ANALYZING and INTERPRETING LITERATURE, LITERARY CRITICISM, TEACHING LITERATURE,

STYLISTICS

Questions 1-5 are based on the following poem.

She dwelt among the untrodden ways

Beside the springs of Dove,
A maid whom there were none to praise
And very few to love:
A violet by a mossy stone
Half hidden from the eye!
Fair as a star, when only one
Is shining in the sky.
She lived unknown, and few could know
When Lucy ceased to be;
But she is in her grave, and oh,
The difference to me!
-William Wordsworth, She Dwelt Among The Untrodden Ways

1. Using the Romantic Theory, the similitude and dissimilitude in this poem is _____.
A. beauty in isolation C. abundance in poverty
B. humility in pride D. enjoyment in despair

2. The use of the imagination is evident in the poem through the employment simply of _____.
A. synecdoche and metonymy C. allusion and litotes
B. personification and hyperbole D. simile and metaphor

3. The romantic theorists will like the poem because _____.

A. the subject matter is relatively simple, straightforward language
B. it emphasizes the importance of nature as a whole
C. it illustrates the important lesson in life
D. the use of literary devices in the poem is very interesting

4. Based from the poem, a reader can infer that Romantic poets such Wordsworth sees
A. the city is more romantic than the country
B. the city is a place of vice and other worldly things
C. the country is a place of virtue
D. the country is the most ideal since it is near the nature

5. Which stanza implies that Lucy is an interesting woman?

A. 1 C. 3
B. 2 4. None above

Questions 6-16 are based on the following poem.

When I consider how my light is spent,

Ere half my days in this dark world and wide,
And that one talent which is death to hide
Lodged with me useless, though my soul more bent
5 To serve therewith my Maker, and present
My true account, lest He returning chide;
“Doth God exact day-labor, light denied?”
I fondly ask. But Patience, to prevent
That murmur, soon replies, “God doth not need
10 Either man’s work or His own gifts. Who best
Bear His mild yoke, they serve Him best. His state
Is kingly: thousands at His bidding speed,
And post o’er land and ocean without rest;
They also serve who only stand and wait.”
-John Milton, When I Consider How My Light Is Spent

6. What type of sonnet is illustrated in Milton’s poem?

A. Elizabethan C. English
B. Petrarchan D. Spenserian

7. Line 9 contains a change in which of the elements?

A. meter C. end rhyme E. imagery
B. consonance D. mode

8. The phrase “my light is spent” (line 1), as used by the speaker, means which of these concepts?
I. lack of understanding
II. the poet’s blindness
III. personal tragedy

A. I only C. III only E. I, II, and III

B. II only D. I and II only

9. The central theme of the poem is that _____.

A. to serve God is to be obedient in all circumstances
B. physical handicaps can limit service to God
C. the best service to God is to stand and wait
D. blindness has robbed the speaker of being able to serve God
 E. the speaker is among thousands who serve God

10. The indirect reference in line 3 to the “Parable of the Talents” in the Bible, in which the servant who buries
his talent is cast into “outer darkness,” is an example _____.
A. ambiguity C. stock response E. allusion
B. archaism D. paratactic style

Scepter and crown

Must tumble down,
And in the dust be equal made
With the poor crooked scythe and spade.
-The Glories of Our Blood and State, James Shirley

11. What figure of speech is used in the poem?

A. allusion C. antithesis E. litotes
B. metonymy D. euphemism

Play who that can that part:

Needs must in me appear
How fortune, overthwart,
Doth cause my mourning cheer.

12. What figure of speech is used in the poem?

A. personification C. oxymoron E. metonymy
B. apostrophe D. alliteration

13. The following are correctly matched EXCEPT _____.

A. He’s so ugly he’s cute! – irony
B. The men are braver, the sky is bluer, the steaks are bigger, and the women are prettier than anywhere else in the world. –
hyperbole
C. cold fires – oxymoron
D. passing away – euphemism
E. All hands to the dock! – synecdoche

Love in my bosom like a bee

Doth suck his sweet;
Now with his wings he plays with me,
Now with his feet.
Within mine eyes he makes his nest,
His bed amidst my tender breast;
My kisses are his daily feast,
And yet he robs me of my rest.
Ah, wonton, will ye?
-Thomas Lodge, Love in My Bosom

14. The simile in this poem makes love seem _____.

A. dangerous C. delightful E. burdensome
B. annoying D. thrilling

Beauty is but a flower

Which wrinkles will devour;
Brightness falls from the air,
Queens have died young and fair,
Dust hath closed Helen’s eye.
I am sick, I must die.
Lord, have mercy on us.
-Thomas Nashe, Adieu, Farewell Earth’s Bliss

15. “A flower” in line 1 relates to _____.

A. time C. personality E. royalty
B. love D. appearance

For age with stealing steps

Hath clawed me with his crutch,
And lusty life away she leaps
As there had been none such.
-Lord Thomas Vaux, The Aged Lover Renounceth Love

16. “Lusty life” as a characteristic in lines 3-4, of the poem seems _____.
A. uncaring C. athletic E. deceptive
B. happy D. illusion

Act V Scene V

MARCUS BRUTUS:
Hence! I will follow.
I prithee, Strato, stay thou by the lord:
Thou art a fellow of a good respect;
Thy life hath had some smatch of honour in it:
Hold, then, my sword, and turn away thy face,
While I do run upon it. Wilt thou, Strato?

STRATO: Give me your hand first: fare you well, my lord.

 MARCUS BRUTUS:
Farewell, good Strato. – Caesar, now be still:
I kill’d not thee with half so good a will.
(He runs on his sword, and dies)
-Shakespeare’s “The Tragedy of Julius Caesar”

17. The last words of Marcus Brutus before his suicide are structurally dramatized through the use of _____.
A. heroic couplet C. direct address
B. archaic words D. melodrama
E. name-dropping

What is there in a pair of pink cheeks and blue eyes forsooth? These dear Moralists ask, and hint wisely that the gifts
of genius, the accomplishments of the mind, …and so forth, are far more valuable endowments for a female, than those fugitive
charms which a few years will inevitably tarnish. It is quite edifying to hear women speculate upon the worthlessness and the
duration of beauty.

But through virtue is a much finer thing, and those hapless creatures who suffer the misfortune of good looks ought to
be continually put in mind of the fate which awaits them. -Thackeray’s Vanity Fair

18. The organizational pattern used by the narrator to make his main point is best described as _____.
A. cause and effect C. process analysis
B. definition D. analysis and classification
E. comparison and contrast
2nd stanza
O well for the fisherman’s boy,
That he shouts with his sister at play!
O well for the sailor lad,
That he sings in his boat on the bay!
4th (last) stanza
Break, break, break
At the foot of thy crags, O Sea!
But the tender grace of a day that is dead
Will never come back to me.
-Tennyson, Break, Break, Break

19. The contrast in rhythm of the first line of the last stanza to the rhythm of the second stanza serves to _____.
A. accentuate the harshness of the speaker’s mood about his position in life
B. change the poem’s emphasis from the speaker to the sea
C. weaken the speaker’s argument
D. heighten the impact of the sea’s danger
E. reinforce that the sea represents normal life

‘Til a hound heard the sound when Raccoon left the ground.
He was trapped! He was cornered! But he wasn’t forlornered.
The hound saw a flash and his teeth he did gnash
For the prey he had treed just turned tail and fleed.
-L.E. Myers, Pity the Poor Raccoon

20. The rhymes used contribute to the poem’s _____.

A. defensive tone C. serious tone E. sentimental tone
B. comic tone D. austere tone

The curfew tolls the knell of parting day,

The lowing herd wind slowly o’er the lea,
The plowman homeward plods his weary way,
And leaves the world to darkness and to me.
-Thomas Gray’s Elegy written In A Country Churchyard

21. In the context of the poem, the emphasis is on _____.

A. curfew C. work E. nature
B. fear D. loneliness

Work, - and pure slumbers shall wait on thy pillow;

Work, - thou shalt ride o’er Care’s coming billow;
Lie not down ‘neath Woe’s weeping Willow,
Work with a stout heart and resolute will!
-Frances S. Osgood’s To Labor Is To Pray

22. How does the mood relate to the tone of these lines?
A. Use of the indicative mood creates a formal tone.
B. Use of the subjunctive mood creates a stressful tone.
C. Use of the subjunctive mood creates a wishful tone.
D. Use of the imperative mood creates an uncertain tone.
E. Use of the imperative mood creates an urgent tone.

When last I died, and dear, I die

As often as from thee I go,
Though it be but an hour ago
And Lovers’ hours be full eternity.
-John Donne’s The Legacy

23. Lines 1-4 are structured as elements of _____.

A. in antithesis C. that understate the case
B. that overstate the case D. of a narrative poem
E. of a riddle
 The stars were shining, and the leaves rustled in the woods ever so mournful; and I heard an owl, away off, who-
whooing about somebody that was dead, and a whippowill and a dog crying about somebody that was going to die; and the
wind was trying to whisper something to me, and I couldn’t make out what it was, and so it made the cold shivers run over me.
-The Adventures of Huckleberry Finn by Mark Twain
24. The style of writing employed in this passage can be best described as _____.
A. standard English C. jargon
B. formal English D. dialect

25. The author’s use of language in this passage helps to demonstrate the speaker’s ____
A. lack of intelligence C. good-heartedness
B. lack of education D. confusion

26. The author uses imagery in this section to illustrate Huck’s _____.
A. fear and loneliness C. loss of his father
B. awareness of his environment D. moral dilemma

27. Which of the following works of literature was originally written in Modern English?
A. The Decameron C. War and Peace
B. Sir Gawain and the Green Knight D. Paradise Lost

“They tell me you are wicked and I believe

them, for I have seen your painted women
under the gas lamps luring the farm boys.
-Chicago by Carl Sandburg

28. The line is an example of ____.

I. apostrophe
II. personification
III. hyperbole
IV. metonymy

A. II only C. I, II, and IV only

B. I and II only D. II and IV only

Hog Butcher for the World

Tool Maker, Stacker of Wheat,
Player with Railroads and the Nation’s
Freight Handler;
Stormy, husky, brawling,
City of the Big Shoulders:
Chicago by Carl Sandburg

29. This poem is most likely influenced by which of the following?

A. Industrialization C. Western expansion
B. Increased immigration D. World War II patriotism

30. The poetry of Walt Whitman is significant in the development of American literature primarily because he _____.
A. used the epic form to tell distinctly American tales
B. developed his own poetic form and style instead of adhering to the traditional poetic forms
C. commemorated in verse the lives of public leaders like Abraham Lincoln.
D. was heavily influenced by Emerson’s call for a new national poet.

31. Arthur Miller’s play, Death of a Salesman, has been called a “tragedy of the common man” because it _____.
A. depicts the fall from grace of an important person
B. fits Aristotle’s formal definition of tragedy
C. gives an ordinary salesman’s life weight and meaning
D. is written in a poetic and serious style

32. He holds the distinction of being the first Asian to receive the Nobel Prize for literature.
A. Wole Soyinka C. Po Chu-I
B. Yasunari Kawabata D. Rabindranath Tagore

33. Which outline correctly organizes and categorizes information pertaining to the work of William Shakespeare?
A. I. Plays
a. Tragedies
1. King Lear…
b. Histories
1. Richard III…
c. Comedies
1. Twelfth Night…
II. Poems

B. I. Plays
a. Tragedies
1. Hamlet…
b. Poems
1. My Mistress’ Eyes…
c. Comedies
1. All’s Well That Ends Well…
II. Histories

C. I. Plays
a. Tragedies
 1. Comedies
b. Histories
1. Henry V…
c. Poems
1. Not Marble Nor the Gilded Monuments…
II. The Tempest

D. I. Plays
a. Tragedies
1. Hamlet…
b. Histories
1. King Lear…
c. Comedies
1. Titus Adronicus…
II. Poems

But how was I direct myself? I knew that I must travel in a southwesterly direction to reach my destination, but the sun
was only guide. I did not know the names of the towns that I was to pass through, nor could I ask information from a single
human being; but I did not despair. From you only could I hope for succor, although towards you I felt no sentiment but that of
hatred. Unfeeling, heartless creator! You had endowed me with perceptions and passions and then cast me abroad an object
for the scorn and horror of mankind. But on you only had I any claim for pity and redress, and from you I determined to seek that
justice which I vainly attempted to gain from any other being that wore the human form. -Frankenstein by Mary Shelley

34. The narrator of this passage is _____.

A. Victor C. the monster
B. Elizabeth D. the author

35. “A part of its orb was at length hid, and I waved my brand; it sank, and with a loud scream I fired the straw,
and heath, and bushes, which I had collected.” -Frankenstein by Mary Shelley
Which of the following is a correct restatement of the above?
A. When my branding iron sank, I screamed and shot at the bushes.
B. When the moon set, I screamed and burned the cottage.
C. When I could not find the orb, I screamed and kicked at the straw and the bushes.
D. I waited until the sun set, then I screamed and set fire to the forest.

36. A Marxist interpretation of “Waiting for Godot” would probably focus on _____.
A. the poverty and despair of its working-class characters
B. the use of archetypes in the portrayals of the characters
C. the power imbalances in the relationships of the characters
D. the reliance of the two main characters on the eventual arrival of a “savior”

Although Sapphira and the Slave Girl was certainly not meant to be a political tract, the novel is sometimes considered
to be a denunciation of bygone days. Nothing could be further from the truth. In spite of her willingness to acknowledge that
particular aspects of the past were far from ideal, Willa Cather was, if anything, a bit of a romantic. Especially in the final years
of her life, an increasing note of anger about the emptiness of the present crept into her writings. Earlier generations, she
concluded, had been the real heroes, the real creators of all that was good in America. -Willa Cather, Sapphira & the Slave Girl

37. In the paragraph, “a bit of a romantic” suggests that Willa Cather ____.
A. condemned the evils of slavery
B. favored the past over the present
C. disliked writing about life in the 1030s
D. denounced certain aspects of the 19th-century life
E. exaggerated the evils of earlier generations

38. The works of Charles Dickens, Harriet Beecher Stowe, and Upton Sinclair _______.
A. examined 19th-century cultural values
B. broke with the literary traditions of the past
C. fought against the mistreatment of the working class
D. awakened readers to social wrongs

39. The writing style used by Salman Rushdie and Gabriel Garcia Marquez is most often referred to as _______.
A. Stream of Consciousness C. Social Realism
B. Magical Realism D. Minimalism

40. He is the pioneer in serial literature which is a printed format by which a single larger work, often a work of narrative fiction is
published in sequential installments.
A. Ernest Hemingway C. Charles Dickens
B. Arthur Miller D. Rudyard Kipling

Proverbs are hard to define, but one could do worse than the pithy definition offered by an 18 th-century British
statesman, Lord John Russell. A proverb, Russell is said to have remarked at breakfast, is “one man’s wit and all men’s
wisdom.” Proverbs have been identified in all the world’s spoken languages, and – unlike Lord Russell’s adage – they are
almost always anonymous. Interestingly, similar sayings seem to have developed independently in many parts of the world. For
example, the English saying, “A bird in the hand is worth two in the bush,” has counterparts in Romania, Spain, and Iceland.

41. Which of the following best expresses the author’s attitude toward Lord Russell’s definition of a proverb?
A. dismissive C. exuberant
B. skeptical D. favorable
E. loyal
The difficulties involved in the governess’s effort to create a space for herself outside of patriarchal boundaries are
metaphorically represented in her struggle for the children. While she believes she is engaged in a battle with the ghosts for the
children’s souls, she is also, symbolically, involved in overcoming patriarchal definitions of womanhood. Rejecting the ineffectual
role played by Mrs. Grose, the respectable matron character, the governess attempts to define herself against the sexualized
whose figure, Miss Jessel, as she tries, to supplant the male-authority figure, Peter Quint. Neither of these roles can help her in
her struggle for a subject position, however, as is made clear when the governess cannot replace Miss Jessel for Flora, or Quint
for Miles.

42. What literary theory or approach is shown in the following passage?

A. Feminist Criticism C. Reader-Response Criticism
B. Psychoanalytic Theory D. Romantic Theory

Not only James’s governess fit the classic profile of the female sexual hysteric, she also experiences the “hysterical fit”
observed by turn-of-the-century clinicians. That her first hallucination precipitates a “nervous explosion” of some intensity is
clear from her own account. Like that of the classic hysteric, her “mental activity...is split up, and only a part of it is conscious.”
Her initial fantasy of her handsome employer is conscious, but his transformation into a figure embodying her fear of sexuality is
generated by deep-rooted unconscious inhibitions.

43. What literary theory or approach is shown in the following passage?

A. Marxist Literary theory C. Postmodern Literary Theory
B. Psychoanalytic Theory D. Deconstruction

What is even more troublesome is disagreement among critics about just what standards are to be applied. Two
“straight” readers, seeing the ghosts as real and the story as an attempt to “turn the screws” of horror as thrillingly as possible,
might flatly disagree with each other about whether the literary experience of thrilling horror is good or bad for “us,” or for a
given immature reader, or for a former governess now incarcerated in a mental institution.
Because of all this variety, we have to ask our questions as if we were dealing not with one The Turn of the Screw but
many different ones.

44. What literary theory or approach is shown in the following passage?

A. Deconstruction C. Reader-Response Criticism
B. Psychoanalytic Theory D. Marxist Literary Theory

45. To be considered a poem, a work of literature must use which of the following?
I. Verse
II. Rhythm
III. Rhyme
IV. Metaphor

A. I and II only C. II and III only

B. I and IV only D. I only
C. II and III only

46. All of the following correctly describes the ballad, EXCEPT _____.
A. a ballad uses dialogue C. a ballad is a narrative poem
B. a ballad often rhymes a, b, c, d D. a ballad often uses learned language

47. What is the mood of these lines?

Daylight, I must wait for the sunrise

I must think of a new life
And I mustn’t give in.
When the dawn comes
Tonight will be a memory, too
And a new day will begin

A. enthusiastic C. thrilled
B. motivated D. hopeful

48. What figure of speech is used in the following lines from Carl Sandburg’s “Jazz Fantasia”?
Drum on your drums, batter on your banjos, sob
On the long cool winding saxophones.
Go to it, O jazzmen.
A. assonance C. alliteration
B. consonance D. repetition

49. Which of the following is not classified as figure of speech?

A. “Holding wonder like a cup” C. “Eyes that love you, arms that hold”
B. “Life has loneliness to sell” D. “Buy it and never count the cost”

50. The line, "Under the bludgeonings of chance, my head is bloody but unbowed“, depicts the person's _____.
a. optimism C. courage
b. confidence D. determination

51. What mood do the images of frost, night, and wild bells create?
Ring out, wild bells, to the wild sky,
The flying cloud, the frosty light;
The year is dying in the night;
Ring out, wild bells, and let him die.
- Lord Alfred Tennyson

A. doom C. happiness
B. death D. loneliness

52. What figure of speech is used in the given lines?

Fair daffodils, we weep to see
You haste away so soon;
- Robert Herrick
 A. apostrophe C. personification
B. metonymy D. synecdoche

53. The Adventures of Tom Sawyer and The Adventures of Huckleberry Finn were written by American author Samuel
Langhorne Clemens. By what name is he better known as?
A. Mark Twain C. Miguel de Cervantes
B. Ernest Hemingway D. Robinson Crusoe

54. Which of the following most accurately identifies the form of this poem?
Hog Butcher for the World
Tool Maker, Stacker of Wheat,
Player with Railroads and the Nation’s
Freight Handler;
Stormy, husky, brawling,
City of the Big Shoulders.
-Chicago by Carl Sandburg
A. blank verse C. narrative
B. ode D. free verse

55. Which of the following is NOT characteristic of a folktale?

A. Considered true among various societies C. Good versus evil
B. A hero on a quest D. Adventures of animals

56. Which of the following did NOT contribute to a separate literature genre for adolescents?
A. The social changes of post–World War II C. An interest in fantasy and science fiction
B. The Civil Rights movement D. Issues surrounding teen pregnancy

57. Which of the following is important in understanding fiction?

I. Realizing the artistry in telling a story to convey a point.
II. Knowing fiction is imaginary.
III. Seeing what is truth and what is perspective.
IV. Acknowledging the difference between opinion and truth.

A. I and II only C. III and IV only

B. II and IV only D. IV only

58. Assonance is a poetic device where:

A. The vowel sound in a word matches the same sound in a nearby word, but the surrounding consonant sounds are different.
B. The initial sounds of a word, beginning either with a consonant or a vowel, are repeated in close succession.
C. The words used evoke meaning by their sounds.
D. The final consonant sounds are the same, but the vowels are different.

59. Which of the following is true of the visible shape of poetry?

I. Forced sound repetition may underscore the meaning.
II. It was a new rule of poetry after poets began to feel constricted by rhyming conventions.
III. The shaped reflected the poem’s theme.
IV. It was viewed as a demonstration of ingenuity.

A. I and II only C. III and IV only

B. II and IV only D. IV only

60. “Reading maketh a full man, conference a ready man, and writing an exact man” is an example of which type of figurative
language?
A. Euphemism C. Parallelism
B. Bathos D. Irony

With shivering heart the strife we saw

Of passion with eternal law;
And yet with reverential awe
We watched the fount of fiery life
Which served for the Titanic strife.
-Memorial Verses, Matthew Arnold

61. What figure of speech is used in the poem?

A. synecdoche C. metonymy
B. litotes D. oxymoron
E. allusion
Leave me, O love, which reachest but to dust
And thou, my mind, aspire to higher things;
Grow rich in that which never taketh rust.
-Love Me, O Love, Sir Philip Sidney

62. What figures of speech are used in the poem?

A. litotes and anaphora C. simile and irony
B. oxymoron and paradox D. alliteration and allusion
E. euphemism and metaphor

My tale was heard and yet it was untold

My fruit is fallen and yet my leaves are green,
My youth is spent and yet I am not old,
I saw the world and yet I was not seen;
My thread is cut and yet it is not spun,
And now I live, and now my life is done.
-Elegy, Chidiock Tichborne

63. Which of the following words best summarizes the speaker’s view of his life?
 A. confused C. unfulfilled E. immutable
B. inconsequential D. imitative

Questions 64-66

It was the best of times, it was the worst of times, it was the age of wisdom, it was the age of foolishness, it was the
epoch of belief, it was the epoch of incredulity, it was the season of light, it was the season of Darkness, it was the spring of
hope, it was the winter of despair, we had everything before us, we had nothing before us, we were all going direct to heaven,
we were all going direct the other way – in short, the period was so far like the present period, that some of its noisiest
authorities insisted on its being received, for good or for evil, in the superlative degree of comparison only.

64. What figure of speech is used in the paragraph?

A. irony C. oxymoron E. hyperbole
B. paradox D. parallelism

65. In line 5, “in short” is significant because it ______.

A. marks the change in structure C. negates the speaker’s meaning
B. is a misuse of an absolute D. contrasts times and periods
E. balances two opposing elements

66. What is the effect of the change in the subject pronoun in line 4?
A. It has no real effect.
B. It emphasizes superiority of the narrator’s time.
C. It shifts the tone from impersonal to personal.
D. It affects the characterization of the narrator.
E. It diminishes the sense of connection of the times.

67. What figure of speech is used in this line from Patrick Henry?
“Suffer not yourselves to be betrayed with a kiss.”
A. allusion C. personification E. antithesis
B. irony D. metonymy

You see this gentle stream, that glides,

Shoved on, by quick-succeeding tides:
Try if this sober stream you can
-Proof to No Purpose

68. Of the literary listed below, which is used in the poem?

A. metaphor and allusion C. apostrophe and hyperbole
B. paradox and antithesis D. personification and alliteration
E. assonance and consonance

69. In a tragedy, the protagonist recognizes a fundamental error or sin, known as _____.
A. hamartia B. evil
C. harambis D. faithlessness

70. The resolution of a tragedy, which elicits pity and fear in the audience and results in a purging of those aroused emotions is
called _____.
A. falling action B. relief
C. déjà vu D. catharsis

71. Which of the following is a style of novel written as a series of records that might include letters, newspaper articles, or diary
entries?
A. Fictional diaries B. Epistolary novels
C. Stream of consciousness D. First-person narration

72. What is the name given to a pair of rhyming lines of verse that are self-contained in grammatical structure and meaning?
A. quatrain B. Sonnet C. iambic pentameter D. couplet

73. What term refers to the passage in a drama in which a character expresses his thoughts or feelings aloud while alone upon
the stage or with other actors keeping silent?
A. stream of consciousness C. oration
B. soliloquy D. speech

“The bear that breathes the northern blast

Did numb, torpedo-like, a wasp
Whose stiffened limbs encramped, lay bathing
In Sol's warm breath and shine as saving,
Which with her hands she chafes and stands
Rubbing her legs, shanks, thighs, and hands.”

74. How can Edward Taylor’s “Upon a Wasp Chilled with Cold” best be described based on the above excerpt?
A. A seasonally descriptive poem C. A romantic poem about love
B. A poem of detailed natural observation D. An epitaph to a departed loved one
E. A pastoral depiction of nature

“Her warm thanks offering for all.

Lord, clear my misted sight that I May hence view Thy divinity,
Some sparks whereof thou up dost hasp
Within this little downy wasp
In whose small corporation we
A school and a schoolmaster see”
75. How can the poem best be described based on this excerpt?
A. A devotional poem C. A ballad
B. A biographical poem D. A poem about authority
E. A poem intended to make a political statement

76. “That fearful sound of ‘Fire’ and ‘Fire!’ / Let no man know is my desire.”
This excerpt from Anne Bradstreet’s “Upon the Burning of Our House” can best be described as _____.
A. A plea for godly strength in the face of earthly distress
B. Keeping a secret in the midst of tragedy
C. Facing one’s fear alone
D. The speaker’s goal to be prepared for the day of judgment
E. A confession regarding tensions in the speaker’s home

77. The following are examples of metonymy EXCEPT _____.

A. The controversial couple are living under the same roof.
B. The Malacaňang declared full support for child-friendly campaigns.
C. Empty pocket never held anyone back. Only empty heads and empty hearts can do that.
D. This land belongs to the crown.

78. What play or dramatic structure is described in this line “The hero has won or lost; issues are resolved; order is restored”?
A. resolution C. conclusion
B. denouement D. all of the above

79. When an actor speaks directly to the audience; however, the rest of the actors on stage supposedly cannot hear him or her.
A. monologue C. soliloquy
B. aside D. parody

80. What is a “motif” in literary writing?

A. The main insight, central idea, or universal truth found in a literary work.
B. An image or idea repeated throughout a work or several works of literature.
C. The element of surprise in a work of fiction, such as a twist ending.
D. The writer style adopted by the author which is revealed in his or her word choice.

81. Which of the following best illustrates “understatement”?

A. That is wrong, Einstein. (Addressing somebody who does not know the answer)
B. I think our opinions differ slightly. (I don’t agree with you at all.)
C. I am so hungry I could eat a horse.
D. That sounds really interesting. (Said about a lame idea)

82. In stylistics, Diegesis is _____; mimesis is _____.

A. writing, speaking C. acting, mimicry
B. doing, saying D. telling, showing

83. The following are Halliday’s three functions of language (literary analysis) EXCEPT _____.
A. perceptional C. interpersonal
B. ideational D. textual

84. Which branch of stylistics studies that employs a more extensive and integrated study of language and literature which are
given as pre-literary linguistic activity?
A. Functional stylistics C. Pragmatic stylistics
B. Lexical stylistics D. Pedagogical stylistics

85. The following exemplify “litotes” EXCEPT _____.

A. It’s not unusual to Find Richard everyday at the library.
B. Defeating a chess grandmaster is no ordinary feat.
C. Einstein was not a bad mathematician.
D. Brix can hardly be seen nowadays.

Love is not taught in learning’s school

Love is not parceled out by rule;
Hath curb or call an answer got? –
So free must be Forget-me-not.
-A Bed of Forget-Me-Nots

86. The speaker’s feeling toward love is that _____.

A. Love is short-lived C. Love is unrestrained.
B. Love can be learned D. Love is weak and fragile.

Some say the world will end in fire,

Some say in ice.
From what I’ve tasted of desire
I hold with those who favor fire.
But if I had to perish twice,
I think I know enough of hate
To say that for destruction ice
Is also great
And would suffice.

87. What type of irony is exemplified in this poem from Frost?

A. Situational irony C. Cosmic irony
B. Dramatic irony D. Verbal Irony

88. What literary approach is best to use in teaching Jose Garcia Villa’s poem to Grade VII students?
A. American New Criticism C. Marxism
 B. Feminism D. Psychoanalytical

89. What important related background knowledge should a teacher take up before teaching haiku to Grade VIII students?
A. Shintoism C. Taoism
B. Hinduism D. Buddhism

90. The following periods or era would be necessary in teaching Shakespeare’s plays EXCEPT _____.
A. English Renaissance C. British colonial period
B. Elizabethan era D. Globe theater

“Come down, O maid, from yonder mountain height,

What pleasure lives in height (the shepherd sang),
In height and cold, the splendor of the hills?
But cease to move so near the heavens and cease.

91. The poem is written in _____.

A. ballad stanza
B. blank verse
C. couplets
D. forced rhyme

92. The tone of the speaker’s question in line 2 in the context of the poem is _____.
A. commanding
B. accommodating
C. compelling
D. burning

93. The speaker sees the “mountain height” in line 1 as symbolic of _____.
A. lack of love
B. happiness
C. lost love
D. overwhelming love

For West Berlin – lying exposed 110 miles inside East Germany, surrounded by Soviet troops and close to Soviet
supply lines – has many roles. It is more than a showcase of liberty, a symbol, an island of freedom in a Communist sea. It is
even more than a link with the Free World, a beacon of hope behind the Iron Curtain, an escape hatch for refugees.

94. In the paragraph, all of the following are metaphors EXCEPT ____.
A. lying exposed
B. island of freedom in a Communist sea
C. beacon of hope
D. an escape hatch for refugees

Sound, sound the clarion, fill the fife!

To all the sensual world proclaim,
One crowded hour of glorious life
Is worth an age without a name.
-Answer

95. The poem exhibits elements that are _____.

A. apologetic
B. apathetic
C. aphoristic
D. aposiopetic

96. The contrasting theme of the poem could be expressed as _____.

A. crowded…worth
B. glorious…without a name
C. sensual…world
D. worth…life

Popular, Popular, Unpopular!

“You’re no Poet’ – the critics cried!
“Why?” said the Poet. “You’re unpopular!”
Then they cried at the turn of the tide –
“You’re no Poet!” “Why?” – “You’re popular!”
Pop-gun, Popular and Unpopular!

97. What word best describes the effect of “Pop-gun” in word “popularity”?
A. dangerous
B. erratic
C. threatening
D. critical
98. The passage suggests that the speaker would describe the “account” mentioned in the first sentence as _____.
A. enlightening
B. mystifying
C. deficient
D. erroneous

99. Mrs. Fairfax differs from the speaker in that Mrs. Fairfax _____.
A. has more interest in the complexities of people’s personalities
B. judges people by their social station in life
C. is more willing to take people at face value
D. has a more positive opinion of Mr. Rochester
100. New Criticism, which was at the height of its influence in the United States from the 1940’s to the 1960’s, encouraged
readers to _____.
A. read literary texts closely for meaning, with special attention to themes, symbolism, and the use of language
B. study literature based on the appreciation of genres and read individual works comparatively within genres
C. evaluate the meaning and purpose of works based on historical context
D. focus on the nature of meaning, namely the relationship between signifiers and the signified
E. recognize how meaning is always deferred and implied only in the opposition of ideas

101. This theory is premised on the idea that literature is an imitation of life.
A. American New Criticism
B. Historical Biographical and Moral-Philosophical Approaches
C. Psychoanalytical Theory
D. Classical Literary Theory

102. This theory applies the ideas of Freudian psychology to literature.

A. American New Criticism
B. Historical Biographical and Moral-Philosophical Approaches
C. Psychoanalytical Theory
D. Classical Literary Theory

103. This theory believes that literature is an organic unity.

A. American New Criticism
B. Historical Biographical and Moral-Philosophical Approaches
C. Psychoanalytical Theory
D. Classical Literary Theory

104. This approach sees a literary work chiefly, if not exclusively, as a reflection of author’s life.
A. American New Criticism
B. Historical Biographical and Moral-Philosophical Approaches
C. Psychoanalytical Theory
D. Classical Literary Theory

105. This is a specific kind of political discourse, a critical and theoretical practice committed to the struggle against patriarchy
and sexism.
A. Postcolonial Criticism
B. Feminist Criticism
C. Russian Formalism
D. Deconstruction

106. This theory questions texts of all kinds and our common practices in reading them.
A. Postcolonial Criticism
B. Feminist Criticism
C. Russian Formalism
D. Deconstruction

107. It refers to a historical phase undergone by the Third World countries after the decline of colonialism.
A. Postcolonial Criticism
B. Feminist Criticism
C. Russian Formalism
D. Deconstruction

108. This stresses that art is artificial and that a great deal of acquired skill goes into it as opposed to the old classical maxim
that conceals its art.
A. Postcolonial Criticism
B. Feminist Criticism
C. Russian Formalism
D. Deconstruction

109. It is a term used to describe the shaping effect of carnival on literary texts.
A. Defamiliarization
B. Baring the Device
C. Naturalization
D. Carnivalization

110. This refers to the presentation of the devices without any realistic motivation.
A. Defamiliarization
B. Baring the Device
C. Naturalization
D. Carnivalization

111. It refers to how we endlessly become inventive in finding ways in making sense of the most random or chaotic utterances
or discourse.
A. Defamiliarization
B. Baring the Device
C. Naturalization
D. Carnivalization

ENGLISH LITERATURE

1. What is the rhyme scheme or sound pattern of these poetic lines?

How do I love thee? Let me count the ways.

I love thee to the depth and breadth and height.
-Sonnets from the Portuguese (Sonnet 43), Elizabeth Browning
 A. anapestic hexameter C. trochaic pentameter
B. iambic pentameter D. spondaic tetrameter

2. Analyzing the lines of the sonnet, “thee” refers to _____.

A. the Little Portuguese C. Elizabeth’s husband-to-be
B. Elizabeth’s dead brother D. the sonneteer’s mother

3. The repetition of the poetic unit “I love the” at the beginning of the lines is an evidence of _____.

I love thee to the depth and breadth and height. 2

I love the to the level of everyday’s 5
I love thee freely, as men strive for right; 7
I love thee purely, as they turn from praise. 8
I love thee with a passion put to use 9
I love thee with a love I seemed to lose. 11
-Sonnets from the Portuguese (Sonnet 43), Elizabeth Browning

A. the use of anaphora C. the repetition of phrases

B. the use of anastrophe D. the omission of rhythmic pattern

4. Which of this portrays a development of love and relationship between the poet or poetess and his or her partner?
A. Wordsworth’s She Was a Phantom of Delight C. Jane Austen’s Pride and Prejudice
B. Browning’s Sonnets from a Portuguese D. Both A and B
E. Both B and C

5. What does the author want to portray in this stanza?

Do not go gentle into that good night,

Old age should burn and rave at close of day;
Rage, rage against the dying of the light.
-Do Not Go Gentle into That Good Night, Dylan Thomas

A. Don’t be afraid of the dark. C. Defy death.

B. Old people could hardly sleep at night. D. The aged are wiser than the young.

6. In discussing the various aspects of studies, Francis Bacon employs what is known as the “balanced style.” In this given
argument, the word crafty likely pertains to _____.
“Crafty men condemn studies; simple men admire them, and wise men use them; for they teach not their own use, but
that is wisdom without them and above them, won by observation.”
A. wicked people who corrupted the minds of the young
B. people who prefer practical knowledge and skills
C. the mini-sectors or the scholars of the society
D. the philosophers who study ideas about truth and meaning of life

7. He is known as the Father of English literature and is widely considered as the greatest poet of the Middle Ages.
A. William Shakespeare C. Geoffrey Chaucer
B. Homer D. John Milton

8. The following are writers and poets who wrote about queen Elizabeth or dedicated their works to her EXCEPT _____.
A. Henry Fielding C. Both A and B
B. Alexander Pope D. Neither A nor B

9. He created the character of Scrooge in “A Christmas Carol” as a way of raising the issue of whether wealth really brought
true happiness.
A. George Eliot C. Lewis Carroll
B. Charles Dickens D. Thomas Hardy

10. The following are writers of the Romantic Period EXCEPT _____.
A. Charlotte Bronte C. Samuel Taylor Coleridge
B. William Wordsworth D. William Blake

11. This is considered the first great work of English literature.

A. The Iliad C. The Canterbury Tales
B. The Odyssey D. Beowulf

12. He is known for his satirical work the “Rape of the Lock” which targeted the immorality and lavish styles of the 18 th-century
rich and famous.
A. Daniel Defoe C. John Milton
B. Percy Bysshe Shelly D. Alexander Pope

13. The word “renaissance” is ______.

A. French for rebirth C. German for freedom
B. Latin for new idea D. Old English for revival

14. English writers and poets who broke with the Roman Catholic church and began different Christian religions were part of
the movement called ______.
A. Age of Reason C. Reformation
B. Age of Enlightenment D. Renaissance

15. What are the three important uses of studies according to Francis Bacon?
A. happiness, truth and knowledge C. delight, ornament, ability
B. judgment, disposition, wisdom D. personal, social, transcendental inclinations
16. The following descriptions are true about Beowulf EXCEPT ______.
A. the story about man’s effort to save his king from a monster
B. written sometime around 700 C.E.
C. written in the time during which Angles and Saxons ruled England
D. inspired by French Revolution which sparked real change in England

17. How much did William Shakespeare write?

A. 1 play, 38 sonnets, and 154 epic narrative poems
B. 54 plays, 5 sonnets, and 38 epic narrative plays
C. 54 plays, 38 sonnets, and 5 epic narrative poems
D. 38 plays, 154 sonnets, and 2 epic narrative poems

18. Which of these phrases appears on William Shakespeare’s gravestone?

A. May the great author rest in peace.
B. He wrote so much that man will take years to understand everything.
C. He arrived on this earth with nothing. When he died, he left everything to us.
D. Curst be he that moves my stones.

19. In Shakespeare’s historical narratives, which king of England has been portrayed as a hunchbacked monster of unparalleled
villainy?
A. Edward VI B, Henry VI C. Edward V D. Richard III

20. The Anglo-Saxon poem Beowulf is representative of which of the following techniques often found with Old English poetry?
A. Alliteration B. Free verse
C. Epenthesis D. Parallelism
E. Chiasmus

21. All of the following novels were written in the 19th century EXCEPT _______.
A. Pride and Prejudice B. Hard Times
C. Gulliver’s Travels D. Lorna Doone
E. A Study in Scarlet

Questions 22 and 23 are based on the following lines from John Donne’s poem “A Valediction Forbidding Mourning.”

But we by a love so much refined,

That ourselves know not what it is,
Inter-assured of the mind,
Care less, eyes, lips and hands to miss.
Our two souls therefore, which are one,
Though I must go, endure not yet
A breach, but an expansion,
Like gold to aery thinness beat.

22. Based on the context of the lines provided, the word “refined” in line 1 of the passage is closest in meaning to which of the
following words?
A. Sophisticated B. Elevated
C. Purified D. Processed
E. Elite

23. Which of the following best summarizes the stanza?

A. When apart, we are not separate because our love grows and connects us in separation.
B. The two of us are one, even when we are apart.
C. Our love is so pure that it can be compared with the finest gold.
D. To endure our separation, we must imagine that we are together, and that belief will draw us closer.
E. The nature of our love is of such purity that it cannot be described in human terms.

24. John Bunyan’s Pilgrim’s Progress is noteworthy for which of the following stylistic techniques?
A. Liturgy B. Allegory
C. Fable D. Realism
E. Metonymy
25. Who is responsible for the now immortal line “Beauty is truth, truth beauty – that is all / Ye know on earth, and all ye need to
know”?
A. John Keats B. Lord Byron C. William Shakespeare D. William Wordsworth

26. Charlotte Bronte and Emily Bronte are writers of _____.

A. Romantic Period B. Victorian Period C. Age of Reason D. Renaissance

27. He was the champion of the “art for art’s sake” philosophy, which means, roughly, that the aesthetic (or beauty) operates
independently of any other consideration.
A. Robert Louis B. Oscar Wilde C. Robert Browning D. Charles Dickens

28. She wrote one of the classics of feminism, the essay “A Room of One’s Own,” in which she argued that a woman would not
be able to fulfill her potential without the privacy and independence implied by the title.
A. James Joyce B. Elizabeth Browning C. Agatha Christie D. Virginia Woolf

29. It is one-verse poem composed by Alfred Tennyson which consists of forty-nine lines and illustrates the fluidity of life. It also
speaks about how change is constant, and therefore life is filled with small deaths until the whole of life completely dies.
A. All Things Will Die C. The Unknown Citizen
B. Nothing Will Die D. The Builders

30. The “Illustrious Theater of Paris” _____.

A. presented pantomimes and pastiches C. featured elaborate sets and costumes
B. was founded by Moliere D. emphasized the classics and Shakespeare
E. Modern
31. These lines are from William Shakespeare’s work entitled _______.
“But love is blind, and lovers cannot see
The petty follies that themselves commit.”

A. Merchant of Venice C. Julius Caesar

B. As You Like It D. King Lear

32. The following are Romantic poets who wrote frequently of their passionate love of nature and their belief in the supremacy
of the laws of the natural world EXCEPT:
A. William Wordsworth C. William Blake
B. Samuel Taylor Coleridge D. James Joyce

33. She was a Victorian era writer who wrote the novel “Aurora Leigh” which criticized society’s treatment of women.
A. Emily Bronte C. Elizabeth Browning
B. Charlotte Bronte D. Doris Lessing

34. The terms “Big Brother”, “Newspeak”, and “Thoughtcrime” are from the novel “1984”, the masterpiece of Eric Blair, better
known as _____.
A. George Orwell C. Dylan Thomas
B. William Golding D. Anthony Burgess

35. Mary Ann Evans whose pen name was George Eliot wrote her famous work which deals with the predicament of the
intelligent, idealistic woman struggling to find meaningful expression in a community where the options are claustrophobically
traditional.
A. Murder on the Orient C. Frankenstein
B. Sense and Sensibility D. Middlemarch

36. From what essay of Francis Bacon is this line taken?

“If a man will begin with certainties, he shall end in doubts; but if he will be content to begin with doubts, he shall end in
certainties.”
A. Of Studies C. Of Marriage and Single Life
B. Of marriage and single Life D. Advancement of Learning

37. These poems are known for their elegant, refined and courtly culture. They are also known as “carp diem” or “seize the
moment poetry.”
A. Metaphysical Poems C. Elitist Poems
B. Cavalier Poems D. Holy Poems

38. He is a novelist and essayist noted for his “Midnight’s Children” and “The Satanic Verses” which prompted Iran’s Ayatollah
Khomeini to issue a fatwa against him, because Muslims considered the book blasphemous.
A. Thomas Paine C. Washington Irving
B. William Bradford D. H.G. Wells

39. The following writers wrote romance and adventure stories EXCEPT _____.
A. Robert Louis Stevenson C. Lewis Carroll
B. Rudyard Kipling D. George Bernard Shaw

… is the chef-d’ oeuvre of Milton’s early poetry, and one of the greatest lyrics in the language. In it Milton confronts and
works through his most profound personal concerns: about vocation, about early death, about belatedness and unfulfillment
about the worth of poetry. He also sounds the leitmotifs of reformist politics: the dangers posed by a corrupt clergy and church,
the menace of Rome, the adumbrations of apocalypse, the call to prophecy. The opening phrase, “Yet once more,” prepares for
such inclusiveness.

40. The poem discussed above is ______.

A. Comus (A Maske Presented at Ludlow Castle)
B. “On the Death of a Fair Infant Dying of a Cough”
C. “On the Morning of Christ’s Nativity”
D. Lycidas
E. Il Penseroso

Questions 41-42 are based on the following lines from Alexander Pope’s The Rape of the Lock.

Hither the heroes and the nymphs resort,

To taste awhile the pleasures of a Court;
In various talk the instructive hours they past,
Who gave the ball, or paid the visit last;
One speaks the glory of the British Queen,
And one describes a charming Indian screen;
A third interprets motions, looks, and eyes;
At every word a reputation dies.

41. Which of the following words is used ironically?

A. resort (line 1)
B. pleasures (line 2)
C. instructive (line 3)
D. charming (line 6)
E. reputation (line 8)

42. Pope’s use of parallel grammatical structure in lines 5 and 6 results in which of the following?
A. off-rhyme
B. oxymoron
C. pathetic fallacy
D. epic simile
 E. anticlimax

She never told her,

But let concealment, like a worm I’th’ bud,
Feed on her damask cheek. She pined in thought,
And with a green and yellow melancholy
She sat like patience on a monument,
Smiling at grief. Was not this love indeed?

43. The passage was written by _____.

A. Christopher Marlowe
B. William Shakespeare
C. Ben Johnson
D. John Webster
E. William Congreve

44. Who wrote this line? “Where ignorance is bliss, it is folly to be wise”.
a. Robert Browning
b. William Shakespeare
c. Rudyard Kipling
d. Edgar Allan Poe

45. What nationality was Robert Louis Stevenson, writer of ‘Treasure Island’?
a. English
b. Welsh
c. Irish
d. Scottish

46. Which Bronte writer authored “Jane Eyre”?

a. Charlotte
b. Emily
c. Cristina
d. Anne

47. In which century were Geoffrey Chaucer’s Canterbury Tales written?

a. 14th
b. 15th
c. 16th
d. 17th

48. In the book’ The Lord of the Rings’, who or what is Bilbo Baggins?
a. man
b. hobbit
c. wizard
d. dwarf

49. Name the book which opens with the line ‘All children, except one grew up’?
a. The Jungle Book
b. Tom Sawyer
c. Peter Pan
d. The Adventures of Huckleberry Finn

49. Who was the author of the famous storybook ‘Alice’s Adventures in Wonderland’?
a. H.G. Wells
b. Lewis Carroll
c. Mark Twain
d. E.B. White

50. Which writer of spy fiction, and creator of Smiley, was rejected with the words ‘you are welcome to **** – he hasn’t got any
future’?
a. Ian Fleming
b. John le Carré
c. Eric Ambler
d. Len Deighton

51. Who is presented as the most honest and moral of Chaucer’s pilgrims?
a. The Knight
b. The Parson
c. The Reeve
d. The Wife of Bath

52. Out of the following four pilgrims, which is the most corrupt?
a. The Sergeant /Man of Law
b. The Wife of Bath
c. The Reeve
d. The Pardoner

53. What work contains these lines: “There hurls in at the hall-door an unknown rider . . . Half a giant on earth I hold him to be.”
a. Sir Gawain and the Green Knight
b. Morte D’arthur
c. Piers Plowman
d. Canterbury Tales

Shakespeare Quotes
54. “Blow winds, and crack your cheeks! Rage! Blow!”
The tragedy, this line was extracted from is based on a legend, that had been mentioned in numerous chronicles,
poems, and sermons, before Shakespeare created his interpretation of it.
A. Macbeth
B. Twelfth Night
C. The Tempest
D. King Lear

55. “All that I have to say, is to tell you that the lantern is the moon; I, the man, I the moon; this thorn-bush, my thorn-bush; this
dog, my dog.”
This extract is from Shakespearean comedy, often defined as a journey into fantasy and the surreal world.
A. A Midsummer Night’s Dream
B. Love’s Labour’s Lost
C. Much Do About Nothing
D. The Merry Wives of Windsor

56. “Once more unto the breach dear friends, once more!”
This line is from the final play of a historical tetralogy by Shakespeare.
A. Macbeth
B. Julius Caesar
C. Hamlet
D. King Henry V

57. “It is a tale told by an idiot, full of sound and fury, signifying nothing.”
This is the end of a famous speech by the protagonist of Shakespeare’s shortest tragedy often compared to a morality
play because of its references to moral issues such as power.
A. All’s Well That Ends Well
B. Richard III
C. Macbeth
D. A Comedy of Errors

58. “Is it possible? – Confess, - handkerchief!”

These words belong to the protagonist of which 1603 Shakespearean tragedy?
A. Anthony and Cleopatra
B. Much Ado About Nothing
C. A Midsummer Night’s Dream
D. Othello

59. “Take then thy bond, take thou thy pound of flesh.”
These words are uttered by a Shakespearean heroine in one of his popular comedies, which numerous questions
related to antisemitism.
A. The Taming of the Shrew
B. Henry V
C. The Merchant of Venice
D. Richard III

60. “O true apothecary! Thy drugs are quick.”

These are among the last words of a famous Shakespearean character, right before his tragic death.
A. Henry VIII
B. Julius Caesar
C. Hamlet
D. Romeo and Juliet

61. “I am the man! If it be so, - as tis, - poor lady, she were better love a dream.”
These words belong to Viola, who disguised as a man.
A. A Comedy of Errors
B. Twelfth Night
C. Much Ado About Nothing
D. Troilus and Cressida

AMERICAN LITERATURE

1. Some critics say that Arthur Miller’s Death of a Salesman challenges the traditional definition of tragedy because _____.
A. it ends in tragic death of the protagonist
B. its protagonist is human, not superhuman
C. the struggle is against human, not superhuman antagonists
D. it is a modern play

2. Widely acclaimed as the father of free verse, he disturbed many literary critics with his “frankness of expression.”
A. Washington Irving C. Walt Whitman
B. James Cooper D. John Milton

3. This period in American literature was marked by ballads and satirical verses.
A. Colonial Period C. Revolutionary Period
B. Creative Period D. Modern Period

4. In his Inaugural Address, how does John F. Kennedy set the tone of his speech?
A. by gloating in his victory over Nixon
B. by opening with comments on renewal and change
C. by humorous remarks about the weather
D. by threatening a show of force if attacked

5. In the same speech, what expression does he use with respect to dealing with the Soviet Union?
 A. “let both sides…” C. “ask not what we can do...”
B. “the evil empire…” D. “the sleeping giant…”

6. How does John F. Kennedy end his Inaugural Address?

A. by threatening a show of force if attacked
B. with a call to work together for freedom
C. by saluting the flag
D. by leaving a message of thanks for the electoral support

7. Which of the following works provides a Loyalist interpretation of the Revolution?

A. Increase Mather’s “Case of Conscience”
B. Thomas Jefferson’s “A Summary View of the Rights of British America”
C. Patrick Henry’s “Give Me Liberty or Give Me Death”
D. John Woolman’s “Serious Considerations on Various Subjects of Importance”
E. Joseph Galloway’s “Historical and Political Reflections on the Rise and Progress of the American Rebellion”

8. Which of the following poems is one of the earliest examples of debunking and disillusionment, reflecting the author’s own
impressions of the barbarous colonial frontier?
A. Philip Freneau’s “On Mr. Paine’s Rights of Man”
B. Henry Wadsworth Longfellow’s “Blind Bartimeus”
C. Ebenezer Cooke’s “The Sot-Weed Factor”
D. William Cullen Bryant’s “Thanatopsis”
E. John Trumbull’s “Beneath a Mountain’s Brow”

9. Nathaniel Hawthorne’s “The Scarlett Letter” depicts a belief in individual choice and consequence. This ideal is a
characteristic of which of the following?
A. Realism C. Puritanism
B. Transcendentalism D. Naturalism

10. Which of the following is NOT a character in Mark Twain’s “Adventures of Huckleberry Finn”?
A. Widow Douglas C. Tom Canty
B. Pap D. The Grangerfords
E. Judge Thatcher

11. “We paused before a house that seemed A swelling of the ground; The roof was scarcely visible, The cornice but a
mound.”
In the above passage from Emily Dickinson’s “Because I Could Not Stop for Death,” the word “house” in the first line
depicts which of the following?
A. The house the speaker grew up in C. A school that burned down
B. A church D. The speaker’s tomb
E. Heaven

12. “The Philosophy of Composition” was Edgar Allan Poe’s follow-up essay detailing the creation of which of his works?
A. Annabel Lee C. The Fall of the House of Usher
B. The Raven D. To Helen
E. The Masque of the Red Death

13. A group of women in Salem, Massachusetts were accused of being witches by zealous Puritan leaders, who found the
behavior and attitudes of the women unacceptable or strange. They were hanged in 1691 and 1692 and their story was
told by _____.
A. Arthur Miller in his “Crucible”
B. Ernest Hemingway in his “A Farewell to Arms”
C. Washington Irving in his “The Legend of the sleepy Hollow”
D. James Fenimore Cooper in his “The Deerslayer”

14. Benjamin Franklin and Thomas Jefferson were part of the movement called _____.
A. Transcendentalism C. Minimalism
B. Harlem Renaissance D. Rationalism

15. The following were called “Fireside Poets” EXCEPT _____.

A. Henry Wadsworth Longfellow C. Oliver Wendell Holmes
B. Walt Whitman D. John Greenleaf Whittier

16. This novel about slavery prompted nationwide debate and, say some historians, helped trigger the war.
A. Mark Twain’s The Adventure of Huckleberry Finn
B. Walt Whitman’s Leaves of the Grass
C. Louisa May Alcott’s Little Women
D. Harriet Beecher Stowe’s Uncle Tom’s Cabin

17. The writing style that was influenced by Sigmund Freud’s ideas and the developing field of psychology.
A. Stream of Consciousness C. Social realism
B. Magical Realism D. Minimalism

18. The struggles of migrant workers became the subject of his Pulitzer Prize-winning novel, The Grapes of Wrath, which
was published in 1939. He won the Nobel Prize in literature in 1962.
A. Robert Penn Warren C. Ernest Hemingway
B. John Steinbeck D. William Faulkner

19. This is about a young African American woman who rejects the traditional expectation that she gets married and settles
down in order to live as full a life as possible.
A. Katherine Ann Porter’s Ship of Fools
B. Ezra Pound’s Cantos
C. Sinclair Lewis’s Babbit
D. Zora Neale Hurston’s Their Eyes Were Watching God
20. The famous line “The mass of men leads lives of quiet desperation” was written by _____.
A. Ralph Waldo Emerson C. Henry David Thoreau
B. Nathaniel Hawthorne D. Henry Wadsworth Longfellow

21. These lines from T. S. Eliot’s poem “The Waste Land” were written in which of the following eras?
“April is the cruelest month, breeding Lilacs out of the dead land, mixing Memory and desire, stirring Dull roots with
spring rain”
A. Medieval B. Renaissance
C. Modern D. Restoration

22. Zora Neale Hurston is associated with which of the following literary movements?
A. New England Puritanism C. Naturalism
B. Transcendentalism D. Harlem Renaissance

23. “Beat Poets” like American author Allen Ginsberg used their writing to _____.
A. immortalize or glorify the past
B. stress the significance of connection with nature
C. condemn the evils brought about by industrialization
D. reflect the rebellious, imaginative spirit of the 1960s.

24. The novel “Catch 22” by Joseph Heller examines _____.

A. ironic nature of the people’s attitude C. people’s hostilities
B. insanity of war itself D. women’s plight

25. F. Scott Fitzgerald explored the consequences of trying to live the American dream, and questioned society’s definition of
success and progress in his novel ________.
A. The Great Gatsby C. Watching God
B. The Grapes of Wrath D. The Portrait of a Lady

Here’s a wagon that’s going a piece of the way. It will take you that for, backrolling now behind her a long monotonous
succession of peaceful and undeviating changes from day to dark and dark to day again, through which she advanced in
identical and anonymous and deliberate wagons as though through a succession of creakwheeled and limpeared avatars, like
something moving forever and without progress across an urn.

26. The final words in the passage above from William Faulkner’s Light in August allude to a famous poem by _____.
A. Matthew Arnold
B. William Wordsworth
C. Percy Bysshe Shelley
D. John Keats
E. William Butler Yeats

Ships at a distance have every man’s wish on board. For some they come in with the tide. For others they sail forever
on the horizon, never out of sight, never landing until the Watcher turns his eyes away in resignation, his dreams mocked to
death by Time. That is the life of men.
Now, women forget all those things they don’t want to remember, and remember everything they don’t want to forget.
The dream is the truth. Then they act and do things accordingly.

27. In the passage above from Zora Neale Hurston’s Their Eyes Were Watching God, the narrator implies that men and women
are different because of their _____.
A. interest in pleasing others
B. acceptance of social expectations
C. ability to work together to attain their dreams
D. willingness to teach each other valuable lessons
E. readiness to influence the course of their dreams

28. Southern American poet, novelist and literary critic Robert Penn Warren wrote “All the King’s Men” in 1946. The novel won
the 1947 Pulitzer Prize for Fiction. On what is the book’s title based?
a. A verse in the nursery rhyme “Humpty Dumpty”
b. William Shakespeare’s play “Richard III”
c. Oscar Wilde’s short story “The Young King”
d. Joyce Kilmer’s poem “Kings”

29. Which novel, eventually published in 1945, was rejected by a New York publisher stating ‘it is impossible to sell animal
stories in the USA’?
a. Animal Farm
b. Black Beauty
c. Watership Down
d. The Tale of Peter Rabbit

30. What literary movement is relevant to discuss as background information to your fourth year high school class when
teaching the stories of Ernest Hemingway, Luigi Pirandello, and Franz Kafka?
A. romanticism
B. modernism
C. classicism
D. neo-classicism

31. ‘The Good Earth’ was rejected fourteen times, before being published and going on to win the Pulitzer Prize. Who was the
author?
a. Pearl S. Buck
b. John Steinbeck
c. Edith Wharton
d. Henry Miller
32. What important event in American history takes place during Rip Van Winkle’s sleep?
A. the Civil War
B. the Revolutionary War
C. the Mexican War
D. the French and Indian War

33. In the same story, what is Rip Van Winkle’s one personality flaw?
A. He cannot carry on a conversation with anyone.
B. He cannot relax.
C. He is mean to his wife.
D. He helps everyone else before attending to his own business.

34. Who is alluded to as Captain in the following lines from Whitman’s poem?
O captain! My captain! Our fearful trip is done,
The ship has weather’d every rack, the prize we sought is won.

A. Abraham Lincoln
B. George Washington
C. John F. Kennedy
D. Thomas Jefferson

35. In teaching the “Adventures of Huckleberry Finn” by Mark Twain to your third year high school class, what is one theme that
you should help them derive from the novel?
A. Slavery is bad and must be abolished.
B. To be young and to be free are the world’s riches.
C. Time is short so we must seize the day.
D. An honest life is a life well lived.

__________________________________________________________________________________

1. 'A Farewell to Arms' is based on Hemingway's own experience as what in World War I? (ambulance driver)

2. What is a novel by Herman Melville and an opera by Benjamin Britten? (Billy Budd)

3. In which Tennessee Williams play do you meet Big Daddy? (Cat on a Hot Tin Roof)

4. Holden Caulfield appears in which, once controversial, novel? (Catcher in the Rye)

5. Where are most of Pearl S. Buck's novels set? (China)

6. What is the setting for Hemingway's 'The Old Man and the Sea'? (Cuba)

7. Who wrote 'The Maltese Falcon'? (Dashiel Hammett)

8. In which Arthur Miller play do you meet Willy Loman? (Death of a Salesman)

9. Who 'Who's Afraid of Virginia Woolf?'? (Edward Albee)

10. Where were Robert Frost's poems first published? (England)

11. Which dramatist wrote 'Long Day's Journey Into Night'? (Eugene O’ Neill)

12. Which poet spent time in a US mental hospital after supporting Mussolini and the Fascists in World War II? (Ezra Pound)

13. Who died at the age of 44 with his novel 'The Last Tycoon' unfinished? (F. Scott Fitzgerald)

14. Who coined the phrase 'the lost generations'? (Gertrude Stein)

15. Whose most famous novel is 'The Carpetbaggers'? (Harold Robbins)

16. Which US-born novelist lived much of his life in France and England and became a British citizen in 1915? (Henry James)

17. Who wrote the short story 'I Robot' in 1950? (Isaac Asimov)

18. Who wrote the 'Leatherstocking' tales of frontier life with their hero Natty Bumpo? (James Fenimore Cooper)

19. Whose novels are about social conditions in his native California? (John Steinbeck)

20. Who wrote plays with a political theme such as 'The Little Foxes'? (Lilian Hellman)

21. Whose real name was Samuel Langhorne Clemens? (Mark Twain)

22. Which character appears in all nine of Raymond Chandler's novels? (Philip Marlowe)

23. Against what is Hemingway's 'For Whom the Bell Tolls' set? (Spanish Civil War)
24. Which US poet married Ted Hughes, later poet laureate? (Sylvia Plath)

25. Which Norman Mailer novel is based on a protest march? (The Armies of the Night)

26. Which Arthur Miller play is a comment on McCarthyism? (The Crucible)

27. Which screenplay did Miller write for his wife Marilyn Monroe? (The Misfits)

28. What is L. Frank Baum's most famous story? (The Wonderful Wizard of Oz)

29. What type of writing is Paul Theroux associated with other than novels? (Travel)

30. Who wrote the story of Rip Van Winkle? (Washington Irving)

FAMOUS LINES FROM WELL-KNOWN POEMS

1. “Poems are made by fools like me _____.”

A. and prose is writ by fools like you
B. but only God can make a tree
C. and cast in bottles to the sea
D. and that’s the birth of poetry

2. “Here he lies where he longed to be, home is the sailor, home from sea ______.”
A. lying under the great green tree
B. and the hunter home from the hill
C. and that is where he wants to be
D. and home is the lonely traveler

3. “If you can talk with crowds and keep your virtue, or walk with kings _____”
A. nor lose the common touch
B. and never be afraid
C. and Princes, and queens
D. until they hurt you

4. “I saw the best minds of my generation _____”

A. go into advertising
B. destroyed by madness
C. bent upon regeneration
D. I saw the worst minds of my time

5. “Stone walls do not a prison make _____”

A. so hide a file inside the cake
B. because stone can bend and break
C. nor iron bars a cage
D. when your spirit is free

6. “Theirs not to make reply, their not to reason why _____”

A. theirs not to moan and cry
B. if they only knew the reason why
C. theirs but to do and die
D. no choice had they but one

7. “Morning has broken _____”

A. night has gone
B. light has spread
C. crickets are croakin’
D. like the first morning

8. “And hast thou slain the Jabberwock? Come to my arms, my beamish boy! _____”
A. O frabious day! Callooh! Callay!
B. I am filled to the brim with joy
C. You are the hero of the day
D. Did you hit it with a rock?

9. “The grave’s a fine and private place _____”

A. quiet and dark and dim
B. and there you can hide your face
C. but none, I think, do their embrace
D. and holds an end to every chase

10. “Hog butcher for the world _____”

A. with their little all curled
B. where are your pigs?
C. tool maker, stacker of wheat
D. you have finished killing at last

11. “Isabel, Isabel didn’t worry, Isabel didn’t scream or scurry. She washed her hands and she straightened her hair up ___”
A. and solved the problem, in a hurry
B. twirled, and then, disappeared in a flurry
C. then Isabel quickly pulled a chair up
D. then Isabel quietly ate the bear up
12. “Men seldom makes passes _____”
A. at ugly women
B. at ideas, drifting, dreamlike
C. at girls who wear glasses
D. and feints, without doubt and fear

13. “Oh, to be in England _____”

A. eating fish and chips
B. rather than in France
C. now that April’s there
D. a cleaner, greener land

14. “In the room the women come and go _____”

A. waving their fans, to and fro
B. talking of Michelangelo
C. come and go, come and go
D. and then are gone – to where?

15. “Tis some visitor,” I muttered, “tapping at my chamber door _____”

A. only this and nothing more
B. over the storm wind’s mighty roar
C. perhaps the maid, to clean the floor
D. could be the one that I adore

16. “My name is Ozymandius, king of kings, _____’

A. I am the Lord of all I survey
B. fear me
C. my breast hung with jewels, my hands full of rings
D. look on my works, ye Mighty, and despair

17. “Parting is all we know of heaven _____”

A. parting is what we dread
B. in this world of ours
C. and all we need of hell
D. and all we see of heaven

18. “Do not go gentle into that good night _____”

A. Do not waste and fade away
B. Put up a darn good fight
C. Rage, rage against the dying of the light
D. wait a bit, ‘til morning

19. “A damsel with a dulcimer _____”

A. played a melody so plain
B. walked into the room
C. s small boy with a drum
D. in a vision once I saw

20. “I wondered lonely as a cloud, that floats on high o’er vales and hills, When all at once I saw a crowd, a host _____”
A. of golden daffodils
B. of heaped and towering hills
C. of shining angels
D. a mob, an army

21. “On the eighteenth of April, in seventy-five Hardly a man is now _____”
A. who was there then
B. none of them are yet alive
C. those who are still battle and strive
D. who remembers that famous day and year

22. “And what rough beast, its hour come around at last, _____”
A. is now, at least, lurching round at last
B. no longer buried in the past
C. slouches towards Bethlehem to be born?
D. opens its bloody maw?

23. “How do I love thee _____”

A. let me count the ways
B. when thou dost not love me?
C. with all my heart and soul
D. thy heart belongs to another

24. “Two roads diverged in a wood and I – I took the one less traveled by, _____”
A. and shall get homeward, by and by
B. and that has made all the difference
C. and found my way to you
D. and can’t get back, though I try

25. “In Flanders fields the poppies blow ____”

A. and far away your loved ones go
B. red, red, and white
C. between the crosses, row on row
D. the petals waving in the wind
 FAMOUS LINES FROM FAMOUS AUTHORS

1. “O Captain! My Captain!”
A. Khalil Gibran
B. Walt Whitman
C. Maya Angelou
D. Emily Dickinson

2. “Once upon a midnight dreary, while I pondered weak and weary”

A. Edgar Allan Poe
B. Robert Frost
C. Alfred Lord Tennyson
D. William Shakespeare

3. “But I have promises to keep, and miles to go before I sleep”

A. Edgar Allan Poe
B. Alfred Lord Tennyson
C. William Shakespeare
D. Robert Frost

4. “I Do Not Love You Except Because I Love You”

A. Khalil Gibran
B. William Wordsworth
C. Pablo Neruda
D. Emily Dickinson

5. “I took the one less traveled by, and that has made all the difference”
A. Robert Frost
B. Khalil Gibran
C. Joyce Kilmer
D. William Wordsworth

6. “Into the Valley of Death Rode the six hundred”

A. William Shakespeare
B. Samuel Taylor Coleridge
C. Alfred Lord Tennyson
D. Edgar Allan Poe

7. “I Wandered Lonely as a Cloud”

A. William Ernest Henley
B. William Wordsworth
C. Julia Ward Howe
D. William Shakespeare

8. “Out of the night covers me, black as the pit from pole to pole”
A. William Ernest Henley
B. Julia Ward Howe
C. Joyce Kilmer
D. William Wordsworth

9. “There is another sky, Ever serene and fair”

A. Emily Dickinson
B. Joyce Kilmer
C. Julia Ward Howe
D. May Angelou

10. “Love one another, but make not a bond of love: Let it rather be a moving sea between the shores of your souls.”
A. William Shakespeare
B. William Wordsworth
C. Khalil Gibran
D. Joyce Kilmer

LITERATURE

1. What word, extended from a more popular term, refers to a fictional book of between 20,000 and 50,000 words? Novella

2. Who wrote the famous 1855 poem The Charge of the Light Brigade? Lord Alfred Tennyson (1809-92)

3. In 1960 the UK publishing ban was lifted on what 1928 book? Lady Chatterley's Lover (by D H Lawrence)

4. In bookmaking how many times would an quarto sheet be folded? Twice (to create four leaves)

5. Who wrote the seminal 1936 self-help book How to Win Friends and Influence People? Dale Carnegie

6. Who in 1450 invented movable type, thus revolutionising printing? Johannes Gutenberg

7. Which Polish-born naturalised British novelist's real surname was Korzeniowski? Joseph Conrad (1857-1924, full name
Jozef Teodor Konrad Korzeniowski)

8. Which short-lived dramatist is regarded as the first great exponent of blank verse? Christopher Marlowe(1564-93 - Blank
verse traditionally is unrhymed, comprising ten syllables per line, stressing every second syllable.)
9. Who wrote the maxim 'Cogito, ergo sum' (I think, therefore I am)? René Descartes (1596-1650, French philosopher and
mathematician, in his work Discours de la Méthode, 1637.)

10. Who was the youngest of the three Brontë writing sisters? Anne Brontë (1820-49 - other sisters were Emily, 1818-48, and
Charlotte, 1816-55, plus a brother, Branwell, 1817-48. The two oldest sisters, Maria and Elizabeth died in childhood.)

11. What is the Old English heroic poem, surviving in a single copy dated around the year 1000, featuring its eponymous 6th
century warrior from Greatland in Sweden? Beowulf

12. What relatively modern school of philosophy, popular in literature since the mid-1900s, broadly embodies the notion of
individual freedom of choice within a discorded and inexplicable universe? Existentialism

13. What was the pen-name of Charles Lutwidge Dodgson? Lewis Carroll (1832-98)

14. Who wrote Dr Zhivago? Boris Leonidovich Pasternak (1890-1960)

15. What term and type of comedy is derived from the French word for stuffing? Farce or farcical (from the French farcir, to
stuff, based on analogy between stuffing in cookery and the insertion of frivolous material into medieval plays.)

16. What term originally meaning 'storehouse' referred, and still refers, to a periodical of various content and imaginative
writing? Magazine

17. Who wrote the significant scientific book Philosophiæ Naturalis Principia Mathematica, published in 1687? Isaac
Newton (1642-1727)

18. What 16th century establishment in London's Bread Street was a notable writers' haunt? The Mermaid Tavern

19. Who wrote the 1845 poem The Pied Piper of Hamelin? Robert Browning (1812-89)

20. Which American poet and humanist wrote and continually revised a collection of poems called Leaves of Grass? Walt
Whitman (1819-92 - the title is apparently a self-effacing pun, since grass was publishing slang for work of little value, and
leaves are pages.)

21. The period between 1450 and 1600 in European development is known by what term, initially used by Italian scholars to
express the rediscovery of ancient Roman and Greek culture? The Renaissance (literally meaning rebirth)

22. What is the main dog character called in Norton Juster's 1961 popular children's/adult-crossover book The Phantom
Tollbooth? Tock

23. Who detailed his experiences before and during World War I in Memoirs of a Foxhunting Man, and Memoirs of an Infantry
Officer? Siegfried Sassoon (1886-1967)

24. What significant law relating to literary and artistic works was first introduced in 1709? Copyright (prior to which creators
had no legal means of protecting their work from being published or exploited by others)

25. Who wrote the 1891 book Also Sprach Zarathustra (Thus Spake Zarathustra)? Friedrich Nietzsche (1844-1900)

26. What word, meaning 'measure' in Greek, refers to the rhythm of a line of verse? Metre (or meter)

27. Cheap literature of the 16-18th centuries was known as 'what' books, based on the old word for the travelling traders who
sold them? Chapbooks (a chapman was a travelling salesman, from the earlier term cheapman)

28. What was Samuel Langhorne Clemens' pen-name? Mark Twain (1835-1910)

29. Derived from Greek meaning summit or finishing touch, what word refers to the publisher's logo and historically the
publisher's details at the end of the book? Colophon

30. Japanese three-line verses called Haiku contain how many syllables? Seventeen

31. Stanley Kubrick successfully requested the UK ban of his own film based on what Anthony Burgess book? A Clockwork
Orange

32. The ISBN (International Standard Book Number) code was increased to how many digits from 1 January 2007? Thirteen
33. The Sapir-Whorf hypothesis asserts that people's perceptions and attitudes are affected particularly by what: book covers,
book price, or words and language? Words and language (the theory applies to all media and language, in that the type of
words and language read and used affects how people react to the world)

34. What is the female term equating to a phallic symbol? Yonic symbol

35. James Carker is a villain in which Charles Dickens novel? Dombey and Son (serialised 1846-8)

36. What famous 1818 novel had the sub-title 'The Modern Prometheus'? Frankenstein (by Mary Shelley)

37. Who wrote the 1947 book The Fountainhead? Ayn Rand

38. By what name is the writer François-Marie Arouet (1694-1778) better known? Voltaire

39. Which pioneering American poet and story-teller wrote The Fall of the House of Usher? Edgar Allan Poe(1809-49)

40. According to Matthew 27 in the Bible what prisoner was released by Pontius Pilate instead of Jesus? Barabbas

41. What was the 1920s arts group centred around Leonard and Virginia Woolf and the district of London which provided the
group's name? The Bloomsbury Group
42. What Japanese term (meaning 'fold' and 'book') refers to a book construction made using concertina fold, with
writing/printing on one side of the paper? Orihon

43. What were the respective family names of Shakespeare's Romeo and Juliet? Montague and Capulet

44. Who wrote The Power of Positive Thinking in 1953? Norman Vincent Peale

45. Around 100AD what type of book construction began to replace scrolls? Codex (a series of folios sewn together)

46. What name for a lyrical work, typically 50-200 lines long, which from the Greek word for song? Ode

47. Who wrote the 1866 book Crime and Punishment? Fyodor Dostoevsky (1821-81)

48. Who wrote the 1513 guide to leadership (titled in English) The Prince? Niccolo Machiavelli

49. William Wordsworth, Samuel Taylor Coleridge and Robert Southey are commonly referred to as the 'what' Poets? Lake
Poets (from around 1800 they lived close to each other in the Lake District of England)

50. In bookmaking, a sheet folded three times is called by what name? Octavo (creating eight leaves)

51. What is the parrot's name in Enid Blyton's 'Adventure' series of books? Kiki

52. Who wrote The French Lieutenant's Woman? John Fowles (1969)

53. What word, which in Greek means 'with' or 'after', prefixes many literary and language terms to denote something in a
different position? Meta

54. "Reader, I married him," appears in the conclusion of what novel? Jane Eyre (by Charlotte Bronte, 1847)

55. Philosopher and writer Jeremy Bentham, 1748-1832, is associated with what school of thought? Utilitarianism (broadly
Utilitarianism argues that society should be organised to produce the greatest happiness for the greatest number of people)

56. What influential American philosopher and author wrote the book 'Walden, or Life in the Woods'? Henry David
Thoreau (1817-62)

57. The ancient Greek concept of the 'three unities' advocated that a literary work should use a single plotline, single location,
and what other single aspect? Time (or real time)

58. Which statesman won the 1953 Nobel Prize for Literature? Sir Winston Churchill

59. Who is the second oldest of the Pevensie children in C S Lewis's The Lion, the Witch and the Wardrobe?Susan (bonus
points: Peter is the oldest, Edmund is third and Lucy is youngest. The lion is Aslan. The first edition was published in 1950.)

60. Who wrote the plays Three Sisters, and The Cherry Orchard? Anton Pavlovich Chekhov (1860-1904)

61. What technical word is given usually to the left-side even-numbered page of a book? Verso

62. Which two writers fought a huge unsuccessful legal action in 2006-7 claiming that Dan Brown's The Da Vinci Code had
plaguarised their work? Michael Baigent and Richard Leigh

63. What is the pen-name of novelist Mary Ann Evans (1819-80)? George Eliot

64. What technical word is given usually to the right-side odd-numbered page of a book? Recto

65. In what decade was the Oxford English Dictionary first published? 1920s (1928)

66. What simple term, alternatively called Anglo-Saxon, refers to the English language which was used from the 5th century
Germanic invasions, until (loosely) its fusion with Norman-French around 12-13th centuries? Old English

67. Who wrote Brighton Rock (1938) and Our Man in Havana (1958)? Graham Greene

68. Laurens van der Post's prisoner of war experiences, described in his books The Seed and the Sower (1963) and The Night
of the New Moon (1970) inspired what film? Merry Christmas, Mr. Lawrence
69. With which troubled son are parents Laius and Jocasta associated? Oedipus (The mythical Greek character unknowingly
killed his father King Laius and married his mother Jocasta. Sigmund Freud's term Oedipus Complex refers to similar feelings
supposedly arising in male infant development.)

70. Which Russian writer was awarded the Nobel Prize for Literature in 1970? Aleksandr Solzhenitsyn (1918-2008)

71. The book Eunoia, by Christian Bok, suggests in its title, and features exclusively what, in turn, in its first five chapters? The
vowels a, e, i, o, u. (Each chapter contains words using only one vowel type. Bok says Eunoia means 'beautiful thinking'.
Eunioa is otherwise a medical term based on the Greek meaning 'well mind'.)

72. Which great thinker collaborated with Sigmund Freud to write the 1933 book Why War? Albert Einstein

73. Legal action by J K Rowling and Warner Brothers commenced in 2007 against which company for its plans to publish a
Harry Potter Lexicon? RDR Books

74. Who wrote the 1939 book The Big Sleep? Raymond Chandler

75. "In my younger and more vulnerable years my father gave me some advice which I've been turning over in my mind ever
since," is the start of which novel? The Great Gatsby (F Scott Fitzgerald, 1925)

76. In the early 1900s a thriller was instead more commonly referred to as what sort of book? Shocker (or shilling shocker)
77. Who wrote the books Les Miserables and The Hunchback of Notre-Dame? Victor Hugo

78. In what decade were ISBN numbers introduced to the UK? 1960s (1966)

79. In 1969, P H Newby's book Something to Answer For was the first winner of what prize? Booker Prize (the Man Booker
Prize from 2002)

80. Who established Britain's first printing press in 1476? William Caxton

81. The word 'book' is suggested by some etymologists to derive from the ancient practice of writing on tablets made of what
wood? Beech (Boc was an Old English word for beech wood)

82. What is the name of the first digital library founded by Michael Hart in 1971? Project Gutenberg

83. French writer Sully Prudhomme was the first winner of what prize in 1901? Nobel Prize for Literature

84. Who wrote Naked Lunch, (also titled The Naked Lunch)? William Burroughs (1959)

85. In Shakespeare's King Lear, which two daughters benefit initially from their father's rejection of the third daughter
Cordelia? Goneril and Regan

86. What was Christopher Latham Scholes' significant invention of 1868? Typewriter

87. Which novel begins "It is a truth universally acknowledged that a single man in possession of a good fortune must be in
want of a wife..."? Pride and Prejudice (by Jane Austen, 1813)

88. Japanese author and playwrite Yukio Mishima committed what extreme act in 1970 while campaigning for Japan to restore
its nationalistic principles? Suicide

89. Which American philosopher, and often-quoted advocate of individualism, published essays on Self-Reliance, Love,
Heroism, Character and Manners in his Collections of 1841 and 1844? Ralph Waldo Emerson (1803-82)

90. Recuyell of the Historyes of Troye, printed in Bruges around 1475 is regarded as the first book to have been what? Printed
in the English language (Caxton later printed Canterbury Tales in Westminster in 1476, which is regarded as the first book
printed in the English language in England.)

91. In what city does Leo Tolstoy's novel War and Peace begin? Saint Petersburg (Petrograd and Leningrad are recent
alternative and now obsolete names of this city - the quizmaster/mistress can decide if these answers are correct..)

92. Which French writer declined the Nobel Prize for Literature in 1964? Jean-Paul Sartre (1905-1980 - apparently he declined
because he had an aversion to being 'institutionalised', although the real facts of the matter are elusive.)

93. What controversial novel begins: "[a person's name], light of my life, fire of my loins. My sin, My soul," ?Lolita (by Vladimir
Nabokov, 1955)

94. Jonathan Harker's Journal and Dr Seward's Diary feature in what famous 1897 novel? Dracula (by Bram Stoker)

95. What is the technical name for a fourteen-lined poem in rhymed iambic pentameters? Sonnet

96. "Make them laugh; make them cry; make them wait..." was a personal maxim of which novelist? Charles Dickens

97. What is the land of giants called in Gulliver's Travels? Brobdingnag

98. What prolific and highly regarded American author, who became a British subject a year before his death, wrote The Wings
of the Dove; Washington Square, and the Golden Bowl? Henry James (1843-1916)

99. What term for a short, usually witty, poem or saying derives from the Greek words 'write' and 'on'? Epigram(epi = on,
grapheine = write, which evolved into Latin and French to the modern English word)

100. What was the original title of the book on which the film Schindler's List was based? Schindler's Ark (by Thomas
Keneally, which won the 1982 Booker Prize)

101. Which French artist, born in 1834 was best known for his paintings of ballet dancers? (Edgar Degas)

102. Who wrote the novel Revolutionary Road, which was made into a successful feature film in 2008? (Richard Yates)

103. Who wrote The Prince, a famous work that redefined the beliefs of cynicism in the Italian Renaissance? (Niccolo
Machiavelli)

104. Which famous British artist had himself tied to the mast of a ship so that he could paint a storm? (J.M.W Turner)

105. Hamlet was the Prince of which country? (Denmark)

106. Which British prime minister was awarded the Nobel Prize for Literature? (Winston Churchill)

107. Which artist is famous for his statue The Thinker? (Auguste Rodin)

108. What is the name of the anti-slavery novel written by American author Harriet Beecher Stowe in 1852? (Uncle Tom’s
Cabin)

109. Les Demoiselles d' Avignon, Weeping Woman and Guernica are famous paintings by which modern artist? (Pablo
 Picasso)

110. The Adventures of Tom Sawyer and The Adventures of Huckleberry Finn were written by American author Samuel
Langhorne Clemens. By what name is he better known as? (Mark Twain)

AFRO-ASIAN LITERATURE

1. The Hindus considered this foremost collection of 1,028 hymns as “hymns of supreme sacred knowledge” divinely inspired or
“heard” directly from the gods.
A. Ramayana
B. Rig Veda
C. Mahabharata
D. Bhagada Gita

2. The “Taj Mahal” is _____.

A. a poem by Sahir Ludhianvi
B. a poem by Rabindranath Tagore
C. a story by Santha Rama Rau
D. a story by Salman Rushdie

3. In Ramayana he is considered as the antagonist who carried off Sita, who rejected his attentions.
A. Janaka
B. Ravana
C. Hanuman
D. Isra

4. _____ is the main literary language of Northern India in 1,000 A.D.

A. Sanskrit
B. Dravidian
C. Hindi
D. Urdu

5. Panchantantra is a collection of _____.

A. religious fables
B. sacred stories
C. beast fables
D. love stories

6. Shakunta, a Sanskrit drama by _____, tells the love between Sakuntala and King Dushyanta who proved that physical
attraction for both of them became spiritual in the end as their love endured and surpassed all difficulties.
A. Desai
B. Markandaya
C. Bidpai
D. Kalidasa

7. This poem consists 100,000 couplets divided into 18 parvans or sections that tells the struggle for supremacy between two
groups of cousins, the Kauravas and the Pandavas.
A. Dhammapada
B. Rig Veda
C. Gitanjali
D. Mahabharata

8. In Ramayana, she is the wife of sage Gautama, who turns into a stone and later becomes free from curse by the touch of Rama.
A. Bharat
C. Kausalya
B. Ahalya
D. Sita

9. What does the imagery suggest about how the Hindus regard their religion ?
A. Religion is their salvation from the earthly life.
B. With their religion, they are able to escape difficulties in the world.
C. Religion dictates their way of life and philosophy.
D. The Hindus are intoxicated with religion, which defines their existence.

To Indra
Like violent guts of wind the draughts that I have drunk have lifted me:
Have I not drunk of soma-juice?
The draughts I drank have borne me up, as fleet-foot horses draw a car
Have I not drunk of soma-juice?
-Rig Veda

10. Filial piety is a basic tenet of this school of thought.

A. Taoism
B. Confucianism
C. Hinduism
D. Buddhism

11. What insight is suggested by this haiku from Basho?

Poverty’s child –
He starts to grind the rice
And gazes at the moon.

A. Nature has a soothing effect on the human spirit.

B. Child labor is a reality in many Asian nations.
 C. The poor dreams are hopeful of better things in their life.
D. Life is a never-ending routine of work and leisure.

12. He is the Great Poet and creator of Ramayana, a Sage who helps Sita and her two sons Lava-Kush stay at her ashram.
A. Vanara
C. Vasistha
B. Valmiki
D. Urmila

13. This book (of Bible) deals with Hebrew’s escape from Egypt and their journey back to Palestine under the able leadership of Moses.
A. Leviticus
C. Exodus
B. Genesis
D. Deuteronomy

14. Which of these books does not comprise the Pentateuch?

A. Genesis
C. Joshua
B. Exodus
D. Leviticus

15. A short story (in the Bible) which contains a tactful protest against the forbidding of racial intermarriage.
A. Jonah
C. Ruth
B. Daniel
D. Esther

16. A widely misunderstood tale about an early Jewish missionary who rebels when sent to Nineveh, who repents and carries out his mission, but who
rebels a second time when God forgives Nineveh.
A. Daniel
C. Jonah
B. Ruth
D. Esther

17. Wrongly ascribed to Solomon, this is a series of heretical essays of profound pessimism, fatalism, and skepticism. The tone is that of a disillusioned old
man who has found existence to be futile and meaningless.
A. Job
C. Ecclesiastes
B. Daniel
D. Ezekiel

18. The Bible is divided into three parts: The Old Testament, The New Testament, and _______________.
A. The Apocrypha
C. The Revelations
B. The Apocalypse
D. History

19. A fictitious story of a God-fearing Jewess, who, when her native Bethulia is besieged by Nebuchadnezzar’s men, makes her way (by means of
her beauty and wisdom) into the tent of Holofernes and succeeds in beheading him in his drunken slumber.
A. Judith
C. Esther
B. Ruth
D. Susanna

20. This is a collection of fourteen books (of Bible) which were included in the Septuagint of the Vulgate versions of the Old
Testament.
A. The Apocrypha
C. The Revelations
B. The Apocalypse
D. Deuteronomy

21. This is a personal memoir by the political leader of the Hebrews on their return from exile in Babylon. It tells the re building of the walls
of Jerusalem, and of the religious reforms.
A. Amos
C. Hosea
B. Nehemiah
D. Judges

22. An oldest complete prophetic book in the Bible which voices a stern and uncompromising warning to the Kingdom of Israel; a warning of utter
annihilation unless social reforms are immediately affected.
A. Hosea
C. Micah
B. Amos
D. Isaiah

23. It is nevertheless, a literary masterpiece. Its mythical symbolism, its graphic accounts of the battles between Good and Evil, and its terrifying
picture of the end of the world place it high in the realm of descriptive writing.
A. Revelation
C. Apocalypse
B. Apocrypha
D. Esdras

24. In what book in the Old Testament of the Bible the passages about David’s battle with Goliath can be read?
A. I Samuel
 C. II Samuel
B. I Kings
D. II Kings

25. The Book of Job is conveniently classified under_______.

A. Drama
C. Wisdom Literature
B. Lyric Poetry
D. Prophetic Books

26. As the Bible is considered a Written Torah, what is considered an Oral Torah?
A. Talmud
C. Old Testament
B. New Testament
D. Hexateuch

27. It is a vivid and moving narrative of the spread of Christianity over Asia Minor, the islands of Mediterranean, Greece and Rome. It tells of Pentecost, the
stoning of Stephen, the first Christian martyr; many early miracles, the struggles of the young church; and the conversion and missionary journeys of Paul.
A. The Acts of Apostles
C. James
B. I John
D. Romans

28. What is the capital of Israel?

A. Tel Aviv
C. Haifa
B. Ashdod
D. Jerusalem

29. The Hebrew Bible, or Tanakh, contains twenty-four books divided into three parts: the five books of the Torah("teaching" or "law"),
the Nevi'im, and the Ketuvim. The last two are books on:
A. Prophets and Writings
C. Rituals and Hymns
B. Songs and Psalms
D. Parables

30. Also called as Moshe Rabbenu in Hebrew, he is considered as the most important prophet in Judaism in Christianity and Islam, as well as a
number of other faiths.
A. Moses
C. Joshua
B. Abraham
D. Christ

31. It is the fifth book of the Hebrew Bible, and of the Jewish Torah/Pentateuch.
A. Leviticus
C. Joshua
B. Numbers
D. Deuteronomy

MYTHOLOGY

1. He was an Olympian god who was depicted as falling in love with one woman after another and used all manner of tricks to
hide his infidelity from his wife.
A. Hephaestus C. Poseidon
B. Zeus D. Hades

2. The victorious ten-year series of battles of the Olympian gods against the Titans in Thessaly.
A. Trojan War C. The War in Italy
B. Adventures of Odysseus D. Titanomachy

3. In the Middle Ages and Renaissance, it was commonly described as a symbol of purity and grace, which could only be
captured by a virgin.
A. Troll C. Kappa
B. Dragon D. Unicorns

4. He was a fearless warrior and king who saw the emptiness of his life and turned his back on it, becoming a wanderer
and sadhu. He refused to return to the world that is why he is often alluded to as having refused the responsibility.
A. King Minos C. King Rama
B. King Muchukunda D. Jason

5. The story of Cupid and Psyche depicts undying love and devotion. What was Psyche’s mistake that according to Cupid was a
betrayal?
A. Psyche got infatuated with Zeus.
B. Psyche believed her sisters persuasion that her lover was an ugly beast and would kill her.
C. Psyche disobeyed her husband when she enlightened his face in the middle of the night.
D. Psyche left the house without her husband permission.

6. This is the attribution of a human form, human characteristics, or human behavior to nonhuman things, e.g. deities in
mythology and animals in children’s stories.
A. Anthropomorphism C. God-like
B. Ethereal D. Anthropocentrism
7. Philippine mythology and superstitions are very diverse. It includes a collection of tales and superstitions about magical
creatures and entities like _____
A. kapre, aswang, matruculan, duwende, tiyanak, etc.
B. sirena, syokoy, dugong, etc.
C. cherubs, Seraphims, Cherubims, thrones, guardian angels, etc.
D. Malakas at Maganda, Maria Makiling, etc.

8. In Greek mythology, she was the most beautiful woman in the world. A daughter of the god Zeus, she is best known for the
part she played in causing the Trojan War.
A. Penelope, queen of Ithaca C. Helen of Troy
B. Persephone, queen of the underworld D. Hera, queen of Olympus

9. When Paris abducted Helen to Troy, all the Greek princes were bound by the oath to help Menelaus recover Helen. Athena
and Hera who were not chosen by Paris sided with the Greeks who sent one thousand ships to Troy. What does this indicate?
A. Serious decisions have serious consequences.
B. Paris was wrong in choosing Aphrodite as winner.
C. Hera and Athena harbored ill feelings.
D. Zeus ordered the goddesses to take side in the war.

10. He is called “the most Greek of all the gods.” He is also called the lord of silver bow and the archer-god.
A. Mars C. Jupiter
B. Neptune D. Apollo

11. Which of these theories claims that myths are distorted accounts of real historical events?
A. Euhemerism C. Personification
B. Allegory D. Myth-ritual Theory

12. According to this theory of mythopoeic thought, the ancients tend to view things as persons, not as mere objects; thus, they
describe natural events as acts of personal gods, and giving rise to myths.
A. Allegory C. Myth-ritual Theory
B. Personification D. Euhemerism

13. In what mythology a cosmic truth that “all things are simply a part of a greater whole one” is held?
A. Hindu Mythology C. Celtic Mythology
B. Egyptian Mythology D. Mesopotamian Myth

14. It is considered as the cradle of civilization.

A. Egypt C. Mesopotamia
B. Asia Minor D. Greece

15. In the study of Scandinavian mythology, this text composed in the 13th century by Snorri Sturluson is a prose manual for producing skaldic
poetry which utilizes alliterative verse, kennings, and various metrical forms.
A. Prose Edda C. Gesta Danorum
B. Attila the Hun D. Heimskringla

16. She is often shown seated on a lotus. She is worshipped by many modern Hindus, usually in the home every Friday and on the festival days
throughout the year.
A. Lakshmi C. Durga
B. Parvati D. Kali

17. In Hindu tradition, Vishnu is regarded as the preserver of the universe, while Shiva as_____.
A. The supreme eternal deity C. The destroyer
B. the conqueror D. the monkey god

18. In Canaanite mythology, he is said to be in charge of rain and weather, and that man’s survival is dependent upon his provision.
A. Baal C. Dagan
B. ElB D. Mot

19. He is considered as the Mesopotamian great hero and son of goddess Ninsun whose stories are told in Sumerian and Babylonian poems.
A. Gilgamesh C. Enuma Elish
B. Enkidu D. Anu

20. Which of these does not comprise the four essential functions of mythology as viewed by Joseph Campbell?
A. Eliciting and supporting a sense of awe before the mystery of being
B. Supporting the current social order to integrate the individual organically with his group
C. Initiating the individual into the order of realities of his own psyche
D. Exploring religious experience through reproducing the conditions of the mythical age

21. It is an ancient region known as present-day Israel, Lebanon and the Palestine
A. Canaan C. Amorite
B. Mesopotamia D. Phoenicia

22. According to the epic poem Enuma Elish, this Mesopotamian god leads the new gods in a battle against the old gods. After defeating the gods of
chaos and gaining power of a supreme god, he creates the sky and earth, as well as the first human beings.
A. Tiamat C. Marduk
B. Kingu D. Nabu

23. In Hindu mythology, he is traditionally depicted with four heads, four faces and four arms. He also symbolizes the supreme eternal deity whose
essence pervades the entire universe.
A. Brahma C. Shiva
B. Vishnu D. Sarasvati

24. He is a symbol of strength, perseverance, devotion, and energy in Hinduism.

A. Hanuman C. Ganesh
 B. Vanara D. Kali

25. In Norse mythology, dwarfs often act as earthen smiths whereas beings described as jotnar, thursar, and troll are glossed as__.
A. Elves C. Deities
B. Perching Hawks D. Giants

26. What body of myths is highly dominated by tales of courageous combatants, their great feats, and activities related to tribal life such as hunting and
feasting?
A. Norse mythology C. Egyptian mythology
B. Hindu mythology D. Celtic mythology

27. In Egyptian mythology, he is the god of the dead and the ruler of the underworld.
A. Shu C. Osiris
B. Ra D. Amun

28. He is the youth loved and accidentally killed by Apollo who memorializes him with a flower growing from the youth’s blood.
A. Adonis C. Narcissus
B. Hyacinthus D. Apollo

29. She is a Phoenician princess carried off by Zeus in the form of a white bull, and the mother of Minos, Rhadamanthus and Sarpedon.
A. Cassiopeia C. Europa
B. Hera D. Demeter

30. A monster shaped half like a man and half like a bull, confined in the labyrinth built by Daedalus for Minos, and given a periodic tribute of youths and
maidens as food until slain by Theseus:
A. Gorgon C. Centaur
B. Cyclops D. Minotaur

31. He is the brother of Prometheus; a scatterbrained person who follows his first impulse, and gives all the best gifts to the
animals.
A. Epimetheus C. Telemachus
B. Polyphemus D. Hercules

32. A fleet-footed huntress who challenges her suitors to a race and is defeated by Hippomenes when she stops to pick up three golden apples he
has dropped:
A. Arethusa C. Atalanta
B. Artemis D. Eurydice

33. In Odyssey when a priest and a poet fell on their knees before Odysseus, praying him to spare their lives, the hero _____
the priest without a thought, but _____ the poet.
A. imprisoned – freed C. killed – saved
B. freed – imprisoned D. saved - killed

34. He was an ancient writer who was a compendium of mythology. Most of the books about the stories of classical mythology
depend chiefly upon him.
A. Ovid C. Pindar
B. Hesoid D. Aeschylus

35. The following belong to the twelve Olympians EXCEPT _____.

A. Ares C. Hephaestus
B. Athena D. Cupid

36. Zeus’s breastplate was the _____, his bird was the eagle, his tree the oak, and his oracle Dodona.
A. thunderbolt C. aegis
B. lightning D. majestic shield

37. Poseidon was commonly called _____ and was always carrying his trident, a three-pronged spear.
A. the great ocean wave C. the mighty
B. the sea monster D. the earth-shaker

38. She was the daughter of Zeus alone because no mother bore her. Full grown and in full armor, she sprang from his head.
A. Aphrodite C. Demeter
B. Athena D. Persephone

39. He was one of the great heroes in Trojan War and was held to be the real founder of Rome.
A. Achilles C. Aeneas
B. Odysseus D. Hector

40. In Trojan War, he asked Achilles’ armor for he believed that if the enemies thought he were Achilles, the Trojans may pause
and the worn-out Greeks would have breathing space.
A. Patroclus C. Agamemnon
B. Ajax D. Menelaus

41. Whose wily mind thought of the stratagem of the wooden horse that is often alluded to have caused the Trojans’ defeat
against the Greeks?
A. Achilles C. Menelaus
B. Aeneas D. Odyssey

42. She, who was a princess and could foretell the future, echoed Laocoon’s warning and suggestion to destroy the wooden
horse but no one ever listened to her.
A. Cassandra C. Dido
B. Psyche D. Galatea

43. He was the strongest man on earth and was considered as equal with the gods.
 A. Atlas C. Hercules
B. Prometheus D. Achilles

44. He was nephew and pupil of Daedalus. He invented the saw and the compass. Daedalus became jealous of him and killed
him, and Minerva, pitying him, changed him into s partridge.
A. Perdix C. Minos
B. Pelias D. Orpheus

45. He accidentally killed his own grandfather, Acrisius, in a discus-throwing contest. The discus struck him. The blow was fatal
and he died once.
A. Oedipus C. Apollo
B. Perseus D. Telemachus

46. The following are flower myths EXCEPT _____.

A. Narcissus C. Adonis
B. Hyacinth D. Cupid

47. He was a sculptor who fell in love, deeply, passionately in love with the thing he had made.
A. Pyramus C. Ceyx
B. Orpheus D. Pygmalion

48. He attempted to ride Pegasus up to Olympus for he believed he could take his place with the immortals.
A. Endymion C. Peleus
B. Bellerophon D. Orpheus

49. He was the architect who had contrived the labyrinth for the minotaur in Crete, and showed Ariadne how Theseus could
escape from it.
A. Icarus C. Daedalus
B. Cadmus D. Tantalus

50. Since Perseus had no gift to offer king Polydectes, he told him he _____
A. would go off and kill his one thousand enemies
B. would kill the Sphinx and bring back his head as a gift
C. would behead Medusa and bring her head to him.
D. would set a fighting contest to honor him

51. He wrote the book “The Hero with a Thousand Faces” which discussed his theory of the journey of the archetypal hero
found in world mythologies.
A. Carl Jung
B. Euhemerus
C. Hesoid
D. Joseph Campbell

52. This is a collection of stories and fables from Arabia, Egypt, India, and Persia that were compiled from oral tales that had
been passed down through these cultures for generations.
A. The Pachantantra
B. A Thousand and One Nights
C. One Night with the Arabians
D. Alibaba and His Magics

53. According to this ancient theory of mythology, all myths contain hidden meanings which the narrative deliberately conceals
or encodes. The best example is the “Story of King Midas and His Golden Touch.”
A. Etymological Theory
B. Allegorical Theory
C. Euhemerism
D. Rationalism

54. She was a Greek mythological character who chose to bury her own brother, Polyneices, against the order of Creon who
was in control of Thebes. This caused her death.
A. Ismene
B. Antigone
C. Electra
D. Naiad

55. He believed his mother was vile for she killed his own father. Later, he was acquitted by Athena because according to
Apollo he killed at his command.
A. Orestes
B. Agamemnon
C. Eteocles
D. Polyneices

56. He successfully get rid of the Sphinx by correctly solving its riddle “What creature goes on four feet in the morning, on two
feet at noonday, and on three feet in the evening?”
A. Jason
B. Orestes
C. Oedipus
D. Minos

57. Greeks made their gods and goddesses _____.

A. based on the characters of the ancient stories
B. in their own images
C. in their own ideas of best forms of divinities
D. based on the stories handed to them by their ancestors
58. A three-headed dog that in Greek mythology, guards the entrance to Hades:
A. Charon
B. Cerberus
C. Dionysus
D. Chiron

59. From what was explained, how may we better define “collective unconscious”?
A. It refers to the accepted norms of thinking.
B. It refers to the historical beliefs of the Filipinos.
C. It refers to the inherited patterns of human behaviour.
D. It refers to the collective dreams of a certain group of people.

60. What term did Joseph Campbell use to refer to the fundamental structure of all folklore of olden days?
A. monomyth B. plot C. mythic D. structure

61. In most heroic stories, the hero goes to unknown world to either conquer it or destroy his enemies. In return, he is rewarded
by the gods who favour him or by his own people. What theme of mythology and folklore is shown?
A. heroism, defeat, salvation
B. journeys, quests, trials
C. worlds destroyed, heroism, defeat
D. journeys, heroism, triumph

62.In the famous local story “Juan Tamad”, What Filipino attitude is attacked?
A. The tendency to wait for things to come.
B. The belief that he can have everything he wants.
C. The need to depend on other people.
D. The intention to be different.

LINGUISTICS

1. Which of the following sentence structures is “syntactically ambiguous”?

A. The students cheated on the examination. C. We want peace.
B. Every book in the library has a call number. D. Call me a cab.

2. Which hypothesis of Krashen’s Monitor Model proposes that when learners are exposed to grammatical features a little
beyond their current (i.e., I + 1), those features are “acquired”. Acquisition results from comprehensible input, which is made
understandable with the help provided by the context.
A. acquisition/learning hypothesis C. input hypothesis
B. natural order hypothesis D. affective filter hypothesis

3. They view the language as a system of related elements or “building blocks” for the encoding of meaning, the elements being
phonemes (sounds), morphemes (words), tagmemes (phrases/sentences/clauses).
A. structuralists C. functionalists
B. transformationalists D. interactionalists

4. Which of the following is a view of an interactionalist?

A. Language is primarily vocal.
B. Language is creative.
C. Language emphasizes the meaning and functions rather than the structures
D. Language is a vehicle for establishing interpersonal relationship.

5. Which theory on language teaching has given birth to the methods that are learner-centered, allowing learners to work in
pairs or groups in information gap tasks and problem-solving activities where such communication strategies as information
sharing, negotiation of meaning, and interaction are used.
A. Structuralism C. Cognitivism
B. Behaviorism D. Functionalism

6. It is a branch of linguistics that deals with how words combine to form phrases, phrases combine to form clauses, and
clauses conjoin to make sentences.
A. morphology C. semantics
B. syntax D. pragmatics

7. What is shown in the systematic variation of /t/ such as /t/ in top is aspirated, /t/ is stop is released, and /t/ in pot is
unreleased?
A. phoneme C. variation
B. consonant D. allophone

8. Which of the following sounds are produced by bringing the articulators near each other such that the flow of air is impeded
but not completely blocked. The air flow through the narrow opening creates friction.
A. p,b,t,d,k,g C. m,n,ŋ
B. f,v,Ɵ,ð,s,z,š,ẑ,h D. l,r

9. Which is the study of larger linguistic units, such as conversational exchanges or written texts?
A. Rhetoric C. Genre Analysis E. Pragmatics
B. Stylistics D. Discourse Analysis

10. Which of the following is an example derivational morpheme?

A. helpful C. eaten
B. stays D. longest

11. The words “gym, mike, and TV” are formed through _____.
A. clipping C. root creation
B. back formation D. compounding
12. What morphophonemic process is involved in which units that occur in some contexts are “lost” in others such as “l i b r y”
instead of “l i b r a r y”?
A. assimilation C. epenthesis
B. dissimilation D. metathesis

13. Which syntactic structure is shown in the following examples? responsible officers, trusted friend
A. predication C. modification
B. complementation D. coordination

14. What is made use in this example “I told Paul to close the door and he did so”?
A. homonymy C. deixis
B. anaphora D. hyponymy

15. What category of illocutionary act is demonstrated in the following example?

Recession will worsen in Europe in the next five years.
A. representative C. directive
B. commissive D. expressive

16. What conversation maxim seems to have been violated in the following example?
A: How was the LET?
B: Well, the proctor is my former college professor.
A. maxim of quantity C. maxim of relation
B. maxim of quality D. maxim of manner

17. Which sound is produced with the primary constriction between the tongue and the velum?
A. f B. t C. p D. k

18. Overgeneralization errors such as “goed” and “keeped” are common in children’s speech. Such errors suggest that children
_____.
A. are repeating what was said to them, and should take note of them
B. do not know the past tense forms of those verbs, and experience difficulty
C. induce the rules for the past tense from the language to which they are exposed
D. repeat the teacher’s mistakes, and those errors are very hard to undo

19. This type of language is used to describe the kind of language a learner uses at a given time, that is, his version of a given
language, which deviates in certain ways from the language of a mature speaker.
A. dialect C. holophrastic speech
B. native language D. interlanguage

20. According to cognitivists, errors in second language learning is considered _____.

A. basis for testing
B. part of learning process
C. as proofs of unsystematic way of learning
D. not part of natural progression in acquisition of English

21. What aptly describes “universal grammar”?

A. language used for communication by people who speak different first languages
B. rules applicable to all human languages
C. language with the same vocabulary, grammar, and pronunciation
D. rules of grammar that distinguish one language from the others

22. At the border of two countries there is a port where fishermen work. The fishermen do not speak the same language, so
they communicate using one that has been invented but only for the purpose of trade. This scenario most accurately describes
which of the following types of language?
A. a dialect C. a pidgin
B. a creole D. a regionalism

23. If the second language learner “assimilates”, then he _____.

A. maintains its own life style and values and rejects those of the target language group
B. adapts to the life style and values of the target language group but maintains its own life style and values for the intragroup
use.
C. gives up his own life style and values and adopts those of the target language group
D. maximizes the use of his first language and the target language

24. The following are the areas of knowledge and skills of communicative competence EXCEPT _____
A. grammatical competence C. discourse competence
B. sociolinguistic competence D. structural competence

25. Speaker A’s final remark functions as _____.

Speaker A: That’s the telephone.
Speaker B: I’m in the bath.
Speaker A: OK.

A. a request to answer the phone C. acceptance of an excuse

B. an excuse for not complying D. sarcasm

26. What is strategy is used by the second language learner in the following situation”
“The student forgot the English term “train station”. He used the phrase “the place for trains” instead.
A. inference C. generalization
B. paraphrase D. adaptation

27. Which theory of language origin claims that a number of words in any language are onomatopoeic?
A. Divine Source Theory C. Oral-Gesture Source Theory
 B. Natural-Sound Source Theory D. Glossogenetics Theory

28. Which of the following best describes a “phrase”?

A. a sequence of words that does not express a complete thought
B. a sequence of words that can function as a sentence constituent
C. a sequence of words that contains only a subject and no predicate
D. a sequence of words that contains only a predicate and no subject

29. The following can function as “intensive verbs” EXCEPT _____.

A. seem B. become C. remain D. make

30. All of the following are implications of Krashen’s Monitor Model EXCEPT _____.
A. Teachers should correct errors during the time they are committed as error correction is valuable.
B. Teachers should not insist on learners conversing before they feel comfortable in doing so.
C. Teachers should not expect learners to learn “late structures” such as third person singular early.
D. Teachers consider grammatical teaching is of limited value.
___________________________________________

31. Which of the following is the most accurate statement about the language acquisition process of young children?
A. Young children understand full sentences at a relatively late stage in language development.
B. Young children exhibit random, highly variable errors in sentence construction.
C. Young children infer the underlying rules of language to which they are exposed.
D. Young children require planned early instructional intervention to master the grammar of the English language.

32. Which of the following pair of words demonstrate that different letter combinations can represent the same speech sound?
A. church…chorus
B. bow…bow
C. hot…cold
D. phone…laugh

33. How many phonemes are in the word “rerecorded”?

A. one
B. two
C. three
D. four

34. An ESL teacher is designing a listening lesson for sixth-grade intermediate-level English language learners. Which of the
following guidelines should the teacher follow in order to align the lesson with the comprehensible input hypothesis?
A. Use a familiar aural selection appropriate for beginning-level students.
B. Choose an aural selection that is slightly above the students' comprehension level.
C. Provide a difficult aural selection along with a written script to which students can refer.
D. Locate an aural selection that comes with a written translation in the students' primary language.

35. An English language learner is at an advanced stage of English language acquisition. However, the student continues to
make certain consistent syntactic errors despite a general level of proficiency. This phenomenon can best be explained as ___.
A. delay in internalizing prescriptive grammar rules.
B. positive transfer from the first language.
C. fossilization of interlanguage structures.
D. code-switching between two languages.

STRUCTURE OF ENGLISH

1. The underlined verbs in the following sentences are classified as _____.

The time is now.
The world became flesh.
We remain silent.

A. intransitive C. transitive
B. reflexive D. ascriptive

2. Which of the following is the true description of an auxiliary verb?

A. It is used to complete the verb phrase in certain constructions such as the emphatic, the negative, the passive, or the
perfect and progressive aspects.
B. It occurs before the main verb, and denotes modification of the basic meaning of the main verb.
C. It belongs to several classifications of verbs. It may take an impersonal it as a subject.
D. It is followed by noun or noun phrase functioning as its direct object.

3. Lexical ambiguity is best exemplified by which of the following sentences?

A. Is the bank okay? C. What is the commotion about?
B. Where did he place my knapsack? D. How is she coping with the difficult situation?
E. What did the barangay chairman say?

4. The word “just” in the sentence below indicates _____. “She has just eaten.”
A. an action that was true in the past and is still relevant to the present
B. a recently completed action
C. an action which was completed before another past action
D. an action continuing at a given point in time

5. All of the following contains verbal EXCEPT _____.

A. Satisfied, the producer began paying the artists.
B. Having recovered her voice, the soprano hit her top notes well.
C. Your mom arrived after you had gone.
D. To see is to believe.
6. What type of mood is indicated in this sentence: “How did you come to know about that tragic event?”
A. indicative C. imperative
B. subjunctive D. directive

7. The sentence “The child cried when his toy car got broken” follows ____ pattern.
A. N InV C. N TrV N
B. N LV Adj. D. N InV Adv.

8. “Mario, my older brother, fathers there good looking and smart children.” The underlined word functions as
A. a noun C. an adjective
B. a verb D. a possessive

9. Which of the following adjective phrases is syntactically correct?

A. the most unique C. the very much unique
B. nearly unique D. less unique

10. Which of the following is a gradable adjective?

A. absolute C. complete
B. clear D. impossible

11. Which sentence has ditransitive verb?

A. Those guys are highly intelligent group of engineers.
B. Those mean boys tried to throw a rock through our windows.
C. Nobody will believe a ruffian like you.
D. My mother gave me this cardigan for Christmas.

12. Which approach to language teaching is based on the behaviorist’s belief that language is the acquisition of a set of correct
language habits and whose goal is to use the target language communicatively, overlearn it, so as to be able to use it
automatically.
A. Grammar-Translation Method C. Communicative Approach
B. Direct Method D. Suggestopedia
E. Audio-Lingual Method

13. All of the following contain operator verbs EXCEPT ____.

A. My father approves your marriage proposal.
B. Will your father approve my marriage proposal?
C. My father won’t approve your marriage proposal.
D. Your father will approve my marriage proposal, won’t he?

14. Who introduced the concepts of Basic Interpersonal Communicative Skills (BICS) and Cognitive Academic Language
Proficiency (CALP) in second language development in 1979?
A. Jim Cummins C. Grant Wiggins E. M.A.K. Halliday
B. Jack Richards D. Dell Hymes

15. The President himself promised to stop the war. The underlined word is ______ pronoun.
A. an interrogative C. a reflexive
B. an intensive D. a reciprocal

16. Which of the following sentences does NOT observe correct subject-verb agreement?
A. The mayor as well as his brothers is going to prison.
B. Neither of the two traffic lights is working.
C. My assets were wiped out in the depression.
D. Neither the plates nor the serving bowl go on that shelf.

17. The pronoun in this sentence is _____.

“When she arrived, Suad was surprised to find her apartment door open.
A. cataphoric C. deitic
B. anaphoric D. coreferential

18. The underlined word in this sentence functions as ______. “We elected him chairman.”
A. direct object C. objective complement
B. indirect object D. predicate nominative

19. Which of the following words is derived from a French word?

A. Armadillo C. Poultry
B. Geography D. Laser

20. Why do most fathers prefer a son _____ a daughter for his first-born child?
A. to B. than C. from D. over

21. I am going to sit and rest _______.

A. a little bit B. a while C. a little more D. awhile
22. Which sentence has error in punctuation?
A. “You’re a great friend,” Jose said.
B. Judith, my best friend went to a concert last Friday.
C. I have a lot of work to do; as such, I left for work a few minutes early.
D. According to the radio, surface streets were the best alternative to the congested freeways.

23. Unprepared for such a strong rebuttal, _____.

A. the lawyer’s attempt at winning the case failed C. the lawyer failed to win the case
B. the lawyer’s attempt failed to win the case D. the lawyer failed in his attempt to win the case
24. ______ on the MTRCB to take action.
A. Whenever television is denounced by viewers for its violence, they call
B. Whenever television is denounced for its violence, viewers call
C. Whenever viewers denounce television for its violence, they call
D. Whenever a denunciation of television is voiced, they call

25. In which of the following sentences does the verb “be” (is) functions as the intensive verb or copula?
A. Ed is annoying. C. Ed is annoying me.
B. Ed is fooling around. D. Ed is going out of control.

26. Which approach to grammar refers to the structure of a language as it is actually used by speakers and writer?
A. prescriptive grammar C. descriptive grammar
B. pedagogical grammar D. reference grammar

27. In Chomsky’s Transformational Grammar, to what does a sentence’s “deep structure” refer?
A. the actual spoken words C. the abstract representation of a sentence
B. the version of a sentence that we articulate and hear D. the underlying meaning of a sentence

28. The following are true about Communicative Competence Language Teaching EXCEPT:
A. Language is seen as a social tool that speakers use to make meaning.
B. Diversity is recognized and accepted as part of language development.
C. A fixed set of techniques and methodology is prescribed.
D. More than one variety of a language is recognized as a viable model for learning and teaching.
E. It is essential that learners be engaged in doing things with language.

29. What term is used to refer to the provision of sufficient support to promote learning when concepts and skills are being first
introduced to students with the intention of helping the student achieve his/her learning goals?
A. intervention C. tutorial E. coaching
B. scaffolding D. modelling

30. The following words may belong to the same lexical category EXCEPT _____.
A. give B. place C. fame D. book E. play

31. Which of the following statements about sentence structure is NOT correct?
A. Two words (lexis) that belong to the same category (lexical category) can substitute each other in a sentence.
B. Each word has limitless range of possible functions.
C. There are restrictions on how the words can combine to form grammatical phrases.
D. Lexical categories can expand into bigger strings of words called “phrasal categories.”
E. The distribution of a word in a sentence structure determines its function.

32. A student comes across the unfamiliar word “intercontinental,” “interglacial,” “interface,” and “intercept” in his reading. The
student can use his knowledge of affixes to understand that all of the words share which meaning?
A. between; among C. earth; environment
B. not; opposite of D. under; too little

33. All of the following are true about verb tense EXCEPT:
A. Present perfect tense is used to express action or a condition that started in the past and is continued to or completed in
the present.
B. Future tense is used to express a condition of future time.
C. Past perfect tense expresses action or a condition that occurred as a precedent to some other action or condition.
D. Future perfect tense expresses action that started in the past or present and will conclude at some time in the future.

34. A sentence that contains one independent clause and three dependent clauses is best described as _____.
A. Simple sentence C. Complex sentence
B. Compound sentence D. Compound-complex sentence

35. If I ____ that learning Russian was going to be so difficult, I _____ that course.
A. had known / would never take C. had known / would never have taken
B. knew / would never take D. knew / would never have taken

36. By the end of the course the students _________ the most important grammar structures.
A. have mastered B. will have mastered C. have been mastering D. are mastering

37. The word that does not follow the adj + -ly structure to derive an adverb from another word is _____.
A. hastily
B. orderly
C. properly
D. dutifully

38. In the sentence, “The red roses given as a birthday gift by my best friend really smell sweet,” which adjective is predicative?
A. red
B. birthday
C. best
D. sweet

39. Which of the following sentences should have the article “the” on the blank?
A. The artist I talked in the Art Fair is _____ Michelangelo.
B. _____ Philippines has a lot of wonderful tourist destinations.
C. Duterte wins by _____ landslide.
D. _____ sampaguita lei is usually given to a guest of honor.

40. The conjuncts in this sentence are _____.

“Ella was a girl who could surf but who was afraid to swim.”
 A. sentences
B. relative clauses
C. relative pronouns
D. independent clause

41. Which of the following sentences is the most acceptable because it is easy to handle?
A. Everyone passed his or her paper on time.
B. Everyone passed their projects on time.
C. Everyone passed his/her project on time.
D. All the students passed their projects on time.

42. The reference of the singular pronoun in this sentence is _____.

“Father drove the car into the garage beside our house with its headlights on.”
A. father
B. car
C. garage
D. house

43. The following words are derived EXCEPT _____.

A. attendance
B. televise
C. perfectly
D. children

44. The incorrectly matched word from this sentence with the part of speech is _____.
“My aunt tenderly mothers her youngest son.”
A. my – adjective
B. tenderly – adverb
C. mothers – noun
D. youngest – adjective

45. Which of the following plural words is an unmarked form?

A. students
B. bacteria
C. women
D. alumni

46. Which of the following can be both transitive and intransitive verb?
A. seem
B. arrive
C. sing
D. bring

47. Which of the following is a prototypical imperative sentence?

A. Let us gather wild berries.
B. Could you please sharpen my pencil?
C. Don’t wash your dirty linen in public.
D. Wait for your turn.

48. The underlined words in this sentence show _____.

“My brother doesn’t like meat and neither do I.”
A. uninverted affirmative elision
B. inverted affirmative elision
C. uninverted negative elision
D. inverted negative elision

49. A select group in the middles east countries, under pressure to satisfy the needs of consumers, _____ control of the
economy.
A. by loosening their
B. is loosening its
C. but loosening their
D. are loosening their

50. Which of the following sentences contains a subject-verb agreement error?

A. Both mother and her two sisters were married in a triple ceremony
B. Neither the hen nor the rooster is likely to be served for dinner
C. My boss, as well as the company’s two personnel directors, have been to Spain
D. Amanda and the twins are late again

51. The Johnsons ___ their luxurious house anywhere. I simply do not understand why they chose such a bad location.
A. must have built
B. could have built
C. can build
D. might build

52. I think my mother-in-law really appreciated _____ giving her a hand.

A. my
B. I was
C. mine
D. I am

53. Last week, the Colombian President denied _____ the imprisonment of several famous journalists.
A. to order
 B. having ordered
C. to have ordered
D. have been ordering

54. I remember very clearly my mother ______ me how to write. She would spend hours writing down the letters of the alphabet
one by one.
A. to teach
B. to have taught
C. teaching
D. teach

55. Scientists have speculated that the destruction of the Amazon Forest would ______ plants and animals to dangerous acid
rain.
A. have been exposed
B. have been exposing
C. expose
D. be exposed

56. Grammar may be taught in two main ways – by experience with discourse that entails the varieties of word forms and
sentence construction, or by analyzing dummy sentences and diagramming parts. Plentiful discursive experience is what really
teaches grammar, for it exercises judgment and provides language intake, whereas formal grammar study has been proved
irrelevant. Politics more than pedagogy retards the changing of the curriculum to fit this truth.
A. using language in a wide variety of situations improves grammar
B. good judgment can be improved by studying the rules of formal grammar
C. analyzing and diagramming provide exercise in logical thinking
D. formal study of grammar improves writing ability

57. Ms. Cruz asked her students to identify and take note of the discourse markers that the speakers use. What listening
comprehension skill is she trying to develop in her students?
A. listening for gist
B. Drawing inferences
C. Making predictions
D. Listening for details

ENGLISH FOR SPECIFIC PURPOSES

1. Which of the following statements is NOT true about slang expression?

A. Are expressions that are not considered standard in the speaker’s language or dialect
B. Are considered acceptable in certain social settings
C. Are widely used in informal and formal speech and writing
D. Have a very short, momentary life

2. Which of the following words qualifies as slang?

A. spyware C. ammo
B. scrub suit D. goalie

3. Which of the following linguists introduced the term “register” in 1956?

A. Thomas Bertram Reid C. Henry Widdowson
B. M.A.K. Halliday D. Robert lado

4. What term is used to refer to a variety of language used for a particular purpose or in a particular social setting?
A. register C. dialect
B. basilect D. idiolect

5. The following words seem to belong to the same register EXCEPT:

A. desist C. debit
B. null D. litigation

6. The following statements characterize ESP (English for Specific Purpose) in the context of English language teaching
EXCEPT ____.
A. It is designed to meet specified needs of the learner.
B. It is centered on the language appropriate to those activities in syntax, lexis, discourse, semantics, etc., and analysis of
this discourse.
C. It is contrast with General English.
D. It is designed to address the needs of learners with different native languages.

7. The following are characteristics of “casual register,” EXCEPT:

A. Common among friends in a social setting C. No background information provided
B. Wording is exactly the same every time it is spoken. D. Tends to be slangy

8. Which of the following is a jargon of academe?

A. pedagogy C. bureaucracy
B. leveraging D. deficit

9. Which is an example of course for English for Occupational Purposes (EOP)?

A. English for Medical Studies C. English for Social Advocacy
B. English for Research Writing D. English for Technicians

10. Who defined ESP by identifying its absolute and variable characteristics?
A. Tony Dudley-Evans C. Peter Strevens
B. Tom Hutchinson D. Martin Joos
11. The following are levels of vocabulary taught in ESP EXCEPT _____.
A. colloquial vocabulary C. general vocabulary
B. special vocabulary D. semi-technical vocabulary

12. What basic feature of ESP is emphasized when students survive in an academic setting or in a workplace, topics and
activities because of specified goal and the program is not geared towards a general approach to teaching the English
language?
A. ESP is goal-oriented. C. ESP is time-bound.
B. ESP is based on need analysis. D. ESP is for adults.

13. Which is true about Discourse Analysis?

A. a classificatory system C. revealing the essential differences between written works
B. speech variety used by particular group of people D. revealing the similarities between texts

14. What is an “argot”?

A. an inferior dialect resulting from corrupting a particular language
B. an euphemistic expression used by a particular group of individuals
C. an informal specialized vocabulary related to a hobby, job, sport, etc.
D. an invented language resulting from geographical isolation

15. What type of ESP syllabus is appropriate for a course in writing business letters or a course in presenting business reports?
A. content-based syllabus C. method-based syllabus
B. skill-based syllabus D. language skill-based syllabus

16. According to Graves (1996), “needs assessment” is _____.

A. the process of assigning values to data C. the process of comparing and contrasting data
B. the process of obtaining data D. the process of collecting and storing data

17. “Needs Analysis” may be defined as _____.

A. the process of assigning values to data C. the process of comparing and contrasting data
B. the process of obtaining data D. the process of collecting and storing data

18. The following are good examples of language functions EXCEPT _____.
A. introducing oneself and other C. greeting and saying goodbye
B. beginning and ending a conversation D. preparing for two-minute congratulatory speech

19. What type of test is most useful to ESP?

A. diagnostic test C. performance test
B. achievement test D. Proficiency test

20. What activity in an ESP program is used when the student assumes a different role, such as a captain pilot and gives order
to his crew or reports coordinates to the air traffic control tower?
A. stimulation C. role task-based
B. simulation D. cooperative learning

21. The following stages are necessary in course designing in ESP EXCEPT _____.
A. needs assessment C. content conceptualization
B. determining goals and objective D. role and task specification

22. Which syllabus would be the most appropriate to train the English Proficiency of students who will be employed as Baristas
in an International shipping cruise?
A. skills-based syllabus C. content-based syllabus
B. method-based syllabus D. knowledge-based syllabus

23. What type of syllabus would be the most appropriate for Chinese nationals who came to the Philippines to enhance their
Basic Interpersonal Communications Skills in English?
A. skills-based syllabus C. content-based syllabus
B. method-based syllabus D. knowledge-based syllabus

24. Which principle in grammar teaching is applicable for ESP context?

A. using structural syllabus C. teaching structures related to language functions
B. focusing on forms D. emphasizing the parts of speech

25. This type of scoring in ESP tests aims to evaluate the students’ overall performance.
A. analytic scoring C. holistic scoring
B. discreet-point scoring D. objective scoring

26. A person walks into a room with an open window, shivers, and says to others in the room, "Wow! It's really cold in here!" In
this context, this utterance is most likely intended to function pragmatically as:
A. an observation that the window is open.
B. a personal expression of dislike for the cold.
C. a request for someone to close the window.
D. a greeting and opening to casual conversation.

27. Familiarity with the pragmatics of a language would best help a language learner understand which of the following aspects
of the language?
A. the rules governing the use of inflectional and derivational affixes in the language
B. the role of intentional silence in interpersonal interactions in the language
C. the ways in which positive statements can be negated in the language
D. the influence of other languages on the historical development of the language

28. While conducting research on a controversial issue for a class assignment, a high school student who is a proficient English
speaker finds a legal brief that addresses his research topic. Although he reads above grade level in English, he has significant
difficulty comprehending the language of the legal brief. This example best illustrates which of the following sociolinguistic
concepts?
A. language functions C. idiomatic language
B. dialect diversity D. register variation

SPEECH

1. It is a generally accepted first principle of oral interpretation that the reader must be true to
A. the performance space C. the method E. his or her training
B. the author D. the audience

2. Within the communication process, the area that causes the most breakdowns is _____.
A. interference C. the situation E. the message
B. feedback D. the channel

3. David is preparing a speech about why Hollywood became the center of the motion picture industry and the impact that its
development as the center had on filmmaking. David’s speech should be organized using which of the following methods?
A. Spatial C. Cause-effect E. Topical
B. Chronological D. Problem-solution

4. All of the following are correct descriptions of listening behavior EXCEPT:

A. Careful listening can lead to anticipation of a speaker’s actions.
B. People who learn to listen selectively can shut out what is undesirable.
C. Listening comprises more than one-half of all communication.
D. The ability to be a good listener comes naturally, and no training is necessary.
E. Being an effective communicator means that one must listen to oneself.

5. When a group is faced with a problem requiring immediate action, the most effective leadership style is _____.
A. authoritarian
B. democratic
C. laissez-faire
D. charismatic
E. permissive

6. The final sound of the possessive noun “Jesus’s” is _____.

A. /z/ C. /∂z/
B. /s/ D. /š/

7. Which word in the sentence does NOT require a change in pitch to show confidence?
“I am the master of my fate; I am the captain of my soul.”
A. am C. master
B. captain D. fate

8. When authorities claim that communication competence is situational, they mean that _____.
A. the physical situation is the dominant factor in determining appropriateness
B. speakers’ communication competence varies from situation to situation
C. most speakers who excel at public speaking excel in interpersonal situations as well
D. all speakers react the same in similar situations

9. Which best describes a difference between verbal and nonverbal communication?

A. nonverbal starts & stops, whereas verbal is continuous
B. nonverbal reflects culture, whereas verbal does not
C. nonverbal is less believable than verbal
D. nonverbal is multi-channeled, whereas verbal tends to take place in a single channel

10. Each of the students in an undergraduate course is required to make a15-minute presentation on a given topic. The
professor has informed students that the use of effective nonverbal communication will make up a portion of the grade received
on the presentation. a
Which of the following is the best example of effective nonverbal communication that a student should use during his
or her presentation?
A. Maintaining eye contact with the professor and owning the stage
B. Using notes and standing straight to show confidence
C. Standing still behind the podium and seizing up the audience from time to time
D. Establishing eye contact throughout the presentation with all members of the audience

11. Which word in this sentence should be stressed to express “opinion”? It sounds like rain.
A. it C. like
B. sounds D. rain

12. Which of the following English words is most commonly pronounced with the vowel sound /ə/ (i.e., schwa)?
A. where C. what
B. who D. why

13. Each of the following is an effective strategy for a teacher who is facilitating a whole-class discussion EXCEPT:
A. having the students sit in a circle instead of traditional rows
B. breaking the class into smaller discussion groups before concluding the whole-class discussion
C. pausing and allowing silence to promote student participation
D. ensuring that all questions require simple-sentence answers

14. Which of the following is a great way to keep a natural atmosphere when speaking publicly?
A. Speak slowly.
B. Maintain a straight, but not stiff, posture.
C. Use friendly gestures.
D. Take a step to the side every once in a while.
15. Students returning from a field trip to the local newspaper want to thank their hosts for the guided tour. As their teacher,
what form of communicate on should you encourage them to use?
A. Each student will send an e-mail expressing his or her appreciation
B. As a class, students will create a blog, and each student will write about what they learned
C. Each student will write a thank you letter that the teacher will fax to the newspaper
D. Each student will write a thank you note that the teacher will mail to the newspaper.

16. Which of the following skills can help students improve their listening comprehension?
I. Tap into prior knowledge.
II. Look for transitions between ideas.
III. Ask questions of the speaker.
IV. Discuss the topic being presented.
A. I and II only
B. II and IV only
C. II and IV only
D. IV only

17. Which of the following statements about the effects of the perception of space on communication behavior is accurate?
A. People usually accept uninvited entry into their personal space but not into their social space.
B. Seating arrangements have little effect on who is likely to dominate a conversation.
C. People who are cooperating are more likely to sit at opposite ends of the table.
D. Interpersonal distances are the same from culture to culture.
E. People often react to the messages expressed by their physical environments.

18. All of the following are correct descriptions of listening behavior EXCEPT:
A. Careful listening can lead to anticipation of a speaker’s actions.
B. People who learn to listen selectively can shut out what is undesirable.
C. Listening comprises more than one-half of all communication.
D. The ability to be a good listener comes naturally, and no training is necessary.
E. Being an effective communicator means that one must listen to oneself.

19. Having identified a problem area, the teacher assigns members of a group specific roles in the group and then requires that
the group reach an agreement through discussion but without resorting to voting or bargaining. This exercise helps the students
gain practical experience in which of the following?
I. Role playing
II. Problem solving
III. Leadership skills
IV. Consensus
A. II only
B. I and III only
C. II and IV only
D. I, II, and IV
E. I, III, and IV

20. According to diffusion theory, opinion leaders are

A. very successful with followers whose backgrounds differ from their own
B. very likely to make themselves available to the mass media
C. less socially active and more introverted than their followers
D. uniformly disregarded by other agents of change
E. unlikely to be influential until they have built a strong group of followers

21. Which of the following most accurately describes the research on the relationship between viewing violence on television
and engaging in violent behavior?
A. It has demonstrated fairly conclusively that there is no substantive relationship between the two activities.
B. It suggests that there is a substantial relationship, in that television viewing patterns predict about 75 percent of
violent behavior.
C. It demonstrates the various ways that violent behavior is manifested in our society.
D. It shows a significant relationship between the two but explains no more than a small amount of violent
behavior.
E. It concludes that there is a substantial relationship for children but not for adults.

22. In teaching the constitutional concept of freedom of speech, a speech communication teacher would find
which of the following situations a useful example?
I. A person collecting data on the political goals of the nineteenth-century abolitionist movement
II. A school board discussing hiring a Marxist teacher
III. A college considering canceling a speech by a civil rights leader because of campus unrest
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II, and III

23. In oral interpretation, a slow tempo to suggest a serious idea may be created with
A. a pitch change
B. greater vocal resonance
C. sustained vowel or certain other sounds such as “m” or “ng”
D. an increase in the frequency of words spoken during a specified time
E. a change of tone

24. Which of the following statements best describes a difference between verbal and nonverbal communication?
A. Nonverbal communication starts and stops, whereas verbal communication is continuous.
B. Nonverbal communication reflects culture, whereas verbal communication does not.
C. Nonverbal communication is less believable than verbal communication.
D. Nonverbal communication is mutichanneled, whereas verbal communication tends to take place in a single
channel.
E. Nonverbal communication is unintentional, whereas verbal communication is intentional.

25. Audience factors such as age, gender, and ethnicity are referred to as
A. personality traits
B. minor characteristics
C. situational variables
D. demographics
E. dispositions

26. To determine whether groupthink is taking place, group leaders should watch for which of the following
symptoms?
A. Statements of group vulnerability (“Lots can go wrong with this project.”)
B. Out-group valuing (“We should not underestimate our competition.”)
C. Welcoming dissenters (“Let’s hear the downsides of this choice.”)
D. Group rationalizing (“We know there are problems, but it’s all good.”)
E. Group feelings of uneasiness (“We should take our time in making this decision.”)

WRITING

1. A student is conducting a research project and has learned of a website that may have useful information. The domain
extension for the site is .org. Which of the following assumptions about the website is correct?
A. All of the information on the site is current.
B. The site has been evaluated for bias and might belong to a profit agency..
C. The site might belong to a nonprofit agency.
D. The author of the site is well respected in his or field.

2. In preparation for a writing unit on short stories, a teacher presents students with several examples of short stories and works
with them to identify defining characteristics of the genre. Which of the following best describes this instructional strategy?
A. conferencing
B. discipline-based inquiry
C. self-regulated strategy development
D. introduction-body-conclusion strategy

3. In a holistic evaluation of student essays, evaluations are made on the basis of the _____
A. overall quality of number and variety of errors made by each student
B. overall quality of number of sentences, length and complexity demonstrated in each essay
C. overall ability of each student to communicate in a variety of discourse modes
D. overall quality of each student’s essay in relation to the topic

4 A parent walks into a classroom and sees the children in groups, each gathered around a poster board. The children are
writing ideas on the poster board in what looks like graffiti (writing on walls) to the parent. When the parent asks the teacher
what the children are doing, the teacher is likely to explain that ___.
A. this is playtime, and the children need playtime because recess has been taken out of the program
B. the children are involved in brainstorming, which is part of the prewriting stage of the writing process
C. invented spelling and graffiti type expression is important to the child’s development
D. the children are creating final versions of posters to be displayed in the school fair.

5. When doing research on the life of an important figure, you would probably give more credence to a biography than you
would to an autobiography, due to memoirist’s _____.
A. verbosity C. subjectivity
B. creativity D. experiences

6. Which type of logical fallacy is demonstrated by this argument?

It is essential that we reject the proposed changes to the company’s insurance plan. If we don’t protest against these
changes now, we’ll soon end up with no health coverage at all.
A. slippery slope C. strawman
B. red herring D. circular reasoning

7. All of the following are true about a descriptive essay EXCEPT:

A. Its purpose is to make an experience available through one of the five senses
B. Its words make it possible for the reader to see with their mind’s eye
C. Its language will move people because of the emotion involved
D. It does not try to get anyone to take a certain action

8. A student has written a paper with the following characteristics: written in first person; characters, setting, and plot; some
dialogue; events organized in chronological sequence with some flashbacks. In
what genre has the student written?
A. Expository writing C. Persuasive writing
B. Narrative writing D. Descriptive writing

9.All of the following are stages of the writing process EXCEPT:

A. Prewriting C. Organizing
B. Revising D. Presenting

10. Which of the following should not be included in the opening paragraph of an informative essay?
A. Thesis sentence
B. Details and examples supporting the main idea
C. Broad general introduction to the topic
D. A style and tone that grabs the reader’s attention
11. Which of the following is the most effective instructional technique for helping kindergarten students develop an
understanding of concepts about print?
A. Exposing students to a variety of rhyming texts
B. Modelling how to track text during shared reading of a text
C. Modelling finger tapping to identify the number of phonemes in words
D. Providing direct instruction in common letter-sound relationships

12. When teaching research skills to elementary students, a teacher should have the students focus primarily on which of the
following?
A. evaluating web sites for relevance and credibility
B. taking mental notes on the topic
C. using appropriate resources and search tools
D. reading most of the available information about the topic

13. Which of the following is an example of the “slippery slope” fallacy?

A. “Of course you oppose divorce; you’re a priest.”
B. “I admit I cheated on the test – but half the class did.”
C. “God must exist, because the Bible says so, and the Bible was written by God.”
D. “If you allow the government to censor the Internet today, they’ll be banning books tomorrow.”

14. From the very beginning, I wrote to explain my own life to myself, and I invited any readers who chose to make the journey
with me to join me on the high wire. I would work without a net and without a noise of the crowd to disturb me. The view from on
high is dizzying, instructive. I do not record the world exactly as it comes to me but transform it by making it pass through a
prism of fabulous stories I have collected on the way. I gather stories the way a lepidopterist hoards his chloroformed
specimens of rare moths, or Costa Rican beetles. Stories are like vessels I use to interpret the world to myself.
Which of the following best describes the organization of the passage?
A. The author provides several explanations for taking a certain course of action.
B. The author uses analogies to explain his experience of a particular action.
C. The author makes a comparison between his own experiences and that of others in his profession.
D. The author chronicles the various phases of his work in a particular discipline.

STAGE AND SPEECH ARTS

1. The word theatre is derived from the Greek word “theatron” which means _____.
A. gathering around
B. assembly
C. forum
D. seeing place

2. The ‘software” definition of theater consists of _____.

A. script and stage
B. the people and activities of theater
C. a way to analyze plays
D. the inside story of the dramatic action

3. The minimal requirements for a theater building are _____.

A. curtains, seats, and lobby
B. s stage and backstage
C. a place to act and a place to watch
D. good acoustics and clean restrooms

4. The aspects of theater as an occupation are _____.

A. work, art, impersonation, and performance
B. script, rehearsal, performance, and reviews
C. contracts, publicists, and agents
D. time, dedication, and inspiration

5. The work of producing theater is involved with _____.

A. the script and rehearsals
B. all of the financial and legal aspects of the show
C. developing rapport with the actors
D. making sure the coffee is fresh

6. Directing a play involves _____.

A. telling the actors how to perform their parts
B. making sure everyone is in their places
C. coordinating and unifying the entire production
D. being absolutely true to the script

7. Designing is the process of _____.

A. mapping the visual and auditory aspects of the show
B. building the sets and the costumes
C. ensuring the show has historical authenticity
D. getting all the “tech” stuff together

8. Building a production involves _____.

A. a lot of rehearsals
B. the actors working after rehearsal
C. fielding legal matters
D. translating the design into reality

9. Crewing a production is the activity in which _____.

A. people row in a small boat on the river
B. technicians execute sequential cues and maintain properties and costumes
 C. people who did not get cast as actors do their work in the theater
D. rehearsals are carefully organized
10. The work of a theater is more than perfecting technical skills. It is also _____.
A. improvising
B. following the director’s orders
C. creating a work of art
D. being true to the script

11. The problems of actor-character separation were resolved in the ancient world through _____.
A. strenuous exercise
B. masks
C. broad gestures
D. powerful speech

12. Performance can be defined as _____.

A. an action or series of actions done for someone else’s benefit
B. a strictly private conversation between two people
C. showing off in order to impress someone
D. a ritualized creation involving repetitive action

13. The two general modes of performance are _____.

A. live and taped.
B. ancient and modern
C. presentational and representational
D. good and bad

14. The act of feeling for and identifying with characters in a play is known as _____.
A. sympathy
B. empathy
C. understanding
D. synchronicity

15. As opposed to other forms of performance, theater is always ______.

A. directed by single artist
B. scripted
C. rehearsed
D. performed live

16. The play most fully exists _____.

A. in the text
B. in its performance
C. when critics review it
D. when it is published

17. _____ is not one of Aristotle’s components of a tragedy.

A. theme
B. stage
C. music
D. spectacle

18. The fundamental demand of a play’s characters is that they _____.

A. support the plot
B. make the audience care
C. are realistic
D. are fully detailed

19. _____ are the agreements between audience and actor wherein the audience willingly suspends belief and accepts the play
as new or temporary “reality.”
A. Traditions
B. Theatrical conventions
C. Dramatic protocols
D. Aristotilean elements

20. The four identifiable structural elements in almost every play are _____.
A. exposition, conflict, climax, and denouement
B. opening, intensification, confrontation, and resolution
C. beginning, middle, extension, and conclusion
D. thesis, sub-thesis, post-thesis, and antithesis

21. _____ continue to dominate the modern theater.

A. “Postmodern” dramatic structures
B. Documentary dramas
C. Ironic faces
D. Aristotelian dramatic forms

22. The playwright is the _____ of nearly every production.

A. historical basis
B. final authority
C. point of origin
D. ultimate interpreter

23. The most common perception of the playwright’s role since the age of romanticism is _____.
A. as theater co-worker and mentor
B. an isolated observer and social critic
 C. usually as the director or producer
D. the resident authority and dramaturge

24. A play achieves its final form only when it is _____.

A. published by a reputable publisher
B. studied in a literature class
C. performed on the stage
D. accepted for a staged reading

25. The playwright works with two fundamental tools:

A. words and sentences
B. scenes and acts
C. dialogue and physical action
D. narration and conversation

26. Which of the following is NOT a demand of credibility?

A. Characters act instinctively.
B. Characters are internally consistent.
C. Characters always use good diction.
D. Characters are like human beings.

27. The quality of a play that draws us into its world is _____.
A. gravity
B. character believability
C. intrigue
D. empathy

28. A common fault of beginning playwright is _____.

A. shortness of action
B. lines that lacks speakability
C. too much detail
D. unclear plot

29. When a play truly satisfies us, we say it endowed with _____.
A. active characters
B. intricate detail
C. richness of detail
D. intensity of will

30. Depth of characterization requires characters to be _____.

A. independent, sensible, reasonable, and worthwhile
B. correct, honest, and understandable
C. funny and tragic
D. expressive, emotional, excitable, and enlightened

31. The term “Gravity and Pertinence” refer to a script’s _____.

A. use of props and stage design
B. seriousness of theme and relevance to contemporary society
C. development of its characters
D. grave and serious tone of dialogue

32. A play is all of the following EXCEPT _____.

A. a presentation with characters that can serve as role models
B. an animated piece of life
C. a meaningful representation of human struggles
D. a discourse on morality

33. Historically speaking, a full-length play lasts _____.

A. less than one hour
B. between one and two hours
C. between two and three hours
D. between three and four hours

34. A serious play with a theme of universal human import, which describes a struggle against insurmountable odds usually
ending in death or downfall is a _____.
A. comedy
B. drama
C. tragedy
D. serio-theater

35. The central character in a drama is called the _____.

A. protagonist
B. leading man
C. antagonist
D. hero

36. The father of dramatic criticism is _____.

A. Sophocles
B. Plato
C. Socrates
D. Aristotle

37. Tragedy should _____ us.

A. sadden
 B. delight
C. burden
D. ennoble

38. Which of the following is NOT generally an ingredient of comedy?

A. interpersonal conflicts
B. topical issues
C. fate, suffering and death
D. verbal and sexual playfulness

39. Which of the following is NOT a genre of theater developed in the pre-modern era of theater?
A. history play
B. interlude
C. mystery play
D. absurdist play

40. A form that serves as a bridge between the two major genres is called _____.
A. tragicomedy
B. dark comedy
C. serio-comedy
D. melodrama

41. After World-War II, the genre that dominates the theater is called _____.
A. absurdism
B. serio-comedy
C. dark comedy
D. comic reality

42. This genre utilizes authentic evidence as its basis for portraying recent historical events.
A. historical
B. melodrama
C. documentary
D. farce

43. The primary demands of a plot are traditionally _____.

A. surprise and resolution
B. logic and suspense
C. good and evil
D. action and reaction

44. Dramatic intensity results from _____.

A. the skillful use of compression in a script
B. the playwright’s care with a play’s economy
C. the careful development of character interactions and goals
D. All of the answers are correct.

45. A play that tells the story of thirty years in only two hours is an examples of _____.
A. historicity
B. intensity
C. compression
D. All of the answers are correct.

46. A script’s structure can determine the success of its _____.

A. thematic development
B. credibility
C. sense of intrigue
D. All of the answers are correct.

47. Three strong building blocks in the process of playwriting are _____.
A. dialogue, conflict, and structure
B. plot, theme, and characterization
C. story, idea, and textuality
D. action, re-action, and climax

48. The dialogue in David’s Mamet’s plays is famous for its _____.
A. classical aphorisms
B. inclusion of multiple languages
C. use of fragmented everyday speech
D. silence

49. The Pulitzer Prize and Tony Award winner and author of Angels in America and Homebody/Kabul is _____.
A. David Henry Hwang
B. Tony Kushner
C. Neil LaBute
D. David Mamet

50. The playwright who is called “Chicago” playwright is _____.

A. Edward Albee
B. Susan Lori Parks
C. David Mamet
D. Neil LaBute

51. _____ was rated “as exciting as any new play from a young American since Tony Kushner’s Angels in America.”
A. The Sinners’ Place
 B. M. Butterfly
C. Homebody/Kabul
D. Topdog/Underdog

52. David Hwang’s M. Butterfly interweaves _____.

A. Western romanticism
B. Asian theater
C. Chinese opera
D. All of the answers are correct.

53. Who was the first known actor?

A. Hermes
B. Thespis
C. Oedipus
D. Sophocles

54. The form of acting that begins with the instructional process, lessons, and drills is _____.
A. classical
B. representational
C. planned
D. external

55. The kind of acting where the actor feels the characters is _____.
A. internal
B. presentational
C. intense
D. romantic

56. The Roman poet Horace said in order to move the audience, first you must _____.
A. show your emotions
B. play serious characters
C. be moved yourself
D. by physically interesting

57. The Frenchman who said actors must play from thought was _____.
A. Moliere
B. Jean Paul Belmondo
C. Denis Diderot
D. Beaumarchais

58. The acting teacher who said the actor must seek to solve the “character’s problem” was _____.
A. Stanislavsky
B. Tchaikovsky
C. Chekhov
D. Meyerhold

59. The Actor Studio was made famous by _____.

A. Theodule Ribot
B. Sanford Meisner
C. Lee Strasberg
D. Stella Adler

60. The craft of acting includes these two fundamental features _____.
A. mind and body
B. speaking and singing
C. an expressive voice and a supple body
D. good intellect and strong emotions

61. The third acting ingredient is _____.

A. mind
B. emotion
C. presence
D. the ability to cry on demand

62. Contemporary actor training has two distinct phases which are _____.
A. studying the text and analyzing the context
B. feeling the emotions and expressing the actions
C. the development of the actor’s instrument and the method of approaching a role
D. conditioning the body and the mind

63. The basic elements of voice for the actor are _____.
A. articulation, pronunciation, and phrasing
B. speaking, singing, and shouting
C. mind, body, and spirit
D. breathing, phonation, and resonance

64. After vocal training, the second element of the actor’s physiological instrument is _____.
A. movement
B. singing
C. stage combat training
D. dance

65. Which of the following is NOT part of actor’s psychological instrument?

A. imagination and willingness to use it
 B. discipline
C. stage fright
D. creates role uniquely

66. The actor’s zadacha means the character’s _____.

A. character
B. goal
C. lines
D. cues

67. The actor’s professional routine consists of _____.

A. agents, contracts, and salaries
B. auditions, rehearsals, and performances
C. lines, memorization, and performing
D. blocking, mounting, and polishing

68. For an actor, the rehearsals of a play are _____.

A. boring repetitions to be endured
B. a time to get everything right
C. a time for creative experimentation
D. when the director controls everything

69. Fine acting demands _____.

A. being in the union
B. acting for its own sake
C. knowing nothing but acting
D. an open mind

70. The first known comedies were written by _____ who set the recipe for future comedies.
A. Sophocles
B. Aristophanes
C. Euminides
D. Euripedes

READING
PART 1

1. A technique that encourages students to think deeply about words _____.

A. writing the words ten times each
B. looking up dictionary definitions
C. filling out workbook exercises related to the words
D. class discussion

2. Concepts can be learned through ______.

A. vicarious experiences
B. concrete experiences
C. both and A and B
D. neither A nor B

3. Which of the following statements are true about figurative language EXCEPT _____.
A. For some children, it is a barrier to understanding
B. It is found in abundance in poetry.
C. It needs to be taught to children.
D. It can be learned because of its surface meaning.

4. An oxymoron is _____.
A. giving the attributes of a person to an inanimate object or abstract idea
B. an extreme exaggeration
C. a statement that seems to say two opposite things but that may be true
D. a combination of words that have opposite meanings

5. Vocabulary instruction should take place _____.

A. only in reading and language arts classes
B. only once a week
C. throughout the day in all classes
D. all of these

6. Classifying words into categories supplied by the teacher is doing _____.

A. closed-ended sorts
B. open-ended sorts
C. both A and B
D. neither A nor B

7. What is true of a rubric?

A. It provides specific criteria for describing student performance.
B. It gives frustration, instructional, independent, and capacity levels.
C. It is a norm-referenced test.
D. It measures skill mastery.

8. A score less than 90 percent on word recognition or less than 50 percent on comprehension represents _____.
A. frustration level
B. capacity level
C. independent level
 D. instructional level

9. All of the following tests can be constructed by the classroom teacher EXCEPT _____.
A. oral reading checklist
B. norm-referenced test
C. informal reading inventory
D. sight vocabulary test

10. Methods for identifying the difficulty of texts include _____.

A. cloze tests
B. text leveling
C. readability tests
D. all of these

11. Alternative assessment includes all of the following EXCEPT _____.

A. checklists
B. standardized tests
C. rubrics
D. informal reading inventories

12. The most useful type of assessment for classroom teachers is _____.
A. day-to-day observation
B. an informal reading inventory
C. a diagnostic test
D. a standardized achievement test

13. A type of assessment that includes self-evaluation is _____.

A. a running record
B. the cloze procedure
C. holistic assessment
D. an oral reading checklist

14. Written accounts of specific classroom incidents are called _____.

A. informal reading inventories
B. portfolios
C. anecdotal records
D. running records

15. Portfolio assessment _____.

A. uses samples of student’s work
B. is useful for assigning grades in percentages
C. is based on standardized test scores
D. does all of these

16. A type of test that gives percentile ranks is a/an _____.

A. running record
B. standardized test
C. informal reading inventory
D. criterion-referenced test

18. All of the following materials are part of basal reader EXCEPT?
A. readers for students
B. teacher’s manuals
C. workbooks
D. literature

20. The characteristics of literature-based and language-integrated series include _____.

A. primarily short excerpts from well-written stories
B. heavy focus on skill development
C. high-quality literature selections
D. all of these

21. Which of the following statements about the language experience approach is true?
A. It utilizes experience charts.
B. It cannot be used with pupils below third grade.
C. It is a completely new approach.
D. It utilizes basal readers.

23. Which of the following statements about characteristics of language experience charts is true?
A. They offered planned repetition of new words.
B. They emphasize sequential skill development.
C. They provide strict vocabulary control.
D. None of these.

27. In literature logs, students record _____.

A. personal interpretations
B. questions that arise from reading
C. both A and B
D. neither A nor B

28. At the heart of a literature-based reading program are _____.

A. language experience stories
B. workbooks
C. trade books
 D. none of these

29. Which of the following is a type of literature-based reading program?

A. a whole-class reading a core book
B. an individualized reading approach
C. thematic-literature units
D. all of these

30. Students may respond to literature through the following EXCEPT _____.
A. group discussions
B. sentence diagram
C. creative dramatics
D. literature logs

31. The teacher can evaluate students’ progress in literature-based programs _____.
A. by listening to the children’s book talks
B. through a portfolio approach
C. with checklists of important reading behaviors
D. all of these

34. Which of the following are good types of words to teach as sight words?
A. extremely useful words
B. irregularly spelled words
C. Words which are meaningful to children.
D. all of these

41. To use a dictionary, a student must know _____.

A. alphabetic order
B. how to use guide words
C. how to interpret the pronunciation
D. all of these

42. The type of context clue for drowsy in the statement “Like her sleepy brother, Mary felt drowsy” ____.
A. appositive
B. comparison
C. definition
D. contrast

44. Function words, such as “the” and “or” _____.

A. are easily recognized and learned by readers
B. have a concrete meaning only
C. have a syntactic meaning only
D. none of these

45. A strategy used to teach context clues that uses a passage in which terms are systematically deleted and replaced with
blanks is the _____.
A. cloze passage
B. syntactic passage
c. context passage
D. rehearsal passage

47. The Newbery Award is given each year to the author who makes an outstanding contribution to _____.
A. children’s literature
B. adult’s literature
C. oral literature
D. nonfiction literature

48. One recommended technique to encourage students to read voluntarily is _____.

A. providing them array of reading materials
B. allowing them to read only when they like to read
C. showing them videos about the importance of reading books
D. setting aside a time for them to read daily from freely selected material

49. A teacher’s knowledge of literary genres is essential for establishing a literacy-based curriculum. Which of the following are
recognized as types of literary genres?
A. Tall tales
B. Poetry
C. Myths
D. All of these

50. Children’s Choices is a list of _____.

A. best-selling books for children
B. books liked by children, compiled by 10, 000 children
C. children’s classics
D. books recommended by librarians for children

51. Which of the following is true of journal writing?

A. Teachers correct spelling in journals.
B. Teachers grade journals.
C. Writers may choose their own topics.
D. None of theses

52. During readers’ theater, students _____.

A. read aloud dramatically from a script
 B. memorize a script and then play their parts
C. improvise a scene from a familiar story
D. rewrite a story into play form

53. The first stage in a writing workshop is _____.

A. a minilesson
B. the status-of-the-class conference
C. group share
D. writing

54. Pourquoi tales are _____.

A. always humorous
B. exaggerations of real-life events and characters
C. stories that explain “why”
D. found only in Native-American folklore

55. In the drafting stage of the writing process, writers _____.

A. make revisions
B. carefully observe the rules of grammar and spelling
C. confer with their peers
D. search for the topic

58. The retention of ideas in materials is helped by the following EXCEPT _____.
A. discussing the material
B. reading all materials as rapidly as possible
C. assigning purposes for reading
D. giving the students time to reflect on the materials

59. All of the following is helpful in using reference books EXCEPT _____.
A. The ability to use guide words
B. Knowledge of alphabetical order
C. The ability to interpret the scale of a map
D. The knowledge of the structural analysis and context clues

60. An appropriate guideline for note taking is to _____.

A. never use complete sentences in notes
B. copy every of the section of each reference used
C. include bibliographic references with each note
D. none of these

61. In outlines, levels of subordination are indicated by using of the following EXCEPT _____.
A. spaces
B. indention
C. numerals
D. letters

62. To read maps, students must understand that _____.

A. The legend of a map is the story of the people in the area.
B. Most maps in books show areas greatly reduced in size.
C. Scale is unimportant.
D. none of these

63. When using databases, students _____.

A. collect and organize data
B. decide on key words to access the data
C. pose questions
D. all of these

64. Teaching study skills is the responsibility of _____.

A. the primary-grade teacher
B. the intermediate-grade teacher
C. A only
D. both A and B

65. Activities that help develop readiness for outlining include _____.
A. categorization activities
B. forming arrays for stories
C. B only
D. both A and B

66. Comprehension monitoring should be taught through _____.

A. the cloze procedure
B. worksheets
C. teacher modeling
D. none of these

67. The reading act is composed of the following two main parts _____.
A. visual and tactile aspects
B. visual and auditory aspects
C. the reading process and the reading product
D. none of these

68. The following are aspects of the reading process EXCEPT _____.
A. associational aspects
 B. structural aspects
C. experience aspects
D. perceptual aspects

69. The term for preexisting clusters of information that people develop about things is _____.
A. sensation
B. memory trace
C. schemata
D. none of these

70. All of the following are effective aspects of the reading process EXCEPT _____.
A. attitude
B. hearing
C. self-concept
D. interest

71. Children are likely to develop positive attitudes toward reading EXCEPT _____.
A. when their peers view reading in a positive way
B. when parents read in the home
C. when parents provide them with reading materials
D. when parents are formally educated and can afford to provide children reading materials

72. The refinement of a person’s reading skills should _____.

A. end after high school
B. end after sixth grade
C. end after third grade
D. never end

73. The term for reader-based processing of print is _____.

A. interactive
B. top down
C. bottom up
D. none of these

74. The teacher is responsible for the following EXCEPT ____.

A. understanding the range of technology available
B. evaluating technological applications
C. integrating technology into the classroom
D. designing new technological systems

75. Teachers need to ask which of the following about each potential application of technology in the curriculum EXCEPT?
A. Is it cost effective?
B. Is it easy to implement?
C. Is it instructionally sound?
D. Is it simple and easy to execute?

76. Basic kinds of CAI currently used for reading instruction include _____.
A. drill and practice
B. tutorial
C. both A and B
D. neither a nor B

77. Database programs _____.

A. require few reading skills
B. are too difficult for elementary students to use
C. ask students to provide keywords for efficient data access
D. none of these

78. Hypermedia applications in computer software can include _____.

A. sound effects
B. text
C. graphics
D. key board

79. Instructional transparencies _____.

A. provide an efficient way to present some class materials
B. are useful only to artistic teachers
C. are outdated and have no value in today’s classrooms
D. none of these

80. Instructional television programs _____.

A. are generally a waste of class time
B. can serve as a basis for note taking and report writing
C. have few literacy applications
D. none of these

81. Audio and videotapes _____.

A. have value for assessment purposes
B. are useful for recording class presentations
C. require equipment that is rarely available in classrooms
D. all of these

82. CD-ROMs can _____.

A. store large amounts of text, audio, and video information in relatively little space
 B. provide high-quality images and sound
C. be assessed in nonlinear fashion
D. all of these

83. Use of spelling and grammar checkers _____.

A. encourages sloppy work
B. involves a critical reading activity
C. is basically rote learning
D. none of these

84. Word-processing software _____.

A. often encourages students to write longer pieces than they do with pencil and paper
B. can be used with the language experience approach
C. takes much labor out of editing and revising
D. all of these

85. Students or pupils _____.

A. have no valid reasons to use the Internet
B. can use the Internet to collect material for unit studies
C. can use the Internet with complete confidence in the material posted to Web sites
D. none of these

86. Web sites that allow users to edit the content are _____.
A. blogs
B. keypal projects
C. online journal
D. wikis

88. Students or pupils can use email to _____.

A. interact with adult mentors (for example, university students)
B. interact with authors of children’s books
C. hold discussions with students in other parts of the world
D. all of these

89. The following are roles predictions EXCEPT _____.

A. Students read to refute them.
B. Students read to confirm them.
C. Students read to prove them.
D. Students read agree with them.

90. Which of the following statements about topic sentences is true?

A. They are present in all paragraphs.
B. They are not related to the main idea of a paragraph.
C. They often state the main idea of a paragraph.
D. None of these

92. The sentence “Jane has her dog with her” includes a/an _____.
A. restrictive clause
B. anaphoric relationship
C. figurative expression
D. relative clause

95. You can tell a fact from an opinion by whether _____.

A. you agree with it
B. it appears in print
C. it is verifiable
D. it is in quotes

96. Vague phrases that are designed to gain adherents to a point of view without providing specifics are called _____.
A. card-stacking techniques
B. glittering generalities
C. transfer techniques
D. testimonials
100. The following are descriptions of creative readers EXCEPT _____.
A. accept what they read as it appears
B. use printed material to solve problems
C. use text to create new ideas
D. accept only ideas that properly validated

101. Anticipation guides _____.

A. are designed to stimulate thinking
B. are useful in prereading devices
C. both A and B
D. neither A nor B

102. Relating new vocabulary to students’ experiences _____,

A. is not feasible in the classroom
B. detracts from the acquisition of vocabulary
C. enhances the acquisition of vocabulary
D. has no effect on the acquisition of vocabulary

103. The study of word origins and history is called _____.

A. phonics
B. analogy
 C. etymology
D. structural analysis

104. All of the following are context clues to word meaning EXCEPT _____.
A. definition clues
B. appositive clues
C. punctuation clues
D. comparison and contrast clues

105. Which of the following is an example of analogy?

A. the wind spoke softly into her ear
B. the girl was as pretty as a picture
C. soft is to hard as good is to bad
D. none of these

106. The following can help children discover the meanings of unfamiliar words EXCEPT _____.
A. context clues
B. phonics clues
C. structure clues
D. none of the above

111. Which of the following aspects related to readers affect/s comprehension?

A. attitudes
B. schemata
C. sensory and perceptual abilities
D. all of these

112. The reading situation involves the _____.

A. importance of the reading task for the reader
B. audience for the reading
C. purposes for the reading
D. all of these

113. Comprehension monitoring can be modeled by teachers for students through _____.
A. teacher-directed questioning
B. think-aloud
C. worksheet activities
D. none of these

114. The K-W-L teaching model _____.

A. is generally used with expository text
B. involves primarily teacher demonstration
C. is useful only during the prereading stage
D. all of these

115. The following types of sentences have been found to be difficult for children to comprehend EXCEPT _____.
A. those in the passive voice
B. those with relative clauses
C. those expressing negation
D. those with explicit information

116. The following are special problems in reading mathematics EXCEPT _____.
A. interpreting abbreviations
B. understanding a different symbol system
C. interpreting story problems
D. understanding the words in the math problems

117. In comparison to content-area texts, basal readers _____.

A. contain large numbers of graphic aids
B. are more difficult to read
C. include more planned repetition of new vocabulary
D. are high in idea density

118. The content of language arts block includes _____.

A. writing
B. reading
C. speaking
D. all of these

119. Which of the following statements about study guides is/are true?
A. They provide purposes for reading the assignments
B. All members of the class should use the same one.
C. They should contain only literal-level questions.
D. none of these

120. of the following words, the one that contains a soft c sound is _____.
A. cent
B. cannon
C. cat
D. cute

121. Which of the following statements about the directed reading-thinking activity is/are true?
A. It encourages children to think while they read.
 B. It can be used with basal reader stories.
C. It can be used with basal reader stories.
D. all of these

122. A single vowel preceding an r _____.

A. usually has a long sound
B. usually has a short sound
C. is sounded but is neither long or short
D. is not sounded

123. To understand literary passages, children need to be able to recognize and analyze _____.
A. themes
B. plots
C. characterization
D. all of these
131. To develop thematic content units, teachers must _____.
A. gather related materials
B. choose instructional procedures and related activities
C. decide on goals and objectives
D. all of these

132. Which of the following strategies are most appropriate for helping students comprehend new vocabulary in nonfiction
texts?
I. Writing sentences on the board for the students to copy
II. Studying examples of texts that use the new vocabulary in context
III. Activating the student’s prior knowledge to develop a framework for the new vocabulary
IV. Providing frequent opportunities for the students to use their new vocabulary words
V. Having the students look up definitions in the dictionary and write them several times

A. I, II, II
B. II, IV, V
C. I, III, V
D. II, III, IV

PART 2

1. Which of the following students is demonstrating the specific type of phonological awareness known as phonemic
awareness?
A. a student who, after being shown a letter of the alphabet, can orally identify its corresponding sound(s)
B. a student who listens to the words sing, ring, fling, and hang and can identify that hang is different
C. a student who, after hearing the word hat, can orally identify that it ends with the sound /t/
D. a student who listens to the word magazine and can determine that it contains three syllables

2. A kindergarten teacher could best determine if a child has begun to develop phonemic awareness by asking the child to:
A. count the number of words the child hears in a sentence as the teacher says the sentence.
B. say the word cat, then say the first sound the child hears in the word.
C. point to the correct letter on an alphabet chart as the teacher names specific letters.
D. listen to the teacher say boat and coat, then identify whether the two words rhyme.

3. As students begin to read, the ability to blend phonemes orally contributes to their reading development primarily because it
helps students:
A. recognize and understand sight words in a text.
B. use knowledge of letter-sound correspondence to decode words.
C. guess the meaning of unfamiliar words from their context.
D. divide written words into onsets and rimes.

4. A teacher holds up a series of familiar objects, asking students to name each object and isolate the final sound they hear.
This type of activity would be most appropriate for a student who:
A. needs help developing phonemic segmentation skills.
B. is performing below grade-level benchmarks in reading fluency.
C. lacks automaticity in word recognition.
D. has difficulty sounding out phonetically regular one-syllable words.

5. Phonemic awareness contributes most to the development of phonics skills in beginning readers by helping them:
A. recognize different ways in which one sound can be represented in print.
B. count the number of syllables in a written word.
C. identify in spoken language separate sounds that can be mapped to letters.
D. understand the concept of a silent letter.

6. Which of the following first-grade students has attained the highest level of phonemic awareness?
A. a student who, after hearing the word hot and the sound /ĭ/, can substitute /ĭ/ for /ŏ/ to make the word hit
B. a student who can orally segment the word wonderful into won-der-ful
C. a student who, after hearing the words fish and fun, can identify that they both begin with the same phoneme, /f/
D. a student who can orally segment the word train into its onset and rime

7. Asking students to listen to a word (e.g., same) and then tell the teacher all the sounds in the word is an exercise that would
be most appropriate for students who:
A. have a relatively low level of phonological awareness.
B. are beginning to develop systematic phonics skills.
C. have a relatively high level of phonemic awareness.
D. are beginning to master the alphabetic principle.
8. A kindergarten teacher asks a small group of students to repeat after her. First, she says the word grape and then
pronounces it as gr and ape. Next, she says the word take and then pronounces it as t and ake. This activity is likely to
promote the students' phonemic awareness primarily by:
A. helping them recognize distinct syllables in oral language.
B. encouraging them to divide words into onsets and rimes.
C. teaching them how to distinguish between consonants and vowels.
D. promoting their awareness of letter-sound correspondence.

9. A teacher shows a student pictures of familiar objects. As the teacher points to the first picture, she asks the student to name
the object in the picture. Next, she asks the student to count on his fingers the number of sounds he makes as he says the
word again. This activity is most likely to promote which of the following?
A. understanding of the alphabetic principle
B. phonemic awareness skills
C. development of letter-sound correspondence
D. word identification skills

10. A beginning-level English Language Learner can consistently blend individual phonemes to make simple English words
composed of two or three phonemes but is having difficulty blending the sounds of familiar single-syllable words composed of
four phonemes (e.g., clip, trap, spin). Which of the following questions would be most important for the first-grade teacher to
consider when addressing the needs of this student?
A. Are the target words in the student's oral vocabulary in English?
B. Does the student's primary language have consonant blends?
C. Can the student distinguish between short and long vowel sounds in English?
D. Do the target words have cognates in the student's primary language?

11. A fourth-grade student reads on grade level and consistently scores very high on spelling tests that are part of weekly word
study activities. However, the student often misspells the same words, and other familiar words, in everyday writings. The
following table shows examples of typical errors the student makes on class writing assignments and in informal notes to
friends.
Target Word Student Spelling
girl gril
instead intead
decided decideded
independent indepednent
interrupted interruted

The student's overall spelling performance suggests that the student most likely has a weakness in which of the following
foundational skills?
A. detecting syllable boundaries in words
B. sounding out and blending lettersounds to make words
C. discriminating between a word's root morpheme and affixes
D. segmenting and sequencing phonemes in words

12. A preschool child picks up an unfamiliar book, opens it to the end, points to the text, and begins to "pretend read" the story.
These behaviors suggest that the child most likely:
A. has well-developed book-handling skills.
B. knows where individual words begin and end.
C. has developed an understanding that print carries meaning.
D. understands the concept of print directionality.

13. A preschool child draws a stick figure and makes some unintelligible scribbles around it. When she shows it to her teacher,
she points to the scribbles and says, "This says 'I love mommy.'" This behavior suggests that the child most likely:
A. is ready to learn the concept of lettersound correspondence.
B. is beginning to develop awareness that words are made of distinct phonemes.
C. has a basic understanding of the alphabetic principle.
D. has grasped the idea that the function of print is distinct from that of pictures.

14. At the end of each school day, a preschool teacher encourages the children to talk about the day's events. As the children
describe each event, the teacher writes it on large block paper. Afterward, the teacher reads the list back to the class. This
activity would contribute to the children's literacy development primarily by promoting their:
A. basic understanding of the alphabetic principle.
B. awareness that speech can be represented by writing.
C. basic understanding of word boundaries.
D. awareness of the relationship between syllables and the spoken word.

15. A kindergarten teacher hangs labels on key objects in the classroom, puts up posters that include words and captions, and
always has a big book on display for the children's use. This kind of classroom environment is most likely to help promote
children's:
A. recognition that words are composed of separate sounds.
B. recognition of high-frequency sight words.
C. development of automaticity in word recognition.
D. development of an awareness of print.

16. A preschool teacher is reading a story to his class. As he reads, he holds the book so the children can see the words and
pictures while his finger follows the line of print. This activity would contribute to the children's reading development primarily
by:
A. promoting their development of letter recognition skills.
B. helping them recognize phonemes that occur frequently in print.
C. developing their awareness of left-toright directionality.
D. promoting their understanding of letter-sound correspondence.

17. Pointing out the title, beginning, middle, and end of a book to a group of preschool children before reading the book aloud
to them contributes to their reading development primarily by promoting their:
A. understanding of text directionality.
B. development of book-handling skills.
C. understanding of the concept of schema.
D. development of literal comprehension strategies.

18. Which of the following strategies would be most effective in promoting kindergarten children's ability to recognize and name
letters of the alphabet?
A. The teacher says the name of a letter while the children each trace its shape on a cutout letter.
B. The teacher posts the entire alphabet around the room in several different formats.
C. The teacher reads aloud to the children from books that contain mostly words that follow regular phonics patterns.
D. The teacher emphasizes the initial sounds of words when reading to the children.

19. Having kindergarten children practice tracing the letters of the alphabet in sand is most appropriate for children who are
having difficulty:
A. internalizing the alphabetic principle.
B. recognizing that print carries meaning.
C. understanding the relationship between spoken and written language.
D. developing letter formation skills.

20. A preschool teacher shows a group of children pictures of everyday objects. Below each picture is printed the letter of the
alphabet that corresponds to the word's initial sound. As the teacher points to each picture, she names the object, then she
points to the letter underneath it and says the sound it makes. The teacher invites the children to repeat the sound with her.
This activity is likely to contribute to the children's reading development primarily by:
A. illustrating the concept of word boundaries.
B. focusing on auditory discrimination skills.
C. introducing the concept of onset and rime.
D. demonstrating that phonemes are represented by letters.

21. A kindergarten teacher wants to promote students' understanding of the alphabetic principle. Which of the following would
be the most effective first step in a sequence of instruction designed to achieve this goal?
A. Talk with students about selected consonants using a series of posters that each feature one consonant and contain pictures
of items whose initial phoneme demonstrates that consonant's sound.
B. Have students trace both lowercase and uppercase letters of the alphabet and then practice reproducing the letters on their
own.
C. Talk with students about the title, beginning, middle, and end of a story and point to these parts while reading the story aloud
from a big book.
D. Put labels on several familiar objects in the classroom and regularly read the labels aloud to the students.

22. A second-grade teacher regularly reviews spelling patterns previously taught. The teacher also provides students with
multiple opportunities to read and write connected text that features words containing the target spelling patterns and to engage
in word sorts focused on previously taught spelling patterns. These types of activities are likely to promote students' reading
proficiency primarily by developing their:
A. knowledge of grade-level vocabulary.
B. reading fluency with respect to accuracy.
C. awareness of different types of morphemes.
D. word recognition with respect to sight words.

23. Which of the following best describes the relationship between word decoding and reading comprehension in a beginning
reader's development?
A. Decoding skills and reading comprehension skills tend to develop independently of one another.
B. Reading comprehension skills directly facilitate the development of decoding skills.
C. Development of decoding skills is secondary to the development of reading fluency and comprehension skills.
D. Rapid automatic decoding skills help facilitate development of reading fluency and comprehension.

24. A teacher can most effectively support first graders' development of rapid automatic word recognition by first teaching
students how to:
A. apply consistent phonics generalizations in common words.
B. use context clues to determine the meanings of words.
C. identify the constituent parts of multisyllable words.
D. look up unfamiliar words in the dictionary.

25. A second-grade teacher pairs students who are reading at approximately the same independent reading level for a
partnerreading activity. During the activity, the two partners sit side by side and take turns reading aloud from a shared text.
Over a period of several days, the partners read a large number of independent-level texts together. This activity is best
designed to promote students':
A. development of reading rate and automaticity.
B. awareness of key aspects of prosodic reading.
C. development of comprehension skills and strategies.
D. awareness of new phonics elements.

26. Which of the following strategies would be most effective in promoting second graders' decoding of multisyllable words?
A. giving students opportunities to read literature that offers repeated exposure to predictable text
B. prompting students to sound out the individual phonemes that compose multisyllable words
C. encouraging students to compare the parts of new multisyllable words with known single-syllable words
D. reinforcing students' recognition of high-frequency multisyllable words using drills and flashcards

27. According to basic principles of research-based, systematic phonics instruction, which of the following common English
letter combinations would be most appropriate for a first-grade teacher to introduce first?
A. ir
B. kn
C. th
D. oi
28. A second-grade teacher administers spelling inventories periodically to help assess students' phonics knowledge. The
following shows one student's performance on a spelling inventory at the beginning of the school year and again several months
later.

Dictated Word Student Spelling

set set
star ster
drive driv
peach pech
turn tarn
join joyn

Dictated Word Student Spelling

set set
star star
drive drive
peach peche
turn turn
join joyn

The student's performance on the second administration of the spelling inventory indicates that the student made the most
improvement in which of the following areas?
A. initial and final consonants
B. short vowels and diphthongs
C. digraphs and blends
D. long and r-controlled vowels

29. Which of the following provides the best rationale for incorporating spelling instruction into a first-grade reading program?
A. Spelling promotes phonemic awareness by teaching students to break words into onsets and rimes.
B. Spelling facilitates vocabulary development by introducing students to new words.
C. Spelling simplifies the reading process by focusing students on a limited set of decoding rules.
D. Spelling supports word recognition by helping students learn and retain common phonics patterns.

30. Which of the following statements best describes how oral vocabulary knowledge is related to the process of decoding
written words?
A. A reader applies decoding skills to unfamiliar written words in order to increase his or her oral vocabulary knowledge.
B. A reader's oral vocabulary knowledge allows the reader to derive meaning as he or she decodes written words.
C. A reader must have extensive oral vocabulary knowledge in order to learn decoding processes.
D. A reader's oral vocabulary knowledge is dependent on his or her development of strong decoding skills.

31. Read the sentence below; then answer the question that follows.
My family went to the circus last weekend. I liked the clowns the best. They were very funny.
A student makes several miscues when reading these sentences aloud. Which of the following miscues represents an
error in decoding consonant blends?
A. omitting circus
B. pronouncing clowns as clones
C. saying bet for best
D. shortening funny to fun

32. Which of the following sentences contains a pair of italicized words that differ from one another by one phoneme?
A. He took off his cap so that he could take a nap.
B. She works at a bank that is located near the bank of a river.
C. She told him not to buy a ticket because she had already bought one.
D. His face looked pale after he carried the pail of water for a mile.

33. Which of the following students demonstrates variation in reading development that would require intervention focused on
explicit phonics instruction?
A. a kindergarten student who can recite the alphabet from memory but has difficulty distinguishing individual phonemes in
words
B. a first-grade student who can easily decode nonsense words but has limited comprehension of the meaning of text
C. a second-grade student who is adept at using context clues to identify words but has difficulty sounding out the letters in
unfamiliar words
D. a third-grade student who can read most grade-level text fluently but has difficulty with unfamiliar irregular low-frequency
words

34. A student who has mastered which of the following skills along the phonological awareness continuum is best prepared to
begin explicit phonics instruction?
A. being aware that a word is made up of one or more phonemes
B. being able to separate a word's onset and rime
C. being aware that words can be divided into syllables
D. being able to segment and blend a word's phonemes

35. Use the information below to answer the question that follows.
A teacher poses the following question to fourth-grade students.
What words can you think of that have the word "act" in them?
Using student responses, the teacher creates the following web on the board.
acts acted acting actor active action activity actual actually activate activation activism
react enact overact interact
playact
act
inactive deactivate transaction enactment
This technique is likely to be most helpful for enhancing the students' awareness of:
A. morphemic structure.
B. compound words.
C. syllable patterns.
D. Greek roots.

36. Which of the following sets of words would be most effective to use when introducing students to the concept of structural
analysis?
A. late, great, wait, eight
B. afraid, obtain, explain, remain
C. swim, swims, swam, swum
D. pretest, retest, tested, testing

37. An English Language Learner pronounces tigers as tiger when reading the following sentence aloud.
They saw tigers at the zoo.
Which of the following actions is most appropriate for the teacher to take first in response to the student's miscue?
A. guide the student in reading lists of nouns with and without plural –s on the end
B. verify that the student understands that tigers means more than one tiger
C. provide the student with independent practice in adding plural –s to singular nouns
D. provide a picture card to determine whether the student can identify a tiger

38. The following sentence is missing several words.

(1)__ unusual (2)__ of spices (3)____ the soup an (4)____ flavor.
A word with the suffix -tion would fit best in which of the blanks in the sentence?
A. (1)
B. (2)
C. (3)
D. (4)

39. Which of the following principles is best illustrated by the words watched, wanted, and warned?
A. Spelling is often the best predictor of the pronunciation of a suffix.
B. Open syllables are usually pronounced with a long vowel sound.
C. The spelling of a suffix is often more reliable than its pronunciation.
D. The second letter of a consonant blend is usually pronounced as the onset of the following syllable.

40. The words enjoyable, maneuverable, corruptible, and convertible best illustrate which of the following principles?
A. The spelling of a suffix can vary depending on its root word.
B. The accented syllable of a root word can shift when certain suffixes are added to it.
C. The addition of a suffix can alter the spelling of its root word.
D. The pronunciation of a suffix can change when added to certain root words.

41. A second-grade teacher has students pull two single-syllable nouns from a hat (e.g., bulb, light) and asks them to form
words by putting the words together (e.g., lightbulb). Students then draw pictures to illustrate their new words and write short
stories using the new words. This activity is likely to be most effective for helping students:
A. use visualization as a reading comprehension strategy.
B. apply knowledge of phonics generalizations.
C. use context clues to identify unfamiliar words.
D. understand the concept of compound words.

42. Instruction in structural analysis is likely to promote upper elementary students' reading comprehension primarily by:
A. facilitating their ability to use phonics generalizations to decode words.
B. enhancing their familiarity with the text structures and features used in different genres.
C. equipping them with strategies for understanding the meanings of unfamiliar multisyllable words.
D. increasing their knowledge of key vocabulary found in content-area textbooks.

43. A third-grade teacher administers the following informal reading assessment to individual students.
Part I: Read aloud the following words: laugh neighbor beginning friend together young
Part II: Read aloud the following passage:
Nick and Ben are best friends. They have been neighbors since they were very young. In the beginning, they did not get along,
but now they play together every day after school. They make jokes and laugh a lot.
One student performs significantly better on the second part of the test than on the first. Which of the following is the best
assessment of this student's reading performance?
A. The student is proficient at using context clues to help identify words but has weak word decoding skills.
B. The student can decode single-syllable words but has not yet learned how to decode multisyllable words.
C. The student is proficient at using syntactic clues to identify words but is not yet skilled at using semantic clues.
D. The student understands letter-sound correspondence but has limited awareness of syllable structure.

44. A second-grade teacher uses the following handout to guide the class through an activity.

Look at the word fair in these two sentences:

• It isn't fair that Juan got an extra scoop of ice cream.
• Simon and Ling went to the fair and rode on the merry-go-round.
How are these words the same? How are they different? Can you think of sentences that show two different ways in which
each of the following words can be used? saw spell root run play fly kind seal

This activity would best promote students' ability to:

A. identify and decode common homographs.
B. use structural clues to identify the meaning of words.
C. cluster new vocabulary together into meaningful groups.
D. find and use synonyms for common words.

45. A sixth-grade student encounters the following sentence in a short story.

She experienced a sense of déjà vu as she walked down the street of the strange new city.
The student asks the teacher about the meaning of déjà vu in the sentence. The teacher could best respond by advising the
student to take which of the following steps?
A. Make note of the word in a vocabulary log, and then study the word after finishing the story.
B. Use context clues in the sentence to guess the meaning of the word, and then try out that meaning in the sentence.
C. Look up the word in the dictionary, and then paraphrase the sentence using the dictionary definition.
D. Break the word into its component parts, and then compare the parts to the meanings of similar known words.

46. Before beginning a new content-area reading passage, a fourth-grade teacher asks students to think of words related to the
topic of the text. The teacher writes the words on the board and then asks the students to suggest ways to group the words
based on meaningful connections. The teacher also encourages them to explain their reasons for grouping particular words
together. This series of activities is likely to promote the students' reading development primarily by helping them:
A. extend and reinforce their expressive and receptive vocabularies related to the text's topic.
B. infer the meaning of new vocabulary in the text based on word derivations.
C. strengthen and extend their understanding of the overall structure of the text.
D. verify word meanings in the text by incorporating syntactic and semantic clues into their word analysis.

47. A first-grade teacher designs the following activity.

1. Divide students into pairs.

2. Have students sit back-to-back.
3. Give one student in each pair a picture of a familiar object to describe to his or her partner.
4. The partner tries to name the object based on the description.

This activity is likely to contribute to students' literacy development primarily by:

A. helping them begin to make connection between print and the spoken word.
B. fostering their ability to work independently of teacher guidance.
C. promoting their oral language development and listening comprehension.
D. encouraging them to practice speaking skills.

48. A fifth-grade student reads the sentence, "After playing with her friends all day, Kaylee did her science homework, her
geography project, and her composition in one fell swoop." The student asks the teacher for help understanding what is meant
by the phrase one fell swoop. The teacher can best help the student understand this idiomatic expression by:
A. discussing with the student more examples of the phrase used in context.
B. directing the student to look up different meanings of fell and swoop in the dictionary.
C. helping the student create a tree diagram of the structure of the phrase.
D. asking the student to find other sentences in the text that use the words fell and swoop.

49. A second-grade student demonstrates automaticity decoding grade-level regular and irregular words. However, the student
frequently experiences poor text comprehension. Which of the following is the first step the teacher should take in order to
promote this student's reading proficiency?
A. evaluating the student's ability to apply grade-level phonics skills
B. determining the rate of the student's phonological processing
C. evaluating the degree to which the student uses syntactic clues
D. determining the extent of the student's vocabulary knowledge

50. A fifth-grade teacher is about to begin a new unit on weather and climate. Which of the following types of vocabulary words
from the unit would be most appropriate for the teacher to preteach?
A. words that are conceptually challenging
B. high-frequency, phonetically irregular words
C. multisyllable words
D. high-frequency words with multiple meanings

51. A text includes the word indefensible, which is unfamiliar to some students in a fourth grade class. Which of the following
strategies for teaching the word would be most effective in both clarifying the meaning of the word and extending the students'
vocabulary development?
A. Have the students enter the word in their ongoing list of new vocabulary words and then look up its definition independently.
B. Use explicit explanation to describe the meaning of the word to the students before they read the text.
C. Help the students apply structural and contextual analyses to construct and confirm the word's meaning.
D. Ask the students to paraphrase the sentence that contains the word by substituting a synonym for the word.

52. In which of the following sentences is context most helpful in understanding the italicized word?
A. Tulip trees are ubiquitous in Virginia and in some other parts of the United States as well.
B. John's friends surreptitiously planned a housewarming party for him soon after he had moved in.
C. Mary is magnanimous in all of her dealings with people, even when she does not know a person well.
D. Peter's mother was adamant that he should attend college, but his father did not seem to care.

53. Students in a third-grade class are studying different forms of transportation that are used around the world. As part of this
unit of study, they work together to create a semantic map of words associated with transportation, including words that they
have recently learned (e.g., barge, rickshaw). This activity is most likely to promote students' vocabulary development by:
A. showing them how structural analysis can be used to determine the meaning of new vocabulary.
B. helping them to categorize, visualize, and remember new vocabulary.
C. guiding them to discover the multiple meanings of new vocabulary.
D. providing them with frequent, varied reading experiences using the new vocabulary.

54. A third-grade class that includes several English Language Learners is about to read a text about water sports. Which of
the following teaching strategies would be most effective in promoting the English Language Learners' comprehension of the
text?
A. Have the students look up unknown English words using bilingual dictionaries and then make vocabulary lists in both
languages.
B. Pair English Language Learners with native speakers of English and have the native speakers explain any unknown
vocabulary.
C. Activate students' prior knowledge about the topic and provide visual aids such as illustrations to clarify new vocabulary.
D. Give students a list of new vocabulary with definitions and ask the students to try to construct their own sentences using the
words.

55. A sixth-grade teacher is planning explicit instruction to help students read and understand sentences that have a complex
sentence structure. Which of the following skills would be most effective for the teacher to focus on first?
A. identifying the independent clause at the heart of a sentence
B. distinguishing between sentences that use passive and active voice
C. identifying common transition words that link ideas in two or more sentences
D. distinguishing between demonstrative and indefinite pronouns in a sentence

56. Over the course of the school year, a sixthgrade student who had been a fluent, proficient reader in previous years is having
increasing difficulty comprehending gradelevel literary and informational texts assigned in class. The results of informal,
curriculum-based assessments indicate that the student still meets grade-level expectations in vocabulary knowledge, but the
student's reading rate and comprehension have dropped below grade level. The student also tends to choose fiction and
graphic novels written well below the sixthgrade level for independent reading. The student's overall reading performance
suggests that the student would likely benefit most from instruction focused on promoting the student's:
A. knowledge and skills related to understanding complex academic language.
B. understanding of important features of skilled prosodic reading.
C. development of decoding skills and automaticity recognizing grade-level sight words.
D. skill in applying contextual analysis and other word analysis strategies.

Use the information below to answer the three questions that follow.
Before reading aloud a book about a farm to a group of beginning readers, a first-grade teacher has the students
brainstorm and briefly discuss words related to farms. Next, the teacher reads the text aloud from a big book, pointing to each
word being read. Periodically, the teacher stops to discuss with students key concepts or events described in the text and to
guide students in relating the text to the illustrations. After finishing the read-aloud, the teacher puts the book in the classroom
library and encourages the students to read it on their own.

57. The students are most likely to be successful in their independent reading of the book if:
A. the students can decode and understand the meaning of at least 95 percent of the words in the text.
B. the text does not include compound sentences joined by coordinating conjunctions such as and, or, or but.
C. the students come from homes where silent reading is extensively modeled and encouraged by caregivers.
D. the text primarily deals with fictional rather than factual accounts of characters and/or events.

58. The theoretical basis for including the brainstorming activity in this lesson is that having the students share their vocabulary
knowledge about farms prior to the reading will:
A. give the teacher an opportunity to assess and compare the students' oral language skills.
B. reinforce the students' understanding and recognition of key concepts about print.
C. facilitate the students' comprehension by activating prior knowledge and building schema.
D. prepare the students to benefit from explicit phonics instruction related to the text.

59. The most important reason for putting the book in the classroom library is to promote the students':
A. love of reading by facilitating their access to a story that they have already heard, understood, and enjoyed.
B. understanding of the alphabetic principle by reinforcing their knowledge of letter-sound correspondences.
C. oral language development by providing them with the opportunity to imitate the teacher's reading of a text.
D. use of metacognitive strategies by allowing them to practice selfmonitoring when reading silently.

60. Which of the following strategies would be most appropriate to use to promote secondgrade students' ability to analyze key
ideas and details in a literary text?
A. explicitly teaching students the key features and conventions of different literary genres
B. prompting students to evaluate the significance of a story's setting with respect to its theme
C. helping students create a story map of the main characters in a story and the events with which they are involved
D. encouraging students to clarify their understanding of a story by reflecting on their personal experiences

61. After students in a sixth-grade class finish reading a historical novel about the U.S. Civil War, the teacher asks each student
to bring in an object, or a picture or illustration of an object, that, to them, represents the book. The students must also identify
a passage or passages from the book that they can use to support their choices when they present their objects to the class.
This activity is most likely to promote students' reading development by helping them understand the importance of:
A. determining an author's stated or implied main point of view.
B. using text structure to develop a general summary of a literary work.
C. identifying a novel's mood by analyzing the author's use of figurative language.
D. basing interpretations about a literary work on textual evidence.

62. A fifth-grade teacher guides students in reading a complex literary text. First, the teacher reads aloud the beginning of the
text as the students follow along silently in their copies. Next, the teacher rereads key phrases and sentences, asking students
what the author meant by certain statements or by the choice of certain words. Finally, the teacher and students reread the
section aloud together with expression. The teacher repeats these steps with each section of the text. This activity promotes
reading proficiency primarily by:
A. modeling for students how to engage in close reading of academic texts.
B. developing students' word consciousness and love of interesting new words.
C. helping students achieve grade-level fluency benchmarks for accuracy and rate.
D. encouraging students to apply metacognitive comprehension strategies as they read.

63. Sixth-grade students have just finished reading a chapter in a novel and are getting ready to write an entry in their response
journals. The teacher could most effectively develop students' literary response skills by assigning which of the following journal
prompts?
A. What new vocabulary words did you learn when reading this chapter? List and define the new words from the chapter.
B. What happened in the chapter? Describe two or three events from the chapter.
C. What do you think is the main idea or theme of the novel? Relate specific events in this chapter to the theme you suggest.
D. Which characters are mentioned in this chapter? List each of the characters.

64. A second-grade teacher reads a trade book aloud to the class. Which of the following postreading activities would be most
likely to promote the students' comprehension of the story by enhancing their literary analysis skills?
A. encouraging the students to identify the key vocabulary words in the story
B. discussing with the students how the characters in the story respond to major events and challenges
C. asking the students to reread the story silently and respond to several literal comprehension questions
D. having the students "freewrite" about the story in their reading response journals
65. A fifth-grade class is about to read a play about the life of Harriet Tubman called "Travels on the Railroad." Which of the
following prereading activities would best promote students' comprehension of the text?
A. introducing the common elements of plays as a genre and looking at sections of a printed play as a class
B. asking students to generate several questions about the play based on the play's title
C. asking students to share what they already know about the time period during which the play takes place
D. encouraging groups of students to create and perform their own short skits about the same subject

66. A second-grade teacher notices that one of her students lacks fluency when reading aloud. The first thing the teacher
should do in order to help this student is assess whether the student also has difficulties with:
A. predicting.
B. inferring.
C. metacognition.
D. decoding.

67. Read the passage below; then answer the question that follows.
For the second time that week, Saul forgot to wash his hands after working on his painting. He had gotten so involved filling in
the ocean in his picture that he had barely even heard the teacher telling everyone it was time to put away their easels and
wash up for lunch. He had put his supplies away, but, still thinking about the ocean, he had gone straight to his desk. Now he
saw that he was leaving blue-paint handprints on his desk, on his shirt, on his books—even on his lunchbox. Estella looked
over at him and joked, "Hey, Saul! You're the new King Midas! Only you turn everything to blue!" Saul rolled his eyes at her as
he got back up to go to the sink.
This passage would be most suited for helping students:
A. recognize a literary allusion.
B. analyze story elements.
C. predict future events.
D. analyze an author's point of view.

68. Students in a third-grade class are working on an interdisciplinary unit on Native Americans of the Northeast. The teacher
has selected a historical novel for students to read during the unit to help them gain insight into people's daily lives in a
particular Native American nation at a particular point in time. However, the teacher is aware that the novel's text complexity
may make comprehension difficult for a group of struggling readers in the class. Which of the following strategies would be
most effective for the teacher to use to support the struggling readers' comprehension of the novel and their purpose for
reading?
A. engaging the students in guided reading and rereading of key passages in the novel
B. having the students stop after reading each chapter and try to summarize the key events of the plot in their own words
C. asking the students to rewrite the story from the perspective of a different character in the novel
D. encouraging the students to read key chapters of the novel aloud together by taking turns reading specific pages

69. A teacher can best help sixth graders draw inferences from informational text by asking them to complete which of the
following statements?
A. In my opinion . . .
B. The passage suggests . . .
C. In comparison . . .
D. The author's first point is . . .

70. A sixth-grade teacher gives students several persuasive essays that present contrasting opinions on a current social issue.
The teacher then asks students to consider the following questions as they read the texts.
1. What is the author's opinion on the issue? 2. How might the author's background influence his or her opinion? 3. What
evidence does the author use to support his or her opinion?
These questions are likely to be most effective for helping students:
A. monitor comprehension of informational texts.
B. identify the theme in expository texts.
C. draw inferences from informational texts.
D. analyze point of view in expository texts.

71. A third-grade teacher periodically reads aloud from a chapter in content-area textbooks and describes his thought processes
as he reads. Following is an example:
"'The moon does not shine on its own. The sun's light reflects off the moon.' Hmm. I'm imagining that the sun is like a
flashlight shining on the moon in the dark. 'As the moon rotates, only the part that faces the sun is visible from the Earth.' I'm
not quite sure what "visible" means, but it sounds kind of like vision, which I know has to do with eyes. It probably means the
part that we can see from the Earth. Now, that makes me wonder— why do we see different amounts of the moon at different
times? Let's see if the next part of the chapter explains this . . ."
This practice is most likely to promote students' reading proficiency by:
A. exposing them to new vocabulary in context.
B. modeling for them metacognitive comprehension strategies.
C. giving them an example of fluent oral reading.
D. summarizing for them the main ideas of an expository text.

72. Skimming is likely to be the most effective strategy for accomplishing which of the following reading tasks?
A. evaluating the validity of information on an Internet Web site
B. previewing a chapter in a content-area textbook
C. synthesizing information from various sources for a research report
D. studying specific facts for a contentarea exam
73. A sixth-grade class is working on an Internet research project about various natural resources and their uses. The teacher
could best support students' effective use of the Internet for their research by:
A. providing students with a checklist of questions that prompt critical evaluation of information on Web sites.
B. giving students a list of Web sites that have been preapproved based on the sites' reading levels.
C. encouraging students to search for Web sites that are easy to navigate and that contain familiar vocabulary.
D. teaching students to employ a variety of search engines to locate relevant Web sites.

74. Which of the following text features are students likely to find most useful when previewing informational texts such as
library books for a research project?
A. index
B. bibliography
C. glossary
D. table of contents

75. A third-grade teacher observes that students who read aloud fluently also demonstrate greater comprehension of expository
texts. The best explanation for this is that fluent readers:
A. possess a self-awareness that allows them to use metacognitive skills efficiently.
B. have already developed the base of background knowledge typically covered by textbooks.
C. have well-developed skills for decoding any level of text word by word.
D. are able to focus their full attention and cognitive resources on the meaning of a text.

76. A fifth-grade teacher gives students a reading guide for an informational text that they will be reading independently. The
reading guide contains various activities, including prompting students to summarize certain passages, to explain relationships
between concepts according to specific information in the text, and to determine the meaning of domain-specific words based
on appositives or appositive phrases embedded in the text. This reading guide is likely to be most effective for achieving which
of the following instructional purposes?
A. developing students' ability to read the text evaluatively
B. encouraging students to read and interact closely with the text
C. supporting students' development of prosodic reading skills
D. teaching students to adjust their reading rate based on text complexity

77. Two proficient readers are answering postreading comprehension questions about a chapter in a content-area textbook.
• The first student demonstrates exceptional recall of details from the chapter but has difficulty answering questions about the
gist of the chapter.
• The second student can give an outstanding summary of the chapter but has difficulty remembering specific facts from the
chapter.
Which of the following best explains the most likely reason for the students' varied understanding of the text?
A. The first student is more proficient than the second student at using metacognitive comprehension strategies to make sense
of the text.
B. Each student applied different reading comprehension skills when reading the text.
C. The second student is more proficient at reading for literal understanding than for inferential understanding.
D. Each student brought a unique set of prior experiences to the reading of the text.

78. An English Language Learner reads academic texts fluently in her primary language but is struggling to understand her
content-area textbooks in English. This student would likely benefit most from engaging in which of the following activities?
A. translating textbook reading assignments from English into her primary language
B. receiving reading comprehension instruction with texts written in her primary language
C. learning to use metacognitive reading strategies with English text
D. reading texts in her primary language that cover the same material as her English textbooks

Use the information below to answer the two questions that follow.
A fifth-grade teacher plans to have students read a chapter about the American Revolutionary War from their social studies
textbook. The following is an excerpt from the chapter.
The Battle of Bunker Hill took place on June 17, 1775. At the time, the American army occupied the area from Cambridge to
the Mystic River. American troops gathered in Cambridge Common on the evening of June 16, 1775, and set out for Bunker
Hill. Upon reaching Bunker Hill, however, officers decided to move to Breed's Hill, a smaller hill closer to Boston.

79. Based on this excerpt from the chapter, which of the following graphic organizers would best promote students' awareness
of the chapter's text structure?
A. outline
B. Venn diagram
C. timeline
D. semantic map

80. The teacher asks students to locate and mark places mentioned in the chapter on a map as they read. This activity is most
likely to help students:
A. use visualization to facilitate their comprehension of the text.
B. paraphrase content to make the text more understandable.
C. connect elements in the text to their background knowledge.
D. identify the text's main ideas and supporting details.

81. A third-grade teacher has been conducting a series of ongoing assessments of a student's oral reading. Shown below is a
sentence from a text, followed by a transcription of a typical example of the student's oral reading performance.
Text: Her boots crunched through the snow. Student: Her boats crucked throw the snow.
After reading the sentence, the student paused and then reread it without the teacher's prompting and self-corrected the
errors. Based on this information, the teacher could best meet this student's needs by adjusting instruction in order to:
A. enhance the student's oral vocabulary development.
B. develop the student's ability to selfmonitor comprehension.
C. improve the student's decoding skills.
D. promote the student's ability to track print.

82. Which of the following types of assessments would best provide information about the comparative reading proficiency of
students in an elementary school?
A. a test of vocabulary development
B. a norm-referenced survey test
C. a reading miscue inventory
D. a diagnostic portfolio

83. Considerations of validity in test construction relate most closely to:

A. how a particular examinee's test performance relates to a preestablished standard.
B. whether the test questions effectively measure their specified content.
C. how a particular examinee's test performance compares to the performance of other examinees.
D. whether the test results are likely to be repeatable with a similar examinee test group.
84. If a standardized test is said to lack reliability, the test:
A. is not measuring what it is supposed to measure.
B. has not proven to be useful as an instructional intervention.
C. gives fluctuating scores in different administrations.
D. has poor predictive value relative to students' classroom performance.

85. Which of the following informal assessment results provides the clearest indication that a kindergarten child has attained a
beginning level of phonemic awareness?
A. The student can clap the "beats" or syllables of familiar multisyllable words.
B. The student can delete the second "word" or syllable in compound words.
C. The student can identify the beginning sound of single-syllable words.
D. The student can substitute phonemes in the medial position of singlesyllable words.

86. One of the most important purposes of a standardized Informal Reading Inventory (IRI) is:
A. to establish how prior knowledge and text organization influence a student's reading comprehension.
B. to determine how a student uses semantic, syntactic, and other text clues to deduce a word's meaning.
C. to analyze how a student's silent reading comprehension is influenced by oral reading fluency.
D. to establish a student's independent, instructional, and frustration reading levels.

87. An advantage of using assessment tools such as portfolios and scoring rubrics is that they:
A. provide more objective results than do multiple-choice tests.
B. promote student participation in selfassessment activities.
C. ensure consistency among different evaluators.
D. offer more reliable assessment data.

88. Which of the following best describes the primary advantage of having a student read a passage silently and then provide a
"retelling" as a means of assessing the student's comprehension, rather than having the student answer questions?
A. A retelling is open-ended and requires the student to construct a description of the passage more independently of the
examiner.
B. The results of a retelling are more objective and easier to quantify than the results of direct questioning.
C. The procedure involved in retelling tends to be more familiar to a wider range of students, including English Language
Learners.
D. A retelling can provide information about the student's inferential comprehension skills, which questioning cannot provide.

89. Which of the following criteria would be most important to consider when selecting "leveled texts" for use in assessments
and guided reading with beginning-level readers?
A. The texts should use repeated words and natural oral language structures.
B. The texts should require readers to use problem-solving to connect text to illustrations.
C. The texts should emphasize use of literary language and dialogues.
D. The texts should feature a range of punctuation and context-specific vocabulary.

90. In order to select a trade book that emphasizes predictability, a teacher should ensure that:
A. the text includes some pictures or illustrations.
B. the concepts in the text are at an appropriate level of difficulty for the target student(s).
C. a phrase, rhyme, or sentence is repeated throughout the text.
D. the length of the text is not likely to exceed the attention span of the target student(s).

91. A fourth-grade English Language Learner is new to a school. Assessments suggest that the student can read orally with
accuracy on grade level; however, the student's comprehension of grade-level textbooks fluctuates widely. Which of the
following steps would be most appropriate for the teacher to take first in order to determine the cause of the student's difficulty?
A. Assess the student's word analysis and decoding skills.
B. Determine whether the student has a specific learning disability that affects language processing.
C. Assess the student's level of firstlanguage literacy.
D. Determine whether the student has adequate vocabulary and background knowledge to support comprehension of the
textbooks.

92. A first-grade teacher encourages beginning readers to "write" their own captions beneath their drawings. This practice is
most likely to lead to which of the following?
A. The students will tend to lose interest in writing because of their frustration with their lack of mastery of the English spelling
system.
B. The students' overall reading proficiency will be adversely affected by any spelling errors that go uncorrected.
C. The students will tend to develop strong automatic word recognition skills from their interaction with print.
D. The students' development of phonics knowledge will be reinforced as they experiment with their own phonetic spellings.

93. Which of the following types of activities would be most important to include on a daily basis when planning reading
instruction for first graders who are developing as beginning readers?
A. activities that introduce students to basic concepts about print
B. activities that emphasize listening to and producing rhyming, alliteration, and similar forms of wordplay
C. activities that promote students' development of decoding and other word analysis skills
D. activities that emphasize memorization of lists of grade- level-appropriate sight words

94. A fifth-grade class silently reads an informational text. In subsequent informal assessments, several students are able to
read the text orally with fluency but they demonstrate poor overall comprehension of the text. The teacher could most
appropriately address these students' needs by adjusting future instruction in which of the following ways?
A. using informational texts that are written at the students' independent reading level
B. providing the students with explicit instruction in grade-level-appropriate test-taking strategies
C. introducing a text's key vocabulary and guiding the students in close reading of key passages
D. emphasizing reading skill-building activities that focus primarily on narrative texts

95. As a first-grade teacher reads a big book to a group of students, the teacher points to the beginning consonants of selected
words and accentuates the sound the initial letter makes. This activity is most likely to promote the students':
A. awareness of multisyllable words.
B. ability to isolate individual sounds in words.
C. structural analysis skills.
D. ability to blend the sounds in words.

96. Which of the following children is most in need of immediate intervention?

A. a preschool child who has limited book-handling skills
B. a kindergarten child who has limited ability to correlate alphabet letters with the sounds they make
C. a first-grade student who still reads texts composed of single-syllable regular words and common sight words
D. a second-grade student who still decodes words letter by letter

97. Which of the following is the most important reason for a fourth-grade teacher to assign a variety of high-quality trade books
as a component of reading instruction?
A. The themes typical of children's literature tend to reinforce students' development of literal comprehension skills.
B. Reading across genres helps students develop an understanding of the structures and features of different texts.
C. Simplified syntax and controlled vocabulary provide necessary scaffolding for students who are struggling readers.
D. Reading diverse texts helps to promote students' development of phonological and phonemic awareness skills.

98. Frequent oral reading to kindergarten children using appropriate and expressive intonation and voices is likely to promote
the students' reading development primarily by:
A. improving their aural discrimination skills.
B. explicitly teaching letter-sound correspondence.
C. fostering their engagement in and love of reading.
D. explicitly modeling phonological concepts such as word boundaries.

99. Which of the following strategies is likely to be most effective in promoting reluctant readers' interest in independent reading
outside of school?
A. Calculate numerical scores based on the number and difficulty level of the books students read at home and integrate the
score into students' report card grade for reading.
B. Encourage parents to give their children simple external rewards for at-home reading, such as an extra helping of a favorite
treat.
C. Encourage students and parents to read books together on a regular basis, either silently or aloud, and discuss their
personal responses to each chapter or key event.
D. Recommend that parents make their children's daily television-watching time contingent on their reading a specified number
of pages first.

100. Electronic reading books are advantageous for beginning or struggling readers primarily because this type of computer
software:
A. scaffolds learning by providing a high level of interactivity.
B. helps students develop familiarity with reading from a computer screen.
C. provides students with models of good reading practices and habits.
D. minimizes the focus on written text by using sound effects and voices to convey meaning.

PART 3

1. Which of the following is the best way for a teacher to assess students’ phonemic awareness?
A. Ask students to identify the letter at the beginning of the word “desk”.
B. Say the word “lamp” and ask students to break it into individual sounds.
C. Distribute the letter cards “b,” “a,” and “t” and ask students to order the letters to create a word.
D. Display the written word “cat” and ask students to sound it out as they tap each letter/

2. When preparing to do a close reading of a complex text with students, it is important to know which of the following?
A. Students should be focused on trying to accurately summarize the text and identify key story elements.
B. The teacher’s role is to guide students through the text and interpret the meaning of challenging text for students.
C. Students should read the text multiple times and focus on a different outcome during each reading.
D. The teacher’s role is to plan extensive pre-reading activities and elicit students’ prior knowledge before students read the
text.

3. Which of the following text-dependent questions best focuses students to think about the craft and structure of a text?
A. What did the main character do when he saw the letter? Why?
B. How did the author describe Bradley’s uncle? Why did the author choose to describe him that way?
C. Have you ever read another story like this? How are they similar?
D. How has Ma and Karin’s relationship changed over the course of the story? What changed it?

4. Which of the following best reflects research about teaching alphabetic principle to young students?
A. Teaching students the letters and their corresponding sounds in alphabetical order
B. Introducing students to the long vowel sounds before introducing them to the short vowel sounds
C. Introducing students to similar sounding or looking letters in close succession
D. Teaching students continuous vowel and consonant sounds before stop (or clipped) sounds

5. A teacher listens to Zane, a fourth-grade student, read an unfamiliar passage aloud for one minute. He read at an average
rate but with poor expression. He accurately decoded 98% of the words in the passage. Based on the results of the
assessment, which of the following teacher actions will best improve Zane’s reading ability?
A. Building prior knowledge of the passage before the student’s oral reading
B. Providing explicit instruction and modelling of prosodic reading of text
C. Encouraging the student to engage in repeated readings of the same text
D. Having the student listen to a recording of the oral reading to self-assess his performance

6. A class prepares to read a science text about an unfamiliar, complex process. The best way the teacher can support
students’ successful reading of the text is to _____.
A. guide students to continue reading when they come to an unfamiliar word in order to search for context clues
B. assign a small portion of text, and then pause for discussion and student questions before moving on
C. make dictionaries available to students so they can look up the meanings of challenging vocabulary before reading each
section of the text
D. ask each student to do a quick write about the process using their background knowledge, and then ask them to share their
writing with a partner

7. Which of the following practices is most appropriate for a teacher to use when determining the placement of students into
flexible groups for reading instruction?
A. using students’ most current standardize reading assessment results to group together students with similar scores
B. using results from a variety of assessments to form mixed-ability groups
C. using formal and informal measures to inform instruction that targets students’ changing needs
D. using teacher-prepared survey to determine students’ authentic reading interests

8. Which of the following techniques can best be used to teach students how to read phonetically irregular words?
A. Having students highlight common spelling patterns
B. Modelling the use of letter-sound relationships during reading
C. Maintaining a word wall of high frequency sight words
D. Exposing students to a large quantity of decodable texts

9. While reading a complex piece of text, a teacher asks students to record their reactions in the margin, including their
questions, summaries, and personal connections. The primary purpose of the activity is to_____.
A. ensure active comprehension monitoring
B. develop strong summarization skills
C. assess application of word analysis strategies
D. identify the organizational structure of the text

10. Which of the following instructional strategies best completes the chart?

Reading Comprehension Reading Fluency Writing Vocabulary

Directed Reading-Thinking Activity Shared reading Sentence combining Word hunts
Inquiry chart Partner reading Paragraph hamburger Possible sentences
Think-Pair-Share ? Revision Word walls

A. semantic feature analysis

B. brainstorming
C. readers’ theater
D. anticipation guide

11. Which of the following vocabulary-learning activities most clearly involves metacognition?
A. rewriting vocabulary words from a classroom word wall in alphabetical order
B. identifying unfamiliar words in a reading passage
C. looking up bolded vocabulary words from a textbook chapter in the book's glossary
D. locating synonyms for a given vocabulary word in the thesaurus