CSIR UGC NET Earth Science Exam - English-4
CSIR UGC NET Earth Science Exam - English-4
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CSIR UGC NET Earth Science Exam - English-4
Paper Questions
SUBJECT: Part A
Question 1 : A shopkeeper sells a file and a notebook for Rs 27 to the first customer, a notebook
and a pen for Rs 31 to the second customer and a pen and file for Rs 29 to the third customer. The
prices of the items are rounded in rupees. Which one of the following inferences is correct?
(A)
(C)
(D) The shopkeeper sold the different items to different customers at different rates.
SUBJECT: Part B
Question 2 : Which one of the following agents is capable of transporting sediments opposite to the
prevailing slope?
(A)
Rivers
(B) Glaciers
(C)
Wind
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Question 3 : The production of organic acids accelerates leaching in the soil horizon:
(A)
(B) A
(C)
(D) B
(A)
(C)
Question 5 : Which one of the following represents the correct increasing order of abundance in the
Earth’s crust?
(A)
O – Si – Al
(B) Si – O – Al
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(C)
Al – Si – O
(D) O – Al – Si
SUBJECT: Part C
Question 6 : Which of the following rocks produces maximum volume of oil during maturation?
(A)
Fossiliferous limestone
(B) Marl
(C)
Black shale
(D)
Sapropelic coal
Question 7 : The following two columns list marine microfossils and their paleoceanographic
setting:
(A)
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(B)
(D)
Question 8 : The table below lists stratigraphic units and economic deposits within them
(A)
(a)
(B) (b)
(C)
(c)
(D) (d)
Question 9 : A man sells three articles A, B, C and gains 10% on A, 20% on B and loses 10% on C.
He breaks even when combines selling prices of A and C are considered, whereas he gains 5% when
combined selling prices of B and C are considered. What is his net loss or gain on the sale of all the
articles?
(A)
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10% gain
(B)
20% gain
Question 10 : Based on the distribution of surface area of the Earth at different elevations and depths
(with reference to sea-level) shown in the figure, which of the following is FALSE?
(A)
(B) Of the surface area above sea-level, larger proportion lies below 2 km elevation
(C)
Of the surface area below sea-level, smaller proportion lies below 4 km depth
(D) Distance from sea level to the maximum depth is greater than that to the maximum elevation
(A)
Dissolved load
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(C)
Saltation load
(A)
In glaciated regions
(C)
(A)
(C)
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Question 14 : Which is the correct order of abundance of H2O?
(A)
(C)
Question 15 : The following reaction was inferred on study of metamorphic rock that was subjected
to 0.6 GPa pressure:
(A) X caco3
(B) Xsio2
(C) Xco2
(D) Xcasio3
Question 16 : Suppose an ore of Cu contains 20% chalcopyrite by mass. What is the minium
tonnage of the ore desirable if at least 1000 tons of Cu needs to be extracted? (Atomic mass: Cu =
63.55, Fe = 55.85, S = 32.06)
(A)
2724
(B) 3301
(C)
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11917
(D)
14439
Question 17 : Circum-Pacific epithermal gold deposits are associated with I-type granitic magmas
that contain:
(A)
(C)
Question 18 : Without changing the radius if the density of the planet is doubled, then what effect
will it have on the ‘g’ of the planet ?
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Question 19 : A frog hops and lands exactly 1 meter away at a time. What is the least number of
hops required to reach a point 10 cm away?
(A)
(B) 2
(C)
(A)
(C)
(A)
Viscous deformation
(B)
Ductile deformation
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(C) Semi-brittle deformation
(D)
Brittle deformation
(A)
Gabbro is denser than granodiorite but has much higher shear modulus
(B)
Granodiorite is denser than Gabbro but has much higher shear modulus
(C) Granodiorite is lighter than Gabbro but has higher shear modulus
(D)
Granodiorite and Gabbro have similar densities but gabbro has higher shear modulus
Question 23 : Which one of the following cannot be related to the end of subduction and initiation of
continent- continent collision?
(A)
(C)
(D) Increase in the rate of erosion and weathering at the convergent boundary
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Question 24 : Second boiling, which is important for certain types of ore deposits, refers to
(A)
(C)
Question 25 :
In the given isobaric phase diagram of two component system of Albite-Anorthite, points a and b
respectively represent
(A)
(C)
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Question 26 : It is observed that high pressure (HP) and ultra high pressure (UHP) metamorphism is
generally younger and in mostly post-Archean times.Which of the following could be the most likely
reason for this?
(A)
(B)
Bulk composition of the crustal rocks did not evolve in the Archean and older times to give rise to
HP & UHP mineral assemblages
(C) Metamorphic reactions were too slow in the HP & UHP regime to complete the metamorphism
(D)
Question 27 : There is an inner circle and an outer circle around a square. What is the ratio of the
(A)
(B) 2
(C) 2
(D)
Question 28 : The base diameter of a glass is 20% smaller than the diameter at the rim. The glass is
filled to half the height. The ratio of empty to filled volume of the glass is:
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(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Question 29 : Mg2SiO4 is crystallizing from a magma containing 30% MgO and 70% SiO2. Which
of the following diagrams correctly displays the direction (arrow) of changes in the residual melt
composition?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Question 30 : Some minerals form solid solutions between different chemical components. This is
because solid solutions, relative to mechanical mixture of the components, have:
(A)
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(B) Lower free energy
(C)
(D)
Question 31 : Which of the following sets represents mechanical layering of the Earth from the
surface to the centre?
(A)
(C)
Question 32 : Choose the correct option based on the following two statements:
(a)34 32
S/ S ratio in co-existing sulphide minerals in equilibrium with a common sulphide reservoir can
be sued as a geothermometer
(b)The fractionation factor of 34S/32S in co-existing phases depends on pressure.
(A)
(C)
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(D) Both (a) and (b) are correct
Question 33 : Average yield of a product in different years is shown in the histogram. If the vertical
bars indicate variability during the year, then during which year was the percent variability over the
average of that year the least?
(A)
2000
(B) 2003
(C)
2002
(D) 2001
Question 34 : From a group of 40 players, a cricket team of 11 players is chosen. Then, one of the
eleven is chosen as the captain of the team. The total number of ways this can be done is
below means the number of ways n objects can be chosen from m objects
(A)
(B) 11
(C) 29
(D)
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Question 35 : The global annual mean temperature in the Cretaceous was
(A)
(C)
Question 36 : Roughly 11000 years from now, when the Earth will be at perihelion, there will be
(A)
(C)
(D) No change in climate from today in both northern and southern hemisphere
Question 37 : Atmosphere of planet Mars is almost entirely made up of CO2. But the surface
temperature of Mars is less than that of the Earth because:
(A)
CO2 does not act as a greenhouse gas in the absence of other gases
(C)
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Of absence of volcanic activity
Question 38 : If the average density of rocks in the crust is 2750 kgm-3 and the value of ‘g’
(acceleration due to gravity) is 10ms-2, then what is the value of lithostatic stress at a depth of 35 km
in the crust?
(A)
962.5 MPa
(B)
96.25 MPa
(C)
9.625 MPa
(D)
9625.0 MPa
Question 39 : Following four figures show map views of transform faults. Which two of the four
(A) 1 and 4
(B)
1 and 3
(C) 2 and 3
(D)
2 and 4
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Question 40 : Three volumes of a Hindi book, identical in shape and size, are next to each other in a
shelf, all upright, so that their spines are visible, left to right: I, II and III. A worm starts eating from
the outside front cover of volume I, and eats its way horizontally to the outside back cover of volume
III. What is the distance travelled by the worm, if each volume is 6 cm thick?
(A)
6 cm
(B) 12 cm
(C)
18 cm
Question 41 : Gondwana coals of India, as compared to coals from other parts of the world, are
richer in
(A)
Fixed carbon
(B) Sulfur
(C)
Iron
(D) Aluminum
Question 42 : The interval between successive high tides at any given place on the Earth is
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(A)
6 hours
(C)
12 hours
Question 43 : The climatic conditions under which chemical weathering would be most rapid are:
(A)
(C)
Question 44 : In a set of parallel fractures, the hydraulic conductivity of a single fracture is ‘k’,
fracture porosity if ‘Ï•f’, and fracture width is What will be the hydraulic conductivity of parallel
features?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
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Question 45 : Choose the correct crystal symmetry represented by the stereogram shown below.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D) 3 mm
Question 46 : The area of the triangle formed by joining the points (2017, 2017), (2027, 2027) and
(2037, 2017) is
(A) 2017
(B) 100
(C)
(D)
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(B) Son-in-law is the only possibility
(A) Subduction
(A) rapid physical weathering at the corners than at the smooth faces
(B) rapid chemical weathering at the corners than at the smooth faces
Question 50 : Mass wasting wherein a mass of rock or weathered debris moves downhill along a
curved shear surface is defined as :
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(C) Lahar
Question 51 : Concentration of La and Co, measured in olivine (Ol) phenocryst and ground mass
(gm) of a picritic basalt, are :
Laol = 10 ppb; Lagm = 2 ppm
Cool = 4 ppm; Cogm = 2 ppm
Given the above information which of the following statements on the mineral-melt partitioning
behaviour of La and Co is correct ? (Kd is partition coefficient) :
Question 52 : The diagram below shows a schematic of a river system with its tributaries (I & II)
and distributaries (III & IV). It also shows the amount of water carried by them in percentage of the
total. If the concentrations of Ca in I and II are 40 ppm and 60 ppm, respectively then which of the
following statements about the concentration of Ca is correct ? (Ca concentrations at A, B and C are,
respectively, CaA, CaB and CaC) .
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(C) CaA > CaB < CaC
Question 53 : The average age of A, B and C, whoseages are integers x, y and z respectively
(x < y <​ 2), is 30. If the age of B is exactly 5 more than that of A, what is the minimum possible
value of z ?
(A) 31
(B) 33
(C) 35
(D) 37
Question 55 : Assuming that two atoms of a radioactive isotope with a half-life of 2 hours can be
isolated, which of the following statements is CORRECT ?
(B) Both these atoms would definitely decay into their daughter isotopes in 2 hours
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(C) Half of each of these atoms would decay in 1 hour
(A) 0.5
(B) 1.0
(C) 1.5
(D) 2.0
Question 57 :
Which one of the following pairs of points represents principal planes of stress ellipse in the above
figure ?
(A) A and B
(B) C and D
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(C) E and F
(D) G and H
Question 58 : If are the principal stresses, then which one of the following
represents a uniaxial state of stress ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Question 59 : A ball rotates at a rate r revolves per second and simultianeously revolves around a
stationary point O at a rate R revolution per second (R < r). The ratation and revolution are in the
same sense. A certain point on the ball is the line of the centre of the ball and point O at a certain
time. This configuration repeats after a time .
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
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Question 60 : Which one of the following minerals is a good conductor of electricity, besides being
strongly magnetic ?
(A) Pyrite
(B) Pyrrhotite
(C) Cuprite
(D) Sphalerite
(B) Increases with increase in focal depth and decrease with decrease in epicentral distance
(C) Increases with decrease in focal depth and increases with increases in epicentral distance
Question 62 : If the Sun loses some of its mass, its distance to the Earth remaining the same, the
year on the Earth would have :
(A) More number of days, the day being shorter than the present
(B) Less number of days the being longer than the present
(C) More number of days,the day being of the same lenght as the present
(D) Less number of days, the day being of the same length as the present
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(A) Arkose
(C) Greywacke
(D) Sub-arkose
(A) Only A
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(B) Only B
(C) Only C
Question 66 : The microwave region of the electromagnetic spectrum is mostly absorbed by which
of the following components of the atmosphere ?
(B) O2 only
Question 68 : Which one of the following statements is NOT true for Chondrites ?
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(C) Subdivided into carbonaceous (C), Ordinary (0), and Enstatite (E)
(D) Come from a parent body which has been fractionated since its aggregation early in the history
of the solar system
Question 69 : If U and W are the gravity and magnetic potentials, respectively, due to a mass
distribution magnetized uniformly in the direction, f then :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Question 70 :
Above is a schematic plot of the reaction of chlorite solid solution with quartz to form garnet solid
solution. In case of Rayleigh fractionation during the growth of successive zones in a garnet, which
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one of the following diagrams correctly depicts the concentration profile of Mn in garnet given the
initial composition x ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
​
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Question 72 : In the Earth's interior, the increase of P-wave velocity at 670 km discontinuity is
caused by phase transition from :
Question 73 : Which of the following minerals exhibit maximum number of cleavage planes ?
(A) Calcite
(B) Galena
(C) Fluorite
(D) Sphalerite
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(C) Both 'A' and 'B' are examples of thermom - eters
Question 75 : Which one of the following textures explicitly form during decompression stage of a
metamorphic P-T path ?
Question 1 :
Correct Answer:D
Question 2 :
Correct Answer:C
Question 3 :
Correct Answer:C
Question 4 :
Correct Answer:B
Question 5 :
Correct Answer:C
Question 6 :
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Correct Answer:D
Question 7 :
Correct Answer:B
Question 8 :
Correct Answer:B
Question 9 :
Correct Answer:D
Question 10 :
Correct Answer:C
Question 11 :
Correct Answer:A
Question 12 :
Correct Answer:B
Question 13 :
Correct Answer:C
Question 14 :
Correct Answer:B
Question 15 :
Correct Answer:C
Question 16 :
Correct Answer:D
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Question 17 :
Correct Answer:A
Question 18 :
Correct Answer:D
Question 19 :
Correct Answer:B
Question 20 :
Correct Answer:C
Question 21 :
Correct Answer:D
Question 22 :
Correct Answer:A
Question 23 :
Correct Answer:D
Question 24 :
Correct Answer:B
Question 25 :
Correct Answer:B
Question 26 :
Correct Answer:A
Question 27 :
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Correct Answer:B
Question 28 :
Correct Answer:D
Question 29 :
Correct Answer:C
Question 30 :
Correct Answer:B
Question 31 :
Correct Answer:C
Question 32 :
Correct Answer:B
Question 33 :
Correct Answer:D
Question 34 :
Correct Answer:B
Question 35 :
Correct Answer:C
Question 36 :
Correct Answer:A
Question 37 :
Correct Answer:D
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Question 38 :
Correct Answer:A
Question 39 :
Correct Answer:C
Question 40 :
Correct Answer:A
Question 41 :
Correct Answer:B
Question 42 :
Correct Answer:D
Question 43 :
Correct Answer:B
Question 44 :
Correct Answer:C
Question 45 :
Correct Answer:B
Question 46 :
Correct Answer:B
Question 47 :
Correct Answer:D
Question 48 :
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Correct Answer:C
Question 49 :
Correct Answer:B
Question 50 :
Correct Answer:A
Question 51 :
Correct Answer:A
Question 52 :
Correct Answer:A
Question 53 :
Correct Answer:B
Question 54 :
Correct Answer:B
Question 55 :
Correct Answer:D
Question 56 :
Correct Answer:B
Question 57 :
Correct Answer:D
Question 58 :
Correct Answer:C
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Question 59 :
Correct Answer:A
Question 60 :
Correct Answer:B
Question 61 :
Correct Answer:D
Question 62 :
Correct Answer:C
Question 63 :
Correct Answer:B
Question 64 :
Correct Answer:A
Question 65 :
Correct Answer:D
Question 66 :
Correct Answer:C
Question 67 :
Correct Answer:C
Question 68 :
Correct Answer:D
Question 69 :
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Correct Answer:B
Question 70 :
Correct Answer:A
Question 71 :
Correct Answer:D
Question 72 :
Correct Answer:B
Question 73 :
Correct Answer:D
Question 74 :
Correct Answer:B
Question 75 :
Correct Answer:A
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