

4. 2
Q.16 Which two signs should be interchanged to make the given equation correct?
35 + 60 ÷ 12 × 4 − 12 = 203
Ans 1. ÷ and ×

2. − and +

3. − and ×

4. + and ×

Q.17 In a certain code language, ‘FOIL’ is coded as ‘1974’ and ‘LIFE’ is coded as ‘7291’.
What is the code for ‘E’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 2

2. 7

3. 9

4. 1

Q.18 Identify the figure from the given options that can replace the question mark (?) and logically complete the series.

Ans

Q.19 In a certain code language, ‘WANT’ is coded as ‘8163’ and ‘THAN’ is coded as ‘3468’. What is the code for ‘H’ in that
language?
Ans 1. 4

2. 8

3. 1

4. 3
Q.20 18 is related to 74 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 22 is related to 90. To which of the following is
25 related, following the same logic?
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their
constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying to 13 can be performed.
Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans 1. 100

2. 106

3. 102

4. 104

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 In which of the following year did India win the ICC T20 Men's Cricket World Cup?
Ans 1. 2012

2. 2007

3. 2010

4. 2009

Q.2 Which of the following fictional towns is mentioned in the English novel ‘In Custody’ written by Anita Desai?
Ans 1. Malgudi

2. Lilliput

3. Mirpore

4. Kanthapura

Q.3 Indian classical musician, Ustad Rashid Khan was awarded the Padma Bhushan in 2022 for his contribution to which of the
following music categories?
Ans 1. Hindustani classical music

2. Carnatic music

3. Folk music

4. Qawwali

Q.4 What is the rank of Sri Lanka in the Global Hunger Index (GHI) 2023?
Ans 1. 60

2. 95

3. 80

4. 69

Q.5 As per the Constitution (Ninety-First Amendment) Act, 2003, the total number of ministers, including the Prime Minister,
shall NOT exceed:
Ans 1. 15% of the total number of members of the Lok Sabha

2. 25% of the total number of members of the Lok Sabha

3. 10% of the total number of members of the Lok Sabha

4. 20% of the total number of members of the Lok Sabha

Q.6 Consider the following statements in the context of the Vedas.

1.The Vedas are called Shruti.
2.The Rigveda consists of ten Mandalas.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Ans 1. Neither 1 nor 2

2. Only 1

3. Only 2

4. Both 1 and 2
Q.7 Which of the following government initiatives focuses on skill development to reduce open unemployment among youth in
India?
Ans 1. Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA)

2. PM KUSUM

3. Swachh Bharat Abhiyan

4. Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY)

Q.8 The rock-cut temple of Shiva built by Krishna I is found at which of the following places?
Ans 1. Manyakhet

2. Kannauj

3. Mahabalipuram

4. Ellora

Q.9 When was the Ustad Bismillah Khan Yuva Puraskar, an award given by the Sangeet Natak Akademi to outstanding artists
under 40 who have demonstrated talent in the fields of music, dance and theatre, started?
Ans 1. 2008

2. 2006

3. 2010

4. 2002

Q.10 In which of the following states is the Bhadaravi Poonam Mela organised every year in the Nilkanth Mahadev temple
premises in Babra?
Ans 1. Himachal Pradesh

2. Gujarat

3. Uttarakhand

4. Rajasthan

Q.11 In 1992, which organisation launched Self Help Group – Bank Linkage Programme?
Ans 1. SEBI

2. SBI

3. RBI

4. NABARD

Q.12 Which Article of the Constitution of India provides provision for appointment of the same person as the Governor for two or
more states?
Ans 1. Article 158(2)

2. Article 157

3. Article 158

4. Article 153

Q.13 Who among the following was the pioneer of 'Bhoodan Movement'?
Ans 1. Bhimrao Ambedkar

2. Acharya Vinoba Bhave

3. Vallabh bhai Patel

4. Jawaharlal Nehru

Q.14 Who among the following Governor-Generals declared 'Sati' practice as illegal?
Ans 1. Lord Lytton

2. Lord Dalhousie

3. Lord William Bentinck

4. Lord Canning
Q.15 In a metro station, it was observed that on an average 20 people per minute were using the escalator to reach at a height of
15 metres. Calculate the power of the escalator assuming the average mass of people to be 50 kg and acceleration due to
gravity to be 10 m/s2.
Ans 1. 2.5 kW

2. 1.25 kW

3. 15 kW

4. 150 kW

Q.16 In Dholavira, which of the following materials is extensively used as a building material?
Ans 1. Bricks

2. Stone

3. Cement

4. Granite

Q.17 How many titles did West Bengal win in the Santosh Trophy events up to the 2022-23 season?
Ans 1. 29

2. 30

3. 15

4. 32

Q.18 In which of the following classical dance forms are the actors’ faces painted to symbolise the type of character they are
playing?
Ans 1. Bharatanatyam

2. Kathak

3. Kathakali

4. Odissi

Q.19 In which state are the Gua and Noamundi iron ore mines located?
Ans 1. Maharashtra

2. Chhattisgarh

3. Karnataka

4. Jharkhand

Q.20 The concept of Concurrent List in the Indian Constitution is borrowed from the Constitution of _____________.
Ans 1. Russia

2. Australia

3. USA

4. Britain

Q.21 A particular cell present in the excretory system of flatworms, which helps them removing waste materials is the:
Ans 1. flame cell

2. passage cell

3. lacis cell

4. cnidoblast cell

Q.22 Which of the following cities is known as the Steel City in India?
Ans 1. Mumbai

2. Jamshedpur

3. Patna

4. Ranchi
Q.23 The climatic diversity of India is characterised by its distinctiveness, and one of the following factors does NOT contribute
to it is ______________.
Ans 1. latitudinal extent

2. topography

3. longitudinal extent

4. vegetation

Q.24 Who became the first woman to command the Armed Forces Transfusion Centre, Delhi Cantt, which is the largest blood
transfusion centre of the Armed Forces in Nov 2023?
Ans 1. Lt Col Pooja Thakur

2. Major Anjali Bhagwat

3. Col Sunita BS

4. Col Shaliza Sharma

Q.25 What is the primary acid found in citrus fruits like oranges and lemons?
Ans 1. Acetic acid

2. Tartaric acid

3. Lactic acid

4. Citric acid

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 The given sentence has an error. Select the option that rectifies the error.

The students were asked to turn up their assignments by Friday.

Ans 1. The students asked to

2. turn in their assignments

3. their assignment by Friday

4. asked turn up their assignments

Q.2 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

She treats her juniors _____ contempt.

Ans 1. with

2. for

3. by

4. in

Q.3 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Captivity
Ans 1. Entity

2. Liberty

3. Authenticity

4. Ethnicity

Q.4 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined word in the given sentence.
Urban people have a bombastic lifestyle, which is very different from those of rural folks.
Ans 1. Common

2. Delusive

3. Hollow

4. Pretentious
Q.5 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.
Chaotic
Ans 1. Obscure

2. Confused

3. Systematic

4. Dressed

Q.6 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to
substitute it, select ‘No substitution required’.

Everyone in the room was in a jolly and relaxed mood.

Ans 1. jollier

2. most jolly

3. No substitution required

4. more jollier

Q.7 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Out of spirits
Ans 1. Hurt

2. Obsolete

3. Gloomy

4. Cheerful

Q.8 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

By next summer, they will be _____ their house.

Ans 1. renovated

2. renovating

3. renovates

4. renovate

Q.9 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

They was / celebrating their / Silver wedding anniversary / next month in Dubai.
Ans 1. They was

2. Silver wedding anniversary

3. next month in Dubai

4. celebrating their

Q.10 Select the word segment from the given options that substitutes the highlighted word segment correctly and completes the
sentence meaningfully: -

Each of the participants were given a certificate.

Ans 1. have been given

2. was given

3. have given

4. are given

Q.11 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

The blanket gifted by my granny is softer and cozy.

Ans 1. soft

2. softest

3. more soft

4. softly
Q.12 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.
The unexpected guest at the party was a bull in a China shop.
Ans 1. leisurely and relaxed

2. careful and compassionate

3. influential and meticulous

4. careless and damaging

Q.13 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans 1. Occassion

2. Boundary

3. Efficient

4. Illustration

Q.14 Select the word that has the same meaning (SYNONYM) as the underlined word in the given sentence.

Almost as wide as he was tall, he had a voracious appetite for food and drink and a rollicking personality to match.
Ans 1. vehement

2. insatiable

3. venerable

4. imminent

Q.15 Select the most appropriate synonym of the word ‘Illuminate’ from the given sentence.
The toughest and most typical question in the examination was to elucidate a particular theory related to friction in physics.
Ans 1. Theory

2. Typical

3. Elucidate

4. Particular

Q.16 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word..

Ans 1. Appearance

2. Astronaut

3. Oppertunity

4. Immigration

Q.17 The following sentence contains an error. Select the option that correctly rectifies the error.

If I was a king, I would have tried my best to remove poverty from my country.
Ans 1. I would has tried

2. If I were a king,

3. my best by remove poverty

4. on my country

Q.18 Select the option that rectifies the spelling of the underlined word in the given sentence.

The police informed the statesman that the goons were up to something mischievious.
Ans 1. mischevious

2. mischevous

3. mischievous

4. mischeivous
Q.19 Select the most appropriate idiom that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

The manager decided to disclose a secret and address the issue at the team meeting.
Ans 1. hit the nail on the head

2. bury the hatchet

3. sweep it under the rug

4. spill the beans

Q.20 Select the most appropriate idiom that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

The new employee is really trying to fit in, but sometimes he feels out of place and uncomfortable.
Ans 1. a needle in a haystack

2. a diamond in the rough

3. a bird of a feather

4. a fish out of water

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

In recent years, the central and state governments in India have been taking special steps to __1__ foreign companies to invest in
India. Industrial zones, called Special Economic Zones (SEZs), are being __2__. SEZs have world-class facilities, including electricity,
water, roads, transport, storage, recreational, and educational facilities. Companies that set up production units in the SEZs do not
have to pay taxes for an initial period of five years. The government has also __3__ flexibility in the labour laws to attract foreign
investment. In recent years, the government has allowed companies to __4__ many of these provisions. Instead of hiring workers on a
regular basis, companies hire workers 'flexibly' for short periods when there is __5__ pressure of work. This is done to reduce the cost
of labour for the company. However, some foreign companies are not satisfied, and they are demanding more in labour laws, citing the
need for greater operational efficiency.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans 1. fulfil

2. deplore

3. attract

4. abhor

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans 1. wound up

2. dismantled

3. obeyed

4. set up
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans 1. winked

2. suffered

3. allowed

4. invited

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans 1. effect

2. ignore

3. flounder

4. distort

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans 1. intense

2. inadequate

3. mechanical

4. artificial
Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 22/10/2024
Exam
4:00 PM - 5:30 PM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 Ravi walks a circular track of 1680m in circumference. If the speed of Ravi is 140m/min, then the time to cover one round is
equal to:
Ans 1. 14 min

2. 12 min

3. 10 min

4. 8 min

Q.2 A solid metal cone of height 30 cm and radius of base 10 cm is melted in to the form of a solid sphere. Find the radius of the
sphere (in cm).
Ans
1.

Q.3 Find the LCM of 9, 21 and 63

Ans 1. 3

2. 63

3. 72

4. 9

Q.4 The mean of the first 7 odd prime numbers is (rounded off to two decimal places):
Ans 1. 10.71

2. 8.61

3. 7.91

4. 5.41

Q.5 Find the fourth proportional of 4a + 7, 11a + 3 and 6a if a = 2.

Ans 1. 15

2. 30

3. 25

4. 20

Q.6 The average weight of 16 containers is 80 kg. If 8 new containers are added, the new average increases by 2.5 kg. The
average weight of the 8 new containers is:
Ans 1. 160 kg

2. 82.5 kg

3. 87.5 kg

4. 87 kg

Q.7 The cost price of some table lamps is ₹25,000. The shopkeeper will get ₹15,000 more If he sells these table lamps for ₹1,200
per lamp instead of ₹900 per lamp. Find the selling price of 23 table lamps if he earned 21% profit.
Ans 1. ₹13,915

2. ₹12,919

3. ₹14,917

4. ₹12,585

Q.8 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹3500 as a sum borrowed at 5% per year rate of interest for 6 years.
Ans 1. 1090

2. 1050

3. 990

4. 1010

Q.9 Find the average of the the first 15 multiples of 5.

Ans 1. 40

2. 35

3. 30

4. 45
Q.10 Find the area of an equilateral triangle whose side is 16 cm.
Ans
1.

Q.11 A’s salary increases by 60% and then decreases by 30%. On the whole, A’s salary is increased by ______?
Ans 1. 48%

2. 72%

3. 30%

4. 12%

Q.12

If the cost price of an article is 70.5% of its selling price, what is the profit percentage (rounded off to 1 decimal
place)?

Ans 1. 39.5%

2. 51.6%

3. 41.8%

4. 42.7%

Q.13 A train 315 m long is running at a speed of 54 km/h. What time will it take to cross a pole on its route?
Ans 1. 20 s

2. 21 s

3. 19 s

4. 18 s

Q.14

Ans 1. 680

2. 975

3. 790

4. 820

Q
.
1
5
A 1.
n
s

Q
.
1
6
A 1. 40%
n
s
2. 10%

3. 30%

4. 20%
Q.17

Ans 1. 21

2. 14

3. 28

4. 7

Q.18

Ans 1. 65 : 42

2. 9 : 5

3. 17 : 13

4. 58 : 55

Q
.
1
9
A 1. 15 kg
n
s
2. 18 kg

3. 20 kg

4. 22 kg

Q.20 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹3500 as a sum borrowed at 3% per year rate of interest for 4 years.
Ans 1. 380

2. 360

3. 420

4. 460

Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.

2. (22, 41, 73)

3. (23, 12, 76)

4. (39, 10, 53)

Q.2 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements: All papers are files. All files are secret.
Conclusions:
(I) All papers are secret.
(II) All secrets are files.
Ans 1. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) is follow .

2. Both conclusions (I) and (II) are follow .

3. Only conclusion (II) is follow .

4. Only conclusion (I) is follow .

Q.3 In a certain code language, ‘car is fast'’ is written as ‘gq ip eb’ and ‘fast and furious’ is writtenas ‘hp qm ip’. How is ‘fast’
writtenin the given language?
Ans 1. eb

2. gq

3. hp

4. ip
Q.4 Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.
33, 37, 46, 62, 87, ?
Ans 1. 121

2. 124

3. 122

4. 123

Q.5 What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘÷’ and ‘+’ are interchanged and ‘−’ and ‘×’
are interchanged?

13 − 3 ÷ 4 − 9 ÷ 10 − 3 × 20 + 5= ?
Ans 1. 101

2. 86

3. 111

4. −15

Q.6 Which two signs should be interchanged to make the given equation correct?
56 ÷ 8 × 45 + 4 − 23 = 164
Ans 1. − and ×

2. − and +

3. ÷ and ×

4. + and ×

Q.7 A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order). G sits third
to the right of A. D sits third to the right of G. E is an immediate neighbour of both A and F. C sits third to the right of F. How
many people sit between E and D when counted from the right of E?
Ans 1. 2

2. 3

3. 4

4. 1

Q.8 FRNQ is related to LXTW in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, XJFI is related to DPLO.
To which of the following is VHDG related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. BJMN

2. MNJB

3. BMNJ

4. BNJM

Q.9 127 is related to 218 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 3 is related to 10.To which of the following is 29
related, following the same logic?
(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 –
Operations on 13 such as adding / subtracting / multiplying, etc., to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then
performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans 1. 68

2. 63

3. 67

4. 66

Q.10

Ans 1.

Q.11 JJDA is related to QQKH in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, ENHE is related to
LUOL. To which of the following is TTNK related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. URAA

2. AUAR

3. AAUR

4. AURA

Q.12 In a certain code language, ‘EXIT’ is coded as ‘1937’ and ‘ZERO’ is coded as ‘6829’.What is the code for ‘E’ in the given code
language?
Ans 1. 8

2. 1

3. 9

4. 2
Q.13 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans
1.

Q.14 In a certain code language, ‘LOST’ is coded as ‘5197’ and ‘TURN’ is coded as ‘4562’. What is the code for ‘T’ in that
language?
Ans 1. 2

2. 5

3. 7

4. 4

Q.15 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?

EFD, JKI, OPN, TUS, ?

Ans 1. YZX

2. GUH

3. EFU

4. EVF

Q.16 Six people—A, B, C, D, E, and F—are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same
order). A is an immediate neighbour of both E and F. C is second to the left of F. B is not is an immediate neighbour of E.
What is the position of D?
Ans 1. Immediate left of A

2. Second to the right of B

3. Immediate left of F

4. Immediate left of C

Q.17 Identify the figure given in the options which when put in place of ? will logically complete the series.

Ans

4.
Q.18 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
All oranges are apples.
Some apples are kiwis.

Conclusions:
(I) Some oranges are not kiwis.
(II) All apples are oranges.
Ans 1. Only conclusion I follows

2. Neither conclusion I nor II follows

3. Both conclusion I and II follow

4. Only conclusion II follows

Q.19 Select the option figure in which the given figure (X) is embedded as its part (rotation is NOT allowed).

Ans

Q.20 Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series and complete
the pattern.

Ans

4.
Section : General Awareness

Q.1 Which of the following diseases is detected by the Widal test?

Ans 1. Pneumonia

2. Diphtheria

3. Typhoid

4. Influenza

Q.2 The property by virtue of which carbon can form a C-C covalent bond is called _______.
Ans 1. allotropy

2. catenation

3. tetravalency

4. covalency

Q.3 In 2018, Ganesh and Kumaresh Rajagopalan won the Sangeet Natak Akademi Award for Carnatic instrumental music. For
playing which instrument did they win this award?
Ans 1. Sarod

2. Violin

3. Sarangi

4. Veena

Q.4 Which of the following is NOT a qualification/eligibility to become the President of India?
Ans 1. Must be qualified for election as a member of the house of the people

2. Must be a citizen of India

3. Must hold any office of profit

4. Must have completed the age of thirty-five years

Q.5 The Panchpatmali mineral deposit region is located in which state from the following?
Ans 1. Haryana

2. Himachal Pradesh

3. Rajasthan

4. Odisha

Q.6 In which of the following years did Lord Curzon announce the partition of Bengal?
Ans 1. 1909

2. 1900

3. 1905

4. 1914

Q.7 Constipation could be a sign that the person in suffering from a lack of ___________.
Ans 1. Dietary Fibre

2. Protein

3. Calcium

4. Vitamin

Q.8 Tirot Sing was the leader of which of the following revolts?
Ans 1. Singpho’s Rebellion

2. Khasi uprising

3. Sanyasi Revolt

4. Poligars’s Revolt

Q.9 In which language was 'Mudraraksha' play written by Vishakhadatta?

Ans 1. Telugu

2. Hindi

3. Sanskrit

4. Tamil

Q.10 In 2023, the Government of India has proposed to set up how many new ‘Waste to Wealth’ plants under GOBARdhan?
Ans 1. 250

2. 300

3. 450

4. 500

Q.11 ___________ dance is embedded in the stories from the epics Mahabharata, Ramayana and Puranas.
Ans 1. Kuchipudi

2. Odissi

3. Kathakali

4. Sattriya

Q.12 ________ received Padma Shri 2017 award for being an exponent of Nagpuri folk dance Jhumar.
Ans 1. Purushottam Upadhyay

2. Laishram Birendrakumar Singh

3. Chemancheri Kunhiraman Nair

4. Mukund Nayak
Q.13 To which state does the Indian tennis player Sumit Nagal belong?
Ans 1. Haryana

2. Karnataka

3. Odisha

4. Maharashtra

Q.14 Which of the following events and their hosts is correctly matched?
Ans 1. ICC World Cup Men Cricket 2007 – England

2. ICC World Cup Men Cricket 2011 – Australia and New Zealand

3. ICC World Cup Men Cricket 2015 – India, Sri Lanka, Bangladesh

4. ICC World Cup Men Cricket 2019 – England and Wales

Q.15 The Dravidian style of temple architecture can be largely seen from which part of India?
Ans 1. Northern India

2. Eastern India

3. Southern India

4. Western India

Q.16 Which Indian Member of Parliament was given the 'India UK Outstanding Achievers Honour' in January 2023?
Ans 1. Hemant Shriram Patil

2. Hanuman Beniwal

3. Haji Fazlur Rehman

4. Raghav Chadha

Q.17 Layers of varying thickness are found in which type of rock?

Ans 1. Sedimentary rock

2. Volcanic rock

3. Metamorphic rock

4. Igneous rock

Q.18 As per Census 2011, what is the literacy rate of India?

Ans 1. 82.14%

2. 70%

3. 74.04%

4. 65.46%

Q.19 What does M stand for in BHIM-UPI?

Ans 1. Mobile

2. Monthly

3. Money

4. Monetary

Q.20 The Directive Principles of State Policy in the Indian Constitution are borrowed from which country's constitution?
Ans 1. The Constitution of the United States

2. The Constitution of the United Kingdom

3. The Constitution of the Soviet Union

4. The Constitution of Ireland

Q.21 Which is the largest agro-based Industry of India?

Ans 1. Tea industry

2. Cotton textile industry

3. Edible oil industry

4. Sugar industry

Q.22 Losoong festival is predominantly celebrated in Sikkim by which of the following tribes?
Ans 1. Bhutia

2. Kurumba

3. Bhil

4. Khasi

Q.23 Who wrote the novel 'The Catcher in the Rye'?

Ans 1. HG Wells

2. Ernest Hemingway

3. Mark Twain

4. JD Salinger

Q.24 Which of the following dynasties of the Delhi Sultanate finally annexed Jaunpur into the empire of Delhi Sultanate?
Ans 1. Khalji dynasty

2. Tughlaq dynasty

3. Sayyid dynasty

4. Lodi dynasty
Q.25 In India, who introduced the idea of the poverty line for the first time?
Ans 1. Dr. BR Ambedkar

2. Mahatma Gandhi

3. Jawaharlal Nehru

4. Dadabhai Naoroji

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans 1. tabular

2. calender

3. lying

4. written

Q.2 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Recluse
Ans 1. Sociable

2. Closeness

3. Solitary

4. Candid

Q.3 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

Universal high-quality education is the best way forward for developing and maximising our country's rich talents and
resources for the good in the individual, the society, the country and the world.
Ans 1. good on the individual

2. good for the individual

3. good of the individual

4. good by the individual

Q.4 Identify the sentence with an error with respect to the use of present tense.
Ans 1. She singing romantic songs.

2. She sings romantic songs.

3. She has been singing songs.

4. She has sung romantic songs.

Q.5 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the highlighted word(s) in the given sentence.

Anybody can solve this problem if he tried.

Ans 1. because they try

2. for they tried

3. if they were tried

4. if they try

Q.6 Select the grammatically correct sentence from the given options.
Ans 1. It is too stranger to see a guy shouting in the mall beside any reason.

2. It is too stranger to see a guy shouting in the mall without any reason.

3. It is too stranger to see a guy shout in the mall without any reason.

4. It is strange to see a guy shouting in the mall without any reason.

Q.7 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

My mother always __________________ to help people.
Ans 1. breaks the bank

2. goes the extra mile

3. turns a deaf ear

4. takes a rain check

Q.8 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The street is crowded. You could easily get lost in this _________.
Ans 1. phase

2. maize

3. faze

4. maze

Q.9 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.
Constant efforts to achieve something
Ans 1. Recant

2. Perspicacious

3. Euphemism

4. Perseverance

Q.10 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the highlighted group of words in the given sentence.

That scientist worked relentlessly to improve the instrument for measuring electric current.
Ans 1. thermometer

2. ammeter

3. compass

4. calculator
Q.11 Which of the following words is a synonym of 'Evanescent'?
Ans 1. Delicious

2. Imitation

3. Exemplary

4. Fleeting

Q.12 Select the option that will improve the underlined part of the given sentence.
Indeed, Jack is one of the clever men I have ever met.
Ans 1. most clever

2. cleverer

3. clever

4. the cleverest

Q.13 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word.

They reinvested in their trades and indulged in unobtrusive consumption at home.
Ans 1. Obscure

2. Faint

3. Conspicuous

4. Preposterous

Q.14 Select the option that rectifies the spelling error of the underlined word.

Preserving our planet's biodiversity is essential for the health and susteinability of ecosystems and human life.
Ans 1. sustainabelity

2. susteinabelety

3. sustanbility

4. sustainability

Q.15 Select the correctly spelled sentence.

Ans 1. The athelete ran quicly across the finish line.

2. The athlete ran quickley across the finish line.

3. The athlet ran quicly across the finnish line.

4. The athlete ran quickly across the finish line.

Q.16 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

It is being asked why there has been no _________ taken yet.
Ans 1. action

2. distribution

3. simplification

4. attribution

Q.17 Select the grammatically correct sentence.

Ans 1. Having belief in yourself is the biggest key to success.

2. Having belief in yourself is the most bigger key to success.

3. Having beliefs in yourself is the bigger key to success.

4. Having belief in yourself is the big key to success.

Q.18 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Intractable
Ans 1. Versatile

2. Proper

3. Defiant

4. Compliant

Spanish person are well known worldwide / for their warm hospitality / and food.
Ans 1. No error

2. for their warm hospitality

3. Spanish person are well known worldwide

4. and food

Q.20 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

It is all one whether I go today or tomorrow.

Ans 1. in one piece

2. together

3. just the same

4. proper
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
It (1)_______ no discriminations to nationality, race, religious beliefs, class or political opinions. It endeavours to (2)_______ the
suffering of individuals, being guided solely by (3)_______ needs, and to give priority to the (4)______ urgent cases of distress. It
promotes mutual understanding, friendship, cooperation and lasting peace (5)_____ all people.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans 1. made

2. makes

3. make

4. had made

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
It (1)_______ no discriminations to nationality, race, religious beliefs, class or political opinions. It endeavours to (2)_______ the
suffering of individuals, being guided solely by (3)_______ needs, and to give priority to the (4)______ urgent cases of distress. It
promotes mutual understanding, friendship, cooperation and lasting peace (5)_____ all people.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans 1. decreased

2. relieve

3. clear

4. increase

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans 1. her

2. their

3. his

4. your

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans 1. high

2. more

3. most

4. least

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans 1. amongst

2. at

3. into

4. of
Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 23/10/2024
Exam
9:00 AM - 11:00 AM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 What should be added to each of the four numbers 5, 19, 7 and 25 to make them proportional?
Ans 1. 4

2. 3

3. 2

4. 1

Q.2 The difference between successive discounts of 28% followed by 25% and 10% followed by 5% on the marked price of a pen
is ₹63. The marked price of the pen is:
Ans 1. ₹150

2. ₹165

3. ₹200

4. ₹331

Q.3 What sum (in ₹) will earn a simple interest of ₹240 in 2 years at 8% per year rate of interest?
Ans 1. 2500

2. 750

3. 1500

4. 3000

Q
.
4
A 1. 6 :7
n
s

2. 21 : 16
3. 2:3
4. 3 : 2

Q.5 A hemispherical bowl with an internal radius of 27 cm is full of liquid. The liquid is to be filled into cylindrical shaped bottles
of diameter 12 cm and height 13.5 cm. The number of bottles required to empty the bowl is:
Ans 1. 27

2. 29

3. 21

4. 25

Q.6 The average weight of 11 persons is increased by 4.5 kg when one of them, whose weight is 50.5 kg, is replaced by a new
person. The weight of the new person is:
Ans 1. 98.5 kg

2. 95.5 kg

3. 90.5 kg

4. 100 kg

Q.7 The average of 41 numbers is 62. The average of the first 18 numbers is 65.5, and the average of the last 24 numbers is 61.5.
If the 18th number from the beginning is excluded, then what is the average of the remaining numbers?
Ans 1. 61.625

2. 60.5

3. 60.725

4. 61.325
Q.8

Ans 1. 80%

2. 18%

3. 96%

4. 16%

Q.9

Ans 1. 50 cm

2. 40 cm

3. 60 cm

4. 30 cm

Q.10 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹3500 as a sum borrowed at 4% per year rate of interest for 2 years.
Ans 1. 320

2. 280

3. 220

4. 240

Q.11 A girl spends 76% of her income. If her income increases by 18% and her expenditure increases by 25%, then what is the
percentage increase or decrease in her savings? (Correct to one decimal place)
Ans 1. Increase by 3.6%

2. Decrease by 4.2%

3. Decrease by 3.8%

4. Increase by 5%

Q.12 A train moving at the same speed passes two bridges of length 900 m and 486 m in 110 seconds and 70 seconds,
respectively. The length of the train (in m) is:
Ans 1. 225.7

2. 283.5

3. 238.5

4. 253.8

Q.13 A boat is rowed down along a river 21km in 3 hours and against a river 14km in 7 hours. Find the speed of the boat and the
river.
Ans 1. 6.4 km/h and 4.6 km/h

2. 4.5 km/h and 2.5 km/h

3. 3.2 km/h and 4.8 km/h

4. 2.6 km/h and 4.8 km/h

Q.14
Rohit invested a sum of money at simple interest and it became double itself in years. The rate of interest per annum
was:
Ans 1.

Q.15 The average of five numbers is 62. The average of the first two numbers is 48 and that of the last two numbers is 52. What is
the third number?
Ans 1. 95

2. 100

3. 110

4. 105
Q.16 Find the LCM of 120, 200 and 225.
Ans 1. 1735

2. 1200

3. 1800

4. 2400

Q.17 An ice-cream cone with a lid has a total surface area equal to the area of another circle of certain radius. If the radius of the
circle is equal to average of the slant height and the radius of the cone, then the ratio of the slant height of the cone to the
radius of the circle is:
Ans 1. 2 : 3

2. 3 : 2

3. 3 : 1

4. 1 : 3

Q.18

Ans 1. 28%

2. 39%

3. 42%

4. 33%

Q.19 A shopkeeper purchases oil at ₹50/litre and sells the same at ₹54/litre. While selling, he gives 900 ml of oil instead of 1 litre.
What is his profit percentage?
Ans 1.

Q.20 Sam purchased 20 dozen toys at the rate of ₹375 per dozen. He sold each of them at the rate of ₹33. What was his profit
percentage?
Ans
1.

Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1 ‘4KC2’ is related to ‘6MA4’ in a certain way. In the same way, ‘3MN4’ is related to ‘5OL6’. To which of the following is ‘5NO3’
related following the same logic?
Ans 1. 7PM5

2. 8PL6

3. 5OM7

4. 6MO7
Q.2

Ans

Statements:
Some desktops are monitors.
No monitor is a television.

Conclusions:
(I) Some desktops are televisions.
(II) Some monitors are desktops.
Ans 1. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

2. Only conclusion (II) follows.

3. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

4. Only conclusion (I) follows.

Q.4 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series?

800, 700, 600, 500, 400, ?

Ans 1. 656

2. 300

3. 789

4. 399

Q.5 4 is related to 17 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 5 is related to 26. To which of the following is 10 related
following the same logic?(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the
numbersinto its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13can be
performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1and 3 is not allowed)
Ans 1. 103

2. 99

3. 121

4. 101
Q.6 Identify the figure given in the options which when put in place of ? will logically complete the series.

Ans

Q.7 A, B, C, D, E, F, and G are sitting around a circular table, facing away from the centre (but not necessarily in the same
order).Only 2 people sit between A and D when counted from the right of D.B and C are both immediate neighbours of G.F
sits to the immediate left of E.Only 1 person sits between C and E when counted from the left of C.
How many people are sitting between G and D when counted from the right of G?
Ans 1. 1

2. 4

3. 2

4. 3

Q.8 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are
interchanged?
69 – 24 ÷ 4 × 6 + 13 = ?
Ans 1. 68

2. 70

3. 72

4. 86

Q.9 Four number triads have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and one is different. Select the number
triad that is different from the rest.
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into
1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans 1. (3, 6, 36)

2. (8, 16, 256)

3. (5, 10, 100)

4. (9, 18, 320)

Q.10 In a certain code language, ‘have good food’ is coded as ‘ti ma ka’ and ‘nutritious food healthy’ is coded as ‘ka lu pe’. How is
‘food’ coded in the given language?
Ans 1. lu

2. ti

3. ma

4. ka
Q.11 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans
1.

Q.12

Ans 1.

Q.13

Ans 1. + and ×

2. − and +

3. ÷ and ×

4. ÷ and −

Q.14 RXPL is related to OUMI in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, TZRN is related to
QWOK. To which of the following is PVNJ related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. SMGK

2. MSKG

3. SMKG

4. MSGK

Q.15

Ans 1.

Q.16 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the English alphabetical order?
ISC, GPF, EMI, CJL, ?
Ans 1. BGO

2. AGO

3. AGP

4. BGP

Q.17 Sunita, Lokesh, Babita, Isha, Akram, Alok and Kiran are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (but not necessarily
in the same order). Sunita is an immediate neighbour of Babita. Lokesh sits 2nd to the right of Babita. Isha sits 4th to the
right of Akram. Alok sits 3rd to the right of Lokesh. Isha sits 2nd to the left of Alok. Who sits third to the right of Babita?
Ans 1. Isha

2. Alok

3. Lokesh

4. Kiran

Q.18 In a certain code language, ‘LIVE’ is coded as ‘2648’ and ‘EAST’ is coded as ‘3215’. What is the code for ‘E’ in that language?
Ans 1. 2

2. 5

3. 8

4. 3
Q.19 Select the option figure in which the given figure is embedded as its part (rotation is NOT allowed).

Ans

Q.20 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts,decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements:
All gardens are museums.
All museums are parks.
Conclusions:
(I) Some museums are gardens.
(II) All gardens are parks.
Ans 1. Only conclusion II follows

2. Only conclusion I follows

3. Neither conclusion I nor II follows

4. Both conclusions I and II follow

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 The Zaskar and the Nubra are tributaries of which river?
Ans 1. Indus

2. Ganga

3. Kaveri

4. Mahanadi

Q.2 ‘Once a Dancer’ is the autobiography of ________________.

Ans 1. Sudha Chandran

2. Audrey Hepburn

3. Yamini Krishnamurthy

4. Allegra Kent

Q.3 In February 2024, who was sworn in as the first woman Chief Justice of the Uttarakhand High Court?
Ans 1. Sujata Manohar

2. Gyan Sudha Mishra

3. Ranjana Desai

4. Ritu Bahri

Q.4 Which chronicler of the medieval age recognised that Raziyya was more able and qualified than all her brothers?
Ans 1. Taj-ud-din

2. Minhaj-i-Siraj

3. Muhammad Junaidi

4. Fakhrul-Mulk-Isami
Q.5 In which of the following states is Aoleang Monyü celebrated, which is an ancient spring festival celebrated by all Konyaks
in the month of April?
Ans 1. Telangana

2. Bihar

3. Odisha

4. Nagaland

Q.6 Which Article of the Indian Constitution has provisions for the appointment of High Court Judges?
Ans 1. Article 217

2. Article 119

3. Article 252

4. Article 202

Q.7 Which of the following is an example of a private sector Industry?

Ans 1. Steel Authority of India Limited

2. Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited

3. Tata Iron and Steel Company

4. Life Insurance Corporation

Q.8 JJ Thomson is known for developing which model in 1898?

Ans 1. Gold foil model

2. Plum pudding model

3. Double-slit model

4. Oil drop model

Q.9 ‘Dashain’ and ‘Tihar’ are popular festivals of which neighbouring country of India?
Ans 1. Bangladesh

2. Sri Lanka

3. Nepal

4. Pakistan

Q.10 Which of the following countries won the maximum number of T20 Women's Cricket World Cup titles?
Ans 1. India

2. England

3. West Indies

4. Australia

Q.11 Which of the following Indian tribal dances is prevalent in the Araku Valley near Visakhapatnam?
Ans 1. Bagurumba

2. Dhimsa

3. Jhumur

4. Bardo Chham

Q.12 Which track and field event has a water jump?

Ans 1. Hurdles running

2. Decathlon

3. Cross country running

4. Steeplechase

Q.13 If after being bitten by a mosquito, the person is detected as being malaria positive, which of the following will hold true?
A. The person did not have a balanced diet.
B. The mosquito was carrying plasmodium.
C. The mosquito was suffering from malaria.
D. The person was not vaccinated as a child.
Ans 1. A

2. B

3. C

4. D

Q.14 Right of a prisoner to speedy trial will be categorised in which of the following Fundamental Rights?
Ans 1. Right to Life

2. Right against Exploitation

3. Right to Constitutional Remedies

4. Right to Equality

Q.15 Which of the following is NOT the principle laid down by the OECD about budgetary governance?
Ans 1. Design the capital budgeting framework to meet national development needs.

2. It does not allow the citizen to participate in budgetary debates.

3. Alignment of budgets with medium-term strategic priorities of the government.

4. The execution of the budget must be proactively planned, managed, and monitored.
Q.16 Epic Poem, Savitri, described by its author as ‘A Legend and a Symbol’, was written by _____.
Ans 1. Aurobindo Ghosh

2. Mahatma Phule

3. Bal Gangadhar Tilak

4. Baba Saheb Ambedkar

Q.17 All natural earthquakes take place in the:

Ans 1. Asthenosphere

2. Biosphere

3. Lithosphere

4. Hydrosphere

Q.18 Carnatic singer Bombay Jayashri has been selected for which music award in 2023?
Ans 1. Sangeetha Choodamani

2. Sangeetha Kalasikhamani

3. Sangita Kalanidhi

4. Sangeetha Kalasarathy

Q.19 In which of the following years did Alexander invade Punjab and in which of the following years did he die?
Ans 1. 320 BC and 323 BC

2. 323 BC and 328 BC

3. 326 BC and 323 BC

4. 326 BC and 327 BC

Q.20 Which of the following Acts provided for a system of tribunals and a ban on strikes?
Ans 1. The Trade Disputes Act, 1929

2. Government of India Act, 1912

3. Indian Partnership Act, 1932

4. Age of Consent Act, 1891

Q.21 Who excavated the Chira Tope stupa at Taxila?

Ans 1. James Mill

2. Alexander Cunningham

3. John Marshall

4. James Princip

Q.22 According to the Census of India 2011, what is the population density of India?
Ans 1. 382/km2

2. 388/km2

3. 360/km2

4. 375/km2

Q.23 Which of the following fields is NOT covered by the National Eminence Award?
Ans 1. Literature

2. Dance

3. Music of all forms and origin

4. Theatre

Q.24 Which specific chemical can be applied to achieve staining of chromosomes?

Ans 1. Acetocarmine

2. Methanol

3. Ethanol

4. Hydrochloric acid

Q.25 iGOT Karmayogi is an integrated online training platform to provide continuous learning opportunities
to ______________ in order to upgrade their skills.
Ans 1. Lawyers

2. Journalists

3. Individual Civil Service Officials

4. Unorganised Workers

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to
substitute it, select ‘No substitution required’.

The car, with all its features, were meticulously designed.

Ans 1. No substitution required

2. its features, was meticulously

3. it's features, were meticulously

4. its features, have meticulously

Q.2 The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error. Select the part that contains the error
from the given options. If you don’t find any error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer.

There is only one way / to have a happier marred life / and I will learn it soon.
Ans 1. and I will learn it soon.

2. to have a happier marred life

3. There is only one way

4. No error

Q.3 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

The government is developing a new test in the recruitment and training of teachers in the upcoming session.
Ans 1. for recruitment or training of teachers

2. for the recruitment and training of teachers

3. of the recruitment and training of teachers

4. in recruitment and training on teachers

Q.4 Select the appropriate synonym of the underlined word.

The bride has an exquisite face.

Ans 1. Average

2. Plain

3. Ugly

4. Beautiful

Q.5 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The teacher encouraged students to cultivate a __________ attitude towards learning, embracing challenges as
opportunities for growth.
Ans 1. resilient

2. redundant

3. stagnant

4. complacent

Q.6 Select the option that rectifies the spelling of the underlined word in the given sentence.

How can one justify sending sound waves into space when they cannot travel through a vacum?
Ans 1. vacuum

2. vacume

3. vaccum

4. vaccuum

Q.7 Select the most appropriate adjective to fill in the blank.

The Nile is the _________ river in the world.

Ans 1. longest

2. longer

3. most long

4. long

Q.8 In the given sentence, one of the four underlined words is incorrectly spelt. Identify the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

The scientific community gave credance to the new research findings after rigorous testing and validation.
Ans 1. rigorous

2. community

3. validation

4. credance

Q.9 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word in the following sentence.

The restaurant's specialtiy is seafood.
Ans 1. The

2. seafood

3. restaurant's

4. specialtiy

Q.10 Select the most appropriate idiom to fill in the blank.

We hear the judges from their ________ that only CNG buses should run in Delhi.
Ans 1. look sharp

2. square meal

3. melting pot

4. ivory tower

Q.11 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined word.

He took the right decision at that time.
Ans 1. Someone’s liberty and freedom

2. Something which is correct

3. A particular direction

4. Something which is invalid

Q.12 Identify the sentence with an error in the use of simple present tense.
Ans 1. We brush our teeth daily.

2. He go to school every day.

3. She walks every morning.

4. You do yoga every morning.

Q.13 In the following sentence the underlined part contains an error. Below are given alternatives to the underlined part.
Select the correct alternative.
Kanha National Park in MP is the dense forest in India.
Ans 1. most dense

2. densest

3. denser

4. more denser

Q.14 In the following sentence the underlined part contains an error. Alternatives to the underlined part are given as options.
Select the correct alternative.
When they left for Mexico, their house was in good condition than it is now.
Ans 1. excellent

2. better

3. more good

4. best

Q.15 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined word in the context of the following sentence.

The palm is a native of Malaysia. We can find them in groves.

Ans 1. A pamphlet

2. Inner surface of the hand

3. A type of soil

4. A type of tree

Q.16 Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word in the given sentence.

Her fear of public speaking was a major hurdle in her career.

Ans 1. Stimulus

2. Support

3. Encouragement

4. Obstacle

Q.17 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the highlighted word(s) in the given sentence.

The fleets of Anthony were not merely defeated, also destroyed by Augustus Caesar.
Ans 1. not only defeated, but also destroyed

2. merely defeated, though destroyed

3. merely defeated, however destroyed

4. only defeated, and destroyed

Q.18 Select the most appropriate phrase that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.
The question paper was very easy to complete.
Ans 1. the last straw

2. a snowball effect

3. a piece of cake

4. fair and square

Q.19 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Preserve
Ans 1. Consume

2. Ignore

3. Maintain

4. Complain

Q.20 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

She received / an award / for her work / in a engineering field.

Ans 1. an award

2. in a engineering field.

3. She received

4. for her work

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most
appropriate option for each number.

How environmental problems ____1_____ different groups is a function of social inequality. Social status and power determine the
_______2____ to which people can insulate themselves from environmental crises or overcome them. In some cases, their ‘solutions’
may actually worsen environmental disparities. In Kutch, Gujarat, where water is scarce, richer farmers have ____3____ in deep bore
tubewells to tap groundwater to irrigate their fields and grow cash crops. When the rains fail, the earthen wells of the poorer villagers
run dry and they do not even have water to drink. At such times, the moist green fields of the rich farmers seem to mock them. Certain
environmental concerns sometimes appear to be universal concerns, not particular to ____4_____ social groups. For instance,
______5_______ air pollution or protecting biodiversity seems to be in the public interest. A sociological analysis shows, however, that
how public priorities are set and how they are pursued may not be universally beneficial.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans 1. Effect

2. Affect

3. Adopt

4. Partial

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most
appropriate option for each number.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans 1. Various

2. Expanse

3. Scope

4. Extent

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most
appropriate option for each number.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans 1. Capitalised

2. Provided

3. Invested

4. Licensed

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most
appropriate option for each number.

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans 1. Restriction

2. Indefinitely

3. Exactly

4. Specific
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most
appropriate option for each number.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans 1. Manipulating

2. Increasing

3. Reducing

4. Abdicating
Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 23/10/2024
Exam
12:30 PM - 2:30 PM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1

Ans 1.

Q.2 If the HCF of 156 and 96 is expressible in the form of 156 × 12 + 96A, then the value of A is:
Ans 1. 19.735

2. −19.735

3. 19.375

4. −19.375

Q.3
A jar contains a mixture with 45% syrup. A portion of this mixture is
replaced by another mixture containing 30% syrup. The new mixture is
found to have 34% syrup. What is the ratio in which these mixtures should
be mixed to obtain the new mixture?
Ans 1.

Q.4 A student saves an average of ₹4,000 per month for the first three months. How much should be saved (in ₹) on an average
per month over the next 9 months to average ₹4,375 per month over the whole year?
Ans 1. 4187.5

2. 4500

3. 4000

4. 4200

Q.5 The average weight of a family of five members (in kg) whose weights are 40 kg, 49 kg, 56 kg, 66 kg and 36 kg is:
Ans 1. 50.4

2. 49.4

3. 51.4

4. 48.4

Q.6 The speed of a boat in still water is 12 km/h and the stream flows at a speed of 3 km/h. The distance travelled in the boat
downstream in 24 minutes is:
Ans 1. 4 km

2. 6 km

3. 5 km

4. 7 km

Q.7 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹3000 as a sum borrowed at 8% per year rate of interest for 2 years.
Ans 1. 440

2. 520

3. 480

4. 420
Q.8

Ans 1. 295 : 376

2. 595 : 576

3. 376 : 295

4. 576 : 595

Q.9 A shopkeeper offered following four different discount schemes for buyers on an item.

A. Two successive discounts of 8%

B. A discount of 11% followed by a discount of 5%.
C. Successive discounts of 13% and 3%
D. A discount of 16%.

If Rajiv wants to purchase the item from this shop at minimum price, he should opt for the discount scheme:
Ans 1. D

2. A

3. B

4. C

Q.10 The speed of a car is 81 km/hr. The distance covered by the car in 24 seconds is:
Ans 1. 280 m

2. 540 m

3. 560 m

4. 270 m

Q.11 Reena buys an iron for ₹900 and sells it at a loss of 12%. What is the selling price of the iron?
Ans 1. ₹825

2. ₹763

3. ₹792

4. ₹658

Q.12 The price of an article is reduced by 40% and its sale is increased by 80%. Find the net effect on revenue.
Ans 1. 10% increase

2. 10% decrease

3. 8% increase

4. 8% decrease

Q.13 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹2000 as a sum borrowed at 9% per year rate of interest for 4 years.
Ans 1. 660

2. 680

3. 720

4. 760
Q.14 The given bar graph shows the imports and exports (in ₹ crores) of steel of a country during the years 2013 to 2017.

.
What is the percentage of the total imports for the years 2013, 2015 and 2017 to the exports for all the years taken together
(correct to one decimal place)?
Ans 1. 52.4%

2. 54.7%

3. 53.8%

4. 51.6%

Q.15 If the average of the first 15 multiples of 9 is x, then x is:

Ans 1. 72

2. 114

3. 68

4. 78

Q.16

Ans 1. 114.81 m2

2. 116.81 m2

3. 115.81 m2

4. 117.81 m2

Q
.
1
7
A 1. 7 : 13
n
s
2. 13 : 7

3. 13 : 9

4. 9 : 13

Q.1
8

An 1. 35%
s
2. 15%

3. 20%

4. 10%

Q.19 What will be the ratio of simple interest earned by a certain amount at the same rate of interest for 12 years and that for 15
years?
Ans 1. 3 : 4

2. 2 : 5

3. 2 : 3

4. 4 : 5

Q.20 A metallic sphere with a radius of 35 cm is melted and subsequently transformed into several small solid cones, each
having a diameter of 14 cm and a height of 4 cm. How many cones are formed as a result of this process?
Ans 1. 825

2. 850

3. 875

4. 900

Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?
JLF, KOI, LRL, MUO, ?
Ans 1. NXR

2. OYR

3. MXT

4. NRY
Q.2

Ans 1.

Q.3 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans
1.

Q.4 In a certain code language, ‘BUYS’ is coded as ‘5173’ and ‘YOLK’ is coded as ‘6458’.What is the code for ‘Y’ in the given
code language?
Ans 1. 7

2. 8

3. 6

4. 5

Q.5 10 is related to 99 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 14 is related to 195. To which of the following is 22
related, following the same logic?

(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding / subtracting / multiplying, etc., to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13
into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans 1. 453

2. 483

3. 473

4. 463

Q.6

Ans 1. − and ÷

2. ÷ and ×

3. − and +

4. + and ×
Q.7 Identify the figure given in the options that when put in place of the question mark (?) will logically complete the series.

Ans

Q.8 Select the option figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the figure given below to complete the pattern.

Ans

Q.9 A, B, C, D, E, F, and G are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order).Only 2
people sit between G and A when counted from the right of G.Only 2 people sit between E and D when counted from the
right of E.E is an immediate neighbour of A.Only 2 people sit between B and C when counted from the left of C.
What is the position of F with respect to B?
Ans 1. 2nd to the right

2. 2nd to the left

3. 3rd to the left

4. 3rd to the right

Q.10 What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘−’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged and ‘+’ and ‘×’
are interchanged?

7 + 5 ÷ 4 + 5 ÷ 36 − 4 × 7 = ?
Ans 1. 31

2. 13

3. 53

4. 15
Q.11 Six students Amit, Shivam, Dinesh, Kamlesh, Nihar and Roshan are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre (but not
necessarily in the same order). Amit is sitting to the immediate right of Shivam. Dinesh is sitting second to the right of
Shivam. Nihar is an immediate neighbour of both Dinesh and Roshan. Who is sitting to the immediate right of Roshan?
Ans 1. Kamlesh

2. Shivam

3. Amit

4. Nihar

Q.12 PUQV is related to RWSX in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, JOKP is related to
LQMR. To which of the following is MRNS related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. TOUP

2. OTPU

3. TOPU

4. OTUP

Q.13 In a certain code language, ‘find this clue’ is written as ‘ak dh fk’ and ‘clue for you’ is written as ‘sg fk bo’. How is ‘clue’
written in the given language?
Ans 1. dh

2. fk

3. ak

4. sg

Q.14

Ans

Q.15 In a certain code language, ‘BASE’ is coded as ‘2416’ and ‘SOUP’ is coded as ‘3719’. What is the code for ‘S’ in the given
code language?
Ans 1. 6

2. 1

3. 3

4. 2

Q.16 JA 88 is related to OF 77 in a certain way. In the same way, DT 55 is related to IY 44.To which of the following is LH 33 related
following the same logic?

Ans 1. QM 22

2. XD 77

3. NU 25

4. OS 22

Q.17 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

13 21 33 49 ? 93
Ans 1. 69

2. 82

3. 74

4. 79
Q.18 Given below are two sets of numbers. In each set of numbers, a certain mathematical operation on the first number results
in the second number. Which of the options follows the same operation as given in the question?
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into
1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
(21, 10)
(87, 43)
Ans 1. (55, 21)

2. (27, 13)

3. (25, 9)

4. (18, 7)

Statements:
No crow is a parrot.
No parrot is sparrow.

Conclusions:
(I) No crow is a sparrow.
(II) No parrot is a crow.
Ans 1. Only conclusion I follows

2. Both conclusions I and II follow

3. Neither conclusion I nor II follows

4. Only conclusion II follows

Statements:
All lakes are rivers.
All rivers are dams.

Conclusions:
(I) At least some dams are lakes.
(II) All rivers are lakes.
Ans 1. Only conclusion (I) follows

2. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows

3. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow

4. Only conclusion (II) follows

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 The famous novel ‘The house of blue mangoes’ is written by:
Ans 1. Anees Salim

2. David Davidar

3. Shashi Tharoor

4. Romila Thapar

Q.2 What is the name of the German Chancellor who visited India in February 2023?
Ans 1. Angela Markel

2. Willy Brandt

3. Olaf Scholz

4. Wilhem Steinberg

Q.3 Which of the following statements are correct postulates of Dalton’s atomic theory?
A. All matter is made up of atoms. These atoms participate in chemical reactions.
B. Atoms might be created or destroyed during a chemical reaction.
C. Atoms of different elements vary in mass and chemical properties.
D. Compounds are combination of atoms in the ratio of whole or fractional numbers.
E. A compound will always have constant relative number and kind of atoms.
Ans 1. B, D, E

2. B, C, D

3. A, C, E

4. A, B, D

Q.4 Atmospheric temperature usually decreases with altitude, but sometimes this phenomenon gets reversed in the
troposphere. This phenomenon is known as _________.
Ans 1. Temperature Convection

2. Temperature Inversion

3. Global Warming

4. Adiabatic Lapse Rate

Q.5 The Tunga and Bhadra are tributaries of which river?

Ans 1. Krishna

2. Godavari

3. Tapti

4. Narmada
Q.6 When did India declare itself a Sovereign, Democratic and Republic state with the adoption of the Constitution?
Ans 1. 15 August 1947

2. 2 October 1949

3. 14 November 1952

4. 26 January 1950

Q.7 Diwan-i-Am, containing the marble canopy ornamented with beautiful panels of pietra dura work, is a part of which
monument?
Ans 1. Red Fort

2. Bibi ka Makbara

3. Humayun Tomb

4. Taj Mahal

Q.8 As per the World Happiness Index 2023, which of the following countries secured the highest rank?
Ans 1. Nepal

2. Sri Lanka

3. Bangladesh

4. Pakistan

Q.9 Who among the following founded his Kuchipudi Art Academy at Madras in 1963?
Ans 1. Raja Reddy

2. Kamalakar Kameshwar Rao

3. Vempati Chinna Satyam

4. Lakshmi Narayan Shastri

Q.10 The famous Sanskrit grammar book 'Mahabhasya' was written by:
Ans 1. Bharatmuni

2. Vedvyas

3. Patanjali

4. Panini

Q.11 Who among the following Portuguese travellers visited the Vijayanagar empire during the reign of Krishnadevaraya?
Ans 1. Nicolo de Conti

2. Athanasius Nikitin

3. Domingo Paes

4. Ludovico de Varthema

Q.12 The 2011 census was the ____________ official survey conducted in India.
Ans 1. 18th

2. 16th

3. 14th

4. 15th

Q.13 As on February 2024, who among the following is the Union Minister for Ports, Shipping and Waterways?
Ans 1. Prahlad Joshi

2. Sarbananda Sonowal

3. Hardeep Singh Puri

4. Giraj Singh

Q.14 If the Glycemic Index (GI) of a specific food is from 70 to 100, then the type of that food is:
Ans 1. Extremely low-GI food

2. High-GI food

3. Medium-GI food

4. Low-GI food

Q.15 In the final match of the Asian Games _________ held in Jakarta, Indonesia, India secured gold by defeating South Korea
with a score of 2-1 in football.
Ans 1. 1958

2. 1970

3. 1962

4. 1966

Q.16 ‘Alarippu’ is the first dance item of which of the following Indian classical dance forms?
Ans 1. Odissi

2. Bharatanatyam

3. Kathakali

4. Kuchipudi

Q.17 As per the Constitution of India, every Governor, before entering upon his office, will make and subscribe an oath in the
presence of the ________.
Ans 1. President

2. Chief Minister

3. Chief Justice of India

4. Chief Justice of the High Court

Q.18 Which of the following characteristics was used by Aristotle to classify animals?
Ans 1. Specialised organs

2. Habitat

3. Photosynthesis

4. Types of body cells

Q.19 The 'Secular' word in the Indian Constitution was added to the constitution by __________ Constitutional Amendment Act.
Ans 1. 42nd

2. 46th

3. 48th

4. 44th

Q.20 Hariharan was conferred the Padma Shri in 2004 for his contribution to which of the following fields?
Ans 1. Medicine

2. Civil Service

3. Sports

4. Art - Music

Q.21 Which of the following is a crop grown in Rabi season in India?

Ans 1. Rice

2. Wheat

3. Maize

4. Soyabean

Q.22
In badminton, how high above the ground is the net positioned at the centre?
1. 5.5 feet
Ans

2. 5 feet
3. 4 feet
4. 6 feet

Q.23 In 1905, Hindus and Muslims tied ‘Rakhi’ on each other’s hands to show their unity and their protest against the _________.
Ans 1. Partition of Punjab

2. Rowlatt Act

3. Partition of Bengal

4. Morley-Minto Reforms

Q.24 Which of the following are recognised as final goods while estimating the gross domestic product in India?
a. Wheat purchased for making roti in a house
b. Wheat purchased for making roti in a hotel
c. Tea bags used to make tea in a house
d. Tea bags used to make tea in a university hostel canteen
Ans 1. Only b and d

2. Only a and c

3. Only b and c

4. Only a and b

Q.25 Who among the following social reformers established the ‘Prarthana Samaj’ in Bombay in 1876?
Ans 1. Gopal Hari Deshmukh

2. Atmaram Pandurang

3. Ganesh Agarkar

4. Bal Gangadhar Tilak

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The croissant was _________, as was the coffee.
Ans 1. ambitious

2. excellent

3. inferior

4. eloquent

Q.2 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

High-altitude climbing poses significant risks due to factors like altitude sickness, hypothermia and extreme weather
conditions.
Ans 1. magnificent

2. tempestuous

3. inconsequential

4. plentiful

Q.3 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom.

We talked over the matter for two hours; unfortunately, we could not reach a decision.
Ans 1. Argued

2. Debated

3. Quarrelled

4. Discussed
Q.4 Select the grammatically correct sentence from the given options..
Ans 1. A lot of books and notes place in order look most fascinating.

2. A lot of book and notes placed in order looks most fascinating.

3. A lot of books and notes placed in order look fascinating.

4. A lot of books and notes placed on order looks most fascinating.

Q.5 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Doves _________ in the sky above me.

Ans 1. sour

2. shore

3. soar

4. sore

Q.6 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The writer's __________ prose resonated with readers, evoking powerful emotions.
Ans 1. sporadic

2. banal

3. mundane

4. eloquent

Q.7 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Like a dying duck in a thunderstorm

Ans 1. Bad swimmer or practitioner

2. Fearful or scared of water

3. Dejected or hopeless

4. Harmful or vigilant

Q.8 Select the option that correctly rectifies the underlined spelling error.
The beutiful flowers bloomed in the garden.
Ans 1. beautiful

2. beautifuul

3. beiutiful

4. beautifull

Q.9 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

The train is running / late by six hours / so it / cannot make over the time.
Ans 1. The train is running

2. so it

3. cannot make over the time

4. late by six hours

Q.10 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

The scientific study of the structure and form of animals and plants
Ans 1. Biology

2. Morphology

3. Zoology

4. Botany

Q.11 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Idle
Ans 1. Unoccupied

2. Uneasy

3. Ungrateful

4. Unsafe

Q.12 Select the most appropriate adjective to fill in the blank.

The orator declared that the women are ___________ than the men.
Ans 1. intelligent

2. intelligenter

3. most intelligent

4. more intelligent

Q.13 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The teacher emphasised the importance of ___________ correct grammar and punctuation in our writing.
Ans 1. using

2. used

3. use

4. uses
Q.14 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined segment in the given sentence.

It's important to bring up sensitive topics in a respectful manner.

Ans 1. Drowsy

2. Cordial

3. Considerate

4. Strong

Q.15 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.
Gold is much costly than any other metal.
Ans 1. many

2. most

3. more

4. most costlier

Q.16 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

She ______ the book to her friend.
Ans 1. lend

2. lent

3. laned

4. leant

Q.17 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

Amit, the stand-up comedian, delivered a hilarious performance.

Ans 1. ideological

2. serious

3. pertinent

4. spleen

Q.18 Select the grammatically correct sentence from the given options.
Ans 1. The Nile is the long river in the world with a length about approximately 6650 km.

2. The Nile is the most long river in the world of a length of approximately 6650 km.

3. The Nile is the longest river in the world with a length of approximately 6650 km.

4. The Nile is the longest river in the world with a length about approximately 6650 km.

Q.19 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans 1. Machenical

2. Technical

3. Annual

4. Regulator

Q.20 Select the most appropriate adjective to fill in the blank.

Jack always looks handsome, even if he is a __________ out of style.

Ans 1. less

2. more little

3. little

4. least

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

It is true that strangers meeting for the first time seem to feel ____1____ if they do not engage _____ 2_____ small talk. Usually, this
is ______3______ and even necessary if strangers are to size each other up. But, this small talk aside, what are some _____4______
rules for general conversation?
In the first place, certain _____5_____ should be taboo. Kitchen topics, bus time-tables and other dull or specialised things should be
barred from general discussion.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans 1. discomforts

2. comforting

3. uncomfortable

4. comforts

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans 1. by

2. from

3. on

4. in
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans 1. remedy

2. harmless

3. comedy

4. happy

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans 1. eliminating

2. illuminative

3. elementary

4. alimentary

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans 1. books

2. subjects

3. objects

4. essays
Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 23/10/2024
Exam
4:00 PM - 5:30 PM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 If the speed of a boat going downstream is 40 km/h and its speed going upstream is 20 km/h, then find the speed of the
stream (in km/h).
Ans 1. 10

2. 15

3. 20

4. 40

Q.2 The given graph shows the production of food grains of a country in different years. Study the graph and answer the
question that follows.

The percentage increase in production from 2010 to 2011 was (Rounded off to 2 decimal places):
Ans 1. 5.12%

2. 6.38%

3. 7.46%

4. 4.23%

Q.3

Ans 1. 11230

2. 13690

3. 12320

4. 10290

Q.4 The least number of five digits which is exactly divisible by each one of the numbers 12, 15 and 18 is:
Ans 1. 10015

2. 10020

3. 10080

4. 10010
Q.5 A vendor loses the selling price of 4 oranges on selling 36 oranges. His loss percentage is:
Ans
1.

Q.6

Ans 1. ₹7,547.28

2. ₹7,574.28

3. ₹7,745.28

4. ₹5,774.28

Q.7 By selling an item for ₹ 125, S earns 12% profit. What is the cost of the item (in ₹)? (Correct up to 2 decimal digits)
Ans 1. 111.61

2. 111.16

3. 116.61

4. 116.16

Q.8 Suman travels the first 330 km by train at a speed of 110 km/hr and the next 165 km by bus at 55 km/hr. Ignoring the buffer
time between different modes of travel, the average speed (in km/hr) for her tour was:
Ans
1.

Q.9 The price of a book is first increased by 10% and then again by 20%. If the price of the book after both increments is ₹33,
then the original price (in ₹) of the book is:
Ans 1. 33

2. 32

3. 25

4. 30

Q.10 In an NCC camp, the average weight was 72 kg. If 5 cadets having average weight 76 kg leave and 11 cadets of average
weight 79 kg join the group, the average weight of the cadets in the group increases by 0.6 kg. The number of cadets,
initially in the group was:
Ans 1. 89

2. 85

3. 81

4. 91

Q.11 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹3000 as a sum borrowed at 8% per year rate of interest for 3 years.
Ans 1. 760

2. 720

3. 660

4. 680

Q.12 After how many years will a sum of ₹8,925 at simple interest fetch a total amount of ₹12,941.25 at the rate of 9% per annum?
Ans 1. 3 years

2. 6 years

3. 4 years

4. 5 years

Q.13 Find the curved surface area of the cylinder which has a height of 25 m and a base of radius 7 m.
Ans 1.

Q.14 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹2000 as a sum borrowed at 9% per year rate of interest for 3 years.
Ans 1. 500

2. 480

3. 580

4. 540
Q.15 Find the average of the numbers 1, −1, 0 and 2.
Ans 1. 2

2. 0.5

3. 4

4. 1.5

Q
.
1
6
A 1. ₹665
n
s
2. ₹655

3. ₹650

4. ₹672

Q.17 In an experiment to determine the refractive index of water, a student took five sets of observations and got the values for
the refractive index of water as 1.32, 1.37, 1.36, 1.39 and 1.31. What is its average value?
Ans 1. 1.36

2. 1.34

3. 1.35

4. 1.33

Q.18 The ratio of per kg market price of rice to that of wheat flour is 7 : 9 and the ratio of their quantities consumed by a family is
9 : 11. Find the ratio of the family’s expenditure on rice to that on wheat flour.
Ans
1.

Q.19 The average score in the Mathematics exam of a class of 60 students is 52. A group of 8 boys with an average score of 40
left the class and another group of 10 boys with an average score of 43 joined the class. What is the new average score of
the class? (correct to one decimal place)
Ans 1. 53.9

2. 52.1

3. 55.7

4. 50.5

Q.20

Ans 1. 42 cm

2. 50 cm

3. 34 cm

4. 26 cm

Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1 Select the option in which the given figure is embedded (rotation is NOT allowed).

Ans

Q.2 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statement(s).
Statements:
Some pigs are frogs.
All bats are pigs.
Conclusions:
(I) At least some bats are frogs
(II) All pigs are bats.
Ans 1. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows

2. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow

3. Only conclusion (II) follows

4. Only conclusion (I) follows

Q.3

Ans 1.

Q.4 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

(17, 10, 95)

(2, 11, 21)
Ans 1. (19, 18, 30)

2. (10, 6, 56)

3. (24, 18, 128)

4. (20, 16, 26)

Q.5 Identify the figure given in the options which when put in place of ? will logically complete the series.

Ans

Q.6 Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series and complete
the pattern.

Ans

Q.7 EMHD is related to GOJF in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, IQLH is related to KSNJ.
To which of the following is LTOK related following the same logic?
Ans 1. VNMQ

2. VNQM

3. NVQM

4. NVMQ

Q.8 A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order). B sits
second to the right of E, who is second to the right of C. G sits third to the left of D, who is not an immediate neighbour of F.
A sits second to the right of D.
What is the position of E with respect to C?
Ans 1. Immediate right

2. Second to the right

3. Second to the left

4. Immediate left
Q.9 What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’
are interchanged?
16 ÷ 4 + 18 − 14 × 7 = ?
Ans 1. 52

2. 62

3. 48

4. 65

Q.10 8 is related to 62 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 11 is related to 119. To which of the following is 15
related, following the same logic?

(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding / subtracting / multiplying, etc., to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13
into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans 1. 123

2. 423

3. 323

4. 223

Q.11 In a certain code language, ‘under the impression’ is written as ‘ly ga po’ and ‘first impression matters’ is writtenas ‘ka mo
po’. How will ‘impression’ be writtenin that language?
Ans 1. mo

2. ly

3. po

4. ka

Q.12 IRIG is related to OXOM in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, DLEC is related to JRKI.
To which of the following is SBUS related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. AYHY

2. YHYA

3. AYYH

4. YHAY

Q.13 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans
1.

Q.14 What will come in the place of ‘?’ in the following equation, if ‘–’ and ‘×‘ are interchanged and ‘+’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?
99 + 9 – 19 × 59 ÷ 29 = ?
Ans 1. 169

2. 153

3. 179

4. 189

Q.15 In a certain code language, ‘pass the ball’ is coded as ‘bq tr vl’ and ‘ball is red’ is coded as ‘hx vo bq’. How is ‘ball’ coded in
the given language?
Ans 1. vl

2. tr

3. hx

4. bq

Q.16 Seven friends, A, B, C, D, E, F and G, are sitting around a table, facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order). B
is to the immediate right of F, and A is to the immediate right of B. E is an immediate neighbour of both F and D, while G is
an immediate neighbour of both D and C.
Who is sitting to the immediate right of A?
Ans 1. B

2. E

3. C

4. D

Q.17 In a certain code language, 'FIRE' is coded as '9571' and 'ROAD' is coded as '2146'.
What is the code for 'R' in the given code language?
Ans 1. 7

2. 1

3. 2

4. 6
Q.18 ead the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
R
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
All vases are portraits.
Some portraits are flowers.

Conclusions:
(I) All flowers are vases.
(II) Some flowers may be portraits.
Ans 1. Only conclusion II follows

2. Only conclusion I follows

3. Both conclusion I and II follow

4. Neither conclusion I nor II follow

Q.19 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the English alphabetical order?
EVD, ITH ,MRL ,QPP, ?
Ans 1. UNS

2. UMT

3. UNT

4. UMS

Q.20 What should come in place of ‘?’ in the given series?

17, 32, 93, 460, 3213, ?

Ans 1. 25696

2. 28908

3. 35332

4. 22484

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 Who among the following appoints the Acting Chief Justice in the absence of the Chief Justice of India?
Ans 1. Senior most Judge of the Supreme Court

2. President

3. Council of Ministers

4. Prime Minister

Q.2 The condition when the amount of dissolved oxygen in a water body is alarmingly decreased is called:
Ans 1. hypothermia

2. acidification

3. hypoxia

4. anoxia

Q.3 In which of the following years was India the host of Women's T20 World Cup Cricket?
Ans 1. 2016

2. 2012

3. 2014

4. 2010

Q.4 Who among the following musicians was a member of Navratnas of Akbar?
Ans 1. Naubat Khan

2. Tansen

3. Amir Khusrau

4. Nizamuddin Auliya

Q.5 Which Indian classical dance form has composition in Meitei language?
Ans 1. Bharatanatyam

2. Chhau

3. Sattriya

4. Manipuri

Q.6 Vangpui Kut festival is organised for _______ days in Mizoram to celebrate the glory of Mizo culture and traditions.
Ans 1. 4

2. 5

3. 3

4. 2

Q.7 In badminton, how high above the ground is the net positioned at the edges?
Ans 1. 5.4 feet

2. 5.2 feet

3. 5.3 feet

4. 5.1 feet
Q.8 Which type of tea in large amount is exported from India to importing countries?
Ans 1. Regular tea

2. Black tea

3. Green tea

4. Herbal tea

Q.9 ‘Running for My Life: One Lost Boy’s Journey from the Killing Fields of Sudan to the Olympic Games’ an autobiography
depicting the struggle for life to success in life is written by who among the following personalities?
Ans 1. Jesse Owens

2. Arnold Palmer

3. Lopez Lomong

4. Noah Lyles

Q.10 Match the columns.

Column A (Plant Group) Column B (Example)
i. Bryophyta a. Rose
ii. Pteridophyta b. Pine
iii. Gymnosperms c. Mosses
iv. Angiosperms d. Selaginella

Ans 1. i-c, ii-d, iii-b, iv-a

2. i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a

3. i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b

4. i-c, ii-a, iii-b, iv-d

Q.11 Which of the following statements is/are true about the Iron Age?
1 The establishment of large cities took place on the basis of sizeable surplus.
2 The ceramic associated with this age was Painted Grey Ware.
3 The Indus Valley Civilization flourished during the Iron Age
Ans 1. All 1, 2 and 3

2. Only 1

3. Only 2 and 3

4. Only 1 and 2

Q.12 ‘NISHTHA’ stands for ____________.

Ans 1. National Inauguration for School Heads’ and Teachers’ Holistic Assessment

2. National Inauguration for School Heads’ and Teachers’ Holistic Advancement

3. National Initiative for School Heads’ and Teachers’ Holistic Assessment

4. National Initiative for School Heads’ and Teachers’ Holistic Advancement

Q.13 Kudumbashree is a poverty eradication and women empowerment programme. In which state of India does this programme
operate?
Ans 1. Kerala

2. Andhra Pradesh

3. Karnataka

4. Tamil Nadu

Q.14 Which among the following data was used to compute the estimates in the national Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI)
Baseline Report?
Ans 1. National Census data

2. National Family Health Survey (NFHS-4)

3. Economic Survey data

4. Annual Employment-Unemployment Survey data

Q.15 As per the Periodic Labour Force data 2023, which of the following states recorded the highest unemployment rate in urban
areas for the age group 15 years and above?
Ans 1. Chhattisgarh

2. Rajasthan

3. Himachal Pradesh

4. Kerala

Q.16 Which of the following leaders died after being hit by sticks while protesting against the Simon Commission?
Ans 1. Bal Gangadhar Tilak

2. Lala Lajpat Rai

3. Bhagat Singh

4. Chandra Shekhar Azad

Q.17 The All-India Kisan Sabha was founded in Lucknow in April _______ with Swami Sahjanand Saraswati as the president.
Ans 1. 1935

2. 1936

3. 1937

4. 1934

Q.18 Which of the following represents the chemical formula for sulphur hexafluoride?
Ans 1. SF2

2. S6F

3. S2F6

4. SF6
Q.19 Under which of the following Articles is Right to Equality mentioned?
Ans 1. Articles 19–22

2. Articles 1-4

3. Articles 14-18

4. Articles 10–12

Q.20 Padma Shri awardee (2023) Guru K Kalyanasundaram Pillai is an exponent of which of the following classical dance genres?
Ans 1. Bharatnatyam

2. Kathakali

3. Kathak

4. Sattriya

Q.21 The Sun Temple at Konark, the Khajuraho Temple in Madhya Pradesh and the recently constructed Ram Temple in Ayodhya
are examples of temples designed in which style of temple architecture?
Ans 1. Nagara

2. Vesara

3. Dravida

4. Hoysala

Q.22 A famous hill station 'Ranikhet' is located on which mountain?

Ans 1. Eastern Ghats

2. Western Ghats

3. Aravali

4. Himalaya

Q.23 What is the specific field of study focused on examining extinct animals?
Ans 1. Glaciology

2. Economic geology

3. Palaeontology

4. Gemology

Q.24 In Union Budget 2023-24, an aspirational Blocks Programme covering how many blocks has been launched?
Ans 1. 250

2. 500

3. 450

4. 300

Q.25 The founder of Bahmani kingdom who assumed the title of ‘Alauddin Hasan Bahman Shah’ was _________.
Ans 1. Ahmad Shah

2. Feroz Shah Bahmani

3. Hasan Gangu

4. Muhammad Shah

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

She _______ to be understood by the society.
Ans 1. chased

2. hunted

3. looked

4. sought

Q.2 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the highlighted word in the given sentence.
The negotiations were conducted in an amicable atmosphere, leading to a peaceful resolution.
Ans 1. Hostile

2. Agreeable

3. Cordial

4. Serene

Q.3 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The council never _________ the new complex to be constructed, nor did local residents.
Ans 1. liked

2. occurred

3. refreshed

4. wanted

Q.4 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans 1. tangible

2. lascivious

3. navigate

4. rhetericol
Q.5 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined word in the given sentence.
A conscious understanding of the environmental issues can bring positive changes in human life.
Ans 1. Reflex

2. Beware

3. Mindful

4. Mechanical

Q.6 If someone mentions that 'the ball is in your court', what does this idiom imply?
Ans 1. It's time to play a sport.

2. It's time for a break.

3. It's a reference to tennis.

4. It's your turn to make a decision or take action.

Q.7 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Harmony
Ans 1. Unity

2. Discord

3. Accord

4. Concord

Q.8 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The speaker requested the audience to pay _________.

Ans 1. ears

2. silence

3. activeness

4. attention

Q.9 Which of the following options is similar in meaning to the given word?
Pensive
Ans 1. Troubled

2. Talkative

3. Tired

4. Thoughtful

Q.10 Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. Select the option that contains an error.
It was an interesting chat with an European gymnast that changed my mindset towards the sport.
Ans 1. It was an interesting

2. chat with

3. an European gymnast that changed

4. my mindset towards the sport

Q.11 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

How long / have you / been learn / English now?

Ans 1. have you

2. How long

3. been learn

4. English now

Q.12 Select the correct spelling of the underlined word in the given sentence.

The princepal of the college announced his early retirement today.

Ans 1. principal

2. principel

3. princepil

4. princeaple

Q.13 Rectify the error in the given sentence by selecting the correct spelling from the options provided.

The chord of my voilin is not tuned properly.

Ans 1. voilen

2. wiolin

3. violin

4. woilin

Q.14 Select the most appropriate form of comparative degree that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

Food prices in Switzerland are expensiver to the rest of Western Europe.

Ans 1. the most expensive than

2. as expensiver to

3. more expensive to

4. more expensive than

Q.15 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
I have been / looking by my / cream sweater for / a few weeks now.
Ans 1. cream sweater for

2. looking by my

3. a few weeks now

4. I have been

Q.16 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined words in the given sentence.

By definition, making a pictogram is to present and visualise data.

Ans 1. Pictogram is making a definition

2. To make a pictogram by definition

3. The purpose of a pictorgram

4. In making a pictogram, the definition

Q.17 Select the most appropriate degree of comparison to fill in the blank.
Hunny is _____ person in his family.
Ans 1. more taller

2. the tallest

3. tall

4. taller

Q.18 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Rain cats and dogs
Ans 1. Do something unplanned

2. Raining heavily

3. Very rarely

4. Doing something pointless

Q.19 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word in the given sentence.

Overfishing and destructive fishing practices threaten the sustainability of marine resources and ecosystems.
Ans 1. Equanimity

2. Justifiability

3. Reasonableness

4. Indefensibility

Q.20 Select the correct option of the given sentence.

Vishnu is the more courageous than all other boys in the class.
Ans 1. Vishnu is more courageous than all other boys in the class.

2. Vishnu is most courageous than all other boys in the class.

3. Vishnu is much more courageous than all other boys in the class.

4. Vishnu is the most courageous than all other boys in the class.

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

The ship struck the iceberg (1) _____ its side while it was still moving forward. In a few (2)_____, six great holes were made in the
steel. Water rushed in, not in one place, but in separate places covering the Titanic hundred feet. The steel doors were therefore
(3)_____ . Captain Smith soon understood that (4)______ could save the ship. He ordered the wireless officer to send out the ship’s
position and the letters CQD, which is the call for help. It told the world that the Titanic was (5)_____.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans 1. beyond

2. with

3. under

4. above

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans 1. years

2. days

3. moments

4. weeks
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans 1. useless

2. complete

3. painted

4. burnt

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans 1. all

2. enemies

3. everything

4. nothing

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans 1. floating

2. reaching

3. sinking

4. victorious
Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 28/10/2024
Exam
9:00 AM - 11:00 AM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 A man riding his bike covers 960 m in 64 sec. What is his speed in km/hr?
Ans 1. 64

2. 15

3. 50

4. 54

Q.2

Ans 1. 942.1

2. 1000.3

3. 1177.5

4. 1200.5

Q.3 The diameter of a solid sphere is 3 cm. It is melted and drawn into a wire of diameter 8 mm. The length of the wire is:
Ans
1.

Q.4 Tannish travels from A to B at a speed of 20 km/h, from B to C at 15 km/h and from C to D at 30 km/h. If AB = BC = CD, then
find Tannish’s average speed for the whole journey.
Ans 1. 21 km/h

2. 19 km/h

3. 22 km/h

4. 20 km/h

Q.5 The area of a rhombus with diagonals of lengths 4 cm and 5 cm, respectively, is:
Ans 1. 4.5 cm2

2. 20 cm2

3. 40 cm2

4. 10 cm2
Q.6 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹2500 as a sum borrowed at 6% per year rate of interest for 4 years.
Ans 1. 540

2. 600

3. 560

4. 640

Q.7 The average of five numbers is 38. If one number is excluded, their average is 36. Find the excluded number.
Ans 1. 38

2. 41

3. 49

4. 46

Q.8

Ans 1. A1

2. A4

3. A2

4. A3

Q.9 The number of marbles in three bags is in the ratio of 2 : 3 : 4. If 12 marbles are added to each bag, then the ratio changed to
8 : 11 : 14. The total number of marbles in the beginning was:
Ans 1. 200

2. 162

3. 126

4. 216
Q.10 The given bar graph represents the number of residents living in a society during the past five years. Study the graph
carefully and answer the question that follows.

What is the per cent decrement in the number of residents in 2021 as compared to the previous year? (correct up to two
decimal places)
Ans 1. 46.58%

2. 44.58%

3. 53.42%

4. 50.24%

Q.11 By selling a TV set for₹26,000, a seller earns 30% profit. If the production cost is increased by 10%, what should be the new
selling price of a set so as to gain 15% profit?
Ans 1. ₹28,300

2. ₹30,300

3. ₹26,300

4. ₹25,300

Q.12 The HCF of 1.75, 5.6 and 7 is:

Ans 1. 0.07

2. 0.35

3. 0.7

4. 3.5

Q.13 The average weight of 40 athletes and 5 trainers is 72 kg. When six more athletes of average weight 65 kg are included in the
group, what is the average weight (in kg) of the group? (Rounded off to 2 decimal places)
Ans 1. 71.18

2. 65.21

3. 72.25

4. 69.37

Q.14
The simple interest on a sum is of the principal for 21 years. What is the rate (in percentage) of interest per annum?

(Rounded to two decimal places)

Ans 1. 2.56

2. 3.21

3. 3.97

4. 4.26
Q.15 Find the average of all odd numbers between 10 and 30.
Ans 1. 20

2. 30

3. 10

4. 40

Q.16 A trader sells an item at 25% profit. Had he bought it at 15% more and sold it for₹147 more, he would have earned a profit of
30%. Find the cost price of the item.
Ans 1. ₹650

2. ₹525

3. ₹450

4. ₹600

Q.17 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹2000 as a sum borrowed at 6% per year rate of interest for 6 years.
Ans 1. 720

2. 760

3. 660

4. 680

Q
.
1
8
A 1.
n
s
2.

Q.19 A shopkeeper marks his good 12% above the cost price and allows a discount of 8.5% on the
marked price. Find his profit or loss percentage.
Ans 1. Loss 2.48%

2. Profit 2.48%

3. Loss 4.65%

4. Profit 4.65%

Q.20 A family of seven minors and some adults has an average wheat consumption of 11.10 kg. The average consumption for
minors is 5.5 kg per person, and for adults, it is 16 kg per person. Find the number of adults in the family.
Ans 1. 6

2. 5

3. 8

4. 10

Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1 In a certain code language, ‘i know you’ is written as ‘mo rc tp’ and ‘do they know’ is written as ‘hk mo be’. How is ‘know’
written in the given code language?
Ans 1. be

2. mo

3. tp

4. rc
Q.2 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
Some glasses are cups.
All cups are plates.

Conclusions:
(I) At least some plates are glasses.
(II) All cups are glasses.
Ans 1. Only conclusion (I) follows

2. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows

3. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow

4. Only conclusion (II) follows

Q.3 Seven people R, S, T, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same
order). Only two people are sitting between S and G when counted from the right of S. Only two people are sitting between E
and T when counted from the left of E. R is sitting second to the right of G. T is not an immediate neighbour of R. D is not an
immediate neighbour of G. Who is sitting to the immediate left and to the immediate right of F, respectively?
Ans 1. T and S

2. G and S

3. T and G

4. G and T

Q.4 TCKS is related to WFNV in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, YHPX is related to
BKSA. To which of the following is HPXG related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. KSJL

2. KSAJ

3. SKKA

4. KSJA

Q.5 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into
1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
(11, 19, 8)
(14, 29, 15)
Ans 1. (18, 21, 7)

2. (22, 25, 9)

3. (7, 35, 23)

4. (16, 28, 12)

Q.6 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans
1.

4.
Q.7 In a certain code language, ‘paint the wall’ is written as ‘jh dw qp’ and ‘wall of honour’ is written as ‘fh ut dw’. How is ‘wall’
written in the given language?
Ans 1. ut

2. dw

3. jh

4. qp

Q.8 Which of the following interchanges of signs would make the given equation correct?
57 − 19 × 18 + 9 ÷ 45 = 18
Ans 1. + and ×

2. ÷ and −

3. ÷ and ×

4. + and ÷

Q.9 11 is related to 45 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 3 is related to 13. To which of the following is 6 related
following the same logic?(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the
numbersinto its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13can be
performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1and 3 is not allowed)
Ans 1. 23

2. 28

3. 25

4. 26

Q.10 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

226 231 236 241 246 ?

Ans 1. 254

2. 252

3. 251

4. 253

Q.11 In a certain code language, 'GOLF' is coded as '6428' and 'OPEN' is coded as '7653'.
What is the code for 'O' in the given code language?
Ans 1. 4

2. 6

3. 7

4. 5
Q.12 Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series and complete
the pattern.

Ans

Q.13 In a certain code language, ‘ONLY’ is coded as ‘2648’ and ‘NICE’ is coded as ‘7534’.What is the code for ‘N’ in the given code
language?
Ans 1. 4

2. 2

3. 7

4. 6

Q.14 What will come in the place of ‘?’ in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘–‘ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?
30 − 10 ÷ 63 × 9 + 15 =?
Ans 1. 80

2. 85

3. 87

4. 90
Q.15 Select the option in which the given figure is embedded (rotation is NOT allowed).

Ans

4.
Q.16 Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

Ans

Q.17 LRPN is related to SYWU in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, IOMK is related to
PVTR. To which of the following is GMKI related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. TNPR

2. TNRP

3. NTPR

4. NTRP

Q.18 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?

WSF, BUK ,GWP ,LYU, ?

Ans 1. PAY

2. QAZ

3. RBZ

4. RZY

Q.19 ead the given statement(s) and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even
R
if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statement(s).

Statements:
All cups are plates.
Some plates are glasses.

Conclusions:
(I) Some cups are not glasses.
(II) Some glasses are not plates.
Ans 1. Neither conclusion I nor II follows.

2. Both conclusions I and II follow.

3. Only conclusion II follows.

4. Only conclusion I follows.

Q.20 A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table facing away from the centre (but not necessarily in the same order).
Only 3 people are sitting between A and D when counted from the right of A. B is sitting 2nd to the left of D. F is sitting
immediate to the right of C. E is not an immediate neighbour of D. What is the position of F with respect to G?
Ans 1. 2nd to the right

2. 2nd to the left

3. 3rd to the left

4. 3rd to the right

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 Who among the following wrote a book called ‘Indica’ based on his travels and experiences in Mauryan India?
Ans 1. Pliny

2. Strabo

3. Megasthenes

4. Diodorus

Q.2 Which of the following Khayal artists is the founding father of Lalit Kala Kendra of the University of Pune?
Ans 1. Shiv Kumar Sharma

2. Kishan Maharaj

3. Ravi Shankar

4. Bhimsen Joshi

Q.3 Which red and buff sandstone is the tallest tower in India built in the thirteenth century?
Ans 1. Qutub Minar

2. Jhulta Minar

3. Shaheed Minar

4. Chand Minar

Q.4 Which part of a flower develops into a seed?

Ans 1. Pistil

2. Petal

3. Ovule

4. Stamen

Q.5 In December 2023, which eminent agricultural economist from Kerala was conferred the
distinguished title of ISAE Fellow 2023 by the Indian Society of Agricultural Economics (ISAE)?
Ans 1. Dr. P Indira Devi

2. Chanda Nimbkar

3. Suman Sahai

4. Sulochana Gadgil

Q.6 In which of the following years did India NOT win an Olympic gold medal in hockey?
Ans 1. 1960

2. 1956

3. 1952

4. 1948
Q.7 In which year was the microfinance movement formally launched in India on a pilot basis?
Ans 1. 1992

2. 2000

3. 2010

4. 1980

Q.8 In which of the following states is the Jawara dance performed on the occasion of a successful harvest?
Ans 1. Punjab

2. Madhya Pradesh

3. Haryana

4. Gujarat

Q.9 Which of the following novels is based on Malgudi, a fictional town in south India?
Ans 1. The Guide

2. My Days

3. Sacred Games

4. A Suitable Boy

Q.10 Which of the following is NOT a function of mesosomes?

Ans 1. DNA replication and distribution to daughter cells

2. Locomotion

3. Increase the surface area of the plasma membrane and enzymatic content

4. Respiration

Q.11 Madhavpur Fair in Gujarat is a _______ day long event to celebrate Lord Krishna's marriage with Rukmani.
Ans 1. four

2. three

3. five

4. two

Q.12 An Ummathat folk dancer from Karnataka ________ had been honoured with Padma Shri in 2023.
Ans 1. Rani Machaiah

2. Sharan Rani Backliwal

3. Rani Karnaa Nayak

4. Devika Rani

Q.13 Who among the following was the founder of 'Bhoodan Yajna' in India?
Ans 1. Subhas Chandra Bose

2. Vallabhbhai Patel

3. Vinoba Bhave

4. Mahatma Gandhi

Q.14 Which of the following states is characterised by salt marshes known as 'Rann'?
Ans 1. Maharashtra

2. Jharkhand

3. Gujarat

4. Punjab
Q.15 Who among the following was a leader of Garam Dal, a group of radical nationalists?
Ans 1. Dadabhai Naoroji

2. Bipin Chandra Pal

3. Surendranath Banerjee

4. Gopal Krishna Gokhale

Q.16 Which of the following is an alarming effect of thermal pollution in water bodies?
Ans 1. The amount of dissolved oxygen decreased significantly

2. Increasing amount of carbon dioxide

3. The random changes in pH values

4. Changes in turbidity

Q.17 The people of Himachal Pradesh make channels to bring water from a glacier or rainwater to villages for the function of
mainly irrigation. These channels are locally known as:
Ans 1. Guls or Kuls

2. Johads

3. Baori

4. Khadins

Q.18 Which Article of the Indian Constitution states the following?

‘Directive Principles of State Policy are fundamental in the governance of the country and it shall be the duty of the state to
apply these principles in making laws.’
Ans 1. Article 35

2. Article 40

3. Article 30

4. Article 37

Q.19 Who among the following presides over the meeting of the Council of Ministers in a state?
Ans 1. Chief Minister of the state

2. Chief Secretary of the state

3. Speaker of the Legislative Assembly

4. Chairman of the Legislative Council

Q.20 According to Census 2011 of India, which metropolitan city has the highest population?
Ans 1. Kolkata

2. Mumbai

3. Delhi

4. Chennai

Q.21 Which of the following is NOT a hydroelectric power plant?

Ans 1. Kopili Hydel Project

2. Bhakra Nangal Hydel Project

3. Sambhar Lake Hydel Project

4. Damodar Valley Hydel Project

Q.22 Who was sworn in as the Governor of Chhattisgarh in February 2023?

Ans 1. Anusuiya Uikey

2. Ramesh Bais

3. Biswabhusan Harichandan

4. Satyadev Narayan Arya

Q.23 Who among the following founded a suburban township near Vijayanagara, called Nagalapuram, after his mother?
Ans 1. Krishna Deva Raya

2. Achyuta Deva Raya

3. Sadasiva Raya

4. Rama Raya

Q.24 In which sport is the term 'Dolphin Kick' commonly used?

Ans 1. High Jump

2. Swimming

3. Javelin Throw

4. Long Jump

Q.25 According to National Multidimensional Poverty Index 2023 (A Progress Review), what was the proportion of population in
multidimensional poverty (Headcount Ratio) in rural India in 2019-2021?
Ans 1. 24.12%

2. 12.32%

3. 14.96%

4. 19.28%

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 Select the option that correctly rectifies the underlined spelling error in the given sentence.

The reorganisation of daily life wrought by industrialisation had effects that weakened the material basis for the
instietutions of the family and the community.
Ans 1. instetutions

2. instetusion

3. institutions

4. instetuitions

Q.2 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Anticipate
Ans 1. doubt

2. Accuse

3. Predict

4. Conceal

Q.3 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Crocodile tears
Ans 1. To not behave in a fair way

2. An insincere display of grief

3. To please everyone

4. An irrevocable step

Q.4 Select the most appropriate adjective to fill in the blank.

She always wears dresses of _________ fashion.

Ans 1. latest

2. the latter

3. late

4. the latest
Q.5 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The discussion led by the scientist was very ___________.

Ans 1. more informative

2. information

3. informative

4. most informative

Q.6 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word in the given sentence.

A few students have condemned the latest project of preparing teaching aids as a waste of money.
Ans 1. Doomed

2. Applauded

3. Consolidated

4. Contradicted

Q.7 Select the most appropriate synonym of the word 'Native' from the given sentence.

Mr. Smith believes that various tribes are the indigenous habitants of various corners of the world; unlike his
contemporaries who have a viewpoint regarding an alien or foreign invasion.
Ans 1. Foreign

2. Alien

3. Invasion

4. Indigenous

Q.8 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The sharpshooter _________ dead a man-eating tiger after it allegedly killed nine people in the last few days.
Ans 1. fixed

2. threw

3. killed

4. shot

Q.9 In the following sentence the underlined part contains as error. Alternatives to the underlined part are given as options.
Select the correct alternative.
Ahuja is a cleverest lawyer.
Ans 1. most clever

2. clever

3. more clever

4. cleverer

Q.10 One of the four words in bold in the given sentence is incorrectly spelt. Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

The detectives uncovered a conspirasy to overthrow the government.

Ans 1. detectives

2. conspirasy

3. uncovered

4. overthrow

Q.11 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

A blue-eyed boy
Ans 1. one who is favourite

2. an unperceived observer

3. a miser

4. an unwelcome intruder
Q.12 The following sentence has been split into segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error. If you don’t
find any error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer.
He missed the college bus / because he woke up / unpardonably lately in the morning.
Ans 1. no error

2. he missed the college bus

3. because he woke up

4. unpardonably lately in the morning

Q.13 Select the most appropriate synonym of the word 'Ceased' to fill in the blank.

He was _______ from his job because of his misconduct.

Ans 1. terminated

2. continued

3. progressed

4. commenced

Q.14 In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option
to fill in the blanks.
Michael Jackson is known as the King of Pop. He ________ his own genre of music, Pop. His music is spreading its
influence and popularity ________ the world.
Ans 1. dominates; around

2. presides; round

3. controls; beside

4. command; besides

Q.15 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Curse
Ans 1. Comment

2. Praise

3. Abuse

4. Criticise

Q.16 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the highlighted word(s) in the given sentence.

The sceneries in Darjeeling are breathtaking.

Ans 1. scenery in Darjeeling were

2. sceneries in Darjeeling is

3. scenery in Darjeeling is

4. sceneries in Darjeeling had been

Q.17 Select the correct spelling of the underlined word in the given sentence.

The magician performed a magnificant trick.

Ans 1. magnificent

2. magnificient

3. magneficent

4. magnificante

Q.18 Select the most appropriate option to complete the given sentence in the present perfect continuous tense.

The company ___________________ working towards achievements in curbing slackness and fostering development.
Ans 1. have been

2. are being

3. is being

4. has been
Q.19 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

Wolves’ teeth are larger and strong than dog’s teeth.

Ans 1. the stronger

2. stronger

3. strongest

4. more strong

Q.20 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If no substitution is required,
select 'No substitution required'.

Manisha had a great feeling for those who were junior than her.
Ans 1. junior of

2. junior from

3. No substitution required

4. junior to

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

Worldwide illiteracy rates have (1)_________ declined in the last few decades. One of the major reasons for this decline is the sharp
increase in literacy rates (2)_________ young women, which is a result of specific (3)_________ designed to increase educational
opportunities for girls. (4)_________, there are still an estimated 771 million illiterate adults in the world, about two-thirds of whom are
(5)_________.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 1.
Ans 1. consequently

2. thirdly

3. consistently

4. wearily

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 2.
Ans 1. over

2. among

3. against

4. between

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 3.
Ans 1. camisole

2. campaigns

3. companions

4. champions
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 4.
Ans 1. However

2. Thus

3. Whenever

4. Otherwise

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 5.
Ans 1. woman

2. child

3. women

4. man
Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 28/10/2024
Exam
12:30 PM - 2:30 PM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 The average weight of a family of five members (in kg) whose weights are 40 kg, 49 kg, 56 kg, 71 kg and 37 kg is:
Ans 1. 50.6

2. 49.6

3. 52.6

4. 51.6

Q.2 A shopkeeper offers 38% discount on a certain item. He announces an additional 15% discount to a customer for paying
cash. A customer paid a cash amount of ₹2,108 for that item. What is the marked price (in ₹) of the item?
Ans 1. 3,800

2. 4,000

3. 4,200

4. 3,560

Q.3 Simplify the following expression.

(5×5+5−5×5+5−5×5)+(5×5)÷5(2+3)
Ans 1. 25

2. 5

3. 10

4. 20

Q.4
Find the ratio in which tomatoes worth ₹45/kg can be mixed with tomatoes
worth ₹60/kg, so that the mixture will be worth ₹54/kg.
Ans 1. 2 : 5

2. 3 : 7

3. 2 : 3

4. 3 : 5

Q.5
In what ratio must a shopkeeper mix sugar at ₹30/kg and ₹32.5/kg so that
by selling the mixture at ₹34.1/kg, he may get 10% profit?
Ans 1. 5 : 4

2. 2 : 1

3. 4 : 3

4. 3 : 2
Q.6 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹3000 as a sum borrowed at 8% per year rate of interest for 4 years.
Ans 1. 960

2. 900

3. 920

4. 1000

Q.7 A shopkeeper sold the Refrigerator and the Geyser set together for ₹30,400, thereby making a profit of 25% on the
Refrigerator and 10% on the Geyser. By selling them together for ₹30,700, he would have made a 10% profit on the
Refrigerator and 25% on the Geyser. Now, if the Geyser is sold at 17% profit, then the selling price (in ₹) of the Geyser is:
Ans 1. 17,510

2. 16,380

3. 14,380

4. 12,130

Q.8

Ans 1. 10 : 5 : 7

2. 10 : 5 : 9

3. 5 : 10 : 7

4. 5 : 10 : 9

Q.9 A batsman scores 152 runs in his 15th inning, which increases his average score by 5 runs. Find the average score per
inning of the batsman after the 15th innings.
Ans 1. 41

2. 85

3. 77

4. 82

Q.10 A 735 m long train passes through a 225 m long tunnel in 48 sec. Find the speed of the train.
Ans 1. 82 km/h

2. 54 km/h

3. 72 km/h

4. 66 km/h

Q.11 A well with an internal diameter of 8 m is dug to a depth of 12 m. The earth taken out of it is spread all around the well to a
width of 8 m to form an embankment. What is the height (in m) of the embankment?
Ans 1. 1.3

2. 1.0

3. 1.5

4. 2.2

Q.12 What sum (in ₹) will earn a simple interest of ₹360 in 2 years at 4% per year rate of interest?
Ans 1. 6000

2. 9000

3. 4500

4. 2250
Q.13 The ratio of the I class and II class AC train coach fares between two stations is 5 : 3, and that of the number of passengers
travelling between the two stations by I class and II classes AC coach is 3 : 10. If on a particular day ₹37,080 is collected
from passengers travelling between the two stations, then find the amount collected from second class AC coach
passengers.
Ans 1. ₹20,247

2. ₹27,420

3. ₹22,047

4. ₹24,720

Q.14 The following table shows the marks obtained by five students in five different subjects. Study the table carefully and
answer the question that follows.
The maximum marks in each subject = 100.
Subject/Student A B C D E
Jacob 56 44 40 33 35
Arjun 90 94 62 86 74
Ashwin 66 72 64 84 92
Rashad 78 42 66 48 76
Neha 58 54 48 72 88

What is the difference between the total marks obtained by Ashwin in all subjects together and that of the total marks
obtained byNeha in all subjects together?
Ans 1.

Q.15 A car covers the first 12 km distance at a speed of 30 km per hour, the next 15 km distance at a speed of 45 km/h and the
next 20 km distance at a speed of 60 km/h. Find the average speed of the car.
Ans
1.

4.
Q.16 The bar graph given below shows the earnings of three LIC agents (in rupees lakh) from LIC commission during the year
2018 to 2022. The total earnings of agent A is what per cent of the total earnings of agent C during the year 2020 to 2022?
(Rounded off to 2 decimal places)

Ans 1. 93.18%

2. 91.38%

3. 96.98%

4. 98.13%

Q.17

Ans 1. 66

2. 35

3. 42

4. 54

Q.18

Ans 1. 7 cm

2. 8 cm

3. 12 cm

4. 9 cm

Q.19 A shopkeeper sells an item at a profit of 25% and dishonestly uses a weight that is 30% less than the actual weight. Find his
total profit percentage.
Ans 1. 23%

2. 65.75%

3. 42%

4. 78.57%

Q.20 Arun has taken some money as loan on simple interest for 6 years. The money lender levied interest at 4% per annum for
the first 2 years, at 8% per annum for the next 3 years and at 12% per annum for the period beyond 5 years. If Arun clears
his loan by paying ₹5,472, then what was the sum (in ₹) he had taken as loan?
Ans 1. 12,436

2. 3,040

3. 3,800

4. 6,840

Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1

Ans 1.

Q.2 Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

Ans

Q.3 In a certain code language, ‘WOLF’ is coded as ‘4729’ and ‘FLEW’ is coded as ‘9254’. What is the code for ‘E’ in that
language?
Ans 1. 9

2. 4

3. 2

4. 5

Q.4 P, Q, R, S, T and U are sitting around a round table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order). P is sitting to
the immediate right of U and immediate left of S. S is sitting to the immediate left of T. Q is sitting to the immediate right of T
and immediate left of R. Who is sitting to the immediate right of R?
Ans 1. T

2. U

3. S

4. P
Q.5 QBON is related to UFSR in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, FCLT is related to JGPX.
To which of the following is AOGS related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. ESKW

2. BQJW

3. ERJV

4. CQIU

Q.6 GI23 is related to SU31 in a certain way. In the same way, MO56 is related to YA64. To which of the following is SU78 related,
following the same logic?
Ans 1. GE66

2. EG68

3. GE68

4. EG86

Q.7 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans
1.

Q.8 In a certain code language, ‘YOUR’ is coded as ‘1245’ and ‘OURS’ is coded as ‘4216’. What is the code for ‘Y’ in that
language?
Ans 1. 4

2. 1

3. 6

4. 5

Q.9 Which two signs should be interchanged to make the given equation correct?
60 × 10 + 12 ÷ 4 − 16 = 74
Ans 1. + and ×

2. − and +

3. ÷ and ×

4. − and ×

Q.10 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are
interchanged?
84 – 112 × 8 + 15 ÷ 3 = ?
Ans 1. 45

2. 63

3. 57

4. 53
Q.11 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

(2, 70, 82)

(26, 17, 53)
Ans 1. (79, 12, 141)

2. (71, 78, 122)

3. (54, 88, 152)

4. (36, 42, 90)

Q.12 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the English alphabetical order?
RSP ,TQN ,VOL, XMJ, ?
Ans 1. AKH

2. YKH

3. ZKH

4. YLH

Q.13 Which numbers should come in place of the question marks (?) in the same sequence to make the series logically
complete?

19 ,33, 21, 30 ,23 ,27, ?, 24 ,?

Ans 1. 23, 25

2. 28, 25

3. 25, 27

4. 25, 26

Q.14 5 is related to 120 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 3 is related to 24. To which of the following is 2 related
following the same logic?(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the
numbersinto its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13can be
performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1and 3 is not allowed)
Ans 1. 11

2. 13

3. 7

4. 6
Q.15 Identify the figure given in the options that when put in place of the question mark (?) will logically complete the series.

Ans

Q.16 U, V, W, X, Y, K and A are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order) .
Only two people live between W and X when counted from the left of X.U sits third to the left of K.V sits to the immediate
right of K.V sits second to the left of W.Y is not an immediate neighbour of U.
Who sits third to the right of A?
Ans 1. U

2. V

3. W

4. K
Q.17 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
No bat is a wicket.
No wicket is a glove.

Conclusions:
(I) No bat is a glove.
(II) No wicket is a bat.
Ans 1. Neither conclusion I nor II follows.

2. Only conclusion I follows.

3. Only conclusion II follows.

4. Both conclusions I and II follow.

Q.18 In a certain code language, ‘PORK’ is written as ‘7358’ and ‘CREW’ is written as ‘1693’. How is ‘R’ written in that code
language?
Ans 1. 3

2. 9

3. 5

4. 6
Q.19 Select the option figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the figure given below to complete the pattern.

Ans

Q.20 ead the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
R
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
Some watches are belts.
Some belts are ties.

Conclusions:
(I) Some watches are ties.
(II) Some belts are watches.
Ans 1. Only conclusion I follows

2. Only conclusion II follows

3. Both conclusion I and II follow

4. Neither conclusion I nor II follows

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 Which Article states that it shall be the duty of every citizen of India to abide by the constitution and respect its ideals and
institutions, the National Flag and the National Anthem?
Ans 1. 14

2. 52

3. 54 (b)

4. 51A (a)

Q.2 Yashodhara Dalmia is the author of which famous book?

Ans 1. Indian Art

2. Paintings in the Kangra Valley

3. Ajanta

4. The Painted World of the Warlis

Q.3 Which of following organisations sought to revive Vedic learning and combine it with modern education in the sciences?
Ans 1. Arya Samaj

2. Brahmo Samaj

3. Prarthana Samaj

4. Satyashodhak Samaj

Q.4 The construction of Humayun's tomb was completed by:

Ans 1. Biga Begum

2. Zeenat Mahal

3. Rahmat Banu Begum

4. Mah Chuchak Begum

Q.5 Which country hosted the Football World Cup, 2022?

Ans 1. France

2. Qatar

3. Argentina

4. UAE

Q.6 Which of the following does NOT figure among the themes of 'Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav'?
Ans 1. Ideas@75

2. Actions@75

3. Resolve@75

4. Health@75

Q.7 Who explained the system of classifying musical instruments into Tata, Sushira, Avanaddha and Ghana in his treatise 'Natya
Shastra' in the early 2nd century?
Ans 1. Bharata Muni

2. Sarngadeva

3. Swami Haridas

4. Bhairav
Q.8 Which of the following statements about phylum Arthropoda are correct?
A. Animals of Arthropoda have joint appendages.
B. They have compounds eyes.
C. These make up the majority of all animals on earth.
D. The mode of reproduction in all Arthropods is vegetative.
Ans 1. Only C and D

2. Only A and C

3. Only A, B and C

4. Only B, C and D

Q.9 Select the imbalanced chemical equation from the following.

Ans 1. 6 HClO4 + P4O10 → 4 H3PO4 + 6 Cl2O7

2. 3 Hg(OH)2 + 2 H3PO4 → Hg3(PO4)2 + 6 H2O

3. 10 KClO3 + 3 P4 → 3 P4O10 + 10 KCl

4. 3 CaCl2 + 2 Na3PO4 → Ca3(PO4)2 + 6 NaCl

Q.10 What is the primary function of the notochord in chordates?

Ans 1. Respiration

2. Locomotion

3. Digestion

4. Support

Q.11 Which of the following personalities had the key role in fighting against the British East India Company in the Battle of Porto
Novo?
Ans 1. Gopala Nayaker

2. Alamgir-II

3. Hyder Ali

4. Maharaja Ranjit Singh

Q.12 Consider the following statements in the context of the Mughal Rule.
1. The Mansabdari System was introduced by Akbar in 1571.
2. The Second Battle of Panipat was fought in 1556.
3. Maharana Pratap Singh of Mewar was a contemporary of Babur.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Ans 1. Only 2

2. Both 2 and 3

3. 1, 2 and 3

4. Both 1 and 2

Q.13 Fuels that are derived from fossils are preserved only in which kind of rocks?
Ans 1. Plutonic rocks

2. Metamorphic rocks

3. Volcanic rocks

4. Sedimentary rocks

Q.14 In February 2023, UNICEF India announced the appointment of which celebrated Bollywood star as a National Ambassador
for Child Rights?
Ans 1. Pankaj Kapoor

2. Aamir Khan

3. Ayushmann Khurrana

4. Pankaj Tripathi
Q.15 In which state is the ‘slash and burn’ agriculture known as ‘Dahiya’?
Ans 1. Madhya Pradesh

2. Arunachal Pradesh

3. Andhra Pradesh

4. Himachal Pradesh

Q.16 Which of the following is the principal strategy adopted by National Literacy Mission for the eradication of illiteracy?
Ans 1. Alternative and Innovative Education

2. Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan

3. Education Guarantee Scheme

4. Total Literacy Campaign

Q.17 What is the rank of India in the Global Hunger Index (GHI) 2023?
Ans 1. 105

2. 111

3. 120

4. 115

Q.18 Which of the following statements is true about Micro Finance institutions?
Ans 1. Type of banking service provided to employed

2. Service provided to High income people only

3. Majority of microfinancing operations occur in developing countries

4. Can provide jumbo loan

Q.19 Who built Sudarshan lake in Junagarh?

Ans 1. Pushyagupta

2. Skandgupta

3. Bhanugupta

4. Chandra Gupta

Q.20 Which Article of the Indian Constitution deals with the appointment and duties of the Attorney-General of India?
Ans 1. Article 74

2. Article 76

3. Article 80

4. Article 81

Q.21 Which of the following dance categories is NOT considered for an award of the Sangeet Natak Akademi?
Ans 1. Vilasini Natyam

2. Manipuri

3. Kuchipudi

4. Kathak

Q.22 In which year did India first participate in the Paralympic Games?
Ans 1. 1968

2. 1980

3. 1972

4. 1964
Q.23 The Patli Dun is associated with which physiographic division of India?
Ans 1. The Coastal Plains

2. The Indian Desert

3. The Peninsular Plateau

4. The Himalayan Mountains

Q.24 Who among the following was appointed as the director-general in the Directorate General of Civil Aviation in February
2023?
Ans 1. Pramod Kumar Mishra

2. Ajay Kumar Bhalla

3. Rajiv Gauba

4. Vikram Dev Dutt

Q.25 Manipuri Raas Leela, a renowned form of classical dance, was created by:
Ans 1. Maharaja Bhagyachandra

2. Siddhendra Yogi

3. Birju Maharaj

4. Sage Bharata

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Hornet's nest
Ans 1. A bee's nest

2. A troublesome or hazardous situation

3. A difficult task

4. A house built with great difficulty

Q.2 Select the option that will improve the underlined part of the given sentence. In case no improvement is needed, select ‘No
improvement required’.

Mukta requested Nikita to share the picture taken during the wedding.
Ans 1. requested Nikita for share

2. No improvement required

3. requesting Nikita to share

4. will requests Nikita to share

Q.3 The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error. Select the part that contains the error
from the given options. If you don’t find any error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer.

You have spoilt / the little chance you / had at succeeding.

Ans 1. You have spoilt

2. No error

3. the little chance you

4. had at succeeding.

Q.4 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains an error.
That question is / much difficult / but this one is / very easy.
Ans 1. much difficult

2. very easy.

3. That question is

4. but thisone is
Q.5 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

The manager complained that Sheetal's email was not up to the standard for the company.
Ans 1. up to the mark

2. an uphill task

3. up and doing

4. under the nose

Q.6 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.
The intersection of nature conservation and social justice is evident in efforts to ensure that marginalised communities and
other backward classes should have equal access to natural reserves.
Ans 1. Unclear in initiatives to safeguard

2. Manifest in actions to redesign

3. obvious in attempts to recollect

4. apparent in endeavours to guarantee

Q.7 Select the word that has the same meaning (SYNONYM) as the underlined word in the given sentence.

The vital role played by women at home and in the struggle for freedom, advanced the case for female emancipation soon
after the war was over.
Ans 1. utility

2. objectivity

3. freedom

4. bondage

Q.8 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Tom will _________ the document to the office tomorrow.

Ans 1. male

2. mail

3. meal

4. mall

Q.9 Select the most appropriate synonym of the highlighted word.

His eloquent speech moved the audience to tears.

Ans 1. Expressive

2. Vernacular

3. Angry

4. Inarticulate

Q.10 Select the sentence that has a grammatical error.

Ans 1.
A famous poet wrote that poem.
2.
I went to watch a play with one of my friends.
3.
He resides near an university.
4.
A dog likes sunlight.
Q.11 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Nylon was among the first synthitic fibre made by man and is known for its toughness, strength and resistance to oil and
grease.
Ans 1. toughness

2. strength

3. synthitic

4. resistance

Q.12 Select the appropriate option that can substitute the underlined word in the following sentence to make it grammatically
correct.

The grapes taste sweetest.

Ans 1. more sweeter

2. sweeter

3. sweet

4. most sweeter

Q.13 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans 1. Recieve

2. Thief

3. Relief

4. Believe

Q.14 Identify the most appropriate ANTONYM of the word in brackets.

The magician's performance was (captivating) and held the audience spellbound.
Ans 1. Boring

2. Enchanting

3. Fascinating

4. Gripping

Q.15 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

I will not be able to ___________ my assignment in time.

Ans 1. completing

2. completed

3. completes

4. complete

Q.16 Select the option that will improve the underlined part of the given sentence. In case no improvement is needed, select 'No
improvement'.

The name, Khajuraho, has probably been derived from the word ‘Khajoor’, meaning date palm.
Ans 1. derives into

2. derive at

3. No improvement

4. be derived into
Q.17 The following sentence contains an error. Select the option that correctly rectifies the error.

The robbers stabbed him by a sharp knife and he started bleeding profusely on the spot.
Ans 1. profusely from the spot

2. The robbers stabbed her

3. but he started bleeding

4. with a sharp knife

Q.18 Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word.

Her amicable nature made it easy for her to forge positive relationships.
Ans 1. Sad

2. Friendly

3. Attentive

4. Aggressive

Q.19 Select the correctly spelt word to fill in the blank.

The play was shortened by the ___________ of two scenes.
Ans 1. insirtion

2. addition

3. ommision

4. omission

Q.20 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

As 'brutal' is synonymous to 'harsh' , 'naive' is synonymous to ________.
Ans 1. worldly

2. hospitable

3. simple

4. wise

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most
appropriate option to fill in each blank.
Saltwater crocodiles are also known as estuarine crocodiles, as they (1)_____________ to live in mangrove-
lined rivers. They’re the (2)_________________ living reptile, reaching up to seven metres in length: far
larger than Indonesia’s famous Komodo dragon, which tops out at three metres.
(3)______________________, crocodiles lived throughout the Indonesian archipelago. We have
(4)_________________ of attacks on humans in Bali from the early 20th century and across much of Java until the
1950s. Even Indonesia’s capital, Jakarta, had crocodile’s (5)____________________in many rivers running
through the city.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 1.
Ans 1. defer

2. prefer

3. differ

4. refer
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most
appropriate option to fill in each blank.
Saltwater crocodiles are also known as estuarine crocodiles, as they (1)_____________ to live in mangrove-
lined rivers. They’re the (2)_________________ living reptile, reaching up to seven metres in length: far
larger than Indonesia’s famous Komodo dragon, which tops out at three metres.
(3)______________________, crocodiles lived throughout the Indonesian archipelago. We have
(4)_________________ of attacks on humans in Bali from the early 20th century and across much of Java until the
1950s. Even Indonesia’s capital, Jakarta, had crocodile’s (5)____________________in many rivers running
through the city.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 2.
Ans 1. fattest

2. broadest

3. largest

4. poorest

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 3.
Ans 1. acrobatically

2. Fanatically

3. Abysmally

4. Historically

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 4.
Ans 1. regiments

2. residues

3. records

4. recipes
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most
appropriate option to fill in each blank.
Saltwater crocodiles are also known as estuarine crocodiles, as they (1)_____________ to live in mangrove-
lined rivers. They’re the (2)_________________ living reptile, reaching up to seven metres in length: far
larger than Indonesia’s famous Komodo dragon, which tops out at three metres.
(3)______________________, crocodiles lived throughout the Indonesian archipelago. We have
(4)_________________ of attacks on humans in Bali from the early 20th century and across much of Java until the
1950s. Even Indonesia’s capital, Jakarta, had crocodile’s (5)____________________in many rivers running
through the city.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 5.
Ans 1. relevance

2. residence

3. remembrance

4. resistance
Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 28/10/2024
Exam
4:00 PM - 5:30 PM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 The given table shows the number of students studying Computer Science Engineering and Data Structures from six
colleges.Study the table to answer the question that follows.

What percentage of the students in college A5 study Data Structures out of the students studying CSE and DS?
Ans 1. 42%

2. 52%

3. 46%

4. 54%

Q.2 In an election between two candidates, one person got 35% of the votes and lost by 6 votes. Assuming that there were no
invalid votes, what was the total number of votes?
Ans 1. 50

2. 30

3. 18

4. 20

Q.3 A chair was sold for ₹8,601 after giving two successive discounts of 8.5% and 6%. Find the marked price.
Ans 1. ₹9,848

2. ₹10,000

3. ₹9,000

4. ₹9,612

Q.4 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹3500 as a sum borrowed at 4% per year rate of interest for 3 years.
Ans 1. 360

2. 460

3. 380

4. 420
Q.5 Sunita borrows ₹5,500 for 3 years at 6.5% per annum simple interest. She immediately lends it to Vedanshi at 9.3% per
annum simple interest for 3 years. Find her gain (in ₹) in the transaction per year.
Ans 1. 154

2. 149

3. 157

4. 161

Q.6 In a ration shop, there is a certain amount of cereals to distribute to 42 families for 15 days. If 48 kg of cereals can be
distributed to 30 families for 7 days, then the quantity of cereals already in the shop was:
Ans 1. 96 kg

2. 112 kg

3. 144 kg

4. 84 kg

Q.7 In a circular race of 1100 m, P and Q start from the same point, at the same time and at speeds of 36 km/h and 63 km/h,
respectively. When will they meet again for the first time on the track if they are running in the opposite direction?
Ans 1. 40 s

2. 10 s

3. 20 s

4. 27 s

Q.8 The average weight of a family of five members (in kg) whose weights are 40 kg, 49 kg, 56 kg, 72 kg and 35 kg is:
Ans 1. 51.4

2. 50.4

3. 52.4

4. 49.4

Q.9 How much water should be added to a 30 l mixture of milk and water, which currently has a ratio of 7 : 3, so that the
resultant mixture contains 40% water?
Ans 1. 6 l

2. 3 l

3. 4.25 l

4. 5 l

Q.10 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹3500 as a sum borrowed at 7% per year rate of interest for 5 years.
Ans 1. 1165

2. 1265

3. 1225

4. 1185

Q.11 Reeta buys 90 kg potatoes and sells them at a profit equal to the cost price of 40 kg potatoes.
Find her profit percentage.
Ans
1.

4.
Q.12 By selling an article for ₹19.5, a dealer makes a profit of 30%. By how much should he increase his selling price (in ₹) so as
to make a profit of 35%?
Ans 1. 0.75

2. 1.75

3. 2.75

4. 3.75

Q.13 The average weight of a family of five members (in kg) whose weights are 40 kg, 49 kg, 56 kg, 68 kg and 39 kg is:
Ans 1. 51.4

2. 52.4

3. 49.4

4. 50.4

Q.14 The LCM of 3,4 and 5 is:

Ans 1. 20

2. 60

3. 30

4. 48

Q.15 The bar graph shows the number of books published by a company in different years. In which year(s) the number of books
published is more than the average number of books published in the mentioned years?

Ans 1. Only 2020

2. 2014, 2016, 2018 and 2020

3. 2016, 2018 and 2020

4. 2018 and 2020

Q.16 The mean of five numbers is 55. If one of the numbers is excluded, the mean gets reduced by 5. Which of the following is the
excluded number?
Ans 1. 55

2. 65

3. 75

4. 50

Q.17 If the total surface area of a hemisphere is 192π cm2, then the radius of the base of the hemisphere is:
Ans 1. 64 cm

2. 8 cm

3. 16 cm

4. 4 cm
Q.18

Ans 1. 92.4

2. 616

3. 4106.6

4. 95.2

Q.19 A cylindrical glass with a diameter of 20 cm is having the juice to a height of 9 cm. An ice cube of size 8 cm is amerced in it
completely. How much will the juice level rise in the glass? (Use π = 3.142 and answer correctly up to the nearest mm)
Ans 1. 63 mm

2. 17 mm

3. 16 mm

4. 163 mm

Q.20 A motor car starts with a speed of 60 km/h and increases its speed after every two hours by 15 km/h. In how much time will
it cover a distance of 450 km?
Ans 1. 5 hours

2. 9 hours

3. 6 hours

4. 2 hours

Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1 Select the option figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the figure given below to complete the pattern.

Ans

4.
Q.2 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are
interchanged?
62 − 36 + 18 ÷ 6 × 3 = ?
Ans 1. 27

2. 17

3. 62

4. 107

Q.3 In a certain code language, ‘VOLT’ is coded as ‘5731’ and ‘LEAD’ is coded as ‘4186’.
What is the code for ‘L’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 8

2. 3

3. 4

4. 1

Q.4 Seven friends - Asha, Sreeja, Mamata, Ramya, Hema, Jaya, and Mohini - are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre
(but not necessarily in the same order). Ramya is sitting fourth to the right of Asha. Mamata sits third to the left of Ramya.
Jaya has Sreeja and Mamata as immediate neighbours. Hema is sitting to the immediate right of Ramya.
Who is sitting second to the left of Mohini?
Ans 1. Hema

2. Sreeja

3. Asha

4. Ramya

Q.5 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the English alphabetical order?
RJX, PNV, NRT, LVR ,?
Ans 1. JZQ

2. KAP

3. JZP

4. KZP

Q.6 What will come in the place of ‘?’ in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘–‘ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?
110 + 54 × 9 − 13 ÷ 2 = ?
Ans 1. 130

2. 144

3. 114

4. 136

Q.7 Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.
9, 45, 225, 1125, 5625, ?
Ans 1. 4679

2. 2799

3. 7689

4. 28125

Q.8 ead the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
R
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
All Excels are Words.
All Words are PowerPoints.

Conclusions:
(I) All PowerPoints are Excels.
(II) At least some Words are Excels.
Ans 1. Only conclusion II follows

2. Both conclusion I and II follow

3. Neither conclusion I nor II follows

4. Only conclusion I follows

Q.9 In a code language, 'PRETTY' is written as 'BIVGGK' and 'JOYFUL' is written as 'OLBUFQ'. How will 'EXOTIC' be written in
the same language?
Ans 1. XBLGRV

2. SCLGRV

3. SBLGRV

4. XCLGRV

Q.10 Identify the figure given in the options that when put in place of the question mark (?) will logically complete the series?

Ans

Q.11 35 is related to 105 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 51 is related to 153. To which of the following is 72
related, following the same logic?

(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding / subtracting / multiplying, etc., to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13
into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans 1. 210

2. 212

3. 214

4. 216
Q.12 Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series and complete
the pattern.

Ans

Q.13

Ans 1.

Q.14 In a certain code language, ‘LINK’ is coded as ‘4175’ and ‘NICK’ is coded as ‘7419’. What is the code for ‘C’ in the given
language?
Ans 1. 7

2. 1

3. 4

4. 9
Q.15 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the
statement(s).

Statements:
All bats are mammals.
No mammal is a fish.

Conclusions:
(I) No bat is a fish.
(II) Some fishes are mammals.
Ans 1. Only conclusion (I) follows.

2. Only conclusion (II) follows.

3. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

4. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

Q.16 EJIA is related to FKJB in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, ZDCU is related to AEDV.
To which of the following is OTSK related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. LTPU

2. PULT

3. PUTL

4. PTLU

Q.17 D, E, F, L, R, S and T are sitting around a circular table facing the centre(but not necessarily in the same order). R sits
second to the right of D. L sits to the immediate left of D. T sits third to the left of L. F sits third to the left of S. Neither E nor
S is an immediate neighbour of R. What is the position of S with respect to R?
Ans 1. Fourth to the left

2. Third to the right

3. Fifth to the right

4. Second to the right

Q.18 In the following number-pairs, the second number is obtained by applying certain mathematical operations to the
first number. Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following
sets.

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their
constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying to 13 can be performed.
Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
25, 77
28, 86
Ans 1. 34, 104

2. 35, 103

3. 35, 104

4. 34, 103

Q.19 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans
1.

4.
Q.20 MIPL is related to OKRN in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, PLSO is related to
RNUQ. To which of the following is HDKG related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. FJMI

2. JFIM

3. FJIM

4. JFMI

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 The official journey of 'Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav' commenced on:

Ans 1. 15th August 2022

2. 14th April 2021

3. 12th March 2021

4. 14th August 2022

Q.2 Rank the following states in ascending order, based on their population density, as per Census 2011.

Tripura, Meghalaya, Manipur, Nagaland

Ans 1. Meghalaya-Tripura-Nagaland-Manipur

2. Nagaland-Manipur-Meghalaya-Tripura

3. Meghalaya-Tripura-Manipur-Nagaland

4. Nagaland-Tripura-Manipur-Meghalaya

Q.3 In which of the following states can the 'Loo' phenomenon be observed?
Ans 1. Rajasthan

2. Goa

3. Tamil Nadu

4. Manipur

Q.4 Who is literate according to the Census of India?

Ans 1. A person above 14 years of age, who can read and write with understanding in any language.

2. A person above 5 years of age, who can read and write with understanding in any language.

3. A person above 7 years of age, who can read and write with understanding in any language.

4. A person above 18 years of age, who can read and write with understanding in any language.

Q.5 Which of the following awards and recognitions was NOT received by Vempati Chinna Satyam?
Ans 1. Kalidas Samman

2. Honorary doctorate

3. Sangeet Natak Akadami Award

4. Padma Shri

Q.6 The East India Company lost all its administrative powers with the enforcement of ___________.
Ans 1. The Regulating Act, 1773

2. The Charter Act of 1853

3. The Government of India Act, 1858

4. The Indian Councils Act, 1892

Q.7 A three-time Olympian, PT Usha broke the Asian Games record in four events (200 m, 400 m, 400 m hurdles and 4 × 400 m
relay) in ____________.
Ans 1. New Delhi, 1982

2. Beijing, 1990

3. Seoul, 1986

4. Hiroshima, 1994
Q.8 In which state of India is the Telaiya dam located?
Ans 1. Bihar

2. Jharkhand

3. Madhya Pradesh

4. Karnataka

Q.9 Which of the following is NOT a feature of the contingency fund of India?
Ans 1. It is established under Article 267.

2. It is issued on behalf of the President of India.

3. It is for emergencies.

4. Allowances and emoluments of the President are charged under it.

Q.10 The autobiography of which of the following famous Indian musicians is titled ‘My Life, My Music’?
Ans 1. Shivkumar Sharma

2. Zakir Hussain

3. Bismillah Khan

4. Ravi Shankar

Q.11 As of February 2023, who is the Union Minister of Road Transport and Highways?
Ans 1. Dharmendra Pradhan

2. Mansukh Mandaviya

3. Nitin Gadkari

4. Ashwini Vaishnav

Q.12 Who does NOT fall under the executive of the Indian Union?
Ans 1. Council of Ministers

2. President

3. Chief Justice of India

4. Prime Minister

Q.13 Which of the following dances is performed in Goa during the festival Ganesh Chaturthi?
Ans 1. Tarangmel

2. Dhalo

3. Fugdi

4. Dhangar

Q
.
1
4
A 1. Frequency of ꞵ-rays emitted
n
s
2. F
requency of X-rays emitted

3. Frequency of γ-rays emitted

4. Frequency of α-rays emitted

Q.15 At which Olympic games did India receive its first Olympic medal in a shooting event?
Ans 1. London 2012

2. Beijing 2008

3. Athens 2004

4. Tokyo 2022
Q.16 When a river reaches a low lying plain, it continues erosion of soil as well as deposition and as a result of both these factors
another river channel develops and later it is detached from the main river forming a U-shaped lake; this is called:
Ans 1. a canal

2. an estuary

3. a gulf

4. an oxbow lake

Q.17 Fa-Hsien, a Chinese Buddhist Pilgrim, began his journey back home (China) from ________.
Ans 1. Bengal

2. Prayag

3. Taxila

4. Arikamedu

Q.18 When was the first-round table Conference started by the British Government in London?
Ans 1. November 1932

2. December 1931

3. November 1930

4. December 1929

Q.19 Which of the following is the role of fibre in the diet?

Ans 1. Promoting digestion and bowel regularity

2. Regulating body temperature

3. Enhancing taste of food

4. Providing quick energy

Q.20 Lalita J Rao is associated with which of the following gharanas?

Ans 1. Kirana gharana

2. Jaipur gharana

3. Agra gharana

4. Benaras gharana

Q.21 Which of the following is a unitary feature of the Indian Constitution?

Ans 1. Division of Powers

2. single citizenship

3. Written Constitution

4. Bicameralism

Q.22 'Rajatarangini', a vivid account of the kings of Kashmir, was composed by Kalhana in the ______ language.
Ans 1. Arabic

2. Urdu

3. Sanskrit

4. Persian

Q.23 Which of the following options correctly matches column-A with column-B?

Ans 1. i-c, ii-a, iii-b, iv-d

2. i-c, ii-d, iii-b, iv-a

3. i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b

4. i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a

Q.24 Sultan Ghari tomb is situated to west of the Qutub in Delhi is like a fortress within a walled enclosure with bastions on the
comers, with its ____________ grave chamber underground.
Ans 1. squarish

2. pentagonal

3. rectangular

4. octagonal

Q.25 'The Climate Smart Cities Assessment Framework 2.0' is to evaluate how many cities across India?
Ans 1. 120

2. 32

3. 70

4. 100

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 Select the sentence that has a grammatical error.

Ans 1.
Alka bought new pair of shoes for the party.

2.
He was an honest engineer by profession.
3. Suhas has a younger brother and an elder sister.

4.
It was a huge zoo with an elephant enclosure.

Q.2 Select the correct idiom to substitute the underlined segment in the following sentence.
His remarks made the matter worse.
Ans 1. Added fuel to the fire

2. Spilled the beans

3. Made a splash

4. Killed two birds with one stone

Q.3 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

The athletes / trained tirelessness / to prepare for / the upcoming competition.

Ans 1. to prepare for

2. trained tirelessness

3. The athletes

4. the upcoming competition

Q.4 Select the option that rectifies the INCORRECT spelling in the given sentence.
Pleasee allow me to start.
Ans 1. Pleeasse

2. Pleesse

3. Please

4. Pleasse

Q.5 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The storm caused extensive damage to homes, ___________ many families homeless.
Ans 1. to leave

2. leave

3. is left

4. leaving
Q.6 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

He is / an expert / in / an English literature.

Ans 1. He is

2. in

3. an English literature

4. an expert

Q.7 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Grease someone's palm

Ans 1. To flatter someone

2. To beat someone

3. To abuse someone

4. To bribe someone

Q.8 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.
The elusive moon peeked from behind the clouds, illuminating the earth with its gentle glow.
Ans 1. glowing up the earth for

2. empowering the earth via

3. lighting up the earth with

4. encouraging the earth with

Q.9 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans 1. Admittance

2. Admissible

3. Admission

4. Admited

Q.10 Select the correct spelling of the incorrectly spelt word in the given sentence.

He was suspended from the party due to his suspiscious activities.

Ans 1. Suspicius

2. Suspitious

3. Suspeceous

4. Suspicious

Q.11 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Ambrosial
Ans 1. Faithful

2. Pleasing

3. Vengeful

4. Malodorous

Q.12 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Frugal
Ans 1. Cheap

2. Profligate

3. Thrifty

4. Happy
Q.13 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined phrase.

Those who have died cannot be brought back to life.

Ans 1. Resurrect

2. Retract

3. Abstract

4. Extract

Q.14 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Hermetic
Ans 1. Intelligible

2. Obnoxious

3. Lucid

4. Esoteric

Q.15 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word.

she had garnered the information from various books.

Ans 1. Criticised

2. Implemented

3. Dispersed

4. Liberated

Q.16 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical/spelling error.

He was lying at / his bed when he / saw the snake entering / through the window.
Ans 1. through the window

2. his bed when he

3. He way lying at

4. saw the snake entering

Q.17 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

She is learning / to play the guitar / to pursue her passion / for the music.
Ans 1. for the music.

2. to play the guitar

3. to pursue her passion

4. She is learning

Q.18 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

A raven, which you know is black as coal, was envious of the swan, because her feathers are as white as the purest snow.
Ans 1. feathers is a white as

2. feathers were as white as

3. feathers is as white as

4. feathers was a white as

Q.19 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Vivid
Ans 1. Varied

2. Soothing

3. Bright

4. Dull
Q.20 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.
Do you know the purpose of a fire extinguisher? It helps to put up with an engulfing fire, in case of an emergency.
Ans 1. run away with

2. turn over

3. stand out

4. put out

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
Khashaba Jadhav was the independent India's first individual olympic medallist. There (1) _________ some firsts that stay in history
forever. The one held by Khashaba Jadhav is one such first. He might have been referred to as the Pocket Dynamo, but his deeds
dwarfed those of far (2) _________ athletes in his sport. Just a couple of years after India had become a Republic, Jadhav took part in
the 1952 Olympics at Helsinki, Finland. As funding sportspersons weren't really a (3) _________ for a country just finding its feet,
Jadhav’s trip to Helsinki was actually funded by the public. Jadhav however, (4) _________ his way to fame, becoming independent
India's first individual Olympic medal winner. He (5) _________ bronze in the bantamweight category.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank 1.]
Ans 1. is

2. was

3. were

4. are

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank 2.]
Ans 1. smaller

2. big

3. small

4. bigger

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank 3.]
Ans 1. priority

2. posteriority

3. supremacy

4. subsequence
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
Khashaba Jadhav was the independent India's first individual olympic medallist. There (1) _________ some firsts that stay in history
forever. The one held by Khashaba Jadhav is one such first. He might have been referred to as the Pocket Dynamo, but his deeds
dwarfed those of far (2) _________ athletes in his sport. Just a couple of years after India had become a Republic, Jadhav took part in
the 1952 Olympics at Helsinki, Finland. As funding sportspersons weren't really a (3) _________ for a country just finding its feet,
Jadhav’s trip to Helsinki was actually funded by the public. Jadhav however, (4) _________ his way to fame, becoming independent
India's first individual Olympic medal winner. He (5) _________ bronze in the bantamweight category.

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank 4.]
Ans 1. buckled-under

2. wrestled

3. Lazed

4. Surrendered

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank 5.]
Ans 1. lulled

2. constructed

3. claimed

4. forgave
Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 29/10/2024
Exam
9:00 AM - 11:00 AM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 P and Q walk along a circular track in opposite directions. P completes two rounds of the track in 1 minute and Q completes
three rounds of the track in the same time. They start from the same point and walk for 2 minutes. How many times will they
meet on the track between start time and end time?
Ans 1. 8

2. 10

3. 11

4. 9

Q.2 A container has 72 litre of pure milk. One–third of the milk is replaced by water in the container. Again, one–third of the
mixture is extracted and an equal amount of water is added. What is the ratio of milk to water in the new mixture?
Ans 1. 3 : 4

2. 1 : 2

3. 4 : 5

4. 2 : 3

Q.3 The simple interest on a certain sum at the rate of 12.5% p.a. for 3 years and 6 months is ₹6,750 less than the principal. Find
out the principal.
Ans 1. ₹10,000

2. ₹12,000

3. ₹12,350

4. ₹10,650

Q.4 A car travels at a uniform speed of 45 km/h for 210 km and then travels for 420 km at a uniform speed of 70 km/h. What is the
average speed of the car during the entire journey?
Ans
1.

Q.5 The sum of two natural numbers is 80 and their HCF is 10. How many such pairs of numbers are possible?
Ans 1. 2

2. 3

3. 8

4. 7
Q.6 The following bar graph shows the failure rates per thousand for different electric components:

Failure rate of Printed circuit board is what percentage of Capacitors?

Ans 1. 165%

2. 154%

3. 65%

4. 61%

Q.7 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹2000 as a sum borrowed at 7% per year rate of interest for 5 years.
Ans 1. 660

2. 740

3. 640

4. 700

Q.8 Find the curved surface area and total surface area, respectively, of a cylinder of radius of base 28 m and height 40 m.
Ans 1. 7040 m2 and 11,768 m2

2. 7040 m2 and 11,008 m2

3. 7000 m2 and 11,968 m2

4. 7040 m2 and 11,968 m2

Q.9 A metallic cone of radius 12 cm and height 36 cm is melted and made into spheres of radius 3 cm each. How many spheres
are there?
Ans 1. 74

2. 34

3. 58

4. 48

Q.10 At a health club, 56% of the members are women and 44% of the members are men. If the average age
of the men is 35 years and the average age of the women is 30 years, what is the average age (in years) of
all the members?
Ans 1. 33.5

2. 34.9

3. 32.8

4. 32.2

Q.11 Find the average of all the numbers between 21 and 70 which are divisible by 3 and leave the remainder 2.
Ans 1. 55.4

2. 45.5

3. 65.5

4. 55.6

Q.12 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹3500 as a sum borrowed at 6% per year rate of interest for 2 years.
Ans 1. 420

2. 380

3. 460

4. 360
Q.13

Ans 1. 1230 m2

2. 1232 m2

3. 1233 m2

4. 1231 m2

Q.14 Anirudh bought an old mobile for ₹18,000 and spent 5% of the cost price on its repairing and then sold it for ₹21,735. Find
the profit percentage earned by Anirudh.
Ans
1.

Q.15 The average weight of a family of five members (in kg) whose weights are 40 kg, 49 kg, 56 kg, 70 kg and 38 kg is:
Ans 1. 49.6

2. 50.6

3. 51.6

4. 52.6

Q.16 The average weight of a family of five members (in kg) whose weights are 40 kg, 49 kg, 56 kg, 70 kg and 36 kg is:
Ans 1. 52.2

2. 50.2

3. 49.2

4. 51.2

Q.17

Ans 1. 30

2. 25

3. 40

4. 35

Q
.
1
8
A 1. 8%
n
s
2. 9%

3. 4%

4. 6%
Q.19 Ankur sells a box to Sunita earning a profit of 20%. Sunita sold it to Mohit with a 9% profit. Mohit sold it to Anjali for ₹24,525
thereby gaining 25%. At what price (in ₹) did Ankur buy the box?
Ans 1. 20000

2. 17000

3. 15000

4. 12000

Q.20 The price of a pencil is increased by ₹2 this year and ₹2 in the previous year. The price of a pencil is now 30% more than the
price in the previous to the previous year. How much is the price of the pencil now in ₹?
Ans 1. 14.33

2. 17.33

3. 15.33

4. 13.33

Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1 OGMI is related to LDJF in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, SKQM is related to PHNJ.
To which of the following is VNTP related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. SKQM

2. KSMQ

3. SKMQ

4. KSQM

Q.2

Ans

Q.3 4 is related to 15 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 15 is related to 48. To which of the following is 7 related
following the same logic?(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the
numbersinto its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13can be
performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1and 3 is not allowed)
Ans 1. 21

2. 23

3. 24

4. 28
Q.4 Select the option figure in which the given figure (X) is embedded as its part (rotation is NOT allowed).

Ans

Q.5 In the following number-pairs, the second number is obtained by applying certain mathematical operations to the first
number. Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/ subtracting /multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
23, 230
46, 460
Ans 1. 24, 120

2. 52, 520

3. 84, 410

4. 35, 620

Q.6 Which two numbers should be interchanged to make the given equation correct?
92 + 36 – 28 + (42 ÷ 3) – (22 × 4) = 10
(Note: Interchange should be done of entire number and not individual digits of a given number)
Ans 1. 42 and 36

2. 3 and 4

3. 36 and 28

4. 22 and 28

Q.7 A, B, C, D, E, F, and G, are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order). Only 2
people sit between A and B when counted from the left of A. Both G and F are immediate neighbours of A. C sits immediate
to the left of E. Only 2 people sit between D and G when counted from the right of D. How many people sit between E and F
when counted from the left of F?
Ans 1. 3

2. 2

3. 4

4. 1

Q.8 OD 11 is related to KH 15 in a certain way. In the same way, ID 5 is related to EH 9. To which of the following is LK 3 related,
following the same logic?
Ans 1. HO 7

2. HO −3

3. HO 3

4. HP 7
Q.9 In a certain code language, 'BEST' is coded as '9715' and 'CLUB' is coded as '8762'.
What is the code for 'B' in the given code language?
Ans 1. 9

2. 7

3. 2

4. 6

Q.10 Seven people A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same
order). E is sitting fourth to the left of F. A is sitting third to the left of E. G is sitting third to the right of D. C is sitting to the
immediate left of D. B is sitting second to the left of F.
What is the position of F with respect to A?
Ans 1. To the immediate left

2. Fourth to the right

3. To the immediate right

4. Second to the left

Q.11 In a certain code language, ‘TIME’ is written as ‘3629’ and ‘BEND’ is written as ‘4582’. How is ‘E’ written in that code
language?
Ans 1. 2

2. 4

3. 9

4. 5

Q.12 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans
1.

Q.13 In a certain code language, ‘GOLF’ is coded as ‘1286’ and ‘WOLF’ is coded as ‘6428’. What is the code for ‘W’ in that
language?
Ans 1. 8

2. 2

3. 4

4. 6

Statements:
All pens are razors.
All razors are creams.

Conclusions:
(I) All pens are creams.
(II) All creams are razors.
Ans 1. Only conclusion I follows

2. Only conclusion II follows

3. Neither conclusion I nor II follows

4. Both conclusion I and II follow

Q.15

Ans 1.

Q.16 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

42, 48, 54, 60, 66, ?

Ans 1. 72

2. 71

3. 73

4. 70

Q.17 Which two signs should be interchanged to make the given equation correct?
39 ÷ 3 − 11 + 45 × 17 = 171
Ans 1. − and ×

2. ÷ and ×

3. + and ×

4. − and +

Q.18 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?
DHC, GKF, JNI, MQL, ?
Ans 1. QVQ

2. PUP

3. PTO

4. QTO

Q.19 Select the figure from the given options that when put in place of the question mark (?) will logically complete the series.

Ans

4.
Q.20 Read the given statement(s) and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even
if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statement(s).

Statements:
Some gums are candies.
No candy is a ball.

Conclusions:
(I) Atleast some candies are gums.
(II) No ball is a gum.
Ans 1. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

2. Only conclusion (II) follows.

3. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

4. Only conclusion (I) follows.

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 Padma awardee Arjun Singh Dhurve is related to which of the following folk dances?
Ans 1. Chhau

2. Garba

3. Baiga

4. Raslila

Q.2 Which book has been authored by Rabindra Bharali?

Ans 1. The Music Room

2. Indie 101

3. Music to my Ears

4. The Forgotten Forms of Hindustani Music

Q.3 The element with atomic number 59 lies in which block of the Periodic Table?
Ans 1. The p-block

2. The d-block

3. The f-block

4. The s-block

Q.4 In 1927, where was the conference against colonial oppression and imperialism, in which Jawaharlal Nehru participated on
behalf of Indian National Congress, held?
Ans 1. Leuven

2. Bruges

3. Brussels

4. Antwerp

Q.5 Who among the following personalities from the Carnatic Music correctly represent the ‘Trinity of Carnatic Music'?
Ans 1. Manambuchavadi Venkatasubbayyar, Tyagaraja and Muthuswami Dikshitar

2. MS Subbalakshmi, DK Pattammal and ML Vasanthakumari

3. Purandardas, Annamacharya and Tyagaraja

4. Tyagaraja, Muthuswami Dikshitar and Syama Sastri

Q.6 Which bonding material was mainly used to join the stones or bricks of 'The Great Bath' of the Harappan Civilisation?
Ans 1. Mud Mortar

2. Gypsum Mortar

3. Gauged Mortar

4. Lime Mortar

Q.7 According to the Census of India 2011, what was the total population of India?
Ans 1. 1.41 billion

2. 98.6 billion

3. 1.11 billion

4. 1.21 billion
Q.8 Magnolia and Laurel trees are found in which type of forest in India?
Ans 1. Tropical Deciduous Forests

2. Mangrove Forests

3. Tropical Thorn Forests

4. Montane Forests

Q.9 Which of the following awards is NOT conferred for excellence in dance?
Ans 1. Kalidas Samman Award

2. Padma Shree Award

3. Lalit Kala Akademi Award

4. Sangeet Natak Akademi Award

Q.10 Which reform was initiated by Lord Ripon for the welfare of labourers?
Ans 1. The Vernacular Press Act

2. The Financial Decentralisation

3. The Factory Act

4. The Educational Reforms

Q.11 Which of the following is NOT a Fundamental Duty mentioned in the Indian constitution?
Ans 1. To obey parents and discharge our family responsibilities

2. To cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle for freedom

3. To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag, National Anthem

4. To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India

Q.12 Who became the first Indian woman to be inducted into the ICC Hall of Fame?
Ans 1. Jhulan Goswami

2. Mithali Raj

3. Diana Edulji

4. Purnima Rau

Q.13 Andal was one of the most famous women ___________ saints.
Ans 1. Tantric

2. Alvar

3. Nayanar

4. Sufi

Q.14 How many gold medals did Maharashtra win to top the medal tally at the 37th National Games event held in Goa?
Ans 1. 69

2. 79

3. 72

4. 80

Q.15 Revenue account includes items related to the _______.

Ans 1. next financial year

2. all of the given options

3. current financial year

4. previous financial year

Q.16 The Ashokan inscriptions of Afghanistan are written in Aramaic and ________ scripts.
Ans 1. Ol Chiki

2. Greek

3. Devanagari

4. Sharda

Q.17 Duare Ration Scheme, which has been deemed legally void by the high court, was launched by which of the following
states?
Ans 1. Uttar Pradesh

2. Punjab

3. West Bengal

4. Madhya Pradesh
Q.18 The original non-metamorphic rock that undergoes profound physical or chemical changes leading to the formation of a
metamorphic rock is known as:
Ans 1. Protolith

2. Bedrock

3. Laterite

4. Regolith

Q.19 Which of the following are the amounts of nutrients in a keto diet?
Ans 1. High carbohydrate, proper amount of protein and low fat

2. High amount of fat, adequate protein and low carbohydrate

3. High protein and fat, carbohydrates in a low amount

4. Only taking high number of vitamins and minerals

Q.20 Which of the following is NOT a cropping season in India?

Ans 1. Kharif

2. Zaid

3. Fang

4. Rabi

Q.21 As per Census of India 2011, which of the following states has the highest child sex ratio (in the age group of 0-6 years)?
Ans 1. Kerala

2. Rajasthan

3. Chhattisgarh

4. Mizoram

Q.22 The ‘Rath Yatra’ festival of Puri is celebrated as the sacred journey of which of the following Hindu deities?
Ans 1. Lord Rama

2. Lord Brahma

3. Lord Shiva

4. Lord Jagannath

Q.23 Who is the chairman of the State Planning Board?

Ans 1. Speaker

2. Advocate General

3. Chief Minister

4. Governor

Q.24 In January 2023, who was sworn in as the Chief Minister of Bihar for the ninth time?
Ans 1. Nitish Kumar

2. Lalu Yadav

3. Tejaswi Yadav

4. Sushil Modi

Q.25 Which of the following options correctly matches column-A with column-B?
Column-A (Name of Vitamin) Column-B (Deficiency Diseases)
i. Vitamin A a. Scurvy
ii. Vitamin D b. Beriberi
iii. Vitamin B1 c. Rickets
iv. Vitamin C d. Night Blindness
Ans 1. i-d, ii-c, iii-a, iv-b

2. i-c, ii-d, iii-b, iv-a

3. i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a

4. i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Evasive
Ans 1. Truthful

2. Elusive

3. Obscure

4. Chaotic

Q.2 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in simple future tense form.

I loved.
Ans 1. I had loved.

2. I will love.

3. I shall be loving.

4. I love.

Q.3 Select the most appropriate synonym of the word 'isolated' from the given sentence.

A Greek mythological story says that Echo was the most beautiful nymph who lived in the lovely and lonely mountains of
Greece and is believed to be garrulous too.
Ans 1. Garrulous

2. Lonely

3. Lovely

4. Beautiful

Q.4 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

“It’s really __________ to incorporate changes at the last minute,” she said.
Ans 1. difficulties

2. difficulty

3. difficult

4. most difficult

Q.5 In the following sentence the underlined part contains as error. Alternatives to the underlined part are given as options.
Select the correct alternative.
The speech you made today was sillier and irrelevant.
Ans 1. silly

2. silliest

3. most silly

4. more silly

Q.6 The given sentence is divided into three segments. Select the option that has the segment with a grammatical error. If there
is no error, select ‘No error’.
She learnt / how to play a piano / when she was in Class 6th.
Ans 1. She learnt

2. No error

3. how to play a piano

4. when she was in Class 6th.

Q.7 Select the option that rectifies the spelling of the underlined word in the given sentence.

She always wears a bizzare combination of clothes.

Ans 1. Bizzar

2. Bizarre

3. Bizare

4. Bizaar
Q.8 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.
Ans 1.
Cuorse
2.
Necessary
3.
Consider
4.
Personal

Q.9 Select the most appropriate idiom to fill in the blank.

Despite the setbacks, the team decided to persevere and keep working on the project, believing it could be a _______ for
their company.
Ans 1. game-changer

2. beat around the bush

3. needle in a haystack

4. wild goose chase

Q.10 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM for the given word.

Merciful
Ans 1. Mild

2. Cruel

3. Magical

4. Cunning

Q.11 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

An axe to grind
Ans 1. To make a supreme effort

2. Bitterly hostile

3. To have a selfish reason that influences the actions

4. To tackle a problem in a bold and direct fashion

Q.12 Select the correctly spelt word.

Ans 1. Recieve

2. Embarrassment

3. Ocassion

4. Acommodate

Q.13 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

It is worth noting that the possible from him being voted as the class monitor is next to zero.
Ans 1. possibly of him

2. possibility at him

3. possible of him

4. possibility of him

Q.14 Select the most appropriate idiom that can substitute the highlighted words in the given sentence.

His sudden departure left us in a difficult situation; it was like he suddenly took away important support from us.
Ans 1. hit the sack

2. pulled the rug out

3. hit the nail on the head

4. got his act together

Q.15 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

The act of transferring one's authority to another

Ans 1. Delegation

2. Mediary

3. Agency

4. Assignee
Q.16 Select the most appropriate adjective to fill in the blank.

The judge declared that the red car went ___________ than the blue car.
Ans 1. more far

2. far

3. farther

4. farthest

Q.17 The following sentence has been divided into four segments. One of them contains an error. Select the segment that
contains the error from the given options.
She has been speaking / to him on / the subject / many times.
Ans 1. many times

2. the subject

3. to him on

4. She has been speaking

Q.18 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to
substitute it, select ‘No substitution required’.

She showed this plant and talked about it’s medicinal properties.
Ans 1. their medical properties

2. it’s medical proprieties

3. it's medical properties

4. its medicinal properties

Q.19 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Diligent
Ans 1. Noisy

2. Positive

3. Industrious

4. Lazy

Q.20 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the word 'yelling' in the given sentence.

The shouting and exclaiming gestures of Smita led to the whispering regarding her behaviour, and everyone in the party
started monitoring her.
Ans 1. whispering

2. shouting

3. monitoring

4. exclaiming

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

In a small village, lived a milkmaid ______1______ sold the milk that she ____2_____ from her cows. She _____3_____ carry the
milk in a big mud pitcher. One day, as she was walking _____4_____ the big pitcher full of milk on her head, she started to imagine all
the things she wished to do with the money she would _____5______ from selling the milk.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans 1. whose

2. who

3. which

4. that
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans 1. drank

2. brought

3. bought

4. got

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans 1. should

2. will

3. can

4. would

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans 1. by

2. on

3. in

4. with

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans 1. earn

2. throw

3. dig

4. catch
Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 29/10/2024
Exam
12:30 PM - 2:30 PM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1

Ans 1. 217

2. 317

3. 287

4. 267

Q.2
In how many years will ₹4,000 invested at the rate of 18% per annum
simple interest amounts to ₹5,800?
Ans 1. 3.5

2. 2.5

3. 3

4. 2

Q.3 The lengths of two sides of a parallelogram are 6 cm and 20 cm. What is the sum of the squares of the diagonals of the
parallelogram (in cm2 )?
Ans 1. 872

2. 728

3. 800

4. 782

Q.4 By selling an article for ₹20, a dealer makes a profit of 10%. By how much should he increase his selling price (in ₹, rounded
off to two decimal place) so as to make a profit of 25%?
Ans 1. 5.73

2. 3.73

3. 4.73

4. 2.73
Q.5 The average of 11 consecutive numbers is 30. The smallest number among these is:
Ans 1. 12

2. 18

3. 25

4. 28

Q.6 Three cubes of sides 1 cm, 6 cm and 8 cm are melted to form a new cube. Find one-fourth of the surface area of the new
cube.
Ans 1. 131.5 cm2

2. 121.5 cm2

3. 101.5 cm2

4. 111.5 cm2

Q.7 The following bar graph shows the export and import of goods (in lakh numbers) of a company in consecutive years 2018 to
2022. What will be the growth percentage for imports from 2018 to 2021? (Rounded off to 2 decimal places)

Ans 1. 94.63%

2. 88.53%

3. 83.33%

4. 76.53%

Q.8 An item was sold for ₹40 with a profit of 15%. If it were sold for ₹36, then what would have been the percentage of profit or
loss? (rounded off to 1 decimal places).
Ans 1. Profit 4.7%

2. Loss 3.7%

3. Loss 4.5%

4. Profit 3.5%

Q.9 The average of 7 numbers is 10.8. If the average of the first three be 10.5 and that of the last three is 11.4, find the value of
the middle number.
Ans 1. 9.7

2. 9.5

3. 9.9

4. 9.8

Q.10 Express 29.5% as a ratio in the simplest form.

Ans 1.

4.
Q.11 If P is a prime number, then the LCM of P and its successive number would be:
Ans
1.

Q.12 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹4000 as a sum borrowed at 4% per year rate of interest for 2 years.
Ans 1. 280

2. 320

3. 360

4. 260

Q.13 If 5 + x, 2x + 7, 6x + 9 and y are in proportion when x = 2,then find the value of y.

Ans 1. 33

2. 45

3. 42

4. 28

Q.14 The marked price of an item is 50% more than its cost price. The shopkeeper offers two successive discounts of 10% and
15%. What is his profit percentage?
Ans 1. 15%

2. 14.75%

3. 12.75%

4. 15.75%

Q.15 The average of 10 observations is 46. It was realised later that an observation was misread as 42 in place of 142. Find the
correct average.
Ans 1. 65

2. 54

3. 56

4. 45

Q.16 Two trains of lengths 108 metre and 112 metre are running at speeds of 45 km/h and 54 km/h, respectively, towards each
other on parallel tracks. In how many seconds will they cross each other?
Ans 1. 12 seconds

2. 9 seconds

3. 8 seconds

4. 10 seconds

Q.17 On a circular race track of 2500 m, Sahil and Reena are running in the same direction at speeds of 27 km/h and 45 km/h,
respectively. After how much time will they meet each other for the first time?
Ans 1. 500 seconds

2. 450 seconds

3. 480 seconds

4. 530 seconds
Q.18 The average age of 6 children and their father is 13 years, and this average is reduced by 4 years if the father is excluded.
How old is the father?
Ans 1. 38 years

2. 42 years

3. 41 years

4. 37 years

Q.19 If the radius of a right circular cylinder is decreased by 40% and its height is increased by 75%, its volume will be decreased
by:
Ans 1. 65%

2. 35%

3. 37%

4. 57%

Q.20 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹4000 as a sum borrowed at 4% per year rate of interest for 4 years.
Ans 1. 580

2. 600

3. 680

4. 640

Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1 S, U, B, J, E, C and T are sitting around a circular table facing the center (but not necessarily in the same order). C is sitting
to the immediate right of T. U is an immediate neighbour of both T and E. Only one person is sitting between C and S when
counted from the right of C. B is sitting to the immediate left of E. Who are the immediate neighbours of J?
Ans 1. S and C

2. S and E

3. B and E

4. U and B
Q.2 Select the option figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the figure given below to complete the pattern.

Ans

Q.3 What will come in place of the question mark (?) of the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are
interchanged?

17 – 9 + 20 × 4 ÷ 5 = ?
Ans 1. 20

2. 1

3. 15

4. 26
Q.4 In a certain code language, ‘written on paper’ is written as ‘ma rc gp’ and ‘paper and pen’ is writtenas ‘hk ma bo’. How will
‘paper’ be writtenin that language?
Ans 1. gp

2. ma

3. bo

4. hk

Q.5 This question has two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to
be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions
logically follow(s) from the given statements.
Statements:
Some metres are litres.
No litre is a gram.
Conclusions
(I) Some grams are not metres
(II) All grams being metres is a possibility.
Ans 1. Only conclusion (I) follows

2. Only conclusion (II) follows

3. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow

4. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/ subtracting /multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
34, 24
85, 75
Ans 1. 42, 31

2. 54, 52

3. 36, 32

4. 66, 56

Q.7 In a certain code language, ‘ORANGE’ is written as ‘LIZMTV’ and ‘PURPLE’ is written as ‘KFIKOV’. What is the code for
‘MAGENTA’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. NZTVMHZ

2. NZSVMGZ

3. NZTVMGZ

4. NZTVNGZ

Q.8 In a certain code language, ‘rose are similar’ is written as ‘ki ko ku’ and ‘rose has thorns’ is coded as ‘ke ki ka’. How is ‘rose’
coded in that language?
Ans 1. ki

2. ko

3. ka

4. ku

Q.9 AS 9 is related to UU 2 in a certain way. In the same way, BT 6 is related to VV −1. To which of the following is HG 9 related,
following the same logic?
Ans 1. BI 2

2. BG −2

3. AJ 2

4. AI 2
Q.10 Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series and complete
the pattern.

Ans

Q.11 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series?
263, 268, 278, 293, 313, ?
Ans 1. 341

2. 339

3. 340

4. 338

Q.12 P, Q, R, S, T and U are six friends sitting around a circular table, facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order),
having their breakfast. U is sitting exactly between Q and S and is third to the right of T. R is sitting to the immediate left of
S. Who is the immediate neighbour of both P and R?
Ans 1. S

2. T

3. U

4. Q
Q.13 23 is related to 62 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 37 is related to 104. To which ofthe following is 19
related, following the same logic?(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbersinto its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13can be
performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1and 3 is not allowed)
Ans 1. 57

2. 50

3. 42

4. 38

Q.14 TOVR is related to UPWS in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, QLSO is related to
RMTP. To which of the following is NIPL related following the same logic?
Ans 1. OJQM

2. JOQM

3. JOMQ

4. OJMQ

Q.15

Ans

4.
Q.16 Read the given statement(s) and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even
if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statement(s).

Statements:
Some books are notes.
All notes are copies.

Conclusions:
(I) Some books are copies.
(II) No books is copies.
Ans 1. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

2. Only conclusion (I) follows.

3. Only conclusion (II) follows.

4. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

Q.17 Select the letter-cluster from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

BCD, FGH, JKL, NOP, ?

Ans 1. QRS

2. RQS

3. RST

4. QSR

Q.18 In a certain code language, ‘she can sing’ is written as ‘dq tk dp’ and ‘sing with me’ is writtenas ‘az dq js’. How is ‘sing’
writtenin the given language?
Ans 1. dp

2. tk

3. dq

4. az

Q.19 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans
1.

Q.20 What will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’
are interchanged?
39 + 3 ÷ 12 − 33 × 11 =?
Ans 1. 5

2. 6

3. 3

4. 4
Section : General Awareness

Q.1 Which of the following Parts of the Indian Constitution mentions about the relations between the Union and the States?
Ans 1. Part VIII

2. Part XI

3. Part X

4. Part VII

Q.2 By what name is the species of Scaphopoda Mollusca 'Dentalium' commonly known?
Ans 1. Duck mussel

2. Tusk shells

3. Heart clam

4. Head foot

Q.3 Stunted growth, which is common in children growing up in extreme poverty, is a sure sign of ____________.
Ans 1. Undernutrition

2. Lack of Clothing

3. Lack of Housing

4. Sleep Deprivation

Q.4 In November 2023, who was appointed as the Chief Information Commissioner of India?
Ans 1. Heeralal Samariya

2. Arvind Subramanian

3. Rajiv Gauba

4. Randeep Guleria

Q.5 Which of the following is NOT a service of micro finance institution?

Ans 1. Micro insurance

2. Micro loan

3. Micro saving

4. Micro deposit

Q.6 When did Bindusara ascend the Maurya throne?

Ans 1. 321 BCE

2. 299 BCE

3. 297 BCE

4. 301 BCE

Q.7 Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India provides for the promotion of international peace and security?
Ans 1. Article 47

2. Article 51

3. Article 44

4. Article 49

Q.8 Who among the following is the author of the autobiography 'Lone Fox Dancing: My Autobiography'?
Ans 1. Brij Mohan Kaul

2. Khushwant Singh

3. John Dalvi

4. Ruskin Bond
Q.9 Where of the following was Bal Gangadhar Tilak’s Home Rule Movement active?
Ans 1. Bihar

2. Maharashtra

3. Madras

4. Punjab

Q.10 In which of the following years did the battle of Plassey take place?
Ans 1. 1796

2. 1776

3. 1787

4. 1757

Q.11 According to Census of India 2011, which is the largest religious community in India?
Ans 1. Sikhs

2. Christians

3. Muslims

4. Hindus

Q.12 The ‘Mangla’ oil field is located in which district of Rajasthan?

Ans 1. Bharatpur

2. Barmer

3. Kota

4. Jaipur

Q.13 At which of the following places is the Lalbagh Flower Show organised, where thousands of flower varieties are put on
display in different forms with a particular theme (which changes every year) during the exhibition?
Ans 1. Bengaluru

2. Hyderabad

3. Patiala

4. Patna

Q.14 Women's Reservation Bill 2023 [The Constitution (One Hundred Twenty-Eighth Amendment) Bill, 2023] was introduced in
Lok Sabha on __________________.
Ans 1. 21 Sep 2023

2. 20 Sep 2023

3. 19 Sep 2023

4. 22 Sep 2023

Q.15 To which of the following classes of compounds does cyclohexane belong?

Ans 1. Benzenoid aromatic compound

2. Heterocyclic compound

3. Non-benzenoid aromatic compound

4. Alicyclic compound

Q.16 Vedantam Satyanarayana Sarma is associated with which of the following dances?
Ans 1. Kathakali

2. Mohiniyattam

3. Kuchipudi

4. Odissi
Q.17 Groundwater is an important source of water. The top level of the groundwater layer is called:
Ans 1. water table

2. underground water

3. sea level

4. well

Q.18 Sanchi stupa was rediscovered in the year ________ by General Henry Taylor.
Ans 1. 1819

2. 1818

3. 1816

4. 1817

Q.19 If the server manages to land a legal serve and the receiver is unable to return the ball, it is known as an ace and the server
gets the point. Which of the following sport is referred here?
Ans 1. Boxing

2. Tennis

3. Shooting

4. Wrestling

Q.20 Which Indian actress from the following, is also a popular dancer and received the Smita Patil Memorial award for her role in
the movie Damini?
Ans 1. Rekha

2. Jaya Prada

3. Meenakshi Seshadri

4. Madhuri Dixit

Q.21 In which of the following cities was the headquarters of Theosophical Society established in British India?
Ans 1. Ashok Nagar

2. Adyar

3. Alandur

4. Ayanavaram

Q.22 _________ was/were the mascot(s) of the Women’s Asian Hockey Champions Trophy in 2023.
Ans 1. Juhi

2. Blaze and Tonk

3. Yashi

4. Hansa

Q.23 Which of the following Union Territories of India marks the lowest poverty in National Multidimensional Poverty Index: A
Progress Review 2023?
Ans 1. Puducherry

2. Chandigarh

3. Delhi

4. Lakshdweep

Q.24 The Narora ________ Power Station is located in Uttar Pradesh.

Ans 1. Natural Gas

2. Thermal

3. Atomic

4. Wind
Q.25 Which Hindustani classical musician is credited with popularising the Sarangi as a solo classical instrument?
Ans 1. Pandit Ravi Shankar

2. Pandit Shiv Kumar Sharma

3. Pandit Jnan Prakash Ghosh

4. Pandit Ram Narayan

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
The dog / eager wagged / its tail when / it saw its owner.
Ans 1. The dog

2. it saw its owner

3. eager wagged

4. its tail when

Q.2 Select the correct idiom to substitute the underlined segment in the following sentence.
Roma was the dearest child of her parents.
Ans 1. At sixes and sevens with her parents

2. The apple of her parents’ eyes

3. The star of her parents’ eyes

4. The body and soul of her parents

Q.3 Select the appropriate option that can substitute the underlined word in the following sentence to make it grammatically
correct.

Meerut is farthest from Delhi.

Ans 1. far

2. most farthest

3. farther

4. more farther

Q.4 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
The soldiers / sacrifice their lives / to guarding / the nation and its boundaries.
Ans 1. sacrifice their lives

2. to guarding

3. the nation and its boundaries

4. The soldiers

Q.5 Select the correctly spelled sentence.

Ans 1. The librarian told the children to return their books by Friday.

2. The libraian told the childrean to return their books by Friday.

3. The librarian told the childern to return their books by Fryday.

4. The liberian told the childrean to return their boooks by Friday.

Q.6 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Majority of communication satelites are placed in geostationary orbits around the earth, which means that their speed
matches the rate of its rotation.
Ans 1. Satelites

2. Rotation

3. Geostationary

4. Communication
Q.7 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.
Meticulous
Ans 1. Negligent

2. Random

3. Careless

4. Precise

Q.8 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The sudden plot twist in the story added an element of __________ that kept readers on the edge of their seats.
Ans 1. monotony

2. ambiguity

3. redundancy

4. predictability

Q.9 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the word given in brackets to fill in the blank.
The ________(sarcastic) comments by her husband made her feel uncomfortable, and she decided to walk out of the
relationship.
Ans 1. ambiguous

2. gracious

3. ruinous

4. harmonious

Q.10 Change the following into superlative degree.

She is taller than other girls in the class.

Ans 1. She is the tallest girl in the class.

2. She is tall girl in the class.

3. No other girl in the class is as tall as she.

4. In the class she is taller than other girls.

Q.11 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given phrase.

Reading between the lines

Ans 1. Avoiding reading and engaging in gossips

2. Understanding a deeper or hidden meaning

3. Reading a book

4. Taking things literally

Q.12 Identify the most appropriate ANTONYM of the word in brackets.

The teacher commended the student for his (diligent) efforts.
Ans 1. Conscientious

2. Hardworking

3. Lazy

4. Industrious

Q.13 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given phrase.
One who is a newcomer
Ans 1. Narcissist

2. Polyglot

3. Nepotist

4. Neophyte
Q.14 Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word in the following sentence.
She is an epitome of grace.
Ans 1. Destroyer

2. Believer

3. Admirer

4. Example

Q.15 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

She had a ______ for creating beautiful artwork.

Ans 1. post

2. mode

3. talent

4. trigger

Q.16 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans 1. Eficcient

2. Tournament

3. Belligerent

4. Parliament

Q.17 Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. Select the option that contains an error.
The 100-year-old banyan was blown off in the storm last night.
Ans 1. in the storm

2. was blown off

3. The 100-year-old banyan

4. last night

Q.18 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical/spelling error.
According to Mr. Sharma / the news have come / as another blow / to the family members.
Ans 1. as another blow

2. to the family members

3. According to Mr. Sharma

4. the news have come

Q.19 Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word.

The speaker delivered an engaging speech that inspired the audience.

Ans 1. dreary

2. important

3. captivating

4. unnecessary

Q.20 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

The teacher called up the class due to the sudden snowstorm.

Ans 1. called on the class

2. called out the class

3. called in the class

4. called off the class

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

Despite her background role in the past, Ms Navalnaya has always been a crucial supporter of (1)....... husband and was instrumental
in getting him out of Russia for (2)....... treatment when he was poisoned with Novichok nerve agent in 2020. She has been (3)...........
as the 'First Lady' of the Russian opposition. And Alexei said himself that he could not continue his increasingly desperate and one-
sided fight against the Kremlin without her. Their very public love story and family life - they have two children - (4)......... seen as an
inspiration for their supporters. Yulia Ambrosimova was born in Moscow in 1976, daughter of the respected scientist Boris
Ambrosimov. As economics graduate, she had a career in banking but (5)........ her job to bring up their two children when Alexei rose
to prominence as an opposition politician.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans 1. their

2. them

3. hers

4. her

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans 1. urgent

2. slow

3. crazy

4. interesting

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans 1. detected

2. described

3. deleted

4. changed
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans 1. has been

2. will been

3. was being

4. is been

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans 1. gave up

2. brought about

3. broke down

4. keep back
Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 29/10/2024
Exam
4:00 PM - 5:30 PM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 The radii of the bases of two cylinders and their heights are in the ratio 4 : 3 and 9 : 8, respectively. Find the ratio of their
curved surface areas.
Ans 1. 4 : 5

2. 2 : 3

3. 5 : 6

4. 3 : 2

Q.2 What sum (in ₹) will earn a simple interest of ₹240 in 4 years at 16% per year rate of interest?
Ans 1. 500

2. 750

3. 800

4. 375

Q.3 By selling an article for ₹20, a dealer makes a profit of 10%. By how much should he increase his selling price (in ₹, rounded
off to two decimal place) so as to make a profit of 30%?
Ans 1. 3.64

2. 5.64

3. 6.64

4. 4.64

Q.4 The following bar graph represents the flow of funds of XYZ India Pvt. Ltd from 2015-2020. Calculate the percentage of
average rate (approx.) of the increase in funds from 2015-2017.

Ans 1. 30%

2. 16%

3. 15%

4. 32%

Q.5 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹2500 as a sum borrowed at 4% per year rate of interest for 2 years.
Ans 1. 160

2. 200

3. 140

4. 240

Q.6 A grocer wishes to sell a mixture of two varieties of rice worth ₹48 per kg. In what ratio must he mix the rice to reach this
selling price when the cost of one variety of rice is ₹42 per kg and the other is ₹60 per kg?
Ans 1. 3 : 2

2. 2 : 1

3. 2 : 3

4. 1 : 2

Q.7 The money invested by Gopal at simple interest amounts to ₹16,150 in 3 years and to ₹16,540 in 4 years. What was the
principal amount invested by him?
Ans 1. ₹14,980

2. ₹11,150

3. ₹16,150

4. ₹18,150
Q
.
8

A 1.
n
s
2.

Q
.
9
A 1. 12
n
s
2. 8

3. 10

4. 3

Q.10

Ans 1. 152

2. 91

3. 182

4. 137

Q.11 Arjun mixed three different oils to form a mixture costing ₹25 per litre. The ratio of the three varieties of oil was 1 : 5 : 2.
What is the cost (per litre in ₹) of the second variety if the cost per litre of the first and third varieties was ₹20 and ₹30,
respectively?
Ans 1. 26

2. 28

3. 24

4. 25

Q.12

Ans 1. 105

2. 1155

3. 1260

4. 360

Q.13 Refer to the following data table and answer the question. The maximum marks for each subject is 100.
Subjects Marks Scored
Math 83
Science 51
Hindi 68
English 62
Sanskrit 71

Seven marks are to be deducted from each subject because of poor attendance. What will be the net average marks scored
by the student?
Ans 1. 56

2. 67

3. 65

4. 60

Q.14 In the first 24 matches, a cricket player averages 60 runs. The overall average for all 32 matches is 80. Determine the
average for the last 8 matches.
Ans 1. 140

2. 130

3. 120

4. 110

Q.15 Two athletes X and Y are jogging on a circular path whose circumference is 500 m. Athlete X jogs at a speed of 18 km/h and
Y jog at 9 km/h, jogging in opposite directions. The time at which they will meet for the first time is:
Ans 1. 200 s

2. 27.77 s

3. 50 s

4. 66.66 s

Q.16 In a circular race of 1 km, two persons X and Y start with the speed of 9 km/h and 18 km/h, respectively, at the same time
from the same point. When will they meet for the first time at the starting point when running in the same direction?
Ans 1. 360 sec

2. 240 sec

3. 180 sec

4. 400 sec
Q.17 In a math exam, two students scored 95, six students scored 90, three students scored 80, and one student scored 50. What
was the average score of the class?
Ans 1. 96.25

2. 78.75

3. 82

4. 85

Q.18 A vendor bought candies at ₹5 each. At what price must he sell to make 20% profit?
Ans
1.

Q.19 The diameter of a hollow hemisphere is 30 cm. Water is filled in it up to its brim. When spherical lead shots each of radius
0.75 cm are dropped into the hemisphere, two-fifth of the water flows out. How many lead shots were dropped into the
hemisphere?
Ans 1. 2250

2. 1380

3. 1575

4. 1600

Q.20 A man’s working hours per day were increased by 10% and his wages per hour were increased by 5%. By how much per
cent were his daily earnings increased?
Ans 1.

Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1 In a certain code language, ‘i am infinite’ is written as ‘la ma ra’ and ‘universe is infinite’ is written as ‘ra ba ta’. How is
‘infinite’ written in the given code language?
Ans 1. ma

2. ba

3. ra

4. la

Statements:
Some mugs are cups.
No paper is a mug.

Conclusions:
(I) Some cups are mugs.
(II) No paper is a cup.
Ans 1. Only conclusion (I) follows

2. Only conclusion (II) follows

3. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow

4. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows

Q.3 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

46, 44, 40, 38, 34, 32, ?

Ans 1. 28

2. 26

3. 24

4. 30
Q.4

Ans

Q.5 In a code language, 'ZHBN' is coded as ‘BEFI’ and 'LFWJ' is coded as ‘NCAE’. How will 'HVDK' be coded in that language?
Ans 1. JSHF

2. JTHD

3. KTJD

4. KSIF

Q.6 Which of the following interchanges of signs would make the given equation correct?
25 − 63 ÷ 3 + 7 × 5 = 11
Ans 1. + and −

2. − and ×

3. + and ÷

4. ÷ and −

Q.7 VOAH is related to YPBK in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, RGDS is related to
UHEV. To which of the following is IBXC related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. KCZD

2. MDYG

3. LCYF

4. NEZF
Q.8 Identify the figure given in the options which when put in place of ? will logically complete the series.

Ans

Q.9 A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order) .
Only C sits between G and E. E sits third to the left of F. D sits to the immediate left of F. B is not an immediate neighbour of
E.
Who sits second to the right of A?
Ans 1. D

2. F

3. B

4. C

Q.10 In a code language, 'JSCQ' is coded as ‘MNJH’ and 'BYTE' is coded as ‘ETAV’. How will 'SEWX' be coded in that language?
Ans 1. VZDO

2. WZEO

3. WXEM

4. VXDM

Q.11 TVRM is related to VUPN in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, ROEP is related to
TNCQ. To which of the following is KOCB related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. NMAC

2. MNBC

3. NMBC

4. MNAC

Q.12 Six employees Dhiraj, Roshan, Satish, Pawan, Tarun and Niraj are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre (but not
necessarily in the same order). Satish is sitting to the immediate right of Pawan. Niraj is sitting second to the left of Satish.
Tarun is sitting to the immediate left of Niraj. Only Tarun is sitting between Niraj and Roshan. Who is sitting between Satish
and Roshan?
Ans 1. Niraj

2. Dhiraj

3. Pawan

4. Tarun
Q.13 Select the option figure in which the given figure (X) is embedded as its part (rotation is NOT allowed).

Ans

Q.14 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans
1.

Q.15 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order ?

DEF, JKL, PQR, VWX, ?

Ans 1. BCD

2. YZB

3. UWZ

4. ZBE

Q.16 10 is related to 6 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 14 is related to 8. To which of the following is 24 related
following the same logic?(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the
numbersinto its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13can be
performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1and 3 is not allowed)
Ans 1. 15

2. 11

3. 16

4. 13

Q.17 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements:
All puppies are dogs.
All dogs are animals.
Conclusions:
I. All animals are puppies.
II. Some dogs are not puppies.
Ans 1. Neither conclusion I nor II follows

2. Only conclusion I follows

3. Only conclusion II follows

4. Both conclusions I and II follow

Q.18 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘+’ and ‘–’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are
interchanged?

24 × 12 – 5 ÷ 2 + 7 = ?
Ans 1. 5

2. 7

3. 3

4. 8

Q.19 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the given sets.
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

(38, 31, 47)

(42, 35, 51)
Ans 1. (29, 21, 39)

2. (54, 47, 63)

3. (46, 40, 49)

4. (33, 24, 30)

Q.20 In a certain code language, ‘BUSY’ is coded as ‘8642’ and ‘SIDE’ is coded as ‘7536’.What is the code for ‘S’ in the given code
language?
Ans 1. 4

2. 5

3. 6

4. 7

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 In which of the following cities of India was the first successful textile mill established?
Ans 1. Ludhiana

2. Mumbai

3. Chennai

4. Kolkata

Q.2 Which house is considered as lower house in State Legislature?

Ans 1. Lok Sabha

2. Vidhan Parishad

3. Vidhan Sabha

4. Rajya Sabha

Q.3 Which of the following Acts was provided for the establishment of a federal court in India?
Ans 1. The Indian Councils Act of 1909

2. The Government of India Act of 1935

3. The Regulating Act of 1773

4. The Government of India Act of 1919

Q.4 Which ruler succeeded Chandragupta Maurya in 297 BCE?

Ans 1. Kumaragupta

2. Kanishka

3. Ashoka

4. Bindusara

Q.5 Teejan Bai is associated with which of the following dances?

Ans 1. Jhumar

2. Garba

3. Bagurumba

4. Pandvani

Q.6 Which of the following is NOT true regarding the Swaran Singh Committee?
Ans 1. The Swaran Singh Committee was set up in 1976.

2. The committee was established during Indira Gandhi's Government

3. The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act was based on its recommendations.

4. It suggested nine items as duties of the citizens.

Q.7 Among the following Para athletes, which athlete is associated with the High Jump event?
Ans 1. Ajeet Singh Yadav

2. Deepa Malik

3. Avani Lekhara

4. Mariyappan Thangavelu

Q.8 Proposed in 2023-24, which section of the Income Tax Act of 1961 exempts senior citizens aged 75 years and above from
filing income tax returns?
Ans 1. Section 234C

2. Section 194P

3. Section 80c

4. Section 139A
Q.9 According to Census of India 2011, in which of the following Union Territories was the sex ratio recorded at 1037 females
per 1000 males?
Ans 1. Lakshadweep

2. Puducherry

3. Andaman and Nicobar Islands

4. Chandigarh

Q.10 The Thermohaline Circulation directly influences which of the following crucial environmental factors all over the world?
Ans 1. The landforms

2. Natural resources

3. Pollution in the air

4. The climate

Q.11 Who among the following received the Sangeet Natak Akademi Amrit Award 2022 for Kuchipudi dance?
Ans 1. Smita Rajeshbhai Shastri

2. Makhan Chandra Borah

3. Charan Girdhar Chand

4. Kumkum Lal

Q.12 0.25 g of an organic compound gave 0.13 g of water after complete combustion. The percentage composition of hydrogen is
_____.
Ans 1. 4.58%

2. 52.00%

3. 11.11%

4. 5.78%

Q.13 Chip, Condor, Duff and Driver are some of the terms used in ________.
Ans 1. Golf

2. Chess

3. Horse Polo

4. Swimming

Q.14 In which of the following books has the author described the horrors of the holocaust and the Second World War?
Ans 1. Long walk to freedom

2. Dreams from my father

3. The Diary of a young girl

4. I know why the caged bird sings

Q.15 Jon Beel mela is held every year in which of the following states?
Ans 1. Haryana

2. Telangana

3. Assam

4. Arunachal Pradesh

Q.16 According to the Census of India 2011, which state has the highest sex ratio?
Ans 1. Karnataka

2. Kerala

3. Andhra Pradesh

4. Tamil Nadu

Q.17 The Union Territory of Puducherry is located in which of the following river basins?
Ans 1. Yamuna

2. Karishna

3. Mahanadi

4. Kaveri

Q.18 Which of the following is NOT included in the national income?

Ans 1. Income received by a person as a donation

2. Income received by a person for the use of his capital

3. Income received by a household for the use of their land

4. Income received by a household for the use of their entrepreneurial skill

Q.19 Who among the following was the Sultan of Delhi when Bahmani kingdom was founded in 1347 CE?
Ans 1. Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq

2. Mubarak Shah Khalji

3. Muhammad bin Tughlaq

4. Bahlul Lodi

Q.20 Name the social reformer of Bengal who played crucial role in the enactment of the Hindu Widows' Remarriage Act 1856.
Ans 1. Ishwarchandra Vidyasagar

2. Satyendra Nath Bose

3. Swami Vivekananda

4. Rabindranath Tagore
Q.21 Several biological processes are catalysed by enzymes. Digestive enzymes are present in which part of the cell?
Ans 1. Lysosomes

2. Mitochondria

3. Golgi complex

4. Ribosome

Q.22 M Balamuralikrishna was awarded Padma Vibhushan in 1991 for which of the following fields?
Ans 1. Hindustani music

2. Folk music

3. Jazz music

4. Carnatic music

Q.23 Who built an elegant two-storey ‘ship palace’ between two reservoirs named Jahaaz Mahal?
Ans 1. Sultan Muhammad Bin Tughlaq

2. Sultan Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq

3. Sultan Alaud-Din Khalji

4. Sultan Ghiyasuddin Khilji

Q.24 What is the name of the process of organic matter being broken down into simpler compounds by decomposers?
Ans 1. Photosynthesis

2. Respiration

3. Decomposition

4. Fermentation

Q.25 In 2023, the Government of India proposed 'Amrit Dharohar Scheme' to be implemented over the next _______________ to
encourage optimal use of wetlands and enhance bio-diversity, carbon stock, eco-tourism opportunities and income
generation for local communities.

Ans 1. Five Years

2. Seven Years

3. Two Years

4. Three Years

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined words in the given sentence.

Raman is as worse as Raju in solving mathematical problems.

Ans 1. best

2. worst

3. worsen

4. bad

Q.2 In the following sentence the underlined part contains an error. Alternatives to the underlined part are given as options.
Select the correct alternative.
The house seemed much far than she expected.
Ans 1. farthest

2. more far

3. farer

4. farther

Q.3 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

This is the cheap saree in my collection.

Ans 1. more cheap

2. most cheapest

3. cheapest

4. cheaper

Q.4 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The arrangements of the little boy’s birthday party were _________ nice. We could not help but appreciate it.
Ans 1. little

2. many

3. extremely

4. few

Q.5 Select the appropriate option that can substitute the underlined word in the following sentence to make it grammatically
correct.

This novel is more interesting of all in the library.

Ans 1. the more interesting

2. interesting

3. most interesting

4. the most interesting

Q.6 Identify the ANTONYM of the word in brackets.
The athlete's (languid) performance disappointed the fans as well as coaches.
Ans 1. Vigorous

2. Listless

3. Relaxed

4. Lethargic

Q.7 Rectify the sentence by selecting the correct spelling from the options.
Despite his busy scheuduel, Rohit managed to complete the assignment on time.
Ans 1. scedhule

2. schedule

3. schedeule

4. scheudul

Q.8 Select the option that can be used as one-word substitute for the given group of words

A policy that separates people on the basis of race

Ans 1. Apostle

2. Apartheid

3. Apiary

4. Apostasy

Q.9 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

The method and practice of teaching

Ans 1. Objective

2. Learning

3. Pedagogy

4. Strategy

Q.10 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans 1. Detrimental

2. Regimental

3. Fundementel

4. Transcendental

Q.11 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

This is the old tree in the colony.

Ans 1. elder

2. older

3. most old

4. oldest

Q.12 Select the most appropriate set of words to fill the blanks.

I was trying to __________ a pen to sign a form as my brother had been ___________ Rupees 500 for breaking the traffic
rules.
Ans 1. find; find

2. fined; fined

3. find; fined

4. fined; find

Q.13 Select the most appropriate meaning of the idiom from the options given below.
A square peg in a round hole
Ans 1. a person who is criminal by nature

2. a person who is bankrupt

3. a person who does not fit the job

4. a person who fits the job

Q.14 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given phrase.

Feel the pinch
Ans 1. Give pain

2. Experience hardship

3. Raise quality

4. Demand something

Q.15 Select the word that has the same meaning (SYNONYM) as the underlined word in the given sentence.

The town, where Haruki lived, stood in imminent danger of tidal waves.
Ans 1. eminent

2. immaculate

3. impending

4. prominent

Q.16 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word..

Ans 1. Manoevre

2. Consistent

3. Embarrassment

4. Occurrence
Q.17 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word in the given sentence.

Abhay's humility towards the poor and needy people of his locality is really admirable.
Ans 1. Sincerity

2. Modesty

3. Arrogance

4. Amicability

Q.18 Correct the underlined part of the sentence.

They have a few juice in the jar.

Ans 1. lesser

2. fewer

3. least

4. little

Q.19 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to
substitute it, select ‘No substitution’.

While I was teaching the elder one, the younger one take an opportunity and ran away.
Ans 1. the younger one has taken an opportunity and ran away

2. the younger one will take an opportunity and ran away

3. No substitution

4. the younger one took an opportunity and ran away

Q.20 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Ephemeral
Ans 1. Fleeting

2. persistent

3. Permanent

4. Durable

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

There lived in a town in Russia a bootmaker named Martin. He lived in a small room, half sunk _____1_____ the level of the street,
with one window which ______2_____ on the street. He had lived in the same room for many years and knew many people. There
was _____3_____ a pair of boots in the town and in the country for many miles _____4_____ that had not once or twice passed
_____5_____ his hands.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans 1. beyond

2. amidst

3. inside

4. below

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans 1. touched

2. opened

3. arrived

4. aimed

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans 1. besides

2. hardly

3. always

4. now
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans 1. round

2. below

3. above

4. around

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans 1. off

2. in

3. at

4. through
Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 30/10/2024
Exam
9:00 AM - 11:00 AM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1

Ans 1. 17.5

2. 21

3. 18.5

4. 16.5

Q.2 The average of the first twelve multiples of 11 is:

Ans 1. 71.5

2. 70.5

3. 69.5

4. 68.5

Q.3 By selling an article for ₹19.5, a dealer makes a profit of 10%. By how much should he increase his selling price (in ₹,
rounded off to two decimal place) so as to make a profit of 30%?
Ans 1. 6.55

2. 3.55

3. 5.55

4. 4.55

Q.4 The HCF of 21 and 49 is:

Ans 1. 7

2. 3

3. 1

4. 2

Q.5

Ans
1.

4.
Q.6 S gets 78, 75, 68, 64 and 58 marks in Hindi, English, Chemistry, Physics and Mathematics, respectively. What are his average
marks per subject?
Ans 1. 68.6

2. 68.8

3. 66.6

4. 66.8

Q.7 What will be the average of all the odd numbers from 11 to 71 (both inclusive)?
Ans 1. 41

2. 47

3. 39

4. 31

Q.8 Gagandeep marks his goods 50% above the cost price and offers a discount of 25% on the marked price to his customers.
What is the percentage gain of Gagandeep?
Ans 1. 12.0%

2. 13.5%

3. 12.5%

4. 13.0%

Q.9 A person spends 75% of his income. If his income increases by 15% and expenditure decreases by 10%, then what
percentage increase will occur in his savings?
Ans 1. 47.5%

2. 67.5%

3. 22.5%

4. 90%

Q.10 The difference between the selling prices with 19% profit and 11% loss is Rs.454.50. What is the cost price of the item?
Ans 1. Rs.1,505

2. Rs.1,520

3. Rs.1,515

4. Rs.1,525
Q.11

Ans 1. 26% less

2. 34% more

3. 26% more

4. 34% less

Q.12 In a group of 200 members, 45% are teenagers and the remaining are adults. The average weight of the whole group is 62
kg. If the average weight of teenagers is 56 kg, then the nearest integral value of the average weight of adults is ________.
Ans 1. 67 kg

2. 84 kg

3. 65 kg

4. 79 kg

Q.13 The diameter of a hollow hemisphere is 40 cm. Water is filled in it up to its brim. When spherical lead shots each of diameter
0.8 cm are dropped into the hemisphere, three-fifths of the water flows out. How many lead shots were dropped into the
hemisphere?
Ans 1. 30500

2. 35700

3. 35500

4. 37500

Q.14 A cooperative society increases the annual rate of simple interest from 10% to 16½
%, then the yearly income of a person increases by ₹1,077.70. The simple interest
(in₹) on the sum at 10% for four years will be:
Ans 1. 8,240

2. 16,580

3. 6,632

4. 9,120.3
Q.15 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹3000 as a sum borrowed at 5% per year rate of interest for 4 years.
Ans 1. 560

2. 540

3. 640

4. 600

Q.16 A speed of 16 km/h is the same as:(Up to 1 place of decimal)

Ans 1. 8.4 m/sec

2. 2 m/sec

3. 4.4 m/sec

4. 8 m/sec

Q.17

Ans 1. 51,240

2. 41,360

3. 45,230

4. 48,250

Q.18 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹2500 as a sum borrowed at 5% per year rate of interest for 4 years.
Ans 1. 460

2. 500

3. 440

4. 540
Q.19 The weight of a sphere is jointly proportional to the cube of its radius and the density of the material of which it is made. The
radii of two spheres are 17 : 8 and the densities of materials 3 : 4. If the weight of the second sphere be 40 kg, then the
approximate weight of the first sphere is:
Ans 1. 123.26 kg

2. 96 kg

3. 287.87 kg

4. 230 kg

Q.20 If a man takes 36 minutes to cover a certain distance at a speed of 6 km/h, then the distance covered by him is:
Ans 1. 2 km

2. 3 km

3. 2.5 km

4. 3.6 km

Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1

Ans

4.
Q.2 In a certain code language, ‘RESHMA’ is coded as ‘XJEPBO’ and ‘PRITHAM’ is coded as ‘JXEQFOM’. How will ‘GOURI’ be
coded in that language?
Ans 1. FORLD

2. EORLD

3. FDRLD

4. FORLC

Q.3 A square sheet of paper is folded along the dotted line successively along the directions shown and is then punched in the
last. How would the paper look when unfolded?

Ans

Q.4 S, T, U, V, W, X and Y are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order). Only four
people are sitting between S and W when counted from the right of S. Only one person is sitting between W and Y when
counted from the left of W. Only two people are sitting between S and X when counted from the left of S. Only two people are
sitting between U and Y when counted from the left of U . Only one person is sitting between U and V when counted from
the left of V. Who is sitting to the immediate right of X ?
Ans 1. W

2. Y

3. V

4. S
Q.5

Ans 1.

Q.6 In a certain code language, ‘LIME’ is coded as ‘4826’ and ‘FOLD’ is coded as ‘9378’. What is the code for ’L’ in that language?
Ans 1. 8

2. 2

3. 4

4. 7

Q.7 What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘–’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’
are interchanged?

12 ÷ 13 + 128 – 343 × 49 = ?
Ans 1. 35

2. 54

3. 53

4. 45
Q.8 Identify the figure given in the options that when put in place of the question mark (?) will logically complete the following
series?

Ans

Q.9 In the following number-pairs, the second number is obtained by applying certain mathematical operations to the
first number. Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following
sets.

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their
constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying to 13 can be performed.
Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
7, 27
11, 43
Ans 1. 15, 58

2. 14, 59

3. 15, 59

4. 14, 58

Q.10 28 is related to 168 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 39 is related to 234. To which of the following is 43
related following the same logic?(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the
numbersinto its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13can be
performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1and 3 is not allowed)
Ans 1. 217

2. 222

3. 215

4. 258
Q.11 NUQM is related to PWSO in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, JQMI is related to
LSOK. To which of the following is FMIE related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. HOKG

2. HOGK

3. OHGK

4. OHKG

Q.12

Ans 1. Only Conclusion (II) follows.

2. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

3. Both conclusion (I) and (II) follow.

4. Only Conclusion (I) follows.

Q.13 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?

NRT, JNP, FJL, BFH, ?

Ans 1. XZS

2. XAD

3. XDF

4. XBD

Q.14 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements:
Some rhinos are birds. All penguins are birds.
Conclusions:
(I): Some rhinos are penguins.
(II): All birds are penguins.
Ans 1. Only conclusion (I) follows.

2. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

3. Only conclusion (II) follows.

4. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

Q.15 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series?
-553, -532, -511, -490, -469, ?
Ans 1. 448

2. 458

3. -458

4. -448

Q.16 What will come in the place of ‘?’ in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘–’ are interchanged?
24 + 3 ÷ 8 × 2 – 6 =?
Ans 1. – 6

2. 6

3. 4

4. 18.75
Q.17 FLLC is related to HNNE in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, AFFW is related to CHHY.
To which of the following is PVVM related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. RXXO

2. ROXX

3. XXOR

4. XXRO

Q.18 U, V, W, X, Y, Z and A are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order).
X sits third to the left of Y. W sits second to the left of V. Only Y sits between A and W. U is not an immediate neighbour of X.
Who sits fourth to the right of Z?
Ans 1. U

2. A

3. W

4. Y

Q.19 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans
1.

Q.20

Ans 1.

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 What do you call the body cavity that is lined by mesoderm?
Ans 1. Diploblasts

2. Coelom

3. Radial symmetry

4. Triploblasts
Q.2 On 19 July 2023, who was appointed as the 25th Director General of the Indian Coast Guard?
Ans 1. VK Singh

2. K Natarajan

3. BS Raju

4. Rakesh Pal

Q.3 What is the role of a commercial bank in the economy?

Ans 1. To provide financial services, such as accepting deposits, lending money and facilitating payments

2. To print and issue currency

3. To set interest rates for the entire banking system

4. To regulate the money supply

Q.4 The Huttari dance, observed as an annual tradition, is a leisurely performance that takes place during the harvesting season
in _____________.
Ans 1. Telangana

2. Karnataka

3. Andhra Pradesh

4. Odisha

Q.5 Which Kuchipudi dancer received National Nritya Shiromani Award 2022?
Ans 1. Jatin Goswami

2. Anita Sharma

3. Aparna Satheesan

4. Anindita Neogy Anaam

Q.6 Match the following parties with their reserved symbols and choose the INCORRECT one among the following:
Ans 1. Bahujan Samaj Party – Elephant

2. All India Trinamool Congress – Sickle

3. National People’s Party – Book

4. Nationalist Congress party – Clock

Q.7 With which of the following organisations was Henry Louis Vivian Derozio, a teacher of Hindu College of Calcutta,
associated?
Ans 1. Rahnumai Mazdayasnan Sabha

2. Young Bengal Movement

3. Paramahansa Mandali

4. Sree Narayana Dharma Paripalana Yogam

Q.8 Gangubai Hangal, a renowned Indian music personality, is recognised for her contributions in which of the following fields?
Ans 1. Ghazal Singing

2. Sufi Music

3. Rabindra Sangeet

4. Hindustani Classical Music

Q.9 Large tidal waves caused by an underwater earthquake or volcanic eruption are known as a _________.
Ans 1. tsunami

2. hurricane

3. typhoon

4. tornado
Q.10 The God of Small Things is a novel authored by whom among the following authors?
Ans 1. Rohinton Mistry

2. Shashi Tharoor

3. Fakira

4. Arundhati Roy

Q.11 Most of the Harappan sites are primarily divided into _________ parts.
Ans 1. four

2. two

3. eight

4. six

Q.12 As per the 2011 census, which of the following union territories had the lowest population?
Ans 1. Lakshadweep

2. Chandigarh

3. Puducherry

4. Andaman and Nicobar Islands

Q.13 In basketball, how many points are awarded when a basket is scored from outside the 6.25-metre line?
Ans 1. Six points

2. Three points

3. Two points

4. Five points

Q.14 In which of the following empires of South India was the Kamalapuram tank built in the 15th century?
Ans 1. Bidar

2. Vijayanagara

3. Chola

4. Bijapur

Q.15 If labour is employed in a job but is not actually utilised for the production of goods and services, it is known as:
Ans 1. disguised unemployment

2. educated unemployment

3. urban unemployment

4. seasonal unemployment

Q.16 Which of the following National Waterways (NW) is associated with the Udyogamandal and the Champakkara canals?
Ans 1. NW-25

2. NW-10

3. NW-5

4. NW-3

Q.17 In May 2023, who was sworn in as the new Central Vigilance Commissioner of India?
Ans 1. PK Srivastava

2. GC Murmu

3. Suresh N Patel

4. Amit Khare
Q.18 As a part of the Non-Cooperation Movement in 1922, the angry peasants had set ablaze the police station of which place?
Ans 1. Chauri Chaura

2. Kakori

3. Dhaka

4. Dandi

Q.19 Meher had two large chunks of coal. She set fire to the first chunk and broke the second one into pieces. Help Meher
understand what kind of changes happened to the two chunks of coal at the end of the activity by choosing all the
applicable statements.
A. Both chunks of coal underwent physical changes only.
B. The changes were reversible for the first chunk of coal only.
C. Only physical changes took place for the second chunk of coal.
D. Both chunks of coal underwent chemical changes only.
E. The first case is an example of chemical changes.
Ans 1. Only A and B

2. Only D

3. Only B and D

4. Only C and E

Q.20 What is the study of the interactions between living organisms and their environment called?
Ans 1. Geology

2. Ecology

3. Chemistry

4. Biology

Q.21 Scissor style and Western Roll are the techniques used in:
Ans 1. long jump

2. high jump

3. pole vault

4. triple jump

Q.22 Which of the following is NOT considered as a Fundamental Duty?

Ans 1. To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India

2. To develop the scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform

3. To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture

4. To uphold and protect secularism

Q.23 Which of the following rivers flows north of the Tropic of Cancer in India?
Ans 1. Yamuna

2. Tapi

3. Mahanadi

4. Penganga

Q.24 In which of the following states is the Mamallapuram Utsav celebrated?

Ans 1. Uttarakhand

2. Kerala

3. Tamil Nadu

4. Karnataka
Q.25 With reference to provinces under Mauryan dynasty, which of the following pairs is correct?
Ans 1. Uttarapatha (North) - Suvarnagiri

2. Dakshinapatha (South) - Ujjain

3. Avantiratha (West) - Taxila

4. Prachyapatha (East) - Toshali

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 Select the most appropriate idiom to replace the underlined segment in the given sentence.

We were asked to vote for the candidates by raising our hands to indicate voting for or against a proposition.
Ans 1. changing hands

2. getting out of hand

3. a show of hands

4. tipping our hands

Q.2 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined word in the given sentence.
The military operation was part of a conspiracy against national security.
Ans 1. Enthusiasm

2. Motivation

3. Plot

4. willfulness

Q.3 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to
substitute it, select ‘No substitution required’.

Manisha set apart with her friends to explore the countryside.

Ans 1. set aside

2. set in

3. set out

4. No substitution required

Q.4 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans 1. Exaggeration

2. Sacrilege

3. Assesment

4. Committee

Q.5 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined word in the given sentence.

I agreed with your assessment.

Ans 1. Disagreed

2. Rejected

3. Supported

4. Doubted

Q.6 select the most appropriate idiom/phrase to fill in the blank and complete the sentence.

It was all _________________. He did not really mean what he said.

Ans 1. tongue in cheek

2. a storm in a tea cup

3. tuck in

4. blue in the face

Q.7 Identify the preposition that needs to be omitted to correct the sentence.

They live near to the park.

Ans 1. to

2. They

3. live

4. near

Q.8 Select the option that correctly rectifies the underlined spelling error in the given sentence.

In the first half century after U.S. independence, a major preportion of the nation's labour force shifted from the agricultural
to the manufacturing sector.
Ans 1. priposon

2. preposion

3. prepotion

4. proportion

Q.9 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The _________ model who can be selected for this advertisement is Meera Narayan.
Ans 1. more better

2. best

3. most best

4. most good

Q.10 Select the sentence that has a grammatical error.

Ans 1. She always comes down with a cold in winter.

2. He came across an interesting article while researching.

3. The company came up with a brilliant marketing strategy.

4. We came in the meeting room quietly.

Q.11 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined word in the context of the following sentence.

We should go to the Himalayas this spring.

Ans 1. To jump

2. Coiled metal

3. A season

4. A water body

Q.12 Select the option with the correctly spelt word to fill in the blank.

The delta of river ____________ looks like a bird's foot because a lot of sediment is carried into the calm sea water.
Ans 1. Missisippi

2. Mississipi

3. Mississippi

4. Mississipppi

Q.13 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

The irrational fear of snakes

Ans 1. Necrophobia

2. Xenophobia

3. Nomophobia

4. Ophidiophobia
Q.14 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Ally
Ans 1. Gloomy

2. Infamy

3. Enemy

4. Dreamy

Q.15 The given sentence is divided into four segments. Select the segment with the grammatical error.
I was surprised / to see my / daughter, Manya, riding her / new bicycle confident.
Ans 1. daughter, Manya, riding her

2. I was surprised

3. new bicycle confident

4. to see my

Q.16 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

How long have you been _________ these contact lenses?
Ans 1. swimming

2. prevailing

3. seeing

4. wearing

Q.17 Select the grammatically correct sentence from the given options.
Ans 1. The responsibility was given to each student to keep quiet during the seminar.

2. The responsibility was given to each student to keep quieter during the seminar.

3. The responsibility is given to each student to keep quieter during the seminar.

4. The responsibility was give to each student to keep quieter during the seminar.

Q.18 In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option
to fill in the blanks.
Cuba is known as the sugar bowl of the world. It is part of the Caribbean _____________. This country _______________ a
lot of sugar in the decade of 1960s.
Ans 1. stretch; processed

2. sector; created

3. region; produced

4. area; cropped

Q.19 Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word.

Ritu is a diligent girl who looks after her aged parents.
Ans 1. stupid

2. lethargic

3. hardworking

4. innocent

Q.20 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

Despite the challenges, / the team is determined to / completed / the project on time and within budget.
Ans 1. Despite the challenges

2. the team is determined to

3. the project on time and within budget

4. completed
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

A weed is an untamed plant that (1)______ where it is not wanted, usually among gardens or crops. The majority of weeds are
(2)________. While some are toxic to horses and cattle, others harm mature crops by (3)________them of water, sunlight, soil and
minerals. There are various ways that weeds (4)______. They are (5)_______ transported from one location to another as trash, dust
or fodder.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans 1. perfects

2. evolves

3. amends

4. spreads

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans 1. delicates

2. dangerous

3. grace

4. vices

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans 1. relieving

2. spoiling

3. digesting

4. depriving

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans 1. entertain

2. extension

3. breach

4. propagate
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans 1. every

2. consequence

3. frequently

4. rare
Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 30/10/2024
Exam
12:30 PM - 2:30 PM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 A vendor bought a certain number of bananas at 6 for ₹5 and sold them at 4 for ₹3. Find his loss percentage.
Ans 1. 12%

2. 10%

3. 8%

4. 15%

Q.2
A shopkeeper sold an article at a profit of 4%. If he had bought the article
at 5% less and sold it at ₹30 more, then he would have made a profit of
12%. What is the cost price (in ₹) of the article?
Ans 1. 1,260

2. 1,232

3. 1,200

4. 1,250

Q.3 The following table shows the percentage of marks obtained by five students (A,B,C,D and E) in different
subjects. (Maximum marks are given beside subjects)

How many more or fewer marks did Student A obtain in English, as compared to the marks obtained by Student E in the
same subject?
Ans 1. 20 less

2. 15 less

3. 20 more

4. 15 more

Q.4 Raghu lends ₹9,600 and ₹11,800 at simple interest to two different persons for the same time at the rate of 7% per annum
and 8% per annum, respectively. If he had received ₹9,696 as total interest from both, find the time period for which the
amounts were lent.
Ans 1. 10 years

2. 12 years

3. 8 years

4. 6 years
Q.5 The salary of a worker is first increased by 30% and later reduced by 28.5%. What is the net change in his salary?
Ans 1. 8.05% increase

2. 7.05% decrease

3. 6.05% increase

4. 9.05% decrease

Q.6

Ans 1.

Q.7 A banner at a garment shop advertises 'Buy 2 and get 5'. The shopkeeper has marked all the shirts at the same amount.
Gaurav was his relative and the shopkeeper gave him an additional discount of 2% on the total bill. Gaurav purchased 5
shirts and paid ₹1,274. What is the marked price of each shirt?
Ans 1. ₹520

2. ₹260

3. ₹650

4. ₹630

Q.8

Ans 1. 22

2. 21

3. 28

4. 25

Q.9 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹2500 as a sum borrowed at 8% per year rate of interest for 4 years.
Ans 1. 740

2. 760

3. 800

4. 840

Q.10 The average weight of 14 persons out of 16 persons is 75 kg. The total weight of the remaining two persons is 48 kg more
than the average weight of all 16 persons. Find the average weight of the remaining two persons.
Ans 1. 66.6 kg

2. 54.6 kg

3. 60.6 kg

4. 48.6 kg
Q.11
The given bar graph shows the marks obtained by five students in Exam I
and Exam II.Study the bar graph carefully to answer the question that
follows.

If the marks obtained by Suresh in Exam-I were increased by 14% of the

original marks, what would be his new approximate percentage in Exam-I
if the maximum marks in Exam-I were 140?
Ans 1. 41%

2. 38%

3. 47%

4. 57%

Q.12 What sum (in ₹) will earn a simple interest of ₹360 in 2 years at 16% per year rate of interest?
Ans 1. 2250

2. 1125

3. 725

4. 1850

Q.13 Aman, Bheema and Rehman play cricket, the ratio of Aman's runs to Bheema's runs and Bheema's runs to
Rehman's runs is 5 : 4. They make together 549 runs. How many runs did Rehman make?
Ans 1. 108

2. 132

3. 144

4. 158

Q.14 What will be the average of the odd numbers from 1 to 51, both inclusive?
Ans 1. 25

2. 24

3. 26

4. 26.5
Q.15 A spherical ball of iron is to be produced. If the radius of the ball is 3 cm and weight of iron per cm3 is 30g,what would be
the weight of the ball?
Ans 1. 108π g

2. 1040π g

3. 104π g

4. 1080π g

Q.16

Ans
1.

Q.17 Find the ratio in which rice worth ₹7.20/kg should be mixed with rice worth ₹5.70/kg to produce a mixture worth ₹6.30/kg.
Ans 1. 1 : 3

2. 2 : 3

3. 4 : 5

4. 3 : 4

Q.18 The average of first 9 whole numbers is:

Ans 1. 4

2. 4.5

3. 5

4. 3

Q.19 A policeman sees a thief at a distance of 50 m and starts chasing him at a speed of 7 m/s, while the thief runs at a speed of 5
m/s. What is the distance (in m) covered by the thief when he is caught?
Ans 1. 100

2. 150

3. 175

4. 125

Q.20 A man travelled from Tirupati to Tirumala at the speed of 20 km/h and walked back at the speed of 4 km/h. If the whole
journey took 24 hours, then find the distance (in km) between Tirumala and Tirupati.
Ans 1. 25

2. 80

3. 20

4. 30

Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1

Ans 1.

4.
Q.2 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans
1.

Q.3 HLTE is related to DHPA in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, VBNW is related to RXJS.
To which of the following is MUXK related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. IQSF

2. IPSF

3. JRUG

4. IQTG

Q.4 Seven people A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table, facing the center (but not necessarily in the same
order). F is sitting second to the left of C. E is the immediate neighbour of A and C. G is sitting third to the right of D.

What is the position of B with respect to G?

Ans 1. To the immediate right

2. Third to the right

3. Second to the right

4. Second to the left

Q.5 79 is related to 164 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 98 is related to 183. To which ofthe following is 112
related, following the same logic?(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbersinto its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13can be
performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1and 3 is not allowed)
Ans 1. 197

2. 182

3. 195

4. 187

Q.6 What should come in place of question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?
CEB, GHE, KKH, ONK, ?
Ans 1. TQO

2. SQO

3. TQN

4. SQN
Q.7 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
All apples are mangoes.
No mango is a kiwi.

Conclusions:
(I) No apple is a kiwi.
(II) No kiwi is a mango.
Ans 1. Only conclusion I follows

2. Neither conclusion I nor II follows

3. Only conclusion II follows

4. Both conclusion I and II follow

Q.8 20 is related to 401 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 15 is related to 226. To which of the following is 18
related, following the same logic?

(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 - Operations on 13 such as adding / subtracting / multiplying, etc.. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13
into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans 1. 364

2. 346

3. 352

4. 325

Q.9 Which of the following interchanges of signs would make the given equation correct?
96 × 8 − 15 ÷ 5 + 100 = 37
Ans 1. ÷ and ×

2. − and ÷

3. × and +

4. × and −

Q.10 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series?
4, 10, ?, 82, 244, 730, 2188
Ans 1. 21

2. 38

3. 28

4. 20

Q.11 Three statements are given, followed by two conclusions numbered 1 and 2. Assuming the statements to be true, even if
they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements:
Some Jeans are Pants
No Pant is a Shirt
Some Shirts are T-shirts
Conclusions:
1. Some T-shirts are Shirts
2. Some T-shirts are Jeans
Ans 1. Both conclusions 1 and 2 follow

2. Only conclusion 2 follows

3. Only conclusion 1 follows

4. Neither conclusion 1 nor 2 follows

Q.12 AFKO is related to CHMQ in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, ILRS is related to KNTU.
To which of the following is BDGI related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. RTUI

2. DFIK

3. SIND

4. HDJI

Q.13 In a certain code language, ‘HOME’ is coded as ‘5317’ and ‘EAST’ is coded as ‘6528’.What is the code for ‘E’ in the given
code language?
Ans 1. 6

2. 7

3. 5

4. 8

Q.14 In a certain code language, ‘JUGS’ is coded as ‘3715’ and ‘GOLD’ is coded as ‘6524’. What is the code for ‘G’ in that
language?
Ans 1. 6

2. 4

3. 1

4. 5

Q.15 A, B, C, D, E, F, and G, are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order). Only 3
people sit between E and F when counted from the right of E. A and D are both immediate neighbours of G. B sits immediate
to the right of C. Only 1 person sits between B and D. How many people sit between A and E when counted from the right of
A?
Ans 1. 1

2. 3

3. 4

4. 2

Q.16 In a code language, 'PINK' is coded as ‘WFUH’ and 'DORM' is coded as ‘KLYJ’. How will 'BUGI' be coded in that language?
Ans 1. KSOE

2. IRNF

3. JROF

4. KSNE

Q.17 What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘–’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’
are interchanged?
2 ÷ 90 × 5 – 4 + 10 = ?
Ans 1. 30

2. 35

3. 37

4. 29
Q.18 Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series and complete
the pattern.

Ans

4.
Q.19 Identify the figure given in the options which when put in place of ? will logically complete the series.

Ans

4.
Q.20 Select the option figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the figure given below to complete the pattern.

Ans

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 Which of the following rivers flows through Madhya Pradesh?

Ans 1. Sharda

2. Bhima

3. Shyok

4. Betwa

Q.2 Cyanobacteria belong to the domain of:

Ans 1. Tertiary Consumers

2. Decomposers

3. Producers

4. Primary Consumers

Q.3 The Hindi novel 'Jhutha Sach' is written by:

Ans 1. Jaishankar Prasad

2. Premchand

3. Yashpal

4. Shrilal Shukla
Q.4 On 10 April 2023, the Government of India launched tourism infrastructure and amenities in the __________________
villages through the ‘Vibrant Villages Programme’.
Ans 1. Desert

2. Border

3. Coastal

4. Hill

Q.5 Which of the following states has bicameral (two houses) state legislature?
Ans 1. West Bengal

2. Goa

3. Punjab

4. Karnataka

Q.6 Which of the following statements is/are INCORRECT?

A) 1833 Charter Act has changed the designation for Governor-General of Bengal, renamed as Governor-General of India.
B) Lord William Bentick was the first Governor General of India.
Ans 1. Both A and B

2. Only A

3. Neither A nor B

4. Only B

Q.7 The oceanic trenches or the narrow depressions on the seafloor are formed by reason of:
Ans 1. thermohaline circulation

2. tidal currents

3. tsunamis

4. tectonic activity

Q.8 In the number 0.002609, the number of significant figures is ______.

Ans 1. four

2. three

3. seven

4. six

Q.9 'Attolu Eidu' is the cultural festival of which of the following union territories?
Ans 1. Lakshadweep

2. Andaman and Nicobar Islands

3. Jammu and Kashmir

4. Dadra and Nagar Haveli

Q.10 Chand Minar at Daulatabad is a 210-feet-high tapering tower divided into _____ storeys.
Ans 1. three

2. six

3. five

4. four

Q.11 What is the term used for the line that a raider must cross to score points in Kabaddi?
Ans 1. Half line

2. Baulk line

3. Centre line

4. Bonus line
Q.12 The Indian reformer Jyotirao Phule was primarily critical of which social evil of the Indian society?
Ans 1. Sati System

2. Caste Discrimination

3. Child Marriage

4. Poverty

Q.13 Which of the following folk dances is conducted during the Bwisagu Festival?
Ans 1. Bagurumba

2. Bihu dance

3. Bhortal

4. Jhumur

Q.14 Which of the following is a natural indicator for acid and base?
Ans 1. Curry tree

2. Fungi

3. Algae

4. China rose

Q.15 What are the three components of the empowerment model in SAPAP of SHGs?
Ans 1. Public resource allocation, capacity building, and microfinance

2. Collective empowerment, capital formation, and poverty eradication

3. Social mobilisation, economic development, and education

4. Social mobilisation, capital formation, and capacity building of the poor

Q.16 Harappa, one of the sites of the Harappan culture, was found in which of the following states of pre-independent India?
Ans 1. Sindh

2. Balochistan

3. United Province

4. Punjab

Q.17 Who is National Security Advisor of India as of July 2023?

Ans 1. Sanjeev Sanyal

2. Ajit Doval

3. Rajiv Gauba

4. Rajnath Singh

Q.18 Which port situated at the head of Gulf of Kutch has helped to reduce the pressure at Mumbai port?
Ans 1. Kandla

2. Kochi

3. Kolkata

4. Haldia
Q.19

Ans 1. A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3

2. A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4

3. A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1

4. A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1

Q.20 According Census 2011 of India, which of the following union territories has the second highest literacy rate?
Ans 1. Daman and Diu

2. Andaman and Nicobar

3. Lakshadweep

4. Chandigarh

Q.21 Identify the personality on the basis of the given clues:

i) She is an acclaimed Bharatanatyam dancer.
ii) She is the recipient of Padma Shri 2016 award.
Ans 1. Padmaja Reddy

2. Pratibha Prahlad

3. Aruna Mohanty

4. Padma Sharma

Q.22 In which year did Rohan Bopanna become world number one in the Men's Doubles category of Lawn Tennis?
Ans 1. 2017

2. 2015

3. 2024

4. 2023

Q.23 Which of the following is NOT a salient feature of Fundamental Duties of the Indian Constitution?
Ans 1. It is non-justiciable.

2. There is clear difference between Fundamental Rights and Fundamental Duties.

3. They are enforceable by law and can be challenged in court.

4. Fundamental Duties are both civic and moral in nature.

Q.24 According to National Multidimensional Poverty Index 2023 (A Progress Review), what is the percentage of the total
population who are multidimensionally poor (Headcount Ratio) in Bihar state?
Ans 1. 45.98%

2. 36.12%

3. 33.76%

4. 40.54%

Q.25 Which treatise of Indian classical music was composed by Pandit Sharanga Deva?
Ans 1. Sangeet Tarang

2. Sangeet Makarand

3. Sangeet Samay Saar

4. Sangeet Ratnakar

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.
Ans 1. Disapoint

2. Consensus

3. Conceive

4. Disappear

Q.2 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment without changing its meaning in the given
sentence.

Entrepreneurial endeavours drive economic growth and innovation, empowering individuals to bring their ideas to fruition.
Ans 1. ventures contribute to economic flourishing

2. pursuits manipulates economic success

3. actions spur economic recession

4. projects discourage economic prosperity

Q.3 Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word in the given sentence.
James is just an old eccentric.
Ans 1. Humble

2. Follower

3. Ordinary

4. Cranky

Q.4 In the following sentence the underlined part contains an error. Alternatives to the underlined part are given as options.
Select the correct alternative.
Wolfia is the tiny plant in the world.
Ans 1. tinier

2. most tiny

3. more tiny

4. tiniest

Q.5 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Please turn off the lights _________ leaving the house.

Ans 1. before

2. amid

3. during

4. between

Q.6 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The farmer stood by the roadside stand to sell his _________.
Ans 1. productivity

2. volume

3. consequence

4. produce

Q.7 Identify the most appropriate ANTONYM of the word in brackets.

Her candid remarks were a (refreshing) change from the usual diplomatic responses.
Ans 1. Bracing

2. Invigorating

3. Revitalising

4. Stale
Q.8 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word from the given sentence.

The explorer's adventuros spirit led to the discovery of an ancient civilisation.

Ans 1. Adventuros

2. Ancient

3. Discovery

4. Explorer's

Q.9 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans 1. Abolished

2. Annoyed

3. Adverse

4. Abodomen

Q.10 Select the most appropriate adjective to fill in the blank.

According to the chairman, his proposal was ___________ than Mr. Jackson’s.
Ans 1. worst

2. ill

3. bad

4. worse

Q.11 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

I had to choose the best of the two options available.

Ans 1. better than

2. best than

3. better of

4. good of

Q.12 The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error. Select the part that contains the error
from the given options. If you don’t find any error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer.

After the match, / the stadium was the messiest / it’s ever been.
Ans 1. the stadium was the messiest

2. No Error

3. After the match

4. it’s ever been

Q.13 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

The family members described their dream home's architectural elegance.

Ans 1. grandiosity

2. coarseness

3. gleam

4. fortitude

Q.14 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

My mother said / that the thief / Ramesh will learnt / his lesson soon.
Ans 1. his lesson soon.

2. My mother said

3. Ramesh will learnt

4. that the thief

Q.15 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

Sree did not go to work today, as she was feeling a bit under the weather.

Ans 1. feeling tired

2. feeling ill

3. feeling excited

4. feeling nervous

Q.16 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM for the underlined word in the given sentence.

He is a lazy person.
Ans 1. perfect

2. hardworking

3. popular

4. casual

Q.17 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains an error in phrasal verb.

Gita got onto / the book / she was reading / this morning.
Ans 1. the book

2. this morning

3. Gita got onto

4. she was reading

Q.18 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blanks.

He is going to _________ the campaign against excessive use of _________ in local production units.
Ans 1. lead

2. combat

3. protest

4. spice

Q.19 Select the option that will improve the underlined part of the given sentence.

I started feeling tired as I had been working for a long time and so I decided to call the day.
Ans 1. be a day for calling

2. call it a day

3. call off the day

4. be called a day

Q.20 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the highlighted group of words in the given sentence.

The tailor was called to stitch the long loose gowns worn by priests and choristers.
Ans 1. cassocks

2. petticoats

3. frocks

4. tuxedos
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
The Enlightenment, sometimes known as the ‘Age of Reason’, is described as the period of (1)________ scientific, political, and
philosophical debate that characterised European culture (2) ________ the ‘long’ 18th century: from the late 17th century until the end
of the Napoleonic Wars in 1815. This was an era of an enormous (3) ________ in thinking and reason, which historian Roy Porter
describes as ‘decisive in the formation of modernity’. Centuries of custom and tradition were (4) ________ in favour of exploration,
individuality, tolerance, and scientific (5) ________, all of which contributed to the formation of the ‘modern world’.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1..
Ans 1. auspicious

2. malicious

3. rigorous

4. cautions

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
The Enlightenment, sometimes known as the ‘Age of Reason’, is described as the period of (1)________ scientific, political, and
philosophical debate that characterised European culture (2) ________ the ‘long’ 18th century: from the late 17th century until the end
of the Napoleonic Wars in 1815. This was an era of an enormous (3) ________ in thinking and reason, which historian Roy Porter
describes as ‘decisive in the formation of modernity’. Centuries of custom and tradition were (4) ________ in favour of exploration,
individuality, tolerance, and scientific (5) ________, all of which contributed to the formation of the ‘modern world’.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2..
Ans 1. throughout

2. along with

3. over with

4. above

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3..
Ans 1. secure

2. shield

3. embed

4. shift

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4..
Ans 1. dejected

2. discarded

3. defrosted

4. demean
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
The Enlightenment, sometimes known as the ‘Age of Reason’, is described as the period of (1)________ scientific, political, and
philosophical debate that characterised European culture (2) ________ the ‘long’ 18th century: from the late 17th century until the end
of the Napoleonic Wars in 1815. This was an era of an enormous (3) ________ in thinking and reason, which historian Roy Porter
describes as ‘decisive in the formation of modernity’. Centuries of custom and tradition were (4) ________ in favour of exploration,
individuality, tolerance, and scientific (5) ________, all of which contributed to the formation of the ‘modern world’.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5..
Ans 1. shirk

2. doodle

3. slacken

4. endeavour
Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 30/10/2024
Exam
4:00 PM - 5:30 PM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 The average monthly pocket money of Ram and Shyam is ₹2,460, Shyam and Manohar is ₹2,380 and Manohar and Ram is
₹2,760. Find the monthly pocket money of Ram alone.
Ans 1. ₹2,048

2. ₹2,840

3. ₹2,408

4. ₹2,480

Q.2 If the diameter of a hemisphere is 14cm, then the total surface area of the hemisphere is
Ans 1.

Q.3 Three bells toll at intervals of 12, 15 and 18 minutes, respectively. If all the three bells toll together at 8 a.m., when will they
toll together next?
Ans 1. 8 a.m.

2. 11 a.m.

3. 3 p.m.

4. 10 a.m.

Q.4 A bag contains coins of 1 rupee, 0.5 rupee and 0.25 rupee in the ratio of 5: 6: 8. If the total amount of money in the bag is
₹420,find the number of coins of type1 rupee, 0.5 rupee and 0.25 rupee are:
Ans 1. 212,232,312

2. 210,252,336

3. 216,252,292

4. 208,272,352

Q.5 The marked price of a washing machine is ₹15,000. A retailer buys it at ₹11,250, after getting
two successive discount of 15% and another rate which is illegible. What is the second
discount rate?
Ans
1.

Q.6

Ans 1. 708

2. 704

3. 700

4. 712

Q.7 Rahul sells an article at 8% above its cost price. If he had bought it at 5% less than what he had paid for it and sold it at ₹8
less, he would have gained 12%. Find the cost price of the article.
Ans 1. ₹650

2. ₹550

3. ₹700

4. ₹500

Q.8 If the price of a commodity is increased by 10% and 20% successively, what is the net percentage increase/decrease in its
price, if it is further decreased by 25%?
Ans 1. 1% Decrease

2. 5% Decrease

3. 5% Increase

4. 1% Increase
Q.9

Ans 1. 2nd hour

2. 1st hour

3. 3rd hour

4. 4th hour

Q.10 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹2000 as a sum borrowed at 8% per year rate of interest for 6 years.
Ans 1. 1000

2. 960

3. 900

4. 920

Q.11 12 solid spheres of the same size are made by melting a solid cylinder of 16 cm diameter and 4 cm height. The diameter of
each sphere is:
Ans
1.

Q.12 If the average of nine numbers is 360, then what is the sum of the nine numbers?
Ans 1. 3420

2. 1620

3. 40

4. 3240

Q.13 A money lender lent out ₹40,000 in two parts, one at 7% p.a. and the other at 6% p.a.. If the total annual simple interest on
the amount is ₹2,550, what is the amount of money lent at 7%?
Ans 1. ₹21,000

2. ₹18,000

3. ₹15,000

4. ₹26,000

Q.14 What sum (in ₹) will earn a simple interest of ₹240 in 2 years at 4% per year rate of interest?
Ans 1. 3000

2. 1500

3. 4000

4. 6000

Q.15 Two sections A and B of class VIII consist of 42 and 38 students, respectively. If the average marks of section A is 400 and
that of section B is 320, find the average marks of the whole class.
Ans 1. 360

2. 576

3. 362

4. 310
Q.16 Study the below graph carefully and answer the question.

What is the percentage increase in the price of Diesel from April to July (rounded off to one digit after decimal)?

Ans 1. 69.5%

2. 88.8%

3. 76.5%

4. 89.3%

Q.17 By selling an article for ₹19.5, a dealer makes a profit of 25%. By how much should he increase his selling price (in ₹) so as
to make a profit of 50%?
Ans 1. 6.9

2. 5.9

3. 4.9

4. 3.9

Q.18 A thief is noticed by a policeman from a distance of 400 m. The thief starts running at a speed of 8 km/h and the policeman
chases him at a speed of 9 km/h. What is the distance between them after 18 minutes?
Ans 1. 200 m

2. 300 m

3. 150 m

4. 100 m

Q
.
1
9
A 1. 3175 m
n
s
2. 3125 m

3. 3100 m

4. 3150 m

Q.20 In Class I there are 12 students of average age 20 years, and in Class II there are 16 students of average age 23 years. What
is the average age (approximately) of both the classes?
Ans 1. 17.6 years

2. 20.7 years

3. 21.7 years

4. 15.3 years

Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1 POEN is related to LKAJ in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, RADIUS is related to
NWZEQO. To which of the following is LOGIC related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. HKCEY

2. HKCFY

3. GKCEY

4. HGCFY

Q.2 LJPN is related to SQWU in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, JHNL is related to
QOUS. To which of the following is OMSQ related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. VTZX

2. TVZX

3. TVXZ

4. VTXZ

Q.3 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans
1.

4.
Q.4 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
All doors are locks.
Some doors are keys.

Conclusions:
(I) Some locks are keys.
(II) Some keys are doors.
Ans 1. Only conclusion I follows

2. Neither conclusion I nor II follows

3. Only conclusion II follows

4. Both conclusions I and II follow

Q.5 Select the option figure in which the given figure (X) is embedded as its part (rotation is NOT allowed).

Ans

Q.6 In a certain code language, ‘I like music’ is written as ‘mo ro go’ and ‘can I go’ is writtenas ‘ho mo bo’. How is ‘I’ writtenin the
given language?
Ans 1. go

2. bo

3. mo

4. ho

Q.7 Which two numbers should be interchanged to make the following equation correct?
9 × 2 −(150 ÷ 5) + 24 + (32÷ 8) × 6 + 15 = 71
(Note: Interchange should be done of the entire number and not individual digits of a given number.)
Ans 1. 5 and 6

2. 2 and 6

3. 9 and 6

4. 5 and 15
Q.8 Identify the figure given in the options which when put in place of ? will logically complete the series.

Ans

Q.9 Seven colleagues (L, M, N, O, P, Q, R) are sitting around a circular meeting table, all facing towards the centre (but not
necessarily in the same order). O is sitting to the immediate right of L, while P is sitting to the immediate left of L. Only Q is
sitting between R and N, and another one of R’s immediate neighbours is M, who is also an immediate neighbour of O.
Which two of the following are not immediate neighbours?
Ans 1. Q and N

2. P and N

3. O and R

4. R and M

Q.10 2 is related to 9 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 4 is related to 65. To which of the following is 8 related,
following the same logic?

(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding / subtracting / multiplying, etc., to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13
into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans 1. 517

2. 515

3. 511

4. 513

Q.11 In a certain code language, ‘you may laugh’ is coded as ‘CD EJ KO’ and ‘may I go’ is coded as ‘TK PO EJ’. How is ‘may’
coded in that code language?
Ans 1. EJ

2. PO

3. CD

4. TK

Q.12 Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.
5, 16, 60, 236, 940, ?
Ans 1. 678

2. 3756

3. 4678

4. 6899

Q.13 Lalla, Bablu, Mahesh, Abdul, Arif, Surekha and Kiku are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre (but not necessarily
in the same order). Lalla sits 2nd to the right of Bablu. Mahesh sits 3rd to the left of Abdul. Arif sits to the immediate left of
Abdul. Surekha is an immediate neighbour of Bablu. Kiku is not an immediate neighbour of Surekha. Who sits third to the
right of Abdul?
Ans 1. Lalla

2. Kiku

3. Surekha

4. Bablu
Q.14 What will come in the place of ‘?’ in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘−‘ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?
102 − 36 + 59 ÷ 4 × 2 = ?
Ans 1. 10

2. 5

3. 20

4. 15

Q.15 In a certain code language, 'GET' is coded as ‘50’ and 'CAB' is coded as ‘76’. How will 'RUN' be coded in the same language?
Ans 1. 28

2. 29

3. 30

4. 31

Statements:
All laptops are desktops.
No desktop is a computer.

Conclusions:
(I) No laptop is a computer.
(II) Some computers are desktops.
Ans 1. Both conclusion I and II follow

2. Only conclusion II follows

3. Only conclusion I follows

4. Neither conclusion I nor II follows

Q.17 In a code language, 'XCMY' is coded as ‘AHPD’ and 'PGVK' is coded as ‘SLYP’. How will 'JOCH' be coded in that language?
Ans 1. PSDN

2. NRFK

3. MTFM

4. LTDL

Q.18 11 is related to 57 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 14 is related to 72. To which of the following is
17 related, following the same logic?
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their
constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying to 13 can be performed.
Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans 1. 89

2. 85

3. 83

4. 87

Q.19

Ans

4.
Q.20 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?

TQQ, PRM, LSI, HTE, ?

Ans 1. DUA

2. EUB

3. DUB

4. EUA

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 Which state in India has the highest population density as per the 2011 census?
Ans 1. Tamil Nadu

2. Uttar Pradesh

3. West Bengal

4. Bihar

Q.2 Who among the following started the Khilafat Movement against the British government?
Ans 1. Syed Nabiullah and MA Ansari

2. Shaukat Ali and Mohammad Ali

3. Syed Raza Ali and Muhammad Ali Jinnah

4. Maulana Mazharul Haque and Mian Abdul Aziz

Q.3 Which of the following country’s official language is Sinhala?

Ans 1. Maldives

2. Sri Lanka

3. Myanmar

4. Nepal

Q.4 Who among the following Dance Gurus got Padma Vibhushan in the year 2000?
Ans 1. Ileana Citarist

2. Kelucharan Mohapatra

3. Bipin Singh

4. Birju Maharaj

Q.5 Who among the following authors wrote ‘Kamayani’, ‘Dhruvswamini’, ‘Kankal’, ‘Titli’, ‘Skandagupta’, ‘Lahar’ and ‘Mamta’?
Ans 1. Jaishankar Prasad

2. Suryakant Tripathi Nirala

3. Bhisham Sahni

4. Krishna Sobti

Q.6 There shall be a/an ________ with the Prime Minister at the head to aid and advise the President in the exercise of his
functions.
Ans 1. Council of Ministers

2. Attorney General for India

3. Parliament

4. Council of States

Q.7 Which of the following statements is correct?

Ans 1. Chlorine has the highest electron affinity, while fluorine has the highest electronegativity.

2. Fluorine has the highest electron affinity, while chlorine has the highest electronegativity.

3. Fluorine has the highest electron affinity and the highest electronegativity.

4. Fluorine has the highest electron affinity, while bromine has the highest electronegativity.

Q.8 In which game are terms like break, cannons, cue, potting, and kissed commonly used?
Ans 1. Golf

2. Polo

3. Billiards

4. Chess

Q.9 Who was sent as an envoy to China during the time of Muhammad bin Tughluq?
Ans 1. Ziauddin Barani

2. Al-Biruni

3. Hasan Nizami

4. Ibn Battuta

Q.10 Who has been appointed as the 'UPI Safety Ambassador' by the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) to enhance
safety awareness on digital payment platforms in November 2023?
Ans 1. Taapsee Pannu

2. Ayushmann Khurrana

3. Pankaj Tripathi

4. Rajkummar Rao
Q.11 Which Indian city hosted the Women's Asian Hockey Champions Trophy event in 2023?
Ans 1. Ranchi

2. Bhubaneshwar

3. Bhopal

4. New Delhi

Q.12 Who is known to have revived Bharatnatyam dance form in its modern version today?
Ans 1. Mallika Sarabhai

2. Rukmini Devi

3. T Balasaraswati

4. Yamini Krishnamurthy

Q.13 Megasthenes was an ambassador who was sent to the court of which Indian ruler by the Greek ruler, Seleucus Nicator?
Ans 1. Ashoka

2. Chandragupta

3. Bindusara

4. Pushyamitra Shunga

Q.14 Who among the following founded the Servants of India Society in 1905 with the help of MG Ranade?
Ans 1. Gopal Krishna Gokhale

2. Mahatma Gandhi

3. Bal Gangadhar Tilak

4. Jawaharlal Nehru

Q.15 On 25 August 2023, which State Government expanded its ongoing 'Breakfast Scheme' for students of
classes 1 to 5, studying in 31,008 government schools across the State?
Ans 1. Jharkhand

2. Tamil Nadu

3. Karnataka

4. Goa

Q.16 Which chemical compound is commonly utilised as a preservative in tomato sauce?

Ans 1. Green Tea Extract

2. Carnosic Acid

3. Vinegar

4. Sodium Benzoate

Q.17 The Guindy National Park is located in which state?

Ans 1. Rajasthan

2. Tamil Nadu

3. Madhya Pradesh

4. Maharashtra

Q.18 In which Indian state do we find caves named after elephant statues found in it?
Ans 1. Rajasthan

2. Karnataka

3. Maharashtra

4. Odisha

Q.19 Which country was a major importer of dye intermediates and castor oils from India in 2022-23?
Ans 1. Japan

2. Belgium

3. China

4. Brazil

Q.20 The Krebs cycle of aerobic respiration is carried out within which of the following cell organelles?
Ans 1. Lysosome

2. Spirogyra

3. Nucleus

4. Mitochondria

Q.21 When the pH value of soils is more than 7.5, they are considered to be:
Ans 1. slightly acidic soils

2. alkaline soils

3. strongly acidic soils

4. neutral soils

Q.22 The cultural sport of Maharashtra, 'dahi-handi' is associated with which festival?
Ans 1. Krishna Janmashtami

2. Ramanavmi

3. Holi

4. Ganesh Chaturthi
Q.23 Which of the following dance performances begins with the Kelikottu?
Ans 1. Kathakali

2. Odissi

3. Kathak

4. Bharatanatyam

Q.24 The budget of the central government is known as the ______.

Ans 1. union budget

2. annual exposed budget

3. state budget

4. revised budget

Q.25 What writ means ‘We Command’?

Ans 1. Certiorari

2. Habeas Corpus

3. Mandamus

4. Prohibition

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the highlighted group of words in the given sentence.

We went to Bowbazaar in Kolkata to see the buildings for the lodging and accommodation of soldiers.
Ans 1. barracks

2. paddocks

3. hostels

4. mints

Q.2 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

The company decided / to phase up its / outdated technology / and embrace innovation.
Ans 1. and embrace innovation.

2. The company decided

3. outdated technology

4. to phase up its

Q.3 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Fabricate
Ans 1. Construct

2. Garments

3. Fascinate

4. Floral

Q.4 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Fantastic
Ans 1. Fanciful

2. Practical

3. Graceful

4. Delicate

Q.5 Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word in the following sentence.
You must adhere to the rules of this place.
Ans 1. Comply

2. Strict

3. Remember

4. Aware

Q.6 Select the most appropriate adjective to fill in the blank.

After coming from a long journey he said, “It feels so _________ to be home”.
Ans 1. better

2. good

3. much good

4. best

Q.7 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.
A word, number , or other figure that looks the same when viewed (or rotated) upside down .
Ans 1. Anadiplosis

2. Alliteration

3. Anagram

4. Ambigram

Q.8 Select the option that will improve the underlined part of the given sentence.

The sports teacher saw across the game and punished the students who were cheating in the game.
Ans 1. underneath

2. through

3. beside

4. beneath
Q.9 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word…
Ans 1. Vigilante

2. Masquerade

3. Squadroun

4. Caricature

Q.10 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Piquant
Ans 1. Bitter

2. Bland

3. Delicious

4. Delectable

Q.11 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans 1. Choronology

2. Competent

3. Soliloquy

4. Protein

Q.12 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains an error in the usage of
indefinite articles.
We have invited / our friends / for a / dinner.
Ans 1. dinner

2. We have invited

3. our friends

4. for a

Q.13 Select the idiom that can substitute the bracketed word segment correctly and complete the given sentence meaningfully.
The negotiations reached a point where both parties had to (confront the consequences of their actions) and make tough
decisions.
Ans 1. face the music

2. break a leg

3. cut corners

4. get cold feet

Q.14 Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. Select the option that contains a grammatical error.
If you don’t find any error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer.

Mohan is still confused about his higher studies.

Ans 1. No error

2. Mohan is still

3. his higher studies

4. confused about

Q.15 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word..

Ans 1. Postuer

2. Gesture

3. Culture

4. Lecture

Q.16 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom in the given sentence.
My old car was pressed into service as an emergency vehicle for my ailing grandmother.
Ans 1. Cared for by old people

2. Asking for special maintenance

3. To use for a particular purpose when a special need occurs.

4. Used to take someone to the hospital

Q.17 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

Ramya would gladly help Manya if you had asked her.

Ans 1. is to gladly help

2. will gladly help

3. was to have gladly helped

4. would have gladly helped

Q.18 Select the grammatically correct sentence from the given options.
Ans 1. The hard disc of a computer on a desk needs to be repaired at the earliest.

2. A hard disc of the computer on the desk needs to be repaired at the earliest.

3. The hard disc of the computer on the desk needs to be repaired at the earliest.

4. The hard disc of a computer on the desk needs to be repaired at an earliest.

Q.19 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Gregarious
Ans 1. Sociable

2. Isolated

3. Introverted

4. Reserved
Q.20 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
The manager had / thrown up the / drunk people sitting / inside his office premises.
Ans 1. drunk people sitting

2. inside his office premises

3. thrown up the

4. The manager had

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

Man, it would seem, has (1)______ from arboreal apes. They lived a happy life in tropical forests, eating coconuts when they were
hungry, and throwing them at each other when they were not. They were (2)______ occupied in gymnastics and acquired an
(3)______ which to us is truly (4)______. But after some millions of years of this arboreal paradise, their numbers increased to the
point where the supply of coconuts was no longer (5)________.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans 1. descended

2. ascended

3. recommended

4. extended

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans 1. perpetually

2. professionally

3. bisectionally

4. conspiratorially

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans 1. civility

2. density

3. agility

4. variability

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans 1. disappointing

2. boring

3. astonishing

4. frightening

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans 1. deficient

2. delicate

3. adequate

4. consecrate
Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 04/11/2024
Exam
9:00 AM - 11:00 AM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹2000 as a sum borrowed at 8% per year rate of interest for 4 years.
Ans 1. 680

2. 580

3. 600

4. 640

Q.2 The average of nine numbers is 6. When three new numbers are included, the average of the twelve numbers becomes 7.5.
The average of three new numbers is:
Ans 1. 12

2. 12.5

3. 11.5

4. 8

Q.3 How many seconds does Tiwari take to cover a distance of 600 m if he runs at a speed of 10 km/h?
Ans 1. 212

2. 200

3. 216

4. 205

Q.4
For what sum will the simple interest at per annum be 210 in years?

Ans 1. ₹2,400

2. ₹1,980

3. ₹2,250

4. ₹1,600

Q.5 A shopkeeper offered following four different discount schemes for buyers on an item.
A. Two successive discounts of 8%.
B. A discount of 11% followed by a discount of 5%.
C. Successive discounts of 13% and 3%
D. A discount of 16%.
Which discount scheme should be opted for getting the item at minimum price?
Ans 1. C

2. B

3. D

4. A
Q.6

Ans 1. 67.10%

2. 60.71%

3. 61.71%

4. 50.71%

Q.7 The average weight of a family of five members (in kg) whose weights are 40 kg, 49 kg, 56 kg, 66 kg and 39 kg is:
Ans 1. 52

2. 51

3. 50

4. 49

Q.8 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹3500 as a sum borrowed at 5% per year rate of interest for 4 years.
Ans 1. 740

2. 660

3. 700

4. 640
Q.9 Ramesh sold a watch to Rahul at a gain of 10%, and Rahul sold it to Arun at a loss of 10%. If Arun paid ₹1,800 to Rahul, then
for how much did Ramesh sell it to Rahul?
Ans 1. ₹3,000

2. ₹3,500

3. ₹2,000

4. ₹2,500

Q.10 The salary of T in January, February and March is ₹15,000 per month. His salary in July, August, September, October,
November and December is ₹30,000 per month. His average salary per month for the year is ₹27,000. What is his salary (in ₹)
in April, May and June per month?
Ans 1. 28000

2. 31000

3. 25000

4. 33000

Q.11 The rate of nickel plating on a metal is ₹50 / m2. If the cost of nickel plating on a curved surface area of a solid hemisphere is
₹600, find the cost of nickel coating on the total surface area of this hemisphere.
Ans 1. ₹900

2. ₹800

3. ₹700

4. ₹1,000

Q.12 A person has to cover a distance of 8 km in 1 hour. If he covers one-fourth of the distance in one-third of the total time, then
what should his speed (in km/h) be to cover the remaining distance in the remaining time so that the person reaches the
destination exactly on time?
Ans 1. 8

2. 6

3. 9

4. 7

Q.13

Ans
1.

Q.14 The perimeter of a rhombus is 68 cm and one of its diagonals is 30 cm. Its area is:
Ans 1. 240 cm2

2. 245 cm2

3. 250 cm2

4. 230 cm2

Q.15 Riya sold two packets of detergent at ₹96 each. On one packet she gains 20% and on the other, she loses 20%. The net gain
or loss in the complete process is:
Ans 1.

4.
Q.16 A conical tent of height 8 m and radius 15 m is to be built in a tracking camp. How much area of cloth is needed?
Ans 1.

Q.17 A shopkeeper claims that he sells rock salt at ₹23 per kg, which costs him ₹25 per kg. But he gives 800 g instead of 1,000 g.
What is his percentage profit or loss?
Ans 1. Loss of 3%

2. Profit of 8%

3. Profit of 15%

4. Loss of 5%

Q.18

Ans 1. 2

2. 3

3. 5

4. 4

Q.19 The average weight of a family of five members (in kg) whose weights are 40 kg, 49 kg, 56 kg, 67 kg and 35 kg is:
Ans 1. 48.4

2. 51.4

3. 49.4

4. 50.4

Q.20 The ratio of the number of boys to that of girls in a school is 7 : 9. If the number of girls in the school is 189, then the
number of boys in that school is:
Ans 1. 126

2. 147

3. 105

4. 168

Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1 Select the figure from the given options that when put in place of the question mark (?) will logically complete the series.

Ans

Q.2 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans
1.

4.
Q.3 Select the option figure in which the given figure is embedded as its part (rotation is NOT allowed).

Ans

Q.4 According to a code language, 256 means ‘they are nice’, 637 means ‘we are rude’ and 358 means ‘rude and nice’. What is
the code for ‘nice’ in the same code language?
Ans 1. 5

2. 8

3. 7

4. 3

Q.5 WN 22 is related to AR 29 in a certain way. In the same way, MD 19 is related to QH 26. To which of the following is EV 35
related following the same logic?
Ans 1. ZI 42

2. DK 42

3. IZ 42

4. KD 42
Q.6 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.
(7, 40, 9 )
(9,71, 10)
(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /deleting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans 1. (11, 106, 5)

2. (5, 12, 18)

3. (13, 150, 19)

4. (8, 49, 12)

Q.7 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are
interchanged?
56 – 14 × 7 ÷ 22 + 63 = ?
Ans 1. 37

2. 13

3. 63

4. 35

Q.8 In a certain code language, ‘eat your food’ is written as ‘wb hs lg’ and ‘food is tasty’ is writtenas ‘sw lj hs’. How is ‘food’
writtenin the given language?
Ans 1. sw

2. hs

3. lg

4. li

Q.9 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?

XDZ, THV, PLR, ?, HTJ

Ans 1. LPO

2. KPO

3. LPN

4. MPN
Q.10 Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series and complete
the pattern.

Ans

Q.11 KGNI is related to LHOJ in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, GCJE is related to HDKF.
To which of the following is OKRM related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. LPNS

2. PLSN

3. PLNS

4. LPSN

Q.12 In a certain code language, 'N E W S ' is coded as '2 @ 3 #' and 'D E W S' is coded as '4 @ 3 #". What is the code for 'D' in
that language?
Ans 1. 3

2. @

3. 2

4. 4

Q.13

Ans 1.

4.
Q.14 Seven people C, H, A, P, T, E and R are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same
order). T is sitting to the immediate right of E and to the immediate left of R. Only one person is sitting between E and C
when counted from the left of E. Only one person is sitting between R and H when counted from the right of R. Who is
sitting to the immediate left of C?
Ans 1. A

2. P

3. H

4. E

Q.15 Seven people A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table, facing away from the centre (but not necessarily in
the same order). Exactly three people are sitting between E and B when counted from the right of E. C is sitting second to
the left of B. A is sitting to the immediate right of D. E and F are not neighbours. How many people are sitting between C and
A when counted from the right of C?
Ans 1. 3

2. 4

3. 2

4. 1

Q.16 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

483 502 521 540 559 ?

Ans 1. 562

2. 586

3. 573

4. 578

Statements:
All trees are branches.
Some branches are leaves.

Conclusions:
(I) All leaves are branches.
(II) All leave are trees.
Ans 1. Only conclusion (II) follows.

2. Only conclusion (I) follows.

3. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows

4. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow

Q.18 Read the given statement(s) and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even
if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statement(s).

Statements:
All laptops are speakers.
Some laptops are desktops.

Conclusions:
(I) Some speakers are desktops.
(II) Some desktops are not laptops.
Ans 1. Neither conclusion I nor II follows.

2. Only conclusion II follows.

3. Only conclusion I follows.

4. Both conclusions I and II follow.

Q.19 Select the correct combination of mathematical signs that can sequentially replace the * signs and balance the given
equation.
12 * 3 * 4 = 6 * 8 * 8
Ans 1. +, ×, −, +

2. ×, −, ×, +

3. ×, +, −, ×

4. ×, +, ×, −

Q.20 9 is related to 83 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 13 is related to 171. To which ofthe following is 15
related, following the same logic?(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbersinto its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13can be
performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1and 3 is not allowed)
Ans 1. 231

2. 227

3. 235

4. 225

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 To which position in the Mughal administration under Akbar does Diwan-i-Ala refer?
Ans 1. Defence Minister

2. Finance Minister

3. Court Writer

4. Prime Minister

Q.2 According to Census 2011 of India, which Indian state has the highest urban population percentage?
Ans 1. Maharashtra

2. Goa

3. Kerala

4. Mizoram

Q.3 When did the Hockey wizard Major Dhyan Chand make his Olympic debut?
Ans 1. 1924, Paris

2. 1936, Berlin

3. 1932, Los Angeles

4. 1928, Amsterdam

Q.4 In the Vedic period, education was begun with which of the following?
Ans 1. Niyoga

2. Vanaprastha

3. Upanayana

4. Grihastha

Q.5 The memoir of which of the following actors is titled ‘Unfinished’?

Ans 1. Deepika Padukone

2. Katrina Kaif

3. Priyanka Chopra

4. Alia Bhatt
Q.6 The space-filling model emphasises the relative size of each atom based on its _______.
Ans 1. fixed radius for all atoms

2. covalent radius

3. van der Waals radius

4. ionic radius

Q.7 What is the primary objective of Microfinance Institutions (MFIs) in India?

Ans 1. To fund government projects

2. To provide financial services to large corporations

3. To generate profits for shareholders

4. To offer financial assistance and services to low-income individuals and entrepreneurs

Q.8 ‘Doabs’ are found in which physical feature of India?

Ans 1. The Coastal Plains

2. The Himalayan Mountains

3. The Peninsular Plateau

4. The Northern Plains

Q.9 Which of the following Harappan cities was found without a citadel?
Ans 1. Banawali

2. Kalibangan

3. Chanhudaro

4. Lothal

Q.10 A person with a very low count of red blood cells is medically known to have _______.
Ans 1. Jaundice

2. Scurvy

3. Anaemia

4. Goitre

Q.11 Australia won the Men’s T20 World Cup Cricket in 2021 defeating New Zealand by ______.
Ans 1. 8 wickets

2. 10 runs

3. 8 runs

4. 10 wickets

Q.12 The Republic Day parade is held every year at Kartavya Path, in which of the following cities?
Ans 1. Jaipur

2. Dispur

3. Bangalore

4. New Delhi

Q.13 With which Kathak gharana was Pandit Janki Prasad affiliated?
Ans 1. Lucknow

2. Benaras

3. Jaipur

4. Rajgarh
Q.14 Sitara Devi was a classical dancer of India who used to perform _____________.
Ans 1. Kathakali

2. Kathak

3. Odissi

4. Sattriya

Q.15 Water from melting snow or rainfall or the spring drains downwards through an area of land and finally gets mixed into a
large water body like river or ocean. This area of land is called:
Ans 1. Estuary

2. Bay

3. Delta

4. Drainage Basin

Q.16 Which of the following Acts was the first intervention by the British government in the East India Company’s territorial
affairs?
Ans 1. The Pitt’s India Act, 1784

2. The Charter Act of 1793

3. The Charter Act of 1813

4. The Regulating Act, 1773

Q.17 Who among the following is appointed as the chairman of the 16th Finance Commission?
Ans 1. Dr Vijay Kelkar

2. Arvind Panagariya

3. NK Singh

4. YV Reddy

Q.18 What is the year of foundation of the Women’s Indian Association (WIA)?
Ans 1. 1927

2. 1917

3. 1937

4. 1907

Q.19 In which of the following groups of States and Union Territories is ‘slash and burn’ agriculture known as ‘Dipa’?
Ans 1. Odisha and Puducherry

2. Chhattisgarh and Lakshadweep

3. Rajasthan and Andaman & Nicobar Islands

4. Chhattisgarh and Andaman & Nicobar Islands

Q.20 Mukhya Mantri Sikho Kamao Yojana was launched by which of these state governments?
Ans 1. Uttar Pradesh

2. Gujarat

3. Maharashtra

4. Madhya Pradesh

Q.21 What is the term for the maximum population size that an environment can sustain indefinitely?
Ans 1. Ecological niche

2. Biotic potential

3. Pioneer species

4. Carrying capacity
Q.22 In which neighbouring country of India is the Haa Summer Festival celebrated?
Ans 1. Bhutan

2. Maldives

3. Sri Lanka

4. Afghanistan

Q.23 On 16 February 2023, who was sworn in as the new Governor of Sikkim at Raj Bhawan, Gangtok?
Ans 1. Pawan Chamling

2. Lakshman Prasad Acharya

3. Shriniwas Dadasaheb Patil

4. Ganga Prasad

Q.24 The Indian Constitution originally consisted of how many Articles?

Ans 1. 345

2. 595

3. 495

4. 395

Q.25 Which dance guru of Kuchipudi dance got Padma Bhushan in 1998?
Ans 1. Guru Kelucharan Mohapatra

2. Guru Vempati Chinna Satyam

3. Shobana Chandrakumar Pilai

4. Sonal Mansingh

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

She asked if he could recount a moment when he felt completely serene.

Ans 1. turbulent

2. hilarious

3. pacific

4. derogatory

Q.2 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to
substitute it, select ‘No substitution required’.

Mohit have appreciated Riya for her hard work.

Ans 1. have appreciates

2. had appreciating

3. has appreciated

4. No substitution required

Q.3 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Stories are how we make ______________________ of our lives and of the world.

Ans 1. sagacious

2. sense

3. sensitivity

4. innate
Q.4 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Fondness
Ans 1. Dislike

2. Mistake

3. Brilliance

4. Liking

Q.5 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
Although experts are worried / that retail inflation is rising / at a steep rate, / the crisis will soon blow away.
Ans 1. the crisis will soon blow away

2. that retail inflation is rising

3. at a steep rate

4. Although experts are worried

Q.6 Select the most appropriate ANOTNYM of the word 'zest' in the given sentence.

The peppy and energetic music of the DJ was able to remove the passivity and dullness present in the party.
Ans 1. peppy

2. dullness

3. energetic

4. remove

Q.7 Select the option that rectifies the spelling error of the underlined word.

The historic cathedrel stood as a symbol of faith and architectural marvel, drawing visitors from around the world.
Ans 1. cathedral

2. cathidral

3. cathidrel

4. cathedril

Q.8 Select the most appropriate synonym of the word given in brackets to fill in the blank.

In the absence of her parents, the little girl felt ________ (lonely).
Ans 1. collectively

2. alone

3. sociable

4. crowded

Q.9 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the highlighted word.

Sonali uses a soft mattress to sleep.

Ans 1. cushiony

2. spongy

3. flabby

4. hard

Q.10 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans 1. Creative

2. Search

3. Multiple

4. Revaeled
Q.11 Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. Select the option that contains an error.

Much of the beauty and glory of life have disappeared.

Ans 1. of life

2. beauty and glory

3. Much of the

4. have disappeared.

Q.12 Select the most appropriate adjective to fill in the blank.

Among the three little cats, the first was __________ and the second was smaller.
Ans 1. most smallest

2. small

3. more small

4. most small

Q.13 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

A room for cleaning and storing dishes and cooking utensils and for doing messy kitchen work.
Ans 1. Sanatorium

2. Scullery

3. Dormitory

4. Overlay

Q.14 Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. Select the option that contains an error.
This is one of best movies I have ever seen.
Ans 1. movies

2. one of best

3. I have ever seen

4. This is

Q.15 Rectify the sentence by selecting the correct spelling from the options.

While threatening the integrity of Universal values, the campaign to spread democracy will not suceed.
Ans 1. Suucced

2. Succsed

3. Succeed

4. Sucseed

Q.16 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

He is the friendly man in the group.

Ans 1. most friendly

2. friendlier

3. friendliest

4. more friendly

Q.17 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Baker's Dozen
Ans 1. A pile of bread

2. Choosing quality over quantity

3. One unit extra with one dozen

4. When shopkeepers put something extra

Q.18 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

Departing or having departed from a country to settle elsewhere

Ans 1. Native

2. Immigrant

3. Excommunicate

4. Emigrant

Q.19 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Despite facing numerous challenges, the team successfully _________________ the project ahead of schedule.

Ans 1. completed

2. has been completed

3. will be completed

4. had completed

Q.20 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Catch someone’s eye

Ans 1. To surprise someone with unexpected behaviour

2. To attract someone's attention or to be noticed by them

3. To irritate or annoy someone intentionally

4. To physically capture someone's gaze and hold it, making them unable to look away

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
The (1)______ life in Kashmir was drawing to its end after three (2)______ months. Miss Joan was leaving a week earlier than Mrs.
Rhodes, and about two days before she left, I took her alone to the hotel for dinner. We walked to the hotel in (3)______ silence, a
silence so heavy that I could (4)______ breathe. The hotel seemed to be far away and yet not far (5)______.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.=
Ans 1. biquadratic

2. tonetic

3. mucolytic

4. romantic

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.=
Ans 1. jealous

2. analogous

3. anonymous

4. glorious
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
The (1)______ life in Kashmir was drawing to its end after three (2)______ months. Miss Joan was leaving a week earlier than Mrs.
Rhodes, and about two days before she left, I took her alone to the hotel for dinner. We walked to the hotel in (3)______ silence, a
silence so heavy that I could (4)______ breathe. The hotel seemed to be far away and yet not far (5)______.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.=
Ans 1. slack

2. perfect

3. direct

4. select

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.=
Ans 1. gladly

2. loudly

3. gradually

4. hardly

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.=
Ans 1. thorough

2. enough

3. overweigh

4. clough
Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 04/11/2024
Exam
12:30 PM - 2:30 PM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 If a sum doubles itself on certain rate of simple interest in 10 years, then at the same rate of interest, the sum will become 4
times itself in:
Ans 1. 30 years

2. 40 years

3. 20 years

4. 25 years

Q.2 Sandeep sold an overcoat for ₹8,784 and made a profit of 22%. Determine the original cost of the overcoat.
Ans 1.

Q.3 During the first year, the population of a village increased by 5%, and during the second year, it reduced by 6%. At the end of
the second year, its population was 35,532. What was the population at the beginning of the first year?
Ans 1. 36,000

2. 38,000

3. 37,568

4. 34,567

Q.4 The outer circumference of the top of a large hemispherical iron bowl is 565.2 cm and the bowl is y cm thick. If the total
surface area of the bowl is 98,988.5 cm2, then what is the value of y? (Use π = 3.14.)
Ans 1. 3.5

2. 6

3. 5

4. 4

Q.5 In a school, class 11th has three sections A, B and C. There are 30 students in Section A, 36 students in Section B, and 40
students in Section C. The average marks scored by the students in Section A, Section B and Section C in the Mathematics
annual exam are 90, 85 and 70, respectively. Find the average marks scored by the whole class, correct to two places of
decimals.
Ans 1. 58.07

2. 80.57

3. 80.75

4. 58.70
Q.6 A car’s radiator should contain a solution of 52% antifreeze. A motorist has 8 litres of 40% antifreeze. How many litres
(rounded off to 2 decimal places) of 95% antifreeze liquid should he add to his solution to produce a 52% antifreeze?
Ans 1. 4.26

2. 3.45

3. 2.23

4. 1.92

Q.7

Ans 1. 50 cm2

2. 450 cm2

3. 264 cm2

4. 350 cm2

Q.8 A man on a tour travels first 120 km at 48 km/h and the next 120 km at 80 km/h. The average speed for the first 240 km of the
tour is:
Ans 1. 64 km/h

2. 72 km/h

3. 66 km/h

4. 60 km/h

Q.9 The average weight of a family of five members (in kg) whose weights are 40 kg, 49 kg, 56 kg, 69 kg and 35 kg is:
Ans 1. 51.8

2. 49.8

3. 48.8

4. 50.8

Q.10 Determine the smallest number which when divided by 20, 15 and 30 leaves remainder 6 in each case.
Ans 1. 56

2. 66

3. 96

4. 36

Q.11 A dishonest merchant sells his grocery using weights that are 15% less than the true weights and makes a profit of 20%.
Find his total gain percentage.
Ans 1.

Q.12 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹3000 as a sum borrowed at 5% per year rate of interest for 3 years.
Ans 1. 490

2. 410

3. 450

4. 390
Q.13 The graph shows the number of students who appeared and passed in class XII final exams in a school in different years.

In which year is the percentage of students passed with respect to students appeared the highest?
Ans 1. 2022

2. 2019

3. 2020

4. 2021

Q.14 A shopkeeper mixes three types of seeds worth ₹240, ₹258 and ₹252 in 3 : 1 : 2. Average cost of the mixture is:
Ans 1. ₹245

2. ₹247

3. ₹248

4. ₹246

Q.15

Ans 1. 21

2. 18

3. 42

4. 12

Q.16 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹3000 as a sum borrowed at 3% per year rate of interest for 5 years.
Ans 1. 390

2. 410

3. 450

4. 490
Q.17 The table given below shows the marks obtained by five students in 4 different subjects. Maximum marks for each subject is
100.

What is the average of total marks obtained by all five students in subject V?
Ans 1. 65.3

2. 72.7

3. 69.2

4. 68.8

Q.18 The resistance of a wire is directly proportional to its length and inversely proportional to the square of its radius. Two wires
of the same material have the same resistance and their radii are in the ratio of 7 : 8. The corresponding lengths of the wires
are 147 cm and L cm, respectively. Find the value of L.
Ans 1. 158

2. 192

3. 168

4. 128

Q.19 A trader gains 44% after selling an item at 25% discount on the printed price. What is the ratio of the cost price and the
printed price of the item?

Ans 1. 48 : 35

2. 25 : 48

3. 35 : 48

4. 48 : 25

Q.20 A cyclist covers a distance of 2.5 km in 4 minutes 10 seconds. How long will he take to cover a distance of 12 km at the
same speed?
Ans 1. 12 minutes

2. 20 minutes

3. 11 minutes

4. 10 minutes

Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1 11 is related to 106 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 15 is related to 146. To which of the following is 19
related following the same logic?

2. 178

3. 186

4. 177
Q.2 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans
1.

Q.3 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order ?

DBF, HFJ, LJN, PNR, ?

Ans 1. QOS

2. SQU

3. TRV

4. FDH

Q.4 What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘×’ are interchanged and ‘÷’ and ‘−’
are interchanged?
35 ÷ 4 + 6 − 3 × 12 = ?
Ans 1. 39

2. 35

3. 28

4. 29

Q.5 In a code language, 'STATION' is coded as '18' and 'JOURNALS' is coded as '20'. How will 'GOLDMEDAL' be coded in the
same language?
Ans 1. 72

2. 28

3. 22

4. 44

Q.6 What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘+’ and ‘–’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’
are interchanged?
12 × 3 – 5 ÷ 4 + 11 = ?
Ans 1. 14

2. 13

3. 11

4. 12
Q.7 Select the figure that will come next in the following figure series.

Ans

4.
Q.8 Select the option in which the given figure is embedded (rotation is NOT allowed).

Ans

4.
Q.9

Ans

Q.10 In a certain code language, ‘SNOW’ is written as ‘7358’ and ‘BLEW’ is written as ‘1293’. How is ‘W’ coded in the given
language?
Ans 1. 8

2. 1

3. 9

4. 3

Q.11

Ans 1.

Q.12 In a certain code language, ‘system is backbone’ is written as ‘sdf wer tce’ and ‘backbone is you’ is coded as ‘tce kpo wer’.
What is the meaning of the code ‘sdf’ in the given language?
Ans 1. you

2. system

3. is

4. backbone
Q.13 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

41, 48, 55, 62, 69, ?

Ans 1. 75

2. 77

3. 76

4. 74

Statements:
All bags are duffles.
All duffles are containers.

Conclusions:
(I) Some containers are duffles.
(II) All bags are containers.
Ans 1. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

2. Only conclusion (I) follows.

3. Only conclusion (II) follows.

4. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

Q.15 BMGC is related to GRDZ in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, LWAW is related to
QBXT. To which of the following is VGUQ related, following the same logic?

Ans 1. ALRN

2. BKRO

3. ZKSM

4. BMQN

Q.16 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the given sets.
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

(284, 238)
(271, 225)
Ans 1. (212, 166)

2. (252, 196)

3. (297, 246)

4. (185, 135)

Q.17 A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order). Only 3
people sit between C and E when counted from the right of C. Only 1 person sits between E and G when counted from the
left of E. F sits immediate to the left of D. Only 2 people sit between B and F when counted from the left of B. How many
people sit between G and B when counted from the left of G?
Ans 1. 1

2. 3

3. 4

4. 0
Q.18 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts,decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements:
All roses are lilies.
No rose is a sunflower.
Conclusions:
(I) All lilies are roses.
(II) No lily is a sunflower.
Ans 1. Only conclusion I follows

2. Both conclusions I and II follow

3. Only conclusion II follows

4. Neither conclusion I nor II follows

Q.19 MK14 is related to QO19 in a certain way. In the same way, XV31 is related to BZ36. To which of the following is RP52 related,
following the same logic?
Ans 1. ED43

2. VT57

3. RT90

4. ST58

Q.20 E, F, G, H, L, K, and M are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order). K sits to
the immediate left of F. Only two people sit between K and L when counted from the left of K. Only two people sit between M
and E when counted from the right of E. E sits to the immediate right of H. H is not an immediate neighbour of F. Who is
sitting to the immediate right of G?
Ans 1. H

2. M

3. F

4. L

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 How many central banks can a country have?

Ans 1. Two

2. One

3. Four

4. Three

Q.2 The Uttarakhand Public Services (Horizontal Reservation for Women) Bill, 2022 provides how much reservation to women?
Ans 1. 30%

2. 20%

3. 45%

4. 25%

Q.3 Which virus is responsible for causing common cold?

Ans 1. Rhinovirus

2. Coronavirus

3. Hepatitis A

4. Influenza
Q.4 Akbar’s first expedition towards Deccan was sent to Ahmednagar under the leadership of Prince Murad and
_______________.
Ans 1. Man Singh

2. Adham Khan

3. Birbal

4. Abdul Rahim Khan-i-Khanan

Q.5 Which Rigvedic God is considered an intermediary between God and men?
Ans 1. Yama

2. Agni

3. Varuna

4. Indra

Q.6 What is the rate of movement of tectonic plate boundaries?

Ans 1. 2-5 km per year

2. 1-2 inch per year

3. 1-2 m per year

4. 1-2 mm per year

Q.7 Theravada is known as the official religion of which of the following neighbouring countries of India?
Ans 1. Afghanistan

2. Sri Lanka

3. Pakistan

4. Bangladesh

Q.8 Which element is known for having the highest electronegativity on the periodic table?
Ans 1. Carbon

2. Fluorine

3. Hydrogen

4. Oxygen

Q.9 Padma Subramanyam, Alarmel Valli, Yamini Krishnamurthy and Anita Ratnam are distinguished practitioners of
____________.
Ans 1. Kathak

2. Odissi

3. Bharatanatyam

4. Kuchipudi

Q.10 What does the term 'deuce' signify in tennis?

Ans 1. A tied score at 40-40

2. A fault in serving

3. The final point in a game

4. A let

Q.11 After the decisive battle of Plassey of 1757, who among the following was declared as the Nawab of Bengal by the British?
Ans 1. Mir Qasim

2. Murshid Quli Khan

3. Mir Jafar Ali Khan

4. Mansur Ali Khan

Q.12 As per the Census 1951, the female literacy rate in India was:
Ans
1.

Q.13 Which of the following dance awards is organised by the National Institute of Indian Classical Dance?
Ans 1. Sanatan Sangeet Sanskriti

2. Bharata Shastra Nritya Praveena

3. Natya Shiromani National

4. Abhinandan Saroja

Q.14 In the year 1930, the Salt Satyagraha was led by who among the following?
Ans 1. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

2. Subhas Chandra Bose

3. Jawaharlal Nehru

4. Mahatma Gandhi

Q.15 In which state is the Kaiga Nuclear Power Project located?

Ans 1. Assam

2. Gujarat

3. Karnataka

4. Bihar

Q.16 Which of the following Biosphere reserves is located in Uttarakhand?

Ans 1. Nanda Devi

2. Nilgiri

3. Dihang-Dibang

4. Panchmarhi

Q.17 Which of the following countries won its 8th Men's Asian Cup cricket title in 2023?
Ans 1. Sri Lanka

2. Pakistan

3. Bangladesh

4. India

Q.18 A regal ceremony in the form of Beating Retreat ceremony on the evening of _____________ marks the end of Republic Day
celebrations.
Ans 1. 27th January

2. 28th January

3. 29th January

4. 26th January

Q.19 Ranjani Hebbar was associated with which of the following fields?
Ans 1. Folk music

2. Hindustani music

3. Bhajan

4. Carnatic music
Q.20 In which of the following years was the 11th Fundamental Duty added in the Indian Constitution through the 86th
Amendment Act?
Ans 1. 2002

2. 1982

3. 1986

4. 1976

Q.21 In February 2023, who was appointed as the CEO of NITI Aayog?
Ans 1. Monali Jaiswal

2. Iyer Parmeshwaran

3. Geetika Srivastava

4. BVR Subrahmanyam

Q.22 At which of the following places is the tomb of Sher Shah Suri situated?
Ans 1. Bargaon

2. Rajgir

3. Sasaram

4. Sultanpur

Q.23 Which of the following is written by Mulk Raj Anand?

Ans 1. The White Tiger

2. The Blue Umbrella

3. Untouchable

4. The Guide

Q.24 Which of the following is NOT mentioned in ‘Liberty’ as per the Preamble of the Indian Constitution?
Ans 1. Thought

2. Trust and hope

3. Faith and worship

4. Expression

Q.25 Based on the number of chambers in the heart, select the odd one from the following.
Ans 1. Chameleon

2. Turtle

3. Frog

4. Crocodile

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The humble surroundings of our company ______ creativity amongst the newly recruited employees.
Ans 1. inspired

2. connected

3. banished

4. filed

Q.2 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans 1. Ointment

2. Overview

3. Oblegation

4. Opponent
Q.3 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

The fresh air / in the garden relaxes / the minds of children as / the environment is cleaner.
Ans 1. the minds of children as

2. the environment is cleaner

3. The fresh air

4. in the garden relaxes

Q.4 Select the most appropriate word opposite in meaning (ANTONYM) to the underlined word in the given sentence.

Aunty Hema gave us her candid opinion on the skit we performed on Children’s Day.
Ans 1. prejudiced

2. strong

3. frank

4. intelligent

Q.5 Your sibling accidentally broke your favourite vase. Which of the following idioms might you use to tell them not to worry
about it?
Ans 1. "Bite the bullet!"

2. "Shallow brooks are noisy"

3. "Don’t cry over spilt milk!"

4. "You’re walking on air!"

Q.6 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Fetid
Ans 1. Fatal

2. Fatigued

3. False

4. Fragrant

Q.7 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Show
Ans 1. Display

2. Exhibit

3. Register

4. Cover

Q.8 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

He hardness ever / complains about / his workload because / he enjoys his job.
Ans 1. complains about

2. he enjoys his job

3. He hardness ever

4. his workload because

Q.9 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

A) Exaggerate
B) Accommodate
C) Exuberant
D) Perservere
Ans 1. D

2. B

3. A

4. C

Q.10 Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word in the given sentence.

I have a vague memory of meeting her many years ago.

Ans 1. Symbolic

2. Hazy

3. evident

4. pellucid

Q.11 Select the option that will improve the underlined part of the given sentence.

We agree that Professor Revanth is very knowledgeable, but we do not like attending his classes because he always keeps
blowing the trumpet .
Ans 1. the blow of a trumpet

2. sounding the trumpet

3. blowing his own trumpet

4. the sound of the trumpet

Q.12 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word in the given sentence.

The late secretary of our society was known for his ruthless treatment of all the security personnel of the society.
Ans 1. Compassionate

2. Startled

3. Brutal

4. Fragile

Q.13 Select the option that corrects the error in the given sentence.
She performed bad in the exam.
Ans 1. bad

2. goodly

3. badly

4. good

Q.14 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word in the given sentence.

Applicants who are younger and prettier than you will continue appliying.
Ans 1. prettier

2. applicants

3. younger

4. appliying
Q.15 Select the option that will correct the underlined part of the given sentence. In case no correction is required, select No
correction needed.

Naveen is as tall as Rocky.

Ans 1. the tallest

2. tall as

3. taller than

4. No correction needed

Q.16 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.
The act of talking to oneself, often audibly
Ans 1. Dialogue

2. Solitude

3. Monologue

4. Soliloquy

Q.17 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

How can someone / walk this farthest / just for / peace of mind?
Ans 1. just for

2. walk this farthest

3. peace of mind

4. How can someone

Q.18 Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. Select the option that contains an error.
An eucalyptus tree in my backyard acts as a landmark for many to reach my house.
Ans 1. An eucalyptus tree

2. acts as a landmark for many

3. to reach my house

4. in my backyard

Q.19 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The teacher asked us to _______ our essays for spelling and grammar errors.
Ans 1. advise

2. recognise

3. revolve

4. revise

Q.20 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

I dream of a country where even the least talented person has the ________ to earn a living.
Ans 1. priority

2. landmark

3. opportunity

4. admit
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
Students want (1)________ as the primary outcome of higher education. Hence, practical experience becomes (2)________ valuable
to a student’s degree. Indian students are highly (3)________ at theoretical learning but lack practical training. This (4)________ an
issue for decades in the Indian job market. In order to address this (5)________ issue, state governments have to take a lead. The AP
government in the past three years have made efforts to bridge this long-lasting gap between theoretical and practical learning of the
students.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank 1.
Ans 1. appoint

2. appointed

3. employability

4. employable

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
Students want (1)________ as the primary outcome of higher education. Hence, practical experience becomes (2)________ valuable
to a student’s degree. Indian students are highly (3)________ at theoretical learning but lack practical training. This (4)________ an
issue for decades in the Indian job market. In order to address this (5)________ issue, state governments have to take a lead. The AP
government in the past three years have made efforts to bridge this long-lasting gap between theoretical and practical learning of the
students.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank 2.
Ans 1. hardly

2. voicelessly

3. abruptly

4. equally

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank 3.
Ans 1. relaxed

2. spiritual

3. competitive

4. spirit

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank 4.
Ans 1. have been

2. will be

3. has been

4. is
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
Students want (1)________ as the primary outcome of higher education. Hence, practical experience becomes (2)________ valuable
to a student’s degree. Indian students are highly (3)________ at theoretical learning but lack practical training. This (4)________ an
issue for decades in the Indian job market. In order to address this (5)________ issue, state governments have to take a lead. The AP
government in the past three years have made efforts to bridge this long-lasting gap between theoretical and practical learning of the
students.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank 5.
Ans 1. insignificant

2. momentary

3. appetite

4. perennial
Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 04/11/2024
Exam
4:00 PM - 5:30 PM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 The demand and production for five businesses V, W, X, Y, and Z are shown in the accompanying chart, which illustrates
them using a basic bar graph to provide an answer.

The difference between average demand and average production of the four companies (V, W, X, Y) taken together, is:
Ans 1. 100

2. 75

3. 50

4. 125

Q.2 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹2500 as a sum borrowed at 6% per year rate of interest for 2 years.
Ans 1. 340

2. 260

3. 240

4. 300

Q.3

Ans
1.

4.
Q.4 Ram borrowed ₹20,000 at 6% per annum and ₹25,000 at 8% per annum, for the same duration. He had to pay ₹9,600 in all as
interest. What is the time period?
Ans 1. 5 years

2. 3 years

3. 4 years

4. 2 years

Q.5

Ans
1.

Q.6 If Mohan’s income is 20% less than Arvind’s income, then how much per cent is Arvind’s income more than Mohan’s
income?
Ans 1. 30%

2. 20%

3. 15%

4. 25%

Q.7 A train travelling at a speed of 36 km/h crosses a pole in 24 sec. What is the length of the train?
Ans 1. 1.5 m

2. 300 m

3. 240 m

4. 30 m

Q.8 The HCF and LCM of two numbers are 11 and 3465, respectively. If one of the two numbers is 693, what is the other number?
Ans 1. 315

2. 75

3. 55

4. 65

Q.9 A clothing store announces a discount scheme 'Buy one shirt and get 40% off on another shirt of the same price'. What is
the profit percentage of the store, given that each shirt has a cost price 60% below the marked price?
Ans 1. 60%

2. 120%

3. 100%

4. 80%
Q.10

Ans 1. 20.8

2. 24.8

3. 24.5

4. 25

Q.11 Two trains are running in opposite directions at the same speed. If the length of each train is 150 m and they cross each
other in 15 sec, find the speed of each train (in km/hr).
Ans 1. 18

2. 24

3. 36

4. 42

Q.12 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹2500 as a sum borrowed at 8% per year rate of interest for 3 years.
Ans 1. 640

2. 540

3. 600

4. 560

Q.13 In an examination, the average score of a student was 71.9. If the student would have got 28 more marks in English, 22 more
marks in Mathematics, 16 more marks in Computer Science, 14 more marks in History, 10 less marks in Hindi, and retained
the same marks in other subjects, then the average score would have been 80.65. How many subjects were there in the
examination?
Ans 1. 8

2. 7

3. 9

4. 6

Q.14
What is the ratio in which product A, costing ₹70 per 100 grams, should be
mixed with product B, costing ₹100 per 100 grams, so that on selling the
mixture at ₹1.20 per gram, a profit of 25% is achieved?
Ans 1. 9 : 2

2. 13 : 2

3. 2 : 9

4. 2 : 13

Q.15 The average weight of X, Y and Z is 67 kg. The average weight of X and Y is 64 kg and that of Y and Z is 52 kg. The weight of
Y (in kg) is:
Ans 1. 31

2. 33

3. 30

4. 28
Q.16 If 80 workers took 25 days to finish a task,how many days will it take to finish the same task if 20 more workers join?
Ans 1. 12

2. 16

3. 8

4. 20

Q.17 The x and y co-ordinates of six points are tabulated as below. Observe the table carefully and answer the given question.
Points X-co-ordinate Y-co-ordinate
A 15 42
B 20 46
C 18 44
D 16 48
E 21 50
F 22 52

Find the distance between F and C.

Ans 1.

Q.18 400 chickooes were bought at ₹1280 per hundred and were sold at a profit of ₹980. Find the selling price (in ₹) per dozen of
chickooes.
Ans 1. 193

2. 173

3. 183

4. 198

Q.19 The area of a right-angled triangle is 80m2. If its perpendicular is equal to 20 m, then find its base.
Ans 1. 4 m

2. 3 m

3. 6 m

4. 8 m

Q.20 Mr Rao purchased a laptop for ₹45,000. After a few months, as his office provided another laptop, he sold it at a loss of 12%
to Mrs Sharma. After one year, she sold it to an engineering student for a profit of 12%. What is the amount the student had
to pay?
Ans 1. ₹45,000

2. ₹
34,848

3. ₹44,352

4. ₹56,448

Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1 In a certain code language, 'ABROAD' is coded as ‘WZLIYZ’ and 'ADVISE' is coded as ‘VHREWZ’. How will 'AGENDA' be
coded in the same language?
Ans 1. ZWNVUZ

2. ZTWMWY

3. ZWMVTZ

4. ZTVMWZ
Q.2 EBHD is related to IFLH in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, JGMI is related to NKQM.
To which of the following is OLRN related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. PSVR

2. SPVR

3. PSRV

4. SPRV

Q.3 Six persons – Rahul, Ram, Ranjan, Reena, Rohit and Rupali – are sitting around a circular table facing the centre, but not
necessarily in the same order. Rupali is sitting second to the right of Ram, who is Reena’s immediate neighbour. Rohit is not
an immediate neighbour of Reena. Rahul is an immediate neighbour of both, Rupali and Ram.
Who is sitting second to the left of Ram?
Ans 1. Reena

2. Rupali

3. Rahul

4. Ranjan

Q.4 Identify the figure from the given options that can replace the question mark (?) and logically complete the series.

Ans

4.
Q.5 What will come in the place of ‘?’ in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘÷ ‘ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘−’ are interchanged?
88 ÷ 18 × 28 + 4 − 14 =?
Ans 1. 8

2. 18

3. −2

4. 28

Statements:
All irons are heaters.
Some irons are fans.

Conclusions:
(I) Some heaters are fans.
(II) All fans are irons.
Ans 1. Neither conclusion I nor II follows

2. Only conclusion II follows

3. Only conclusion I follows

4. Both conclusion I and II follow

Q.7 Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

2, 3, 6 ,11, 18 ,?
Ans 1. 31

2. 29

3. 27

4. 30

Q.8 In a certain code language, ‘zebra tool bean’ is coded as 'rj pi ki' and ‘bean knife army’ is coded as ‘ko jm pi’. How is ‘bean’
coded in the given language?
Ans 1. ko

2. rj

3. pi

4. ki

Q.9 Six people A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order). F
is sitting third to the right of C. D is sitting second to the left of F. A and E are immediate neighbours. E is sitting second to
the right of B.
How many people are sitting between E and C when counted from the left of E?
Ans 1. 3

2. 1

3. 4

4. 2

Q.10 In the following number-pairs, the second number is obtained by applying certain mathematical operations to the first
number. Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/ subtracting /multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
246, 123
448, 224
Ans 1. 624, 312

2. 102, 226

3. 325, 96

4. 444, 66
Q.11 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans
1.

Q.12

Ans 1.

4.
Q.13 Select the option figure in which the given figure is embedded as its part (rotation is NOT allowed).

Ans

Q.14 What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’
are interchanged?
2 ÷ 40 × 5 – 4 + 5 = ?
Ans 1. 11

2. 31

3. 13

4. 15

Q.15 In a certain code language, ‘BIRD’ is coded as ‘6428’ and ‘DOPE’ is coded as ‘5679’.What is the code for ‘D’ in the given code
language?
Ans 1. 6

2. 8

3. 5

4. 7
Q.16 Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series and complete
the pattern.

Ans

Q.17 Read the given statement(s) and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even
if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statement(s).

Statements:
Some tables are plates.
Some tables are spoons.

Conclusions:
(I) At least some spoons are plates.
(II) Some plates are tables.
Ans 1. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

2. Only conclusion (II) follows.

3. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

4. Only conclusion (I) follows.

Q.18 UD 1 is related to OF −6 in a certain way. In the same way, IX 6 is related to CZ −1. To which of the following is MJ 3 related,
following the same logic?
Ans 1. GL −4

2. GM 4

3. GN −4

4. GK 4
Q.19 18 is related to 91 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 27 is related to 136. To which of the following is 45
related, following the same logic?

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 - Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into
1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans 1. 234

2. 238

3. 226

4. 222

Q.20 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?

HXS, JVQ, LTO, NRM, ?

Ans 1. PPM

2. PNQ

3. PPK

4. OPD

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 The modern-day __________ was molded by the renowned Tanjore Bandhu, consisting of the four Nattuvanars: Ponnayya,
Vadivelu, Sivanandam and Chinnayya.
Ans 1. Mohiniyattam

2. Bharatanatyam

3. Kathakali

4. Kuchipudi

Q.2 Who became the first female armless archer to win a medal at the Para World Championship event, 2023?
Ans 1. Seema Devi

2. Shreya Devi

3. Shikha Devi

4. Sheetal Devi

Q.3 Which of the following options represents the correct flow of energy in an ecosystem?
Ans 1. Sunlight → Herbivores → Carnivores → Producers

2. Sunlight → Carnivores → Producers → Herbivores

3. Sunlight → Producers → Herbivores → Carnivores

4. Sunlight → Herbivores → Producers → Carnivore

Q.4 At 10 × 104 Pa pressure and 300 K temperature, the volume of 0.09 mol CO2 gas is 22.4 × 10−3 m3. What will be the volume of
the gas if the pressure is decreased to 2 × 104 Pa?
Ans 1. 56.3 × 10−3 m3

2. 112.0 × 10−3 m3

3. 37.4 × 10−3 m3

4. 28.1 × 10−3 m3

Q.5 In 1990, who established Nrityagram, a dance school in Bengaluru?

Ans 1. Madhavi Mudgal

2. Protima Gauri Bedi

3. Mukti Mohan

4. Rekha Raju
Q.6 The ___________ scheme, that covers artisans related to 18 fields, was included under the 'Payments Infrastructure
Development Fund' ('PIDF') scheme by the Reserve Bank of India in October 2023.
Ans 1. PM USHA

2. PM Ullas

3. PM Vishwakarma

4. PM Swanidhi

Q.7 Who among the following formed an organisation to support widow remarriage in Madras Presidency?
Ans 1. V Chidambaram Pillai

2. Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar

3. C Rajagopalachari

4. Veereshlingam Pantulu

Q.8 Which of the following Articles entails “Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment”?
Ans 1. Article 15

2. Article 17

3. Article 14

4. Article 16

Q.9 Sawai Gandharva was associated with which of the following gharanas?
Ans 1. Kirana gharana

2. Benaras gharana

3. Agra gharana

4. Indore gharana

Q.10 The partition of ___________was annulled in 1911.

Ans 1. Burma

2. Punjab

3. United Provinces

4. Bengal

Q.11 Who is the author of ‘The story of My Experiments with Truth’?

Ans 1. BR Ambedkar

2. MK Gandhi

3. Paramahansa Yogananda

4. Jawaharlal Nehru

Q.12 Which state in India has the largest scheduled tribe population as per the 2011 Census?
Ans 1. Odisha

2. Madhya Pradesh

3. Jharkhand

4. Chhattisgarh

Q.13 In which state is the Rewa Ultra Mega Solar Power Project located?
Ans 1. Madhya Pradesh

2. Rajasthan

3. Tamil Nadu

4. Karnataka
Q.14 As per Census 2011, which of the following is the most populated city in India?
Ans 1. Mumbai

2. Chennai

3. Kolkata

4. Delhi

Q.15 In the State Legislature, _______________ is subject to dissolution.

Ans 1. Council of States

2. Legislative Assembly

3. Legislative Council

4. House of People

Q.16 What is the chemical name for the compound responsible for the cooling sensation in mint leaves?
Ans 1. Ethanol

2. Menthol

3. Caffeine

4. Capsaicin

Q.17 Which of the following statements is correct?

Ans 1. Harappan culture spread only to Sindh and Punjab.

2. The script of the Harappan culture has been deciphered by historians.

3. At burials in Harappan sites the dead were generally laid in pits.

4. Granaries in the Indus Valley Civilization were found in Harappa only.

Q.18 To control the prices, which of the following Sultans of Delhi set up three different markets for different commodities in
Delhi?
Ans 1. Alauddin Khalji

2. Muhammad bin Tughlaq

3. Ghiyasuddin Balban

4. Shamsuddin Iltutmish

Q.19 The second largest dome in the world was built in India and is still standing strong. Which dome is being spoken about
here?
Ans 1. GlampEco

2. Teela

3. Gol Gumbaz

4. Calico Dome

Q.20 For which of the following minerals are Jharia and Raniganj known?
Ans 1. Marble

2. Coal

3. Copper

4. Gold

Q.21 Identify the correct match in the context of microfinance.

Ans 1. Muhammad Yasir - Grameen Bank - Bangladesh

2. Muhammad Yasir - Grameen Bank - Pakistan

3. Muhammad Yunus - Grameen Bank - Pakistan

4. Muhammad Yunus - Grameen Bank - Bangladesh

Q.22 What was the name of the official torch for the Khelo India University Games 2022?
Ans 1. Ujala

2. Mitra

3. Samarth

4. Shakti

Q.23 In March 2023, who was appointed as Chairperson of Pension Fund Regulatory Development Authority (PFRDA)?
Ans 1. Subodh Jaiswal

2. Suresh N Patel

3. Tushar Mehta

4. Deepak Mohanty

Q.24 Losar festival is celebrated in which of the following states?

Ans 1. Chhattisgarh

2. Andhra Pradesh

3. Goa

4. Arunachal Pradesh

Q.25 The percentage of pore space between the particles inside a rock or soil is called:
Ans 1. Porosity

2. Density

3. Salinity

4. Permeability

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

A good lawyer / always looks in the / case before he / attends court.

Ans 1. attends court

2. always looks in the

3. case before he

4. A good lawyer

Q.2 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

On the back foot

Ans 1. In a relaxed state

2.
Situated farther away

3.
At a disadvantage

4.
In a hurry

Q.3 Select the option that will improve the underlined part of the given sentence.

According to Greek mythology, Sipylus is holier city of Lydia.

Ans 1. the holiest

2. most holiest

3. the holier

4. most holy
Q.4 Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. Select the option that contains an error.

Before the internet was available on mobile, I read often books for entertainment and information.
Ans 1. for entertainment and information.

2. was available on mobile

3. Before the internet

4. I read often books

Q.5 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Gloomy
Ans 1. Sticky

2. Vain

3. Dismal

4. Buoyant

Q.6 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical/spelling error.

They decided to /start their journey / towards the hills / in midnight.

Ans 1. They decided to

2. start their journey

3. in midnight

4. towards the hills

Q.7 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Predicament
Ans 1. Solution

2. Docile

3. Mess

4. Redeem

Q.8 Select the most appropriate superlative adjective form to fill in the blanks.

What’s ___ book you’ve ever read?

Ans 1. interesting

2. the most interesting

3. more interesting

4. the interesting

Q.9 Select the most appropriate present tense form of the verb to fill in the blank.

__________ they like sweets?

Ans 1. Do

2. Had

3. Has

4. Does
Q.10 Select the correctly spelt word to fill in the blank.

We ___________________ to follow the traffic rules.

Ans 1. aut

2. aught

3. ought

4. oght

Q.11 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Obsequious
Ans 1. Ordained

2. Obliterate

3. Ostracised

4. Obstinate

Q.12 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined word.

The sink is clogged due to solid materials.
Ans 1. A pipeline for water supply

2. A container which holds water

3. A large fixed container to wash hands or utensils

4. To drown in water

Q.13 Select the correctly spelt word to fill in the blank meaningfully..

The ______ on the wall was beautifully painted.

Ans 1. pictur

2. picture

3. picter

4. pickchure

Q.14 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Despite his initial ___________, he eventually agreed to join the team.

Ans 1. enthusiasm

2. reluctance

3. determination

4. compassion

Q.15 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Industrialisation gives even the least talented person a chance to ______________ his livelihood.
Ans 1. Live

2. Give

3. Earn

4. Break

Q.16 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the highlighted group of words in the given sentence.

A grand function was organised to honour the person who had died for a noble cause.
Ans 1. martyr

2. volunteer

3. prophet

4. philanthropist
Q.17 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.
The investigating team smelled a ___________________ in the suspect's defence.
Ans 1.
cat
2.
bat
3.
dog
4.
rat

Q.18 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans 1. Synchronous

2. Inadvertant

3. Effeminate

4. Blatant

Q.19 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the highlighted word(s) in the given sentence.

Mr. Wilson is elder than he looks.

Ans 1. older then

2. elder to

3. elder for

4. older than

Q.20 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans 1. Awful

2. Awsome

3. Bitter

4. Barren

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

Opera refers (1)_______ a dramatic art form, originating in Europe, in which the emotional content (2)________ conveyed to the
audience as much through music, both vocal and instrumental, as it is through the lyrics. (3)___________contrast, in musical theatre
an actor's dramatic performance is primary, and the music (4)_________ a lesser role. The drama in opera is (5)________ using the
primary elements of theatre such as scenery, costumes and acting.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 1.
Ans 1. on

2. for

3. to

4. with
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 2.
Ans 1. is

2. were

3. are being

4. are

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 3.
Ans 1. For

2. In

3. Under

4. Beside

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 4.
Ans 1. plays

2. playing

3. play

4. played

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 5.
Ans 1. presenting

2. presented

3. being present

4. present
Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 05/11/2024
Exam
9:00 AM - 11:00 AM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 A person buys a horse for 15 pounds. After one year, he sells it for 20 pounds. After one year, again he buys the same horse
for 30 pounds and sells it for 40 pounds. What is the overall profit percentage for that person over both the transactions?
Ans
1.

Q.2 A policeman can catch a thief in fifteen minutes when the distance between them is 2 km. If the policeman starts chasing the
thief at 9:00 a.m. and he catches the thief at 9:40 a.m., what was the initial distance between the thief and the policeman?
Ans
1.

Q.3

Ans 1. 4

2. 3

3. 6

4. 5

Q.4 A class of 42 students took a Physics test. 18 students had an average score of 95. The other students had
an average score of 73. What is the average score (rounded off to one decimal place) of the whole class?
Ans 1. 79.6

2. 86.1

3. 90.7

4. 82.4

Q.5 The average of 8 numbers 127, 432, p, 89, q, 99, 842 and 76 is 221 and the numbers p and q are two-digit numbers. If the
units digit of p is one less than that of q and tens digit of q is one less than that of p, then the sum of the digits of p is:
Ans 1. 14

2. 12

3. 13

4. 11

Q.6 Three numbers are in the ratio 3 : 4 : 5 and their LCM is 2400. Their HCF is:
Ans 1. 60

2. 40

3. 30

4. 25

Q.7 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹3000 as a sum borrowed at 3% per year rate of interest for 2 years.
Ans 1. 180

2. 140

3. 220

4. 120
Q.8 A person marks his goods x% above the cost price and allows a discount of 28% on the marked price. If his profit is 22.4%,
then the value of x is:
Ans 1. 50

2. 80

3. 30

4. 70

Q.9 By selling an article for ₹880, a shopkeeper gains 10%. What would his gain percentage be if he sells the article for ₹900?
Ans 1.

Q.10 Arman leaves ₹2,17,600 to be divided among four sons, three daughters and five nephews. If each daughter receives 3 times
as much as each nephew and each son receives 5 times as much as each nephew, how much does each son receive?
Ans 1. ₹18,200

2. ₹32,000

3. ₹36,000

4. ₹25,600

Q.11 The milk and water in two buckets P and Q are in the ratio 5 : 3 and 1 : 4, respectively. In what ratio are the liquids in both
the buckets mixed to obtain a new mixture in a third bucket R containing 50% milk and 50% water?
Ans 1. 7 : 9

2. 4 : 7

3. 7 :13

4. 12 : 5

Q.12 When the price of an article was reduced by 10% its sale increased by 60%. What was the net effect on the revenue?
Ans 1. Decrease of 24%

2. Increase of 44%

3. Decrease of 44%

4. Increase of 24%

Q.13

Ans
1.

Q.14

Ans 1.

Q.15 Kumar took a loan from a bank at the rate of 9.5% per annum at simple interest. After 6 years he had to pay ₹3,705 as
interest only for the period. The principal amount borrowed by him was:
Ans 1. ₹2,100

2. ₹5,800

3. ₹8,200

4. ₹6,500

Q.16

Ans 1. 6

2. 7

3. 8

4. 9
Q
.
1
7
A 1. 75.8 kg
n
s
2. 76.8 kg

3. 78.8 kg

4. 77.8 kg

Q.18 If the radius of a cylinder is decreased by 25% and the height is increased by 25% to form a new cylinder, what is the
percentage decrease in new volume (rounded off to two digits after the decimal)?
Ans 1. 27.5%

2. 29.69%

3. 40.2%

4. 39.5%

Q.19 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹3500 as a sum borrowed at 6% per year rate of interest for 5 years.
Ans 1. 1010

2. 990

3. 1090

4. 1050

Q.20

Ans 1. 46.75%

2. 43.75%

3. 56.25%

4. 43.25%

Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans
1.

Q.2 In a certain language, ‘this college bag is expensive’ is coded as ‘br od hy jh pb’ and ‘your bag looks very heavy’ is coded as
‘mh sa tn dl od’. How is ‘bag’ coded in the given language?
Ans 1. jh

2. br

3. od

4. mh
Q.3 In a certain code language, ‘sold the painting’ is written as ‘ju ri gi’ and ‘directors sold business’ is coded as ‘hu fe ju’. How
is ‘sold’ coded in that language?
Ans 1. ju

2. hu

3. ri

4. fe

Q.4 11 is related to 127 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 8 is related to 70. To which ofthe following is 14
related, following the same logic?
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbersinto its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting /multiplying etc., to 13 canbe performed. Breaking down 13
into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3is not allowed.)
Ans 1. 217

2. 240

3. 194

4. 202

Q.5 Read the given statement(s) and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even
if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statement(s).

Statements:
Some pillows are curtains.
No curtain is a bedsheet.

Conclusions:
(I) All pillows can never be bedsheets.
(II) Some curtains are not pillows.
Ans 1. Only conclusion II follows.

2. Neither conclusion I nor II follows.

3. Only conclusion I follows.

4. Both conclusions I and II follow.

Q.6 Identify the figure given in the options that when put in place of the question mark (?) will logically complete the series?

Ans

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into
1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

18, 37
22, 45
Ans 1. 24, 72

2. 26, 53

3. 25, 57

4. 27, 59

Q.8 Find the missing term in the following series:

MM, LO, KQ, __, IU, HW.
Ans 1. JS

2. JP

3. KS

4. KP
Q.9 Select the option figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the figure given below to complete the pattern.

Ans

Q.10 A, C, F, E, B, U and P are sitting around a circular table facing away from the centre (but not necessarily in the same order).
F is sitting third to the right of E. P is sitting third to the left of A. U is sitting third to the right of C. E is an immediate
neighbour to the left of P. C is not an immediate neighbour of P. Who among the following is sitting third to the right of U?
Ans 1. E

2. P

3. B

4. A
Q.11

Ans

Q.12 What will come in the place of ‘?’ in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘–’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?
6÷3×2+1–2=?
Ans 1. 7

2. 5

3. 3

4. 10

Q.13 In a certain code language, ‘listen to music’ is written as ‘fd si lr’ and ‘you should listen’ is writtenas ‘lr ep wi’. How is ‘listen’
writtenin the given language?
Ans 1. wi

2. ep

3. lr

4. fd

Q.14 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements:
•Some mats are yolks.
•Some toys are mats.
Conclusions:
(I)Some mats are jute.
(II)Toy is a yolk.
Ans 1. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow

2. Only conclusion (II) follows

3. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows

4. Only conclusion (I) follows

Q.15 In a certain code language, ‘quip area flash’ is coded as 'er to pg' and ‘bacon quip bonus’ is coded as ‘to my te’. How is
‘quip’ coded in the given language?
Ans 1. pg

2. er

3. to

4. my

Q.16 E, F, G, H, I and J are sitting around a round table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order). F is sitting to the
immediate left of G and immediate right of E. J is sitting to the immediate right of H and immediate left of I. H is sitting to the
immediate right of G. Who is sitting to the immediate left of E?
Ans 1. H

2. F

3. J

4. I
Q.17 JK 3 is related to MH 6 in a certain way. In the same way, OD 11 is related to RA 14. To which of the following is RD 14
related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. UB 19

2. UA 14

3. UZ 17

4. UA 17

Q.18 What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘–’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’
are interchanged?

31 × 961 ÷ 155 – 73 + 54 = ?
Ans 1. 24

2. 22

3. 44

4. 42

Q.19 MKQO is related to TRXV in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, KIOM is related to RPVT.
To which of the following is HFLJ related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. OMSQ

2. OMQS

3. MOQS

4. MOSQ

Q.20 Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

6 ,7, 9, 13, 21, ?

Ans 1. 40

2. 38

3. 37

4. 39

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 As per National Multidimensional Poverty Index report 2023, what is the poverty rate of India (2019-21)?
Ans 1. 20.89%

2. 14.96%

3. 20.61%

4. 15.47%

Q.2 Which of the following groups of plants are categorised as cryptogams?

Ans 1. Gymnosperms and Angiosperms

2. Pteridophyta and Angiosperms

3. Thallophyta and Gymnosperms

4. Bryophytes and Thallophyta

Q.3 Which physical feature of India is known for its lateritic soil which supports plantation crops?
Ans 1. Chhota Nagpur Pleateau

2. Western Ghats

3. The Himalayas

4. Malabar Coast

Q.4 Select the correct order of the following metals in terms of their increasing reactivities.
Ans 1. Au, Cu, Mg and K

2. K, Cu, Mg and Au

3. K, Mg, Cu and Au

4. Au, Mg, Cu and K

Q.5

Ans 1. 1 - a, 2 - b, 3 - c

2. 1 - c, 2 - b, 3 - a

3. 1 - b, 2 - c, 3 - a

4. 1 - c, 2 - a,3 - b

Q.6 Who among the following assumed the position of Central Vigilance Commissioner (CVC) in May 2023?
Ans 1. Praveen Kumar Srivastava

2. Rajiv Gauba

3. Rajeev Sinha

4. Amitabh Kant
Q.7 According to the National Multidimensional Poverty Index of India: A Progress Review 2023, which of the following states
has the LOWEST percentage of population being multidimensionally poor?
Ans 1. Manipur

2. Rajasthan

3. Sikkim

4. West Bengal

Q.8 In which year was the Shri Mahila SEWA Sahakari Bank established?
Ans 1. 1971

2. 1974

3. 1975

4. 1972

Q.9 In 1973, the first female high court judge of India Anna Chandy published her autobiography ____________________ in
Malayalam.
Ans 1. The Test of My Life

2. Playing it My Way

3. Atmakatha

4. The Race of My Life

Q.10 Kathakali, one of the classical dance forms, is performed primarily in which state of India?
Ans 1. Kerala

2. Tamil Nadu

3. Punjab

4. Andhra Pradesh

Q.11 Where was the India House established to work for India’s liberation from British possession?
Ans 1. London

2. San Francisco

3. Kabul

4. Berlin

Q.12 Which of the following features of the Indian Constitution is added by the 97th Constitutional Amendment Act?
Ans 1. Independent Bodies

2. Elections to the Panchayats

3. Cooperative Societies

4. Foreign Policy

Q.13 Which of the following languages was used by the Sangam poets for composing the texts?
Ans 1. Kannada

2. Tamil

3. Telugu

4. Malayalam

Q.14 Sedimentary rocks are formed by the process of deposition and compaction of fragments of rocks of various sizes. This
process is called:
Ans 1. liquefaction

2. weathering

3. lithification

4. lacoliths

Q.15 Who received 'Sangeet Natak Akademi' award 2022 for his/her contribution in the field of Kathak?
Ans 1. Shobha Koser

2. Rajendra Gangani

3. Nalini and Kamalini Asthana

4. Jagdish Gangani

Q.16 The religious festival, 'Easter' is celebrated by which community?

Ans 1. Muslim community

2. Christian community

3. Parsi community

4. Jain community

Q.17 The elliptical shapes in temple architecture in Dravidian style are known by which of the given terms?
Ans 1. Vrita

2. Nasi

3. Gajaprishta

4. Ayatasra

Q.18 In which year did Roshan Mistry become the first Indian woman to win an Asian Games medal when she took the silver in
the 100-m sprint?
Ans 1. 1954, Asian Games

2. 1951, Asian Games

3. 1958, Asian Games

4. 1962, Asian Games

Q.19 What is the meaning of the term 'drop shot' in tennis?
Ans 1. A powerful overhead shot

2. A shot that hits the lines on the court

3. A powerful service

4. A shot played softly and close to the net

Q.20 Indian classical vocalist and Padma Vibhushan awardee Kishori Amonkar belongs to which of the following gharanas?
Ans 1. Agra gharana

2. Mewati gharana

3. Indore gharana

4. Jaipur gharana

Q.21 Which of the following organisations was established in Bombay by Atmaram Pandurang?
Ans 1. Veda Samaj

2. Poona Sarvajanik Sabha

3. Prarthana Samaj

4. Satya Sodhak Samaj

Q.22 Which of the following location has NOT been selected for setting up the seven PM Mega Integrated Textile Region and
Apparel (PM MITRA) Park for the textile sector announced by the Government of India in March 2023?
Ans 1. Karnataka

2. Gujarat

3. West Bengal

4. Maharashtra

Q.23 Which of the following is a NOT a natural fibre crop grown in India?
Ans 1. Cotton

2. Hemp

3. Jute

4. Polyester

Q.24 What is denatured alcohol?

Ans 1. Pure Ethanol

2. Ethanol mixed with little methanol

3. Pure Methanol

4. Propanol

Q.25 Who was appointed as the governor of Bengal by Sultan Balban after the revolt and subsequent death of Tughril Beg?
Ans 1. Zafar Khan

2. Bughra Khan

3. Khizr Khan

4. Mahmud Khan

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
As he is not satisfied / with the jury’s decision, / he appeal / in the higher court.
Ans 1. he appeal

2. with the jury’s decision

3. in the higher court

4. as he is not satisfied

Q.2 Select the option that correctly rectifies the underlined spelling error.

He received an honarary degree for his contributions.

Ans 1. Honorary

2. Honnary

3. Honnaary

4. Honnorary

Q.3 Select the option that has an error in the usage of the present perfect tense.
Ans 1. I have completed my task.

2. Ravi has completed his project.

3. Ravi has complete his homework.

4. Rashi has completed her homework.

Q.4 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans 1. Occurred

2. Questionnaire

3. Peculiar

4. Mischievious
Q.5 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Skeleton in the cupboard

Ans 1. An interesting and thoughtful fact

2. A famous and hidden fact

3. A popular and known fact

4. An embarrassing and hidden fact

Q.6 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains an error.

I regret / in notify that / the model you want/ is out of stock.

Ans 1. the model you want

2. is out of stock

3. I regret

4. in notify that

Q.7 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Through thick and thin

Ans 1. To pass through thick and thin air

2. To be supportive in both good and bad times

3. To possess both thick and thin clothes

4. To travel through thick and thin clouds

Q.8 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans 1. Sculpter

2. Pursuit

3. Almighty

4. Stampede

Q.9 Select the option that will improve the underlined part of the given sentence. In case no improvement is needed, select ‘No
improvement required’.

When Shina reached the bus stand, she realised that she has left her wallet at home.
Ans 1. No improvement required

2. she had left her wallet

3. she leaves her wallet

4. she had been left her wallet

Q.10 Select the grammatically correct sentence from the given options.
Ans 1. He is famous for all his contributions for weekly magazines.

2. He is famous for all his contributions to weekly magazines.

3. He is more famous for all his contributions for weekly magazines.

4. He is more famous for all his contributions to weekly magazines.

Q.11 Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word.

The corporator gathered heaps of curses, and his misdeeds can never be forgiven by the people.
Ans 1. Consequences

2. Arguments

3. Transgressions

4. Confrontation

Q.12 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word

It is a betterment of his work.

Ans 1. Popularity

2. Growth

3. Improvement

4. Worsening

Q.13 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Sarah said that she hates it when people ______ at her.

Ans 1. stare

2. star

3. steer

4. stair

Q.14 Select the most appropriate idiom that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

Mary appeared for the test. She was waiting anxiously for the test result.
Ans 1. a piece of cake

2. hitting the nail on the head

3. on pins and needles

4. jumping through hoops

Q.15 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given phrase.

A medicine to counteract the effect of another medicine

Ans 1.
Alimony
2.
Antibiotic
3.
Antidote
4.
Anticoagulant

Q.16 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains grammatical error(s).

At the zoo, a curious child / fed an elephant some peanuts, / while enthusiastic group of the visitors / watched in
amazement.
Ans 1. At the zoo, a curious child

2. while enthusiastic group of the visitors

3. fed an elephant some peanuts

4. watched in amazement.

Q.17 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Contaminate
Ans 1. Clean

2. purify

3. Excel

4. Pollute

Q.18 From the given options, identify the sentence which is in the positive degree.
Ans 1. I have a greater idea in this regard.

2. His brother is an intelligent boy.

3. She is the most beautiful girl of the class.

4. They are playing hockey with longer sticks.

Q.19 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word in the given sentence.

The ambiguous statement of the leader raised criticism among the public.
Ans 1. Confusing

2. Disorganised

3. Clear

4. Puzzled

Q.20 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

From contacting our loved ones to buying groceries for our daily needs, mobile phones fulfilled our every requirement
during the COVID-19 pandemic. Not only during the pandemic, but mobile phones have also ________ our needs since the
time of their invention.
Ans 1. exasperated

2. served

3. annoyed

4. incensed

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

It was Saturday evening last week. My parents and younger sister had (1)_______ to my uncle's house to (2)______the day. I had
stayed back to prepare for a class test. At 5:00 p.m, someone (3)_____the door bell. To my shock and dismay, one of my distant
relatives, Mr. Sinha (4)______ standing with his suitcase. I had to call him in most unwillingly. He was a big bore and nothing less than
a chatterbox. I asked his preference (5)____ coffee and tea.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.++))
Ans 1. gone

2. went

3. go

4. going

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.++))
Ans 1. spent

2. spend

3. spends

4. spending
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.++))
Ans 1. ring

2. rings

3. rang

4. rung

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.++))
Ans 1. were

2. was

3. been

4. is

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.++))
Ans 1. between

2. among

3. on

4. around
Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 05/11/2024
Exam
12:30 PM - 2:30 PM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 The area (in cm2) of circle that can be inscribed in a square of side 12 cm is:
Ans 1. 36π

2. 72π

3. 24π

4. 144π

Q.2

Ans 1. 607 m2

2. 572 m2

3. 2157 m2

4. 440 m2

Q.3 By selling an article for ₹20, a dealer makes a profit of 20%. By how much should he increase his selling price (in ₹, rounded
off to two decimal place) so as to make a profit of 30%?
Ans 1. 1.67

2. 4.67

3. 3.67

4. 2.67

Q.4 Ramesh Chandra purchased 360 bulbs for ₹18 each. However, 20 bulbs were fused and had to be thrown away. The
remaining were sold at ₹20 each. Find the gain or loss per cent.
Ans
1.

4.
Q.5 Study the given bar graph and answer the question that follows.
The given bar graph shows the number of students enrolled in institutes A and B during 5 years (2018 to 2022).

What is the percentage of the total students enrolled in institute A in year 2019 and 2020 to that of the total students enrolled
in institute B? (Correct to one decimal place)
Ans 1. 41.2%

2. 43.5%

3. 38.6%

4. 40.1%

Q.6 A number is increased by 24% and then decreased by 25%. What is the net increase or decrease percentage?
Ans 1. Decrease 7%

2. Increase 8%

3. Decrease 8%

4. Increase 7%

Q.7 The average of all the numbers between 8 and 68 that are divisible by 9 is:
Ans 1. 33

2. 31.5

3. 40.5

4. 36

Q.8 Rakesh marks an item for ₹5,400 and offers two successive discounts of 15% and 5%, respectively. What is the selling price
of the item?
Ans
1.

Q.9 A policeman notices a thief from a distance of 220 m. He chases the thief when he started running the moment he saw the
police. The thief and policeman run at the rate of 9 km/h and 11 km/h respectively. How much distance policeman has to
cover for catching the thief?
Ans 1. 1.21 km

2. 0.98 km

3. 0.86 km

4. 1.48 km
Q.10

Ans 1. 10

2. 16

3. 12

4. 8

Q.11

Ans 1. 3AA

2. AA

3. 2AA

4. 5AA

Q.12 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹3000 as a sum borrowed at 9% per year rate of interest for 5 years.
Ans 1. 1390

2. 1310

3. 1350

4. 1290

Q.13 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹2500 as a sum borrowed at 8% per year rate of interest for 5 years.
Ans 1. 940

2. 1040

3. 1000

4. 960

Q.14 If the numbers X + 2, X + 5, 2X − 3 and 3X − 5 are in proportion, then which of the following pairs of values is possible for X?
Ans 1. 5 and 1

2. 3 and 2

3. 5 and 3

4. 4 and 2
Q.15 The monthly incomes of Selva for 3 months of a year are ₹19,500, ₹21,500 and ₹22,000. What is Selva’s average income per
month for these 3 months?
Ans 1. ₹20,500

2. ₹20,000

3. ₹21,000

4. ₹21,500

Q.16 The LCM of 16,20 and 24 is:

Ans 1. 180

2. 240

3. 260

4. 135

Q.17 The average weight of 5 persons sitting in a boat is 28 kg. If the average weight of the boat and the persons sitting in the
boat is 56 kg, what is the weight of the boat?
Ans 1. 232 kg

2. 196 kg

3. 242 kg

4. 122 kg

Q.18 A and B start running on a circular race track whose length is 3240 m. A and B start from the same point and at the same
time, but in opposite directions. If A runs at a speed of 10 m/s and they cross each other 3 minutes after they start running,
then what is B’s speed (in m/s)?
Ans 1. 7.5

2. 8.5

3. 9

4. 8

Q.19 Ram borrows a sum of ₹24,000 from his friend Soham on 31December 2021 on the condition that he will return the same
after one year with simple interest at 18% per annum. However, Ram is able to return the money on 1August 2022. What
amount does Ram have to return to Soham?
Ans 1. ₹26,520

2. ₹26,250

3. ₹25,250

4. ₹25,520

Q.20 What is the difference between the average of prime numbers between 30 and 50 and the average of multiples of 3 between
20 and 50?
Ans 1. 5.3

2. 4.5

3. 2.6

4. 3.2

Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1

Ans

Q.2 In a code language, 'JASMINE' is coded as '213' and 'TULIP' is coded as '234'. How will 'CHAMELI' be coded in the same
language?
Ans 1. 148

2. 153

3. 157

4. 143
Q.3 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans
1.

Q.4 In a certain code language, ‘POST’ is coded as ‘3854’ and ‘TIPS’ is coded as ‘5648’. What is the code for ‘O’ in that language?
Ans 1. 4

2. 8

3. 3

4. 6

Q.5 In the following number-pairs, the second number is obtained by applying certain mathematical operations to the
first number. Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following
sets.

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their
constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying to 13 can be performed.
Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
10, 49
14, 69
Ans 1. 18, 88

2. 17, 89

3. 17, 88

4. 18, 89

Q.6 In a certain code language, ‘do it correctly’ is written as ‘nq sd fo’ and ‘Please do this’ is written as ‘rt fo in’. How is ‘do’
written in the given code language?
Ans 1. fo

2. nq

3. rt

4. sd
Q.7 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements:
Some cameras are radios.
All radios are routers.
Conclusions:
(I): Some cameras are routers.
(II): No camera is a router.
Ans 1. Only conclusion (II) follows.

2. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

3. Only conclusion (I) follows.

4. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

Q.8 What will come in the place of ‘?’ in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘–’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?
25 + 20 × 10 ÷ 2 − 5 = ?
Ans 1. 26

2. 10

3. 19

4. 39

Q.9

Ans
1.

Q.10 ead the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
R
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
Some cameras are phones.
No phone is a laptop.

Conclusions:
(I) Some phones are cameras.
(II) Some laptops are phones.
Ans 1. Both conclusion I and II follow

2. Neither conclusion I nor II follows

3. Only conclusion II follows

4. Only conclusion I follows

Q.11 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

736, 689, 642, 595, 548 ?

Ans 1. 501

2. 511

3. 499

4. 481

Q.12 In a certain code language, ‘I Love biryani’ is written as ‘qs vx pg’ and ‘biryani was good’ is written as ‘vx pm ed’. How is
‘biryani’ written in the given code language?
Ans 1. ed

2. qs

3. vx

4. pm

Q.13 U, V, W, X, Y, Z and A are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order).
Only one person sits between Y and X when counted from the left of X. A sits third to the right of U. V sits third to the left of
W. A sits to the immediate right of V. Z is not an immediate neighbour of V.
How many people sit between Z and X when counted from the right of Z?
Ans 1. Two

2. Four

3. Three

4. One

Q.14 Select the figure that will come next in the following series.

Ans

4.
Q.15 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?

JBM, MEJ, PHG, SKD, ?

Ans 1. VNC

2. WNA

3. WNB

4. VNA

Q.16 Seven people A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same
order). D is sitting second to the left of B. Exactly two people are sitting between B and A when counted from the right of B.
G is sitting to the immediate left of A. F is not an immediate neighbour of C. What is the position of G with respect to D?
Ans 1. Third to the left of

2. Third to the right of

3. Second to the left of

4. Second to the right of

Q.17 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are
interchanged?

310 × 2 − 3 ÷ 40 + 170 = ?
Ans 1. 151

2. 129

3. 105

4. 142

Q.18 PS 41 is related to KN 47 in a certain way. In the same way, TW 30 is related to OR 36. To which of the following is VY 27
related following the same logic?
Ans 1. LH 33

2. HL 33

3. QT 33

4. TQ 33

Q.19 EHJD is related to LOQK in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, GJLF is related to
NQSM. To which of the following is ILNH related, following the same logic?

Ans 1. PSUO

2. SPOU

3. SPUO

4. PSOU

Q.20 22 is related to 43 following a certain logic. Following the same logic,35 is related to 69. To which of the following is 81
related, following the same logic?

(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding / subtracting / multiplying, etc., to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13
into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans 1. 162

2. 161

3. 160

4. 163

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 The shotgun (in the shooting sport) is a ________ gauge having a calibre of 18.5-millimetres (The gauge is a unit of
measurement for firearms).
Ans 1. 18

2. 10

3. 12

4. 15

Q.2 Which of the following is NOT a private sector industry in India?

Ans 1. Bajaj Auto Ltd.

2. Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited (BHEL)

3. Dabur Industries

4. Tata Iron and Steel Company (TISCO)

Q.3 Who among the following was appointed as the Director of the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) in May 2023?
Ans 1. Praveen Sood

2. Rakesh Asthana

3. Debadatta Chand

4. Shantanu Roy

Q.4 The Swaraj party was formed within _________ with the thought of contesting elections to enter the legislative councils with
a view to obstructing the governance of the colonial government.
Ans 1. All India Muslim League

2. Independent Labour Party

3. The Unionist Party

4. Indian National Congress

Q.5 Padma Shri Pandit Rajeev Tharanath, the famous ________________ player is from the state of Karnataka.
Ans 1. sarod

2. flute

3. violin

4. sitar

Q.6 Under Article 165, the Governor appoints a person who is qualified to be appointed a Judge of a High Court to be the
_________ for the State.
Ans 1. Comptroller Auditor General

2. Attorney General

3. Advocate-General

4. Chief Minister

Q.7 Which of the following Articles is automatically suspended when an emergency is declared on the grounds of external
aggression?
Ans 1. Article 35

2. Article 22

3. Article 32

4. Article 19

Q.8 The 'Mahawat' term is associated with which season in North-West India?
Ans 1. Winter rainfall

2. Post Monsoons rainfall

3. Summer rainfall

4. Rainy season
Q.9 Which day is celebrated as International Day of Non-Violence?
Ans 1. 15th August

2. 31st October

3. 2nd October

4. 31st January

Q.10 The English novel ‘Morning Face’ is written by:

Ans 1. Mulk Raj Anand

2. Vikram Seth

3. Anita Desai

4. RK Narayan

Q.11 Rita Mustaphi who is honoured with Mcknight Fellowship of 2023 for her excellent innovation in which of the following
Indian Dance Forms?
Ans 1. Yakshagana

2. Manipuri

3. Kathakali

4. Kathak

Q.12 Brahmo Samaj, the theistic movement within Hinduism, was founded by Raja Ram Mohan Roy in the year ________.
Ans 1. 1879

2. 1839

3. 1856

4. 1828

Q.13 Which of the following Census decades in India recorded the highest crude death rate?
Ans 1. 1941-1951

2. 1911-1921

3. 1991-2001

4. 1931-1941

Q.14 How does salt contribute to the preservation of food?

Ans 1. By acting as an antioxidant.

2. By reducing the pH of the food.

3. By inhibiting the growth of microorganisms through osmosis.

4. By promoting the Maillard reaction.

Q.15 At 1 bar pressure, the volume of a fixed amount of hydrogen gas is 2.27 litre. What will be the volume if the pressure is kept
at 0.2 bar?
Ans 1. 11350 cm3

2. 12250 cm3

3. 11.35 cm3

4. 10270 cm3

Q.16 In which athletics event did Eldhose Paul win a gold medal at the Commonwealth Games 2022?
Ans 1. Triple Jump

2. Long Jump

3. Javelin Throw

4. Shot Put
Q.17 Which volume of the ‘Akbar-Nama’ is known as Ain-i-Akbari and deals with Akbar’s administration, household, army and the
revenues and geography of his empire?
Ans 1. Fourth

2. Second

3. Fifth

4. Third

Q.18 Kelucharan Mohapatra is associated with which of the following dances?

Ans 1. Dumhal

2. Fugdi

3. Odissi

4. Bihu

Q.19 Which of the following is the main objective of the DWCRA model of SHGs?
Ans 1. To provide housing support for rural families

2. To provide healthcare services to rural women

3. To provide education opportunities for rural children

4. To provide self-employment opportunities for rural women

Q.20 Who among the following was a contemporary of Buddha, but is not considered the first founder of the religion?
Ans 1. Arishtanemi

2. Mahavira Swami

3. Bhadrabahu

4. Rishabhanath

Q.21 If the body of an animal can be divided into two indistinguishable left and right halves through only one plane, then it
possesses:
Ans 1. asymmetricity

2. bilateral symmetry

3. radial symmetry

4. centre of symmetry

Q.22 In his autobiography, Babur described his interest in planning and laying out formal gardens, placed within rectangular
walled enclosures and divided into four quarters by artificial channels. These gardens are known as _________ .
Ans 1. Panch Bagh

2. Saat Bagh

3. Teen Bagh

4. Chahar Bagh

Q.23 The Anusandhan National Research Foundation Bill, 2023 was introduced in Lok Sabha on 4 August 2023, which repeals the
_____________________________.
Ans 1. Science and Engineering Research Board Act, 2009

2. Science and Engineering Research Board Act, 2006

3. Science and Engineering Research Board Act, 2008

4. Science and Engineering Research Board Act, 2007

Q.24 Select the correct sentence about the water table.

Ans 1. Water cannot be found below the water table.

2. The water table cannot be changed at a given place.

3. The water table varies from place to place.

4. The lower level of the groundwater layer is called water table.

Q.25 Before the introduction of Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS), what type of surveys did the National Statistical Office
(NSO) conduct for employment and unemployment indicators in India?
Ans 1. Decennial surveys

2. Quinquennial surveys

3. Monthly surveys

4. Biennial surveys

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans 1. Forgotten

2. Veneration

3. Indoulgent

4. Happiness

Q.2 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

John’s coffee is hot than Jack’s.

Ans 1. hottest

2. most hot

3. hotter

4. more hotter

Q.3 Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word.

The politician's speech was an attempt to mitigate the concerns of the citizens.
Ans 1. Aggravate

2. Establish

3. Lessen

4. Understand

Q.4 Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word.

The news of her promotion left her feeling buoyant, with a sense of accomplishment and pride in her work.
Ans 1. Shy

2. Peculiar

3. Dour

4. C
heerful

Q.5 Select the option that has an error in the use of present tense.
Ans 1. I have performed all my duties with utmost sincerity.

2. I am observing your mischievous activities for half an hour.

3. The painter is painting the wall right now.

4. The mother cooks delicious food for her children.

Q.6 Identify the word that can replace the INCORRECTLY spelt word in the given sentence.
The bakery is known for its scrumptous pastries, especially the cinnamon rolls.
Ans 1. scrumptiouss

2. scrumptuos

3. scrumptious

4. scrummptiouss
Q.7 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.
To throw caution to the wind
Ans 1. To do something with care and attention

2. To do something without worrying about risk

3. To roam here and there aimlessly

4. To give answer with utmost attention

Q.8 Identify the INCORRECTLY spelt word from the given sentence.
Comprehensiveness constitues wisdom and many examples from history illustrate this fact.
Ans 1. Illustrate

2. Wisdom

3. Constitues

4. Comprehensiveness

Q.9 Select the word segment that substitutes the bracketed word segment correctly and completes the sentence meaningfully.

The movie was (mostly over) when we entered the hall.

Ans 1. almost over

2. most done

3. more done

4. most over

Q.10 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined phrase.

Can you please stop continuously complaining about the student's shortcomings?
Ans 1. Whining

2. Jesting

3. Grunting

4. Crying

Q.11 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Hanging by a thread.
Ans 1. To avoid danger or trouble

2. To do something very risky

3. Crude and lacking sophistication

4. To be perilously close to failing, dying, or resulting in a bad outcome

Q.12 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blanks.

An adventurer packed _____ backpack and _____ assortment of survival gear for the challenging trek through the
wilderness.
Ans 1. a; a

2. an; an

3. a; an

4. an; a

Q.13 select the most appropriate synonym of the word given in brackets.

Despite facing numerous challenges, her [tenacious] determination never faded one bit.
Ans 1. stubborn

2. gentle

3. confused

4. weak
Q.14 In the following sentence the underlined part contains as error. Alternatives to the underlined part are given as options.
Select the correct alternative.
He looked extremely smart and handsomest in the black suit.
Ans 1. handsome

2. handsomer

3. most handsome

4. handsomely

2. No error

3. Yesterday

4. operate on my knee

Q.16 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined words in the given sentence.

After the heavy rains last Thursday, the water in the river raised another three feet.
Ans 1. rose another three feet

2. raise another three feet

3. will raise another three feet

4. risen another three feet

Q.17 Select the option that does NOT contain an adverb.

Ans 1. He never forgets his homework.

2. She ran swiftly to catch the thief.

3. Maya was quite absent-minded during class today.

4. Rohit loves chocolate.

Q.18 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM to substitute the underlined word in the given sentence.
How would you describe your ideal vacation destination?

Ans 1. gloomy

2. faulty

3. reproving

4. instant

Q.19 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

We all ____________ at the sky as it was full of stars that night.
Ans 1. Gazed

2. Saw

3. Hooked

4. Packed

Q.20 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

I need to ________ my shoelaces before going out.
Ans 1. tie

2. thigh

3. tye

4. thai
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

In the realm of literature, metaphors and similes are like (1) ________ tools for writers. They serve to (2) ________ the reader's
understanding and make the text more (3) ________. However, it's crucial for writers to (4) ________ use them, as excessive
figurative language can (5) ________ the clarity of the writing.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans 1. inoperative

2. indispensable

3. concision

4. believable

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans 1. flaw

2. abdicate

3. cavitate

4. illuminate

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans 1. substantiality

2. vivid

3. ambiguity

4. meaning

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans 1. judiciously

2. indiscriminately

3. pathetically

4. spatially
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans 1. clarify

2. simplify

3. detract from

4. enhance
Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 05/11/2024
Exam
4:00 PM - 5:30 PM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1

Ans
1.

Q.2 A 296-m long train is running at a speed of 72 km/h. In how much time will it pass a 144-m long bridge?
Ans 1. 30 seconds

2. 25 seconds

3. 22 seconds

4. 27.5 seconds

Q.3 Find the average of the first 10 natural numbers.

Ans 1. 50

2. 5.5

3. 55.5

4. 50.5

Q.4 A library has an average number of 768 visitors on Monday, and 258 visitors on others day. Find the average number of
visitors per day in a month of 30 days, beginning with Tuesday.
Ans 1. 362

2. 263

3. 236

4. 326

Q.5 At what rate of simple interest will a sum of money double itself in 12 years?
Ans
1.

3. 12%

4. 18%
Q.6 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹3500 as a sum borrowed at 4% per year rate of interest for 5 years.
Ans 1. 640

2. 740

3. 660

4. 700

Q.7 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹2500 as a sum borrowed at 9% per year rate of interest for 5 years.
Ans 1. 1085

2. 1165

3. 1065

4. 1125

Q.8 A supermarket gives two successive discounts on a mobile phone marked ₹19,000. The first discount given is 14%. If the
customer pays ₹15,048 for the phone, then what was the second discount (rounded up to two decimal points)?
Ans 1. 9.26%

2. 8.00%

3. 7.91%

4. 7.51%

Q.9 Study the given bar graph and answer the question that follows.
The given bar graph shows the annual exam average marks for five sections of class XI in Biology, Mathematics and
Chemistry. The maximum marks of each subject is 100.

Find the ratio between the average marks of five sections scored in Biology to the average marks scored in Chemistry.
Ans 1. 2 : 5

2. 459 : 457

3. 59 : 37

4. 1 : 3
Q.10 The ratio of two numbers is 3:4 and their HCF is 4. Then, their LCM is:
Ans 1. 24

2. 28

3. 38

4. 48

Q.11

Ans 1. 55%

2. 40%

3. 45%

4. 50%

Q.12 The average of a non-zero number and its square is 7 times the number. The number is:
Ans 1. 14

2. 91

3. 7

4. 13

Q.13 The length of a rectangle is four-fifths of the side of the square, whose area is 1225 units2. What is the area (in units2) of the
rectangle if the breadth is 12 units?
Ans 1. 336

2. 225

3. 300

4. 425

Q.14 In a factory, the average monthly salary of 25 unskilled workers is ₹11,950, that of 20 mechanics is ₹24,000 and that of 5
supervisors is ₹35,000. The average monthly salary of all the employees is:
Ans 1. ₹19,180

2. ₹19,225

3. ₹19,055

4. ₹19,075
Q.15
तेल के एक अर्ध-गोलाकार पात्र के किनारे की गोलाई 396 cm है। पात्र का आयतन खाली है। इस तेल को 2.1 cm त्रिज्या वाले छोटे अर्ध-

गोलाकार कटोरे में स्थानांतरित करना है। कितने कटोरों की आवश्यकता होगी?
(π = 22/7 लीजिए)
Ans 1. 27000

2. 18000

3. 9000

4. 900

Q.16 A trapezium has parallel sides 6 units and 10 units. Other two opposite sides are of same length 8 units and two diagonals
are of equal length. What is the area of the trapezium (in square units)?
Ans
1.

Q.17 A shopkeeper sells an article for ₹450.30 with a loss of 21%. What is the cost price (in ₹)of the article?
Ans 1. 429

2. 570

3. 521

4. 485

Q.18

Ans 1. 6768

2. 6876

3. 6678

4. 6687

Q.19 A dealer made some profit by selling a laptop for ₹88,000, which is equal to the amount of loss incurred on selling the same
laptop for ₹72,000. If he had sold the laptop for ₹96,000, then his profit percentage would have been:
Ans 1. 31.7%

2. 25%

3. 20%

4. 37.5%

Q.20 A thief is 150 metres away from a policeman. If the speed of the thief is 93 km/h and the speed of the policeman is 108 km/h,
then the time taken by the policeman to catch the thief is:
Ans 1. 32 seconds

2. 40 seconds

3. 38 seconds

4. 36 seconds

Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1

Ans 1.

Q.2 HN74 is related to TZ55 in a certain way . In the same way, XD60 is related to JP41. To which of the following is ZF55 related,
following the same logic?
Ans 1. LR36

2. RL46

3. RL36

4. LR46

Q.3 Read the given statement(s) and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even
if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statement(s).

Statements: Some papers are pens. All the pencils are pens.

Conclusions (I): Some pens are pencils.

Conclusions (II): Some pens are papers.

Ans 1. Only conclusion (I) follows.

2. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

3. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

4. Only conclusion (II) follows.

Q.4 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.
(10, 360, 3)
(12, 720, 5)
(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /deleting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans 1. (11, 956, 8)

2. (13, 1009, 7)

3. (8, 576, 6)

4. (17, 816, 3)

Q.5 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans
1.

4.
Q.6 Identify the figure given in the options which when put in place of ? will logically complete the series.

Ans

Q.7 In a certain code language, ‘get a driver’ is written as ‘ki jo hu’ and ‘better get out’ is writtenas ‘ji hy ki’. How is ‘get’ writtenin
the given language?
Ans 1. ki

2. jo

3. ji

4. hy

Q.8 Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.
12, 16, 22, 32, ?
Ans 1. 45

2. 44

3. 46

4. 47

Q.9 In a certain code language, ‘will you go’ is coded as ‘rp zs tu’ and ‘you come here’ is written as ‘ar cm tu’. How is ‘you’ coded
in that code language?
Ans 1. rp

2. zs

3. tu

4. ar
Q.10 Select the option figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the figure given below to complete the pattern.

Ans

4.
Q.11 Identify the figure given in the options that when put in place of the question mark (?) will logically complete the series.

Ans

Q.12 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the English alphabetical order?
SWS, TUQ, USO, VQM, ?
Ans 1. WOL

2. WOK

3. VOK

4. VOL

Q.13 In a certain code language, ‘GIRL’ is coded as ‘3571’ and ‘TAGS’ is coded as ‘4685’. What is the code for ‘G’ in that
language?
Ans 1. 8

2. 3

3. 4

4. 5
Q.14 CHUM is related to DJVO in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, NOPA is related to
OQQC. To which of the following is DYIE related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. EAJG

2. CCHI

3. DBHG

4. CBGI

Q.15 A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order). B is sitting
second to the right of A and to the immediate left of C. C is sitting second to the left of D. F is sitting to the immediate right
of A. E is not an immediate neighbour of A. How many people are sitting between D and A when counted from the left of A?
Ans 1. One

2. Three

3. Two

4. None

Q.16 What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘–’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’
are interchanged?

22 × 484 ÷ 44 – 93 + 12 = ?
Ans 1. 68

2. 38

3. 83

4. 86

Q.17 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘−‘ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are
interchanged?
41 ÷ 6 + 99 × 3 − 9 = ?
Ans 1. 220

2. 224

3. 222

4. 226

Statements:
All books are racks.
All tables are books.

Conclusions:
(I) At least some racks are tables.
(II) All racks are books.
Ans 1. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows

2. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow

3. Only conclusion (II) follows

4. Only conclusion (I) follows

Q.19 Six persons P1, P2, P3, P4, P5 and P6 sit around a circular table facing towards the centre (not necessarily in the same
order). P2 sits second to the left of P5. One person sits between P2 and P6 when counted from the left of P2. P3 and P2 are
not neighbours of P5 and P4, respectively.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
I. One person sits between P1 and P6 when counted from the right of P1.
II. P3 is an immediate neighbour of P2.
Ans 1. Both I and II

2. Neither I nor II

3. Only II

4. Only I
Q.20 11 is related to 65 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 16 is related to 90. To which of the following is 21
related following the same logic?

2. 112

3. 115

4. 113

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 Which dynasty defeated the Kanva dynasty?

Ans 1. Sunga Dynasty

2. Kushan Dynasty

3. Sakas Dynasty

4. Satavahana Dynasty

Q.2 Which of the following best represents the Revenue Deficit?

Ans 1. Primary Deficit + Fiscal Deficit

2. Revenue Expenditure + Revenue Receipts

3. Primary Deficit – Fiscal Deficit

4. Revenue Expenditure – Revenue Receipts

Q.3 The non-metallic mineral mica is used in which of the following industries?
Ans 1. Cement industry

2. Steel industry

3. Glass industry

4. Electrical industry

Q.4 Which virus is responsible for causing AIDS?

Ans 1. Herpes simplex virus (HSV)

2. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)

3. Human papillomavirus (HPV)

4. Influenza virus

Q.5 Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India emphasises the participation of workers in the management of
industries?
Ans 1. Article 42B

2. Article 44C

3. Article 46D

4. Article 43A

Q.6 Which of the following two properties of metals are exploited to prepare very thin sheets of silver to decorate sweets?
Ans 1. Ductility and lustre

2. Malleability and sonorous

3. Lustre and sonorous

4. Malleability and lustre

Q.7 What is the quorum of the Lok Sabha at the time of the Presidential address, which is held at the opening of each session of
the Lok Sabha?
Ans 1. One-third

2. One-tenth

3. One-twelfth

4. One-fourth

Q.8 As of July 2023, who was the Member of Parliament from the parliamentary constituency of Varanasi?
Ans 1. Narendra Modi

2. Rajnath Singh

3. Smriti Irani

4. Yogi Adityanath

Q.9 The Muhammadan Anglo-Oriental College in Aligarh was founded by ___________.

Ans 1. Mohammad Ali Jinnah

2. Muzaffar Ahmed

3. Sir Syed Ahmed Khan

4. Maulana Abul Kalam Azad

Q.10 Panch Mahal, a palace in Fatehpur Sikri, was built by the Mughal Emperor ________.
Ans 1. Jahangir

2. Babar

3. Akbar

4. Shah Jahan

Q.11 The Jhaveri Sisters are known for keeping alive the temple tradition of which of the following classical dances of India?
Ans 1. Sattriya

2. Kathakali

3. Manipuri

4. Kathak

Q.12 The historical novel, 'Train to Pakistan' was written by:

Ans 1. Shashi Tharoor

2. Arundhati Roy

3. Khushwant Singh

4. Jawaharlal Nehru

Q.13 The Indravati National Park is located in which state?

Ans 1. Tamil Nadu

2. Tripura

3. Chhattisgarh

4. Rajasthan

Q.14 Emani Sankara Sastry and Doraiswamy Iyengar are both associated with which musical instrument?
Ans 1. Flute

2. Veena

3. Ghatam

4. Violin
Q.15 According to the census of India 2011, which of the following states is least urbanised?
Ans 1. Chhattisgarh

2. Bihar

3. Uttar Pradesh

4. Himachal Pradesh

Q.16

Ans 1. Both 1 and 2

2. Both 1 and 3

3. Only 2

4. Only 3

Q.17 The navigable portion of Barak River in India is the 121 km stretch between Lakhipur and Bhanga, which was declared as
______ in the year 2016.
Ans 1. NW-5

2. NW-8

3. NW-16

4. NW-10

Q.18 Against which of the following were ‘Swadeshi’ and ‘Boycott’ used as the means of protest and struggle, for the first time in
India?
Ans 1. Rowlatt Act

2. Partition of Bengal

3. Simon Commission

4. Jallianwala Bagh massacre

Q.19 A hockey ground is rectangular in shape, measuring 91.4 m in length and ______ in width.
Ans 1. 50 m

2. 55 m

3. 60 m

4. 70 m

Q.20 The National Population Register was created under the provisions of _______ and ______.
a. the Citizenship Act, 1965
b. the Citizenship Rules, 2004
c. the Citizenship Act, 1955
d. the Citizenship Rules, 2003
Ans 1. a; c

2. a; b

3. b; d

4. c; d
Q.21 In May 2023, the Supreme Court interpreted which article related to the governance structure of Delhi, which outlines the
principles of federalism, participatory democracy and collective responsibility?
Ans 1. Article 226

2. Article 323A

3. Article 243B

4. Article 239AA

Q.22 Nishagandhi festival is celebrated in which of the following states?

Ans 1. Uttarakhand

2. Jharkhand

3. Maharashtra

4. Kerala

Q.23 Which Bharatanatyam dancer is the recipient of one of India’s top civilian award, the Padma Vibhushan 1977?
Ans 1. Yamini Krishnamurthy

2. Kelucharan Mohapatra

3. T Balasaraswati

4. Mallika Sarabhai

Q.24 Where was the inaugural season of Ultimate Kho-Kho League held in 2022?
Ans 1. Bhusawal

2. Thane

3. Pune

4. Amravati

Q.25 Which of the following options correctly matches Column-A with Column-B?

Ans 1. i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a

2. i-c, ii-d, iii-b, iv-a

3. i-c, ii-a, iii-d, iv-b

4. i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 Select the most appropriate idiom that can substitute the underlined segment.
Despite the difficulties, Sarah started her business with great energy and hard work,and performed remarkably well in the
industry.
Ans 1. hit the ground running

2. hit the hay

3. spilled the beans

4. let sleeping dogs lie

Q.2 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word in the given sentence.

The mother told the child to erase the extra dots from the given graph.
Ans 1. Create

2. Shatter

3. Delete

4. Efface

Q.3 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
She oftenly goes / shopping with / her friends / on Saturdays.
Ans 1. her friends

2. on Saturdays

3. She oftenly goes

4. shopping with

Q.4 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to
substitute it, select ‘No substitution’.

No sooner had she enter her apartment than she found a bouquet of flowers on her table.
Ans 1. No substitution

2. No sooner did she entered her apartment than

3. No sooner did she enter her apartment than

4. No sooner has she enter her apartment than

Q.5 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in future continuous tense form.
Shall I meet you soon?
Ans 1. Shall I have met you soon?

2. Shall I be meeting you soon?

3. Will we be meeting soon?

4. Will I be meeting you soon?

Q.6 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.
The rules of behaviour which guide one in a formal situation
Ans 1. Affidavit

2. Protocol

3. Bargain

4. Impropriety

Q.7 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans 1. Cautios

2. Anxious

3. Curious

4. Bashful

Q.8 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

The company ran about of stock due to unexpectedly high demand for the product.

Ans 1. ran out of stock due to

2. ran around of stock due to

3. ran across of stock due to

4. ran on of stock due to

Q.9 Identify the INCORRECTLY spelt word from the given sentence.
Enthusiasm is one of those vital elements that transforms an indivdual and his failures into victories and success.
Ans 1. Success

2. Indivdual

3. Victories

4. Failures

Q.10 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined word in the given sentence.
Disclaimer on products in the markets saves manufacturer from unusual results on usage.
Ans 1. Guarantee

2. Approval

3. Clause

4. Acceptance

Q.11 Select the most appropriate degree to fill in the blank.

Doctors should never be ___________ than others when patients come for their treatment.
Ans 1. least caring

2. more caring

3. most caring

4. less caring

Q.12 Select the option that rectifies the underlined spelling error.

The panel submited the findings to the ministry.

Ans 1. submittad

2. submittd

3. sumitted

4. submitted

Q.13 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Clear the decks

Ans 1. To draw something down

2. To take something away

3. To remove unnecessary things for further work

4. Prepare for an event or course of action by dealing with anything that might hinder progress

Q.14 Identify the error in the following sentence.

The zoo is under the street from the temple.
Ans 1. zoo

2. temple

3. from

4. under

Q.15 Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word.

The order will be operational from 1st of November.
Ans 1. considered

2. provoked

3. scrapped

4. effective
Q.16 The following sentence has been split into four parts. Identify the part that contains a grammatical error.

A student becomes / dearer to the teachers / via participating and actively working / towards the glory of the school.
Ans 1. A student becomes

2. dearer to the teachers

3. via participating and actively working

4. towards the glory of the school.

Q.17 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word in the given sentence.
He was appointed as the Manager.
Ans 1. Dismissed

2. Disordered

3. Assigned

4. Disappointed

Q.18 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to
substitute it, select ‘No substitution required’.

Her team played exceptionally more well in the competition.

Ans 1. No substitution required

2. well

3. most well

4. more well

Q.19 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

I have never _________ this kind of pain before surgery.
Ans 1. experienced

2. practised

3. trained

4. dedicated

Q.20 Select the word that has the same meaning (SYNONYM) as the underlined word in the given sentence.

The doctor made a tentative diagnosis as he did not have the reports of her blood tests.
Ans 1. provisional

2. tedious

3. hazardous

4. obsolete

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

Indian villages showcase the country's rich culture and customs. Most Indians live in villages, (1)_______ agriculture, modest living
and close-knit communities are the norms. Villagers wake up to roosters crowing and farm (2)_____ day. Farming is the main
employment, and generations labour (3)____ the same land. Traditions, communal events and a slower pace (4)_____ village life
from metropolitan life. Villagers' togetherness and shared duty make it part of India's identity, (5)_____ the lack of contemporary
conveniences.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans 1. where

2. what

3. which

4. when
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans 1. all

2. towards

3. before

4. after

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans 1. on

2. with

3. at

4. in

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans 1. compare

2. balance

3. distinguish

4. equate
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans 1. in spite

2. beside

3. instead of

4. despite
Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 11/11/2024
Exam
9:00 AM - 11:00 AM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 A sum of ₹717 becomes ₹874.74 in 5 years at a certain rate of simple interest. If the rate of interest is increased by 3.1%,
then what will be the simple interest (in ₹) of ₹717 in 5 years?
Ans 1. 211.115

2. 268.875

3. 279.125

4. 201.135

Q.2 The rate of oil is increased by 12% every year. The rate in the next year would be ₹125.44 per litre. What is the difference
between the prices (in ₹) per litre of the oil in the last year and this year?
Ans 1. 14.5

2. 17.5

3. 15.5

4. 12

Q.3 The average of 10 numbers is 29. The average of the first 6 numbers is 22 and that of the last 6 numbers is 32. What is the
average of the 5th number and the 6th number?
Ans 1. 20

2. 27

3. 17

4. 24

Q.4

Ans 1. 262

2. 261

3. 259

4. 260

Q.5 A, B and C start running around a circular track and complete one round in 16, 20 and 28 seconds, respectively. In how
much time will they meet again at the starting point?
Ans 1. 220 seconds

2. 310 seconds

3. 510 seconds

4. 560 seconds

Q.6 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹3000 as a sum borrowed at 6% per year rate of interest for 3 years.
Ans 1. 540

2. 500

3. 480

4. 580
Q.7 Sohan buys 16 oranges for ₹80 and sells 30 oranges for ₹168. Find the percentage of his profit.
Ans 1.

Q.8 The difference between successive discounts of 25% followed by 12% and 20% followed by 15% on the marked price of a
saree is ₹50. The marked price of the saree is:
Ans 1. ₹625

2. ₹1,250

3. ₹5,000

4. ₹2,500

Q.9

Ans 1. 14 cm

2. 12 cm

3. 15 cm

4. 13 cm

Q.10 The average of 5 consecutive natural numbers is 7. Which is the largest number among these?
Ans 1. 8

2. 7

3. 10

4. 9

Q.11 What sum (in ₹) will earn a simple interest of ₹360 in 3 years at 16% per year rate of interest?
Ans 1. 1000

2. 1500

3. 750

4. 375

Q
.
1
2
A 1. 35,705
n
s
2. 25,575

3. 18,775

4. 41,560

Q.13 The average of 11 numbers is 17. If the average of the first five numbers is 16 and the average of the last five numbers is 19,
then the sixth number is:
Ans 1. 15

2. 12

3. 17

4. 14

Q.14 Find the HCF of 10, 35 and 55.

Ans 1. 25

2. 15

3. 10

4. 5

Q.15 Find the total surface area of a cone having base radius 49 cm and slant height 61 cm.
Ans 1. 15,900 cm2

2. 16,040 cm2

3. 15,940 cm2

4. 16,940 cm2
Q.16 A cylinder has curved surface area equal to area of the flat surfaces of the cylinder. If the diameter of the cylinder is r units,
then the total surface area of the cylinder (in square units) will be _____.
Ans 1.

Q.17 A thief saw a policeman from a distance of 300 m and started running. At the same time, the policeman started chasing the
thief. If the speed of the thief is 12 km/h and that of the policeman 15 km/h, then the distance (in km) covered by the
policeman to catch the thief is:
Ans 1. 1.0

2. 2.0

3. 1.5

4. 2.5

Q.18 There are 20 cricket balls in the showroom. Among these 20 balls, some are yellow and some are white. The average cost of
all the balls is ₹75. If the average cost of yellow balls is ₹80 and that of white is ₹60, then the number of yellow balls is:
Ans 1. 15

2. 6

3. 14

4. 5

Q.
19

A 1. 30%
ns
2. 45%

3. 50%

4. 25%

Q.20
The given bar graph shows the marks obtained by five students in Exam I
and Exam II.Study the graph carefully to answer the question that follows.

The marks obtain by Naveen in Exam-II are what per cent of the total
marks obtained by all five students in Exam-II?
Ans 1. 25%

2. 28.5%

3. 31.5%

4. 35%

Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1 When the signs + and ÷ as well as the numbers 5 and 10 are interchanged, which option will be the correct one?
Ans 1. 3 + 5 ÷ 10 = 2

2. 5 + 10 ÷ 2 = 4

3. 5 ÷ 1 + 10 = 1

4. 6 ÷ 10 + 5 = 6

Q.2 In a certain code language, ‘SLAM’ is coded as ‘4918’ and ‘LAME’ is coded as ‘2184’. What is the code for ‘S’ in the given
language?
Ans 1. 1

2. 9

3. 8

4. 4

Q.3 Select the figure from the options that can replace the question mark (?) and logically complete the series.

Ans

Q.4

Ans 1. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

2. Both conclusion (I) and (II) follow.

3. Only Conclusion (II) follows.

4. Only Conclusion (I) follows.

Q.5 In a certain code language, ‘FROM’ is coded as ‘7519’ and ‘MADE’ is coded as ‘2146’.What is the code for ‘M’ in the given
code language?
Ans 1. 7

2. 2

3. 1

4. 9
Q.6 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?
HCJ, JGL, LKN, ? , PSR
Ans 1. MST

2. OOP

3. NOP

4. NQP

Q.7 Seven friends - L, M, N, O, D, E, and F - are seated around a circular table, facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same
order). O is sitting fifth to the right of L. M has F and O as immediate neighbours. N and L are immediate neighbours of E.
Who is sitting to the immediate left of D?
Ans 1. O

2. M

3. L

4. F

Q.8 JHMK is related to PNSQ in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, NLQO is related to
TRWU . To which of the following is QOTR related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. UWZX

2. UWXZ

3. WUZX

4. WUXZ

Q.9 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans
1.

Q.10 Read the given statement(s) and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even
if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statement(s).

Statements:
All shirts are pants.
Some shirts are watches.

Conclusions:
(I) Some pants are watches.
(II) Some watches are not shirts.
Ans 1. Both conclusions I and II follow.

2. Only conclusion II follows.

3. Neither conclusion I nor II follows.

4. Only conclusion I follows.

Q.11 Select the option figure in which the given figure (X) is embedded as its part (rotation is NOT allowed).

Ans

Q.12 A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order). E sits
second to the right of A. B sits fourth to the right of D. F is an immediate neighbour of E and G. Who sits third to the right of
C?
Ans 1. E

2. F

3. D

4. G

Q.13 4 is related to 34 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 7 is related to 61. To which of the following is 11 related,
following the same logic?

(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding / subtracting / multiplying etc., to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13
into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans 1. 98

2. 99

3. 97

4. 88
Q.14

Ans
1.

Q.15 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g., 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding / subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13
into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
(15, 14, 13)
(12, 10, 8)
Ans 1. (11, 22, 12)

2. (10, 12, 8)

3. (15, 15, 15)

4. (13, 11, 7)

Q.16 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

28, 31, 36, 43, 54, ?

Ans 1. 65

2. 64

3. 67

4. 66

Q.17 In a code language, 'PORTER' is written as 'RVYALP' and 'REMOTE' is written as 'ELTVAR'. How will 'CLOUDY' be written in
the same language?
Ans 1. YTVBKC

2. YSVBKC

3. XSVBKC

4. XTVBKC

Q.18 Which two numbers should be interchanged to make the following equation correct?

(54 ÷ 18)× 5 + 9 × 2 −45 + 12 × 3 = 57

(Note: Interchange should be done of the entire number and not individual digits of a given number.)
Ans 1. 18 and 9

2. 2 and 5

3. 5 and 3

4. 9 and 12

Q.19

Ans 1.

Q.20 DA2 is related to GD10 in a certain way. In the same way, SP7 is related to VS35. To which of the following is JG10 related
following the same logic?
Ans 1. GF70

2. MJ70

3. GF50

4. MJ50
Section : General Awareness

Q.1 In 2017, who became the first Indian singer to make it to Delhi's Madame Tussauds Museum?
Ans 1. Sunidhi Chauhan

2. Kavita Krishnamurthy

3. Shreya Ghoshal

4. Alisha Chinai

Q.2 Vitamin D is synthesised using sunshine, by the:

Ans 1. skin

2. mouth

3. blood veins

4. leg

Q.3 In which weight category did Nitu Ghanghas win the IBA Women's World Boxing Championship event, 2023?
Ans 1. 75 kg

2. 50 kg

3. 48 kg

4. 81 kg

Q.4 As on 31st October 2023, the youngest member of parliament (in terms of age) in the 17th Lok Sabha, Chandrani Murmu,
represents which political party?
Ans 1. Bharatiya Janata Party

2. Indian National Congress

3. Aam Admi Party

4. Biju Janata Dal

Q.5 The institution like Lokpal or Lokayukta (Ombudsman) was first created in which of the following countries?
Ans 1. New Zealand

2. Norway

3. Britain

4. Sweden

Q.6 Which of the following structures has the IUPAC name 7-hydroxy-5-methylheptan-2-one?
Ans

Q.7 What is the title of Sania Mirza's autobiography?

Ans 1. Changing India

2. Ace Against Odds

3. Wings of Fire

4. The Test of My Life

Q.8 Which of the following was the capital of Vatsa Mahajanapada?
Ans 1. Kausambi

2. Ahichchatra

3. Ujjayini

4. Vaishali

Q.9 Where was the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association established in the year 1928?
Ans 1. Agra

2. Kanpur

3. Delhi

4. Lahore

Q.10 In june 2023, which state government among the following has announced the 'Shakti' scheme for free bus travel for women
and trans people within the state?
Ans 1. Tamil Nadu

2. Telangana

3. Kerala

4. Karnataka

Q.11 According to Article ____, no religious instruction shall be provided in any educational institution wholly maintained out of
State funds.
Ans 1. 30

2. 28

3. 29

4. 27

Q.12 Which structure within the nucleus contains genetic information in the form of DNA?
Ans 1. Ribosome

2. Chromosome

3. Nucleolus

4. Vacuole

Q.13 Which of the following is the first planned industrial city in India?
Ans 1. Indore

2. Chandigarh

3. Navi Mumbai

4. Jamshedpur

Q.14 Which of the following is NOT a commercial bank?

Ans 1. State Bank of India

2. The Industrial Credit and Investment Corporation of India Bank

3. Development Bank of Singapore

4. National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development

Q.15 Who among the following received the Nritya Kalanidhi for the year 2022?
Ans 1. Kalyanasundaram Pillai

2. Geeta Chandran

3. Chitra Visweswaran

4. Bragha Bessell

Q.16 Bhamidipati Srivalli Rashmika is associated with which game?

Ans 1. Lawn Tennis

2. Kho-Kho

3. Badminton

4. Football

Q.17 In which of the following years was a Hindu College in Benaras established to impart education from the ancient Sanskrit
texts?
Ans 1. 1794

2. 1791

3. 1801

4. 1790
Q.18 Which festival is celebrated at Sabarimala temple, on the occassion of Makar Sakranti?
Ans 1. Ugadi

2. Makaravilakku

3. Onam

4. Vishu

Q.19 Former Indian actress Vyjayanthimala was trained in which classical dance form?
Ans 1. Manipuri

2. Odissi

3. Sattriya

4. Bharatanatyam

Q.20 Who among the following was the first sultan of Delhi Sultanate to visit the Ajmer shrine of Khwaja Muinuddin Chishti?
Ans 1. Ghiyasuddin Balban

2. Jalaluddin Khalji

3. Muhammad bin Tughlaq

4. Khizr Khan

Q.21 In which year was Pt. Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana (Scheme) announced by the Government of India?
Ans 1. 2013

2. 2014

3. 2010

4. 2012

Q.22 In Kerala and coastal area of Karnataka the pre-monsoon shower is known as ______.
Ans 1. Kalbaisakhi

2. Bardoisila

3. Mango shower

4. Blossom shower

Q.23 According to the Human Development Index 2023-24, what is the rank of India?
Ans 1. 132

2. 130

3. 134

4. 129

Q.24 Plutonic rocks are formed when lava cools ______.

Ans 1. in the core

2. in the asthenosphere

3. in the crust

4. at the surface

Q.25 Drains exiting from Mohenjo-Daro had ________ doors that were probably closed at night to prevent vagrants or negative
elements from entering the city through that access.
Ans 1. wooden

2. sandstone

3. mud

4. iron

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to
substitute it, select ‘No substitution’.

This was not only exciting but rewarding because I was able to experience adventure for the first time in my life.
Ans 1. This was not only exciting but also rewarding

2. This was not only excited but also rewarding

3. No substitution

4. This was not only exciting but also rewarded

Q.2 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank and complete the given phrase.

She was on cloud ________ after receiving the scholarship.

Ans 1. ten

2. seven

3. nine

4. eight

Q.3 Select the option that has used the correct tense.
Ans 1. He realised he had forgotten his keys after he had leave the house.

2. He realised he had forgotten his keys after he had left the house.

3. He realised he had forgotten his keys after he has leave the house.

4. He realised he had forgotten his keys after he was left the house.

Q.4 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

The Lal Chowk is a large open square surrounded by mansions of the wealthiest classes than educated ones.
Ans 1. wealthy

2. wealthier

3. more wealthier

4. the wealthy

Q.5 Select the correctly spelt word to fill in the blank.

Macbeth believed the witches’ _________ about his future.
Ans 1. tyrany

2. questionaire

3. prophecy

4. suprise

2. No error

3. She often goes for a walk

4. with her dog

Q.7 Select the appropriate option that can substitute the underlined word in the following sentence to make it grammatically
correct.

She is the most active and the more energetic social worker in our team.
Ans 1. the most

2. the much

3. very

4. most

Q.8 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined words in the given sentence.

We rely on Hiren because he is most intelligent than many other boys in our school quiz team.
Ans 1. less intelligent

2. least intelligent

3. only intelligent

4. more intelligent

Q.9 Select the most appropriate idiom for the highlighted text in the given sentence.

The company was rapidly deteriorating when the chairman and some top officials were accused of fraud.
Ans 1. head over heels

2. hell in a handbasket

3. hitting the sack

4. holding your horses

Q.10 Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word.
Army officers are given training to decipher the secret messages sent during war time.
Ans 1. Decode

2. Encode

3. Defy

4. Decide

Q.11 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Excessive
Ans 1. Scarce

2. Cute

3. Dirty

4. Exorbitant

Q.12 Select the word segment that can substitute the bracketed words correctly and complete the sentence meaningfully.
(My husband and I) are from Varanasi.
Ans 1. Either of us

2. Both of us

3. Everyone of us

4. Each one of us

Q.13 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans 1. subterfuge

2. sufficient

3. succlucent

4. sanguinity

Q.14 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The teacher __________ the students to think critically about the topic.
Ans 1. acquiesced

2. admonished

3. advised

4. assented

Q.15 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Insist
Ans 1. Barge

2. Urge

3. Rebut

4. Wage

Q.16 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical/spelling error.

She has taken / nothing from yesterday / and is feeling / nauseatic now.
Ans 1. nauseatic now

2. She has taken

3. nothing from yesterday

4. and is feeling

Q.17 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Boisterous
Ans 1. Quiet

2. Noisy

3. Cheerful

4. Bossy
Q.18 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the highlighted group of words in the given sentence.

There is an increasing number of people who do not believe in the existence of God.
Ans 1. seers

2. cynics

3. fugitives

4. atheists

Q.19 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word.

The strongest suit of documentary theatre lies not only in political insight and ignorance, but also in the variety of aesthetic
approaches it makes possible.
Ans 1. Mistake

2. Perspicuity

3. Discrimination

4. Acumen

Q.20 Select the correctly spelled sentence.

Ans 1. The gardener planted colourfull flowers in the gardin.

2. The gardner planted colorful flowers in the gardin.

3. The gardener planted colourful flowers in the garden.

4. The gardner planted colorfull flowers in the garden.

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

As 2023 closes as the warmest year on (1)_______________, there is growing global concern about the rise
of extreme weather (2)________________ such as floods, droughts and heatwaves. The atmosphere and
oceans are warming due to increasing (3)______________ of greenhouse gases, largely caused by burning
fossil fuels. This has led to a greater risk of (4)___________________ rainfall and flooding. For every 1°C rise
in average global temperature, the atmosphere can hold an extra 7% water vapour. When the right
atmospheric 'triggers' are in place, this extra water vapour is (5)________________ as intense rainfall.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 1.
Ans 1. record

2.
absence
3.
blankness
4.
erasure

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 2.
Ans 1.
quietude
2. events

3.
idleness
4.
inertness
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 3.
Ans 1.
retentions
2.
collections
3.
immersions
4. emissions

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 4.
Ans 1.
moderate
2.
gentle
3. extreme

4.
average

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 5.
Ans 1.
ensnared
2. released

3.
detained
4.
confiscated
Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 11/11/2024
Exam
12:30 PM - 2:30 PM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 Out of his monthly income, Mr. Sharma spends 24% on house rent and 70% on household expenses and saves the balance.
If every month, he saves ₹1,200, then what is his monthly income?
Ans 1. ₹20,000

2. ₹32,000

3. ₹27,000

4. ₹25,000

Q.2 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹2500 as a sum borrowed at 5% per year rate of interest for 2 years.
Ans 1. 210

2. 290

3. 190

4. 250

Q.3 C.P. of 21 books is equal to S.P. of 20 books. What is the gain percentage?
Ans
1.

Q.4 I walk at a speed of 10 km/h and reach my destination in 2 hrs. If I increase my speed by 2 km/h, how early would I reach my
destination?
Ans 1. 100 min

2. 50 min

3. 40 min

4. 20 min

Q.5 In a class of 40 students the ratio of boys to girls is 3 : 5. If the average marks scored by the boys in Science is 70 and the
average marks scored by the whole class in Science is 60, then find the average marks scored by the girls in Science.
Ans 1. 54

2. 56

3. 52

4. 50
Q.6 The sum of the radii of spheres A and B is 14 cm, the radius of A being larger than that of B. The difference between their
surface areas is 112 π cm2 . What is the ratio of the volumes of B to A?
Ans 1. 27 : 64

2. 64 : 27

3. 64 : 25

4. 25 : 64

Q.7 Rahul and Rohit start running on a circular track (of length 360 m) from the same point simultaneously with a speed of 3 m/s
and 4 m/s. After how much time from the start, they will meet again at the starting point?
Ans 1. 2 minutes

2. 12 minutes

3. 6 minutes

4. 3 minutes

Q.8 Manoj buys 1 kg tomato for ₹80 and sells it for ₹90. He also uses a weight of 800 gm in place of 1 kg. What is Manoj’s actual
profit percentage on the sale of 1 kg tomato?
Ans 1. 40.625%

2. 12.5%

3. 37.5%

4. 25%

Q.9

Ans 1. 21

2. 35

3. 28

4. 24

Q.10 The average marks obtained by 75 students in a certain examination is 38. Find the total marks.
Ans 1. 4294

2. 113

3. 1406

4. 2850

Q.11 In a stationary shop, a pen is marked as ₹80 and it is sold at a discount of 15%. The shopkeeper also offers a special
discount of ₹8 on the pen. Find the cost price of the pen if the shopkeeper earns a profit of 20%.
Ans 1. ₹62

2. ₹60

3. ₹75

4. ₹50

Q.12 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹3500 as a sum borrowed at 3% per year rate of interest for 3 years.
Ans 1. 255

2. 315

3. 275

4. 355
Q.13 Refer the following data table and answer the question.

What was the increase in the height (in cm) of the child from the 7th birthday to the 8th birthday?
Ans 1. 5

2. 8

3. 6

4. 7

Q.14 In an examination, the average marks obtained by 15 students was 96, by 12 other students was 84 and by 13 other students
was 68. Find the average marks of all 40 students.
Ans 1. 83.3

2. 87.6

3. 68.5

4. 78.6

Q.15 If the height of a triangle is 45 cm and base is 70 cm, then the area of the triangle is:
Ans
1.

Q.16 The speeds of three trains are in the ratio 5 : 3 : 7. What is the ratio of the time taken by them to travel the same distance?
Ans
1.

Q.17 ₹7,000 becomes₹7,567 in 2 years at simple interest at a certain rate percentage. Find the principal amount
(in₹) that will become₹24,050 in 5 years at the same rate of interest.
Ans 1. 24,000

2. 18,300

3. 20,000

4. 12,500
Q.18 The HCF of 204 and 1547 is:
Ans 1. 17

2. 15

3. 18

4. 19

Q.19 The demand and production for five businesses, V, W, X, Y, and Z, are shown in the accompanying chart, which illustrates
them using a basic bar graph to provide an answer.

If the demand of company Z is k times than that of company W, then find the value of k.
Ans 1. 5

2. 7

3. 8

4. 6

Q.20 The average weight of a family of five members (in kg) whose weights are 40 kg, 49 kg, 56 kg, 69 kg and 36 kg is:
Ans 1. 50

2. 49

3. 52

4. 51

Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘+’ and ‘–’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are
interchanged?
111 – 1 + 36 ÷ 2 × 12 = ?
Ans 1. 144

2. 160

3. 120

4. 106

Q.2 Adesh, Rinki, Narendra, Priya, Kiara, Sahil, and Lakshmi are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre (but not
necessarily in the same order).
Kiara sits third to the left of Sahil. Rinki sits to the immediate right of Priya, who sits with Sahil. Adesh sits second to the
right of Lakshmi.
Who is sitting to the immediate left of Adesh?
Ans 1. Narendra

2. Rinki

3. Kiara

4. Sahil
Q.3 FH 61 is related to JL 69 in a certain way. In the same way, QS 76 is related to UW 84. To which of the following is LN 46
related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. PR 54

2. NK 56

3. CG 51

4. HU 52

Q.4 Identify the figure from the given options that can replace the question mark (?) and logically complete the series.

Ans

Q.5 In a certain code language, ‘EVIL’ is coded as ‘5731’ and ‘BEAD’ is coded as ‘4816’.What is the code for ‘E’ in the given code
language?
Ans 1. 5

2. 8

3. 1

4. 3
Q.6 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans
1.

Q.7 This question has two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to
be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions
logically follow(s) from the given statements.
Statements:
All apricots are buns.
All buns are sweet.
Conclusions
(I) Some apricots are sweet.
(II) Some buns are apricots.
Ans 1. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows

2. Only conclusion (II) follows

3. Only conclusion (I) follows

4. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow

Q.8 What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘–’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’
are interchanged?

15 ÷ 15 – 30 + 225 × 25 = ?
Ans 1. 426

2. 246

3. 236

4. 146

Q.9 Seven friends - M, N, O, P, Q, R, and S - are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same
order). O is sitting third to the right of S. N is sitting second to the right of O. Q is an immediate neighbour of both M and S.
P is an immediate neighbour of both O and N.
Who is sitting to the immediate right of R?
Ans 1. O

2. N

3. M

4. S

Q.10 In a certain code language, ‘GOAT’ is coded as ‘2684’ and ‘OPEN’ is coded as ‘3598’.What is the code for ‘O’ in the given
code language?
Ans 1. 5

2. 3

3. 6

4. 8
Q.11 Identify the figure given in the options which when put in place of ‘?’ will logically complete the series.

Ans

Q.12 In a certain code language, ‘FEEDING’ is coded as ‘ECBDJPJ’ and ‘SURFACE’ is coded as ‘RSOFBEH’. How will ‘MIGRATE’
be coded in the same language?
Ans 1. LGDRBVH

2. LHDRBUH

3. LGCRCUI

4. LGERBVG

Q.13 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

(6, 24, 36)

(8, 11, 25)
Ans 1. (18, 2, 47)

2. (2, 14, 20)

3. (5, 19, 30)

4. (15, 23, 34)

Q.14 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order ?

CEH, FHK, IKN, LNQ, ?

Ans 1. NPS

2. OQT

3. MOP

4. PRU

Q.15

Ans 1. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

2. Both conclusion (I) and (II) follow.

3. Only conclusion (I) follows.

4. Only conclusion (II) follows.

Q.16 KRAV is related to GNWR in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, UBKF is related to
QXGB. To which of the following is IPYT related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. PELU

2. LUPE

3. ELUP

4. ELPU

Q.17 12 is related to 139 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 17 is related to 284. To which ofthe following is 18
related, following the same logic?(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbersinto its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13can be
performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1and 3 is not allowed)
Ans 1. 324

2. 309

3. 312

4. 319

Q.18 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series?

12, 18, 36, 90, 252, ?

Ans 1. 738

2. 876

3. 800

4. 789

Q.19

Ans 1.

4.
Q.20 Select the option figure in which the given figure is embedded as its part (rotation is NOT allowed).

Ans

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 In December 2023, who became the first women Chief of Central Industrial Security Force (CISF) in India?
Ans 1. Archana Ramasundaram

2. Vimla Mehra

3. Nina Singh

4. Rashmi Shukla

Q.2 The autobiography, 'An Autobiography' by Jawaharlal Nehru is also known as ______________.
Ans 1. My Idea of Education

2. The Accidental Prime Minister

3. Toward Freedom

4. The Unfinished Innings

Q.3 In which of the following states is the groundnut fair, ’Kadalekayi Parishe’ celebrated on the last Monday of the Karthika
month of the Hindu calendar?
Ans 1. Kerala

2. Tamil Nadu

3. Madhya Pradesh

4. Karnataka
Q.4 The earthquakes that are generated due to the explosion of chemical or nuclear devices are known as:
Ans 1. Collapse earthquakes

2. Explosion earthquakes

3. Tectonic earthquakes

4. Reservoir-induced earthquakes

Q.5 Which of the following gases is generally used to flush bags of chips by the manufacturers?
Ans 1. Compressed air

2. Oxygen

3. Carbon dioxide

4. Nitrogen

Q.6 In the year 1940, the national games were hosted by which of the following cities?
Ans 1. Lahore

2. Lucknow

3. Patiala

4. Bombay

Q.7 Who among the following was the founder of 'Satnami movement' in the central India?
Ans 1. Ghasidas

2. Narayan Guru

3. Saint Haridas

4. Jyoti Rao Phule

Q.8 What does a budget deficit indicate?

Ans 1. The government is saving for future projects

2. The government is not allocating enough funds for public services

3. Government revenue exceeds government spending

4. Government spending exceeds government revenue

Q.9 In which of the following years was the state of Golconda finally annexed into the Mughal empire?
Ans 1. 1697

2. 1687

3. 1685

4. 1690

Q.10 Palkigundu Minor Rock Edicts of Ashoka are located in _________.

Ans 1. Telangana

2. Tamil Nadu

3. Karnataka

4. Maharashtra

Q.11 The Great Granary was one of the largest granaries in the _______________.
Ans 1. Egyptian Civilization

2. Mesopotamian Civilization

3. Harappan Civilization

4. Mayan Civilization
Q.12 Who among the following Indian dancers was honoured with the Padma Vibhushan in 1971, who was also known as the
father of modern Indian dance?
Ans 1. Pandit Durga Lal

2. Uday Shankar

3. Kelucharan

4. Pandit Birju Maharaj

Q.13 As on February 2024, Nitish Kumar is the 9th time Chief Minister of which state?
Ans 1. Odisha

2. Chattisgarh

3. Bihar

4. Jharkhand

Q.14 In the 1974 edition of the Guinness Book of Records, which playback singer was mentioned as the most recorded artist
in human history?
Ans 1. Pulapaka Susheela

2. Lata Mangeshkar

3. KS Chithra

4. Alka Yagnik

Q.15 What is the female literacy rate in India, as per the 2011 census?
Ans 1. 66.44%

2. 64.66%

3. 65.46%

4. 65.64%

Q.16 Forward Bloc was founded in 1939-40 by which of the following leaders?
Ans 1. Subhash Chandra Bose

2. Rash Behari Bose

3. Jawahar Lal Nehru

4. Chittaranjan Das

Q.17 Dandiya Raas is a famous dance form of which state?

Ans 1. Punjab

2. Uttar Pradesh

3. Chhattisgarh

4. Gujarat

Q.18 Which of the following is/are the highest judiciary in India?

Ans 1. District Courts

2. Supreme Court

3. High Courts

4. Parliament

Q.19 The Mayurbhanj District in Odisha is a part of which Biosphere Reserve from the following?
Ans 1. Dehang Debang

2. Similipal

3. Pachmarhi

4. Nokrek
Q.20 As per Ministry of Road Transport and Highways, what is the total length of National Highways in India as of November
2022?
Ans 1. 1,85,633 kilometres

2. 1,45,897 kilometres

3. 1,86,908 kilometres
4. 1,44,634 kilometres

Q.21 Which of the following neighbouring countries of India is most populous?

Ans 1. Bangladesh

2. Afghanistan

3. Bhutan

4. Pakistan

Q.22 Who among the following athletes was conferred with the Arjuna Award, 2021 by President Ram Nath Kovind?
Ans 1. Dutee Chand

2. Arpinder Singh

3. Tajinder Pal Singh Toor

4. Swapna Barman

Q.23 Which of the following is the federal feature of the Indian Constitution?
Ans 1. Bicameralism

2. Integrated Judiciary

3. Single Citizenship

4. All India Service

Q.24 When a sailor jumps out of a rowing boat, the boat moves backwards. This represents:
Ans 1. the First law of motion

2. the Third law of motion

3. rectilinear motion

4. the Second law of motion

Q.25 When the body is deprived of energy from food, which of the following tissues is used to feed on its own?
Ans 1. Nervous tissue

2. Collenchyma tissue

3. Epithelial tissue

4. Adipose tissue

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word in the given sentence.
A lot of social work is hindered due to corrupt politicians.
Ans 1. Obstructed

2. Collided

3. Helped

4. Abided
Q.2 Change the following sentence into positive degree.

The dog is the most faithful animal.

Ans 1. The dog is more useful than any other animal.

2. The dog is the faithful animal.

3. No other animal is as faithful as the dog.

4. The dog is the only faithful animal.

My mother is 51 years old, / and my uncle is 48 years old. / So my mother is old than my uncle.
Ans 1. My mother is 51 years old,

2. and my uncle is 48 years old.

3. So my mother is old than my uncle.

4. No error

Q.4 Based on the context of the given sentence, select the most appropriate idiom to fill in the blank.

Siri was feeling ____________ after receiving praise from her professor for completing the project ahead of schedule.
Ans 1. under the weather

2. in the dark

3. in the same boat

4. on top of the world

Q.5 Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. Select the option that contains an error.

My sister is allergic with peanuts, so be cautious when preparing her meal.

Ans 1. so be cautious

2. when preparing her meal.

3. allergic with peanuts

4. My sister is

Q.6 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the word in brackets to fill in the blank.
The mountain peak offers a breathtaking view, a striking contrast to the ___________(peculiar) scenery below.
Ans 1. beautiful

2. ordinary

3. abnormal

4. odd

Q.7 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Regal
Ans 1. Majestic

2. Ordinary

3. Modest

4. Humble

Q.8 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom.

The poet had to draw on his fancy to write all his sonnets.
Ans 1. use his clothes

2. use his memory

3. use his imagination

4. use his money

Q.9 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the word 'opacity' in the given sentence.

The diminishing and deteriorating visibility in winter leads to the revival of accident cases on the highway.
Ans 1. visibility

2. diminishing

3. revival

4. deteriorating

Q.10 Select the option that rectifies the INCORRECTLY spelt word in the given sentence.

She tried not to embarras her friend by bringing up the awkward incident at the party.
Ans 1. embarress

2. emberrass

3. embarass

4. embarrass

Q.11 Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. Select the option that contains an error.

Shyam approached an leading psychologist for his treatment of anxiety and depression.
Ans 1. for his treatment

2. of anxiety and depression.

3. an leading psychologist

4. Shyam approached

Q.12 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
Our team lost the game / only because of / a mistake / with one of our players.
Ans 1. Our team lost the game

2. with one of our players

3. only because of

4. a mistake

Q.13 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

Ramgopal is having a very big house in Mumbai.

Ans 1. having

2. have

3. has

4. were having

Q.14 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Her presentation was both informative and __________.

Ans 1. entertainer

2. entertain

3. entertainingly

4. entertaining

Q.15 Select the most appropriate article to fill in the blank. Select 'no article' if no article is required.
The doctor asked the patient to have _____ MRI scan of his brain.
Ans 1. an

2. a

3. no article

4. the
Q.16 In the following sentence the underlined part contains as error. Alternatives to the underlined part are given as options.
Select the correct alternative.
They had a least celebration on her birthday.
Ans 1. less

2. most less

3. little

4. lesser

Q.17 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given phrase.
A person who does not believe in the institution of marriage
Ans 1. Nihilist

2. Misogamist

3. Masochist

4. Misogynist

Q.18 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined word.

The board will look into the matter.
Ans 1. A union of workers

2. A member of a family

3. A group of members of a company

4. A group of elected politicians

Q.19 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans 1. Unnecessary

2. Argument

3. Misinterpret

4. Exagerate

Q.20 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

A) Occasion
B) Privilege
C) Bizzare
D) Definitely
Ans 1. C

2. A

3. B

4. D

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

Speaking is a powerful tool (1)________ human communication. It allows us to convey thoughts, emotions and ideas to others.
Effective speaking (2)_________ not only the words we choose but also our tone, body language and overall presentation. Public
speaking, in particular, can be (3)______ a skill and an art, enabling individuals to inspire, educate and persuade audiences.
(4)________ it is a casual conversation with a friend or a formal presentation to a large group, the ability to express (5)_________
clearly and confidently through speaking is a valuable skill that can greatly impact our personal and professional lives.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans 1. at

2. on

3. for

4. with
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans 1. involves

2. involve

3. involving

4. involved

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans 1. and

2. both

3. until

4. though

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans 1. Neither

2. Whereas

3. Because

4. Whether
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans 1. itself

2. ourselves

3. themselves

4. herself
Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 11/11/2024
Exam
4:00 PM - 5:30 PM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 A sum was deposited at a certain rate of simple interest for 4 years. If it had been a 5% higher rate of interest, then it would
have amounted to ₹5,200 more. The sum deposited is:
Ans 1. ₹25,000

2. ₹13,000

3. ₹10,400

4. ₹26,000

Q.2 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹2000 as a sum borrowed at 8% per year rate of interest for 5 years.
Ans 1. 740

2. 840

3. 800

4. 760

Q.3 Amar buys a wall clock for ₹300 and sells it for ₹200. Find his percentage loss.
Ans 1. 32.33% gain

2. 31.33% gain

3. 30.33% loss

4. 33.33% loss

Q.4

Ans
1.

4.
Q.5 A man travels a certain distance at 10 km/h and returns to the starting point at 8 km/h. The total time taken by him for the
entire journey is one and a half hours. The total distance (in km) covered by him is:
Ans
1.

Q.6

Ans 1. 26.32%

2. 22.93%

3. 21.15%

4. 19.25%

Q.7 In an examination, the average marks of the student in class were 85.4. If the student had got 8 more marks in History, 12
more marks in Science, 10 more marks in Computer Science, 15 less marks in Hindi and retained the same marks in other
subjects, then the average would have been 87.9. How many subjects were there in the examination?
Ans 1. 7

2. 8

3. 5

4. 6

Q.8 The greatest number which exactly divides the numbers 38, 95 and 171 is:
Ans 1. 9

2. 13

3. 21

4. 19
Q.9 The marked price of an article is ₹1,680 and it is sold at a discount of 19%. If there is a gain of 8%, then by what percentage
above the cost price was the article marked?
Ans
1.

Q.10 There are five baskets- A, B, C, D and E. Each basket has rings in it and the average number of rings in all five baskets is 42.
If basket D is removed, the average number of rings in the remaining baskets is 38. How many rings are there in basket D?
Ans 1. 38

2. 64

3. 58

4. 42

Q.11 Study the given bar graph and answer the question that follows.
The bar-graph given below shows the average marks scored by six students (A, B, C, D, E and F) in Mathematics, Physics
and Chemistry. The maximum marks of each subject is 100.

Find the difference between the total marks scored by B in Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry to the total marks scored
by F in Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry.
Ans 1. 24

2. 12

3. 21

4. 42

Q.12

Ans 1. 10 cm

2. 6 cm

3. 8 cm

4. 12 cm
Q.13 A solid sphere of radius 9 cm is melted to form a hollow, right circular cylindrical tube of length 12 cm and external radius
15 cm. The thickness (in cm) of the tube is:
Ans 1. 2

2. 4

3. 1

4. 3

Q.14 The sum of three consecutive odd numbers is 58 more than the average of these numbers. Find the largest number.
Ans 1. 31

2. 27

3. 37

4. 33

Q.15 The average marks of 60 students was found to be 48. Later on, it was discovered that a score of 68 was misread as 56. Find
the correct average corresponding to the correct score.
Ans 1. 40.8

2. 54.2

3. 48.2

4. 44.2

Q.16 A dishonest shopkeeper promises to sell his goods at cost price. However, he uses a weight that actually weighs 33% less
than what is written on it. Find his profit percentage.
Ans
1.

Q.17 How long (in years) will it take for a sum of money invested at 4% per annum on simple interest to increase its value by
30%?
Ans
1.

Q.18 Two trains start at the same time from two stations and travel towards each other with speeds of 72 km/h and 84 km/h,
respectively. When they cross each other, it is found that one train has covered 108 km more than the other. What is the
distance (in km) between the two stations, and after how many hours will they meet, respectively?
Ans 1. 1084; 7

2. 1244; 8

3. 1404; 9

4. 1440; 10
Q.19 The ratio between the monthly incomes of P and Q is 7 : 6 and the ratio between their expenditures is 6 : 5. If they save ₹480
each, then find P’s monthly income.
Ans 1. ₹6,240

2. ₹2,880

3. ₹3,360

4. ₹2,400

Q.20 The salary of a person was reduced by 20%. By what percentage should his reduced salary be raised so as to bring it at par
with his original salary?
Ans 1. 22%

2. 25%

3. 30%

4. 20%

Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1 OM 13 is related to RP 17 in a certain way. In the same way, WU 19 is related to ZX 23. To which of the following is IG 14
related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. LJ 18

2. KJ 18

3. KJ 17

4. LJ 17

Q.2 In a certain code language, ‘KNOW’ is coded as ‘2846’ and ‘WIDE’ is coded as ‘5729’.What is the code for ‘W’ in the given
code language?
Ans 1. 5

2. 9

3. 6

4. 2

Q.3 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are
interchanged?

234 × 6 − 6 ÷ 66 + 60 = ?
Ans 1. 329

2. 375

3. 322

4. 365

Q.4 Read the given statement(s) and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even
if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statement(s).

Statements:
Some babies are humans.
All babies are animals.

Conclusions:
(I) At least some animals are humans.
(II) All animals are babies.
Ans 1. Only conclusion (II) follows.

2. Only conclusion (I) follows.

3. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

4. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

Q.5 AI10 is related to YG12 in a certain way. In the same way, BJ20 is related to ZH22. To which of the following is CK30 related,
following the same logic?
Ans 1. BC22

2. AB32

3. BI22

4. AI32

Q.6 Read the given statement(s) and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even
if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statement(s).

Statements:
All belts are wallets.
Some wallets are glasses.

Conclusions:
(I) Some belts are glasses.
(II) Some glasses are not wallets.
Ans 1. Both conclusions I and II follow.

2. Only conclusion I follows.

3. Neither conclusion I nor II follows.

4. Only conclusion II follows.

Q.7 In a code language, 'MBXL' is coded as ‘OXZH’ and 'FKRG' is coded as ‘HGTC’. How will 'LUGS' be coded in that language?
Ans 1. NPIN

2. OPJN

3. OQJP

4. NQIO
Q.8

Ans

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into
1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

2, 108
1
20, 180
Ans 1. 14, 125

2. 30, 290

3. 18, 156

4. 25, 225

Q.10 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?

FOM, ILJ, LIG, OFD, ?

Ans 1. SCB

2. SCA

3. RCA

4. RCB
Q.11 In a certain code language, ‘BEND’ is written as ‘ADMC’ and ‘FISH’ is written as ‘EHRG’. How will ‘EVIL’ be written in that
language?
Ans 1. DWHK

2. DUJM

3. FWJM

4. DUHK

Q.12 Which figure should replace the question mark (?) in the following series if it were to be continued?

Ans

Q.13 E, F, G, H, I, J and K are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order). I sits third to
the left of J. E is an immediate neighbour of both G and H. G sits third to the right of J. F sits second to the right of I. What is
the position of K with respect to H?
Ans 1. Third to the right

2. Immediate right

3. Third to the left

4. Second to the left

Q.14 Which of the following interchanges of signs would make the given equation correct?
8 − 4 + 144 ÷ 16 × 27 = 14
Ans 1. − and +

2. + and ×

3. ÷ and −

4. × and −
Q.15 In a certain code language, ‘FITS’ is coded as ‘ULID’ and ‘GIFT’ is coded as ‘IUZD’.
What is the code for ‘G’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. D

2. I

3. Z

4. U

Q.16 Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.
86, 91, 101, 116, ?
Ans 1. 126

2. 159

3. 136

4. 134

Q.17 A, B, L, N, S, T and Z are seven candidates sitting around a circular table, facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same
order), for a group discussion. L is sitting third to the left of N. N is sitting exactly between T and B. Z is an immediate
neighbour of B and is sitting third to the left of S. Z is also an immediate neighbour of A. Who is sitting second to the left of
N?
Ans 1. Z

2. L

3. A

4. S

Q.18 6 is related to 77 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 9 is related to 116. To which of the following is 11
related, following the same logic?
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into
1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans 1. 141

2. 132

3. 142

4. 143
Q.19 Select the option figure in which the given figure (X) is embedded as its part (rotation is NOT allowed).

Ans

Q.20 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans
1.

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 Which team won the first edition of the Women's Premier League (WPL) event in the year 2023?
Ans 1. Delhi Capitals

2. Gujarat Giants

3. Mumbai Indians

4. Royal Challengers Bangalore

Q.2 Which of the following statements is/are correct temples of Khajuraho?
a) Equal importance is given to human experience and spiritual pursuit.
b) Jain and Hindu temples are also found at Khajuraho.
c) Chausanth Yogini temple is one of the important temples here.
Ans 1. All a, b and c

2. Only c and a

3. Only b and c

4. Only a and b

Q.3 The Indian Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change maintains a log of all the endangered species of India along
with their conservation status. What is the name of this book?
Ans 1. The Book of Endangered Species

2. The Black Book

3. Indian Life Catalogue

4. Red Data Book

Q.4 The famous folk dance 'Dholacha Nach' is performed in which state?
Ans 1. Maharashtra

2. Rajasthan

3. Madhya Pradesh

4. Bihar

Q.5 Which of the following festivals is celebrated in the month of Chaitra?

Ans 1. Diwali

2. Janmashtami

3. Ramnavami

4. Dussehra

Q.6 On 11th December 2022, who among the following took over as the Deputy Chief Minister of Himachal Pradesh?
Ans 1. Mukesh Agnihotri

2. Shiv Pratap Shukla

3. Vikramaditya Singh

4. Jairam Thakur

Q.7 Which of the following is an example of a physical change? In this example, there is no change in chemical composition of
matter.
A: Coal changing into coal ash on burning
B: Preparing a sweet drink by mixing sugar in water
C: White washing walls using a solution of lime and water
D: Mixing salt and lemon juice in a beaker
Ans 1. Only C

2. Only B

3. Only D

4. Only A

Q.8 Who was the Prime Minister when the 11th Fundamental Duty was incorporated into the Indian Constitution?
Ans 1. Indira Gandhi

2. Gulzari Lal Nanda

3. Atal Bihari Vajpayee

4. Lal Bahadur Shastri

Q.9 Which of the following is/are an example of a non-tax revenue receipt?
Ans 1. External commercial borrowings

2. Income tax

3. Interest income

4. Disinvestment

Q.10 The village servants or functionaries, who constituted of groups of families in Vijayanagar empire, were called __________.
Ans 1. ayagars

2. vellalars

3. amaranayakas

4. nayakas

Q.11 The position of the President in the Indian Political system is that of a ________.
Ans 1. Nominal Executive

2. Real Executive

3. Dictator

4. King

Q.12 In which season of the Ultimate Kho-Kho League tournament was Ramji Kashyap awarded the Player of the tournament?
Ans 1. Season 2

2. Season 3

3. Season 4

4. Season 1

Q.13 Where is the headquarters of the West Central Railway Zone?

Ans 1. Jabalpur

2. Maligaon

3. Hubli

4. Bilaspur

Q.14 Which of the following national leaders of India inaugurated the first Akhil Bhartiya Kalidas Samman Samaroh held in Ujjain
in 1958?
Ans 1. Jawaharlal Nehru

2. Sardar Patel

3. Lal Bahadur Shastri

4. Rajendra Prasad

Q.15 In rat-hole mining, which of the following minerals is mined?

Ans 1. Gold

2. Nickel

3. C
oal

4. Bauxite

Q.16 What approach did Dadabhai Naoroji use to calculate the Poverty Line?
Ans 1. Industrial output

2. Prisoner menu

3. Agricultural productivity

4. Export-import data
Q.17 Literal meaning of 'megalith' is _____________________.
Ans 1. a huge shelter

2. a cave

3. a mortuary

4. a big stone

Q.18 Gluten formation is observed in various foods like pasta, noodles, pizzas, and bread. Gluten occurs when two specific
proteins are mixed with water. Name the two proteins responsible for gluten formation.
Ans 1. Glutenin and Glycine

2. Glutenin and Gliadin

3. Glutenin and Casein

4. Glutenin and Albumin

Q.19 At which of the following places was the first Singh Sabha founded in 1873?
Ans 1. Lahore

2. Jullundur

3. Amritsar

4. Multan

Q.20 The National Apprenticeship Promotion Scheme (NAPS) was launched by the Government of India in the year ________.
Ans 1. 2022

2. 2005

3. 2012

4. 2016

Q.21 Which of the following Hindi novels is written by Vishnu Prabhakar?

Ans 1. Vinayak

2. Kyapa

3. Ardhnarishwar

4. Mujhe Chand Chahiye

Q.22 Which state lies in the rain shadow region of the Arabian Sea branch of the southwest monsoon?
Ans 1. Gujarat

2. Tamil Nadu

3. Kerala

4. Goa

Q.23 The Fourth Anglo-Mysore War was fought in the year ________.
Ans 1. 1799

2. 1800

3. 1796

4. 1797

Q.24 In 2023, the philanthropic organisation Carnegie Corporation of New York placed Ajay Banga, the
President of ______, on its annual 'Great Immigrants' list. This list consists of honourees who have
enriched and strengthened America and its democracy through their contributions and actions.
Ans 1. World Bank

2. Asian Development Bank

3. European Union

4. African Union
Q.25 For which song did Tanvi Shah become the first Indian woman to win a Grammy Award in 2010?
Ans 1. Jai Ho

2. Bharat Ki Beti

3. Ae Watan

4. Vande Mataram

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Collapse
Ans 1. Fall

2. Surprise

3. Jump

4. Side

Q.2 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

If I wrote an email / to my boss now, / he will react / by yelling at me tomorrow in the morning.
Ans 1. he will react

2. to my boss now,

3. by yelling at me tomorrow in the morning.

4. If I wrote an email

If the players don’t wear sunscreen, / their faces will / get reddest.
Ans 1. get reddest

2. their faces will

3. If the players don’t wear sunscreen,

4. No error

Q.4 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined words in the given sentence.

I have never had and never will be dependent on him.

Ans 1. never been

2. was never being

3. never has

4. has never been

Q.5 Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word.

I did not like his bossy attitude.
Ans 1. benevolent

2. idiosyncratic

3. controlling

4. sensible
Q.6 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word from the given sentence.

The kitten's playful behaivor brought joy to the entire family.

Ans 1. Joy

2. Kitten's

3. Playful

4. Behaivor

Q.7 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

compassionate

Ans 1. hardworking

2. disciplined

3. confident

4. cruel

Q.8 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank .

The company's decision to relocate had a negative ___________ on its employees.

Ans 1. conclusion

2. effect

3. establish

4. accommodation

Q.9 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

Always keep in mind leaner bodies need more calories than fattest ones.
Ans 1. fatter

2. more fatter

3. fat

4. the fattest

Q.10 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Brave
Ans 1. Dim

2. Boundless

3. Cowardly

4. Earthly

Q.11 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for highlighted group of words in the given sentence.

He devoted his entire life to the study of the human mind.

Ans 1. philology

2. psychology

3. physiology

4. physics
Q.12 Select the most appropriate idiom that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

We often go camping, but I have never been to that particular part of town or country before.
Ans 1. neck of the woods

2. get it in the neck

3. knock on wood

4. risk one's neck

Q.13 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom from the alternatives.

Rajiv will understand some day that all his friends are fair weather friends.
Ans 1. True friends help you when you need them

2. Friends generally have similar characteristics

3. A friend who stays only when times are convenient

4. A friend who meets you only during pleasant weather

Q.14 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the underlined word.
The old library had a musty smell from years of neglect.
Ans 1. foggy

2. fresh

3. stale

4. casual

Q.15 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

Rahul was angry of his brother as he broke his pen.

Ans 1. at

2. on

3. of

4. from

Q.16 Select the sentence that has a grammatical error.

Ans 1. She is an artist at a local gallery.

2. The cat is sleeping on a mat.

3. They have an information about the event.

4. Can you bring me the keys to the car?

Q.17 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

When we _____________ ourselves, we activate a variety of psychological processes that help us achieve our objectives
and improve our overall well-being.
Ans 1. doubt

2. believe in

3. demolish

4. linger
Q.18 Select the correct spelling from the given options to fill in the blank.
We ________ to keep you informed of any delay to your expected delivery date.
Ans 1. endevor

2. endeavour

3. endevour

4. endavour

Q.19 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

Effective responses of climate change are imperative to protect the world’s children and fulfil their rights.
Ans 1. responses to climate change

2. responses at climate change

3. responses from climate change

4. responses with climate change

Q.20 Select the option that rectifies the INCORRECT spelling in the given sentence.
If you try to conwince people that money is not very important, then you are barking up the wrong tree.
Ans 1. convince

2. convincee

3. canvince

4. conveence

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

In the contemporary times, sports and games are emerging as one of the brightest careers. It expects to ___1___ at a very high moral
plane. It demands honesty and transparency. Sports further demand continuous practice, hard work and ___2___ training. One must
understand that sport not only has physical benefits but also ___3___ concentration and inner strength. Not only this, one who plays
feels that ____4___ overall personality has undergone a change for better. Besides, social connectivity or networking, games develop
___5___ spirit in players.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans 1. operate

2. dwell

3. desynchronise

4. decide

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans 1. abated

2. paltry

3. relentless

4. faltering
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans 1. underlines

2. deteriorates

3. controls

4. boosts

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans 1. his

2. it's

3. one's

4. their

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans 1. sportsmanship

2. captaincy

3. companionship

4. leadership
Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 12/11/2024
Exam
9:00 AM - 11:00 AM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 If 40 : 35 :: 35 : x, find the value of x.

Ans
1.

Q.2 A man buys 15 identical articles for a total of ₹15. If he sells each of them for ₹1.32, then his profit percentage is:
Ans 1. 8%

2. 50%

3. 23%

4. 32%

Q.3 A vehicle moves at 65 km/h for 4 hours before slowing down to 52 km/h for the next 2.5 hours. Calculate the average speed.
Ans 1. 61.25 km/h

2. 55 km/h

3. 60 km/h

4. 58.5 km/h
Q.4 Study the given graph and answer the question that follows.
The graph shows the data of the number of accidents by three types of vehicles: X, Y and Z in four cities: P, Q, R and S.

The maximum number of accidents in all cities are due to vehicles of type:
Ans 1. Y

2. X

3. Z

4. X and Z both

Q.5

Ans 1. 72.75

2. 74.75

3. 74.25

4. 72.25

Q.6 When a number is first increased by 18% and then decreased by 18%, the change in the number is ____________.
Ans 1. 3.24 % decrease

2. 0%

3. 3.24% increase

4. 32.4% increase

Q.7 I walk at a speed of 10 km/h and reach the destination in 2 hours. If I increase my speed by 5 km/h, how early would I reach
my destination?
Ans 1. 50 min

2. 30 min

3. 20 min

4. 40 min
Q.8 In an office having 160 staff members, 40% are females and the remaining are males. The average weight of females is 58 kg
and that of males is 63 kg. Find the average weight of all staff members.
Ans 1. 58 kg

2. 68 kg

3. 79 kg

4. 61 kg

Q.9 What sum (in ₹) will earn a simple interest of ₹240 in 4 years at 20% per year rate of interest?
Ans 1. 450

2. 600

3. 150

4. 300

Q.10

Ans
1.

Q.11 The average age of a man and his son is 48 years. The ratio of their ages is 5 : 3. What is the son's age?
Ans 1. 35 years

2. 36 years

3. 38 years

4. 34 years

Q.12 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹2500 as a sum borrowed at 4% per year rate of interest for 6 years.
Ans 1. 540

2. 600

3. 640

4. 560

Q.13 A printer with a marked price of ₹9,000 is offered on successive discounts of 30%, 20%, and 15%. Identify the printer's
selling price.
Ans 1. ₹4,264

2. ₹4,250

3. ₹
4,284

4. ₹
4,274
Q.14 A person lent a sum of ₹30,000 on simple interest for 12 years, with an interest rate of 8% per annum for the first 4 years,
10% per annum for the next 3 years, and 15% per annum for last 5 years. How much interest (in ₹) will he earn at the end of
12 years?
Ans 1. 38000

2. 41100

3. 40200

4. 40800

Q.15 The average of seven consecutive natural numbers is 56. The greatest number among them is:
Ans 1. 58

2. 59

3. 61

4. 60

Q.16 A man sold his bicycle for ₹810 losing two-fifth of its cost price. What is the loss percentage?
Ans
1.

Q.17 The average score of 12 girls in a test was 16.5 and that of 18 boys in the same test was 16. The average score of girls and
boys taken together in the same test was:
Ans 1. 16.2

2. 16.4

3. 16.7

4. 16.1

Q.18 What is the radius of the largest right circular cone that can be cut out from a cube of edge 8.4 cm ?
Ans 1. 4.1 cm

2. 4.2 cm

3. 2.2 cm

4. 2.1 cm

Q.19

Ans 1. 7500

2. 6800

3. 8400

4. 6300
Q.20 If the perimeter of an equilateral triangle is 24 cm,then the length of each median is:
Ans
1.

Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1 Select the option figure in which the given figure (X) is embedded as its part (rotation is NOT allowed).

Ans

Q.2 Seven people A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same
order). B is sitting second to the left of C. Only two people are sitting between B and D. D is an immediate neighbour of C. A
is sitting third to the right of F. E is sitting to the immediate left of G.
What is the position of E with respect to B?
Ans 1. To the immediate right

2. Third to the right

3. To theimmediate left

4. Second to the left

Q.3

Ans 1.

Q.4 The second number in the given number pairs is obtained by performing certain mathematical operation(s) on the first
number. Select the pair in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the given pairs.
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /deleting /multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and
3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

1, 88
1
14, 112
Ans 1. 16, 128

2. 28, 226

3. 24, 196

4. 19, 151

Q.5 In a certain code language, ‘you are a good friend’ is coded as ‘es an pz fd mq’ and ‘his friend is very kind’ is coded as ‘ck
mq pn ag sb’. How is ‘friend’ coded in the given language?
Ans 1. fd

2. mq

3. es

4. ck

Q.6 In a certain code language, ‘MOTH’ is coded as ‘2514’ and ‘TOME’ is coded as ‘1453’. What is the code for ‘E’ in that
language?
Ans 1. 1

2. 4

3. 3

4. 5

Q.7 13 is related to 103 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 9 is related to 71. To which of the following is 15
related, following the same logic?

(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding / subtracting / multiplying etc., to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13
into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans 1. 119

2. 117

3. 109

4. 112
Q.8 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans
1.

Q.9 OJNI is related to GBFA in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, QLPK is related to IDHC.
To which of the following is VQUP related, following the same logic?
Ans 1.
NIMH
2. NIHM

3. INHM

4. INMH

Q.10 In a code language, 'ROASTER' is coded as '96' and 'GUM' is coded as '41'. How will 'ARTIST' be coded in the same
language?
Ans 1. 88

2. 77

3. 82

4. 87
Q.11 Identify the figure from the given options that can replace the question mark (?) and logically complete the series.

Ans

Q.12 Which two numbers should be interchanged to make the given equation correct?
(12÷ 3) × 18 - 2× 4 + 42÷ 6 = 69
(Note: Interchange should be done of entire number and not individual digits of a given number)
Ans 1. 3 and 6

2. 18 and 12

3. 3 and 4

4. 2 and 6

Q.13 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series?
3, 7, 15, 31, 63, ?
Ans 1. 177

2. 127

3. 576

4. 168

Q.14 JQMT is related to PWSZ in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, HOKR is related to
NUQX. To which of the following is FMIP related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. OSLV

2. OLSV

3. LOSV

4. LSOV
Q.15 Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series and complete
the pattern.

Ans

Q.16 What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘–’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’
are interchanged?

29 × 841 ÷ 87 + 37 – 59 = ?
Ans 1. 52

2. 25

3. 65

4. 55

Q.17 ead the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
R
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
No soap is a lotion.
No lotion is a conditioner.

Conclusions:
(I) No soap is a conditioner.
(II) Some conditioners are lotions.
Ans 1. Neither conclusion I nor II follows

2. Only conclusion II follows

3. Only conclusion I follows

4. Both conclusion I and II follow

Q.18 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?
AEH, DHK, GKN, JNQ, ?
Ans 1. NRU

2. MQT

3. MQX

4. PQT

Q.19 Six persons – L, M, N, O, P and Q – are sitting around a circular table facing the centre, but not necessarily in the same
order. O is sitting second to the left of Q. P is not an immediate neighbour of Q. M is sitting second to the right of L. N is
sitting to the immediate right of Q.
Who is an immediate neighbour of both, L and N?
Ans 1. M

2. O

3. P

4. Q

Q.20 Read the given statement(s) and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even
if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statement(s).

Statements:
No lizard is a snake.
All lizards are reptiles.

Conclusions:
(I) At least some reptiles are snakes.
(II) All reptiles are lizards.
Ans 1. Only conclusion (I) follows.

2. Only conclusion (II) follows.

3. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

4. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 Which of these state governments has implemented PESA act in November 2022?
Ans 1. Uttar Pradesh

2. Punjab

3. Madhya Pradesh

4. Rajasthan

Q.2 The national animal of Nepal is:

Ans 1. snow leopard

2. cow

3. camel

4. tiger

Q.3 The cold subarctic climate region possesses forest lands having conifers as main vegetation. These forest lands are known
as:
Ans 1. Mangrove

2. Savanna

3. Taiga

4. Tundra
Q.4 With reference to medieval history, consider the following statements.
1. The founder of the Chola dynasty called the ‘Imperial Cholas’ was Vijayalaya (9th century AD).
2. One of the important dynasties which ruled in northern India was Gurjara-Pratiharas.
3. Palas ruled in western India and Rashtrakutas ruled in southern India in the early years (750 -1000).
Which of the given statement(s) is/are correct?
Ans 1. 1 and 2 only

2. 1 and 3 only

3. 2 only

4. 1 only

Q.5 Which of the following statements is/are true for the Religious Festivals in India?
1.Losar festival is majorly celebrated by Buddhist community of India.
2.Navroz festival is majorly celebrated by the Parsi community of India.
3.Saga Dawa is majorly celebrated by the Muslim community of India.
Ans 1. Only 1

2. Both 1 and 2

3. Only 2

4. Both 2 and 3

Q.6 Birju Maharaj is related to which of the following classical dance forms?
Ans 1. Kathakali

2. Kathak

3. Garba

4. Bharatanatyam

Q.7 Which of the following peaks is NOT located in India?

Ans 1. Guru Shikar

2. Nanda Devi

3. Dhaulagiri

4. Mahendragiri

Q.8 In which year did John Dalton present his atomic theory, the second part of which states that all atoms of a particular
element are equal?
Ans 1. 1808

2. 1811

3. 1825

4. 1800

Q.9 Padma Bhushan awardee Mogubai Kurdikar was associated with which of the following music styles?
Ans 1. Hindustani Classical music

2. Theatre music

3. Jazz music

4. Folk music

Q.10 Who among the following elect(s) the presiding officer of the Vidhan Sabha in India?
Ans 1. Members of Vidhan Parishad

2. President

3. Members of Vidhan Sabha

4. Governor
Q.11 Who is the author of the historical fiction novel ‘The Mauryan: The Legend of Ashoka’?
Ans 1. Chetan Bhagat

2. Komal Bhanver

3. Sanjeev Sanyal

4. Amish Tripathi

Q.12 Which of the following is an informal group consisting of 4 to 10 individuals who seek loans against mutual guarantee?
Ans 1. Rural cooperatives

2. Self-help group

3. Grameen model bank

4. Joint liability group

Q.13 Who has been appointed as the new Chief of the Special Protection Group (SPG) by the centre in November 2023?
Ans 1. Rakesh Asthana

2. Ashok Kumar Mishra

3. Anil Kumar Dhasmana

4. Alok Sharma

Q.14 Which state in India hosted the 77th edition of the Santosh Trophy?
Ans 1. Arunanchal Pradesh

2. Madhya Pradesh

3. Himanchal Pradesh

4. Uttar Pradesh

Q.15 Which of the following vitamins includes cobalt as an essential component?

Ans 1. Vitamin B12

2. Vitamin A

3. Vitamin E

4. Vitamin D

Q.16 Who among the following was the first woman President of the Indian National Congress?
Ans 1. Sarojini Naidu

2. Annie Besant

3. Sucheta Kriplani

4. Aruna Asaf Ali

Q.17 ________ was awarded, Padma Shri in 1970 for his contribution to the field of Kuchipudi dance.
Ans 1. Mushtaq Husain Khan

2. Sthanam NarasimhaRao

3. V Satyanarayana Sarma

4. Dwaram Venkataswami Naidu

Q.18 The construction of Mehrangarh fort of Jodhpur was initiated during the reign of which ruler?
Ans 1. Maharawal Jaswant Singh

2. Rao Bika

3. Rao Jodha

4. Sawai Man Singh

Q.19 The major carbohydrate of milk is
Ans 1. lactose

2. Fructose

3. starch

4. maltose

Q.20 Who became the Nawab of Bengal after the death of Alivardi Khan in the year 1756?
Ans 1. Shuja-Ud-Daulah

2. Siraj-Ud-Daulah

3. Saadat Ali Khan

4. Wazir Ali

Q.21 Which of the following iron and steel plants is located in Jharkhand?
Ans 1. Durgapur

2. Salem

3. Vijay Nagar

4. Bokaro

Q.22 What is a 'double fault' in tennis?

Ans 1. Serving two faults in a row

2. A serve that goes out of bounds

3. A fault called by the linesman

4. A serve that hits the net and goes into the correct service box

Q.23 The 11th Fundamental Duty to the Indian Constitution was added in the year ____________ by the 86th Constitutional
Amendment Act.
Ans 1. 2001

2. 2002

3. 2000

4. 2004

Q.24 Which of the following Census recorded negative population growth in India?
Ans 1. 1971

2. 1991

3. 2011

4. 1921

Q.25 Kharavela was an important ruler of which dynasty?

Ans 1. Sunga Dynasty

2. Vardhan Dynasty

3. Gupta Dynasty

4. Chedi Dynasty

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 Rectify the sentence by selecting the correct spelling from the options.
After the storm passed, the sun emarged from behind the clouds.

Ans 1. emergad

2. amergad

3. emerged

4. amarged
Q.2 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.
The assignment was _________ early in the morning.
Ans 1. do

2. doe

3. dew

4. due

Q.3 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The way Sonam performs live on stage can be called the _________ one.
Ans 1. perfectable

2. more perfect

3. most perfect

4. mostly perfect

Q.4 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word:

Grapple
Ans 1. Wrestle

2. Grumble

3. Clasp

4. Release

Q.5 Select the meaningful and correctly spelt word from the given options to fill in the blank.

The oceans cover more than 70% of the Earth's surface, making them the largest _______________ on the planet.
Ans 1. habitat

2. hybrid

3. habitude

4. habit

Q.6 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans 1. Bureaucracy

2. Lieutanant

3. Rendezvous

4. Augment

Q.7 Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word in the given sentence.
He is a complete novice when it comes to driving a car.
Ans 1. Expert

2. Zealous

3. Amateur

4. Swindler

Q.8 Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word in the following sentence.
Don’t fight over such a trivial issue.
Ans 1. Complex

2. Controversial

3. Insignificant

4. Tricky
Q.9 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to
substitute it, select ‘No substitution’.

The pineapple dessert was so delicious that we couldn’t help eat it.
Ans 1. so delicious that we couldn’t helping eat it

2. so that delicious we couldn’t help eating it

3. No substitution

4. so delicious that we couldn’t help eating it

Q.10 Select the appropriate option that can substitute the underlined word in the following sentence to make it grammatically
correct.

Smart watches are the last gadgets used by younger generations.

Ans 1. latest

2. the latest

3. later

4. the later

Q.11 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Straight from the horse's mouth

Ans 1. Directly from the person involved

2. Directly eating from the provider

3. Giving no expression at all

4. Rumours begin at home

Q.12 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

My sister performed / brilliant / in the competition / yesterday.

Ans 1. in the competition

2. brilliant

3. yesterday

4. my sister performed

Q.13 Select the option that corrects the Phrasal Verb (appearing in bold letters) in the given sentence.

The burglarsbroke offmy neighbour's house when they were away.

Ans 1. broke into

2. broke down

3. broke away

4. broke with

Q.14 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM for the underlined word.

They want to bifurcate the states.

Ans 1. Divide

2. Combine

3. Examine

4. Support
Q.15 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

My brother plays the guitar _________ than I do.

Ans 1. best

2. good

3. well

4. better

Q.16 The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error. Select the part that contains the error
from the given options. If you don’t find any error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer.

Whenever she is coming / here, she brings / many gifts for everyone.
Ans 1. No Error

2. here, she brings

3. Whenever she is coming

4. many gifts for everyone.

Ravi said that / his red jacket is / the cheaper than all other jackets.
Ans 1. No error

2. Ravi said that

3. the cheaper than all other jackets.

4. his red jacket is

Q.18 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The author's use of vivid imagery ___________ the reader's senses, making the story come alive.
Ans 1. dulls

2. heightens

3. actions

4. confuses

Q.19 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Straight from the horse's mouth
Ans 1. Hearing something that is untrue or a lie

2. Hearing something from a reliable and credible source

3. Hearing something that is difficult to understand

4. Hearing something coming from a horse's mouth

Q.20 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

He is an intelligent person who always thinks before he ______________.

Ans 1. acted

2. a
cts

3. acting

4. act
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank:

In the realm of literature, words are the (1) ____________ of creation, and authors are the (2) ____________ of meaning. They
skillfully weave stories with (3) ____________ narratives that can (4) ____________ the depths of human emotion. A well-crafted
novel can (5) ____________ readers into its world, making them forget the passage of time.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans 1. mundane

2. isolate

3. tools

4. convey

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank:

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans 1. direction

2. keepers

3. coward

4. vibrators

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank:

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans 1. vivid

2. defrost

3. mundane

4. convey

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank:

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans 1. teacher

2. sailor

3. banker

4. pilot
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank:

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans 1. immerse

2. isolate

3. install

4. repel
Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 12/11/2024
Exam
12:30 PM - 2:30 PM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 Find the number of lead balls of diameter 4 cm each that can be made from a sphere of diameter 24 cm.
Ans 1. 108

2. 432

3. 216

4. 144

Q.2 If a reduction of 10% in the price of rice enables a person to obtain 22 kg more for ₹250, then the original price of the rice per
kg is:
(correct to two decimal place)
Ans 1.

Q.3

Ans 1. April

2. March

3. February

4. January

Q.4 A man rows downstream 27 km and upstream 18 km, taking one hour each time. What is the speed of the current?
Ans 1. 9 km/h

2. 1.5 km/h

3. 4.5 km/h

4. 6 km/h
Q.5 The HCF of 28,35 and 42 is:
Ans 1. 7

2. 3

3. 5

4. 11

Q.6 A shopkeeper marked the price of a commodity at ₹37,000 more than the actual cost. If the shopkeeper allowed a 15%
discount, it would fetch ₹ 7,500 more than if he allowed a 20% discount. Find the cost price.
Ans 1. ₹1,31,000

2. ₹1,13,000

3. ₹1,50,000

4. ₹1,23,000

Q.7 If the cost price of a house is 86% of the selling price, then what is the profit percentage, correct up to two decimals?
Ans
1.

Q.8 A man covers a total distance of 100 km on bicycle. For the first 2 h, the speed was 20 km/h and for the rest of the journey, it
came down to 10 km/h. The average speed will be:
Ans
1.

Q.9 A start from X at 9:00 A.M. and reaches Y at 1:00 P.M., on the same day, B also starts from Y at 9:00 A.M. and reaches X at
3:00 P.M. on the same day, following the same route as A. At what time do the two meet?
Ans 1. 11:12 A.M.

2. 10:00 A.M.

3. 11:24 A.M.

4. 11:30 A.M.

Q
.
1
0

A 1. 27
n
s
2. 45

3. 36

4. 18

Q.11 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹2500 as a sum borrowed at 3% per year rate of interest for 2 years.
Ans 1. 110

2. 150

3. 190

4. 90
Q.12

Ans 1. 465 cu.cm

2. 2000 cu.cm

3. 2310 cu.cm

4. 3087 cu.cm

Q.13 If 5 litres of vinegar containing 20% of water is mixed with 10 litres of vinegar containing 5% of water, then what percentage
of the new vinegar mixture is water?
Ans 1. 15%

2. 10%

3. 11.11%

4. 20%

Q.14 16 women can finish a task in 20 days and 20 men take 32 days to finish the same task. How many days will 8 women and 16
men take to finish the same task?
Ans 1. 10

2. 16

3. 32

4. 20

Q.15 Study the given bar graph and answer the question that follows.
The given bar graph shows the sale of toys (in thousands) from five branches of a manufacturer for two consecutive years,
2021 and 2022.

What is the difference between the average sales (in thousands) of all the five branches in 2021 and 2022?
Ans 1. 15.4

2. 16.4

3. 17.4

4. 18.4

Q.16 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹3000 as a sum borrowed at 6% per year rate of interest for 6 years.
Ans 1. 1020

2. 1120

3. 1080

4. 1040
Q.17 The average age of a mother and her daughter is 42 years. The ratio of their ages is 9 : 5, respectively. Find the daughter's
age (in years).
Ans 1. 20

2. 35

3. 30

4. 25

Q.18 A solid sphere of radius 12 cm is melted and cast into small spherical balls, each of diameter 2.4 cm. Find the number of
balls thus obtained.
Ans 1. 1050

2. 500

3. 980

4. 1000

Q.19 A’s income and expenditure are in the ratio 5 : 4. If his total savings are ₹56,000, what is his expenditure in ₹?
Ans 1. 2,44,000

2. 4,42,000

3. 2,42,000

4. 2,24,000

Q.20
What sum of money (in₹)will produce ₹75 as simple interest in 4 years at %per annum?

Ans 1. 1,250

2. 1,200

3. 1,210

4. 1,240

Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1 ead the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
R
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
No bed is a chair.
No chair is table.

Conclusions:
(I) No bed is a table.
(II) Some tables may be chairs.
Ans 1. Only conclusion II follows

2. Neither conclusion I nor II follows

3. Both conclusion I and II follow

4. Only conclusion I follows

Q.2 Which two numbers should be interchanged to make the following equation correct?

(16÷ 4) × 6 + 26 −48 + 9× 8 = 154

(Note: Interchange should be done of the entire number and not individual digits of a given number.)
Ans 1. 26 and 48

2. 6 and 9

3. 4 and 8

4. 16 and 48
Q.3 A square sheet of paper is folded along the dotted line successively along the directions shown and is then punched in the
last. How would the paper look when unfolded?

Ans

Q.4 In a certain code language, ‘please fill this’ is written as ‘km tu dk’ and ‘this is book’ is written as ‘dk pu sy’. How is ‘this’
written in the given language?
Ans 1. tu

2. py

3. km

4. dk

Q.5 WGQA Is related to XHRB in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, HRBL is related to
ISCM. To which of the following is GQAK related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. HRKM

2. HRBL

3. HTBM

4. HRBM

Q.6 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements:
All cats are dogs.
No cat is a horse.
Conclusions:
(I): No dog is a horse.
(II): No horse is a cat.
Ans 1. Only conclusion II follows.

2. Both conclusions I and II follow.

3. Only conclusion I follows.

4. Neither conclusion I nor II follows.

Q.7 Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

13, 26, 39, 52, 65, ?

Ans 1. 78

2. 79

3. 77

4. 80

Q.8 In a certain code language, ‘COAT’ is coded as ‘3571’ and ‘PAIN’ is coded as ‘4238’.What is the code for ‘A’ in the given code
language?
Ans 1. 3

2. 7

3. 8

4. 2

Q.9 A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order). A sits
second to the left of D, who is third to the left of E. C sits third to the right of G, who is not an immediate neighbour of E. B
sits second to the right of G.
What is the position of B with respect to C?
Ans 1. Immediate right

2. Immediate left

3. Second to the left

4. Second to the right

Q.10 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?
AAA, BCD, CEG, DGJ, ?
Ans 1. EHN

2. EIM

3. FIK

4. FGK

Q.11 Seven people A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same
order). B is sitting third to the right of D. G is sitting second to the left of A. E is sitting to the immediate right of G. Only
three people are sitting between E and C when counted from the left of E. C is not an immediate neighbour of A. The
position of how many persons will remain unchanged except A if all the persons are arranged in the English alphabetical
order in anti-clockwise direction, starting from A and keeping the position of A unchanged?
Ans 1. None

2. Three

3. Two

4. One

Q.12 In a certain code language, ‘BLAME’ is coded as ‘YOZNV’ and ‘GLAZE’ is coded as ‘TOZAV’. What is the code for ‘PRAKASH’
in the given code language?
Ans 1. KJZPZHS

2. KIZPZHS

3. KIZPZHT

4. KIZQZHS

Q.13 What will come in the place of the question mark (‘?’) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘×’ are interchanged and ‘÷′ and ‘–‘
are interchanged?
18 × 72 – 3 ÷ 2 + 11 = ?
Ans 1. 31

2. 20

3. 32

4. 24

Q.14 45 is related to 85 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 63 is related to 121. To which ofthe following is 58
related, following the same logic?(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbersinto its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13can be
performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1and 3 is not allowed)
Ans 1. 111

2. 101

3. 116

4. 106
Q.15 KINL is related to QOTR in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, NLQO is related to
TRWU. To which of the following is PNSQ related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. VTWY

2.
VTYW
3. TVYW

4. TVWY

Q.16 Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series and complete
the pattern.

Ans

Q.17 In a certain code language, ‘KIDS’ is coded as ‘97&5’ and ‘DESK’ is coded as ‘R759’.
What is the code for ‘E’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. R

2. 9

3. 7

4. 5

Q.18 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans
1.

4.
Q.19 Identify the figure given in the options which when put in place of (?) will logically complete the series.

Ans

Q.20 9 is related to 37 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 3 is related to 13. To which of the following is 8 related,
following the same logic?
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 - Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13
into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans 1. 29

2. 35

3. 33

4. 31

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 Which element is located in Group 18 of the periodic table and is known for its lack of chemical reactivity?
Ans 1. Helium

2. Oxygen

3. Fluorine

4. Chlorine

Q.2 Which of the following groups of organisms are more vulnerable to the acidification of ocean?
Ans 1. Marine algae

2. Marine reptiles

3. Calcifying organisms

4. Marine mammals

Q.3 Who among the following Indian leaders was the first member to be elected to the British Parliament?
Ans 1. Motilal Nehru

2. Dadabhai Naoroji

3. Bhikaji Cama

4. Lala Hardayal
Q.4 At which of the following places the written form of teachings of Jainism in which they are presently available, were written
around 1500 years ago?
Ans 1. Shravanabelagola

2. Pataliputra

3. Mathura

4. Valabhi

Q.5 The Talcher Thermal Power Station is located in which state?

Ans 1. Andhra Pradesh

2. Rajasthan

3. Odisha

4. Bihar

Q.6 The SEWA Cooperative Bank was first initiated in ________ in the year ________.
Ans 1. Varanasi; 1974

2. Ahmedabad; 1984

3. Ahmedabad; 1974

4. Varanasi; 1984

Q.7 In which city was the 141st session of the International Olympic Committee (IOC) inaugurated in India?
Ans 1. Chennai

2. Prayagraj

3. Mumbai

4. Delhi

Q.8 Which of the following is the zonal headquarter of North Eastern Railway?
Ans 1. Hubli

2. Kolkata

3. Gorakhpur

4. Allahabad

Q.9 In which Indian city is the DY Patil Cricket Stadium located?

Ans 1. Navi Mumbai

2. Pune

3. Nashik

4. Aurangabad

Q.10 Which Article of the Constitution of India deals with the composition of the Legislative Council?
Ans 1. Article 171

2. Article 168

3. Article 181

4. Article 169

Q.11 The Kamakshi Saunsthan temple of Goa is crowned with the ________ two-storied tower and with a golden Kalash perched
on its Shikhar.
Ans 1. hexagonal

2. octagonal

3. pentagonal

4. circular

Q.12 To remain healthy and disease free, taking a balanced diet is very important. A balanced diet is:
Ans 1. a diet that contains adequate amount of protein and fat

2. a diet that contains sufficient amount of all the nutrients that the human body needs to grow properly

3. a diet that contains appreciable number of vitamins and minerals

4. a diet that contains adequate amount of carbohydrates

Q.13 In February 2023, which Indian-American was appointed as the CEO of YouTube?
Ans 1. Satya Nadella

2. Anjali Sud

3. Vivek Ramaswamy

4. Neal Mohan

Q.14 During which of the following Prime Minsters' leadership were Fundamental Duties incorporated in the Indian Constitution?
Ans 1. Lal Bahadur Shastri

2. Atal Bihari Vajpai

3. Jawahar Lal Nehru

4. Indira Gandhi

Q.15 Which of the following autobiographies is written by the former Indian Judge Leila Seth?
Ans 1. Challenges of Governance: An Insider’s View

2. Justice for the Judge: An Autobiography

3. In Pursuit of Justice: An Autobiography

4. On Balance: An Autobiography

Q.16 Who among the following signed the Treaty of Allahabad in August 1765 with the Nawab of Awadh and Shah Alam II, the
Mughal Emperor?
Ans 1. Robert Clive

2. Warren Hastings

3. William Bentick

4. Earl Mountbatten

Q.17 The title of ‘Chief of the Merchants’ or ‘Malikut-Tujjar’ was conferred on Mahmud Gawan by which of the following Bahamani
kings?
Ans 1. Bahman Shah

2. Humayun Shah

3. Mohammad Shah

4. NizamuddinAhmad III

Q.18 In which year did Guru Indira PP Bora receive the Padma Shri Award?
Ans 1. 2019

2. 2018

3. 2020

4. 2021

Q.19 Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojana (PMMY) is a scheme launched in 2015 for providing loans up to ________ lakh to the non-
corporate, non-farm small/micro enterprises.
Ans 1. 10

2. 8

3. 5

4. 2

Q.20 Indian classical singer, Kesarbai Kerkar belonged to which of the following gharanas?
Ans 1. Agra gharana

2.
Jaipur-Atrauli gharana

3. Delhi gharana

4. Benaras gharana
Q.21 Match the columns.

Ans 1. i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b

2. i-c, ii-d, iii-b, iv-a

3. i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a

4. i-c, ii-a, iii-b, iv-d

Q.22 The Ananda Pagoda is a famous festival of which neighbouring country of India?
Ans 1. Myanmar

2. Pakistan

3. Maldives

4. Afghanistan

Q.23 Which of the following Indian classical dance forms was developed by Siddhendra Yogi?
Ans 1. Kathak

2. Dandiya

3. Kuchipudi

4. Kathakali

Q.24 The president of which country was the chief guest at the Indian Republic Day Ceremony of 2023?
Ans 1. Egypt

2. Morocco

3. Sudan

4. Lebanon

Q.25 National Sickle Cell Anaemia Elimination Programme, introduced in the Union Budget 2023, aims to eliminate sickle
cell genetic transmission by the year _____________.
Ans 1. 2049

2. 2047

3. 2045

4. 2040

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word in the given sentence.

I concur with the decision of our principal, when he says that students who display indiscipline should be dismissed from
the institute irrespective of their academic achievements.
Ans 1. credit

2. differ

3. promote

4. coincide

Q.2 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to
substitute it, select ‘No substitution required’.

My manager thanked the staff for there continued dedication and support.
Ans 1. for they're continued

2. No substitution required

3. for there continuous

4. for their continued

Q.3 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

Ans 1. C

2. B

3. A

4. D

Q.4 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word..

Ans 1. Taciturn

2. Particulate

3. Outsource

4. Stubbal

Q.5 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the highlighted word in the given sentence.
The company faced a downturn in profits due to economic uncertainties.
Ans 1. Surge

2. Recession

3. Plunge

4. Decline

Q.6 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

After school, we / went home and / told our respective parents / off the incident.
Ans 1. went home and

2. told our respective parents

3. After school, we

4. off the incident

Q.7 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

spontaneous
Ans 1. scarce

2. deliberate

3. separate

4. dirty

Q.8 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

While the stock market experiences volatility, financial analysts ___________________ market trends and provide
investment advice.

Ans 1. monitored

2. have monitored

3. monitor

4. were monitored

Q.9 Select the grammatically correct sentence from the given options.
Ans 1. Since yesterday, the policeman had been waiting for the woman to take a details of a case.

2. Since yesterday, a policeman had been waiting for a woman to take the details of the case.

3. Since yesterday, the policeman had been waiting for a woman to take a details of the case.

4. Since yesterday, the policeman had been waiting for the woman to take the details of the case.

Q.10 Select the option that will improve the underlined part of the given sentence.

Ritu was still standing in the queue when the film was starting.
Ans 1. film starts

2. film started

3. film had began

4. film begins
Q.11 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the highlighted word(s) in the given sentence.

One must not be proud of his achievements.

Ans 1. for one's achievements

2. off his achievements

3. by his achievements

4. of one's achievements

Q.12 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

I am thinking about colouring my ___________.

Ans 1. hare

2. air

3. hair

4. heir

Q.13 Select the meaningful and correctly spelt word from the given options to fill in the blank.

Regular physical exercise improves cardiovascular health, reducing the risk of heart disease and ________________.

Ans 1. strike

2. stroke

3. stock

4. struck

Q.14 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Entangle
Ans 1. Trap

2. Engross

3. Intrude

4. Enlarge

Q.15 Select the most appropriate idiom that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

After the long and tedious project, Sarah felt like she was at the limit of her patience.
Ans 1. finishing line

2. end of her rope

3. tip of the iceberg

4. crossroads

Q.16 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

To look black
Ans 1. To roll on ice

2. To seem unfavourable

3. To cry bitterly

4. To give an approving expression

Q.17 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
She speaks / so soft that / hardly anyone / can hear her.
Ans 1. hardly anyone

2. can hear her

3. She speaks

4. so soft that

Q.18 Select the correct spelling of the underlined word in the given sentence.

Sometimes, the nicknames of children, given to them by their loved ones in childhood, give them a true sense of
embarresment, especially when they are called by those names in front of others.
Ans 1. emberressment

2. embrrassment

3. embarrassment

4. embarresmint
Q.19 Select the most appropriate expression that can substitute the underlined words in the given sentence.
The watchman tried every possible way to catch the thief of the hostel.
Ans 1. arrived at the eleventh hour

2. explored every avenue

3. cut the cackle

4. called it a day

Q.20 In the following sentence the underlined part contains as error. Alternatives to the underlined part are given as options.
Select the correct alternative.
We never expected most from her.
Ans 1. many

2. more

3. little

4. much

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

Westminster Abbey's 1._________ was one of Edward the Confessor's greatest accomplishments as king of England from 1042 to
1066. Edward was King Ethelred's son and he had a lot of pressure as his father was known to be an incompetent ruler. The Danes
drove Edward from England, and he lived in exile in Normandy. According to legend, Edward promised that if he could make it back to
his realm in safety, he would travel to St. Peter's in Rome. Upon his return and 2.______ in Winchester in 1042, he discovered that he
could not abandon his subjects. He was freed from his pledge by the Pope, but only if he established or 3.___________ a monastery
dedicated to St. Peter. As a result, Westminster Abbey was constructed in the Norman 4._________. He believed that London was not
the 5._________ place to built the Minster. Hence, a location known as 'Westminster' was discovered to be to the west of the
metropolis.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans 1. configuration

2. construction

3. geometry

4. arrangement

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans 1. personification

2. inauguration

3. dethronement

4. coronation
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans 1. decorate

2. renovation

3. update

4. fix

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans 1. designate

2. style

3. dub

4. label

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans 1. appropriate

2. allot

3. annex

4. seize
Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 12/11/2024
Exam
4:00 PM - 5:30 PM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 In an election there were only two candidates, Geeta and Shyama. Geeta received 15% of the total votes and Shyama
received 8700 votes. 60% of the voters did not cast their vote to either of the two candidates. Find the total percentage of
votes that Shyama received, assuming that all the votes cast were valid.
Ans 1. 24%

2. 23%

3. 22%

4. 25%

Q.2

Ans 1. ₹8,800

2. ₹8,600

3. ₹8,400

4. ₹8,000

Q.3 Harsha obtained 72, 63 and 81 marks (out of 100) in Maths, Physics and Chemistry, respectively. What is the average of his
marks?
Ans 1. 72

2. 63

3. 81

4. 84

Q.4 The average salary of all 50 employees including 5 officers of a company is₹855. If the average salary of the officers
is₹2,550, find the average salary of the remaining staff of the company.
(Rounded to the nearest integer.)
Ans 1. ₹637

2. ₹667

3. ₹657

4. ₹677

Q.5 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹3500 as a sum borrowed at 6% per year rate of interest for 6 years.
Ans 1. 1220

2. 1200

3. 1260

4. 1300
Q.6 The marked price of a speaker is ₹520 and the shopkeeper offers a discount of 10% and still he gains 17%. If no discount is
allowed, then find the gain percentage.
Ans
1.

Q.7 In a hospital, 60% of the patients are men, 25% of the patients are women, and 15% of the patients are children. If the
average age of the men is 40 years, that of the women is 36 years, and that of the children is 8 years. What is the average
age of all the patients?
Ans 1. 24.3 years

2. 34.2 years

3. 32.4 years

4. 23.4 years

Q.8 A sum of money at simple interest amounts to ₹2,500 in three years and ₹3,000 in five years. What is the rate of interest
(correct up to two decimal places)?
Ans 1. 14.29%

2. 14.25%

3. 15%

4. 13.56%

Q.9

Ans 1. 334

2. 374

3. 314

4. 354
Q.10 Study the given bar graph carefully and answer the question that follows.

The bar graph given below gives the data of production of paper (in lakh tonnes) by 3 different companies X, Y and Z over
the years 2015 to 2018.

Production of Paper (in lakh tonnes)

In which year was the percentage of production of company Y to the production of company Z the maximum?
Ans 1. 2017

2. 2018

3. 2015

4. 2016

Q.11 Using the factor method of HCF, which of the following is the HCF of 160 and 256?
Ans 1. 40

2. 32

3. 64

4. 16

Q.12 Mihir buys a toy for ₹70 and sells it for ₹90. What is his gain percentage?
Ans 1. 35.62%

2. 25.25%

3. 28.57%

4. 20%

Q.13 The average score of 30 students (boys and girls only) in a class test was 16.2 and that of 18 boys in the same test was 16.
The average score of girls in the same test was:
Ans 1. 16.1

2. 16.7

3. 16.5

4. 16.3
Q.14 Two trains start at the same time from two stations and proceed towards each other at speeds of 120 km/hr and 80 km/hr,
respectively. When they meet, it is found that one train has travelled 60 km more than the other. What is the distance (in km)
between the two stations?

Ans 1. 387

2. 300

3. 268

4. 452

Q.15

Ans
1.

Q.16 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹2500 as a sum borrowed at 3% per year rate of interest for 3 years.
Ans 1. 165

2. 265

3. 225

4. 185

Q.17

Ans 1.

Q.18 The marked price of a mobile phone at a showroom is ₹25,000 and is sold at successive
discounts of 20%, 15% and 10%. Find its selling price.
Ans 1. ₹15,000

2. ₹14,960

3. ₹14,000

4. ₹15,300

Q.19

Ans 1. 1980

2. 1960

3. 2000

4. 1940
Q.20 A policeman travelling at a speed of 120 km/h chases a thief 5000 m away from him, and travelling at a speed of 100 km/h.
What is the time taken by the policeman to catch the thief?
Ans 1. 10 min

2. 13.5 min

3. 20 min

4. 15 min

Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘−’ and ‘ + ‘ are interchanged and ‘÷’ and ‘×’ are
interchanged?
15 − 4 + 9 × 3 ÷ 6 = ?
Ans 1. 12

2. 18

3. 10

4. 1

Q.2 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans
1.

Q.3 In a code language, 'KITE' is written as 'PRGV' and 'MARBLE' is written as 'NZIYOV'. How will 'DOLPHIN' be written in the
same language?
Ans 1. XMOKSRM

2. WMOKSRM

3. XLOKSRM

4. WLOKSRM

Q.4 In a code language, 'VGAL' is coded as ‘BEGJ’ and 'XQEB' is coded as ‘DOKZ’. How will 'HTSO' be coded in that language?
Ans 1. MRZL

2. MSZK

3. NRYM

4. NQYL
Q.5 Select the option that will replace the question mark (?) and complete the given figure series.

Ans

Q.6 In a certain code language, ‘let us go’ is coded as ‘ck ru tb’ and ‘please go away’ is coded as ‘tb mg du’. How is ‘go’ coded in
that code language?
Ans 1. ru

2. mg

3. tb

4. du
Q.7 Select the option in which the given figure is embedded (rotation is NOT allowed).

Ans

Q.8 BZ7 is related to GE15 in a certain way. In the same way, PN13 is related to US21. To which of the following is IG12 related
following the same logic?
Ans 1. NL21

2. NL20

3. PM20

4. PN21

Q.9 What will come in place of the question mark (?) of the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are
interchanged?

7 + 8 – 24 × 6 ÷ 3 = ?
Ans 1. 16

2. 11

3. 8

4. 15
Q.10 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?

TCU, UFP ,VIK, WLF ,?

Ans 1. XPA

2. XOC

3. XOA

4. XOB

Q.11 E, F, G, H, P, S, and T are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order). F sits
second to the right of T. P sits to the immediate left of S. Only one person sits between P and G when counted from the left
of P. H sits third to the right of E.How many people are sitting between H and P when counted from the right of H?
Ans 1. None

2. Three

3. Two

4. One

Q.12 11 is related to 78 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 6 is related to 43. To which of the following is 31
related, following the same logic?

(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding / subtracting / multiplying, etc., to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13
into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans 1. 159

2. 218

3. 145

4. 249

Q.13 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

6 16 27 39 52 ?
Ans 1. 66

2. 64

3. 65

4. 67

Q.14 In a certain code language, ‘gre pul sep’ means ‘eat the sofa’, ‘pul pra sem’ means ‘clear my sofa’ and ‘gre boi nad’ means
‘the great river’. What is the code for ‘the’ in the same code language?
Ans 1. nad

2. pul

3. sep

4. gre

Q.15 TW21 is related to ZC66 in a certain way. In the same way, UX33 is related to AD78. To which of the following is MP45 related,
following the same logic?
Ans 1. VS90

2. VS80

3. SV80

4. SV90
Q.16 Seven executives of a law firm (P, Q, R, S, T, U and V) are sitting at a circular table for a meeting, everyone facing towards
the center(but not necessarily in the same order)
P is an immediate neighbor of both U and S
Q is sitting to the immediate right of S, and is one of the immediate neighbors of T
V is sitting second to the right of T.
Who is sitting second to the left of U?
Ans 1. V

2. R

3. Q

4. T

Q.17 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.
(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /deleting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed)
(18, 108, 12)
(33, 198, 22)
Ans 1. (42, 252, 28)

2. (42, 254, 28)

3. (40, 252, 28)

4. (42, 252, 26)

Statements:
No sunflower is a lily.
No lily is a rose.

Conclusions:
(I) No sunflower is a rose.
(II) No rose is a lily.
Ans 1. Only conclusion II follows

2. Only conclusion I follows

3. Neither conclusion I nor II follows

4. Both conclusion I and II follow

Q.19 Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) and complete the given series.

Ans

Q.20 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements:
All schools are colleges. No college is a university.
Conclusions:
(I): No school is a university.
(II): All colleges are schools.
Ans 1. Only conclusion I follows.

2. Neither conclusion I nor II follows.

3. Both conclusions I and II follow.

4. Only conclusion II follows.

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 At the time of its adoption, the Constitution contained 395 Articles and ________ Schedules.
Ans 1. 11

2. 9

3. 7

4. 8
Q.2 Vani Jairam, who won Padma Bhushan 2023, belongs to which state?
Ans 1. Gujarat

2. Maharashtra

3. Tamil Nadu

4. Madhya Pradesh

Q.3 Who among the following is the author of the book, 'A History of British India'?
Ans 1. Grenville Austin

2. Renley

3. Bentham

4. James Mill

Q.4 At the ____________, Neeraj Chopra became the first Indian to win a gold medal in javelin throw.
Ans 1. Asian Games, 2022

2. Asian Games, 2010

3. Asian Games, 2018

4. Asian Games, 2014

Q.5 How many Pillar Edicts or Major Pillar Edicts (PEs) of Ashoka are found?
Ans 1. Two

2. Seven

3. Nine

4. Fourteen

Q.6 Lokrang, a five-day festival organised by the Madhya Pradesh Adivasi Lok Kala Academy, begins on ________________
every year.
Ans 1. 24th July

2. 26th September

3. 26th January

4. 22nd March

Q.7 Bharatanatyam dancer ________ received the Natya Kala Sarathy award from Sri Parthasarathy Swami Sabha in 2023 at
Chennai.
Ans 1. Sreedevi Unni

2. Hema Rajagopalan

3. Srekala Bharath

4. Vidhya Subramanian

Q.8 Which of the following types of volcanic eruptions of Earth’s volcanoes are most explosive?
Ans 1. Caldera

2. Flood basalt provinces

3. Dykes

4. Lapolith

Q.9 Oak and chestnut trees are found in which type of forest in India?
Ans 1. Thorn forests

2. Tropical deciduous forests

3. Montane forests

4. Mangrove forests
Q.10 In which of the following sessions of Congress did the Party issue a call to celebrate 26th January as ‘Purna Swaraj Day’?
Ans 1. Lahore 1929

2. Delhi 1923

3. Madras 1927

4. Karachi 1931

Q.11 Which book has been authored by Shovana Narayan and Geetika Kalha?
Ans 1. Cultural Rhythms in Emotions

2. Dance Gestures: Mirror of Expressions

3. Dancing in the Family

4. Indian Mythology through Classical Dance

Q.12 The rock-cut caves in Karnataka, mainly at Badami and Aihole, were built under the patronage of the ______.
Ans 1. Cholas

2. Chalukyas

3. Guptas

4. Mauryas

Q.13 According to Article 280 of the Indian Constitution, the Finance Commission needs to be appointed for every
________________.
Ans 1. one year

2. three years

3. five years

4. two years

Q.14 A factory set up in my area is causing huge deforestation. Which of the following can we expect to see in the near future?

A) Lowering of ground water

B) Lower temperatures
C) Frequent rain
D) Arrival of new animals
Ans 1. C

2. A

3. B

4. D

Q.15 Which of the following statements about the Ozone layer are true?

Statement A: It is found in the stratosphere.

Statement B: Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) are responsible for ozone hole.
Statement C: Ozone layer is found around 15–30 km above the earth’s surface.
Statement D: Ozone layer is expected not to recover anymore now.
Ans 1. Only statements A and D

2. Only statement B, C and D

3. Only statements A and B

4. Only statements A, B and C

Q.16 In which year was the first Socio Economic and Caste Census (SECC) conducted in India?
Ans 1. 2001

2. 1901

3. 2011

4. 1911
Q.17 A four-carbon chain with a triple bond is called _________.
Ans 1. butanol

2. butene

3. butyne

4. butanal

Q.18 What is the term 'ace' commonly associated within sports?

Ans 1. A high jump technique in athletics

2. Scoring a goal in soccer

3. A fast serve in tennis

4. A perfect shot in golf

Q.19 The Kakrapar Atomic Power Plant is located in which state?

Ans 1. Rajasthan

2. Gujarat

3. Maharashtra

4. Tamil Nadu

Q.20 In May 2023, who was sworn in as Central Vigilance Commissioner?

Ans 1. Samuel Joseph

2. Dayal Yadav

3. Ram Manohar Singh

4. Praveen Kumar Srivastava

Q.21 Which Article of the Constitution of India directs the State to provide public assistance to its citizens in case of
unemployment, old age, sickness and disablement, within the limits of its economic capacity and development?
Ans 1. Article 12

2. Article 41

3. Article 20

4. Article 32

Q.22 The last Mughal emperor of India was:

Ans 1. Bahadur Shah II

2. Shah Jahan

3. Akbar II

4. Aurangzeb

Q.23 In 2023, Government of India has announced to set up a/an ______________ DigiLocker for use by MSMEs, large businesses
and charitable trusts to store and share documents online securely.
Ans 1. Bond

2. Company

3. Macro

4. Entity

Q.24 A famous organisation Self-Employed Women’s Association (SEWA) is related with which of the following states?
Ans 1. Gujarat

2. Uttar Pradesh

3. Haryana

4. Madhya Pradesh
Q.25 Padma Subrahmanyam is associated with which dance form?
Ans 1. Bharatanatyam

2. Chhau

3. Kathak

4. Manipuri

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined word.

The Prime Minister will address the nation tomorrow.
Ans 1. To greet people

2. A landmark

3. A postal code for sending letters

4. To deliver a speech

Q.2 Select the most appropriate idiom that can substitute the highlighted text in the given sentence.

The minister was in partnership with the queen in poisoning the King.
Ans 1. in cahoots

2. in the blues

3. at one's beck and call

4. run amok

Q.3 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word from the given sentence.

The teacher's encouragment motivated the students to excel in their studies.

Ans 1. Encouragment

2. Teacher's

3. Motivated

4. Excel

Q.4 Select the grammatically correct sentence from the given options.
Ans 1. She was not allow to enter the hotel as her clothes were dirty.

2. She was not allowed to enter the hotel as her clothes were dirtier.

3. She was not allowed to enter the hotel as her clothes was dirtier.

4. She was not allowed to enter the hotel as her clothes were dirty.

Q.5 In the following sentence the underlined part contains as error. Alternatives to the underlined part are given as options.
Select the correct alternative.
Their chance of winning is slimmest.
Ans 1. slimmer

2. slim

3. slimly

4. most slim

Q.6 Select the grammatically correct sentence.

Ans 1. A secondary section of the school is located at an end of the street.

2. The secondary section of the school is located at the end of the street.

3. The secondary section of a school is located at the end of a street.

4. The secondary section of a school is located at an end of the street.

Q.7 Select the most appropriate meaning of the idiom from the options given below.
To accept the gauntlet
Ans 1. To accept failure

2. To accept a challenge

3. To suffer financial loss

4. To suffer a great insult

Q.8 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

You need to rest the ________ before baking the bread.
Ans 1. paste

2. lard

3. doe

4. dough

Q.9 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blanks.

The teacher asked the students to remain ____, but the noise continued to ____. She finally had to raise her voice to gain
control.
Ans 1. calm; escalate

2. quit; rise

3. silent; ascend

4. still; elevate

Q.10 Choose the correctly spelt word to fill in the blank meaningfully.
The citizens of Iraq wanted _______________ after years of war.
Ans 1. piece

2. pease

3. peice

4. peace

Q.11 In the following sentence the underlined part contains as error. Alternatives to the underlined part are given as options.
Select the correct alternative.
Pankaj is a better cook.
Ans 1. goodest

2. best

3. good

4. more good

Q.12 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

I still / do not understand / why he did not / reply my email.

Ans 1. I still

2. why he did not

3. reply my email

4. do not understand

Q.13 Select the correct spelling of the underlined word in the given sentence.

Is he ready to risk his acredation for the greater good?

Ans 1. accraditation

2. accredation

3. acreditation

4. accreditation
Q.14 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

Shirin came off with a brilliant idea to solve the problem.

Ans 1. came off on a brilliant idea

2. came up in a brilliant idea

3. came up with a brilliant idea

4. came off to a brilliant idea

Q.15 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Hire
Ans 1. Endure

2. Engage

3. Enhance

4. Engross

Q.16 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Inferior
Ans 1. Superior

2. Substandard

3. Beautiful

4. Mediocre

Q.17 Read the following sentence and select its future tense form from the options given below:
Rachel and Rahul joined forces on a project and successfully completed it within a month.
Ans 1. Rachel and Rahul will join forces on a project and successfully complete it within a month.

2. Rachel and Rahul have joined forces on a project and successfully completed it within a month.

3. Rachel and Rahul are joining forces on a project and successfully completing it within a month.

4. Rachel and Rahul should join forces on a project and successfully complete it within a month.

Q.18 In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option
to fill in the blanks.
Martin Luther King Jr. started a crusade for discrimination ________ African Americans. He relied on peaceful
demonstrations and demonstrators. His most famous march was a powerful rally of about 250,000 people in Washington in
1963, where he ________ one of the most famous speeches in history.
Ans 1. against; delivered

2. opposed; dropped

3. versus; brought

4. counter; dispatched

Q.19 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The professor's __________ lecture was filled with complex concepts.

1. lucyd
Ans

2. lucid

3. lucide

4. lucied
Q.20 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The team captain inquired of his teammates _________ they preferred to choose batting as their initial option.

Ans 1.
whither
2.
weather
3.
wither
4. whether

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

Employers, nowadays, are (1)_______ on team-building as it proves to be useful in being more productive. So, they create occasions
for the employees to spend time together. Some employees are sick (2) ________ office festival parties with mandatory dress codes
and fun competitions. Some others (3)____ of having to forcibly bond with colleagues during after-work happy hours when they would
rather be at home. A French court (4)____ recently that one very much has the right to be boring at the workplace. Seven years after
Mr. T was fired from his company for not participating in fun activities, which included going out for drinks after work once a week, the
court said that Mr. T was merely exercising his ‘freedom of expression’. It added that the company’s culture of fun (5)________ Mr. T
‘s fundamental right to ‘dignity and respect of private life’. However, employers and HR personnel insist that team-bonding initiatives
are crucial to the workplace and the employees too feel the same if they want promotions.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans 1. focusing

2. focus

3. has focused

4. focuses

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans 1. with

2. for

3. from

4. of
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans 1. are tired

2. has tired

3. have tired

4. tired

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans 1. has ruled

2. was ruled

3. is ruled

4. have ruled

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans 1. is violated

2. violated

3. will violate

4. violate
Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 13/11/2024
Exam
9:00 AM - 11:00 AM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1

Ans 1. 1260

2. 1575

3. 180

4. 630

Q.2
A sum of ₹12,000 becomes double at simple interest in 7 years at a certain
rate of simple interest. Find the time (in years) it takes for the amount to
become ₹60,000 at the same rate of interest.
Ans 1. 30

2. 28

3. 20

4. 25

Q.3 A retailer announces a discount of 25% for selling a mobile phone marked at ₹48,000. The cost price of the mobile phone is
45% below the marked price. He offers a further discount of 7.5% if the buyer returns his old mobile phone. What is the ratio
of the profit percentages of the retailer with the return of the old mobile phone scheme to that of without the return of the
old mobile phone, respectively?
Ans 1.

Q.4 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹2500 as a sum borrowed at 7% per year rate of interest for 2 years.
Ans 1. 310

2. 350

3. 290

4. 390
Q.5 The average height of a group of 10 students is 172 cm. Two more students of height 178 cm and 165 cm joined the group
and 3 students of average height 160 cm leave the group. What is the new average height (in cm, rounded off to 1 decimal
place) of the group after the changes?
Ans 1. 174.6

2. 175.9

3. 169.7

4. 170.5

Q.6 If the number of working staff in the company is increased by 20% and the salary per head is decreased by 20%, then the
percentage of change in the total salary is:
Ans 1. decrease of 20%

2. increase of 20%

3. increase of 4%

4. decrease of 4%

Q.7 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹2500 as a sum borrowed at 7% per year rate of interest for 4 years.
Ans 1. 740

2. 700

3. 660

4. 640

Q.8 The average weight of 6 children increases by 1.5 kg when a new child comes in place of one of them weighing 12 kg. The
weight of the new child is:
Ans 1. 22 kg

2. 14.5 kg

3. 14 kg

4. 21 kg

Q.9 A spherical metal ball is melted into a shape of cylinder mounted by a cone such that the base of cone exactly overlaps the
top base of cylinder. The diameter of the cylinder and sphere is 4.2 m each. What is the height (in m) of the cone if the height
of cylinder is 1.4 m?
Ans 1. 2.1

2. 4.2

3. 0.7

4. 1.4

Q.10 Pankaj bought a watch at a price range from₹1,500 to₹3,000 which are sold at prices ranging
from₹2,500 to₹3,500. If Pankaj sells such 10 watches, then the greatest possible profit (in ₹) he
made with the transaction is:
Ans 1. 20,000

2. 19,000

3. 21,765

4. 23,854

Q.11 If a conical vessel is of height 12cm and radius 6cm, then the volume of the conical vessel is
Ans 1.

4.
Q.12 A 250-metre-long train running at a speed of 100 km/h crosses another train coming from the opposite direction at a speed
of 62 km/h in 10 seconds. What is the length of the second train?
Ans 1. 200 metres

2. 240 metres

3. 230 metres

4. 270 metres

Q.13

Ans 1. 92.04%

2. 90.25%

3. 82.07%

4. 85.36%

Q.14 A right circular solid metallic cone is 7.2 cm high and radius of its base 3.5 cm. It is melted and recast into two right circular
solid metallic cones equal in all respects, each with base radius 2.1 cm and height ‘h’. What is the value of ‘h’ (in cm)?
Ans 1. 12

2. 21

3. 14

4. 10

Q.15 A shopkeeper of a subsidised canteen mixed three varieties of rice, X, Y and Z, in the ratio of 4 : 1 : 3 to make a packet of 4
kg of rice. The cost prices per kg of X, Y and Z varieties of rice are ₹2, ₹4 and ₹6, respectively. What is the cost price (in ₹) of
the packet of rice?
Ans 1. 30

2. 15

3. 18

4. 10

Q.16 Two trains of lengths 310 m and 340 m, respectively, are 285 m apart. They start moving towards each other on parallel
tracks, at the speeds of 151 km/h and 155 km/h, respectively. In how much time will the trains cross each other completely?
Ans 1. 10 s

2. 12 s

3. 11 s

4. 13 s
Q.17 Find the number that must be added to the terms of the ratio 11 : 29 to make it equal to 11 : 20.
Ans 1. 12

2. 9

3. 10

4. 11

Q.18 The average of 7 numbers is 55. If the first 4 numbers are 48, 62, 135 and 74, then what will be the
average of the remaining numbers?
Ans 1. 31

2. 19

3. 25

4. 22

Q.19

Ans 1. 890

2. 885

3. 895

4. 880

Q.20 The graph shows the data of the number of accidents by three types of vehicles: X, Y and Z in four cities: P, Q, R and S.
Study the given graph and answer the question that follows.

The correct increasing order of the cities as per the total number of accidents by all types of vehicles is:
Ans 1. S, R, Q, P

2. S, R, P, Q

3. R, Q, P, S

4. R, P, Q, S

Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1 Select the option figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the figure given below to complete the pattern.

Ans

Q.2 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are
interchanged?

392 × 7 − 2 ÷ 12 + 80 = ?
Ans 1. 8

2. 4

3. 2

4. 0
Q.3 A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order). G sits
second to the left of F, who is third to the left of D. C sits third to the right of B, who is not an immediate neighbour of E. A
sits second to the right of B.
Who is immediate right of E?
Ans 1. G

2. A

3. D

4. B

Q.4 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

118 122 130 142 158 ?

Ans 1. 186

2. 166

3. 182

4. 178

Q.5 Three statements are given, followed by two conclusions numbered 1, and 2. Assuming the statements to be true, even if
they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements:
No Doctor is a Nurse
Some Nurses are Patients
Some Patients are Medicines
Conclusions:
1. Some Patients are not Doctors
2. Some Nurses are Medicines
Ans 1. Only conclusion 2 follows

2. Neither conclusion 1 nor 2 follows

3. Both conclusions 1 and 2 follow

4. Only conclusion 1 follows

Q.6 Which of the following equations is correct by interchanging the ‘+’ and ‘×’ signs and the ‘4’ and ‘5’ numbers?
Ans 1. 5 + 15 × 4 = 50

2. 20 + 5 × 4 = 85

3. 10 × 4 + 5 = 60

4. 5 × 4 + 10 = 40

Q.7 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?

RJK, PMI, NPG, LSE, ?

Ans 1. JVC

2. KVD

3. KVC

4. KWC

Q.8 This question has two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to
be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions
logically follow(s) from the given statements.
Statements:
All arrows are swords.
Some swords are dragons.
Conclusions
(I) Some swords are arrows.
(II) Some dragons are not swords.
Ans 1. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow

2. Only conclusion (II) follows

3. Only conclusion (I) follows

4. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows

Q.9 19 is related to 39 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 1 is related to 3. To which of the following is 3 related
following the same logic?(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the
numbersinto its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13can be
performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1and 3 is not allowed)
Ans 1. 7

2. 9

3. 8

4. 11

Q.10 In a certain code language, 'MINT' is coded as '9735' and 'NEAR' is coded as '4568'.
What is the code for 'N' in the given code language?
Ans 1. 3

2. 4

3. 5

4. 6

Q.11 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans
1.

Q.12 LO15 is related to OR30 in a certain way. In the same way, SV25 is related to VY50. To which of the following is TW35 related,
following the same logic?
Ans 1. AZ17

2. WZ70

3. WZ17

4. WA70

Q.13 In a certain code language, ‘FISH’ is coded as ‘6482’ and ‘SANE’ is coded as ‘7691’.
What is the code for ‘S’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 9

2. 7

3. 8

4. 6
Q.14 Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series and complete
the pattern.

Ans

Q.15 NLRP is related to USYW in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, KIOM is related to RPVT.
To which of the following is GEKI related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. NLPR

2. LNPR

3. NLRP

4. LNRP

Q.16 In a certain code language, ‘DAYS’ is coded as ‘3917’ and ‘YOLK’ is coded as ‘2496’.What is the code for ‘Y’ in that
language?
Ans 1. 2

2. 9

3. 1

4. 4

Q.17 4 is related to 70 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 8 is related to 518. To which ofthe following is 6 related,
following the same logic?(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the
numbersinto its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13can be
performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1and 3 is not allowed)
Ans 1. 216

2. 226

3. 222

4. 219
Q.18 In a certain code language, ‘YATCH’ is coded as ‘RTMVA’ and ‘CAT’ is coded as ‘VTM’. What is the code for ‘ANAMOLIES’ in
the given code language?
Ans 1. TGSFHEBXL

2. TGTFGEBXL

3. TGTFHEBXL

4. TGTEHEBXL

Q.19 Seven people A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same
order). Exactly three people are sitting between E and B when counted from the right of E. Both G and D are immediate
neighbours of F. C is sitting to the immediate left of A. D and E are not sitting next to each other. The position of how many
persons will remain unchanged, excluding A, if all the persons are arranged in the English alphabetical order, in clockwise
direction, starting from A?
Ans 1. 1

2. 2

3. 4

4. 3

Q.20 Select the figure from the given options, which when put in place of the question mark (?) will logically complete the series.

Ans

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 Who was the progenitor of the prolific Jaipur-Atrauli gharana?

Ans 1. Ustad Ali Akbar Khan

2. Ustad Vilayat Khan

3. Ustad Alladiya Khan

4. Ustad Mustaq Ali Khan

Q.2 In Harappan civilisation, which material was NOT used in the construction of buildings?
Ans 1. Wood

2. Gypsum mortar

3. Burnt mud-bricks

4. Iron

Q.3 0.25 g of an organic compound gave 0.20 g of CO2 after complete combustion. The percentage composition of carbon is
_____.
Ans 1. 21.82%

2. 4.60%

3. 80.00%

4. 78.18%

Q.4 Where did the IBA Women's World Boxing Championships 2023 take place in India?
Ans 1. Mumbai

2. Kolkata

3. Bengaluru

4. New Delhi

Q.5 The autobiography of Sam Pitroda is called:

Ans 1. In the afternoon of time

2. The Substance and The Shadow

3. Dreaming Big: My Journey to Connect India

4. Beyond the lines

Q.6 On which of the following dates did the British Empire transfer its powers to the Constituent Assembly in India?
Ans 1. 26th January

2. 2nd October

3. 15th August

4. 14th November

Q.7 A little child is a very picky eater and hates drinking milk and milk products. When he lost his baby tooth, permanent teeth
took a very long time to come up in its place. What could be the probable reason behind this?
Ans 1. Vitamin Deficiency

2. Calcium Deficiency

3. Sugar Deficiency

4. Protein Deficiency

Q.8 Who can exercise a casting vote in the case of an equality of votes in Lok Sabha?
Ans 1. Speaker of Lok Sabha

2. Prime Minister

3. Vice President

4. President

Q.9 The National Food Security Act (NFSA) was enacted in which year by the Government of India?
Ans 1. 2001

2. 2013

3. 2008

4. 2005
Q.10 Vibration or wave caused by the sudden movement of tectonic plates within the earth that can travel through and around the
earth is called:
Ans 1. Seismic Wave

2. Foreshock

3. Main Shock

4. Upheaval

Q.11 The 'Quit India Movement' was launched under the leadership of __________________________.
Ans 1. Jawaharlal Nehru

2. Muhammad Ali Jinnah

3. Subhash Chandra Bose

4. Mahatma Gandhi

Q.12 On May 23, 2023, who assumed the position of Chairperson at the Competition Commission of India?
Ans 1. Ravneet Kaur

2. Neha Bhatia

3. Subhash Chandra Garg

4. NK Singh

Q.13 Identify the place where the West Central Railway Zone headquarters is located.
Ans 1. Jodhpur

2. Jaipur

3. Jabalpur

4. Bhopal

Q.14 Which of the following statements is/are true about public goods?
I. Rivalrous in consumption
II. Non-excludability
III. Positive marginal cost
Ans 1. Only II and III

2. Only I

3. Only I and III

4. Only II

Q.15 What is the primary source of energy for most ecosystems on Earth?
Ans 1. Geothermal heat

2. Tidal energy

3. Wind

4. Sunlight

Q.16 The Right to Freedom of Religion is covered under which Articles of the Constitution of India?
Ans 1. Articles 29-32

2. Articles 24-27

3. Articles 25-28

4. Articles 21-24

Q.17 As of July 2023, how many products were notified under the 'One District, One Product' scheme as per the
information provided by the Ministry of Food Processing Industries, Government of India?
Ans 1. 137

2. 125

3. 132

4. 135
Q.18 Which of the following folk dances of Jharkhand, Odisha and West Bengal region is on the Representative List of the
Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity?
Ans 1. Chhau

2. Karma Naach

3. Kummi

4. Dadra

Q.19 Which of the following agreements led Mahatma Gandhi to attend the Second Round Table Conference?
Ans 1. Pact of Paris

2. Poona Pact

3. Lucknow Pact

4. Gandhi Irwin Pact

Q.20 Which of the following Indian philosophical systems and its widely acknowledged proponents is INCORRECTLY paired?
Ans 1. Purva Mimansa - Jaimini

2. Vaisheshika - Vyasa

3. Nyaya - Gotama

4. Yoga - Patanjali

Q.21 Which of the following Rashtrakuta rulers performed the ceremony called ‘Hiranya Garbha’?
Ans 1. Krishna I

2. Govind III

3. Dhruva I

4. Dantidurga

Q.22 Aparna Satheesan, a recipient of 2021 Abhinandan Saroja National award by National Institute of Classical Dance, is an
exponent of ________ and Kuchipudi.
Ans 1. Bharatanatyam

2. Mohiniyattam

3. Manipuri

4. Kathak

Q.23 According to Census of India 2011, which pair of states recorded the highest population density (persons/km2) in India?
Ans 1. Uttar Pradesh and Haryana

2. Bihar and Kerala

3. Bihar and West Bengal

4. West Bengal and Uttar Pradesh

Q.24 Which is the jet stream that brings Western disturbances in India?
Ans 1. North polar jet stream

2. Westerly jet stream

3. South polar jet stream

4. Easterly jet stream

Q.25 The rifle (in the shooting sport) is single-loaded in _________-millimetre calibre (the inner diameter of a gun barrel), which is
used across all events.
Ans 1. 4.5

2. 5.1

3. 5.6

4. 4.8

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Following weeks of intense training, the athlete ____________________ in the championship.

Ans 1. have been competing

2. competed

3. were competing

4. have competed

Q.2 The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them contains an error. Select the part that contains the error
from the given options.

After months of / meticulous planning and hard work, / a team successfully launched / their innovative product to the
market.
Ans 1. their innovative product to the market.

2. meticulous planning and hard work,

3. After months of

4. a team successfully launched

Q.3 Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. Select the option that contains an error.
Dr. Oppenheimer is the exceptional movie of all the movies in recent times.
Ans 1. the exceptional movie

2. of all the movies

3. in recent times

4. Dr. Oppenheimer is

Q.4 Select the option that best expresses the meaning of the given idiom.

When pigs fly

Ans 1. In due course of time

2. In unity

3. Just impossible

4. Correct approach

Q.5 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Cacophony
Ans 1. Noise

2. Discord

3. Harmony

4. Dissonance

Q.6 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The movie was so boring that I fell _________.

Ans 1. slept

2. sleeping

3. asleep

4. sleep

Q.7 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The cat likes to _________ in the sun during the afternoon.

Ans 1. lye

2. lay

3. lie

4. lei
Q.8 Select the grammatically correct sentence from the given options.
Ans 1. A salesman insisted that a payment against a purchase should be done by using a bank card.

2. The salesman insisted that the payment against the purchase should be done by using a bank card.

3. The salesman insisted that a payment against the purchase should be done by using an bank card.

4. A salesman insisted that the payment against an purchase should be done by using the bank card.

Q.9 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Dig up dirt
Ans 1. To uncover negative information about someone or something.

2. Find and disclose evidence

3. Hide and protect vital evidence

4. Enquire about a missing person

Q.10 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans 1. Fabulous

2. Aggravate

3. Tremendous

4. Obedence

Q.11 Select the most appropriate homophone to fill in the blank.While learning to drive, Shivani met with an accident because she
couldn't hit the _________________.
Ans 1. brick

2. brack

3. break

4. brake

Q.12 Select the correct spelling of the incorrectly spelt word in the given sentence.

She is an indepandent writer.

Ans 1. Indipendant

2. Indipendent

3. Independent

4. Independant

Q.13 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The philanthropist's __________ donations significantly improved the quality of life in the community.
Ans 1. parsimonious

2. redundant

3. substantial

4. meagre

Q.14 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the underlined word.
"He was notorious for his avaricious behaviour, always seeking ways to accumulate more wealth."
Ans 1. sloth

2. notorious

3. generous

4. greedy
Q.15 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

The residents of Rameswaram / about the 1940s were quite / orthodox, but were also / tolerant of other communities.
Ans 1. orthodox, but were also

2. tolerant of other communities

3. about the 1940s were quite

4. The residents of Rameswaram

Q.16 Select the option that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word in the given sentence.

The state played only a modest part in the outstanding advancement of modern morality.
Ans 1. Unimpressive

2. Moderate

3. Boastful

4. Humble

Q.17 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

She is ___________ of spiders.

Ans 1. fear

2. afraid

3. interest

4. frightening

Q.18 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word..

Ans 1. Lovable

2. Peaceful

3. Joyful

4. Faithfull

Q.19 Select the grammatically correct sentence from the given options.

These are the works of a great poet Tagore.

Ans 1. These are the works of this great poet Tagore.

2. These are the works of an great poet Tagore.

3. These are the works of that great poet Tagore.

4. These are the works of the great poet Tagore.

Q.20 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

We are planning to see an _________________ perform a symphony.
Ans 1. orchestra

2. actor

3. actress

4. opera
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

In terms of technical difficulty, Nanga Parbat, the world's ninth (1)_____ peak, competes with K2. The first (2)_____ to the summit
follows a narrow ridge. The 15,000-foot Rupal Face, a single wall of rock and ice, is located on the mountain's southern side. Climbers
have dubbed the Nanga Parbat, which (3)______ as ‘naked mountain’, ‘Killer Mountain’. This gives Annapurna a (4)______ of 32%,
making it the most statistically dangerous of the world’s 8,000-metre peaks. It is an avalanche-prone area with some technical
difficulty. Climbers’ misery is (5)_______ by insufficient local support, in addition to unpredictable weather and inaccessibility.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans 1. fattest

2. highest

3. deepest

4. lengthiest

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans 1. lift

2. launch

3. rise

4. ascent

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans 1. translates

2. transposed

3. transcribes

4. transliterates
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans 1. mortal rate

2. frailty rate

3. economic rate

4. fatality rate

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans 1. exacerbated

2. worst

3. perfectly

4. increasingly
Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 13/11/2024
Exam
12:30 PM - 2:30 PM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1
Calculate the simple interest on ₹36,000 at per annum for a period of 7 months.

Ans 1.

Q.2 The average weight of a family of five members (in kg) whose weights are 40 kg, 49 kg, 56 kg, 71 kg and 36 kg is:
Ans 1. 49.4

2. 52.4

3. 51.4

4. 50.4

Q.3 Find the greatest possible length which can be used to measure exactly the lengths 2 m 25 cm, 2 m 70 cm, 3 m 15 cm.
Ans 1. 35 cm

2. 15 cm

3. 45 cm

4. 25 cm

Q.4 A shopkeeper mixes three types of pulses costing₹88/kg,₹72/kg and₹62/kg in the ratio of 5 : 2 : 3. The
average cost (in₹) of the mixture per kg is:
Ans 1. 77

2. 84

3. 89

4. 97

Q.5 The average weight of a family of five members (in kg) whose weights are 40 kg, 49 kg, 56 kg, 71 kg and 35 kg is:
Ans 1. 52.2

2. 50.2

3. 49.2

4. 51.2
Q.6

Ans 1. 40%

2. 35%

3. 15%

4. 25%

Q.7 The ratio of two numbers is 15 : 26. If the difference between the numbers is 352, then find the smallest number.
Ans 1. 840

2. 832

3. 480

4. 238

Q.8

Ans 1. 12672

2. 11889

3. 11368

4. 12689

Q.9 What sum (in ₹) will earn a simple interest of ₹240 in 4 years at 4% per year rate of interest?
Ans 1. 2000

2. 750

3. 1500

4. 3000

Q.10 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹2000 as a sum borrowed at 6% per year rate of interest for 4 years.
Ans 1. 520

2. 480

3. 440

4. 420

Q.11 Two trains start at the same time from Agra and Meerut and proceed towards each other at speeds of 16 km/h and 32 km/h,
respectively. When they meet, it is found that one train has travelled 64 km more than the other. The distance between the
two stations is:
Ans 1. 208km

2. 176km

3. 192km

4. 156km

Q.12 The average age of the 28 boys in a class is 16 years and that of the 26 girls is 15 years. The approximate average age (in
years) for the whole class is:
Ans
1.

4.
Q.13

Ans 1. Pure Sciences Programme, 2003

2. Architecture Programme, 2005

3. Architecture Programme, 2004

4. Computer Science Programme, 2004

Q.14 A thief Rohan is spotted by a policeman Ramesh from a distance of 250 m. When they see each other, they start running.
How much distance is covered by Rohan, who is running at the speed of 20 km/h, before being caught by Ramesh, who is
running at the speed of 25 km/h?
Ans 1. 4 km

2. 3 km

3. 2 km

4. 1 km

Q.15 Annu buys a dress from an online designer portal during a festival sale, marked at a price of ₹9,600. She gets a 15% festive
discount and a further 10% discount on checkout as it is her first order from the site. How much did she actually pay for the
dress?
Ans 1. ₹7,934

2. ₹8,160

3. ₹7,344

4. ₹7,554

Q.16 A certain shopping site gave successive discounts of 20% and 30% on purses during a new year sale. What is the actual
discount received by the customer?
Ans 1. 44%

2. 39%

3. 47%

4. 41%
Q.17 A shopkeeper sells one-fourth of his items at a loss of 12%, one-third of the remaining items at a profit of 44%, and the rest
at a loss of 7%. What is his overall profit/loss percentage?
Ans 1. 4.5% loss

2. 4.5% gain

3. 2% gain

4. 2% loss

Q.18 The radius of a circle is equal to the side of a square. The perimeters of the square and circle are in the ratio 7 : 11, then the
ratio of the areas will be:(Use π = 22/7)
Ans 1. 22 : 14

2. 14 : 22

3. 22 : 7

4. 7 : 22

Q.19 Study the given graph and answer the question that follows.
The graph shows the data of production of items: W, R and T by four companies: S, D, F and G as percentage of their total
productions.

If the total productions of F and S are 2000 and 3000, respectively, the difference in the productions of R by these
companies is:
Ans 1. 200

2. 150

3. 250

4. 100

Q.20

Ans 1. 8,950

2. 9,380

3. 9,000

4. 9,015

Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1 Three statements are given, followed by two conclusions numbered 1 and 2. Assuming the statements to be true, even if
they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements:
All Mangoes are Kiwis
All Kiwis are Guavas
No Guava is an Apple
Conclusions:
1. All Apples are Mangoes
2. Some Guavas are Apples
Ans 1. Only conclusion 1 follows

2. Both conclusions 1 and 2 follow

3. Neither conclusion 1 nor 2 follows

4. Only conclusion 2 follows

Q.2

Ans 1.

Q.3 146 is related to 208.4 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 112 is related to 174.4. To which of the following is
135 related, following the same logic?

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbersinto its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into
1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3is not allowed.)
Ans 1. 188.4

2. 197.4

3. 192.4

4. 179.4

Q.4 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements:
A. Some dogs are frogs.
B. Some swans are dogs.
Conclusions:
I. Some frogs are swans.
II. No dogs are swans.
Ans 1. Only conclusion II follows.

2. Only conclusion I follows.

3. None of the conclusions follow.

4. Both the conclusions follow.

Q.5 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans
1.

Q.6 M, N, O, P, Q, R and S are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order). Q sits
second to the right of M. P sits third to the left of M. N is an immediate neighbour of S and P. R is not an immediate
neighbour of P. Who sits third to the left of R ?
Ans 1. N

2. O

3. S

4. M

Q.7 In a certain code language, ‘GAVE’ is coded as ‘7485’ and ‘CAGE’ is coded as ‘4589’. What is the code for ‘C’ in that
language?
Ans 1. 5

2. 9

3. 8

4. 7
Q.8 Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series and complete
the pattern.

Ans

Q.9 In a certain code language, ‘FISH’ is coded as ‘8426’ and ‘SAND’ is coded as ‘5749’.What is the code for ‘S’ in the given code
language?
Ans 1. 9

2. 5

3. 2

4. 4

Q.10 Find the missing term in the below series:

F, I, K, N, P, ?, U.
Ans 1. R

2. T

3. V

4. S

Q.11 In a certain code language, ‘GAME’ is coded as ‘5279’ and ‘META’ is coded as ‘7942’. What is the code for ‘T’ in that
language?
Ans 1. 4

2. 5

3. 9

4. 7
Q.12 UMSO is related to RJPL in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, QIOK is related to NFLH.
To which of the following is MEKG related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. JBHD

2. JBDH

3. BJDH

4. BJHD

Q.13 KL42 is related to PQ50 in a certain way. In the same way, RS52 is related to WX60. To which of the following is DE62 related,
following the same logic?
Ans 1. IK17

2. IG17

3. JI70

4. IJ70

Q.14 What should come in place of ‘?’ in the given series?

13, 24, 75, 296, 1485, ?

Ans 1. 7430

2. 7420

3. 8916

4. 8904

Q.15 Six players Jadeja, Ashwin, Karthik, Murli, Sarfaraz and Virat are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre (but not
necessarily in the same order). Virat is sitting to the immediate right of Jadeja. Only Sarfaraz is sitting between Virat and
Murli. Jadeja is an immediate neighbour of Ashwin. Who is immediate neighbour of both Sarfaraz and Jadeja?
Ans 1. Karthik

2. Ashwin

3. Murli

4. Virat
Q.16

Ans

Q.17 What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’
are interchanged?
75 ÷ 27 × 27 + 93 − 20 = ?
Ans 1. 4

2. 3

3. 2

4. 5

Q.18 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘+’ and ‘–’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are
interchanged?
24 ÷ 6 + 18 × 9 – 2 = ?
Ans 1. 155

2. 144

3. 122

4. 166
Q.19 Select the option figure in which the given figure (X) is embedded as its part (rotation is NOT allowed).

Ans

Q.20 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.
(10, 8, 65)
(16, 6, 81)
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /deleting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans 1. (5, 15, 65)

2. (12, 4, 114)

3. (4, 9, 16)

4. (7, 5, 20)

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 What is the tenure of a Governor?

Ans 1. 6 years

2. 5 years

3. 10 Years

4. 2 years
Q.2 The Government of India in collaboration with ___________ has launched the Skills on Wheels mission in Oct 2023 for
equipping rural youth with employable skills.
Ans 1. NABARD

2. HDFC Bank

3. IndusInd Bank

4. ICICI Bank

Q.3 Who appointed the ‘Hunter Commission’ for Educational Reforms in 1882?
Ans 1. John Lawrence

2. Robert Lytton

3. Lord Ripon

4. Lord Ellenborough

Q.4 ___________ was an Indian mandolinist who was a master composer of the Carnatic style of classical music.
Ans 1. Kunnakudi Vaidyanathan

2. Uppalapu Srinivas

3. R Prasanna

4. Narasimhan Ravikiran

Q.5 In which year did India host the FIFA U 17 Women's Football World Cup?
Ans 1. 2021

2. 2020

3. 2022

4. 2019

Q.6 According to the census of India 2011, which union territory of India has the highest literacy rate?
Ans 1. Chandigarh

2. Lakshadweep

3. Delhi

4. Puducherry

Q.7 Which local storm is also known as 'Kalbaisakhi'?

Ans 1. Mango Shower

2. Blossom Shower

3. Loo

4. Nor Westers

Q.8 During the framing of the Indian Constitution, the Constituent Assembly held a total of eleven sessions, with sittings spread
over for how many days?
Ans 1. 115

2. 180

3. 165

4. 132

Q.9 Which of the following sectors engaged the largest percentage of women workers in the year 2019-2020?
Ans 1. Service

2. Industry

3. Mining

4. Agriculture
Q.10 In which of the following dance performance is the main percussion instrument Edakka used?
Ans 1. Odissi

2. Bharatanatyam

3. Mohiniattam

4. Kathak

Q.11 Which poet composed the Allahabad Prashasti of Samudragupta?

Ans 1. Vatsbhatti

2. Vasul

3. Harisena

4. Banabhatta

Q.12 Which substance is commonly added to tap water to make it safe for drinking by killing harmful microorganisms?
Ans 1. Chlorine

2. Calcium

3. Fluoride

4. Iron

Q.13 For most of the ecosystem, what is the primary source of energy?
Ans 1. Wind

2. Water

3. Sunlight

4. Geothermal energy

Q.14 How many artists are selected for the one-time Sangeet Natak Akademi Amrit Award, 2022?
Ans 1. 75

2. 60

3. 86

4. 100

Q.15 Which Indian state's cabinet approved the proposal for recommending the inclusion of the Kui language in the eighth
schedule in July 2023?
Ans 1. Tamil Nadu

2. West Bengal

3. Karnataka

4. Odisha

Q.16 The title of the autobiography of famous cricketer of Pakistan Imran Khan is:
Ans 1. Goal

2. My Fight / Your Fight

3. Game Changer

4. All Round View

Q.17 Which of the following sessions of the Indian National Congress was headed by Sarojini Naidu?
Ans 1. Lahore, 1929

2. Madras, 1927

3. Kanpur, 1925

4. Karachi, 1931
Q.18 Why will a person weigh more at the north or south pole?
Ans 1. Due to variation in centripetal force of earth with latitude

2. Due to Earth’s distance from the sun

3. Due to variation in centrifugal force of earth with latitude

4. Due to variation in centripetal force of earth with altitude

Q.19 Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award is given for the spectacular and most outstanding performance in the field of sports
by a sportsperson over a period of the previous four years. In 2021, the awardee for para shooting was:
Ans 1. Neeraj Chopra

2. Avani Lekhara

3. Chanu Saikhom Mirabai

4. Anju Bobby George

Q.20 Which region in India has the highest concentration of Iron and Steel Industry?
Ans 1. Deccan Plateau

2. Chotanagpur plateau

3. Telangana Plateau

4. Aravali region

Q.21 The concept of the Self-Help Group Bank Linkage Program was introduced by:
Ans 1. RBI

2. SIDBI

3. NABARD

4. SBI

Q.22 In which of the following types of regions, is the maximum temperature variation observed between a day and the same
night?
Ans 1. Coastal area

2. Island

3. Peninsula

4. Desert

Q.23 Which of the following statements is/are true about the Cholas?
1 The capital of the Chola kingdom was Tanjore.
2 Vikram Chola had in his veins the blood of the Cholas and Eastern Chalukyas.
3 Rajendra I Chola is known as Gangaikonda Chola.
Ans 1. Only 1 and 2

2. Only 2 and 3

3. All 1, 2 and 3

4. Only 1 and 3

Q.24 Which festival is celebrated as the birth anniversary of Prophet Muhammad?

Ans 1. Id-ul-zuha

2. Shab-i-barat

3. Eid-ul-fitr

4. Milad-un-nabi
Q.25 Which famous monument of Vijayapura has a Whispering Gallery, where subtle sounds can be heard clearly even from a
distance of 37 metres?
Ans 1. Gol Gumbaz

2. Gagan Mahal

3. Upli Buruj

4. Saath Kabar

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
They worked / very hardly / on their project / for several weeks.
Ans 1. for several weeks

2. They worked

3. on their project

4. very hardly

Q.2 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word..

Ans 1. Accommodate

2. Conscientiousness

3. Persevrence

4. Exaggerate

Q.3 Select the correctly spelt word to fill in the blank and make the sentence meaningful.

Before retiring, Kaul had been teaching physics at the university for three __________________.
Ans 1. edecamals

2. decadents

3. decades

4. decimals

Q.4 Select the most appropriate word segment that can replace the underlined part in the sentence.

The two thieves divided the looted money with themselves.

Ans 1. of themselves

2. between themselves

3. among themselves

4. off themselves

Manoj has a bigger / farmhouse of one hundred / hectares near the city.
Ans 1. Manoj has a bigger

2. farmhouse of one hundred

3. No error

4. hectares near the city.

Q.6 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank and complete the given idiom.

That’s great! You keep everything under your _________________.

Ans 1. hands

2. eyes

3. legs

4. thumb
Q.7 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

I am not going to pay a ________ for this broken CD.

Ans 1. cent

2. scent

3. send

4. sent

Q.8 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The ___________ of the novel kept me hooked from the beginning to the end.
Ans 1. plot

2. settlement

3. orchestra

4. archaic

Q.9 In the following sentence the underlined part contains an error. Alternatives to the underlined part are given as options.
Select the correct alternative.
Poverty is the urgent concern in India today.
Ans 1. urgenter

2. urgentest

3. more urgent

4. most urgent

Q.10 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Destroy
Ans 1. Ruin

2. Decline

3. Fabricate

4. Delight

Q.11 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Whim
Ans 1. Fancy

2. Factualness

3. Bloodiness

4. Antiquity

Q.12 The given sentence is divided into four segments. Select the option that has the segment with a grammatical error.
He has / no / influence about / me.
Ans 1. influence about

2. me.

3. he has

4. no

Q.13 In the following sentence the underlined part contains as error. Alternatives to the underlined part are given as options.
Select the correct alternative.
The water near the coast was shallower and clean.
Ans 1. shallowest

2. more shallow

3. the shallowest

4. shallow
Q.14 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.
The land that is best suitable for growing crops
Ans 1. Fruitful

2. Barren

3. Arable

4. Rustic

Q.15 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans 1. Secresy

2. Luggage

3. Hypocrisy

4. Cruelly

Q.16 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

My hands are full
Ans 1. To go directly towards something

2. To be very busy

3. To panic

4. To dislike someone

Q.17 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Appease
Ans 1. Force

2. Appeal

3. Pacify

4. Aggravate

Q.18 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Benevolent
Ans 1. Opulent

2. Eminent

3. Malevolent

4. Violent

Q.19 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
His artwork is / more intricate / than any artist / in the gallery.
Ans 1. more intricate

2. His artwork is

3. than any artist

4. in the gallery

Q.20 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

Autumn leaves shuffled beneath him as he wandered through the quiet forest.
Ans 1. died over

2. rustled underfoot

3. crushed around

4. moved to another place

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

The eye of an ostrich is larger than its brain. Of all birds, ostriches have the 1.________ eyes. Their eyes are the size of a pool ball,
measuring around 2 inches in diameter. Their size is five times greater than that of human eyes. Ostriches have excellent vision, so
their enormous eyes aren't just for show. Because of their height and keen 2.________, the birds can see well over great distances,
enabling them to identify potential 3._________ before they approach.
In general, compared to mammals of comparable size, birds often have smaller brains. Ostrich brains are approximately 1.5 inches in
width, the study found. Additionally, their average brain weight is almost 17 times lower than that of the three other 4._____. When
comparing the brain-to-body weight ratio of the other birds, the ostrich's brain was lighter than their body weight.
Some other facts concerning these birds are what set them apart. All other birds have three or four toes; this magnificent creature has
only two. Ostriches bend their knees in a forward orientation; thus, they kick forward rather than backward. Furthermore, ostriches do
not require water because they produce some of it internally and obtain the 5._______ from the plants they consume.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option for blank 1.
Ans 1. biggest

2. more big

3. bigger

4. big

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option for blank 2.
Ans 1. illusion

2. vision

3. delusion

4. allusion

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option for blank 3.
Ans 1. quarry

2. tours

3. victims

4. predators
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option for blank 4.
Ans 1. property

2. species

3. case

4. typical

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option for blank 5.
Ans 1. lesser

2. each

3. every

4. remainder
Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 13/11/2024
Exam
4:00 PM - 5:30 PM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 The height of Aaryan was 120 cm. After 1 year,his height increased by 15%, and in the next 1 year, his height increased by
16%. What will be the height (in cm) of Aaryan after the second years?
Ans 1. 161.08

2. 150.56

3. 138

4. 160.08

Q.2 The given bar graph shows the distribution of the total expenditure (in hundreds) of a school under various expense heads
in the year 2022.

The total amount of expenditure of the school is how many times of its expenditure on advertisement?
Ans 1.

Q.3 The product of LCM and HCF of two numbers is 24. If the difference between the two numbers is 2, then find the numbers.
Ans 1. 2 and 4

2. 6 and 4

3. 5 and 3

4. 8 and 6
Q.4 A person can complete a journey in 21 hours. He covers the first one-third of the journey at the speed of 40 km/h and the
remaining distance at the speed of 60 km/h. What is the total distance of his journey?
Ans 1. 1080 km

2. 360 km

3. 1140 km

4. 720 km

Q.5

Ans 1. 14856

2. 18821

3. 16632

4. 17838

Q.6 What sum (in ₹) will earn a simple interest of ₹360 in 2 years at 20% per year rate of interest?
Ans 1. 1200

2. 450

3. 1800

4. 900

Q.7 If the length and breadth of a rectangle are 7cm and 5cm, respectively, the area of the rectangle is:
Ans 1. 28 cm2

2. 35 cm2

3. 30 cm2

4. 12 cm2

Q.8 A man covers 30 km by car at a speed of 60 km/h and another 20 km by cycle. His whole journey is completed in 3 hours.
What is the speed (in km/h) of the cycle?
Ans 1. 10

2. 8

3. 6

4. 12

Q.9

An 1. 25%
s
2. 45%

3. 20%

4. 40%

Q.10 Ramesh bought a watch for Rs.460 and sold it for Rs.414. Find his percentage of loss
Ans 1. 10%

2. 11%

3. 5%

4. 20%
Q.11 The difference between simple interests on a certain sum at the annual rate of 6% for 6 years and 8% for 8 years is ₹1,176.
What is the sum?
Ans 1. ₹4,200

2. ₹4,400

3. ₹3,800

4. ₹4,000

Q.12 The average weight of a family of five members (in kg) whose weights are 40 kg, 49 kg, 56 kg, 68 kg and 37 kg is:
Ans 1. 52

2. 50

3. 49

4. 51

Q.13 The average weight of a family of five members (in kg) whose weights are 40 kg, 49 kg, 56 kg, 69 kg and 39 kg is:
Ans 1. 49.6

2. 52.6

3. 50.6

4. 51.6

Q.14 In a group of sports persons, 20 wrestlers have an average weight of 90 kg, while some athletes have an average weight of
68 kg. If the average weight of all sports persons is 78 kg, then the number of athletes is:
Ans 1. 30

2. 52

3. 39

4. 24

Q.15 By selling a book for ₹480 at marked price, a shopkeeper gains 20%. During a clearance sale, the shopkeeper allows a
discount of 10% on the marked price. What is his gain per cent during the sale?
Ans 1. 12%

2. 16%

3. 18%

4. 8%

Q.16 What sum (in ₹) will earn a simple interest of ₹240 in 3 years at 20% per year rate of interest?
Ans 1. 600

2. 400

3. 200

4. 800

Q.17

Ans 1. 28028 cm2

2. 20882 cm2

3. 20828 cm2

4. 28082 cm2
Q.18 The average score of boys in an examination in a school is 71 and that of the girls is 73. The
average score of the school is 71.8. The ratio of the number of boys to that of the girls that
appeared in the examination is:
Ans 1. 3 : 4

2. 2 : 3

3. 4 : 3

4. 3 : 2

Q.19 Study the given table and answer the question that follows.
The table shows the marks obtained by three students: A, B and C in Mathematics, Chemistry and Physics.
Maximum marks for each subject is 100.

What is the difference in the average marks per student in Mathematics and Physics, respectively?
Ans 1. 6

2. 8

3. 6.5

4. 8.5

Q.20 If 49 : x :: x : 81 and 64 : y :: y : 169, where x and y are both natural numbers, then find the value of 2x + 3y.
Ans 1. 312

2. 348

3. 126

4. 438

Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1 2 is related to 15 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 6 is related to 43. To which of the following is 9 related,
following the same logic?

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 - Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into
1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans 1. 68

2. 64

3. 58

4. 53

Q.2 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

36, 39, 44, 51, 60, 71, 84, ?

Ans 1. 99

2. 90

3. 97

4. 95
Q.3 In a certain code language, ‘black dark night’ is coded as ‘ck th lp’ and ‘dark cloudy sky’ is coded as ‘eg lp sc’. How is ‘dark’
coded in the given language?
Ans 1. eg

2. th

3. lp

4. sc

Q.4 What will come in the place of ‘?’ in the following equation, if ‘–’ and ‘÷‘ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘+’ are interchanged?
70 ÷ 90 – 10 + 20 × 80 = ?
Ans 1. –10

2. –40

3. –45

4. –30

Q.5 GNEE is related to JQHH in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, BHYY is related to
EKBB. To which of the following is QXOO related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. RRTA

2. TARR

3. RRAT

4. ATRR

Q.6 Select the pattern that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

Ans

Q.7 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if '+' and '-' are interchanged and '×' and '÷' are
interchanged?
81 × 3 - 9 ÷ 3 + 2 = ?
Ans 1. 3

2. 56

3. 2

4. 52
Q.8 A, E, I, O, U, S and K are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order). K is to the
immediate right of O. E is the immediate neighbour of both O and S. I is neither an immediate neighbour of S nor A. Who sits
to the immediate right of U?
Ans 1. K

2. S

3. I

4. A

Statements:
Some doors are rocks.
All rocks are woods.

Conclusions:
(I) At least some woods are doors.
(II) All woods are rocks.
Ans 1. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow

2. Only conclusion (I) follows

3. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows

4. Only conclusion (II) follows

Q.10 In a certain code language, ‘WEAR’ is coded as ‘PI1O’ and ‘EARS’ is coded as ‘I4OP’.
What is the code for ‘S’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. O

2. 4

3. P

4. I

Q.11 In a certain code language,‘shirt pant coat’ is coded as ‘ek ph bq’,‘coat jacket sweater’ is coded as ‘ek lh to’,‘jacket shirt
watch’ is coded as ‘fd bq lh’. What is the code for‘coat’ in that language?(Note: All the codes are two-letter coded only.)
Ans 1. lh

2. bq

3. to

4. ek
Q.12 Select the option figure in which the given figure (X) is embedded as its part (rotation is NOT allowed).

Ans

Q.13 Seven people A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same
order). D is sitting second to the left of F. A is sitting third to the right of B. C is sitting to the immediate right of D. Only two
people are sitting between F and G. How many people are sitting between C and G when counted from the left of G?
Ans 1. Three

2. Two

3. Four

4. One

Q.14 In a certain code language, ‘JUMP’ is coded as ‘4682’ and ‘MIND’ is coded as ‘3741’.What is the code for ‘M’ in the given code
language?
Ans 1. 8

2. 7

3. 3

4. 4
Q.15 CMGW is related to XHDT in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, SCAQ is related to
NXXN. To which of the following is ISUK related, following the same logic?

Ans 1. EORG

2. ENSH

3. CMRG

4. DNRH

Q.16 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans
1.

Q.17 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?

AGK, FLP, KQU, PVZ, ?

Ans 1. UEA

2. VGY

3. UES

4. UAE

Statements:
Some salaries are bonus.
All wages are bonus.

Conclusions:
(I) Some salaries are wages.
(II) All bonus are wages.
Ans 1. Only conclusion (II) follows.

2. Only conclusion (I) follows.

3. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

4. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

Q.19 Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series and complete
the pattern.

Ans

Q.20 12 is related to 61 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 15 is related to 76. To which of the following is
18 related, following the same logic?
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their
constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying to 13 can be performed.
Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans 1. 97

2. 91

3. 95

4. 93

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 When was the Jallianwala Bagh massacre brought into action by the Britishers in Amritsar?
Ans 1. 23 April, 1918

2. 13 April, 1918

3. 13 March 1919

4. 13 April, 1919
Q.2 Select the INCORRECT statement regarding Ozone.
Ans 1. Ozone is formed from oxygen in the presence of ultraviolet radiation.

2. Ozone (O3), like oxygen, is a life-supporting gas.

3. Ultraviolet radiation causes skin cancer.

4. Ozone is a deadly poison

Q.3 Which writ is issued by the High Court or Supreme Court when a lower court considers a case going beyond its
jurisdiction?
Ans 1. Mandamus

2. Prohibition

3. Habeas Corpus

4. Quo warranto

Q.4 An Indian Parliamentary delegation led by Minister of Parliamentary Affairs, Coal and Mines ______________________
visited Brazil from 11 to 13 June 2023.
Ans 1. Pralhad Joshi

2. Narayan Rane

3. Arjun Munda

4. Virendra Kumar

Q.5 The planned large-scale disruption of rail communications and the seizure of arms in Bengal were undertaken under the
leadership of ________.
Ans 1. Surendranath Banerjee

2. Jatin Mukherjee

3. Chittaranjan Das

4. Aurobindo Ghose

Q.6 As per Census 2011, which of the following states has the lowest child sex ratio?
Ans 1. Haryana

2. Punjab

3. Madhya Pradesh

4. Rajasthan

Q.7 Which of the following Indian cities was the host of the ICC Men's World Cup final cricket match in 2023?
Ans 1. Mumbai

2. Ahmedabad

3. New Delhi

4. Chennai

Q.8 The revival of the art form in the late 1940s was spearheaded by maestros such as Kelucharan Mohapatra and Raghunath
Dutta in the field of ____________.
Ans 1. Sattriya

2. Manipuri

3. Odissi

4. Chhau

Q.9 What was the unemployment rate of Gujarat in November 2021?

Ans 1. 3.4%

2. 1.4%

3. 4.4%

4. 2.4%
Q.10 A child is a picky eater. He does not consume milk at all and barely eats other kinds of food. When he started losing his
baby teeth, they were not getting replaced with new teeth. This can be solved by giving him ___________.
Ans 1. vitamin B complex

2. calcium supplements

3. carbohydrate-rich food

4. vitamin C

Q.11 Which of the following organisations in India provides facilities for acquisition of satellite data and its processing?
Ans 1. Wildlife Institute of India (WII)

2. Forest Research Institute (FRI)

3. Indian Institute of Remote Sensing (IIRS)

4. National Remote Sensing Centre (NRSC)

Q.12 The Indus Water Treaty took place in ________ between India and Pakistan.
Ans 1. 1965

2. 1960

3. 1970

4. 1955

Q.13 Anuradhapura, the old capital of Sri Lanka, was destroyed by which of the following dynasties of South India in the 10th
century AD?
Ans 1. Chalukyas of Badami

2. Chalukyas of Vengi

3. Chola

4. Rashtrakuta

Q.14 Kala Ramnath belonged to which of the following gharanas?

Ans 1. Agra gharana

2. Mewati gharana

3. Indore gharana

4. Kirana gharana

Q.15 The 9th Asian Games was hosted by which of the following countries?
Ans 1. South Korea

2. China

3. India

4. Japan

Q.16 In January 2023, the Chief Minister's Residential Land Rights Scheme (Mukhyamantri Awasiya Bhu Adhikar Yojana) was
launched in which Indian state?
Ans 1. Punjab

2. Haryana

3. Madhya Pradesh

4. Uttar Pradesh

Q.17 Which of the following periods in India is also associated with the Iron Age?
Ans 1. Palaeolithic Age

2. Harappan Age

3. Neolithic Age

4. Later Vedic Age

Q.18 What is the atomic number of uranium (U)?
Ans 1. 92

2. 104

3. 94

4. 90

Q.19 Every year, Karthik Purnima marks the end of a livestock fair in Pushkar, where the main animal on display is:
Ans 1. horse

2. camel

3. buffalo

4. cow

Q.20 The Citadel area has a huge mud ________ platform, which is 6 m high and underlies all the construction.
Ans 1. stone

2. rock

3. wood

4. brick

Q.21 Who is the author of the English novel ‘Voting at Fosterganj’?

Ans 1. Ruskin Bond

2. Akshat Gupta

3. RK Narayan

4. Sudha Murty

Q.22 Tsunami is a natural disaster that originates from the ocean. The cause of Tsunami in the ocean is:
Ans 1. The accumulation of high amount of radioactive pollutants in the ocean

2. The alarmingly increasing amount of acid in water

3. The movement of tectonic plates under the ocean

4. The presence of excessive carbon dioxide in the water

Q.23 Kanaka Raju, who kept the tribal folk dance Gussadi alive, was honoured with which of the following civilian awards of India
in 2021?
Ans 1. Padma Vibhushan

2. Bharat Ratna

3. Padma Bhushan

4. Padma Shri

Q.24 Which of the following is included in the estimation of Gross National Product?
Ans 1. Sale of securities

2. Pension payments

3. Sale of used cars

4. Sale of new shirts

Q.25 As per Article 157 of the Constitution of India, a person needs to complete the age of ____________ years to be appointed as
Governor.
Ans 1. 41

2. 45

3. 35

4. 32

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The plan was very ____________ and took a lot of time to develop.

Ans 1. elaborates

2. being elaborate

3. elaboration

4. elaborate

Q.2 Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. Select the option that contains an error.
Please hang with for two minutes while I finish cleaning the utensils.
Ans 1. Please hang with

2. while I finish cleaning

3. the utensils

4. for two minutes

Q.3 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom/phrase.

Throw in the towel

Ans 1. To give up or surrender

2. To prepare to fight
3. To take responsibility for a situation while another person is temporarily absent

4. To cause an activity or process to continue

Q.4 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word in the given sentence.

The vegetation in this area of the forest is very dense.

Ans 1. Spatial

2. Sparse

3. Spare

4. Spruce

Q.5 Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. Select the option that contains an error.
The car which I bought last year was cheap than my bike.
Ans 1. The car

2. last year

3. which I bought

4. was cheap than my bike

Q.6 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans 1. Novelist

2. Eternal

3. Throw

4. Infnite
Q.7 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans 1. Credeble

2. Creative

3. Explosive

4. Devoted

Q.8 Identify the error in the usage of the future tense in the given sentence and choose the correct sentence from the following
options.

Parvati finish the painting in one hour.

Ans 1. Parvati had been finishing the painting in one hour.

2. Parvati was finished the painting in one hour.

3. Parvati will finish the painting in one hour.

4. Parvati has been finishing the painting in one hour.

Q.9 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined words in the given sentence.

Adi had not only assisted her by giving evidence in the case but also provided many examples to prove her point in the
court.
Ans 1. assisted her not only by

2. assisted not only by her

3. assisted not only her by

4. assisted her only not by

Q.10 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
(1) We knocked across (2) early on Saturday (3) to enjoy (4) the beautiful weather.
Ans 1. We knocked across

2. early on Saturday

3. to enjoy

4. the beautiful weather.

Q.11 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM for the underlined word in the given sentence.

Her profile was complete on the company website.

Ans 1. received

2. uploaded

3. created

4. incomplete

Q.12 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

A serpent having many heads in Greek mythology

Ans 1. Cobra

2. Python

3. Hydra

4. Eopsin
Q.13 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

With the increasing reliance on digital systems, ensuring robust cybersecurity measures is _______________ to protect
against online threats.

Ans 1. extraneous

2. superfluous

3. paramount

4. impartial

Q.14 Select the most appropriate antonym for the word provided in the bracket to fill in the blank.
The professor delivered a ___________________ lecture on quantum physics. (simplified)
Ans 1. Plain

2. Refined

3. Lengthy

4. Complex

Q.15 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

Whoever got the few answers correct has to leave the room.
Ans 1. most few

2. fewer

3. more fewer

4. fewest

Q.16 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Hamper
Ans 1. Hinder

2. Gift

3. Pamper

4. Irritate

Q.17 Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. Select the option that contains an error.
My aunt came from Switzerland by the flight which was landing at 5:00 a.m. yesterday.
Ans 1. Switzerland by the

2. My aunt came from

3. flight which was landing

4. at 5:00 a.m. yesterday.

Q.18 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blanks.

A buzzing ______ can ____ dangerous.
Ans 1. bee; be

2. dear; deer

3. deer; dear

4. be; bee

Q.19 Select the appropriate option that can substitute the underlined idiom in the given sentence.

The interns explained the whole issue to the coordinator in a nutshell.

Ans 1. in a brief manner

2. in an uncertain way

3. in a secret way

4. in a discouraging manner
Q.20 Select the correctly spelled sentence.
Ans 1. The scientist discovred a new planet in the galexy.

2. The sceintist discovered a new palnet in the galaxy.

3. The scientist discovered a new planet in the galaxy.

4. The scienetist discovered a new planet in the galaxy.

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

Until that moment, every director in Hollywood had accepted as gospel (1)_______ that the audience should not be taxed too much.
Welles struck a (2)_______ at these beliefs, without displaying the slightest of qualms. Visually, 'Citizen Kane' was shot with a harsh
sharpness which (3)_____ every scene. Traditionally, every make-up man and cameraman in Hollywood had to keep a careful
(4)_______ on the appearance of the heroine. Welles refused to follow this (5)_____ in the case of his own heroine. For the first time,
dialogue was presented in its realistic form.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1
Ans 1. followers

2. blasphemy

3. truth

4. Bible

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2
Ans 1. blue

2. blow

3. bellow

4. blew

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3
Ans 1. permeated

2. promoted

3. prevented

4. permitted
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4
Ans 1. ear

2. nose

3. leg

4. eye

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5
Ans 1. practicals

2. prose

3. practice

4. practise
Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 14/11/2024
Exam
9:00 AM - 11:00 AM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 After successive discounts of 26% and 22.5%, an item was sold at a profit of 24%. If the cost price of the item was ₹925,
what was the marked price (in ₹) of the item?
Ans 1. 2,000

2. 2,200

3. 1,975

4. 2,250

Q.2 Monthly incentives (in ₹) of three employees Rohit, Juli and Ankit of a company during three months are given in the
following table. Study the table carefully and answer the question that follows.

What is the ratio of incentives received by Juli and Rohit in May?

Ans 1. 89 : 60

2. 17 : 10

3. 60 : 89

4. 10 : 17

Q.3 Among three numbers, the second number is half of the first number and the third number is 4 less than the second
number. If the average of the first and third numbers is 16, what is the second number?
Ans 1. 12

2. 18

3. 10

4. 16

Q.4 A bought an item for ₹384 and sold it for ₹576, and B bought another item for ₹1,254 and sold it for ₹1,672. What is the ratio
of gain percentage of A to gain percentage of B?
Ans
1.

4.
Q.5 If the radii of two right circular cylinders are in the ratio of 2:3 and their heights are in the ratio of 5:4, then find the ratio of
their curved surface areas?
Ans 1.

Q.6

Ans 1. 18140

2. 19140

3. 33000

4. 92400

Q.7 The given graph shows the production of food grains by a state (in 1000 tons) over the years from 1989 to 1996. Study the
graph carefully and answer the question that follows.

In how many of the given years was the production of food grains more than the average production of the given years?
Ans 1. 1

2. 3

3. 2

4. 4

Q.8 A class teacher conducted a unit test in the class. If out of 25 students, 11 students' average score is 77 and rest 14
students' average score is 69, then the weighted average score is:
Ans 1. 68.54

2. 74.65

3. 72.52

4. 70.29
Q.9 The average of 20 results is 15 and the average of other 25 results is 24. What is the average of all the results?
Ans 1. 22

2. 40

3. 20

4. 39

Q.10 ABCD is a quadrilateral in which diagonal BD = 62 cm, AL ⊥ BD and CM ⊥ BD, such that AL = 14.3 cm and CM = 17.7 cm. The
area of the quadrilateral ABCD is:
Ans 1. 982 cm2

2. 902 cm2

3. 992 cm2

4. 900 cm2

Q.11

Ans
1.

Q.12 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹2500 as a sum borrowed at 7% per year rate of interest for 6 years.
Ans 1. 990

2. 1090

3. 1010

4. 1050

Q.13 When x is added to each of 2, 3, 30 and 35, then the numbers obtained in this order are in proportion. What is the second
largest part in the proportion?
Ans 1. 35

2. 30

3. 45

4. 40

Q.14 How long (in months) will it take a sum of money invested at 5% per annum on simple interest to increase its value by
22.5%?
Ans 1. 48

2. 50

3. 54

4. 44

Q.15 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹3000 as a sum borrowed at 4% per year rate of interest for 5 years.
Ans 1. 540

2. 560

3. 600

4. 640
Q.16 A bicycle goes 11 metres in 9 seconds. Find its speed in km/h.
Ans
1.

Q.17 Ravish had ₹1,500 with him. Sunaina had 24% more money than what Ravish had, while Sanatan had 10% less money that
what Sunaina had. How much money did Sanatan have?
Ans 1. ₹1,764

2. ₹1,674

3. ₹1,774

4. ₹1,664

Q.18 If two trains 200 m and 150 m long are running on parallel rails at the rate of 50 km/h and 30 km/h, respectively, find the
relative speed if they are running in the same direction.
Ans
1.

Q.19 A dealer mixes 26 kg of a variety of tea at ₹200 per kg with 30 kg of another variety of tea at ₹360 per kg, and sells the
mixture at ₹300 per kg. His profit percentage is:
Ans 1.

Q.20 A park has an average number of 420 visitors on Sunday and 120 on other days. The average number of visitors per day in a
month of 30 days beginning with Sunday, is:
Ans 1. 170

2. 160

3. 270

4. 150

Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

216 219 224 227 232 ?

Ans 1. 234

2. 236

3. 235

4. 233
Q.2 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans
1.

Q.3 A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order).
G sits to the immediate left of B. A sits to the immediate left of D. D sits second to the left of E. C sits third to the left of B.
How many people sit between B and D when counted from the left of D?
Ans 1. 1

2. 3

3. 4

4. 2

Q.4 In a certain code language, ‘rep sho pel’ means ‘goats are bleating’; ‘sho jin ken’ means ‘goats and cows’ and ‘met rep pi’
means 'dogs are mad'. What is the code for ‘are’ in that code language?
Ans 1. pi

2. met

3. rep

4. sho

Q.5 Which two numbers should be interchanged to make the given equation correct?
6 × 4− (60 ÷ 5) + 15 + (33÷ 3)× 2 = 59
(Note: Interchange should be done of entire number and not individual digits of a given number)
Ans 1. 2 and 5

2. 2 and 4

3. 6 and 5

4. 5 and 15
Q.6

Ans

Q.7 A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order). Only 2
people sit between A and C when counted from the right of C. B sits 2nd to the left of C. F sits immediate on the right of D. E
is not an immediate neighbour of C. Who sits immediate to the right of A?
Ans 1. D

2. E

3. G

4. F

Q.8 EJ68 is related to OT55 in a certain way. In the same way, KP47 is related to UZ34. To which of the following is QV29 related,
following the same logic?
Ans 1. FA20

2. FA16

3. AF16

4. AF20
Q.9

Ans 1. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

2. Both conclusion (I) and (II) follow.

3. Only Conclusion (I) follows.

4. Only Conclusion (II) follows.

Q.10 8 is related to 33 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 11 is related to 45. To which of the following is 24
related, following the same logic?

(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding / subtracting / multiplying, etc., to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13
into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans 1. 97

2. 95

3. 99

4. 98

Q.11 In the following number-pairs, the second number is obtained by applying certain mathematical operations to the
first number. Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following
sets.

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their
constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying to 13 can be performed.
Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
9, 43
13, 63
Ans 1. 17, 83

2. 17, 82

3. 18, 82

4. 18, 83

Q.12 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts,decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements:
All juices are burgers.
Some burgers are chocolates.
Conclusions:
(I) Some burgers are juices.
(II) Some juices are chocolates.
Ans 1. Both conclusions I and II follow

2. Neither conclusion I nor II follows

3. Only conclusion II follows

4. Only conclusion I follows

Q.13 EJDI is related to CHBG in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, JOIN is related to HMGL.
To which of the following is NSMR related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. PQLK

2. PQKL

3. LQPK

4. LQKP
Q.14 In a certain code language, ‘ZERO’ is coded as ‘2468’ and ‘OILY’ is coded as ‘5679’. What is the code for ‘O’ in that
language?
Ans 1. 8

2. 5

3. 9

4. 6

Q.15 What will come in place of the question mark (?) of the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are
interchanged?

15 + 9 ÷ 2 – 63 × 3 = ?
Ans 1. 18

2. 33

3. 12

4. 25

Q.16 In a certain code language, ‘MUST’ is coded as ‘7913’ and ‘TALE’ is coded as ‘8672’.
What is the code for ‘T’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 7

2. 3

3. 6

4. 8

Q.17 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?

HKR, DGN, ZCJ ,VYF, ?

Ans 1. RBK

2. RUB

3. RFG

4. RBY

Q.18 In a code language, 'PARENT’ is written as 'PWRANT' and 'SING' is written as 'SENG'. How will 'TERMINATE' be written in the
same language?
Ans 1. TERMANWTA

2. SARMENWTA

3. TARMENWTA

4. SERMANWTA
Q.19 Identify the figure given in the options which when put in place of (?) will logically complete the series.

Ans

4.
Q.20 Identify the figure given in the options which when put in place of ‘?’ will logically complete the series.

Ans

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 According to the Indian calendar, the March and April months are known as ___________.
Ans 1. Asvina-Kartika

2. Chaitra-Vaisakha

3. Jyaistha-Asadha

4. Magha-Phalguna

Q.2 What is the salt measurement in hypersaline lagoons?

Ans 1. Less than 100

2. 30 to 35

3. Less than 5

4. More than 100

Q.3 Who among the following became the Chairperson of the Parliamentary Committee on Science and Technology,
Environment, Forests and Climate Change as on 30th September 2023?
Ans 1. Surendra Singh Nagar

2. Neeraj Shekhar

3. Jairam Ramesh

4. Satish Chandra Dubey

Q.4 What is the player who sits at the centre of the rectangular field in Kho Kho called?
Ans 1. Captain

2. Defender

3. Master

4. Chaser

Q.5 Which type of coal is found in Damodar valley?

Ans 1. Peat

2. Anthracite

3. Lignite

4. Bituminous

Q.6 What is the total length of 'Atal Tunnel', which is located in Himachal Pradesh state?
Ans 1. 9.8 kilometres

2. 9 kilometres

3. 9.02 kilometres

4. 9.5 kilometres

Q.7 Shree Narayana Dharma Paripalana Yogam (SNDP), founded in 1903, to carry on the work of social reform was active in
which of the following states?
Ans 1. Bihar

2. Assam

3. Kerala

4. Punjab

Q.8 Which of the following is the national fruit of Sri Lanka?

Ans 1. Strawberry

2. Mango

3. Orange

4. Jackfruit

Q.9 What is the process of a substance changing directly from a solid to a gas without passing through the liquid state called?
Ans 1. Evaporation

2. Condensation

3. Sublimation

4. Fusion

Q.10 Chhath Puja falls in which month of the Hindu calendar?

Ans 1. Ashadha

2. Kartika

3. Jyeshtha

4. Phalguna

Q.11 Who among the following is the author of the famous novel,‘One Amazing Thing’?
Ans 1. Khushwant Singh

2. Chitra Banerjee Divakurni

3. Sonali Dev

4. Amitav Ghosh
Q.12 The Bara Imambara in Lucknow was built in the year 1784 by ________.
Ans 1. Akbar

2. Nawab Siraj-ud-Daula

3. Jahangir

4. Nawab Asaf-ud-Daula

Q.13 In which the following sports do caddies play the role of helper for the player?
Ans 1. Golf

2. Shooting

3. Boxing

4. Cycling

Q.14 How much amount is provided per month as assistance to the female head of the family under the Gruha Lakshmi Scheme
launched by the Karnataka Government in July 2023?
Ans 1. ₹1,500

2. ₹3,500

3. ₹5,000

4. ₹2,000

Q.15 Which of the following statements about the Sangeet Natak Akademi is/are true?
1. The Sangeet Natak Akademi has been functioning as the apex body of the performing arts in the country.
2. The main objective of the Akademi is to coordinate and collaborate with the government and performing artists.
3. The Sangeet Natak Akademi comes under the Ministry of Culture of the government of India.
Ans 1. Only 2 and 3

2. Only 1 and 3

3. Only 1 and 2

4. 1, 2, and 3

Q.16 Which of the following are building blocks of proteins?

Ans 1. Bases

2. Amino acids

3. Cells

4. Acids

Q.17 The ‘Servants of India Society’ was founded by which of the following freedom fighters?
Ans 1. Chittaranjan Das

2. Mahatma Gandhi

3. Gopal Krishna Gokhale

4. Motilal Nehru

Q.18 _______, which translates to 'dance of the enchantress,' stands out as one of the most captivating expressions in the Indian
classical dance repertoire.
Ans 1. Mohiniyattam

2. Kuttiyatam

3. Manipuri

4. Kuchipudi

Q.19 Name the Sri Lankan Buddhist text that provides details of the Mauryan empire.
Ans 1. Divyavadana

2. Dipavamsa

3. Parishishtaparvan

4. Ashokavadana
Q.20 Which of the following states in India had the LOWEST poverty ratio in 2011-2012 as per the Economic Survey 2013-14,
released by the Ministry of Finance, Government of India?
Ans 1. Kerala

2. Haryana

3. Gujarat

4. Karnataka

Q.21 Under which category did Ricky Kej secure his third Grammy award?
Ans 1. Best Immersive Audio Album

2. Song of the year

3. Best Audio Album of the year

4. Best Contemporary Instrumental Album

Q.22 Which of the following is the legislative organ of the Union Government?
Ans 1. Judiciary

2. Executive

3. State Executive

4. Parliament

Q.23 Which of the following is the quality of the public goods?

Ans 1. Rivalrous

2. Non-rivalrous

3. Excludable

4. Non-divisible

Q.24 Who among the following Mughal emperors had a great interest in paintings?
Ans 1. Babur

2. Humayun

3. Jahangir

4. Shahjahan

Q.25 Which of the following is a NOT a feature of the Indian Parliamentary form of Government?
Ans 1. Leadership of the Prime Minister

2. Majority party rule

3. Non membership of the ministers in Legislature

4. Dissolution of the Lower House

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 Select the most appropriate option with the correct usage of the preposition to substitute the underlined segment in the
given sentence.

UNESCO’s mission is to contribute to the building of a culture of peace, the eradication of poverty, sustainable development
and intercultural dialogue with education, the sciences, culture, communication and information.
Ans 1. intercultural dialogue in education

2. intercultural dialogue by education

3. intercultural dialogue from education

4. intercultural dialogue through education

Q.2 Select the most appropriate homonym to fill in the blank.

During the _____ of Queen Victoria, England made all-round progress.

Ans 1. rein

2. rain

3. reign

4. rhine

Q.3 Select the most appropriate option to fill the blank.

The strike, that the truck association called, caused a minor _________ of food in our village.
Ans 1. leak

2. dearth

3. less

4. availability

Q.4 Select the grammatically correct sentence.

Ans 1. The carpenter kept the furniture in a backyard of his house.

2. The carpenter kept furniture in the backyard of his house.

3. The carpenter kept a furniture in the backyard of his house.

4. The carpenter kept the furniture in backyard of his house.

Q.5 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

The Rungrado is the large football stadium in the world.

Ans 1. largest

2. most largest

3. larger

4. more larger

Q.6 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Pay off old scores

Ans 1. To score good marks

2. To clear one's debt

3. To have one's revenge

4. To be successful

Q.7 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Whimsical
Ans 1. Practical

2. Confident

3. Illogical

4. Fickle

Q.8 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to
substitute it, select ‘No substitution required’.

Mahira is an more efficient and hardworking employee of her company.

Ans 1. Mahira is the efficient

2. Mahira is the more efficient

3. Mahira is an efficient

4. No substitution required
Q.9 Select the option that rectifies the underlined spelling error.

Participating in the marthon was a challenging experience.

Ans 1. merethon

2. marathon

3. mereton

4. marethon

Q.10 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Where have you ______ all this time?

Ans 1. bean

2. been

3. bin

4. bine

Q.11 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

A person who loves music

Ans 1. Melophile

2. Discophile

3. Astrophile

4. Chromatophilic

Q.12 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans 1.
Noctummbulism
2.
Chauvinism
3.
Alcoholism
4.
Somnambulism

Q.13 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Indian Meteorological Department (IMD) had _________ that the city would witness rainfall on Thursday.
Ans 1. forecast

2. contest

3. prolong

4. manifest

Q.14 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Avoid
Ans 1. Reflect

2. Accept

3. Pursue

4. Evade

Q.15 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The company implemented a new __________ to improve efficiency.

Ans 1. strategie

2. stratagy

3. strateji

4. strategy
Q.16 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

We should always _________ our best to help others.

Ans 1. done

2. do

3. did

4. does

Q.17 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.
If we want to promote national integrity in our country, then we must desist our tendency of taking up with others.
Ans 1. coming round

2. bringing forward

3. looking down upon

4. setting out

Q.18 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given phrase.

Jump on the bandwagon
Ans 1. To support ideas that are less popular

2. To oppose the idea of a group gaining popularity

3. To join or support something which is gaining popularity

4. To jump to a conclusion

Q.19 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word to fill in the blank.
Desist
Every Indian should ____ from acts of corruption.
Ans 1. insist

2. show

3. refrain

4. pledge

Q.20 Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. Select the option that contains an error.
John searched thoroughly but could not find his coat nowhere in the house.
Ans 1. but could not

2. find his coat

3. John searched thoroughly

4. nowhere in the house.

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

Our (1)_____ revolve around our work. For the most part, males have to labour with their hands in order to (2)_____ themselves. But
everyone needs to work in some (3)_____. It provides honour and credit to us. Nothing in life can be accomplished without it. Man is
great only because of his labours. (4)________ comes from work. The secret to success is this. Nobody can advance without labour.
It truly is the (5)_______ idea of existence. Without it, life is even less meaningful.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans 1. lives

2. creatures

3. histories

4. mortals
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans 1. support

2. bear

3. promote

4. embrace

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans 1. magnitude

2. volume

3. capacity

4. measurement

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans 1. Boast

2. Remedy

3. Glory

4. Shame

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans 1. fundamental

2. secondary

3. uproar

4. demean
Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 14/11/2024
Exam
12:30 PM - 2:30 PM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 The scale of a map is given as 1:250. Two cities are 6.5 km apart on the map. The actual distance between them is
Ans 1. 1200 km

2. 1000 km

3. 1625 km

4. 1250 km

Q.2

Ans 1. 7660 m2, 93990 m3

2. 9900 m2, 103950 m3

3. 9500 m2, 113550 m3

4. 8600 m2, 105850 m3

Q.3
:
Ans 1. 10%

2. 12%

3. 8%

4. 6%

Q.4 On selling a book for ₹348, a shopkeeper loses 13%. In order to gain 22%, he must sell that book for:
Ans 1. ₹424

2. ₹379

3. ₹369

4. ₹488
Q.5

Ans
1.

Q.6

Ans
1.

Q.7 Rice worth ₹84 per kg and ₹96 per kg is mixed with a third variety of rice in the ratio 1 : 1 : 2. If the mixture is worth ₹99 per
kg, the price of the third variety per kg is:
Ans 1. ₹115

2. ₹110

3. ₹108

4. ₹112

Q.8 The average of six numbers is 30. If one number is excluded, the average becomes 28. Find the excluded number.
Ans 1. 36

2. 35

3. 30

4. 40

Q.9 The average income of 25 persons is ₹2,400 and that of another 20 persons is ₹1,500. The average income of all of them
together is:
Ans 1. ₹2,100

2. ₹2,150

3. ₹2,000

4. ₹1,950

Q.10 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹3000 as a sum borrowed at 4% per year rate of interest for 4 years.
Ans 1. 480

2. 420

3. 440

4. 520
Q.11 A shopkeeper normally gives a discount of 40%. To increase his sale before off season, he announces an additional
discount of 4% upto a specific date. How much additional discount (in ₹) will a customer get on an item marked for ₹500?
Ans 1.

Q.12 The average of 20, 40, 60, 80, 100, 120 and 140 is:
Ans 1. 80

2. 90

3. 85

4. 70

Q.13 The amount of profit and loss will be the same if an article is sold at ₹19,125 and ₹14,625. Find the percentage of profit if an
article is sold at ₹19,125.
Ans
1.

Q.14 Air is leaking from a spherical-shaped advertising balloon at the rate of 24 cubic feet per minute. If the radius of the balloon
is 8 feet, how long would it take for the balloon to empty? Round your answer to the nearest minute. Use the approximate of
value of π, that is 3.14.
Ans 1. 65 minutes

2. 80 minutes

3. 89 minutes

4. 94 minutes
Q.15 The following graph represents the production of electric scooters (in thousands) for the years 2020 and 2021 from five
manufacturers P, Q, R, S, and T.

What is the percentage by which the total production of all manufacturers in the year 2021 exceeds the total production of
manufacturers in the year 2020? (Round to the nearest integer)
Ans 1. 38%

2. 31%

3. 42%

4. 29%

Q.16 A boat can travel at a speed of 13 km/h in still water. If the speed of the stream is 4 km/h, find the time taken by the boat to
go 68 km downstream.
Ans 1. 4 hours

2. 3 hours

3. 5 hours

4. 6 hours

Q.17 What sum (in ₹) will earn a simple interest of ₹360 in 3 years at 8% per year rate of interest?
Ans 1. 2000

2. 1500

3. 3000

4. 750

Q.18 Rakesh travels the first 320 km by train at a speed of 80 km/hr and the next 250 km by bus at 50 km/hr. Ignoring the buffer
time between different modes of travel, the average speed (in km/hr) for his tour was:
Ans
1.

4.
Q.19 Marks (out of 100) of four students in Hindi, English and Mathematics are given in the following table. Study the table
carefully and answer the question that follows.

What is the overall percentage marks obtained by Shilpee in the given three subjects?
Ans 1. 77%

2. 79%

3. 80%

4. 78%

Q.20 If 45% of the sum of the two numbers is equal to 60% of the difference between the two numbers, find the ratio of the
smallest number to the greatest number.
Ans 1. 4 : 3

2. 1 : 7

3. 3 : 4

4. 7 : 1

Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1 192 is related to 38 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 270 is related to 51. To which of the following is 258
related, following the same logic?

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into
1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans 1. 49

2. 43

3. 41

4. 46

Statements:
All lions are cheetahs.
Some cheetahs are tigers.

Conclusions:
(I) Some tigers are not cheetahs.
(II) All cheetahs are lions.
Ans 1. Only conclusion II follows

2. Both conclusions I and II follow

3. Neither conclusion I nor II follows

4. Only conclusion I follows

Q.3 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.

2. (6, 40, 3)

3. (8, 22, 4)

4. (5, 20, 6)

Q.4 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

4, 7, 11, 18, 29, 47, 76, ?, 199

Ans 1. 127

2. 125

3. 123

4. 130

Q.5

Ans 1.

Q.6 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans
1.

Q.7 A, B, C, L, M, Y and X are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order). C sits
fourth to the left of M. Only one person sits between L and Y when counted from the left of L. Only one person sits between
Y and X when counted from left of Y. Only two people sit between A and Y when counted from the right of A.Who sits third to
the right of B?
Ans 1. X

2. C

3. A

4. L
Q.8 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements:
•All hands are legs.
•Some hands are eyes.
Conclusion (I): All legs are hands.
Conclusion (II): Some legs are eyes.
Ans 1. Both Conclusions I and II follow

2. Neither Conclusion I nor II follows

3. Only Conclusion II follows

4. Only Conclusion I follows

Q.9 What will come in the place of ‘?’ in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘–‘ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?
16 − 4 × 2 ÷ 3 + 6= ?
Ans 1. 12

2. 8

3. 16

4. 24

Q.10 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?
CHK, GKO, ? , OQW, STA
Ans 1. LOS

2. KNT

3. KNS

4. LOT

Q.11 NKBI is related to PIDG in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, SMFG is related to UKHE.
To which of the following is UPQR related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. TRDW

2. WNSP

3. YGBF

4. WRSD

Q.12

Ans 1.

4.
Q.13 Select the option in which the given figure is embedded (rotation is NOT allowed).

Ans

Q.14 Which two numbers should be interchanged to make the given equation correct?
28 − 4 × 5 + 36 ÷ 9 + 2 × 3 = 53
(Note: Interchange should be done of entire number and not individual digits of a given number)
Ans 1. 5 and 3

2. 4 and 9

3. 28 and 36

4. 2 and 9
Q.15 Identify the figure from the given options that when put in place of the question mark (?) will logically complete the series.

Ans

Q.16 RQ 45 is related to TS 50 in a certain way. In the same way, UX 19 is related to WZ 24.To which of the following is CF 68
related following the same logic?

Ans 1. EH 73

2. NT 45

3. NV 37

4. ST 55

Q.17 In a certain code language, ‘CREATE’ is coded as ‘84’ and ‘FLOP’ is coded as ‘56’. What is the code for ‘PURPOSEFULLY’ in
the given code language?
Ans 1. 170

2. 142

3. 117

4. 168
Q.18 M, N, O, P, Q, R and S are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order). P is sitting
fourth to the right of N. Q is sitting third to the left of O. M is sitting to the immediate right of Q. R is sitting to the immediate
right of N. How many people are sitting between P and S when counted from the left of S?
Ans 1. 2

2. 3

3. 1

4. 4

Q.19 In a certain code language, ‘use the force’ is coded as ‘gp sb cn’ and ‘force is strong’ is coded as ‘hv sk gp’. How is ‘force’
coded in that language?
Ans 1. sk

2. gp

3. hv

4. cn

Q.20 Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series and complete
the pattern.

Ans

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 The National Programme for Civil Services Capacity Building (NPCSCB) envisaged by the Central Government is called
_____________.
Ans 1. Sahakar Mitra Scheme

2. Mission Karmayogi

3. Seva Nidhi Scheme

4. Seed Scheme

Q.2 The Directive Principles of State Policy are considered fundamental in the governance of the country, but they are not
enforceable by any court. This concept is mentioned in which Article?
Ans 1. Article 49

2. Article 37

3. Article 38

4. Article 32

Q.3 From which state in India did the legendary volleyball player Jimmy George hail?
Ans 1. Odisha

2. Kerala

3. Telangana

4. Maharashtra

Q.4
Find the acceleration (in m/s2) of a body which accelerates from 5 m/s to 10 m/s in 2
seconds.
Ans 1. 7.5 m/sec2

2. 5 m/sec2

3. 2.5 m/sec2

4. 10 m/sec2

Q.5 Name the Union territory with the lowest density of population as per Census of India 2011.
Ans 1. Lakshdweep

2. Andaman and Nicobar Islands

3. New Delhi

4. Daman and Diu

Q.6 For the development of agriculture, a new department, Diwan-i-Amir-Kohi was established by which of the following Sultans
of Delhi?
Ans 1. Ghiyasuddin Balban

2. Shamsuddin Iltutmish

3. Muhammad Bin Tughlaq

4. Alauddin Khalji

Q.7 In a food chain of Algae-Shrimp-Fish-Bird, if the energy available at the bird is 4 kJ, then the energy available at the shrimp
is:
Ans 1. 0.04 kJ

2. 4 kJ

3. 400 kJ

4. 4000 kJ
Q.8 The ________ Polo Club is the home of the Ezra Cup event, the world’s oldest polo tournament, started in 1880.
Ans 1. Calcutta

2. Delhi

3. Jaipur

4. Hyderabad

Q.9 Which of the following dance forms emotes a play through dancing in which the song is customarily in Manipravala
language?
Ans 1. Kuchipudi

2. Sattriya

3. Kathak

4. Mohiniattam

Q.10 The Mawsynram receives the highest average annual rainfall in the world. It is located in which hills?
Ans 1. Garo hills

2. Maikala hills

3. Khasi hills

4. Jaintia hills

Q.11 Which festival commemorates the death of Hussain Ibn Ali?

Ans 1. Shab-i-baraat

2. Muharram

3. Milad-un-nabi

4. Eid-ul-fitr

Q.12 Who among the following has been appointed as the new Director General of the Geological Survey of India (GSI) in June
2023?
Ans 1. Ajay Yadav

2. Ashwani Kumar

3. Amarendu Prakash

4. Janardan Prasad

Q.13 According to the census of India 2011, which union territory from the following has the highest sex ratio?
Ans 1. Lakshadweep

2. Puducherry

3. Daman and Diu

4. Chandigarh

Q.14 Who presides over the House in absence of the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker in the Indian political system?
Ans 1. President

2. Chairperson so nominated

3. Chief Justice of the Supreme Court

4. Prime Minister

Q.15 Which of the following instruments is played by Shreya Bhattacharjee, an eminent musician from Assam?
Ans 1. Tabla

2. Violin

3. Flute

4. Sitar
Q.16 Which of the following is the residential place of Buddhist priests?
Ans 1. Stambha

2. Stupa

3. Vihara

4. Chaitya

Q.17 In Maikal hills, which of the following minerals is deposited?

Ans 1. Copper

2. Iron

3. Coal

4. Bauxite

Q.18 Which of the following possesses the largest isolated single cell?
Ans 1. Ostrich egg

2. Human brain

3. Amoeba

4. Blue whale

Q.19 'Waiting for a Visa' is a 20-page autobiography of _________________.

Ans 1. Dr Bhim Rao Ambedkar

2. Mahatma Gandhi

3. Jawahar Lal Nehru

4. Sadar Vallabhbhai Patel

Q.20 Which of the following is an artificial port in India?

Ans 1. Kolkata port

2. Deendayal port

3. Chennai port

4. Mumbai port

Q.21 Who is the first Indian Female Dancer to receive the highest Padma award, Padma Vibhushan?
Ans 1. Sonal Mansingh

2. Madhavi Mudgal

3. Sanjukta Panigrahi

4. Shobha Naidu

Q.22 Pulakeshin II was the famous ruler of which of the following dynasties?
Ans 1. Gauda

2. Vakataka

3. Chalukya

4. Maitraka

Q.23 Which of the following national income aggregates is generally recognised as National Income of a country?
Ans 1. Gross National Product at Market Prices

2. Net National Product at Factor Cost

3. Gross Domestic Product at Factor Cost

4. Net National Product at Market Prices

Q.24 Which of the following Commissions was set up to investigate the incident of Jallianwala Bagh in 1919?
Ans 1. Peel Commission

2. Sadler Commission

3. Hunter Commission

4. Simon Commission

Q.25 The Home Rule League Movement of Bal Gangadhar Tilak had its base across Karnataka and Maharashtra, but excluding
which of the following?
Ans 1. Bombay

2. Berar

3. Nagpur

4. Poona

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans 1. Brilliant

2. Gentle

3. Kinetic

4. Hektic

Q.2 Select the option with the correct spelling to replace the underlined word in the given sentence.

As the roller coaster reached its highest point, a surge of addrenalline coursed through her veins, making her heart race
with excitement.
Ans 1. adrineline

2. adrennaline

3. adrenaline

4. adreneline

Q.3 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Though Amal took continuous medication, he was not able to __________________ his injury.
Ans 1. hill

2. heal

3. hail

4. heel

Q.4 The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error. Select the part that contains the error
from the given options. If you don’t find any error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer.

I had never saw/ such a sight/ before I visited Switzerland.

Ans 1. No error

2. such a sight

3. I had never saw

4. before I visited Switzerland.

Q.5 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Please bring some milk from ______ refrigerator in the kitchen.

Ans 1. No article required

2. the

3. an

4. a
Q.6 The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error. Select the part that contains the error
from the given options. If you don’t find any error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer.
Tara has been playing / cricket with her friends / since noon.
Ans 1. No error

2. Tara has been playing

3. Cricket with her friends

4. Since noon

Q.7 Select the option that rectifies the underlined spelling error.

The permisible limit of vehicle speed has been increased in India by the Road Transport Corporation.
Ans 1. permisibble

2. parmitted

3. permissible

4. parmissible

Q.8 Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word in the given sentence.
Wine glass is very fragile; you must handle it with care.
Ans 1. Delicate

2. Sturdy

3. Resilient

4. Rough

Q.9 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

A person who is mentally ill

Ans 1. Mercenary

2. Psychiatrist

3. Psychologist

4. Lunatic

Q.10 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined idiom/phrase in the given sentence.
The salesman informed the customers that if they had any questions, they could drop a line.
Ans 1. send a brief letter

2. call his secretary

3. come back with the items

4. complain against him

Q.11 Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. Select the option that contains an error.
He bought strange vintage car on auction from the customs department.
Ans 1. on auction

2. He bought

3. from the customs department

4. strange vintage car

Q.12 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

His business was so successful that Mark was able to _________ at the age of 50.
Ans 1. retire

2. give up

3. succeed

4. admit
Q.13 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

She told me / her name but / I'm not remembering / it now.

Ans 1. it now

2. I'm not remembering

3. She told me

4. her name but

Q.14 Select the most appropriate phrase to replace the underlined word.

She is feeling unwell today, so she will not be going to work.

Ans 1. face like thunder

2. under the weather

3. head in the clouds

4. chase rainbows

Q.15 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given
sentence.
She confided in me on her anxious, whispering her secrets between sips of coffee.
Ans 1. about her anxious

2. regarding herself’s anxiousness

3. about her anxiety

4. on her anxiousness

Q.16 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the highlighted word.

As long as I live, I shall be obliged to my Uncle.

Ans 1. grateful

2. thankless

3. pleased

4. indebted

Q.17 Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word.

The company's new product received affirmative feedback from customers.

Ans 1. detailed

2. critical

3. positive

4. reflective

Q.18 The following sentence has been split into four parts. Identify the part that contains a grammatical error.

Surprisingly!/ dark chocolates/ are most bitterer/ in taste.

Ans 1. in taste.

2. are most bitterer

3. dark chocolates

4. Surprisingly!
Q.19 Select the option that will improve the underlined part of the given sentence.

Just when they reach the airport, the flight had departed from the runway.
Ans 1. After they just reach

2. Just they reach

3. Just when they have reached

4. Just before they reached

Q.20 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Sathish remained unwavering in the face of the assaulting gang, standing as resolute as ________.
Ans 1. steal

2. still

3. stall

4. steel

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

These letters are not intended to dominate your way of thinking or to persuade you to _____ 1____ to the way the writer thinks or
feels. It is really a dialogue ______ 2_____ two friends talking about their problems. You must have observed the state of our society,
and that there must be a _____ 3______ transformation in the way human beings live, their relation to each other, and in every way
possible. We are deeply concerned for our students. The teacher is the _____ 4_____ important person in the school, for on her or
him depends the future welfare of mankind. As the society is disintegrating, these schools must be centres for the regeneration ____
5___ the mind.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans 1. affirm

2. confirm

3. control

4. conform

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans 1. unless

2. between

3. before

4. behind
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans 1. highly

2. radical

3. radial

4. avoidable

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans 1. most

2. not

3. more

4. much

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans 1. of

2. under

3. although

4. off
Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Exam Date 14/11/2024
Exam
4:00 PM - 5:30 PM
Time
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 The average weight of a family of five members (in kg) whose weights are 40 kg, 49 kg, 56 kg, 68 kg and 38 kg is:
Ans 1. 51.2

2. 50.2

3. 52.2

4. 49.2

Q.2 The quantity of milk ordered on the first, second, third and fourth day of a four day ceremony is in the proportion of 30 litres,
24 litres, 35 litres and ‘x’ litres, respectively. Find the quantity of milk (in litres) ordered on the fourth day.
Ans 1. 30

2. 26

3. 32

4. 28

Q.3 What is the HCF of 513,1134 and 1215?

Ans 1. 27

2. 81

3. 3

4. 19

Q.4 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹3500 as a sum borrowed at 7% per year rate of interest for 4 years.
Ans 1. 940

2. 920

3. 1020

4. 980

Q.5 For a sum of ₹15,000 the rate of interest of 8.5% per annum simple interest, find the interest earned (in ₹) in 5 years 3
months.
Ans 1. 6,693.75

2. 21,693.75

3. 21,375

4. 6,375

Q.6 The average weight of Rakesh and his five friends is 62 kg. If Rakesh is 6 kg heavier than the average weight of his five
friends, then find the weight of Rakesh.
Ans 1. 62 kg

2. 61 kg

3. 68 kg

4. 67 kg

Q.7 A solid hemisphere of radius 12 cm is melted into N identical cones, each of radius 6 cm and height 8 cm. What is the value
of N?
Ans 1. 10

2. 15

3. 8

4. 12

Q.8 Two trains of lengths 110 m and 100 m are running towards each other on parallel lines at the speed of 50 km/h and 58 km/h,
respectively. How long will they take to cross each other after they meet?
Ans 1. 6 seconds

2. 4 seconds

3. 5 seconds

4. 7 seconds

Q.9 What sum (in ₹) will earn a simple interest of ₹360 in 3 years at 12% per year rate of interest?
Ans 1. 1500

2. 500

3. 2000

4. 1000
Q.10

Ans 1. 957

2. 558

3. 782

4. 693

Q.11
A dealer sells his goods at 5% loss on cost price but uses 12 % less weight. Find his percentage of loss or gain.

Ans
1. Gain 8 %

2. Loss 8 %

3. Loss 7 %

4. Gain 7 %

Q.12

Ans
1.

Q.13 If the numerator of a fraction is increased by 12% and its denominator is diminished by 8%, then the value of the fraction is
. Find the original fraction.

Ans 1.

Q.14 The average of two numbers is 13.5 and the square root of their product is . Find the numbers.
Ans 1. 12 and 15

2. 10 and 17

3. 13 and 14

4. 11 and 16

Q.15 A train increases its regular speed by 12.5% and reaches its destination 20 minutes earlier. What is the actual time taken by
the train on the journey?
Ans 1. 150 min

2. 110 min

3. 120 min

4. 180 min
Q
.
1
6
A 1.
n
s
2.

Q.17 If a semi-circular plot has radius 100 m, find its perimeter. (Use π = 3.14)
Ans 1. 414 m

2. 500 m

3. 828 m

4. 514 m

Q.18 Which of the following equations is correct?

Ans
1.

Q.19

Ans 1. 90.3%

2. 91.1%

3. 93.6%

4. 88.9%

Q.20 A shop has two promotional offers: buy three shirts, get one shirt free, or a 25% discount on the marked price. If a customer
buys five using both offers, what discount will he get all together?
Ans 1. 50%

2. 30%

3. 27.5%

4. 25%

Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1 In a certain code language, ‘you read book’ is written as ‘hm rn op’ and ‘book is good’ is written as ‘cf am rn’. What is the
code for ‘book’ in that language?
Ans 1. rn

2. am

3. op

4. cf

Q.2 In a certain code language, ‘MONKEY’ is coded as ‘BHNQRP’ and ‘NAP’ is coded as ‘SDQ’. What is the code for ‘JUTEBAG’
in the given code language?
Ans 1. JDEHUXM

2. JDEHWXM

3. JDEKWXM

4. JDEHWXN
Q.3 In a certain code language, ‘GOES’ is coded as ‘4268’ and ‘OILY’ is coded as ‘3457’.
What is the code for ‘O’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 5

2. 2

3. 4

4. 3

Q.4 What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘×’ are interchanged and ‘−’ and ‘÷’
are interchanged?
78 − 6 ÷ 6 + 2 × 8 = ?
Ans 1. 7

2. 4

3. 9

4. 0

Q.5 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements:
Some tomatoes are potatoes.
No potato is an onion.
Conclusions:
(I) Some potatoes are not tomatoes.
(II) No tomato is an onion.
Ans 1. Only conclusion II follows

2. Only conclusion I follows

3. Neither conclusion I nor II follows

4. Both conclusions I and II follow

Q.6 Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series and complete
the pattern.

Ans

Q.7 CDFG is related to FGIJ in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, MNPQ is related to PQST.
To which of the following is HIKL related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. KLNP

2. LKNO

3. JKNO

4. KLNO

Q.8 Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.
10, ?, 46, 94, 190, 382, 766
Ans 1. 20

2. 24

3. 18

4. 22
Q.9 In the following number-pairs, the second number is obtained by applying certain mathematical operations to the first
number. Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/ subtracting /multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
8, 72
11, 99
Ans 1. 15, 125

2. 17, 153

3. 21, 123

4. 19, 131

Q.10 A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circular table facing out to the centre (but not necessarily in the same order). D
is sitting to the immediate left of A and third to the right of H. B is sitting third to the right of F. F is the immediate neighbour
of C and G. C is sitting third to the right of A.
Who is sitting fourth to the right of A?
Ans 1. D

2. H

3. C

4. B

Q.11 3 is related to 40 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 5 is related to 66. To which of the following is 10 related,
following the same logic?

(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding / subtracting / multiplying, etc., to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13
into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans 1. 129

2. 125

3. 131

4. 127

Q.12

Ans

Q.13 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?

XCW, UGS, RKO ,?, LSG

Ans 1. OOM

2. OOK

3. OMN

4. OLO
Q.14 What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘–’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’
are interchanged?

24 × 576 ÷ 72 – 108 + 91 = ?
Ans 1. 2

2. 12

3. 20

4. 18

Q.15 A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order). B sits to
the immediate left of E. C sits to the immediate left of F. F sits second to the left of G. D sits third to the left of E.

Who sits third to the left of A?

Ans 1. F

2. B

3. G

4. E

Q.16 Select the figure from the options that can replace the question mark (?) and logically complete the series.

Ans

Q.17 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans
1.

Statements:
All papayas are oranges.
Some oranges are apples.

Conclusions:
(I) At least some apples are oranges.
(II) Some papayas are apples.
Ans 1. Bothconclusion I and II follow

2. Neither conclusion I nor II follows

3. Only conclusion I follows

4. Only conclusion II follows

Q.19

Ans 1.

Q.20 ‘RJ 17’ is related to ‘QL 19’ in a certain way. In the same way, ‘CP 12’ is related to ‘BR 14’. To which of the following is ‘OJ 22’
related following the same logic?
Ans 1. NK 21

2. PK 23

3. NL 24

4. QJ 22

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 Children’s Day in India is celebrated to commemorate the birth anniversary of _________.
Ans 1. Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru

2. Dr. BR Ambedkar

3. Dr. Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan

4. Dr. APJ. Abdul Kalam

Q.2 Chili peppers produce a burning sensation in any tissue with which they come into contact. What is the compound
responsible for this?
Ans 1. Lycopene

2. Capsaicin

3. Formic acid

4. Acetic acid

Q.3 Jallianwala Bagh is located in which city?

Ans 1. Chandigarh

2. Amritsar

3. Ambala

4. Ludhiana

Q.4 The First Battle of Panipat (1526) marked the beginning of:
Ans 1. British East India company's rule in India

2. Mughal's Rule in India

3. French East India Company's rule in India

4. Sultanat's rule in India

Q.5 Which of the following was the mascot of the 37th National Games?
Ans 1. Ammu

2. Savaj

3. Chhaua

4. Moga

Q.6 Identify the tributary of the Brahmaputra River from the following.
Ans 1. Hindan

2. Kali Ganga

3. Barakar

4. Burhi Dihing

Q.7 Which of the following amendments, made in September 2023, is known as 'Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam'?
Ans 1. 128th

2. 105th

3. 104th

4. 106th

Q.8 Which among the following dynasties originated from the Yueh-chih tribe of China?
Ans 1. Satavahanas

2. Kushanas

3. Guptas

4. Parthians

Q.9 Which edition of 'Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana' has been announced in union budget 2023?
Ans 1. 3.0

2. 4.0

3. 2.0

4. 5.0
Q.10 As per Census 2011, what is the average female literacy rate in India?
Ans 1. 74.34%

2. 65.46%

3. 82.45%

4. 60.76%

Q.11 How many fundamental duties were added by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act 1976?
Ans 1. Fifty teen

2. Thirteen

3. Ten

4. Eleven

Q.12 What is the term for the gradual, sequential changes in species composition in an ecosystem over time?
Ans 1. Adaptation

2. Succession

3. Extinction

4. Evolution

Q.13 Which of the following classical dance styles manifests the element of sky?
Ans 1. Manipuri

2. Kathakali

3. Kathak

4. Kuchipudi

Q.14 The Hugli industrial region is located in which state?

Ans 1. Gujarat

2. Telangana

3. West Bengal

4. Karnataka

Q.15 The novel ‘Pinjar’ that was later converted into a motion picture was written by:
Ans 1. Dharamveer Bharati

2. Ismat Chugtai

3. Krishna Sobti

4. Amrita Pritam

Q.16 Limestone is composed of:

Ans 1. aluminium oxide

2. calcium carbonate

3. sodium carbonate

4. iron oxide

Q.17 Which state hosted the 6th edition of Khelo India Youth Games in 2024?
Ans 1. Karnataka

2. Telangana

3. Tamil Nadu

4. Kerala

Q.18 Which of the following is NOT a drawback of the barter system?

Ans 1. Surplus goods are replaced with other goods

2. Double coincidence of wants

3. Difficulty in contractual payments

4. Lack of a common unit of value

Q.19 Vinod Kevin Bachan has been selected for the Ustad Bismillah Khan Yuva Puraskar 2021, for his contribution to which
Indian dance form?
Ans 1. Odissi

2. Chhau

3. Sattriya

4. Kathak

Q.20 The Aatmanirbhar Bharat Rojgar Yojana was implemented through which organisation?
Ans 1. Reserve Bank of India

2. Life Insurance Corporation

3. HDFC Bank

4. Employees Provident Fund Organisation

Q.21 Who among the following social reformers ruled out the practice of Sati on the basis of Hindu religious texts?
Ans 1. Raja Ram Mohan Roy

2. Swami Vivekanand

3. Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar

4. Jyotiba Phule
Q.22 Which Article of the Constitution of India describes a key feature of ‘Universal Adult Franchise’ that grants the right to vote
to citizens, above the age of 18 years in India?
Ans 1. Article 315

2. Article 367

3. Article 352

4. Article 326

Q.23 Which brick-made minaret holds the record for being the world's tallest tower at 73 metres?
Ans 1. Minaret of Jam (Afghanistan)

2. Kalyan Minaret (Uzbekistan)

3. Qutb Minar (India)

4. Minaret of Turin (Italy)

Q.24 How many covalent bonds are present between the constituent atoms in the molecules of Butane and Hexane, respectively?
Ans 1. 14 and 20

2. 10 and 16

3. 11 and 19

4. 13 and 19

Q.25 Both, Rajesh Prasanna and Rishabh Prasanna are associated with which musical instrument?
Ans 1. Flute

2. Guitar

3. Piano

4. Mandolin

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.
Ramesh is fond at playing guitar in his free time.
Ans 1. for

2. in

3. on

4. of

Q.2 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Pull someone’s leg

Ans 1. To avert a great danger

2. To take a situation seriously or earnestly

3. To tease or play a joke on someone

4. To physically pull the legs of a person

Q.3 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans 1. Resort

2. Scatter

3. Riside

4. Scarf

My cousin thinks that / English is difficult / than other subjects.

Ans 1. English is difficult

2. My cousin thinks that

3. than other subjects

4. No error

Q.5 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Only when the floods get _________ will world governments begin to act.
Ans 1. lucky

2. gullible

3. worse

4. frequently

Q.6 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

A majority of Indians prefer to use the Internet for ______________ booking and other financial services.
Ans 1. attending

2. accessing

3. dispersing

4. improving
Q.7 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

Mountaineering requires a combination of physical strength,endurance, technical skill and mental fortitude.
Ans 1. enthusiasm

2. persistence

3. timidity

4. excitement

Q.8 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blanks.

I did not _______ that he would ______ the offer.
Ans 1. except; accept

2. bate; bait

3. bait; bate

4. expect; accept

Q.9 Select the option that correctly rectifies the underlined spelling error.

Thank you for this jar of asorted cookies.

Ans 1. assorted

2. asoted

3. essorted

4. esorted

Q.10 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Attract
Ans 1. Rear

2. Repel

3. Recur

4. React

Q.11 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Fish live in aquariums and pigs live in _________.
Ans 1. stables

2. dens

3. sties

4. kennels

Q.12 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank to complete the idiom and make the sentence meaningful.
Her company's new product launch was a real ___________________ squib.
Ans 1. dirty

2. dear

3. damp

4. deaf

Q.13 The given sentence is divided into three segments. One of them may contain a grammatical error. Select the option that has
the segment with the error. If there is no error, select ‘No error’ as your answer.
Meenu looks/ much better/ today.
Ans 1. Meenu looks

2. today.

3. No error

4. much better

Q.14 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the highlighted word.

The man had committed a grave offence so he was granted bail.

Ans 1. dignified

2. solemn

3. serious

4. trivial

Q.15 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

It was an insight / and determination of the lady doctor / that people were / able to lead a normal life.
Ans 1. It was an insight

2. and determination of the lady doctor

3. able to lead a normal life

4. that people were

Q.16 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans 1.
Comparison
2.
Naviggetion
3.
Strengthen
4.
Cleansing
Q.17 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Please pass _________ the salt.

Ans 1. my

2. mine

3. me

4. I

Q.18 The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error. Select the part that contains the error
from the given options. If you don’t find any error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer.
I thought of this idea / just when you called / me yesterday.
Ans 1. I thought of this idea

2. No error

3. me yesterday

4. just when you called

Q.19 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word in the given sentence.

Radha stepped backward to avoid the incoming traffic.

Ans 1. Beside

2. Affront

3. Forward

4. Behind

Q.20 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in future continuous tense form
I shall come again in the afternoon for lunch.
Ans 1. I will be coming again in the afternoon for lunch.

2. I shall have come again in the afternoon for lunch

3. I will come again in the afternoon for lunch.

4. I shall be coming again in the afternoon for lunch.

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
To forgive an injury is often (1)_______ to be a sign of weakness; it is really a sign of (2)___ . It is easy to allow oneself to be carried
away by resentment and hate into an act of (3)______; but it takes a strong character to restrain those natural passions. The man who
(4)______ an injury proves himself to be the superior of the man who wronged him, and puts the wrong-doer to shame. (5)___ may
even turn a foe into a friend.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans 1. granted

2. considered

3. allowed

4. given

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans 1. intelligence

2. aptitude

3. usefulness

4. strength

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans 1. noncompliance

2. overabundance

3. jurisprudence

4. vengeance
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
To forgive an injury is often (1)_______ to be a sign of weakness; it is really a sign of (2)___ . It is easy to allow oneself to be carried
away by resentment and hate into an act of (3)______; but it takes a strong character to restrain those natural passions. The man who
(4)______ an injury proves himself to be the superior of the man who wronged him, and puts the wrong-doer to shame. (5)___ may
even turn a foe into a friend.

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans 1. achieves

2. contrives

3. forgives

4. involves

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans 1. Boldness

2. Coyness

3. Forgiveness

4. Fondness

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