400-1600 Math+Reading-Writing

200-800 Math
200-800 Reading-Writing
Percentile Marking: what percentage of students you scored THE SAME OR
BETTER
EX: a 60th percentile score means you’ve scored better than 60% of all test
takers
SAT average composite score is 1050
Math-521
RW-529
SAT score you need is based on the schools you are interested in.
Arizona State Uni (av. SAT 1245)
GPA + SAT
Take the time to do same research on schools you might want to attend first so
that you can have a realistic SAT goal score to have a more accurate target score
On universities’ websites click on SAT scores and GPA page or (admission
requirement)
The 25th and 75th percentile composite SAT scores (strong application) Topla
ikiye böl average
Find the highest SAT score in the 75th percentile among the most competitive
school on your list
Baseline point
Score you’d get on the SAT without any preparation
+ official tests
• + quiet room
• + SAT-approved calculation
• + official section time limit
Current score-target score
Subtract your baseline from goal score
0-30 point improvement: 10 hours
30-70 point: 20h
70-130: 40h
130-200:80h
200-300:150h
+Good SAT scores for popular schools list

What is the digital SAT?

College Board, the maker of the SAT, is introducing changes to both the content
of the test and how the test is administered in order to better fit the needs of
students and educators. Most notably, the test will transition from being taken
with paper and pencil to being administered via a digital assessment platform
accessed by computer.

While the transition to digital will bring a number of student- and educator-
friendly changes, many important features of the SAT Suite will stay the same.
The SAT Suite will continue to measure the knowledge and skills that students
are learning in school and that matter most for college and career readiness. The
digital SAT isn’t simply a digital version of the current paper and pencil test—it
will be easier to take, more secure, and more relevant.

Which version of the SAT will I take?

The transition to the digital version of the SAT will occur gradually over the
next two years:

Starting in March 2023, the digital SAT will be administered to all

international students (students taking the test outside the United States or
its territories).

Starting in spring 2024, the digital SAT will be taken by all students (both
international and within the US).
The new test will be taken on a laptop or tablet using Bluebook, a testing
platform developed by College Board to provide a more convenient and secure
testing experience.
The new test will also be shorter, about two hours instead of three, and will
include new question styles designed to better test underlying skills within the
digital format, including shorter reading passages and you'll be able to use a
calculator on the entire math section.
While the transition to digital will bring a number of student and educator
friendly changes, many important features of the SAT will stay the same. The
Digital SAT will continue to measure the knowledge and skills that students are
learning in school and that matter most for college and career readiness.

practice tests and skill practice.

What’s on the digital SAT Reading and Writing test?

The Reading and Writing section of the digital SAT is designed to test students
on reading comprehension, rhetoric, and language use by having them engage
with academic and literary texts. Skills on the Reading and Writing test can be
split into the following four categories:

• Information and Ideas: Use, locate, interpret, and evaluate information

from various texts and infographics.
• Craft and Structure: Determine the meaning of high-utility academic
words and phrases in context, evaluate texts rhetorically, and make
supportable connections between multiple related texts.
• Expression of Ideas: Use revision skills and knowledge to improve the
effectiveness of written expression to accomplish specified rhetorical
goals.
• Standard English Conventions: Use editing skills and knowledge to
make texts conform to core conventions of Standard English sentence
structure, usage, and punctuation.
What has changed?

The SAT Reading and Writing test has seen substantial changes in the transition
to digital. Changes include:

• One test for Reading and Writing: While the pencil-and-paper SAT
tested Reading and Writing in separate test sections, the digital SAT
combines these topics.
• Shorter passages (and more of them): Instead of reading long passages
and answering multiple questions on each passage, students taking the
digital SAT will encounter shorter passages, each with just one follow-up
question.
• New question types: With its greater number and variety of passages, the
digital SAT includes new types of questions, with new prompts requiring
new strategies.
With the transition to the new digital version, the number of passages and
questions per passage on the SAT Reading Test have changed. The DSAT will
contain shorter passages that follow the one-question-per-passage format
instead of a set. Despite these changes, the question types and the skills assessed
remain the same. Each MCQ prompts you to comprehend the evidence,
understand the context of words used in the text, or draw inferences.

What type of questions are on SAT Reading?

The paper-and-pencil SAT Reading contains about 10 questions on a long

passage, while the new digital SAT has combined the Reading, Writing, and
Language tests into one section with multiple passages. You will be asked one
question per short passage.
While the question format has changed drastically between the two versions, the
intent of the questions has remained the same—understanding a specific line,
statement, or part of speech or correcting a given sentence to make it flow more
seamlessly. Below, we cover the intent of each of the nine question types in the
order from most to least common:

1. Big Picture

These questions ask about the main ideas of a passage. You must
understand the text in its entirety to answer these questions
accurately, as they are designed to evaluate your overall
comprehension. Complete these questions last to give yourself
plenty of opportunity to examine details, functions, and
connections within the passage.
2. Evidence Support

These questions assess your aptitude for reasoning. You must

evaluate the author's claims and support your claims with evidence.
You must also assess how the text's arguments could be improved
and determine how the data in an accompanying graphic supports
the passage's claims.
3. Words in Context

These questions will ask you to define a word or phrase by

analyzing it in context. This type of question tests your
comprehension of the word's purpose and meaning in relation to
mood, tone, style, or the text as a whole.
4. Little Picture
 These questions focus on details. Expect questions about specific
lines or paragraphs. For example, you may be asked to identify the
significance of a detail to the text as a whole.
5. Inference

These questions rely on your ability to pinpoint suggestions made

in the text. This may include filling in missing information,
defining a word or phrase based on its context, or evaluating the
author's perspective. The answers to these questions are not found
directly in the text, so you will have to think independently and
make inferences based on what you've read.
6. Function

These questions ask you to think about how a word or phrase is

used in the text. You will have to pinpoint the impact a specific
word or phrase has on the passage as a whole. These questions are
not about defining the words or phrases in question but about
understanding their function.
7. Analyzing Data Graphics

These questions test your ability to analyze data in a passage and

its accompanying graphic before drawing comparisons between
them. Data may be presented as a chart, graph, or table.
8. Analogy

These questions will ask you to make inferences about connections

between passages. You may also be asked to make comparisons
between two arguments or perspectives.
9. Author Technique

These questions ask you to make inferences about the author's

motives from specific lines or words. This includes analyzing the
feelings of the author from the tone.
You are not tested on your knowledge of a topic, so don't worry about absorbing
every bit of information. Instead, focus on the information needed to answer
questions.

Skills Tested by Reading Test Questions

Information and
Ideas Close reading, citing textual evidence, determining central ideas and th
 Summarizing Understanding relationships, interpreting words and phrases in context

Analyzing word choice, assessing overall text structure, assessing part-

Rhetoric relationships, analyzing point of view, determining purpose, analyzing

Synthesis Analyzing multiple texts, analyzing quantitative information

SAT Reading Passages will draw from U.S. and World Literature,
History/Social Studies, and Science. One set of History/Social Studies or
Science passages will be paired. History/Social Studies and Science passages
can also be accompanied by graphical representations of data such as charts,
graphs, or tables.

Do SAT Reading questions get progressively harder?

SAT questions are not arranged in order of progressive difficulty on the paper
exam.

What are "textual evidence" questions?

On the Reading and Writing section of your SAT, some questions will introduce
a claim about an unfamiliar subject. The question will then ask you to identify
the piece of evidence that most strongly supports that claim.

Textual evidence questions will look like this:

TEXTUAL EVIDENCE: EXAMPLE

Jan Gimsa, Robert Sleigh, and Ulrike Gimsa have hypothesized that the sail-like
structure running down the back of the dinosaur Spinosaurus
aegyptiacus improved the animal’s success in underwater pursuits of prey
species capable of making quick, evasive movements. To evaluate their
hypothesis, a second team of researchers constructed two battery-powered
mechanical models of S. aegyptiacus, one with a sail and one without, and
subjected the models to a series of identical tests in a water-filled tank.
Which finding from the model tests, if true, would most strongly support Gimsa
and colleagues’ hypothesis?
Choose 1 answer:
Choose 1 answer:
• (Choice A)

The model with a sail took significantly longer to travel a specified

distance while submerged than the model without a sail did.
• (Choice B)

The model with a sail displaced significantly more water while

submerged than the model without a sail did.
• (Choice C)

The model with a sail had significantly less battery power remaining after
completing the tests than the model without a sail did.
 • (D
The model with a sail took significantly less time to complete a sharp turn
while submerged than the model without a sail did.
Check

[Answer explanation]:

First we need to focus in on the hypothesis our evidence needs to support:

"the sail-like structure running down the back of the dinosaur Spinosaurus
aegyptiacus improved the animal’s success in underwater pursuits of prey
species capable of making quick, evasive movements"

We can simplify this hypothesis to make our lives a bit easier:

Sail on back = quicker movements

Which choice strengthens this idea?

• Choice A does focus on speed of movement, but finds that a sail on the
back = slower movement. This is the opposite of what we want to
support. We can eliminate this choice.
• Choice B focuses on water displacement, not the speed of movement. We
can eliminate this choice.
• Choice C focuses on the "power" needed to move, not the speed of
movement. We can eliminate this choice.

Choice D focuses on speed of movement, and finds that having a sail made
sharp turns take "significantly less time". In other words: sail on back =
quicker movements. This supports the hypothesis made by the
scientists. Choice D is the answer.
How should we think about textual evidence questions?

There are two types of textual evidence questions, and we need to think about
each type a little differently.

Scientific evidence

In these textual evidence questions, a hypothesis will be presented about a

subject in science or social science, usually in the context of new research or
experimentation.

We won't need to rely on any previous science knowledge: everything we need

will be contained in the short passage. Our task is to interpret the researchers'
hypothesis, identify the research outcome that would support that hypothesis,
and then select the choice that offers that outcome.

This task should remind you of your science classes, in which you've likely
needed to confirm or refute a hypothesis based on the outcomes of an
experiment.

Literary evidence

In these textual evidence questions, the passage will make an argument

concerning a particular literary work, like a poem or novel. The choices will
then offer a set of quotations from that literary work.

We don't need any previous knowledge of the literary work under discussion.
What we will need is the ability to evaluate whether the content of each
quotation serves as direct evidence for the argument identified in the question.

This task should remind you of your English classes, in which you've likely
needed to pull quotations from a text to support your arguments in an analytical
essay.
While these two types of questions might seem quite different, the skills we
need to succeed on them, and our approach to finding the answer, should
be quite similar for both.

How to approach textual evidence questions

To solve a textual evidence question, consider following these steps:

Step 1: Identify the argument

Every textual evidence question, whether scientific or literary, will introduce a

central argument for the question. It might be a research hypothesis, or it might
be an interpretation of a literary text, but either way it will be clearly stated.
Your first job is to identify that argument and draw it out from the text.

For instance, in the example question at the start of this article, you can identify
the following hypothesis: "the sail-like structure running down the back of the
dinosaur Spinosaurus aegyptiacus improved the animal’s success in underwater
pursuits of prey species capable of making quick, evasive movements".

Step 2: Create a test phrase

Once you've identified the argument you want to support, you should rephrase
that argument in the simplest terms possible.

For example, consider that hypothesis about Spinosaurus aegyptiacus. The

claim is that a sail would help the dinosaur hunt quick prey while underwater.
You could simplify that as follows:

Sail on back = quicker underwater movement

The best choice will make this same argument.

Step 3: Test the choices

Read each choice while keeping your test phrase in mind. Does the choice say
something different than the test phrase? If so, eliminate that choice.

Once you find a choice that makes the same argument as your test phrase,
you've found the answer. You can select that choice with confidence.

Top tips

Stay specific

Don't stray beyond the focus of the passage. Eliminate choices that broaden or
blur the argument you're meant to be supporting. And look out for small twists
and turns that make a choice seem relevant when it actually changes the focus of
the argument.

[Hide explanation]

Look at the choices in the example question:

• Choice B introduces the idea of "water displacement", which isn't

discussed in the passage. We can eliminate this choice.
• Choice C introduces a measurement of "battery power remaining"
without connecting it to speed of movement. We can eliminate this
choice.

Be strict

Remember, we're looking for the strongest and most direct evidence. If a
choice "almost" or "kind of" feels like evidence, you can likely eliminate it. If
you need to connect too many dots to make the evidence match the argument,
then it's probably not strong evidence.

[Hide explanation]
In our example question, choice C introduces the idea of "battery power
remaining".

Now, if we made a whole bunch of extra leaps, we might be able to connect the
idea of "battery power" to the main argument about "speed". You could say:

The sail used up more power, so maybe it's more powerful, and that might mean
that the sail makes the dinosaur swim faster"

But this type of extended, indirect reasoning isn't what we want when we're
looking for strong support.

See how you had to use the word "might"? "Maybe" isn't strong enough, and it's
a good indication that there's not enough evidence in the passage to support this
choice. For example, the additional power consumption also might imply that
the sail is inefficient.

Your turn

TEXTUAL EVIDENCE: LITERARY

“Mr. Cornelius Johnson, Office-Seeker” is a 1900 short story by Paul Laurence

Dunbar. In the story, the narrator describes Mr. Cornelius Johnson’s appearance
as conveying his exaggerated sense of his importance: ______

Which quotation from “Mr. Cornelius Johnson, Office-Seeker” most effectively

illustrates the claim?
Choose 1 answer:
Choose 1 answer:
• (Choice A)

A
 “He carried himself always as if he were passing under his own triumphal
arch.”
• (Choice B)

“The grey Prince Albert was scrupulously buttoned about his form, and a
shiny top hat replaced the felt of the afternoon.”
• (Choice C)

“Mr. Cornelius Johnson always spoke in a large and important tone.”

“It was a beautiful day in balmy May and the sun shone pleasantly on Mr.
Cornelius Johnson’s very spruce Prince Albert suit of grey as he alighted
from the train in Washington.”
First we need to focus in on the claim our evidence needs to support:

"the narrator describes Mr. Cornelius Johnson’s appearance as conveying his

exaggerated sense of his importance"

We can simplify this claim to make our lives a bit easier:

exaggerated self-importance

Let's test this phrase against each of the choices:

• Choice B shows that Cornelius Johnson is tidy and well-dressed, but it

doesn't suggest that he is arrogant, or that he exaggerates his self-
importance. We can eliminate this choice.
• Choice D focuses more on the setting than on Cornelius. We can
eliminate this choice.
Now choices A and C are a bit trickier. C even includes the word "important".
But remember to be strict: we don't want a choice that simply says Cornelius
acted important, we need evidence of exaggerated self-importance.

Choice C is a pretty literal description of Cornelius, telling us what his voice

sounds like. Also, the prompt focuses on Cornelius’ appearance—what he
looks like, not what he sounds like. Choice A introduces a comical and
hyperbolic description of Cornelius walking around like a big shot.

Choice A is definitely more "exaggerated". Choice A is the answer.

AI QS

Passage 1:

Hypothesis: Researchers believe that a new drug can significantly reduce

cholesterol levels in patients.

Question 1: Which of the following research outcomes would support the

hypothesis that the new drug can significantly reduce cholesterol levels in
patients?

A) Patients who took the new drug had lower cholesterol levels than those who
didn't. B) The drug was tested on a small group of patients. C) Cholesterol
levels remained unchanged in all patients. D) The drug had no side effects. E)
The drug's cost was significantly lower than existing cholesterol medications.

Passage 2:

Hypothesis: Scientists propose that a particular species of plants can adapt to

changing environmental conditions over time.

Question 2: What research outcome would most strongly support the scientists'
hypothesis about the adaptability of the plant species?

A) The plants exhibited growth patterns consistent with changing environmental

conditions. B) The plants were genetically identical to one another. C) The
plants were studied in isolation from other species. D) The plants did not show
any signs of adaptability. E) Other species in the same environment did not
exhibit any changes.
Passage 3:

Hypothesis: Social scientists suggest that increased access to education can

reduce poverty rates in a community.

Question 3: Which of the following research findings would best support the
hypothesis about education and poverty?

A) Poverty rates in a community with improved access to education decreased

over five years. B) The average income of people with higher education is
higher than those without. C) A survey showed that people value education for
personal development. D) A community with high poverty rates had no access
to education. E) Some individuals with education still live in poverty.

Passage 4:

Hypothesis: Researchers hypothesize that exposure to natural light during

working hours can improve employee productivity.

Question 4: What research outcome would provide the strongest evidence for
the researchers' hypothesis about natural light and productivity?

A) Employees who had access to natural light were more productive than those
who didn't. B) The company implemented flexible working hours. C) The office
environment was kept at a constant temperature. D) A new coffee machine was
installed in the breakroom. E) Employees reported feeling happier in their
workspaces.

Passage 5:

Hypothesis: Biologists propose that a certain species of fish can regenerate lost
body parts.

Question 5: Which research result would best support the biologists' hypothesis
regarding the regenerative abilities of the fish?

A) After tail fins were amputated, the fish regrew them over time. B) The fish
were observed in a laboratory setting. C) Other species of fish also have similar
coloration. D) The fish lived in a river with fluctuating water levels. E) The fish
are commonly used in the pet trade.

Passage 6:
Hypothesis: Economists suggest that lowering taxes on small businesses will
stimulate economic growth.

Question 6: What research outcome would provide the most convincing

evidence in support of the economists' hypothesis about tax reductions and
economic growth?

A) Small businesses experienced a significant increase in profits after tax

reductions. B) The government increased taxes on large corporations. C) The
stock market had a turbulent year. D) Small business owners reported feeling
optimistic about their future prospects. E) Tax reductions for large corporations
were also implemented.

Passage 7:

Hypothesis: Psychologists theorize that practicing mindfulness meditation can

reduce stress levels.

Question 7: Which research finding would best support the psychologists'

hypothesis about the effects of mindfulness meditation on stress?

A) Participants who engaged in daily mindfulness meditation reported lower

stress levels. B) A new relaxation technique was introduced. C) Stress levels
remained consistent among all participants. D) Some participants discontinued
the meditation practice. E) Participants who meditated had fewer physical
health issues.

Passage 8:

Hypothesis: Geologists suggest that volcanic eruptions can influence climate

patterns.

Question 8: What research outcome would offer strong support for the
geologists' hypothesis regarding the impact of volcanic eruptions on climate?

A) Climate data showed a drop in temperatures following a major volcanic

eruption. B) The volcano was located in a remote area with few inhabitants. C)
A different volcano erupted in the same region years later. D) Local residents
were evacuated promptly during the eruption. E) The volcano's eruption had no
effect on nearby ecosystems.

Passage 9:
Hypothesis: Nutritionists propose that a diet rich in antioxidants can reduce the
risk of certain diseases.

Question 9: Which research result would best support the nutritionists'

hypothesis about antioxidants and disease prevention?

A) Individuals who consumed a diet rich in antioxidants had lower rates of

disease. B) The study included participants from various age groups. C) A new
antioxidant supplement was introduced to the market. D) Disease rates
remained the same across all groups in the study. E) Participants were asked
about their exercise habits.

Passage 10:

Hypothesis: Historians suggest that the fall of empires is often associated with
economic decline.

Question 10: Which research finding would best support the historians'
hypothesis regarding the relationship between empire falls and economic
decline?

A) Historical records showed that several empires experienced economic crises

before their downfall.

B) The empires had extensive colonial holdings.

C) Empires fell due to external invasions.

D) Economic prosperity led to the rise of empires.

E) The empires' cultural achievements were well-documented.

Passage 11:

Hypothesis: Psychologists believe that children who read regularly develop

stronger language skills.

Passage: Recent research suggests that children who engage in regular reading
activities tend to have more advanced language skills than those who do not.
This finding has significant implications for education and child development.

Question 11: What does recent research suggest about the relationship between
regular reading and language skills in children?
A) Regular reading activities have no impact on language skills.

B) There is no research available on this topic.

C) Children who read regularly tend to have stronger language skills.

D) Advanced language skills hinder reading abilities.

E) Language skills are not important for child development.

Passage 12:

Hypothesis: Scientists propose that a new species of plants discovered in a

remote rainforest may have unique medicinal properties.

Passage: In a remote rainforest, researchers have discovered a previously

unknown species of plants. Given the rich biodiversity of the area, scientists are
excited about the potential for these plants to have unique medicinal properties.

Question 12: What is the primary reason for scientists' excitement about the
newly discovered plants in the remote rainforest?

A) The plants are easily accessible for study.

B) The plants belong to a well-documented species.

C) The plants have already been used for medicinal purposes.

D) The plants may have unique medicinal properties.

E) The rainforest has limited biodiversity.

Passage 13:

Hypothesis: Economists propose that an increase in minimum wage can lead to

a decrease in unemployment rates.

Passage: A recent debate has emerged about whether raising the minimum
wage would have a positive or negative impact on employment. Economists
who support an increase argue that it could lead to a decrease in unemployment
rates.

Question 13: What is the main point of contention in the debate about raising
the minimum wage?
A) Whether increasing the minimum wage is necessary.

B) Whether raising the minimum wage will have a positive or negative impact
on employment.

C) Whether the current minimum wage is too high.

D) Whether the government should regulate wages.

E) Whether businesses can afford to pay higher wages.

Passage 14:

Hypothesis: Geologists suggest that earthquakes in a particular region may be

linked to underground tectonic activity.

Passage: In a region prone to frequent earthquakes, geologists are conducting

studies to understand the causes behind the seismic activity. Some experts
suggest that these earthquakes may be linked to ongoing underground tectonic
activity.

Question 14: What is the focus of the geologists' studies in the earthquake-
prone region?

A) The effects of earthquakes on the local population.

B) The potential for earthquakes to cause property damage.

C) The possibility of predicting when earthquakes will occur.

D) The causes of the seismic activity, including underground tectonic activity.

E) The history of earthquakes in the region.

Passage 15:

Hypothesis: Historians believe that the decline of a powerful empire can be

attributed to a series of internal conflicts.

Passage: The decline of the once-mighty empire has long been a subject of
historical inquiry. Some historians argue that the empire's downfall can be
attributed to a series of internal conflicts rather than external factors.
Question 15: According to some historians, what is the primary cause of the
decline of the powerful empire?

A) External invasions and attacks.

B) Economic challenges.

C) The lack of a strong leader.

D) A series of internal conflicts.

E) Advances in technology.

Passage 16:

Hypothesis: Biologists suggest that a newly discovered species of birds may

have unique mating rituals.

Passage: Researchers exploring a remote island have recently identified a new

species of birds. Biologists are eager to study these birds further, as they believe
they may exhibit unique mating rituals.

Question 16: What has piqued the interest of biologists regarding the newly
discovered species of birds?

A) The birds' physical appearance.

B) The island's remote location.

C) The birds' habitat preferences.

D) The potential for unique mating rituals.

E) The birds' migratory patterns.

Passage 17:

Hypothesis: Social scientists propose that the implementation of a universal

basic income could alleviate poverty.

Passage: In response to rising poverty rates, some social scientists are

advocating for the implementation of a universal basic income, which they
believe could be an effective way to alleviate poverty.
Question 17: What is the proposed solution put forth by some social scientists
to address rising poverty rates?

A) Increasing taxes on the wealthy.

B) Providing free education to all.

C) Implementing a universal basic income.

D) Reducing government spending.

E) Encouraging charitable donations.

Passage 18:

Hypothesis: Meteorologists suggest that the unusual weather patterns in the

region may be linked to climate change.

Passage: Residents of a coastal town have been experiencing unusual weather

patterns, including more frequent storms and higher temperatures.
Meteorologists are investigating whether these changes may be linked to
climate change.

Question 18: What are meteorologists investigating regarding the unusual

weather patterns in the coastal town?

A) The impact of weather patterns on local agriculture. B) The potential for

more frequent storms and higher temperatures. C) The history of weather
patterns in the region. D) The effectiveness of local weather forecasting. E) The
impact of weather patterns on tourism.

Passage 19:

Hypothesis: Nutritionists propose that a diet rich in fruits and vegetables can
lead to improved overall health.

Passage: Nutritionists have long advocated for a diet that includes plenty of
fruits and vegetables. They argue that such a diet can lead to improved overall
health and well-being.

Question 19: According to nutritionists, what is the potential benefit of a diet

rich in fruits and vegetables?
A) Weight loss. B) Improved overall health. C) Increased energy levels. D)
Prevention of specific diseases. E) A longer lifespan.

Passage 20:

Hypothesis: Educators suggest that incorporating technology in the classroom

can enhance students' learning experiences.

Passage: With the increasing availability of technology, educators are exploring

ways to incorporate it into the classroom. They believe that using technology
can enhance students' learning experiences.

Question 20: What do educators believe about the use of technology in the
classroom?

A) It hinders students' learning experiences. B) It is unnecessary for modern

education. C) It can enhance students' learning experiences. D) It should only be
used in advanced courses. E) It is too expensive for most schools.

Passage 11: Question 11: C) Children who read regularly tend to have stronger
language skills.

Passage 12: Question 12: D) The plants may have unique medicinal properties.

Passage 13: Question 13: B) Whether raising the minimum wage will have a
positive or negative impact on employment.

Passage 14: Question 14: D) The causes of the seismic activity, including
underground tectonic activity.

Passage 15: Question 15: D) A series of internal conflicts.

Passage 16: Question 16: D) The potential for unique mating rituals.

Passage 17: Question 17: C) Implementing a universal basic income.

Passage 18: Question 18: B) The potential for more frequent storms and higher
temperatures.

Passage 19: Question 19: B) Improved overall health.

Passage 20: Questi on 20: C) It can enhance students' learning experiences.

Experiment 1: Researchers conducted an experiment to test the effect of
temperature on the rate of chemical reactions. They used two identical chemical
reactions, one at room temperature (20°C) and the other at an elevated
temperature (50°C). Which observation, if true, would provide strong evidence
supporting the hypothesis that higher temperatures increase the rate of chemical
reactions?

A) Both reactions produced the same amount of product. B) The reaction at

50°C produced more product in less time than the reaction at 20°C. C) The
reaction at 20°C produced more heat than the reaction at 50°C. D) Both
reactions required the same amount of reactant.

Experiment 2: Scientists conducted an experiment to determine the effect of

different types of soil on plant growth. They planted identical seeds in four
different types of soil and measured the height of the resulting plants after six
weeks. Which result, if true, would best support their hypothesis that one type
of soil is more conducive to plant growth than the others?

A) All four types of soil resulted in plants of equal height. B) The plants in soil
type A were significantly taller than those in the other soils. C) The plants in
soil type B had more leaves than those in soil type C. D) The plants in soil type
D had yellow leaves.

Experiment 3: In an experiment on the effects of light exposure on plant

growth, researchers placed identical plants in two separate rooms—one with
natural sunlight and the other in complete darkness. Which finding, if true,
would support the hypothesis that light exposure positively affects plant
growth?

A) Both sets of plants grew at the same rate. B) The plants in the dark room
grew taller than those exposed to natural sunlight. C) The plants exposed to
natural sunlight had healthier green leaves than those in the dark room. D) The
plants exposed to natural sunlight had less water than those in the dark room.

Experiment 4: Scientists conducted an experiment to test the impact of

different fertilizer types on crop yield. They applied three different fertilizers to
three separate plots of land, all with the same crop. Which result, if true, would
best support their hypothesis that one fertilizer promotes higher crop yield?

A) All three plots had the same crop yield. B) The plot with fertilizer X had a
significantly higher crop yield than the others. C) The plot with fertilizer Y had
more pests than the others. D) The plot with fertilizer Z had a different crop
than the others.
Experiment 5: In an experiment exploring the impact of music on
concentration, students were divided into two groups—one that studied in
silence and another that listened to classical music while studying. Which
finding, if true, would provide strong evidence that listening to classical music
improves concentration during studying?

A) Both groups achieved the same test scores. B) The group that studied in
silence performed better on the test. C) The group that listened to music had
higher test scores than the other group. D) The group that listened to music took
longer to complete the test.

Experiment 6: Researchers conducted an experiment to investigate the effect

of exercise on heart rate. They measured the heart rates of individuals before
and after 30 minutes of vigorous exercise. Which result, if true, would support
the hypothesis that exercise increases heart rate?

A) Both the before and after heart rates were the same. B) The heart rate after
exercise was significantly lower than before. C) The heart rate after exercise
was significantly higher than before. D) The heart rate remained constant
throughout the experiment.

Experiment 7: In an experiment on the impact of different cooking methods on

nutrient retention in vegetables, researchers compared boiled, steamed, and fried
vegetables. Which finding, if true, would best support their hypothesis that
steaming retains more nutrients than the other methods?

A) All three cooking methods resulted in vegetables with equal nutrient content.
B) The boiled vegetables had a higher nutrient content than the fried vegetables.
C) The steamed vegetables had a lower nutrient content than the fried
vegetables. D) The steamed vegetables had a higher nutrient content than the
boiled and fried vegetables.

Experiment 8: Scientists conducted an experiment to determine the effect of

different pH levels on plant growth. They watered identical plants with
solutions of varying pH levels. Which observation, if true, would provide strong
evidence supporting the hypothesis that specific pH levels promote better plant
growth?

A) All plants, regardless of pH level, showed stunted growth. B) The plants

watered with a pH 7 solution grew taller than those with pH 5 solution. C) The
plants watered with a pH 3 solution had yellow leaves. D) The plants watered
with a pH 9 solution had wilting leaves.
Experiment 9: In an experiment on the effect of caffeine on reaction time,
participants were divided into two groups—one that consumed caffeine and
another that did not. Which finding, if true, would support the hypothesis that
caffeine consumption improves reaction time?

A) Both groups had the same reaction times. B) The group that consumed
caffeine had a slower reaction time. C) The group that consumed caffeine had a
faster reaction time. D) The group that consumed caffeine experienced
dizziness.

Experiment 10: Researchers conducted an experiment to test the impact of

different cleaning agents on stain removal. They applied three different cleaning
agents to identical stained fabrics and observed the results. Which result, if true,
would best support their hypothesis that one cleaning agent is more effective at
stain removal than the others?

A) All fabrics were left with visible stains. B) The fabric treated with cleaning
agent X had the least visible stains. C) The fabric treated with cleaning agent Y
had a different type of stain than the others. D) The fabric treated with cleaning
agent Z was damaged.

prepare its answer key with explNtion

ChatGPT
Certainly, here are the answer keys for the questions along with explanations:

Experiment 1: Question: Which observation, if true, would provide strong

evidence supporting the hypothesis that higher temperatures increase the rate of
chemical reactions? Answer: B) The reaction at 50°C produced more product in
less time than the reaction at 20°C.

Explanation: If the reaction at 50°C produced more product in less time, it

suggests that higher temperatures increase the rate of chemical reactions, which
supports the hypothesis.

Experiment 2: Question: Which result, if true, would best support their

hypothesis that one type of soil is more conducive to plant growth than the
others? Answer: B) The plants in soil type A were significantly taller than those
in the other soils.

Explanation: If the plants in soil type A were significantly taller than those in
the other soils, it provides strong evidence that one type of soil is more
conducive to plant growth, supporting the hypothesis.
Experiment 3: Question: Which finding, if true, would support the hypothesis
that light exposure positively affects plant growth? Answer: C) The plants
exposed to natural sunlight had healthier green leaves than those in the dark
room.

Explanation: If the plants exposed to natural sunlight had healthier green leaves,
it indicates that light exposure positively affects plant growth, supporting the
hypothesis.

Experiment 4: Question: Which result, if true, would best support their

hypothesis that one fertilizer promotes higher crop yield? Answer: B) The plot
with fertilizer X had a significantly higher crop yield than the others.

Explanation: If the plot with fertilizer X had a significantly higher crop yield, it
provides strong evidence that one fertilizer promotes higher crop yield,
supporting the hypothesis.

Experiment 5: Question: Which finding, if true, would provide strong evidence

that listening to classical music improves concentration during studying?
Answer: C) The group that listened to music had higher test scores than the
other group.

Explanation: If the group that listened to music had higher test scores, it
suggests that listening to classical music improves concentration during
studying, supporting the hypothesis.

Experiment 6: Question: Which result, if true, would support the hypothesis

that exercise increases heart rate? Answer: C) The heart rate after exercise was
significantly higher than before.

Explanation: If the heart rate after exercise was significantly higher than before,
it supports the hypothesis that exercise increases heart rate.

Experiment 7: Question: Which finding, if true, would best support their

hypothesis that steaming retains more nutrients than the other methods?
Answer: D) The steamed vegetables had a higher nutrient content than the
boiled and fried vegetables.

Explanation: If the steamed vegetables had a higher nutrient content than the
boiled and fried vegetables, it provides strong evidence that steaming retains
more nutrients, supporting the hypothesis.
Experiment 8: Question: Which observation, if true, would provide strong
evidence supporting the hypothesis that specific pH levels promote better plant
growth? Answer: B) The plants watered with a pH 7 solution grew taller than
those with pH 5 solution.

Explanation: If the plants watered with a pH 7 solution grew taller than those
with pH 5 solution, it suggests that specific pH levels promote better plant
growth, supporting the hypothesis.

Experiment 9: Question: Which finding, if true, would support the hypothesis

that caffeine consumption improves reaction time? Answer: C) The group that
consumed caffeine had a faster reaction time.

Explanation: If the group that consumed caffeine had a faster reaction time, it
supports the hypothesis that caffeine consumption improves reaction time.

Experiment 10: Question: Which result, if true, would best support their
hypothesis that one cleaning agent is more effective at stain removal than the
others? Answer: B) The fabric treated with cleaning agent X had the least
visible stains.

Explanation: If the fabric treated with cleaning agent X had the least visible
stains, it provides strong evidence that one cleaning agent is more effective at
stain removal, supporting the hypothesis.

Passage 1: "The Great Gatsby" by F. Scott Fitzgerald

In "The Great Gatsby," the author describes Jay Gatsby as a mysterious and
enigmatic character. Which quotation from the novel most effectively illustrates
this description?

A) "Gatsby, with his extravagant parties and opulent lifestyle, was the talk of
the town." B) "Gatsby's past was shrouded in secrecy, and nobody knew where
he had come from." C) "The green light at the end of Daisy's dock seemed to
symbolize Gatsby's unattainable dreams." D) "Gatsby's car, a shining yellow
Rolls-Royce, attracted the attention of everyone he passed."

Passage 2: "To Kill a Mockingbird" by Harper Lee

In "To Kill a Mockingbird," the character of Atticus Finch is known for his
strong moral compass and sense of justice. Which quotation from the novel best
exemplifies Atticus Finch's character?
A) "Atticus always taught us to treat everyone with respect, no matter their
background." B) "Atticus was a well-respected lawyer in town, known for his
impressive courtroom skills." C) "Atticus rarely expressed his emotions, but his
actions spoke volumes about his integrity." D) "Atticus believed in the
importance of defending those who couldn't defend themselves."

Passage 3: "Pride and Prejudice" by Jane Austen

In "Pride and Prejudice," Mr. Darcy is initially perceived as aloof and proud.
Which quotation from the novel best illustrates this characterization?

A) "Mr. Darcy was a man of few words, and his reserved demeanor often
misled others." B) "Mr. Darcy's wealth and status set him apart from the rest of
society." C) "Mr. Darcy's refusal to dance with Elizabeth Bennet offended many
at the assembly." D) "Mr. Darcy seldom engaged in idle conversation and
preferred to observe from a distance."

Passage 4: "Moby-Dick" by Herman Melville

In "Moby-Dick," Captain Ahab is consumed by his obsession with the white

whale, Moby Dick. Which quotation from the novel most effectively conveys
Ahab's obsession?

A) "Captain Ahab was known for his single-minded determination to find and
conquer the white whale." B) "Ahab's relentless pursuit of Moby Dick led his
crew on a perilous journey across the seas." C) "Ahab's cabin was adorned with
harpoons and trophies from previous encounters with the elusive whale." D)
"Ahab's obsession with Moby Dick blinded him to the dangers and
consequences of his quest."

Passage 5: "Frankenstein" by Mary Shelley

In "Frankenstein," Victor Frankenstein's creation is initially depicted as a tragic

and misunderstood figure. Which quotation from the novel best captures the
creature's tragic nature?

A) "The creature's appearance was so hideous that it struck fear into the hearts
of those who beheld it." B) "The creature, shunned by society, longed for
companionship and acceptance." C) "The creature's actions, driven by loneliness
and rejection, led to tragic consequences." D) "The creature's creator, Victor
Frankenstein, was horrified by the monster he had brought to life."

Passage 6: "The Catcher in the Rye" by J.D. Salinger

In "The Catcher in the Rye," Holden Caulfield is a disillusioned teenager who
often expresses his disdain for society. Which quotation from the novel reflects
Holden's disillusionment?

A) "Holden often felt like he was surrounded by 'phonies' who pretended to be

something they were not." B) "Holden's cynical view of the world led him to
question the authenticity of human relationships." C) "Holden's desire to protect
the innocence of children stemmed from his disillusionment with adult
hypocrisy." D) "Holden's repeated expulsion from various schools only
reinforced his belief in the futility of formal education."

Passage 7: "Brave New World" by Aldous Huxley

In "Brave New World," the society is characterized by its use of technology to

control and manipulate individuals. Which quotation from the novel best
illustrates the role of technology in this dystopian world?

A) "In this society, technology was harnessed to eliminate pain, discomfort, and
individuality." B) "The citizens of this world relied on a drug called 'soma' to
maintain their contentment." C) "Technology allowed for the conditioning and
control of individuals' thoughts and behaviors." D) "The omnipresent
surveillance cameras ensured that no one could deviate from societal norms."

Passage 8: "1984" by George Orwell

In "1984," the government exercises total control over its citizens through
surveillance and censorship. Which quotation from the novel most effectively
portrays the oppressive nature of the government?

A) "Big Brother is always watching, and even our thoughts are not safe from the
Thought Police." B) "The government's propaganda machine worked tirelessly
to rewrite history and control the narrative." C) "Winston's diary, a symbol of
his rebellion, was a dangerous act of defiance against the Party." D) "The
citizens lived in perpetual fear of being labeled as 'thoughtcriminals' and
disappearing."

Passage 9: "The Scarlet Letter" by Nathaniel Hawthorne

In "The Scarlet Letter," the scarlet letter itself is a symbol of shame and
punishment. Which quotation from the novel effectively conveys the symbolism
of the scarlet letter?
A) "The townspeople regarded Hester Prynne's scarlet letter as a mark of her sin
and disgrace." B) "Hester's scarlet letter, embroidered with gold thread, was an
exquisite work of craftsmanship." C) "The scarlet letter served as a constant
reminder of Hester's illicit affair with Reverend Dimmesdale." D) "Hester's
daughter, Pearl, often played with the scarlet letter, unaware of its significance."

Passage 10: "The Odyssey" by Homer

In "The Odyssey," Odysseus faces numerous challenges on his journey home.

Which quotation from the epic poem best exemplifies Odysseus's
resourcefulness and cunning?

A) "Odysseus used his physical strength to overcome the obstacles in his path."
B) "Odysseus devised clever strategies to outwit his enemies and achieve his
goals." C) "Odysseus relied on the gods to guide him safely home." D)
"Odysseus's journey was marked by luck and chance encounters."

answer key with explanationn

ChatGPT
Certainly, here are the answer keys for the literary evidence questions along
with explanations:

Passage 1: "The Great Gatsby" by F. Scott Fitzgerald Question: Which

quotation from the novel most effectively illustrates Jay Gatsby's mysterious
and enigmatic nature? Answer: B) "Gatsby's past was shrouded in secrecy, and
nobody knew where he had come from."

Explanation: This quotation highlights Gatsby's mysterious background and the

air of secrecy surrounding him, which exemplifies his enigmatic nature.

Passage 2: "To Kill a Mockingbird" by Harper Lee Question: Which

quotation from the novel best exemplifies Atticus Finch's character? Answer: A)
"Atticus always taught us to treat everyone with respect, no matter their
background."

Explanation: This quotation reflects Atticus Finch's strong moral character and
his emphasis on treating others with respect.

Passage 3: "Pride and Prejudice" by Jane Austen Question: Which

quotation from the novel best illustrates Mr. Darcy's initial characterization as
aloof and proud? Answer: C) "Mr. Darcy's refusal to dance with Elizabeth
Bennet offended many at the assembly."
Explanation: This quotation highlights Mr. Darcy's initial aloofness and pride
when he refuses to dance with Elizabeth Bennet at the assembly.

Passage 4: "Moby-Dick" by Herman Melville Question: Which quotation

from the novel most effectively conveys Captain Ahab's obsession with Moby
Dick? Answer: B) "Ahab's relentless pursuit of Moby Dick led his crew on a
perilous journey across the seas."

Explanation: This quotation emphasizes Ahab's relentless pursuit of Moby Dick,

illustrating his obsession with the white whale.

Passage 5: "Frankenstein" by Mary Shelley Question: Which quotation from

the novel best captures the creature's tragic nature? Answer: B) "The creature,
shunned by society, longed for companionship and acceptance."

Explanation: This quotation highlights the creature's loneliness and desire for
acceptance, portraying his tragic nature.

Passage 6: "The Catcher in the Rye" by J.D. Salinger Question: Which

quotation from the novel reflects Holden Caulfield's disillusionment with
society? Answer: A) "Holden often felt like he was surrounded by 'phonies' who
pretended to be something they were not."

Explanation: This quotation showcases Holden's disdain for insincere people in

society, illustrating his disillusionment.

Passage 7: "Brave New World" by Aldous Huxley Question: Which

quotation from the novel best illustrates the role of technology in the dystopian
society? Answer: C) "Technology allowed for the conditioning and control of
individuals' thoughts and behaviors."

Explanation: This quotation highlights the pervasive role of technology in

conditioning and controlling the citizens, emphasizing its significance in the
society.

Passage 8: "1984" by George Orwell Question: Which quotation from the

novel most effectively portrays the oppressive nature of the government?
Answer: A) "Big Brother is always watching, and even our thoughts are not safe
from the Thought Police."

Explanation: This quotation reveals the constant surveillance and control

exercised by the government, emphasizing its oppressive nature.
Passage 9: "The Scarlet Letter" by Nathaniel Hawthorne Question: Which
quotation from the novel effectively conveys the symbolism of the scarlet
letter? Answer: A) "The townspeople regarded Hester Prynne's scarlet letter as a
mark of her sin and disgrace."

Explanation: This quotation illustrates how the scarlet letter is viewed by the
townspeople as a symbol of Hester's sin and disgrace.

Passage 10: "The Odyssey" by Homer Question: Which quotation from the
epic poem best exemplifies Odysseus's resourcefulness and cunning? Answer:
B) "Odysseus devised clever strategies to outwit his enemies and achieve his
goals."

Explanation: This quotation highlights Odysseus's intelligence and cunning in

devising strategies to outsmart his enemies, showcasing his resourcefulness.

Passage 11: "Jane Eyre" by Charlotte Brontë

In "Jane Eyre," Jane's character is often described as resilient and independent.

Read the following passage from the novel and choose the sentence that best
exemplifies Jane's resilience and independence:

Passage: Jane had always been a strong-willed and determined individual. From
her early years at Lowood School, where she endured hardship and
discrimination, to her time as a governess at Thornfield Hall, where she faced
uncertainty and adversity, Jane never wavered in her pursuit of self-sufficiency
and personal growth.

A) "Jane's unyielding spirit allowed her to overcome every obstacle in her

path." B) "Throughout her life, Jane remained unwavering in her quest for
independence." C) "Jane's determination to forge her own path in life was
evident in her actions." D) "In the face of adversity, Jane's resolve to stand on
her own never faltered."

Passage 12: "The Hobbit" by J.R.R. Tolkien

In "The Hobbit," Bilbo Baggins undergoes a transformation from a timid hobbit

to a courageous adventurer. Read the following passage from the novel and
choose the sentence that best illustrates Bilbo's growth and bravery:

Passage: Bilbo, a once-humble hobbit, found himself in the company of

dwarves embarking on a perilous journey. Initially reluctant and unsure, Bilbo's
transformation into a fearless adventurer was marked by moments of bravery
and resourcefulness that surprised even himself.

A) "Bilbo's journey was marked by countless challenges, but he faced each one
with newfound bravery." B) "Bilbo's initial reluctance to join the quest gave
way to a fierce determination to protect his companions." C) "Bilbo's encounters
with dragons and trolls revealed the depths of his courage and resourcefulness."
D) "Bilbo's decision to confront the dragon Smaug showcased his
transformation from a timid hobbit to a heroic figure."

Passage 13: "The Grapes of Wrath" by John Steinbeck

In "The Grapes of Wrath," the Joad family represents the struggles of migrant
workers during the Great Depression. Read the following passage from the
novel and choose the sentence that most effectively conveys the challenges
faced by the Joad family and other migrant workers:

Passage: The Joad family, like countless other migrant families during the Great
Depression, experienced a harsh and unforgiving reality. Their journey
westward was marred by poverty, hunger, and the relentless search for work in
a land that offered little respite.

A) "The Joad family's journey was marked by poverty, hunger, and the constant
search for work." B) "The dust storms that swept across the land symbolized the
harsh conditions endured by migrant families." C) "The Joads, like countless
others, faced exploitation and injustice as they sought a better life in California."
D) "The Joads' determination to survive and preserve their dignity in the face of
adversity resonated with other migrant families."

Passage 14: "The Catcher in the Rye" by J.D. Salinger

In "The Catcher in the Rye," Holden Caulfield often expresses his

disillusionment with society. Read the following passage from the novel and
choose the sentence that effectively conveys Holden's feelings of alienation and
frustration:

Passage: Holden Caulfield's experiences in a world he found filled with

"phonies" and hypocrisy intensified his sense of alienation. His cynical view of
the world led him to question the authenticity of human relationships, creating a
profound sense of isolation.

A) "Holden's cynical view of the world led him to question the authenticity of
human relationships." B) "Holden's encounters with 'phonies' and hypocrites
intensified his sense of alienation from society." C) "Holden's inner turmoil and
search for authenticity made him an outsider in a world he found insincere." D)
"Holden's longing for a world of innocence and genuine connections set him
apart from the superficiality of society."

Passage 15: "One Hundred Years of Solitude" by Gabriel García Márquez

In "One Hundred Years of Solitude," the magical realism genre is used to depict
extraordinary events in a seemingly ordinary world. Read the following passage
from the novel and choose the sentence that most effectively illustrates the
blend of magic and reality:

Passage: The town of Macondo existed in a surreal atmosphere, where the

impossible and the mundane coexisted seamlessly. The Buendía family's lineage
was marked by generations of inexplicable occurrences and supernatural
phenomena, blurring the boundaries between reality and fantasy.

A) "The town of Macondo was enveloped in a surreal atmosphere, where the

impossible and the mundane coexisted." B) "The Buendía family's lineage was
marked by generations of inexplicable occurrences and supernatural
phenomena." C) "The novel's narrative blurs the boundaries between reality and
fantasy, creating a unique and enchanting world." D) "The characters in
Macondo often witnessed miraculous events that defied the laws of nature and
reason."

Passage 16: "The Lord of the Flies" by William Golding

In "The Lord of the Flies," the novel explores the descent into savagery of a
group of boys stranded on an island. Read the following passage from the novel
and choose the sentence that most effectively portrays the boys' descent into
chaos and violence:

Passage: As the days on the island stretched into weeks, the boys' civilized
behavior deteriorated, giving way to chaos and brutality. The conch, once a
symbol of order and democracy, became a shattered relic as the boys
succumbed to their primal instincts.

A) "The boys' gradual transformation from well-behaved schoolboys to

bloodthirsty hunters revealed the fragility of civilization." B) "As the days on
the island stretched into weeks, the boys' civilized behavior deteriorated, giving
way to chaos and brutality." C) "The boys' encounters with mythical creatures
and gods showcased their remarkable intelligence and adaptability." D) "The
island, once a pristine paradise, bore witness to the boys' destructive actions as
they abandoned reason and embraced brutality."

Passage 17: "The Odyssey" by Homer

In "The Odyssey," Odysseus faces numerous challenges on his journey home.

Read the following passage from the epic poem and choose the sentence that
most effectively portrays Odysseus's intelligence and cunning:

Passage: Odysseus's encounters with mythical creatures and gods showcased his
remarkable intelligence and adaptability. His decision to use the Trojan Horse to
enter Troy demonstrated his strategic brilliance and cunning.

A) "Odysseus's clever strategies and resourcefulness allowed him to outwit the

Cyclops and escape its cave." B) "Odysseus's encounters with mythical
creatures and gods showcased his remarkable intelligence and adaptability." C)
"Odysseus's reputation as a master tactician and strategist proved crucial in
overcoming the obstacles on his journey." D) "Odysseus's decision to use the
Trojan Horse to enter Troy demonstrated his strategic brilliance and cunning."

Passage 18: "Great Expectations" by Charles Dickens

In "Great Expectations," the character of Pip undergoes a transformation from a

humble orphan to a gentleman. Read the following passage from the novel and
choose the sentence that best illustrates Pip's inner conflicts and his desire for
social advancement:

Passage: Pip's yearning for social status and his guilt over his humble
beginnings created inner turmoil. His interactions with the enigmatic Miss
Havisham and the mysterious Estella fueled his aspirations.

A) "Pip's yearning for social status and his guilt over his humble beginnings
created inner turmoil." B) "Pip's interactions with the enigmatic Miss Havisham
and the mysterious Estella fueled his aspirations." C) "Pip's struggles with his
own identity and his ambivalence towards his benefactor's expectations were at
the heart of his journey." D) "Pip's journey from the marshes to London
reflected his ambition to rise above his lowly origins and become a gentleman."

Passage 19: "The Scarlet Letter" by Nathaniel Hawthorne

In "The Scarlet Letter," Hester Prynne bears the burden of a scarlet letter as a
symbol of her sin. Read the following passage from the novel and choose the
sentence that most effectively conveys the symbolism and impact of the scarlet
letter:

Passage: Hester's scarlet letter, emblazoned on her chest, served as a constant

reminder of her past transgressions. The townspeople's judgmental stares and
harsh whispers underscored the weight of Hester's scarlet letter.

A) "Hester's scarlet letter, emblazoned on her chest, served as a constant

reminder of her past transgressions." B) "The townspeople's judgmental stares
and harsh whispers underscored the weight of Hester's scarlet letter." C)
"Hester's daughter, Pearl, was fascinated by the scarlet letter, unaware of its
significance and the shame it represented." D) "The scarlet letter, a symbol of
Hester's defiance and resilience, became a source of strength and redemption."

Passage 20: "The Brothers Karamazov" by Fyodor Dostoevsky

In "The Brothers Karamazov," the novel explores the complex dynamics

between the Karamazov brothers and their father. Read the following passage
from the novel and choose the sentence that most effectively conveys the
themes of family conflict and moral dilemmas:

Passage: The Karamazov family's tumultuous relationships and moral conflicts

were at the heart of the novel's narrative. The enigmatic Fyodor Pavlovich
Karamazov's actions and manipulations sowed discord among his sons.

A) "The Karamazov family's tumultuous relationships and moral conflicts were

at the heart of the novel's narrative." B) "The enigmatic Fyodor Pavlovich
Karamazov's actions and manipulations sowed discord among his sons." C)
"The philosophical debates and ethical quandaries that the brothers faced
underscored the novel's exploration of morality." D) "The brothers' struggles
with their father's legacy and their own moral choices provided a profound
examination of human nature."

its answer key

ChatGPT
Certainly, here are the answer keys for the literary evidence questions with
longer passages:

Passage 11: "Jane Eyre" by Charlotte Brontë Answer: B) "Throughout her

life, Jane remained unwavering in her quest for independence."
Passage 12: "The Hobbit" by J.R.R. Tolkien Answer: D) "Bilbo's decision to
confront the dragon Smaug showcased his transformation from a timid hobbit to
a heroic figure."

Passage 13: "The Grapes of Wrath" by John Steinbeck Answer: A) "The

Joad family's journey was marked by poverty, hunger, and the constant search
for work."

Passage 14: "The Catcher in the Rye" by J.D. Salinger Answer: C)

"Holden's inner turmoil and search for authenticity made him an outsider in a
world he found insincere."

Passage 15: "One Hundred Years of Solitude" by Gabriel García Márquez

Answer: A) "The town of Macondo was enveloped in a surreal atmosphere,
where the impossible and the mundane coexisted."

Passage 16: "The Lord of the Flies" by William Golding Answer: B) "As the
days on the island stretched into weeks, the boys' civilized behavior
deteriorated, giving way to chaos and brutality."

Passage 17: "The Odyssey" by Homer Answer: A) "Odysseus's clever

strategies and resourcefulness allowed him to outwit the Cyclops and escape its
cave."

Passage 18: "Great Expectations" by Charles Dickens Answer: A) "Pip's

yearning for social status and his guilt over his humble beginnings created inner
turmoil."

Passage 19: "The Scarlet Letter" by Nathaniel Hawthorne Answer: A)

"Hester's scarlet letter, emblazoned on her chest, served as a constant reminder
of her past transgressions."

Passage 20: "The Brothers Karamazov" by Fyodor Dostoevsky Answer: A)

"The Karamazov family's tumultuous relationships and moral conflicts were at
the heart of the novel's narrative."

The Test Will Now Adapt to You

The online SAT will be whittled down from its current three sections (Reading,
Writing and Language, and Math) to two: Reading and Writing is the first while
Math is the second. Each section will be further divided into two parts,
called modules.
You’ll answer questions in the first module before moving on to the second.
But the questions in the second module will change for each test taker
depending on how they performed on the first module.

Thanks to this new adaptive format, the digital SAT will be more tailored to your
individual needs and improve how precisely the exam assesses your skills.
Are there shorter options for a diagnostic test? We highly recommend taking a full-
length SAT as your diagnostic test to give you the most accurate results, but if you
really can’t find the time to do this, Khan Academy does offer short diagnostic
quizzes for the SAT on its website. There are four quizzes for SAT Math and four for
SAT Reading. Each quiz is ten questions long. You won’t be able to translate these
results into an estimated score for the SAT since the format is so different, but they can
be used to help you figure out which areas you need to improve the most in.

Grade your diagnostic test (all official practice tests include instructions on how
to do this), then think about the following questions.

How Far Are You From Your Goal Score?

This is the key question. How far are your diagnostic test results from your
SAT goal score?
If you’re close to your target score, great! You may not have to do much studying
beyond some quick review and taking a few more practice tests.

If you’re farther from your SAT goal score, you’ll probably have to put some
more time in, but that’s why you took the diagnostic test, to figure this out early
so you have plenty of time to develop an SAT study plan. Keep reading for tips
on how to figure out exactly where you can improve and what you can do to
raise your score.

Which Sections Did You Struggle the Most With?

Now, look at each of your section scores. How do they compare to one another?
Is your Reading score pretty good but your Math score far from where you want
it to be? Then you know to focus more of your study time on math.

Students often divide their study time equally between each of the SAT sections
or read entire prep books all the way through to make sure they’re learning
everything they can. However, if your section scores vary widely, this isn’t the
most efficient use of your time. You want to concentrate more on the
section(s) where you need to make the biggest improvement. That’s the way
to raise your score a significant amount.

Which Question Types Did You Struggle the Most With?

Now go one step further. If you’re unhappy with your Math score, look more
closely at which types of questions you answered incorrectly. Did you ace the
algebra questions but struggle with geometry? Did the grid-in questions throw
you for a loop?

The more detailed your analysis is, the more it’ll help you develop a study
plan that effectively targets your weaknesses and helps you raise your
score. To help you with this, here are guides that explain every type of question
you’ll see on SAT Math, Reading, and Writing. They’ll help you categorize the
questions and figure out which ones you’re missing.

Did You Run Out of Time on the Exam?

Finally, did you struggle with the time limits on the SAT? Did you run out of time
on any of the sections? Do you feel like you could have gotten a higher score if
you’d had more time? The SAT expects you to answer a lot of questions in a
short amount of time, and many students struggle with completing the test
within the time limits.

If you feel you knew most of the information being tested but simply didn’t have
the time to answer all the questions completely, working on your timing skills
will be key to improving your score. We explain how to do this in the next
section.

What Is the Best Way to Go Over Questions You Got Wrong?

After you looked at the overall patterns in your diagnostic score results, it’s time
for a more detailed analysis. To do this, you should go through every
question you answered incorrectly and figure out why you got it wrong.

This may seem time-consuming and boring, but don’t be tempted to skip it!
Going over the answers you got wrong is the absolute best way to understand
where you’re making mistakes and what you can do to correct them. Otherwise
you’ll just keep repeating those same mistakes and not make improvements.

For each question you answered incorrectly on your diagnostic, think about why
you got it wrong. There are generally four reasons people make mistakes on
exams:

• Time Issue: You were pressed for time.

• Question Comprehension Issue: You had the knowledge to get the right
answer, but the question was too complicated, you weren’t exactly sure
what was being asked, or you were tricked by the question.

• Procedural/Content Issue: You didn’t know how to solve a question, or

you didn’t have the background knowledge needed to answer the
question.

• Careless Error: Often the most frustrating mistake, this is when you knew
exactly how to get the right answer, but you made a silly mistake that
caused you to choose the wrong answer.

Time Issues

To figure out if you have time management issues, take a timed practice test
(under realistic conditions). If you run out of time to answer all of the questions,
continue answering questions, but mark the questions for which you needed the
extra time.

How many questions did you get right with the extra time, compared to the
number of questions you answered correctly within the official time limits? If
your scaled scores differ by more than either 50 points on any section of the
SAT, then you have a time management problem.

We have guides specifically on how to stop running out of time on SAT Math
and SAT Reading, but below are a few key tips for helping you manage your time
on the SAT better.

• Know how long you have for each question: Having an idea of how long
to spend on each question will help you plan out your time better and
make it easier to stay on track.

• Move on if you're stuck on a question: If you’ve stared at a question for

60 seconds and have no idea how to solve it, skip it and move on.

• Practice, practice, practice: There’s a reason we keep encouraging you

to take practice tests; they’re one of the best ways to get faster on the
SAT. When you take practice SATs, you become more familiar with the
exam and get a better idea of how long you can spend on each question,
both of which help with your time management skills.

Question Comprehension Issue

This issue is especially common with people who read questions quickly in
hopes of saving time. Even though you’ll be pressed for time on the
SAT, spending an extra few seconds to figure out exactly what a question is
asking you is well worth your time.

Many students underline key parts of a question to make sure they’re not
missing any important information when they read it. It may also help you to
write out the info a question gives you in a simpler form to help you understand
it. This can be especially helpful with math questions that dump a lot of info on
you in the question.

Procedural/Comprehension Issue
Both of these issues can be solved by building up your knowledge of what the
SAT tests and how it tests it. For procedural problems, the best way to improve
is to answer lot of practice questions so you become familiar with what SAT
questions look like and the ways they ask information. Prep books can also give
you insight into how to solve questions.

For comprehension issues, you can brush up on the content the SAT tests by
using class notes, textbooks on the material, an SAT prep book or a complete
prep program like PrepScholar.

Careless Error

The best way to overcome careless errors is to stop and think about why
you’re making them. Were you pressed for time? Then improving your time
management skills will help. Did you get tripped up by one of the SAT’s common
tricks, like only solving for x when you were supposed to give the answer for 3x?
Then taking more practice tests will help you identify these tricks more
easily. Leaving yourself a few minutes at the end of each section to go over your
answers can also help you avoid careless mistakes.

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PSAT8/9
PSAT10
SAT
The Difference Between the SAT and the PSAT: Names

What Does “SAT” Stand For?

Today, “SAT” has no meaning as an acronym. The SAT acronym originally stood for
“Scholastic Aptitude Test” but as the test evolved the acronym’s meaning was
dropped.

What Does “PSAT” Stand For?

“PSAT” stands for “Preliminary SAT” but has no meaning on its own as there is no
single test, but rather three PSAT-related assessments: the PSAT 8/9, PSAT 10, and
PSAT/NMSQT (Preliminary SAT/National Merit Scholarship Qualifying Test).

When Is the SAT Administered?

The SAT is administered nationally seven times a year, in August, October,
November, December, March, May, and June. There are also school day
administrations in the fall and spring for participating schools.

See upcoming SAT test dates, which include anticipated test dates and
SAT registration deadlines.

When Is the PSAT/NMSQT Administered?

Unlike the other PSAT-related assessments, the PSAT/NMSQT is administered
nationally on the same dates.

The primary test day for the PSAT/NMSQT is in mid-October, with an additional
Saturday date and alternate test date a bit later.