Physics revision MCQs

UNITS AND MEASUREMENT:

1. .The base quantity among the following is,

a) Speed b) area c) length d) weight

2. Which of the following is not the unit of time

a) second b) minute c) month d) light year

3. Average distance of the Sun from the Earth

a) light year b) astronomical unit c) fermi d) parsec

4. The symbol to represent “Amount of Substance” is ________

a. K

b. A

c. Cd

d. mol

5.Which among the following is the Supplementary Unit——–

a. Mass

b. Time

c. Solid angle

d. Luminosity

6.AU is the unit of ________

a. Astronomy Unit

b. Astronomical unit

c. Astrological Unit

d. Archaeological Unit
7.Dimensions of kinetic energy is the same as that of ________

a. Acceleration

b. Velocity

c. Work

d. Force

8.Farad is the unit of ________

a. Luminosity

b. Wavelength

c. Permittivity

d. Inertia

9. ASSERTION: AU is much bigger than Ǻ

REASON : AU is astronomical unit and Ǻ is angstrom

10. ASSERTION: The units of some physical quantities can be expressed as

combination of the base units REASON : We need large number of units for

expressing the derived physical quantities.

11. ASSERTION: Special functions such as trigonometric, logarithmic and exponential

functions are notdimensionless

REASON : A pure number, ratio of similar physical quantities such as angle and

refractive index has some dimensions.

MOTION IN A STRAIGHT LINE:

1.Consider a body moving with an acceleration of 2 m/s². After t seconds its velocity is

10 m/s. Find ‘t’.

a. 4 s

b. 20 s
c. 5 s

d. 8 s

2.For the motion with uniform velocity, the slope of the velocity-time graph is equal to

a. 1 m/s

b. Zero

c. Initial velocity

d. Final velocity

3. For the motion with uniform velocity, the slope of the velocity-time graph is equal to

(a) 1 m/s (b)Zero (c)Initial velocity (d)Final velocity

4. A spring with one end attached to a mass and the other to a rigid support is stretched

and released

. a. Magnitude of acceleration, when just released is maximum.

b.Magnitude of acceleration, when at equilibrium position, is maximum.

c. Speed is maximum when mass is at equilibrium position.

d. Magnitude of displacement is always maximum whenever speed is minimum.

5. Assertion : Displacement of a body may be zero when distance travelled by it is not

zero

Reason : The displacement is the longest distance between initial and final

position.

6. .Assertion: Position-time graph of a stationary object is a straight line parallel to the

axis.

Reason: For a stationary object, position does not change with time.
MOTION IN A PLANE:

1. A vector quantity with both magnitude and direction obeys

a)triangle law addition c)law of inertia b)law of momentum d)none

2. The time of flight of the projectile motion is given by

a)2ucosθ/g b) usinθ/g c) 2usinθ/g d)4cosθ/g

3. Assertion: The scalar product of two vectors can be zero.

Reason: If two vectors are perpendicular to each other, their scalar product will be

zero

4. Assertion : A scalar quantity is one that is conserved in a process

Reason : Scalar quantity depends on direction

LAWS OF MOTION:

1. The proper use of lubricants cannot reduce

(a) Static friction (b) Inertia (c) Sliding friction (d) rolling friction

2. Inertia is the property of a body linked to tendency of a body

(a) to change its position (b) to change its direction (c) to change the momentum (d) to resist

any change in its state

3. Newton’s first law of motion describes the

(a )energy (b) work (c) inertia (d)moment of inertia

4. No force is required for

(a) an object moving in straight line with constant velocity (b) an object moving in circular motion (c) an
object moving withconstant acceleration (d) an object moving in elliptical path.

5. Impulse equals

(a) rate of change of momentum (b) change in momentum (c)momentum multiplied by time (d) rate of
change of force

6. A cannon after firing recoils due to

(a) conservation of energy (b) Newton’s second law of motion (c) Newton’s third law of motion

(d) Newton’s first law of motion

7. When a car moves on a level road, then the centripetal force required for

circular motion is provided by ___

(a) weight of the car (b) normal reaction (c)component of friction between the road & tyres along the
surface. (d) all of the above

8. Assertion : If the net external force on the body is zero, then its acceleration is

zero.

Reason : Acceleration does not depend on force.

9. Assertion : Mass is a measure of inertia of the body in linear motion.

Reason :Greater the mass, greater is the force required to change its state of rest or of

uniform motion.

12. During the motion of a lift, apparent weight of a body becomes twice its actual

weight, when

(a) lift is moving down with acceleration g

(b) lift is moving up with acc. g

(c) lift is moving down with uniform speed

(d) lift is moving up with uniform velocity

13. a particle of mass m moving with a velocity v, stricks a stationary particle of

mass 2m and sticks to it. The speed of the system will be

(a) v/2

(b) 2v

(c) v/3

(d) 3v

14. A ball is travelling with uniform translatory motion. This means that

(a) it is atrest.

(b) the path can be a straight line or circular and the ball travels with

uniform speed.

(c) all parts of the ball have the same velocity (magnitude and

direction) and the velocity is constant.

(d) the centre of the ball moves with constant velocity and the ball spins about
15. The direction of impulse is

(a) same as that of the net force

(b) opposite to

that of the net force

(c) same as that of the final velocity

(d) same as that of the initial velocit

16. Which one of the following is not a force?

(a) Impulse (b) Tension (c) Thrust (d) Air resistance

17. Identify the correct statement.

(a) Static friction depends on the area of contact

(b) Kinetic friction depends on the area of contact

(c) Coefficient of kinetic friction does not depend on the surfaces in contact

(d) Coefficient of kinetic friction is less than the coefficient of static friction

18. Frictional force that opposes relative motion between surfaces in contact is

called ……….. (a) static friction (b) kinetic friction (c) kinetic friction (d) s

19. Which of the following statements about friction is true?

(a) Friction can be reduced to zero (b) Frictional force cannot accelerate a body (c) Frictional

force is proportional to the area of contact between the two surfaces (d) Kinetic friction is always
greater than rolling friction

20. On a banked road, which force is essential to provide the necessary

centripetal force to a car to take a turn while driving at the optimum speed?

(a)Component of normal reaction (b) Component of frictional force (c) Both (a) &(b) (d) None of these

21. A particle revolves round a circular path. The acceleration of the particle is

inversely proportional to (a) radius (b) velocity (c) mass of particle (d) both (b)

22. A cyclist bends while taking turn in order to (a) reduce friction (b) provide

required centripetal force (c) reduce apparent weight (d) reduce speed

23. One end of a string of length l is connected to a particle of mass m and the

other to a small peg on a smoth horizontal table. If the particle moves in a

circle with speed v, the net force on the particle is

(a) T (b) T-mv2/l (c) T +mv2/l (d) 0

24. The mass of bicycle rider along with the bicycle is 100 kg. He wants to cross

over a circular turn of radius 100m with a speed of 10 m/s. If the coefficient of

friction between the tyres and the road is 0.6, the frictional force required by

the rider to cross the turn is (a) 300 N (b) 600 N (c) 1200 N (d) 150 N

25. Assertion : Impulse of force and momentum are same physical quantities.

Reason : Both quantities have same unit.

26. Assertion: A cricketer moves his hands forward to catch a ball so as to catch it

easily without hurting. Reason: He tries to decrease the distance travelled by

the ball so that it hurts less.

33. Net force acting on an object is found to be zero.’ It can be inferred that

the object a) May be at rest b) May be in uniform motion c) May be in

uniformly accelerated motion d) Both a) & b)

34. A body subjected to three concurrent forces is found to be in equilibrium.

The resultant of any two forces (a) is equal to third force (b) is opposite to

third force (c) is collinear with the third force (d) All of these

35. According to Galileo's experiment for a double inclined plane, if slope of

second plane is zero and planes are smooth, then a ball is released from

rest on one of the planes rolls down and move on the second plane ...X...

distance. Here, X is (a) zero (b) infinite (c) equal to length of first plane (d)

None o

36. China wares are wrapped in straw of paper before packing. This is the

application of concept of (a) impulse (b) momentum (c) acceleration (d)

mass

37. If the net external force on a body is ...X..., its acceleration is zero.

Acceleration can be ...Y... only, if there is a net external force on the body.

Here, X and Y refer to (a) zero, zero (b) zero, non-zero (c) non-zero, zero (d)

non-zero

38. The same change in momentum in ...X... time needs ...Y... force applied.
Here, X and Y refer to (a) longer, lesser (b) shorter, greater (c) both (a) and

(b) (d) longer, gr

39. Newton’s second and third laws of motion lead to the conservation of (a)

linear momentum (b) angular momentum (c) potential energy (d) kinetic

energy

40. Which of the following is a self- adjusting force? (a) Static friction (b) Rolling

friction (c) sliding friction (d Dynamic fricti

41. A cyclist taking turn bends inwards while a car passenger taking the same

turn is thrown outwards. The reason is (a) car is heavier than cycle (b) car

has four wheels while cycle has only two (c) difference in the speed of the

two (d) cyclist has to counteract the centrifugal force while in the case of car

only the passenger is thrown by this force

42. The coefficient of static friction between two surfaces depends upon (a) the

normal reaction (b) the shape of the surface in contact (c) the area of

contact (d) None of the these

43. If μs, μk and μr are coefficients of static friction, kinetic friction and rolling

friction, then (a) μs < μk < μr (b) μk < μr < μs (c) μr < μk < μs (d) μr = μk = μ

44. It is difficult to move a cycle with brakes on because (a) rolling friction

opposes motion on road (b) sliding friction opposes motion on road (c)

rolling friction is more than sliding friction (d) sliding friction is more than

rolling friction

45. A constant force acts on a body of mass 5 kg and changes its speed from

5m/s to 10 m/s in 10 seconds, without changing the direction of motion. The

force acting on the body is (a) 1.5 N (b) 2N (c) 2.5 N (d) 5 N

46. Assertion: Same force applied for the same time causes the same change in

momentum for different bodies Reason: The total momentum of an isolated

system of interacting bodies remains conserved

47. Assertion : A rocket works on the principle of conservation of linear

momentum. Reason : Whenever there is change in momentum of one body,

the same change occurs in the momentum of the second body of the same

system but in the opposite direction.

48. Assertion : A block placed on a table is at rest, because action force cancels

the reaction force on the block. Assertion : The net force on the block is

zero.

49. Assertion : On a rainy day, it is difficult to stop a moving car or bus at high

speed. Reason : The value of coefficient of friction is lowered due to wetting

of the surface.

50. Assertion: Friction is a necessary evil Reason: Though friction dissipates

power, but without friction we cannot walk.

51. Assertion: There is a stage when frictional force is not needed at all to

provide the necessary centripetal force on a banked road. Reason: On a

banked road, due to its inclination the vehicle tends to remain inwards

without any chances of skidding.

52. Assertion : Linear momentum of a body changes even when it is moving

uniformly in a circle. Reason : In uniform circular motion, velocity remains

constant

53. Assertion : No external force is required to keep a body in uniform motion.

Reason :If the net external force is zero , a body at rest continues to remain

at rest and the body in motion continues to move with a uniform velocity.

54. Assertion: It is difficult to move a cycle along the road with brakes on.

Reason: Sliding friction is greater than rolling friction.

55. Assertion: The apparent weight of a body in an elevator moving with some

downward acceleration is less than the actual weight of the body. Reason:

The part of the weight of the body is spent in producing downward

acceleration, when body is in elevator.

56. Assertion: A horse has to pull the cart harder during first few steps of his

motion. Reason: The first few steps are always difficult.

WORK ENERGY POWER:

1. The rate of doing work is called ——————-.

a) Force

b) Acceleration

c) Power

d) Displacement

2. Which is the type of collision in which both the linear momentum and the kinetic

energy of the system

remain conserved?

a) Inelastic Collision

b) Elastic Collision

c) Destructive collision

d) None of the options

3. Unit of energy is

a) kwh

b) joule

c) electron volt

d) All of these

4. Which of the following is not a conservative force?

a) Gravitational force

b) Frictional force

c) Spring force

d) None of these

5. . The speed of an object of mass m dropped from an inclined plane (frictionless), at

the bottom of the plane,

depends on:
a) height of the plane above the ground

b) angle of inclination of the plane

c) mass of the object

d) All of these

6. In an elastic collision, what is conserved?

a) Kinetic energy

b) Momentum

c) Both (a) and (b)

d) Neither (a) nor (b)

7. A vehicle is moving on a rough road in a straight line with uniform velocity. Then

a) no force is acting on the vehicle

b) a force must act on the vehicle

c) an acceleration is being produced in the vehicle

d) no work is being done on the vehicle

8. A body projected vertically from the earth reaches a height equal to earth’S& radius

before returning to theearth. The power exerted by the gravitational force is greatest

a) at the instant just before the body hits the earth

b) at the highest position of the body

c) it remains constant all through

d) at the instant just after the body is projected

ASSERTION TYPE QUESTIONS

In the following questions, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of

reason(R).

Mark the correct choice as:

A) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of

the assertion.
B) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of

the assertion.

C) If the assertion is true but the reason is false.

D) If the assertion and reason both are false.

E) If the assertion is false but the reason is true.

9. 1) Assertion: When a body moves along a circular path, no work is done by the

centripetal force.

Reason: The centripetal force is used in moving the body along the circular path

and hence no work is done.

10. 2) Assertion: When the force retards the motion of a body, the work done is zero.

Reason: Work done depends on angle between force and displacement.

18. Find the potential energy stored in a ball of mass 5 kg placed at a height of 3 m

above the ground.

a) 121 J

b) 147 J

c) 227 J

d) 182 J

19. What is the power utilised when work of 1000 J is done in 2 seconds?

a) 100 W

b) 200 W

c) 20 W

d) 500 W

20. An electric heater of rating 1000 W is used for 5 hrs per day for 20 days. What is the

electrical energy

utilized?

a) 100 kWh

b) 200 kWh

c) 120 kWh

d) 500 kWh
21. . A particle is taken round a circle by application of force. The work done by the

force is

a) positive non–zero

b) negative non–zero

c) Zero

d) None of the above

22. Four particles given, have the same momentum. Which has maximum kinetic

energy

a) Proton

b) Electron

c) Deuteron

d) Alpha-particles

23. . If two particles are brought near one another, the potential energy of the system

will

a) increase

b)decrease

c ) remains the same

d) equal to the K.E

24. When two spheres of equal masses undergo perfect inelastic collision with one of

them at rest, after

collision they will move

a) opposite to one another

b) in the same direction

c) together

d) at right angle to each other

25. . In an inelastic collision

a) momentum is not conserved

b) momentum is conserved but kinetic energy is not conserved

c) both momentum and kinetic energy are conserved

d) neither momentum nor kinetic energy is conserved

26. The potential energy of a system increases if work is done

a) upon the system by a non-conservative force

b) by the system against a conservative force

c) by the system against a non-conservative force

d) upon the system by a conservative force

ASSERTION TYPE QUESTIONS

27. Assertion: The work done in bringing a body down from the top to the base along a

frictionless incline plane is the same as the work done in bringing it down the vertical side.

Reason: The gravitational force on the body along the inclined plane is the same as that along the

vertical side.

35. A ball moves in a frictionless inclined table without slipping. The work done by the

table surface on the ball is

a) Negative

b) Zero

c) Positive

d) None of the options

36. No work is done if

a) displacement is zero

b) force is zero

c) force and displacement are mutually perpendicular

d) All of these

37. When the force retards the motion of body, the work done is

a) zero

b) negative

c) positive

d) Positive or negative depending upon the magnitude of force and displacement

38. Work is always done on a body when

a) a force act on it

b) it moves through a certain distance

c) it experiences an increase in energy through a mechanical influence

d) None of these

39. According to work-energy theorem, the work done by the net force on a

particle is equal to the change in its

a) kinetic energy

b) potential energy

c) linear momentum

d) angular momentum

40. If a light body and heavy body have same kinetic energy, then which one has

greater linear momentum?

a) Lighter body

b) Heavier body

c) Both have same momentum

d) Can’t be predicted

41. A light and a heavy body have equal momentum. Which one has greater K.E.?

a) The lighter body

b) The heavier body

c) Both have equal K.E.

d) Data given is incomplete

42. A bullet is fired and gets embedded in a block kept on a table. If table is frictionless,

then

a) kinetic energy gets conserved

b) potential energy gets conserved

c) momentum gets conserved

d) both (a) and (c)

ASSERTION TYPE QUESTIONS

43. Assertion: If momentum of a body increases by 50% its kinetic energy will increase

by 125%.

Reason: Kinetic energy is proportional to square of velocity

SYSTEM OF PARTICLES:

1. A body is under the action of two equal and oppositely directed forces and the

body is rotating with constant acceleration. Which of the following cannot be the

separation between the lines of action of the forces?

(a) zero (b) 0.25m (c) 0.4m (d) 1.0m

2. A body of mass M slides down an inclined plane and reaches the bottom with

velocity v. If a ring of same mass rolls down the same inclined plane, what will be

its velocity on reaching the bottom?

(a) v2(b) v/√2 (c) v (d) √2v

3. A uniform rod of length l is rotating horizontally with uniform angular speed

co about a vertical axis passing through its one end. The force exerted on the rod

is

(a) mlω² (b) ml²ω² (c) 12 ml²ω² (d) 12 mlω

4. The pendulum consists of a sphere of mass m suspended with a flexible wire of

length l. If the breaking strength of the wire is 2mg, then the angular displacement

that can be given to the pendulum is

(a) 30° (b) 45° (c) 60° (d) 90°

5. Assertion : The centre of mass of an isolated system has a constant

velocity.

Reason : If centre of mass of an isolated system is already at rest, it remains at

rest.

6. Assertion : The position of centre of mass of body depend upon shape and

size of the body.Reason : Centre of mass of a body lies always at the centre of the body
7. Assertion : If no external force acts on a system of particles, then the

centre of mass will not move in any direction.

Reason : If net external force is zero, then the linear momentum of the system

remains constant

8. Assertion : A particle is moving on a straight line with a uniform velocity, its

angular momentum is always zero.

Reason : The momentum is not zero when particle moves with a uniform velocity.

16. Three identical balls each of radius 10cm and mass 1kg each are placed touching

each other on a horizontalsurface. Where is their C.M. located?

(a) At the centre of one ball. (b) On the horizontal surface.

(c) At the point of contact of any two spheres. (d) None of these.

17. A body rolls without slipping. The radius of gyration of the body about an axis

passing through its centre ofmass is K. If radius of the body be R, then what is the

ratio of its rotational K.E. to transitional K.E.?

(a) K2 / R2(b) K2/ (K2 + R²) (c) R2/(K2 + R²) (d) K² + R2

18. A string of length l fixed at one end carries a mass M at the other end. The string

makes 2π revolutions persecond around a vertical axis through the fixed end. The

tension in the string is

(a) Ml (b) 2Ml (d) 4Ml (d) 16Ml

19. Assertion : When you lean behind over the hind legs of the chair, the chair falls

back after a certain angle.

Reason : Centre of mass lying outside the system makes the system unstable.

20. Assertion : The centre of mass of system of n particles is the weighted

average of the position vector of the n

particles making up the system.

Reason : The position of the centre of mass of a system in independent of

coordinate system.
21. Assertion: Centre of mass of a ring lies at its geometric centre though there is no

mass.

Reason: Centre of mass is independent of mass.

24. A wheel has radius 10cm and is coupled by a belt to another wheel of radius

30cm. The smaller wheelincreases its speed from rest at a uniform rate of π rads-

2. The speed of larger wheel become 100 rpm after

(a) 2s (b) 5s (c) 20s (d) 10s

25. Three thin iron rods each of mass M and length l are welded so as to form

an equilateral triangle. The M.I.about the axis passing through the C.M. and

perpendicular to its plane is

(a) Ml² (b) Ml2

(c) Ml2

(d) Ml2

26. Assertion : The centre of mass of a body may lie where there is no mass.

Reason : Centre of mass of body is a point, where the whole mass of the body is

supposed to be concentrated.

27. Assertion : The earth is slowing down and as a result the moon is coming

nearer to it.

Reason : The angular momentum of the earth moon system is conserved

28. Assertion : The centre of mass of a two particle system lies on the line joining the

two particle, being closerto the heavier particle.

Reason : Product of mass of particle and its distance from centre of mass is

numerically equal to product ofmass of other particle and its distance from centre

of mass.

GRAVITATION:

1. What is the unit of Universal Gravitational Constant in SI unit?

A: N-m-Kg B: N/m-
Kg. C: N-m/Kg2. D: N/m2 -Kg

2. What is the name of attractive force which act between any two bodies in our

universe? A: Gravitational force. B: Coulomb attractive force C: Nuclear force D:Magnetic force

3. What is the value of gravitational acceleration on Earth? A: 9.8 m-s 2. B: 9.8 m/s2. C:

8.9 m-s 2. D: 8.9 m/s2

4. The value of gravitational acceleration is –

A: increases as height increase form the earth. B: decreases as height increase from the earth. C:
remains constant. D: None

of the above

5. What is the approximate mass of Sun? A: 2 * 10 34 kg. B: 2 * 10 32 kg. C: 2 * 10 30 kg. D:

2 * 10 28 kg

6. What is escape velocity? A: Velocity of moon. B: Velocity of earth C: Velocity of a

body that allow it to go outside the earth D: Tangential velocity of equator

7. What is the value of escape velocity of earth? A: 9.8 km/sec. B: 10 km/sec C: 11.2

km/sec. D: 12 km/sec

8. Does time period of artificial satellite depend on its mass? A: Yes. B: No

9. Gravitation force between two masses m1 and m2 is proportional to – A: m1+m2. B:

m1-m2. C: m1÷m2. D: m1×m2

10. .Two masses m1 and m2 are kept at a distance R. Gravitation force between them is

proportional to – A: R. B: 1/R. C: 1/R2. D: R

11. Gravitational potential is – A: proportional to distance. B: inversely proportional to

distance C: proportional to the square of the distance. D: inversely proportional to the

square of the distance

12. What is the escape velocity of moon? A: 2.00 Km/sec. B: 2.38 km/sec. C: 3.28

km/sec. D: 2.83 km/sec

13. What is the escape velocity of sun? A: 618 km/sec. B: 200 km/sec. C: 322 km/sec. D:

465 km/sec

14. Assertion : If we drop a stone and a sheet of paper from a balcony of first floor, then
stone will reach the ground first. Reason : The resistance due to air depends on

velocity only.

15. Assertion : The value of acceleration due to gravity changes with the height, depth

and shape of the earth. Reason : Acceleration due to gravity is zero at the centre of

the earth.

16. .Assertion: Smaller the orbit of the planet around the sun, shorter is the time it takes

to complete one revolution. Reason: According to Kepler’s third law of planetary

motion, square of time period is proportional to cube of mean distance from sun.

23. What is the value of Universal Gravitational Constant (G) in C.G.S unit? A: 6.67 * 10-

6 cgs unit. B: 6.67 * 10-7 cgs unit. C: 6.67 * 10-8 cgs unit D: 6.67 * 10-10 cgs u

24. 8.If we double the distance between two objects, gravitational force will be A: double.

B: half. C: one fourth. D: 4 times greater

25. If we double the mass of an artificial satellite then its orbital speed – A: will be double:

B: will be half of its initial speed; C: will be one fourth of its initial speed: D: is

independent of its mass;

26. If the masses of the Earth and Sun suddenly double, the gravitational force

between them will (A) remain the same. (B) increase 2 times. (C) increase 4 times

(D) decrease 2 times

27. According to Kepler’s second law, the radial vector to a planet from the Sun sweeps

out equal areas in equal intervals of time. This law is a consequence of (A)

conservation of linear momentum. (B) conservation of angular momentum (C)

conservation of energy. (D) conservation of kinetic energy

28. If the acceleration due to gravity becomes 4 times its original value, then escape

speed (A) remains same. (B) 2 times of original value (C) becomes halved (D) 4

times of original value

32. Does the gravitational force same for two objects inside and outside the

water? A: Yes. B: No

33. The work done by the Sun’s gravitational force on the Earth is (A) always

zero. (B) always positive (C) can be positive or negative (D) always negative
34. The gravitational potential energy of the Moon with respect to Earth is (A)

always positive. (B) always negative. (C) can be positive or negative. (D) always zero

35. .If we throw a ball upward then gravitational acceleration on the ball will be –

A: zero. B: positive. C: negative. D: negligible

36. Does escape velocity of a body depend on its mass? A: Yes. B: No

37. Let the escape velocity of earth is Ve. What would be the escape velocity of a planet

whose mass and radius is double from earth? A: Ve. B: 2 Ve. C: 4 Ve. D: 16 Ve

38. If a stone bring back to earth from moon then its A: mass will be changed. B: mass

and weight will be changed C: Weight never be changed. D: mass remain constant

but weight will be changed

39. Suppose an object is thrown upward with an angle θ providing velocity equal to

escape velocity (Ve). The magnitude of escape velocity will be.. A: Ve. B: Ve Cosθ.

C: Ve Sinθ. D: Ve tanθ

40. While revolving an artificial satellite around earth, the required centripetal force is

provided by – A: fuel contained in the satellite. B: gravitational force due to sun C:

gravitational force due to earth. D: Thrust produced by burning fuel

25. In case of planet’s motion – A: velocity remain constant in its orbit. B: angular

velocity remain constant C: total angular momentum remain constant. D: radius of

orbit remain constant.

41. An artificial satellite revolving around earth in a circular orbit. Its A: linear velocity

is constant. B: acceleration is constant C: acceleration is changing. D: angular

velocity constant

42. What is the value of gravitational acceleration inside the earth? A: 9.8 m-s 2. B:

Infinite. C: Zero. D: Cannot be calculated

43. Assertion : Universal gravitational constant G is a scalar quantity. Reason : The

value of G is same throughout the universe.

44. Assertion : When distance between two bodies is doubled and also mass of each

body is doubled, then the gravitational force between them remains the same.
Reason : According to Newton’s law of gravitation, product of force is directly

proportional to the product mass of bodies and inversely proportional to square of

the distance between them.

45. Assertion : A man is sitting in a boat which floats on a pond. If the man drinks some

water from the pond, the level of water in the pond will decrease. Reason : The

weight of the liquid displaced by the body is greater than the weight of the body.

46. Assertion: During a journey from the earth to the moon and back, maximum fuel is

spent to overcome the earth’s gravity at take-off. Reason : Earth’s mass is much

greater than that of the moon.

47. Assertion : Any two objects in the universe attract each other by a force called

gravitation force. Reason : The force of gravitation exerted by the earth is called

gravity.

48. Assertion : An object floats if it displaces an amount of liquid whose weight is

greater than the actual weight of the object. Reason : During floatation an object

experiences no net force in the downward direction.

49. Assertion : Weight of a body on earth is equal to the force with which the body is

attracted towards the earth. Reason : Weight of a body is independent of the mass

of the body.

MECHANICAL PROPERTIES OF SOLIDS:

1. Elastomers are the materials which

(a) are not elastic at all (b) have very small elastic

range (c) do not obey Hooke’s law (d) None of these

2. Which of the following has no dimensions ? (a) strain (b) angular velocity (c) momentum (d)

angular momentum

3. Which one of the following is not a unit of Young’s modulus ? (a) Nm–1 (b) Nm–2 (c) dyne

cm–2 (d) mega pascal

4. According to Hooke’s law of elasticity, if stress is increased, then the ratio of stress to strain

(a) becomes zero (b) remains constant (c) decreases (d) increases
5. Hookes law defines (a) stress (b) strain (c) modulus of elasticity (d) elastic limit

6. In case of steel wire (or a metal wire), the limit is reached when (a) the wire just break (b)

the load is more than the weight of wire (c) elongation is inversely proportional to the

tension (d) None of these

7. A beam of metal supported at the two edges is loaded at the centre. The depression at the

centre is proportional to (a) Y 2 (b) Y (c) 1/Y (d) 1/Y

8. Elasticity is the property of the body, in which (a) it does not regain its original size (b) it

regain its original size and shape (c) its shape changed but size remains same (d) None of the

above

11. The value of tan (90 – ��) in the graph gives (a) Young's modulus of elasticity

(b)compressibility (c) shear strain (d) tensile strength

12. The ratio of shearing stress to the corresponding shearing strain is called (a) bulk modulus (b)

Youngs modulus (c) modulus of rigidity (d) None of these

A force of 103 newton, stretches the length of a hanging wire by 1 millimetre. The force

required to stretch a wire of same material and length but having four times the diameter by

1 millimetre is (a) 4 × 103 N (b) 16 × 103 N (c) X 103 N (d) 1 X103N

14. There are two wire of same material and same length while the diameter of second

wire is two times the diameter of first wire, then the ratio of extension produced in the wires

by applying same load will be (a) 1 : 1 (b) 2 : 1 (c) 1 : 2 (d) 4 : 1

15. The compressibility of water is 4 × 10–5 per unit atmospheric pressure. The decrease in

volume of 100 cm3 of water under a pressure of 100 atmosphere will be (a) 0.4 cm3 (b) 4 ×

10–5 cm3 (c) 0.025 cm3 (d) 0.004 cm3

16. A wire is stretched to double of its length. The strain is (a) 2 (b) 1 (c) zero (d) 0.5

21. The length of an iron wire is L and area of cross-section is A. The increase in length is l on

applying the force F on its two ends. Which of the statement is correct? (a) Increase in

length is inversely proportional to its length (b) Increase in length is proportional to area of

cross-section (c) Increase in length is inversely proportional to area of cross-section (d)

Increase in length is proportional to Young's modulus

22. A and B are two wires. The radius of A is twice that of B. They are stretched by the same

load. Then the stress on B is (a) equal to that on A (b) four times that on A (c) two times

that on A (d) half that on A

23. When an elastic material with Young’s modulus Y is subjected to stretching stress S, elastic

energy stored per unit volume of the material is (a) YS / 2 (b) S2Y / 2 (c) S2 / 2Y (d) S / 2Y
25. A copper and a steel wire of the same diameter are connected end to end. A deforming

force F is applied to this composite wire which causes a total elongation of 1 cm. The two

wires will have (a) the same stress and strain (b) the same stress but different strain (c) the

same strain but different stress (d) different strains and stress

26. The linear portion of a stress-strain curve obeys Hooke’s law. The upper limit of this linear

curve represents (a) yield point (b) permanent set (c) fracture point (d) proportional limit

27. Over bridges are constructed with steel but not with aluminium because steel is (a) more

elastic than aluminium (b) less elastic than aluminium (c) more plastic than aluminium (d)

less plastic than aluminium

28. Assertion: For rubber, strain is more as compared to steel.

Reason: Rubber is less elastic than steel.

29. Assertion: When a solid sphere is placed in the fluid under high pressure, then it is

compressed uniformly on all sides.

Reason :The force applied by fluids acts in perpendicular direction at each point of

surface.

30. Assertion: Elongation produced in a body is directly proportional to the applied force.

Reason :Within the elastic limit, stress is inversely proportional to the strain.

31. Assertion: Young’s modulus for a perfectly plastic body is zero. Reason: For a perfectly

plastic body, restoring force is zero.

32. Assertion: Gases have large compressibility. Reason: Compressibility is defined as the

fractional change in volume per unit decrease in pressure.

33. Assertion: Ropes are always made of a number of thin wires braided together. Reason: It

helps to ease in manufacturing, flexibility and strength.

34. Assertion: Maximum height of a mountain on earth is ~ 10 km. Reason: A mountain base is
not under uniform compression and provides some shearing stress to rock under which it can flow.

35. Assertion: Spring balance shows incorrect readings after using it for a long time. Reason

:Spring in the spring balance loses its elastic strength over the period of time

MECHANICAL PROPERTIES OF FLUIDS:

1. Which of the following is a unit of pressure? (a) atm (b) pascal (c) bar (d) All of these

2. Hydraulic lifts and hydraulic brakes are based on (a) Archimedes' principle (b) Bernoulli's

principle (c) Stoke's law (d) Pascal's law

3. Which liquid is used in an open-tube manometer for measuring small pressure differences?

(a) Oil (b) Mercury (c) Water (d) None of these

4. Smaller the area on which the force acts, greater is the impact. This concept is known as (a)

impulse (b) pressure (c) surface tension (d) magnus effect

5. For flow of a fluid to be turbulent (a) fluid should have high density (b) velocity should be

large (c) reynold number should be less than 2000 (d) both (a) and (b)

6. In a stream line (laminar flow) the velocity of flow at any point in the liquid (a) does not vary

with time (b) may vary in direction but not in magnitude (c) may vary in magnitude but not in

direction (d) may vary both in magnitude and direction

7. A liquid is allowed to flow into a tube of truncated cone shape. Identify the correct

statement from the following: (a) the speed is high at the wider end and high at the narrow

end. (b) the speed is low at the wider end and high at the narrow end. (c) the speed is same

at both ends in a stream line flow. 98 (d) the liquid flows with uniform velocity in the tube

8. Toricelli’s theorem is used to find (a) the velocity of efflux through an orifice. (b) the velocity

of flow of liquid through a pipe. (c) terminal velocity (d) critical velocity

23. Liquid pressure depends upon (a) area of the liquid surface (b) shape of the liquid surface

(c) height of the liquid column (d) directions

24. Pressure in a fluid at rest is same at all points which are at the same height. This is known

as (a) Archemedes'. Principle (b) Bernoulli's principle (c) Stoke's law (d) Pascal's
law

25. The excess pressure at depth below the surface of a liquid open to the atmosphere is
called (a) atmospheric pressure (b) hydrostatic paradox(c) gauge pressure (d) None of

these

26. Pressure applied to enclosed fluid is (a) increased and applied to every part of the fluid (b)

diminished and transmitted to wall of container (c) increased in proportion to the mass of

the fluid and then transmitted (d) transmitted unchanged to every portion of the fluid and

wall of containing vessel.

27. The pressure at the bottom of a tank containing a liquid does not depend on (a)

acceleration due to gravity (b) height of the liquid column (c) area of the bottom surface

(d) nature of the liquid

28. Beyond the critical speed, the flow of fluids becomes (a) streamline (b) turbulent (c) steady

(d) very slow

29. In Bernoulli’s theorem which of the following is conserved? (a) Mass (b) Linear momentum

(c) Energy (d) Angular momentum

30. Paint-spray gun is based on (a) Bernoulli’s theorem (b) Archimedes’ principle (c) Boyle’s

law (d) Pascal’s law

31. Surface tension of a liquid is due to (a) gravitational force between molecules (b) electrical

force between molecules (c) adhesive force between molecules (d) cohesive force

between molecules

32. After terminal velocity is reached, the acceleration of a body falling through a fluid is (a)

equal to g (b) zero (c) less than g (d) greater than g

33. For which of the following liquids, the liquid meniscus in the capillary tube is, convex? (a)

Water (b) Mercury (c) Both (a) & (b) (d) None of these

34. Assertion : Pascal's law is the working principle of a hydraulic lift. Reason : Pressure is

equal to the thrust per unit area.

35. Assertion: The pressure of water reduces when it flows from a narrow pipe to a wider pipe.

Reason: Since for wider pipe area is large, so flow of speed is small and pressure also reduces
proportionately

Assertion : As wind flows right to left and a ball is spinned as shown, there will be a lift of the ball.
Reason : Decreased velocity of air below the ball increases the pressure more than that above the ball.
37. Assertion : The velocity of flow of a liquid is smaller when pressure is larger and vice-versa.

Reason : According to Bernoulli’s theorem, for the stream line flow of an ideal liquid, the

total energy per unit mass remains constant

38. Assertion : The blood pressure in humans is greater at the feet than at the brain Reason :

Pressure of liquid at any point is proportional to height, density of liquid and acceleration

due to gravity

39. Assertion : Hydrostatic pressure is a vector quantity. Reason : Pressure is force divided by

area, and force is vector quantity.

THERMAL PROPERTIES OF MATTER:

1. In the case of a hot cup of tea, heat transfer takes place

(a) From surrounding to cup till equilibrium establishes

(b) From cup to surrounding till equilibrium establishes

(c) In both ways (d) No heat transfer takes place

2. Co-efficient of volume expansion of ...........is independent of temperature

(a) Gas (b) Solid (c) Liquid (d) None of the above

3. The SI unit of specific heat capacity is ....

(a) J kg-1K-1 (b) J kg-1K-2 (c) J kg-2K -1 (d) J-1 kgK-1

4. During phase change,

(a) The heat energy supplied is used to rise the temperature only

(b) The heat energy supplied is used to rise the temperature and phase change

(c) The heat energy supplied is used for changing the state only

(d) None of the above statement is correct

5. The SI unit of latent heat is

(a) J kg-1K -2 (b) J kg-1 (c) J kg (d) J kg-2K -1

6. Which of the following substances is a sublime?

(a) Water (b) Oil (c) Dry ice (d) Gold

7. The heat transfer from one end to other end of a metallic rod is due to the

(a) Radiation (b) Convection

(c) Both radiation and convection (d) Conduction

8. Regelation refers to

(a) Refreezing on withdrawal of pressure

(b) Melting of ice by the application of pressure

(c) Boiling of water (d) Change of state from Solid to vapour

9. In order to obtain absolute zero ,

(a) Volume of a gas kept constant and temperature is measured in terms of pressure

(b) Pressure of a gas kept constant and temperature is measured in terms of volume

(c) Temperature of a gas kept constant and volume is measured in terms of pressure

(d) None of the above

10. Which one of the following is a reliable standard fixed point?

(a) Boiling point of water (b) Melting point of ice

(c) Tripple point of water (d) None of the above

11. Which material is commonly used for thermal insulation in buildings?

a) Copper b) Styrofoam

c) Aluminum d) Glass

12. Why do we use ice in coolers?

a) It lowers the temperature rapidly by absorbing heat

b) It evaporates, cooling the air

c) It is readily available

d) It increases the pressure in the cooler

13. The heat transfer from one end to other end of a metallic rod is due to the

(a) Radiation (b) Convection (c) Both radiation and convection (d) Conduction

14. The mode of heat transfer in convection is .... (a) Without the actual motion of matter (b) By the
actual motion of matter

(c) Without a material medium (d) None of the above

15. By Wein’s displacement law,

(a) λm T2 = constant (b) λm T3 = constant

(c) λm T = constant (d) λm T4 = constant

16. The change from solid state to vapour state without passing through the liquid

state is called as

(a)Vaporisation (b) Melting (c) Boiling (d) Sublimation

23. The temperature of an object measured with Fahrenheit scale as 500 F. What

will be the temperature if Celsius scale is used?

(a) 300C (b) 200C (c) 100C (d) 250C

24. The absolute zero is

a) 273.15 0C (b) -273.15 0C (c) 100 0C (d) 180.15 0C

25. For an ideal gas, co-efficient of volume expansion is

(a) 1/T (b) 1/3T (c) 1/2T (d) 1/5T

26. If 250 g of ice at 0°C is converted to water at 0°C, how much heat is absorbed?

(Latent heat of fusion = 334,000 J/kg)

a) 83,500 J

b) 334 J

c) 334,000 J

d) 100,000 J

27. If a 1 kg mass of a substance absorbs 4200 J of heat and its temperature rises

from 20°C to 30°C, what is its specific heat capacity?

a) 420 J/kg°C

b) 4200 J/kg°C

c) 42 J/kg°C

d) 100 J/kg°C

32 In order to obtain absolute zero,

(a) Volume of a gas kept constant and temperature is measured in terms of pressure

(b) Pressure of a gas kept constant and temperature is measured in terms of volume

(c) Temperature of a gas kept constant and volume is measured in terms of pressure

(d) None of the above

33 Coefficient of volume expansion is ....

(a) Equal to the coefficient of linear expansion

(b) 2 times the coefficient of linear expansion

(c) Smaller than coefficient of linear expansion

(d) 3 times the coefficient of linear expansion

35 The specific heat capacities (J kg-1K -1

) of water and edible oil are given as 4186 and 1965

respectively. Chose the correct answer from the options given below.

(a) Edible oil can be used as a better coolant in automobile radiators

(b) Water can be used as a better coolant in automobile radiators

(c) Both Water and edible oil give same performance as coolants (d) None of the above

36 The Pyrex glass is suitable for making thermometers than ordinary glass, because .......

N.S.N. MEMORIAL SENIOR SECONDARY SCHOOL

ThirumuruganSalai, Thirumurugan Nagar, Chitlapakkam, Chennai – 600064

(a) It has greater coefficient of volume expansion

(b) It has smaller Coefficient of volume expansion

(c) Not easy to break (d) Cheaply available in market

37 Water has the maximum density at

(a) 4 0C (b) 1000C (c) 0 0C (d) 100C

38 If the temperature of a blackbody is increased to 2T from T. Then the wave length of thermal

radiation with maximum energy will be ...

(a) λm (b) 2 λm (c) λm/4 (d) λm/2

39 Assertion : Land heats up faster than sea

Reason : Specific heat of land is greater than water.

40 Assertion : A wire placed on an ice slab with two blocks at the end pass through ice slab

Reason : Melting point increases with pressure

41 Assertion : Co efficient of volume expansion of liquids dependent on temperature

Reason : Co efficient of volume expansion of liquids independent on temperature

42 Assertion : Food gets cooked well in a pressure cooker

Reason : Boiling point of water increases with pressure

43 Assertion : A brass disc is just fitted in a hole in a steel plate. The system must be cooled to

loosen the disc from the hole.

Reason : The coefficient of linear expansion for brass is greater than the coefficient of linear

expansion for steel.

44 Assertion : The temperature at which Centigrade and Fahrenheit thermometers read the

same is – 40

Reason : There is no relation between Fahrenheit and Centigrade temperature.

45 Assertion : There is no relation between Fahrenheit and Centigrade temperature.

Reason : Coefficient of superficial expansion is twice that of linear expansion where as

coefficient of volume expansion is three time of linear expansion.

THERMODYNAMICS:

1. Which of the following is incorrect regarding the first law of

thermodynamics?

State A – it is not applicable to any cyclic process

State B – it is a restatement of principle of conservation of energy

State C – it introduces the concept of internal energy

State D- it introduces the concept of internal entropy

(a) A and D (b) B and C (c) C and A (d) A and B

2. Which of the following parameters does not characterize the

thermodynamic state of matter.

(a) Temperature (b) Pressure (c) Volume (d) work

3. By the Zeroth law of Thermodynamics, the thermodynamic variable

whose value is equal for two systems in thermal equilibrium is

...............

(a) Mass (b) Pressure (c) Volume (d) Temperature

4. In an isobaric process...............

(a) Volume is constant

(b) Pressure is constant

(c) Temperature is constant

(d) No heat flow

5. Which of the following variables is a thermodynamic state variable?

(a) Work (b) heat (c) Internal energy (d) None of these

6. Tell which of the following phenomenon are reversible?

(a) Water fall.

(b) Charging of a battery.

(c) Rusting of iron by chemical change.

(d) Production of heat by rubbing of hands.

28. If a system goes from initial to final state without changing internal

energy, then the heat supplied to system.............

(a) Is fully utilized for doing work.

(b) Is partially utilized for doing work by the system.

(c) Is partially utilized for doing work on the system.

(d) Not used for doing work

29. Which of the following is NOT true about isothermal expansion of an ideal gas

(a) There is no change in internal energy

(b) Heat supplied to the gas equals work done

(c) The ideal gas equation for the process is = constant

(d) The ideal gas equation for the process is PV = constant

30. When steam is converted into water, internal energy of the system

(a)increases (b) decreases (c) remains constant (d) becomes zero

31. Tell which of the following phenomenon are reversible?

(a) Water fall.

(b) Charging of a battery.

(c) Rusting of iron by chemical change.

(d) Production of heat by rubbing of hands.

32. Assertion: In isothermal process whole of the heat energy supplied to the body

is converted into internal energy.

Reason: According to the first law of thermodynamics ΔQ = ΔU.

33. Assertion: The specific heat of a gas is an adiabatic process is zero and in an

isothermal process is infinite.

Reason: Specific heat of a gas in directly proportional to change of heat

insystem and inversely proportional to change in temperature.

34. Assertion: First law of thermodynamics does not forbid flow of heat from lower

temperature to higher temperature.

Reason: Heat supplied to a system always equal to the increase in its internal energy.

35. Assertion: In an adiabatic process, change in internal energy of a gas is

equal to work done on/by the gas in the process.

Reason: This is because temperature of gas remains constant in an

adiabatic process.

Assertion: In the case of refrigerator, some external work is done on it.

Reason: The working substance extract heat from cold reservoir

37. Assertion: In a cyclic process, there is no change in internal energy

Reason: Internal energy is a state variable and the entire heat converted

into work

38. Assertion: Irreversibility arises due to the dissipative forces

Reason : Spontaneous processes are reversible

39. Assertion: A quasi-static process deals with process in equilibrium

Reason : It is not a good approximation for non-equilibrium process

40. Assertion: Zeroth law defines the temperature

Reason : Temperature is a state variable

41. Assertion: Air quickly leaking out of a balloon becomes cool

Reason: The leaking air undergoes adiabatic expansion.