#QID# 11298

(1.) The DNA molecule to which the gene of interest is integrated for cloning is called
(a.) template (b.) carrier
(c.) transformer (d.) vector. (2015)
d
(d) : Vector is a DNA molecule that carries a foreign DNA segment and replicates
inside a host cell. The vector DNA and foreign DNA carrying gene of interest are cut
by the same restriction endonuclease enzyme to produce complementary sticky ends.
With the help of DNA ligase enzyme, the complementary sticky ends of the two DNAs
are joined to produce a recombinant DNA (rDNA), which is then introduced into the
host cell.

#QID# 11299

(2.) The cutting of DNA at specific locations became possible with the discovery of
(a.) selectable markers
(b.) ligases
(c.) restriction enzymes
(d.) probes. (2015)
c
(c) : Restriction enzymes recognise specific base sequences in a DNA molecule and cut
its strands, e.g., EcoRI cuts DNA strands in the base sequence GAATTC.

#QID# 11300

(3.) Which one of the following is a case of wrong matching?

(a.) Somatic hybridization – Fusion of two diverse cells
(b.) Vector DNA – Site for tRNA synthesis
(c.) Micropropagation – In vitro production of plants in large numbers
(d.) Callus – Unorganised mass of cells produced in tissue culture (2012)
b
(b) : Vectors are DNA molecules that can carry a foreign DNA segment and replicate
inside the host cell. They are used in recombinant DNA technology.

#QID# 11301

(4.) Which one of the following techniques made it possible to genetically engineer living
organisms?
(a.) Recombinant DNA techniques
(b.) X-ray diffraction
(c.) Heavier isotope labelling
(d.) Hybridization (Mains 2011)
a
(a)

#QID# 11302

(5.) Which of the following are used in gene cloning?

(a.) Nucleoids
(b.) Lomasomes
 (c.) Mesosomes
(d.) Plasmids (2010)
d
(d) : Plasmid is a small circular double stranded DNA molecule present in the
cytoplasm of the bacterial cell. It can replicate independently of bacterial chromosome.
Due to this characteristic of plasmid, it is used as the vector (vectors are for the
transferring of a piece of DNA to target gene) in gene cloning.

#QID# 11303

(6.) Manipulation of DNA in genetic engineering became possible due to the discovery of
(a.) restriction endonuclease
(b.) DNA ligase
(c.) transcriptase
(d.) primase. (2002)
a
(a) : DNA restriction endonuclease are important, which cut double-stranded DNA
molecules only at sites characterized by a specific nucleotide sequence. Restriction
enzymes are isolated from bacterial cells and are tools for molecular biologists.

#QID# 11304

(7.) The bacteria generally used for genetic engineering is

(a.) Agrobacterium
(b.) Bacillus
(c.) Pseudomonas
(d.) Clostridium. (2000)
a
(a)

#QID# 11305

(8.) Which of the following is related to genetic engineering?

(a.) Heterosis (b.) Mutation
(c.) Plastid (d.) Plasmid (1999)
d
(d)

#QID# 11306

(9.) Genetic engineering is possible, because

(a.) we can cut DNA at specific sites by endonucleases like DNase I
(b.) restriction endonucleases purified from bacteria can be used in vitro
(c.) the phenomenon of transduction in bacteria is well understood
(d.) we can see DNA by electron microscope. (1998)
b
(b)

#QID# 11307

(10.) When scientists make an animal superior by view of genotype, introducing some
foreign genes in it, is called
 (a.) immunization
(b.) genetic engineering
(c.) tissue culture
(d.) biotechnology. (1996)
b
(b) : Genetic engineering is an experimental manipulation of genetic material,
especially for industrial or medical uses. It encompasses the techniques of gene
cloning, the DNA modification by changes in sequence arrangement or deletion, and
the introduction of novel genes into cells and organisms. It may prove possible to
advantageously modify the genes of farmed animals, to correct genetic deficiencies of
the human by inserting novel genes. This can be done by breakage of a DNA molecule
at two desired places into another DNA molecule of the desired animal.

#QID# 11308

(11.) Which of the following organelles is related with genetic engineering?

(a.) Mitochondria
(b.) Plasmids
(c.) Golgi bodies
(d.) Lysosomes (1994)
11.2 Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology
b
(b) : Plasmids are extrachromosomal genetic element found in many bacteria and in a
few eukaryotic cells. Plasmids are closed circles of double-stranded DNA ranging in
size from 1 to 200 kilobases. They frequently carry genes conferring antibiotic
resistance. Plasmids are becoming important tools for genetic engineering since they
have the ability to replicate and migrate to daughter cells. Plasmids are widely used as
carriers of cloned genes, for example the E. coli plasmid pBR322. When plasmids are
used as cloning vectors and carry a novel DNA sequence they are referred to as
chimeric plasmids.

#QID# 11309

(12.) Identify the wrong statement with regard to restriction enzymes.

(a.) Each restriction enzyme functions by inspecting the length of a DNA sequence.
(b.) They cut the strand of DNA at palindromic sites.
(c.) They are useful in genetic engineering.
(d.) Sticky ends can be joined by using DNA ligases. (NEET 2020)
d
(d)

#QID# 11310

(13.) Choose the correct pair from the following.

(a.) Ligases - Join the two DNA molecules
(b.) Polymerases - Break the DNA into fragments
(c.) Nucleases - Separate the two strands of DNA
(d.) Exonucleases - Make cuts at specific positions within DNA (NEET 2020)
a
(a)
 #QID# 11311

(14.) The specific palindromic sequence which is recognised by EcoRI is

5 − GAATTC − 3
(a.)
3 − CTTAAG − 5
5 − GGAACC − 3
(b.)
3 − CCTTGG − 5
5 − CTTAAG − 3
(c.)
3 − GAATTC − 5
5 − GGATCC − 3
(d.)
3 − CCTAGG − 5
. (NEET 2020)
a
(a) : The palindromes in DNA are base pair sequences that are same when read forward
(left to right) or backward (right to left) from a central axis of symmetry. Thus,
GAATTC CTTAAG is a palindromic sequence which is recognised by ECoRI.

#QID# 11312

(15.) The sequence that controls the copy number of the linked DNA in the vector, is
termed
(a.) selectable marker
(b.) Ori site
(c.) palindromic sequence
(d.) recognition site. (NEET 2020)
b
(b) : Ori site is a sequence from where replication starts and any piece of DNA when
linked to this sequence can be made to replicate within the host cells. This sequence is
also responsible for controlling the copy number of the linked DNA in the vector. So,
if one wants to recover many copies of the target DNA it should be cloned in a vector
whose origin support high copy number.

#QID# 11313

(16.) In gel electrophoresis, separated DNA fragments can be visualized with the help of
(a.) acetocarmine in bright blue light
(b.) ethidium bromide in UV radiation
(c.) acetocarmine in UV radiation
(d.) ethidium bromide in infrared radiation. (NEET 2020)
b
(b) : In gel electrophoresis , separated DNA fragments can be visualised only after
staining the DNA with a compound i.e., ethidium bromide and followed by exposure to
UV radiation as bright orange coloured bands.

#QID# 11314

(17.) Following statements describe the characteristics of the enzyme restriction

endonuclease. Identify the incorrect statement.
(a.) The enzyme recognises a specific palindromic nucleotide sequence in the DNA.
(b.) The enzyme cuts DNA molecule at identified position within the DNA.
 (c.) The enzyme binds DNA at specific sites and cuts only one of the two strands.
(d.) The enzyme cuts the sugar-phosphate backbone at specific sites on each strand.
(NEET 2019)
c
(c) : The restriction endonuclease enzyme inspects the length of a DNA sequence.
Once it recognises specific sequence, it binds to the DNA and cuts each of the two
strands of the double helix at specific points in their sugar phosphate backbone. Special
sequence in the DNA recognised by restriction endonuclease is called palindromic
nucleotide sequence.

#QID# 11315

(18.) A selectable marker is used to

(a.) help in eliminating the non-transformants, so that the transformants can be
regenerated
(b.) identify the gene for a desired trait in an alien organism
(c.) select a suitable vector for transformation in a specific crop
(d.) mark a gene on a chromosome for isolation using restriction enzyme. (Odisha
NEET 2019)
a
(a)

#QID# 11316

(19.) Given below are four statements pertaining to separation of DNA fragments using gel
electrophoresis. Identify the incorrect statements.
i DNA is negatively charged molecule and so it is loaded on gel towards the
anode terminal.
ii DNA fragments travel along the surface of the gel whose concentration does
not affect movement of DNA.
iii Smaller the size of DNA fragment larger is the distance it travels through it.
iv Pure DNA can be visualized directly by exposing UV radiation.
Choose correct answer from the options given below.
(a.) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(b.) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(c.) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(d.) (i), (ii) and (iv) (Odisha NEET 2019)
d
(d) : DNA is a negatively charged molecule, so they can be separated by forcing them
to move towards the anode under an electric field. DNA fragments separate according
to size through the pores of agarose gel. The separated DNA fragments can be
visualised only after staining the DNA with a compound known as ethidium bromide
then followed by exposure to UV radiation.

#QID# 11317

(20.) Which of the following is commonly used as a vector for introducing a DNA
fragment in human lymphocytes?
(a.) Retrovirus
(b.) Ti plasmid
(c.) λ phage
 (d.) pBR322 (NEET 2018)
a
(a) : Retroviruses cause cancer in animals including humans. So modified retroviruses
are used to transfer desirable genes into animal cells. It is used in gene therapy, in
which lymphocytes from blood of patient are taken and grown in culture medium
outside the body, a functional gene is introduced by using a retroviral vector into these
lymphocytes which are again reintroduced into the patient body.

#QID# 11318

(21.) The DNA fragments separated on an agarose gel can be visualised after staining with
(a.) acetocarmine
(b.) aniline blue
(c.) ethidium bromide
(d.) bromophenol blue. (NEET 2017)
c
(c) : The separated DNA fragments can be seen only after staining them with a
compound known as ethidium bromide (EtBr) followed by exposure to UV radiation as
bright orange coloured bands.

#QID# 11319

(22.) DNA fragments are

(a.) negatively charged
(b.) neutral
(c.) either positively or negatively charged depending on their size
(d.) positively charged. (NEET 2017)
a
(a)

#QID# 11320

(23.) A gene whose expression helps to identify transformed cell is known as

(a.) vector
(b.) plasmid
(c.) structural gene
(d.) selectable marker. (NEET 2017)
d
(d) : Some genes called “selectable markers” help in selecting those host cells which
contain the vectors (transformants) and eliminating the non-transformants.

#QID# 11321

(24.) What is the criterion for DNA fragments movement on agarose gel during gel
electrophoresis ?
(a.) The smaller the fragment size, the farther it moves.
(b.) Positively charged fragments move to farther end.
(c.) Negatively charged fragments do not move.
(d.) The larger the fragment size, the farther it moves. (NEET 2017)
a
 (a) : Electrophoresis is a technique used for the separation of substances of different
ionic properties. Since the DNA fragments are negatively charged molecules, they can
be separated by allowing them to move towards the anode. DNA fragments move
towards the anode according to their molecule size through the pores of agarose gel.
Thus, the smaller fragments move farther away as compared to larger fragments.

#QID# 11322

(25.) A foreign DNA and plasmid cut by the same restriction endonuclease can be joined to
form a recombinant plasmid using
(a.) EcoRI
(b.) Taq polymerase
(c.) polymerase III
(d.) ligase. (NEET-II 2016)
d
(d) : Ligase is a class of enzymes that catalyse the formation of covalent bonds using
the energy released by the cleavage of ATP. Ligases are important in the synthesis and
repair of many biological molecules, including DNA ligase and used in genetic
engineering to insert foreign DNA into cloning vectors.

#QID# 11323

(26.) Which of the following restriction enzymes produces blunt ends?

(a.) SalI
(b.) EcoRV
(c.) XhoI
(d.) HindIII (NEET-II 2016)
b
(b) : EcoRV is a type II restriction endonuclease isolated from certain strains of E.coli.
It creates blunt ends. It recognises the palindromic sequence of 6 bases. SalI, XhoI and
HindIII restriction enzymes produce sticky ends.

#QID# 11324

(27.) Which of the following is not a feature of the plasmids?

(a.) Transferable
(b.) Single-stranded
(c.) Independent replication
(d.) Circular structure (NEET-I 2016)
b
(b) : Plasmids are extra-chromosomal, selfreplicating, usually circular, double-stranded
DNA molecules that serve as vectors which carry foreign DNA segment and replicate
inside host cell.

#QID# 11325

(28.) Which of the following is a restriction endonuclease?

(a.) DNase I
(b.) RNase
(c.) Hind II
(d.) Protease (NEET-I 2016)
 c
(c) : Hind II is the first restriction endonuclease. It was isolated from
Haemophilusinfluenzae Rd. It always cut DNA at specific position producing blunt
ends. DNase I is an endonuclease that cleaves DNA preferentially at phosphodiester
linkages adjacent to a pyrimidine nucleotide. RNase is a type of nuclease that catalyses
the degradation of RNA into smaller components. It can be endoribonuclease or
exoribonuclease. A protease is an enzyme that perform proteolysis, i.e., protein
catabolism by hydrolysis of the peptide bonds.

#QID# 11326

(29.) The introduction of T-DNA into plants involves

(a.) exposing the plants to cold for a brief period
(b.) allowing the plant roots to stand in water
(c.) infection of the plant by Agrobacterium tumefaciens
(d.) altering the pH of the soil, then heat-shocking the plants. (2015)
c
(c) : Ti plasmid (tumor inducing) from the soil bacterium Agrobacterium tumefaciens
is effectively used as vector for gene transfer to plant cells. The part of Ti plasmid
transferred into plant cell DNA, is called the T-DNA. This T-DNA with desired DNA
spliced into it, is inserted into the chromosomes of the host plant where it produces
copies of itself. Such plant cells are then cultured, induced to multiply and differentiate
to form plantlets. By transferring into soil, the plantlets grow into mature plants,
carrying the foreign gene, expressed throughout the new plant.

#QID# 11327

(30.) Which vector can clone only a small fragment of DNA?

(a.) Bacterial artificial chromosome
(b.) Yeast artificial chromosome
(c.) Plasmid
(d.) Cosmid (2014)
c
(c) : Plasmids have been modified to be used as vectors. They can clone DNA
fragments of about 10 kbp size while cosmid can carry upto 45 kbp, YAC can carry
upto 1000-2500 kbp and BAC can carry around 300 – 350 Kbp long DNA fragments.

#QID# 11328

(31.) Commonly used vectors for human genome sequencing are

(a.) T - DNA
(b.) BAC and YAC
(c.) expression vectors
(d.) T/A cloning vectors. (2014)
b
(b) : Bacterial artificial chromosome (BAC) vectors are based on natural, extra-
chromosomal plasmid of E. coli. BAC vector contains genes for replication and
maintenance of the F-factor, a selectable marker and cloning site. These vectors can
accommodate upto 300-350 kb of foreign DNA and are also being used in genome
sequencing project. Yeast artificial chromosome (YAC) vectors are used to clone DNA
fragments of more than 1Mb in size. Therefore, they have been exploited extensively
 in mapping the large genomes, e.g., in the Human Genome Project. These vectors
contain the telomeric sequence, the centromere and the autonomously replicating
sequence from yeast chromosomes.

#QID# 11329

(32.) The colonies of recombinant bacteria appear white in contrast to blue colonies of non-
recombinant bacteria because of
(a.) insertional inactivation of alpha galactosidase in recombinant bacteria
(b.) inactivation of glycosidase enzyme in recombinant bacteria
(c.) non-recombinant bacteria containing beta galactosidase
(d.) insertional inactivation of alpha galactosidase in non-recombinant bacteria. (NEET
2013)
c
(c) : The presence of restriction sites within the markers tet r and ampr of plasmid
permits an easy selection for cells transformed with recombinant plasmid. Insertion of
the DNA fragment into the plasmid makes antibiotic resistance genes nonfunctional,
for example, insertion of the DNA fragment into the plasmid (pBR322) using Pst I or
Pvu I makes ampr nonfunctional. Bacterial cells containing such a recombinant
pBR322 will be unable to grow in the presence of ampicillin, but will grow on
tetracycline. This process, however, becomes burdensome because it requires
simultaneous plating on two plates having different antibiotics. Thus, alternative
selectable marker is developed to differentiate recombinants and non-recombinants on
the basis of their ability to produce colour in the presence of a chromogenic substance.
Here, a recombinant DNA is inserted in the coding sequence of an enzyme b-
galactosidase. pUC 18 plasmid contains this gene which allows it to produce b-
galactosidase which degrades certain sugars and produces a blue pigment when
exposed to specific substrate analog. If the plasmid in the bacterium does not have an
insert, i.e., is nonrecombinant, the presence of chromogenic substrate gives blue
coloured colonies. Presence of insert in the plasmid in recombinant bacterium does not
produce any colour, such bacterial colonies are marked as recombinant colonies.

#QID# 11330

(33.) DNA fragments generated by the restriction endonucleases in a chemical reaction can
be separated by
(a.) electrophoresis
(b.) restriction mapping
(c.) centrifugation
(d.) polymerase chain reaction. (NEET 2013)
a
(a)

#QID# 11331

(34.) The given figure is the diagrammatic representation of the E. coli vector pBR322.
Which one of the given options correctly identifies its certain component(s)?
 (a.) ori-original restriction enzyme
(b.) rop-reduced osmotic pressure
(c.) HindIII, EcoRI - selectable markers
(d.) ampR, tetR–antibiotic resistance genes (2012)
d
(d) : In pBR322, ori-represents site or origin of replication, rop-codes for proteins that
take part in the replication of plasmid. HindIII, EcoRI- recognition sites of restriction
endonucleases. ampR and tet R - antibiotic resistance genes.

#QID# 11332

(35.) A single strand of nucleic acid tagged with a radioactive molecule is called
(a.) vector
(b.) selectable marker
(c.) plasmid
(d.) probe. (2012)
d
(d) : Probes are single stranded, radiolabelled molecules of nucleic acids with known
sequence. The probes having sequence complementary to the gene to be identified are
supplied. They bind with the particular gene segment. Radiation imaging identifies the
location of that particular segment which bind with probe. Probes are used as
identification tool.

#QID# 11333

(36.) For transformation, micro-particles coated with DNA to be bombarded with gene gun
are made up of
(a.) silver or platinum
(b.) platinum or zinc
(c.) silicon or platinum
(d.) gold or tungsten. (2012)
d
(d) : A gene or a biolistic particle delivery system, originally designed for plant
transformation, is a device for injecting cells with genetic information. The payload is
an elemental particle of a heavy metal such as gold or tungsten coated with plasmid
DNA. The device is used to transform almost any type of cell including plants, and is
not limited to genetic material of the nucleus. It can also transform organelles,
including plastids.

#QID# 11334

(37.) Biolistics (gene-gun) is suitable for

(a.) disarming pathogen vectors
(b.) transformation of plant cells
(c.) constructing recombinant DNA by joining with vectors
(d.) DNA fingerprinting. (Mains 2012)
b
(b) : Biolistics is a technique for introducing genetic material into living cells,
especially plant cells, in which DNA-coated microscopic particles (tungsten or gold
particles) are bombarded with a very high velocity into the target cell using a special
gun. The microprojectiles, typically 1mm in diameter, are accelerated to high velocity
 by a specially modified small calibre gun and penetrate the cell walls and plasma
membrane with minimal damage. Hence, the novel DNA can be inserted into intact
plant cells ultimately transforming it without using a vector.

#QID# 11335

(38.) In genetic engineering, the antibiotics are used

(a.) as selectable markers
(b.) to select healthy vectors
(c.) as sequences from where replication starts
(d.) to keep the cultures free of infection. (Mains 2012)
a
(a) : Selectable markers are those genes which help in selecting those host cells which
contain vectors (i.e., transformants) and eliminating the non-transformants. The genes
encoding resistance to antibiotics such as tetracycline, ampicillin, kanamycin, etc., are
useful selectable markers for E.coli. Plasmid pBR322 has two resistance genes –
ampicillin resistance ( ampr ) and tetracycline resistance ( tet r ) which are considered
useful for selectable markers. The presence of restriction sites within the markers tet r
and ampr permits an easy selection for cells transformed with the recombinant
pBR322. Insertion of the DNA fragment into the plasmid using enzyme Pst I or Pvu I
places the DNA insert within the gene ampr ; this makes ampr nonfunctional. Bacterial
cells containing such a recombinant pBR322 will be unable to grow in the presence of
ampicillin, but will grow on tetracycline. Similarly, when restriction enzyme Bam HI
or SalI is used, the DNA insert is placed within the gene tetr making it nonfunctional.
Bacterial cells possessing such a recombinant pBR322 will, therefore, grow on
ampicillin but not on tetracycline.

#QID# 11336

(39.) Which one of the following represents a palindromic sequence in DNA?

(a.) 5′ - GAATTC - 3′
3′ - CTTAAG - 5′
(b.) 5′ - CCAATG - 3′
3′ - GAATCC - 5′
(c.) 5′ - CATTAG - 3′
3′ - GATAAC - 5′
(d.) 5′ - GATACC - 3′
3′ - CCTAAG - 5′ (Mains 2012)
a
(a) : Palindromes are groups of letters that form the same words when read both
forward and backward, e.g., “MALAYALAM”. As against a word-palindrome where
the same word is read in both directions, the palindrome in DNA is a sequence of base
pairs that reads same on the two strands when orientation of reading is kept the same.
For example, the following sequences read the same on the two strands in 5′ → 3′
direction. This is also true if read in the 3′ → 5′ direction. In this case, it is
5′ — GAATTC — 3′ 3′ — CTTAAG — 5′ .

#QID# 11337
(40.) Given below is a sample of a portion of DNA strand giving the base sequence on the
opposite strands. What is so special shown in it?
5' GAATTC 3'
3' CTTAAG 5'
(a.) Replication completed
(b.) Deletion mutation
(c.) Start codon at the 5′ end
(d.) Palindromic sequence of base pairs (2011)
d
(d)

#QID# 11338

(41.) There is a restriction endonuclease called EcoRI. What does “co” part in it stand for?
(a.) colon (b.) coelom
(c.) coenzyme (d.) coli (2011)
d
(d) : The enzyme restriction endonuclease EcoRI is found in the colon bacteria E. coli.
So, here ‘co’ stands for coli. According to nomenclature of restriction enzyme, the first
letter used for the enzyme is the first letter of the genus name (in italics) of the
bacterium, then comes the first two letters of its species (also in italics), next is the
strain of the organism. At last is a Roman numeral signifying the order of discovery.
Here, the enzyme EcoRI was isolated from the bacterium Escherichia coli (co), strain
RY13(R) and it was first endonuclease (I) isolated from E.coli.

#QID# 11339

(42.) Agarose extracted from sea weeds is used in

(a.) spectrophotometry
(b.) tissue culture
(c.) PCR
(d.) gel electrophoresis. (2011)
d
(d) : In gel electrophoresis, DNA fragments separate (resolve) according to their size
through sieving effect provided by the agarose gel. Agarose is a natural polymer
extracted from sea weeds and is commonly used as a matrix.

#QID# 11340

(43.) Which one of the following palindromic base sequences in DNA can be easily cut at
about the middle by some particular restriction enzyme?
5' CGTTCG 3'
(a.)
3' ATGGTA 5'
5' GATATG 3'
(b.)
3' CTACTA 5'
5' GAATTC 3'
(c.)
3' CTTAAG 5'
5' CACGTA 3'
(d.) (2010)
3' CTCAGT 5'
 c
(c) : Palindromic nucleotide sequences in the DNA molecule are groups of bases that
form the same sequence when read in both forward and backward direction. In the
given question, only option (c) represents a palindromic sequence, that can be easily
cut at about the middle by some particular restriction enzyme.

#QID# 11341

(44.) Which one of the following is used as vector for cloning genes into higher organisms?
(a.) Baculovirus
(b.) Salmonella typhimurium
(c.) Rhizopus nigricans
(d.) Retrovirus (2010)
d
(d) : Retroviruses in animals have the ability to transform normal cells into cancerous
cells. We have transformed these pathogens into useful vectors for delivering genes of
interest to humans. Retroviruses have been disarmed and are now used to deliver
desirable genes into animal cells. So, once a gene or a DNA fragment has been ligated
into a suitable retroviral vector it is transferred into a bacterial, plant or animal host
(where it multiplies).

#QID# 11342

(45.) DNA or RNA segment tagged with a radioactive molecule is called

(a.) vector (b.) probe
(c.) clone (d.) plasmid. (2010)
b
(b) : Refer to answer 35.

#QID# 11343

(46.) Restriction endonucleases are enzymes which

(a.) make cuts at specific positions within the DNA molecule
(b.) recognize a specific nucleotide sequence for binding of DNA ligase
(c.) restrict the action of the enzyme DNA polymerase
(d.) remove nucleotides from the ends of the DNA molecule. (2010)
a
(a) : Restriction endonucleases were found by Arber in 1962 in bacteria. They act as
“molecular scissors” or chemical scalpels. They recognize the specific base sequence
at palindrome sites in DNA duplex and cut its strands. For example, restriction
endonuclease EcoRI found in the colon bacteria E. coli recognizes the base sequence
GAATTC in DNA duplex and cuts its strands between G and A.

#QID# 11344

(47.) In genetic engineering, a DNA segment (gene) of interest, is transferred to the host
cell through a vector. Consider the following four agents (i-iv) in this regard and
select the correct option about which one or more of these can be used as a
vector/vectors. (i) Bacterium (ii) Plasmid (iii)Plasmodium (iv) Bacteriophage
(a.) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(b.) (i) only
 (c.) (i) and (iii)
(d.) (ii) and (iv) (Mains 2010)
d
(d) : Plasmid and bacteriophage are used as vectors in genetic engineering. Plasmid is
an autonomously replicating circular extra-chromosomal DNA found in bacteria. They
can be transferred from cell to cell in a bacterial colony. This characteristic is being
used in biotechnology for transferring desirable gene into target gene of the host.
Bacteriophage is a bacterial virus which can infect it, quickly multiply within and
destroy (lyse) their host (virus) cells. During infection bacteriophages inject their DNA
into these cells. The injected DNA selectively replicate and are expressed in the host
that results in a multiplication of phages that ultimately burst out of the cell (by lysis).
This ability of transferring DNA from the phage genome to specific host during
infection process gave scientists the idea that specially designed phage vectors could
be used for gene cloning.

#QID# 11345

(48.) Polyethylene glycol method is used for

(a.) biodiesel production
(b.) seedless fruit production
(c.) energy production from sewage
(d.) gene transfer without a vector. (2009)
d
(d) : Direct gene transfer is the transfer of naked DNA into plant cells, but the presence
of rigid plant cell wall acts as a barrier to uptake. Therefore, protoplasts are the
favoured target for direct gene transfer. Polyethylene glycol mediated DNA uptake is a
direct gene transfer method that utilizes the interaction between PEG, naked DNA,
salts and the protoplast membrane to effect transport of the DNA into the cytoplasm.

#QID# 11346

(49.) Which one of the following is commonly used in transfer of foreign DNA into crop
plants?
(a.) Meloidogyne incognita
(b.) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
(c.) Penicillium expansum
(d.) Trichoderma harzianum (2009)
b
(b) : Agrobacterium tumefaciens has been extensively used in genetic engineering
experiments. It is the causative agent of crown gall, an important disease of many
commercial crops. This disease has come to be recognized in recent years as being
caused by a DNA plasmid (Ti plasmid) carried by bacterium and transferred to the
plant cells. Following the discovery of the relationship between crown gall and the Ti
plasmid, this plasmid has come to be widely used in plant genetic engineering as a
vector in order to inject a novel gene in host plant to form a transgenic plant.

#QID# 11347

(50.) Gel electrophoresis is used for

(a.) construction of recombinant DNA by joining with cloning vectors
(b.) isolation of DNA molecules
 (c.) cutting of DNA into fragments
(d.) separation of DNA fragments according to their size. (2008)
d
(d) : Electrophoresis is a technique used for the separation of substances of different
ionic properties. Since the DNA fragments are negatively charged molecules, they can
be separated by allowing them to move towards the anode. DNA fragments move
towards the anode according to their molecule size through the pores of agarose gel.
Thus, the smaller fragments move farther away as compared to larger fragments.

#QID# 11348

(51.) The linking of antibiotic resistance gene with the plasmid vector became possible with
(a.) DNA polymerase
(b.) exonucleases
(c.) DNA ligase
(d.) endonucleases. (2008)
c
(c) : The construction of the first recombinant DNA emerged from the possibility of
linking a gene encoding antibiotic resistance with a native plasmid. The cutting of
DNA at specific locations became possible with the discovery of the so called
‘molecular scissors’ – restriction enzymes. The cut piece of DNA was then linked with
the plasmid DNA. This plasmid DNA acts as vector to transfer the piece of DNA
attached to it. The linking of antibiotic resistance gene with the plasmid vector became
possible with the enzyme DNA ligase, which acts on cut DNA molecules and joins
their ends. This makes a new combination of circular autonomously replicating DNA
created in vitro and is known as recombinant DNA.

#QID# 11349

(52.) Restriction endonuclease

(a.) synthesizes DNA
(b.) cuts the DNA molecule randomly
(c.) cuts the DNA molecule at specific sites
(d.) restricts the synthesis of DNA inside the nucleus. (2006)
c
(c)

#QID# 11350

(53.) Two microbes found to be very useful in genetic engineering are

(a.) crown gall bacterium and Caenorhabditis elegans
(b.) Escherichia coli and Agrobacterium tumefaciens
(c.) Vibrio cholerae and a tailed bacteriophage
(d.) Diplococcus sp. and Pseudomonas sp. (2006)
b
(b) : E.coli contains many important standard cloning vectors widely used in gene
cloning experiments like pBR322 contains origin of replication (ori). Other cloning
vectors like PACYC177, pBR324, contain ampicillin resistance gene are also found in
E.coli. Among higher plants, Ti plasmid of Agrobacterium tumefaciens and Ri plasmid
of A. rhizogenes is the best known vector. T-DNA from Ti or Ri plasmid of
 Agrobacterium is considered to be a very potential vector for cloning experiments with
higher plants.

#QID# 11351

(54.) Restriction endonucleases

(a.) are present in mammalian cells for degradation of DNA when the cell dies
(b.) are used in genetic engineering for ligating two DNA molecules
(c.) are used for in vitro DNA synthesis
(d.) are synthesized by bacteria as part of their defense mechanism. (2004)
d
(d) : Restriction endonucleasses are enzymes that digest double stranded DNA
following recognition of specific nucleotide sequences. This is achieved by cleaving
the two phosphodiester bonds, one within each strand of the DNA duplex. They are
found in bacteria and their function in bacteria is to cut up any invading virus as a part
of its defense mechanism, thus restricting the multiplication of viruses in the bacterial
cell. Different species of bacteria produce different restriction endonucleases.

#QID# 11352

(55.) The Ti plasmid, is often used for making transgenic plants. The plasmid is found in
(a.) Azotobacter
(b.) Rhizobium of the roots of leguminous plants
(c.) Agrobacterium
(d.) Yeast as a 2 mm plasmid. (2004)
c
(c) : Refer to answer 29.

#QID# 11353

(56.) The most thoroughly studied of the known bacteriaplant interactions is the
(a.) cyanobacterial symbiosis with some aquatic ferns
(b.) gall formation on certain angiosperms by Agrobacterium
(c.) nodulation of Sesbania stems by nitrogen fixing bacteria
(d.) plant growth stimulation by phosphatesolubilising bacteria. (2004)
b
(b) : Agrobacterium tumefaciens is the causative agent of crown gall, an important
disease of many commercial crops. This disease has come to be recognized in recent
years as being caused by a DNA plasmid (Ti plasmid) carried by bacterium and
transferred to the plant cells.

#QID# 11354

(57.) Which one of the following bacteria has found extensive use in genetic engineering
work in plants?
(a.) Clostridium septicum
(b.) Xanthomonas citri
(c.) Bacillus coagulens
(d.) Agrobacterium tumefaciens (2003)
d
 (d) : Agrobacterium tumefaciens has been extensively used in genetic engineering
experiments. It is the causative agent of crown gall, an important disease of many
commercial crops. This disease has come to be recognized in recent years as being
caused by a DNA plasmid (Ti plasmid) carried by bacterium and transferred to the
plant cells. Following the discovery of the relationship between crown gall and the Ti
plasmid, this plasmid has come to be widely used in plant genetic engineering as a
vector in order to inject a novel gene in host plant to form a transgenic plant.

#QID# 11355

(58.) Which of the following enzymes are used to join bits of DNA?
(a.) Ligase
(b.) Primase
(c.) DNA polymerase
(d.) Endonuclease (2002)
a
(a) : Ligases are used to join bits of DNA. Primase is an RNA polymerase, used to
initiate DNA synthesis. DNA polymerase enzyme catalyses the synthesis of DNA.
Endonuclease, causes the splicing of the intron carrying the coding sequence of the
same endonuclease.

#QID# 11356

(59.) A mutant strain of T4 - Bacteriophage, R-II, fails to lyse the E. coli but when two
strains R-IIX and R-IIY are mixed then they lyse the E. coli. What may be the
possible reason?
(a.) Bacteriophage transforms in wild.
(b.) It is not mutated.
(c.) Both strains have similar cistrons.
(d.) Both strains have different cistrons. (2001)
d
(d) : A mutant strain of T4-bacteriophage, RII, fails to lyse the E.coli but when two
strains R-IIX and R-IIY are mixed then they lyse the E.coli because both strains have
different cistrons.

#QID# 11357

(60.) Which of the following cut the DNA from specific places?
(a.) E.coli restriction endonuclease I
(b.) Ligase
(c.) Exonuclease
(d.) Alkaline phosphate (2001)
a
(a)

#QID# 11358

(61.) Maximum number of bases in plasmids discovered so far

(a.) 50 kilo base
(b.) 500 kilo base
(c.) 5000 kilo base
 (d.) 5 kilo base. (2001)
b
(b) : A plasmid is a DNA molecule separate from the chromosomal DNA and capable
of autonomous replication. In many cases, it is typically circular and double-stranded.
It usually occurs in bacteria and is sometimes found in eukaryotic organisms. The size
of plasmids varies from 1 to over 400 kilobase pairs (kbp). There may be one copy, for
large plasmids, to hundreds of copies of the same plasmid in a single cell.

#QID# 11359

(62.) Plasmid has been used as vector because

(a.) it is circular DNA which have capacity to join to eukaryotic DNA
(b.) it can move between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells
(c.) both ends show replication
(d.) it has antibiotic resistance gene. (2000)
a
(a)

#QID# 11360

(63.) The process of replication in plasmid DNA, other than initiation, is controlled by
(a.) mitochondrial gene
(b.) plasmid gene
(c.) bacterial gene
(d.) none of these. (1999)
c
(c) : The DNA plasmid replicates in a semiconservative manner. The initiation of
replication is controlled by plasmid gene and elongation and termination are controlled
by bacterial genes.

#QID# 11361

(64.) Recombinant DNA is achieved by cleaving the pro-DNAs by

(a.) ligase
(b.) restriction endonuclease
(c.) primase
(d.) exonucleases. (1998)
b
(b) : Recombinant DNA is the product obtained after isolating a specific DNA segment
and then inserting it into another DNA molecule at a desired position. Restriction
endonucleases are the enzymes that digest DNA at specific sites to isolate a specific
DNA segment. Thus they are required for producing recombinant DNA.

#QID# 11362

(65.) Two bacteria found to be very useful in genetic engineering experiments are
(a.) Nitrobacter and Azotobacter
(b.) Rhizobium and Diplococcus
(c.) Nitrosomonas and Klebsiella
(d.) Escherichia and Agrobacterium. (1998)
d
 (d) : Refer to answer 53.

#QID# 11363

(66.) Restriction endonucleases are

(a.) used for in vitro DNA synthesis
(b.) used in genetic engineering
(c.) synthesized by bacteria
(d.) present in mammalian cells for degradation of DNA. (1998)
b
(b)

#QID# 11364

(67.) The restriction enzymes are used in genetic engineering, because

(a.) they can cut DNA at specific base sequence
(b.) they are nucleases that cut DNA at variable sites
(c.) they can degrade harmful proteins
(d.) they can join different DNA fragments. (1995)
11.3 Processes of Recombinant DNA Technology
a
(a) : DNA restriction endonuclease cut doublestranded DNA molecules only at sites
characterized by a specific nucleotide sequence.

#QID# 11365

(68.) Match the organism with its use in biotechnology.

(A) Bacillus thuringiensis (i) Cloning vector

(B) Thermus aquaticus (ii) Construction of first rDNA molecule

(C) Agrobacterium tumefaciens (iii)DNA polymerase

(D) Salmonella typhimurium (iv) Cry proteins

Select the correct option from the following.

(A) (B) (C) (D)
(a.) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(b.) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(c.) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(d.) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (NEET 2020)
b
(b)

#QID# 11366

(69.) DNA precipitation out of a mixture of biomolecules can be achieved by treatment

with
(a.) chilled chloroform
(b.) isopropanol
(c.) chilled ethanol
(d.) methanol at room temperature. (NEET 2019)
c
 (c) : In order to cut the DNA with restriction enzymes, it needs to be in pure form, free
from other macromolecules. Since the DNA is enclosed by the membranes, we have to
break the cell open to release DNA and other macromolecules like RNA, proteins,
polysaccharides and lipids. It is obtained by treating the bacterial cells/plant or animal
tissue with enzymes. Other molecules are removed by appropriate treatments and
purified DNA ultimately precipitates out after the addition of chilled ethanol.

#QID# 11367

(70.) Which one of the following equipments is essentially required for growing microbes
on a large scale, for industrial production of enzymes?
(a.) Bioreactor
(b.) BOD incubator
(c.) Sludge digester
(d.) Industrial oven (NEET 2019)
a
(a)

#QID# 11368

(71.) The correct order of steps in Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) is

(a.) extension, denaturation, annealing
(b.) annealing, extension, denaturation
(c.) denaturation, extension, annealing
(d.) denaturation, annealing, extension. (NEET 2018)
d
(d) : A single PCR amplification cycle involves three basic steps, denaturation heating
of target DNA to high temperature resulting in separation of two strands, annealing
two oligonucleotide primers anneal or hybridise to each single template DNA and
extension. Taq DNA polymerase synthesises DNA between primers and primers
extend towards each other such that DNA stranded segment lying between the two is
copied.

#QID# 11369

(72.) The process of separation and purification of expressed protein before marketing is
called
(a.) downstream processing
(b.) bioprocessing
(c.) postproduction processing
(d.) upstream processing. (NEET 2017)
a
(a) : After the formation of the product in the bioreactor it undergoes some processes
before a finished product is ready for marketing. The process includes separation and
purification of products which are collectively called downstream processing.

#QID# 11370

(73.) Stirred-tank bioreactors have been designed for

(a.) purification of product
(b.) addition of preservatives to the product
 (c.) availability of oxygen throughout the process
(d.) ensuring anaerobic conditions in the culture vessel. (NEET-II 2016)
c
(c) : A stirred-tank reactor is usually cylindrical or with a curved base to facilitate the
mixing of the reactor contents. The stirrer facilitates, even mixing and oxygen
availability throughout the bioreactor.

#QID# 11371

(74.) Which of the following is not a component of downstream processing?

(a.) Separation
(b.) Purification
(c.) Preservation
(d.) Expression (NEET-II 2016)
d
(d) : After the formation of the product in bioreactor, it undergoes some processes
before a finished product to be ready for marketing. Downstream processing includes
separation and purification process. The product obtained is subjected to quality
control, testing and kept in suitable preservatives.

#QID# 11372

(75.) The Taq polymerase enzyme is obtained from

(a.) Bacillus subtilis
(b.) Pseudomonas putida
(c.) Thermus aquaticus
(d.) Thiobacillus ferroxidans. (NEET-I 2016)
c
(c) : Taq polymerase, generally used in PCR is isolated from thermophilic bacterium
Thermus aquaticus.

#QID# 11373

(76.) An analysis of chromosomal DNA using the Southern hybridization technique does
not use
(a.) electrophoresis
(b.) blotting
(c.) autoradiography
(d.) PCR. (2014)
d
(d) : PCR is used only for amplification of DNA. It is not directly involved in Southern
hybridisation technique.

#QID# 11374

(77.) In vitro clonal propagation in plants is characterized by

(a.) PCR and RAPD
(b.) Northern blotting
(c.) electrophoresis and HPLC
(d.) microscopy. (2014)
a
 (a) : Clonal propagation can be characterized by PCR and RAPD. The polymerase
chain reaction (PCR) technique, generates microgram (µg) quantities of DNA copies
(upto billion copies) of the desired DNA (or RNA) segment, present even as a single
copy in the initial preparation, in a matter of few hours. RAPD stands for Random
Amplification of Polymorphic DNA. It is a type of PCR, but the segments of DNA that
are amplified are random. No knowledge of the DNA sequence for the targeted gene is
required, as the primers will bind somewhere in the sequence, but it is not certain
exactly where. Its resolving power is much lower than targeted, species specific DNA
comparison methods, such as short tandem repeats.

#QID# 11375

(78.) Which of the following is not correctly matched for the organism and its cell wall
degrading enzyme?
(a.) Algae – Methylase
(b.) Fungi – Chitinase
(c.) Bacteria – Lysozyme
(d.) Plant cells – Cellulase (NEET 2013)
a
(a) : Cell wall of algae is made up of cellulose, pectin and mucilage. These substances
cannot be degraded by methylase. Methylase is a type of transferase enzyme that
transfers a methyl group from a donor to an acceptor.

#QID# 11376

(79.) During the process of isolation of DNA, chilled ethanol is added to

(a.) precipitate DNA
(b.) break open the cell to release DNA
(c.) facilitate action of restriction enzymes
(d.) remove proteins such as histones. (Karnataka NEET 2013)
a
(a) : Ethanol is much less polar than water. Adding it to the solution disrupts the
screening charges exerted by water. The electrical attraction between phosphate and
any positive ions ( Na + ) present in solution becomes strong enough to form a stable
ionic bond and DNA precipitates. Ethanol precipitation is a widely used technique to
purify, or concentrate nucleic acid.

#QID# 11377

(80.) PCR and restriction fragment length polymorphism are the methods for
(a.) study of enzymes
(b.) genetic transformation
(c.) DNA sequencing
(d.) genetic fingerprinting. (2012)
d
(d)

#QID# 11378

(81.) Which one is a true statement regarding DNA polymerase used in PCR?
(a.) It is used to ligate introduced DNA in recipient cells.
 (b.) It serves as a selectable marker.
(c.) It is isolated from a virus.
(d.) It remains active at high temperature. (2012)
d
(d) : In PCR, Taq polymerase is used which is obtained from Thermus aquaticus
bacteria. It is a relatively thermostable enzyme thus used in PCR as during the process
the step involving denaturation of DNA strands requires high temperature.

#QID# 11379

(82.) The figure below shows three steps (A, B, C) of Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR).
Select the option giving correct identification together with what it represents?

(a.) B - denaturation at a temperature of about 98°C separating the two DNA strands
(b.) A - denaturation at a temperature of about 50°C
(c.) C - extension in the presence of heat stable DNA polymerase
(d.) A - annealing with two sets of primers (Mains 2012)
c
(c)

#QID# 11380

(83.) Stirred-tank bioreactors have been designed for

(a.) addition of preservatives to the product
(b.) purification of the product
(c.) ensuring anaerobic conditions in the culture vessel
(d.) availability of oxygen throughout the process. (2010)
d
(d) : Refer to answer 73.

#QID# 20053

(84.) The techniques of using live organisms or enzymes from organisms to produce
products and processes useful to humans, come under [Page: 193]
(a.) Biochemistry (b.) Biotechnology
(c.) Biophysics (d.) Microbiology
b
(b) Biotechnology deals with techniques of using live organisms or enzymes from
organisms to produce products and processes useful for humans.

#QID# 20054

(85.) Which of the following method is not a part of traditional biotechnology processes?
[Page: 193]
(a.) Curd making
 (b.) Fermentation of bread
(c.) Wine production
(d.) PCR
d
(d) Traditional biotechnology includes curd, bread or wine making, which are all
microbes-mediated processes done by humans. PCR is a modern biotechnology
process.

#QID# 20055

(86.) The techniques which come under modern biotechnology are [Page: 193]
(a.) In vitro fertilization
(b.) Correcting a defective gene
(c.) Synthesizing a gene
(d.) All of these
d
(d) The techniques like in vitro fertilization leading to production of a test tube baby,
synthesizing a gene and using it, developing a DNA vaccine or correcting a defective
gene, all are part of modern biotechnology.

#QID# 20056

(87.) EFB can be expanded as [Page: 193]

(a.) European Firm of Biotechnology
(b.) European Federation of Biotechnology
(c.) East American Federation of Biotechnology
(d.) England Federation of Biology
b
(b) EFB is expanded as European Federation of Biotechnology. It was established in
1978. It is Europe’s non-profit federation of National Biotechnology Associations,
learned societies, Universities, Scientific institutes, Biotech companies and individual
biotechnologists working to promote biotechnology throughout Europe and beyond.

#QID# 20057

(88.) The definition of biotechnology given by EFB encompasses [Page: 193]

(a.) traditional view
(b.) modern molecular biotechnology
(c.) natural science
(d.) all of these
d
(d) The definition given by EFB for biotechnology is the integration of natural science
and organisms, cells, parts thereof and molecular analogues for products and services.

#QID# 20058

(89.) Genetic engineering is [Page: 193]

(a.) study of extra nuclear gene
(b.) addition or removal of genes
(c.) reconstruction surgery
(d.) none of these
 b
(b) Techniques to alter the chemistry of genetic material (DNA and RNA) in order to
introduce these into host organisms and thus change the phenotype of the host
organism is called genetic engineering.

#QID# 20059

(90.) Genetic engineering is related with [Page: 193]

(a.) eugenics (b.) euphenics
(c.) euthenics (d.) all of these
b
(b) Genetic engineering is related with euphenics. It is the study of methods of making
biological or phenotypically improved human race. It is also called medical
engineering. Eugenics is the practice of advocacy of controlled selective breeding of
human populations to improve the population genetics. Euthenics is the science of
improving the internal well-being of humans by improving the external factors of their
environment.

#QID# 20060

(91.) Choose the correct pair of techniques that enabled the birth of modern biotechnology.
[Page: 194]
(a.) Biochemical engineering, Genetic engineering
(b.) Genetic engineering, Human genome engineering
(c.) Human genome engineering, Molecular biology
(d.) Biochemical engineering, Molecular biology
a
(a) Modern biotechnology encompasses two core techniques in Genetic engineering
and Biochemical engineering/Sterilization techniques.

#QID# 20061

(92.) The techniques of genetic engineering includes

(I) recombinant DNA
(II) gene cloning
(III) gene transfer
(IV) animal breeding Choose the correct option [Page: 194]
(a.) I and II (b.) II and III
(c.) I, II and III (d.) I, II, III and IV
c
(c) The technique of genetic engineering includes creation of recombinant DNA, use
of gene cloning and gene transfer.

#QID# 20062

(93.) The first recombinant DNA was constructed by [Page: 194]

(a.) Stanley Cohen (b.) Herbert Boyer
(c.) Mendel (d.) Both (a) and (b)
d
(d) The first recombinant DNA was constructed by Stanley Cohen and Herbert Boyer
in 1972.
 #QID# 20063

(94.) The construction of recombinant DNA for the very first time in 1972 was done by
using native plasmid of [Page: 194]
(a.) E. Coli
(b.) Salmonella typhimurium
(c.) Bacillus thuringiensis
(d.) Yeast
b
(b) Stanley Cohen and Herbert Boyer in 1972 used native plasmid of Salmonella
typhimurium.

#QID# 20064

(95.) A foreign DNA and plasmid cut by the same restriction endonuclease can be joined to
form a recombinant plasmid using [NEET–2016, Pages: 194, 195]
(a.) EcoRI
(b.) Taq Polymerase
(c.) Polymerase III
(d.) Ligase
d
(d) DNA ligases (genetic glue) are used in recombinant DNA technology, to join two
individual fragments of double stranded DNA by forming phosphodiester bonds
between them, so as to produce a recombinant DNA (plasmid).

#QID# 20065

(96.) Plasmid vector in recombinant DNA technology means [Pages: 194, 195]
(a.) a virus that transfer gene to bacteria
(b.) extra chromosomal replicating circular DNA
(c.) sticky end of DNA
(d.) any fragment of DNA carrying desirable gene
b
(b) Plasmids are extra chromosomal self-replicating, circular double stranded DNA
molecules. These are engineered to act as vectors for genetic engineering.

#QID# 20066

(97.) Which of the following is not a feature of the plasmids? [NEET–2016, Page: 195]
(a.) Circular structure
(b.) Transferable
(c.) Single-stranded
(d.) Independent replication
c
(c) Plasmids are not single stranded. They are extrachromosomal, double-stranded
circular DNA, found in bacterial cells and some yeast.

#QID# 20067

(98.) An important feature in a plasmid to be used as a vector in genetic engineering is

[NCERT Exemplar, QR code, Page: 194]
 (a.) origin of replication
(b.) presence of a selectable marker
(c.) presence of sites for restriction endonucleases
(d.) its size
c
(c) Presence of site at which restriction enzyme can cut the plasmid so that foreign
DNA can be inserted on to it is an important feature in a plasmid.

#QID# 20068

(99.) The role of DNA ligase in the construction of a recombinant DNA molecule is
[NCERT Exemplar, QR code, Page: 195]
(I) formation of phosphodiester bond between two DNA fragments.
(II) formation of hydrogen bonds between sticky ends of DNA fragments.
(III) ligation of all purine and pyrimidine bases.
(a.) I and II (b.) II and III
(c.) I and III (d.) I only
d
(d) DNA ligases are also called genetic glue. They join two individual fragments of
dsDNA by forming phosphodiester bonds between them. Thus, they help in sealing
gaps in DNA fragments.

#QID# 20069

(100.) Match the columns. [Pages: 194, 195]

Column-I Column-II

(A) Restriction enzymes (1) Extra chromosomal DNA

(B) Cloning (2) Molecular scissors
(C) Plasmid (3) Making multiple identical copies
(D) DNA ligase (4) Sealing enzyme

Codes
A B C D
(a.) 2 3 1 4
(b.) 4 3 2 1
(c.) 1 2 3 4
(d.) 3 1 4 2
a
(a) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4

#QID# 20070

(101.) Given are the three basic steps in genetically modifying an organism: [Page: 195]
(I) Maintenance of introduced DNA in the host and transfer of the DNA to its
progeny.
(II) Identification of DNA with desirable genes.
(III) Introduction of the identified DNA into the host. Choose the correct sequence in
the options below.
(a.) I → II → III (b.) II → III → I
 (c.) II → I → III (d.) III → II → I
c
(c) The three basic steps in genetically modifying an organisms are
(I) Identification of DNA with desirable genes
(II) Introduction of the identified DNA into the host
(III) Maintenance of introduced DNA in the host and transfer of the DNA to its
progeny

#QID# 20071

(102.) Recombinant DNA Technology can be accomplished only if we use

(I) Restriction enzymes
(II) Ligases
(III) Vectors
(IV) Host organism Choose the correct option [Page: 195]
(a.) I and II (b.) II and III
(c.) II and IV (d.) I, II, III and IV
d
(d) The tools to perform genetic engineering or recombinant DNA technology include
restriction enzymes, polymerase enzymes, ligases, vectors and host organism.

#QID# 20072

(103.) Restriction enzymes are used to cut [Page: 195]

(a.) single stranded RNA
(b.) double stranded DNA
(c.) single stranded DNA
(d.) double stranded RNA
b
(b) Restriction enzymes are used to cut double stranded DNA molecules at specific
sites called recognition sites. These sites have specific palindromic base sequences.

#QID# 20073

(104.) Choose the correct statement. [Page: 195]

(a.) The first restriction enzyme to be isolated was Hind III.
(b.) There are about 900 restriction enzymes being isolated till now.
(c.) There only 200 strains of bacteria from which restriction enzymes are isolated.
(d.) EcoRI restriction enzyme comes from Salmonella species.
b
(b) The first restriction enzyme to be isolated is endonuclease is Hind II. Besides Hind
II, today we know more than 900 restriction enzymes that have been isolated from over
230 strains of bacteria each of which recognize different recognition sequences. EcoRI
is a restriction enzyme isolated from Escherichia Coli RY 13.

#QID# 20074

(105.) Match the nomenclature of enzyme EcoRI given in the columns. [Page: 195]
Column-I Column-II

(A) Ist in order of identification (1.) R

 (B) Genus name (2.) E
(C) Species name (3.) co
(D) Name of strain (4.) I

Codes
A B C D
(a.) 2 3 1 4
(b.) 4 3 2 1
(c.) 1 2 3 4
(d.) 3 4 2 1
a
(a) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4

#QID# 20075

(106.) ‘Restriction’ in restriction enzyme refers to

(I) cleaning of phosphodiester bond in DNA by the enzyme.
(II) cutting DNA at specific position only.
(III) preventing the multiplication of bacteriophage in bacteria. [NCERT Exemplar,
QR code, Page: 195]
(a.) II only (b.) II and III
(c.) I and III (d.) I, II and III
a
(a) ‘Restriction’ in restriction enzyme refers to cutting DNA at specific restriction site
only.

#QID# 20076

(107.) Which of the following statement about restriction enzyme is incorrect? [NCERT
Exemplar, QR code, Pages: 195, 196]
(a.) It recognizes a palindromic nucleotide sequence.
(b.) It is in endonuclease.
(c.) It is isolated from viruses.
(d.) It produces the same kind of sticky ends in different DNA molecules.
c
(c) Restriction enzymes are isolated from bacteria not from viruses.

#QID# 20077

(108.) Which of the following enzyme catalyze the removal of nucleotides from the ends of
the DNA? [NCERT Exemplar, QR code, Page: 196]
(a.) Endonuclease (b.) Exonuclease
(c.) DNA ligase (d.) Hind II
b
(b) Restriction exonuclease makes cut at the ends of the DNA to remove nucleotides.

#QID# 20078

(109.) Following statements describe the characteristics of the enzyme restriction

endonuclease. Identify the incorrect statement. [NEET–2019 Odisha, Page: 195]
(a.) The enzyme binds DNA at specific sites and cuts only one of the two strands.
 (b.) The enzyme cuts the sugar-phosphate backbone at specific sites on each strand.
(c.) The enzyme recognizes a specific palindromic nucleotide sequence in the DNA.
(d.) The enzyme cuts DNA molecule at identified position within the DNA.
a
(a) The statement about restriction enzymes that the enzyme binds DNA at specific
sites and cuts only one of the two strands is incorrect. These enzymes cut both the
strands of DNA helix at specific sites in their sugar-phosphate backbone. The
sequences being recognized by restriction enzymes are called palindromic sequences
which have same reading frame in both 5′ – 3′ and 3′ – 5′ directions.

#QID# 20079

(110.) Match the following enzymes with their functions. [NEET–2019, Page: 195]
Column-I Column-II

(A) Restriction endonuclease (1) Joins the DNA fragments

(B) Restriction exonuclease (2) Extends primers on genomic DNA
template
(C) DNA ligase (3) Cuts DNA at specific position
(D) Taq polymerase (4) Removes nucleotides from the ends of
DNA

Select the correct option

A B C D
(a.) 2 1 4 3
(b.) 3 4 1 2
(c.) 4 3 1 2
(d.) 2 4 1 3
b
(b) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2

#QID# 20080

(111.) Which of the following is a restriction endonuclease? [NEET–2016, Page: 196]

(a.) Protease (b.) DNase
(c.) RNase (d.) Hind II
d
(d) Hind II is a restriction endonuclease. Restriction endonucleases are enzymes used
for cutting DNA at specific location within the strands. Hind II was the first restriction
endonuclease isolated by Smith Wilcox and Kelley in 1968 from Haemophilus
influenzae.

#QID# 20081

(112.) Which one of the following restriction enzyme produces blunt ends? [NEET–2016,
Page: 197]
(a.) Sal I (b.) Eco RV
(c.) Xho (d.) Hind III
b
 (b) EcoRV is a type of restriction endonuclease isolated from strains of E. coli. It
creates blunt end.

#QID# 20082

(113.) Consider the following statements. Statement I: Palindromic sequences are important
in recombinant DNA technology. Statement II: Palindromic sequences are that read
same in both directions of two strands. [Page: 196]
(a.) Statement I is true but II is false
(b.) Statement II is true but I is false
(c.) Both Statements I and II are true
(d.) Both Statements I and II are false
c
(c) Palindromic sequences are present in the DNA and restriction endonuclease
recognizes these sequences to make a cut during recombinant DNA technology.
Palindrome in DNA is sequence of base pairs that reads same on the two strands when
orientation of reading is kept the same.

#QID# 20083

(114.) Choose the incorrect match. [Page: 197]

(a.) Restriction enzyme - Proteases
(b.) Transposons - Jumping genes
(c.) Bacteriophage - Cloning vehicle
(d.) Palindrome - MALYALAM
a
(a) Restriction enzymes are Hind III, EcoRI, etc. Proteases is a protein digesting
enzyme.

#QID# 20084

(115.) Source of restriction enzyme are all except [QR code, NCERT Exemplar, Pages:
196, 197]
(a.) Haemophilus influenzae
(b.) Escherichia Coli
(c.) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
(d.) Bacillus amyloli
c
(c) Restriction enzyme is not isolated from Agrobacterium tumefaciens.

#QID# 20085

(116.) Restriction enzyme EcoRI cuts the DNA between bases G and A only when the
sequence in DNA is [Page: 197]
(a.) GATATC (b.) GAATCC
(c.) GATTCC (d.) GAATTC
d
(d) Restriction enzyme EcoRI cuts the DNA between bases G and A (producing sticky
ends) only when the sequence in both the strands of a DNA is GAATTC.

#QID# 20086
(117.) Go through the figure and choose the correct option. [Page: 196]

‘A’ DNA ‘B’ DNA Enzyme recognizing Enzyme joining

(a.) Palindrome the sticky end
Vector Foreign DNA ligase EcoRI
‘A’ DNA ‘B’ DNA Enzyme recognizing Enzyme joining
(b.) Palindrome the sticky end
Foreign Vector DNA ligase Exonuclease
‘A’ DNA ‘B’ DNA Enzyme recognizing Enzyme joining
(c.) Palindrome the sticky end
Vector Foreign Exonuclease DNA ligase
‘A’ DNA ‘B’ DNA Enzyme recognizing Enzyme joining
(d.) Palindrome the sticky end
Vector Foreign EcoRI DNA ligase
d
(d) The correct option is (d) as vector and foreign DNA are joined by DNA ligase and
sticky ends are produced by EcoRI which is an endonuclease enzyme.

#QID# 20087

(118.) Which is not required in the preparation of a recombinant DNA molecule out of the
following? [Page: 197]
(a.) Restriction endonuclease
(b.) E coli
(c.) DNA fragments
(d.) DNA ligase
b
(b) E. coli is not required for preparation of a recombinant DNA molecule rather it
may be required for the expression of recombinant DNA molecule.

#QID# 20088

(119.) Match the columns. [Pages: 196, 197, 198]

Column-I Column-II

(A) EcoRI (1) Bacillus amylolique fariens

(B) Bam HI (2) Haemophilus influenza
(C) Hind III (3) E. coli
(D) pBR 322 (4) Artificial plasmid

Codes
A B C D
(a.) 3 1 2 4
 (b.) 2 1 4 3
(c.) 4 1 3 2
(d.) 2 4 1 3
a
(a) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
EcoRI - E. coli
Bam HI - Bacillus amylolique fariens
Hind III - Haemophilus influenza
pBR 322 - Artificial plasmid

#QID# 20089

(120.) Refer to the diagram given below about recombinant DNA Technology and identify
labels A to D. [Page: 197]

Choose the correct option.

(a.) A – Exonuclease, B – Endonuclease, C – DNA ligase, D – Transformation
(b.) A – Exonuclease, B – Exonuclease, C – DNA ligase, D – Transformation
(c.) A – Exonuclease, B – Endonuclease, C – Hydrolases, D – Transduction
(d.) A – Restriction Endonuclease, B – Restriction Endonuclease, C – DNA ligase, D –
Transformation
d
(d) A – Restriction Endonuclease, B – Restriction Endonuclease, C – DNA ligase, D –
Transformation

#QID# 20090

(121.) Identify the correct match for the given figure: [Page: 198]
 (a.) Electrophoresis – Differential migration of DNA fragments
(b.) Column chromatograph – Separation of chlorophyll pigments
(c.) Gene cloning – Technique of obtaining identical copies of a particular DNA
segment or a gene
(d.) Microinjection – Technique of introducing foreign genes into a host cell.
a
(a) The figure shows a typical agrose gel electrophoresis showing migration of
undigested and digested set of DNA fragments.

#QID# 20091

(122.) Gel electrophoresis is a [Page: 198]

(a.) technique of separation of charged molecules under the influence of magnetic field.
(b.) technique incorporation of DNA molecules into the cell through transient pores
made due to electrical impulses.
(c.) technique of separation of DNA fragments through the pores of agrose gel under
the influence of electric field.
(d.) technique of separation and purification of gene products.
c
(c) Gel electrophoresis is the technique of separation of DNA fragments through the
pores of agrose gel under the influence of electric field.

#QID# 20092

(123.) In agrose gel electrophoresis, DNA molecules are separated on the basis of their
[Page: 198]
(a.) charge only
(b.) size only
(c.) charge to size ratio
(d.) all of these
b
(b) Migration rate of DNA molecules in agrose gel electrophoresis depends on its size.

#QID# 20093

(124.) What is the criterion for DNA fragments movement on agrose gel during gel
electrophoresis? [Page: 198, NEET–2017]
(a.) The larger the fragment size, the farther it moves
(b.) The smaller the fragments size, the farther it moves
(c.) Positively charged fragments move to farther end
(d.) Negatively charged fragments do not move
b
 (b) Gel electrophoresis is used for the separation of molecules according to their size
through sieving effect provided by the agrose gel. Hence, the smaller the fragments
size, the farther it moves.

#QID# 20094

(125.) Elution is a method applied for [Page: 198]

(a.) making the matrix during gel electrophoresis
(b.) staining the bands of DNA after electrophoresis
(c.) cutting out the pieces of agrose gel and extraction of DNA from gel pieces
(d.) joining the specific DNA with the cloning vector
c
(c) The separated bands of DNA are cut out from the agrose gel and extended from the
gel piece. This step is known as elution. The DNA fragments purified in this way are
used in construction of recombinant DNA.

#QID# 20095

(126.) After using Ethidium bromide (Et br) on the DNA fragments they are observed under
________________________ light and they are seen as
________________________. [Page: 198, QR code, NCERT Exemplar]
(a.) infrared radiation, yellow coloured bands
(b.) UV radiation, orange coloured bands
(c.)  -rays, blue coloured bands
(d.) radiowave, yellow coloured bands
b
(b) After using Etbr dye during electrophoresis, the DNA fragments appear as orange
coloured bands under UV rays.

#QID# 20096

(127.) All are used in the preparation of a recombinant DNA molecule except [QR code,
NCERT Exemplar, Page: 198]
(a.) restriction endonuclease
(b.) DNA ligase
(c.) DNA fragments
(d.) E. coli
d
(d) E. coli is not required for the preparation of a recombinant DNA molecule rather it
may be required for the expression of recombinant DNA molecule.

#QID# 20097

(128.) An antibiotic resistance gene in a vector usually helps in the selection of which of the
following cell? [QR code, NCERT Exemplar, Page: 199]
(a.) Transformed cell
(b.) Competent cell
(c.) Recombinant cell
(d.) None of these
a
 (a) An antibiotic resistance gene in a vector usually helps in the selection of
transformed cell from the non-transformed cell.

#QID# 20098

(129.) The term used for the transfer of genetic material from one bacterium to another
through the mediation of a vector like virus is [QR code, NCERT Exemplar, Page:
199]
(a.) transduction (b.) conjugation
(c.) transformation (d.) translation
a
(d) Transduction is the process by which genetic material is transferred from one
bacterium to another through the mediation of vector-like virus.

#QID# 20099

(130.) A bacterial cell was transformed with a recombinant DNA that was generated using a
human gene. However, the transformed cell did not produce the desired protein.
Which of the following statement is correct regarding this? [QR code, NCERT
Exemplar, Page: 198]
(a.) Human gene may have intron which bacteria cannot process
(b.) Amino acid codons for humans and bacteria are different
(c.) Human protein is formed but degraded by bacteria
(d.) All of these
a
(a) Eukaryotic genes do not function properly when transferred into bacterial cell
because introns are present in eukaryotic cells but are absent in prokaryotic cells.
Hence, when bacterial cell is transformed with recombinant DNA which is generated
using human gene, it could not process it. As a result no desired protein will be
produced.

#QID# 20100

(131.) Cosmid is [Page: 199]

(a.) extragenetic material in my coplasma
(b.) circular DNA in bacteria
(c.) extra DNA in bacteria
(d.) fragment of DNA inserted in bacteria for forming copies
d
(d) Cosmid is a fragment of DNA of about 40,000 base pairs. These are plasmid
particles to which cos sites of phage lambda are joined. It is inserted in bacteria along
with DNA to produce copies for gene library.

#QID# 20101

(132.) pBR322 which is frequently used as a vector for cloning gene in E. coli is a/an [Page:
199]
(a.) original bacterial plasmid
(b.) modified bacterial plasmid
(c.) viral genome
(d.) transposon
 b
(b) E. coli plasmid pBR322 is the most versatile and widely used modified vector. It
contains both ampicillin and tetracycline resistance genes and a number of unique
restriction enzyme cleavage sites.

#QID# 20102

(133.) Identify A, B, C and D in the given diagram [Page: 199]

(a.) A – Ori, B – ampR , C – tet R , D – Hind III

(b.) A – Hind III, B – tet R , C – ampR , D – Ori
(c.) A – ampR , B – tet R , C – Hind III, D – Ori
(d.) A – tet R , B – Hind III, C – Ori, D – ampR
a
(a) The correct labels are

A − Ori
B − amp R
C − tet R
D − Hind III

#QID# 20103

(134.) The two antibiotic resistance genes on vector pBR322 are for [NEET–2019, Page:
199]
 (a.) ampicillin and tetracycline
(b.) ampicillin and chloramphenicol
(c.) chloramphenicol and tetracycline
(d.) tetracysline and kanamycin
a
(a) The two antibiotic resistance genes on E. coli cloning vector pBR 322 are for
ampicillin and tetracycline. Cloning vectors are DNA molecules that carry a foreign
DNA segment and replicate inside host cell. Plasmid in E. coli is a cloning vector.

#QID# 20104

(135.) A selectable marker is used to [Page: 199]

(a.) help in eliminating the non-transformants so that the transformants can be
regenerated
(b.) identify the gene for a desired trait in an alien organism
(c.) select a suitable vector for transformation in a specific crop
(d.) mark a gene on a chromosome for isolation using restriction enzyme.
a
(a) To facilitate cloning into a vector, the vector requires a selectable marker which
helps in identifying and eliminating non-transformants and selectively permitting the
growth of the transformants.

#QID# 20105

(136.) Which of the following is not a characteristic of pBR322 vector? [Page: 199]
(a.) It is the first artificial cloning vector constructed in 1977 by Boliver and Rodriguez.
(b.) It is the most widely used versatile and easily manipulated vector.
(c.) It has two antibiotic resistance genes tetR and ampR.
(d.) It does not have restrictions site for Sal I.
d
(d) The vector pBR322 contains recognition site for Sal I within its tetracycline
resistance gene.

#QID# 20106

(137.) The figure below is the diagrammatic representation of E. coli vector pBR322. Which
of the given option correctly identifies its certain component (s)? [Page: 199]
 (a.) Ori – Original restriction enzyme
(b.) rop – Reduced osmotic pressure
(c.) Hind III, EcoRI – Selectable markers
(d.) ampR, tetR – Antibiotic resistance genes
d
(d) Ori represents origin of replication, rop represents the protein that takes part in the
replication of plasmid. Hind III, EcoRI are the recognition endonuclease, and amp R,
tetR are antibiotic resistance genes.

#QID# 20107

(138.) Some foreign DNA fragments are attached to cla I site of pBR322. This recombinant
vector is used to transform E. coli host cells. The cells subjected to transformation are
plated on two different media, one containing ampicillin and other containing
tetracycline. The transformed cells containing the recombinant vector [Page: 199]
(a.) will grow on both tetracycline containing and ampicillin containing media.
(b.) will not grow on either tetracycline containing or ampicillin containing media.
(c.) will grow on tetracycline, but not on ampicillin containing medium.
(d.) will grow on ampicillin, but not on tetracycline containing medium.
a
(a) The transformed cells will grow on both tetracycline containing and ampicillin
containing media. This is because the foreign DNA fragments are attached to cla I site
and so, it will not cause disintegration of either amp or tet resistance gene, and
transformed cells will be resistant against both the antibiotics.

#QID# 20108

(139.) Gene library or DNA library has a collection of [Page: 199]

(a.) DNA and RNA
(b.) any one type of gene of organism
(c.) cDNA only
(d.) all possible genes of all organisms
c
(c) Gene library or DNA library has collection of dsDNA only. It is a clone/DNA copy
of cells/ tissues, organs of an organism in a preserved form for future use. DNA and
RNA are nucleic acid and constitute genetic materials of an organism.

#QID# 20109

(140.) The colonies of recombinant bacteria appear white in contrast to blue colonies of non-
recombinant bacteria because of [Page: 200]
(a.) non-recombinant bacteria containing  -galactosidase
(b.) insertional inactivation of  -galactosidase in non-recombinant bacteria
(c.) insertional inactivation of  -galactosidase in recombinant bacteria
(d.) inactivation of glycosidase enzyme in recombinant bacteria.
a
(a) The colonies of recombinant bacteria appear white in contrast to blue colonies of
non-recombinant bacteria because of non-recombinant bacteria containing b-
galactosidase. The recombinants and non-recombinants can be differentiated on the
basis of colour production in the presence of chromogenic substrate. This process is
known as insertional inactivation. Here, a recombinant DNA is inserted within the
 coding sequence of an enzyme b-galactosidase, which results into the inactivation of
enzyme. Therefore the bacterial colonies having inserted plasmid, show no colouration,
while those without plasmid will show blue colour.

#QID# 20110

(141.) Consider the following statements.

Statement I: Agrobacterium tumefaciens is the causative agent of crown gall disease
of dicots. Statement II: Agrobacterium tumefaciens causes infection by entering the
plant through wounds and injuries. [Page: 200]
(a.) Statement I is true but II is false
(b.) Statement II is true but I is false
(c.) Both Statements I and II are true
(d.) Both Statements I and II are false
c
(c) Agrobacterium tumefaciens are plant pathogenic Gram positive soil bacterium
which causes crown gall disease of dicot plants. These bacteria transfer a defined
segment of DNA (T-DNA) by entering the plant through wounds and injuries to cause
infection in plants. Hence, both statements are correct.

#QID# 20111

(142.) The Ti plasmid is often used for making transgenic plants. This plasmid is found in
[Page: 200]
(a.) azotobacter
(b.) rhizobium of the roots of leguminous plants
(c.) agrobacterium
(d.) yeast as a 2 µm plasmid
c
(c) The plasmid vectors used for plant cell transformation are mostly based on the Ti
plasmid of Agrobacterium tumefactions.

#QID# 20112

(143.) Retrovirus animals including humans are able to change normal cells into [Page: 200]
(a.) germ cell (b.) cancerous cells
(c.) cosmid (d.) vector
b
(b) Retro virus in animals including humans are able to change normal cells into
cancerous cells.

#QID# 20113

(144.) Which of the following is known as ‘natural genetic engineer’ of plants? [Page: 200]
(a.) E. coli
(b.) Streptomyces albus
(c.) Agrobacterium tumefactions
(d.) Azotobacter
c
(c) Agrobacterium tumefaciens is a pathogen of several dicot plants. It is able to
transfer a piece of DNA known as ‘T-DNA’ into the plant cells. The T-DNA causes
 tumours, which are called crown galls. Tumor formation is induced by Ti plasmid. As
gene transfer occurs without human effort, the bacterium is called natural genetic
engineer of plants. Similarly, retro viruses in animals including humans are able to
change normal cells into cancerous cells.

#QID# 20114

(145.) Consider the following statements. Statement I: The tumour inducing plasmid (Ti
plasmid) acts as a cloning vector in recombinant DNA technology. Statement II: The
Ti plasmid which is used in the mechanisms of delivering genes to a cell remains
pathogenic. [Page: 200]
(a.) Statement I is true but II is false
(b.) Statement II is true but I is false
(c.) Both Statements I and II are true
(d.) Both Statements I and II are false
a
(a) The tumour inducing Ti plasmid of Agrobacterium tumefaciens has been modified
into cloning vector which is not pathogenic to the plants; however, it is still able to use
its mechanism to deliver genes of our interest into various plants.

#QID# 20115

(146.) Foreign DNA cannot pass through a cell membrane as [Page: 200]
(a.) it is hydrophilic molecule
(b.) it is heavy
(c.) it is hydrophobic
(d.) it is rich in proteins
a
(a) Foreign DNA cannot pass through a cell membrane because DNA is hydrophilic
molecule.

#QID# 20116

(147.) In order to induce the bacterial up take of plasmids, the bacteria are made competent
by first treating with [Page: 200]
(a.) sodium chloride
(b.) magnesium chloride
(c.) potassium chloride
(d.) calcium chloride
d
(d) In order to force the bacteria to take up the plasmid, the bacterial cells must first be
made competent to take up DNA. This is done by treating them with a specific
concentration of a divalent cation such as calcium chloride, which increases the
efficiency with which DNA enters the bacterium through pores in its cell wall.

#QID# 20117

(148.) The treatment of host cell with divalent cation leads to [Page: 200]
(a.) decreased efficiency with which DNA enters the bacterium
(b.) change in the permeability of host
(c.) change in the permeability of DNA
(d.) increased efficiency with which DNA enters the bacterium
 b
(b) Host is made competent by treating them with specific concentration of a divalent
cation such as calcium, which increases the efficiency with which DNA enters the
bacterium through pores in its cell wall.

#QID# 20118

(149.) For transformation, micro particles coated with DNA to be bombarded with gene gun
are made up of [Page: 201]
(a.) silver or platinum
(b.) platinum or zinc
(c.) silion or platinum
(d.) gold or tungsten
d
(d) For the transformation in plants, cells are bombarded with high velocity
microparticles of gold or tungsten coated with DNA in a method known as biolistics or
gene gun.

#QID# 20119

(150.) The heat shock method in bacterial transformation is to facilitate [Page: 201]
(a.) binding of DNA to the cell wall
(b.) uptake of DNA through membrane transport proteins
(c.) uptake of DNA through transient pores in the bacterial cell wall
(d.) expression of antibiotic resistance gene
c
(c) The heat shock method is done at 42°C, pores formed in the cell membrane
become larger and DNA enters the cells.

#QID# 20120

(151.) Which of the following method is used to introduce foreign DNA into animal cell?
[Page: 201]
(a.) Gene gun method
(b.) Changing permeability of host
(c.) Biolistic method
(d.) Microinjection
d
(d) In microinjection method, recombinant DNA is directly injected into the nucleus
of an animal cell.

#QID# 20121

(152.) Assertion: In recombinant DNA technology, human genes are often transferred into
bacteria (prokaryotes) or yeast (eukaryotes).
Reason: Both bacteria and yeast multiply very fast to form huge population, which
expresses the desired gene. [Page: 196]
(a.) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(b.) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of
Assertion.
(c.) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
 (d.) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
a
(a) Recombinant DNA is the one which has its nucleotide sequence undergoing
alteration as a result of incorporation or exchange with another DNA strand. In
recombinant DNA technology, human genes are often transferred into bacteria or yeast
because both bacteria and yeast multiply very fast to form huge population, which
expresses the desired gene.

#QID# 20122

(153.) Assertion: Restriction endonucleases are also called ‘molecular scissors’.

Reason: When fragments generated by restriction endonucleases are mixed they join
together due to their sticky ends. [Page: 196]
(a.) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(b.) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of
Assertion.
(c.) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(d.) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
b
(b) Restriction endonucleases are molecular scissors which cut a DNA molecule
within certain specific site called restriction site. Common restriction endonucleases
are EcoRI, Bam HI, Hind III, etc. When the DNA fragments are mixed, they join each
other due to their sticky ends through hydrogen bonds.

#QID# 20123

(154.) Assertion: Palindromic nucleotide sequences are important in the formation of

recombinant DNA.
Reason: Palindromic nucleotide sequences read same in both directions of the two
strands. [Page: 196]
(a.) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(b.) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of
Assertion.
(c.) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(d.) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
b
(b) Palindromic sequences in the DNA are group of nucleotides that read the same on
the two strands in 5′→3′ direction as well as 3′→5′ direction. These sequences act as
recognition sites and are recognized by restriction endonucleases. During the formation
of a recombinant DNA, a restriction enzyme produces cuts at the specific recognition
sites that are palindromic, in the gene of interest as well as vector.

#QID# 20124

(155.) Assertion: Engineered vectors are preferred by biotechnologists for transferring the
desired genes into another organism.
Reason: They help in easy linking of foreign DNA. [Page: 198]
(a.) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(b.) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of
Assertion.
(c.) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
 (d.) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
a
Engineered vectors are preferred by biotechnologists for transferring the desired genes
into another organism because they help in easy linking of foreign DNA and selection
of recombinants from non-recombinants.

#QID# 20125

(156.) Assertion: An alien DNA cannot be a part of a chromosome anywhere along its
length and replicate.
Reason: Plasmid has a specific sequence called ‘ori’. [Page: 199]
(a.) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(b.) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of
Assertion.
(c.) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(d.) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
b
(b) The integration of alien DNA is required to become a part of chromose. As the
DNA itself cannot multiply and replicate but rather requires a specific sequence for
initiating its replication called origin of replication. Therefore, the alien DNA needs to
be joined with the host DNA with the help of enzymes and linked to ‘Ori” so as to be a
part of chromosome and replicate normally to produce its copies.

#QID# 20126

(157.) Assertion: Agrobacterium tumefaciens is a popular genetic engineer because this

bacteria is associated with the roots of all cereal and pulse crops.
Reason: A gene incorporated in the bacterial chromosomal genome gets
automatically suppressed into the crop with which the bacteria is associated. [Page:
200]
(a.) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(b.) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of
Assertion.
(c.) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(d.) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
d
(d) Agrobacterium tumefaciens infects certain plants, in which Ti plasmid causes the
formation of tumour like growth called crown gall. Agrobacterium does not infect
grasses, i.e., cereals. It is a pathogen of dicots. Hence, the statement for both Assertion
and Reason are false.

#QID# 20127

(158.) Assertion: Cells are made competent for doing biotechnology experiments.
Reason: DNA molecules are hydrophilic and cannot pass through cell membrane.
[Page: 200]
(a.) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(b.) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of
Assertion.
(c.) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(d.) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
 a
(a) Competency is the ability of a cell to take up foreign DNA. Since DNA molecules
are hydrophilic, they cannot pass through cell membranes. For recombinant DNA to be
integrated into vector or host genome, it is necessary for the DNA to be inserted in the
cell. Therefore making the host cell competent is necessary in biotechnology
experiments.

#QID# 20128

(159.) Assertion: E. coli with pBR322 DNA inserted at Bam HI site cannot grow in medium
containing tetracycline.
Reason: Recognition site for Bam HI is present at tetracycline resistance region of
pBR 322. [Page: 200]
(a.) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(b.) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of
Assertion.
(c.) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(d.) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
a
pBR322 has its recognition sites for commonly used restriction enzymes. Recognition
site for Bam HI is present in tetracycline resistant region of the vector. When an insert
is added at the Bam HI recognition site, the gene for tetracycline resistance becomes
non-functional and the recombinant bacteria with plasmid pBR322 that has DNA insert
at Bam HI lose tetracycline resistance.

#QID# 20129

(160.) Which of the following is the correct sequence for the several steps involved in
recombinant DNA technology? [Page: 201]
(I) Amplification
(II) Ligation
(III) Culturing of transgenic cell
(IV) Extraction of desired product
(V) Isolation of DNA (VI) Fragmentation and separation of DNA (VII) Transfer of
recombinant DNA into host
(a.) I → III → IV → V → VI → II → VII
(b.) V → VI → I → II → VII → III → IV
(c.) V → VI → II → VII → I → III → IV
(d.) I → II → III → IV → V → VI → VII
b
(b) Recombinant DNA technology involves several steps in specific sequence such as
isolation of DNA, fragmentation of DNA by restriction endonucleases, isolation of a
desired DNA fragment, ligation of the DNA fragment into a vector, transferring the
recombinant DNA into the host, culturing the host cell in a medium at large scale and
extraction of the desired product.

#QID# 20130

(161.) Which enzymes are used to break the cell to release DNA? [Page: 201]
(a.) Lysozyme (b.) Cellulase
(c.) Chitinase (d.) All of these
 d
(d) Lysozyme, cellulase and chitinase all three enzymes are used to break different or
same cell to release DNA from the solution.

#QID# 20131

(162.) Match the following enzymes with their respective cell on which it acts upon. [Page:
201]
Column-I Column-II

(A) Bacterial cell (1) Lysozyme

(B) Plant cell (2) Cellulase
(C) Fungal cell (3) Chitinase

Codes
A B C
(a.) 3 2 1
(b.) 2 3 1
(c.) 1 2 3
(d.) 3 1 2
c
(c) A-1, B-2, C-3

#QID# 20132

(163.) While isolating DNA from bacteria, which of the following enzyme is/are used?
[NCERT Exemplar, QR code, Page: 201]
(a.) Lysozyme (b.) Ribonuclease
(c.) Protease (d.) All of these
d
(d) Enzymes like lysozyme, ribonuclease and protease will degrade lysozomes,
ribonuclic acid and proteins, respectively, to isolate deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) from
the bacteria.

#QID# 20133

(164.) DNA precipitated out of a mixture of biomolecules can be achieved by the treatment
with [Page: 201]
(a.) Chilled ethanol
(b.) Methanol at room temperature
(c.) Chilled chloroform
(d.) Isopropanol
a
(a) Chilled ethanol is used to precipitate DNA out of a mixture of biomolecules. Low
temperature protects the DNA by showing down the activity of enzymes that could
break it apart and ethanol helps in the quick precipitation of DNA.

#QID# 20134
(165.) In the given diagram, purified DNA is being precipitated out by adding chilled
ethanol in ‘A’. This precipitated DNA is removed by the process shown in ‘B’. [Page:
201] A B Name the process

(a.) DNA digestion

(b.) DNA bands
(c.) DNA recognition
(d.) DNA spooling
d
(d) Purified DNA is precipitated out after adding chilled ethanol for doing
recombinant DNA production. This can be seen as collection of fine threads in the
suspension as seen in the figure. It refers to DNA spooling process.

#QID# 20135

(166.) Given below are four statements pertaining to separation of DNA fragments using gel
electrophoresis. Identify the incorrect statements.
(I) DNA is a negatively charged molecule and so it is loaded on gel toward the anode
terminal.
(II) DNA fragments travel along the surface of the gel whose concentration does not
affect the movement of DNA.
(III) Smaller the size of DNA fragment, larger is the distance it travels through it.
(IV) Pure DNA can be visualized directly by exposing UV radiation. Select the
correct option [Page: 202]
(a.) I, III and IV (b.) I, II and III
(c.) II, III and IV (d.) I, II and IV
d
(d) Statements I, II and IV are incorrect because DNA fragments are negatively
charged molecules, they can be separated by forcing them to move toward the anode
under an electric field through a medium/matrix. The concentration of gel does not
affect the resolution of DNA separation. The separated DNA fragments can be
visualized only after staining the DNA with a compound known as ethidium bromide
followed by exposure to UV rays. Only statement III is correct as the DNA fragments
separate according to their size through sieving effect provided by the agrose gel.
Hence, the smaller the fragment size, the farther it moves.

#QID# 20136

(167.) For preparation of recombinant DNA, the cut out ‘gene of interest’ and the cut vector
with space are mixed with a specific enzyme. Name the enzyme. [Page: 202]
(a.) Restriction endonuclease
(b.) Tag polymerase
 (c.) Ligase
(d.) Restriction exonuclease
c
(c) For joining of DNAs, i.e., the cutout gene of interest from the source DNA and the
cut vector with space we add ligase enzyme.

#QID# 20137

(168.) The expanded form of PCR is [Page: 202]

(a.) polymorphic chain reaction
(b.) polymer chain reaction
(c.) polynucleotide chain reaction
(d.) polymerase chain reaction
d
(d) PCR stands for polymerase chain reaction.

#QID# 20138

(169.) Palaeontologists unearthed a human skill during excavation. A small fragment of the
scalp tissue was still attached to it. Only little DNA could be extracted from it. If the
genes of the ancient man need to be analyzed, the best way of getting sufficient
amount of DNA from this extract is by [Page: 202]
(a.) hybridizing the DNA with a DNA probe
(b.) subjecting the DNA to get electrophoresis
(c.) subjecting the DNA to polymerase chain reaction
(d.) treating the DNA with restriction endonucleases
c
(c) The best way of getting sufficient amount of DNA is by subjecting the sample to
Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR). It is a technique by which small samples of DNA
can be amplified. Starting with a very small piece of DNA, this technique is used to
make billions of copies in a short period of time.

#QID# 20139

(170.) The function of polymerase chain reaction is [Page: 202]

(a.) transduction
(b.) DNA amplification
(c.) translation
(d.) none of the above
b
(b) The polymerase chain reaction is a technique developed by Kary Mullis in 1985
for in vitro DNA amplification.

#QID# 20140

(171.) Which of the following is true for primers used during PCR? [Page: 203]
(a.) These are small chemically synthesized oligonucleotides of about 10–18
nucleotides that are complementary to the region of template DNA.
(b.) These are chemically synthesized oligonucleotides of about 10–18 nucleotides that
are complementary to the region of template DNA.
(c.) These are double stranded DNA that need to be amplified
 (d.) These are specific sequences present on recombinant DNA
a
(a) Primers are small chemically synthesized oligonucleotides that are complementary
to the region of DNA. These are about 10–18 nucleotides long.

#QID# 20141

(172.) Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is popularized because there is [NCERT

Exemplar, QR code, Page: 203]
(a.) easy availability of DNA template
(b.) availability of synthetic primers
(c.) availability of cheap deoxy ribonucleotides
(d.) availability of ‘Thermostable’ DNA polymerase
d
(d) The polymerase chain Reaction (PCR) is a reaction in which amplification of
specific DNA sequences is carried out in vitro. Such repeated amplification is achieved
by the use of a thermostable DNA polymerase, isolated from a bacterium, Thermus
aquaticus, which remains active and stable during the high temperature and induced
denaturation of double stranded DNA.

#QID# 20142

(173.) Enzyme that is used in PCR technology is [Page: 203]

(a.) Taq polymerase
(b.) polymerase
(c.) helicase
(d.) reverse transcriptase
a
(a) Enzyme used in PCR technology is Taq polymerase.

#QID# 20143

(174.) The Taq polymerase enzyme is obtained from [NEET–2016, Page: 203]
(a.) Thiobacillus ferroxidans
(b.) Bacillus subtilis
(c.) Pseudomonas subtilis
(d.) Thermus aquaticus
d
(d) Taq polymerase enzyme is a thermostable DNA polymerase obtained from
Thermus aquaticus. Thermus aquaticus is a bacterium that lives in hot springs and
hydrothermal vents.

#QID# 20144

(175.) In addition to Taq polymerase enzyme, other thermostable DNA polymerase have
been isolated to be used in polymerase chain reaction (PCR). These are [Page: 203]
(a.) Pfu polymerase isolated from pyrococcus furiosus
(b.) Tli polymerase (vent polymerase) isolated from Thermococcur litoralis
(c.) Both (a) and (b)
(d.) None of these
c
 (c) Pfu polymerase and Tli polymerase are other DNA polymerase isolated from
pyrococcus furiosus and Thermococcus litoralis, respectively.

#QID# 20145

(176.) The correct order of steps in polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is [NEET–2018, Page:
203]
(a.) Denaturation, extension, annealing
(b.) Annealing, extension, denaturation
(c.) Extension, denaturation, annealing
(d.) Denaturation, annealing, extension
d
(d) The polymerase chain reaction (PCR) has three basic steps, i.e., denaturation,
annealing and extension.

#QID# 20146

(177.) In annealing, [Page: 203]

(a.) primers anneal to the DNA template
(b.) Taq polymerase adds nucleotides to the annealed primer
(c.) two strands of the DNA separate
(d.) temperature is 92°C
a
(a) In annealing, primers anneal to the DNA template to provide a site for initiation of
polymerization by enzyme taq polymerase. Before this denaturation of DNA takes
place in which two strands of DNA separate from each other at high temperature of
92–95°C.

#QID# 20147

(178.) Match the columns [Pages: 202, 203]

Column-I Column-II

(A) Denaturation (1) Join or hybridize

(B) Annealing (2) Polymerization
(C) Extension (3) Melting of target DNA

Codes
A B C
(a.) 3 1 2
(b.) 1 2 3
(c.) 3 2 1
(d.) 2 3 1
a
(a) A-3, B-1, C-2

#QID# 20148

(179.) The step catalyzed by Taq polymerase in a PCR reaction is/are [QR code, NCERT
Exemplar, Page: 203]
(a.) denaturation of template DNA
 (b.) annealing of primers to template DNA
(c.) extension of primer end on the template DNA
(d.) all of these
c
(c) During extension process in PCR, DNA polymerase, i.e., Taq polymerase extends
the primers by adding nucleotides complementary to the template provided in the
reaction. Taq polymerase is used in this reaction as it can tolerate heat.

#QID# 20149

(180.) In a polymerase chain reaction, temperature required for the steps A, B and C are
[Page: 203]

(a.) A – 94°C, B – 40°C, C – 72°C

(b.) A – 40°C, B – 72°C, C – 94°C
(c.) A – 94°C, B – 72°C, C – 40°C
(d.) A – 72°C, B – 94°C, C – 40°C
a
(a) Annealing temperature is 94°C
Extension temperature is 40°C
Denaturation temperature is 72°C

#QID# 20150

(181.) The figure below shows three steps (A, B, C) of polymerase chain reaction (PCR).
Select the option giving correct identification together with what it represents. [Page:
203]

(a.) B - Denaturation at a temperature of about 98°C separating the two DNA strands.
(b.) A - Denaturation at a temperature of about 50°C.
 (c.) C – Extension in the presence of heat stable DNA polymerase.
(d.) A – Annealing with two sets of primers.
a
(a) Option (a) is correct because it depicts that B represents the first step of PCR, i.e.,
denaturation involving the separation of the DNA strands at a temperature ranging
between 90°C and 98°C. The next step in PCR is annealing in which the
complementary primer attaches at the 3′ end of both the separated strands. The final
step is extension in which the enzyme DNA polymerase synthesizing complementary
strand by extending both the primers towards each other to ensure that the DNA
segment lying between the two primers get copied.

#QID# 20151

(182.) Which one is a true statement regarding DNA polymerase used in PCR? [Page: 203]
(a.) It is used to ligase introduced DNA in recipient cells
(b.) It serves as a selectable marker
(c.) It is isolated from a virus
(d.) It remains active at high temperature
d
(d) Statement (d) is true regarding DNA polymerase used in PCR. As DNA
polymerase i.e., Taq polymerase used in PCR remains active at high temperature.

#QID# 20152

(183.) PCR and restriction fragment length polymorphism are the methods for [Page: 203]
(a.) study of enzymes
(b.) genetic transformation
(c.) DNA sequencing
(d.) genetic fingerprinting
d
(d) PCR and restriction fragment length polymorphism are the methods for genetic
finger printing. Genetic finger printing is a technique to identify a person on the basis
of his/her genetic/ DNA specificity as each person has a unique DNA fingerprint.

#QID# 20153

(184.) Amplification of gene of interest by using DNA polymerase may go up to [Page: 203]
(a.) 0.1 million times
(b.) 1.0 million times
(c.) 1.0 billion times
(d.) 1.0 trillion times
c
(c) If the process of replication of DNA is repeated many times, the segment of DNA
can be amplified to approximately a billion times, i.e., 1.0 billion copies can be made.
Such repeated amplification is achieved by the use of a thermostable DNA polymerase.

#QID# 20154

(185.) Choose the incorrect match. [Page: 203]

(a.) Southern blotting – Transfer of DNA fragment from gel to nitrogen
(b.) Gel electrophoresis – Running of DNA fragments on gel
 (c.) Cleavage – Annealing of DNA
(d.) DNA probing – Searching for desired DNA fragments
c
(c) Cleavage is cutting of DNA into fragments.

#QID# 20155

(186.) If a recombinant DNA bearing gene for resistance to antibiotic ampicillin is

transferred to E.coli cells, the host cells become transformed into ampicillin resistant
cells. If such bacteria are transferred on agar plates containing ampicillin only
transformants will grow and the untransformed recipient cells will die. The ampicillin
resistant gene in this case is called [Page: 203]
(a.) Selectable marker
(b.) Recombinant protein
(c.) Cloning site
(d.) Chemical scalpels
a
(a) The cloning vector requires the presence of a selectable marker, which helps in
identifying and eliminating non-transformants and selectively permitting the growth of
the transformants.

#QID# 20156

(187.) Consider the following statements. Statement I: Selectable marker helps to select the
host cells which contain the vector and eliminate the non-transformants. Statement II:
Genes encoding resistance to antibiotic like ampicillin chloramphenicol, tetracycline
or Kanamycin are useful selectable markers for E.coli. [Page: 203]
(a.) Statement I is true, but II is false
(b.) Statement II is true, but I is false
(c.) Both statements I and II are true
(d.) Both statements I and II are false
c
(c) Selectable marker helps to select the host cells which contain the vector and
eliminate the non-transformants. Genes encoding resistance to antibiotics like
ampicillin, chloramphenicol, tetracycline or Kanamyein are useful selectable markers
of E.coli. The normal E.coli do not carry resistance against any of these antibiotics.

#QID# 20157

(188.) For producing a recombinant protein in large amounts, one should choose which of
the following for best yield? [NCERT Exemplar, QR code, Page: 204]
(a.) Laboratory flask of largest capacity
(b.) A stirred tank bioreactor without inlets and outlets
(c.) A continuous culture system
(d.) All of these
c
(c) For producing best yield if one were to produce a recombinant protein in large
quantities the cells are multiplied in a continuous culture system where in the used
medium is drained out from one side while fresh medium is added from the other to
maintain the cells in their physiologically most active log/exponential phase.
 #QID# 20158

(189.) A device in which large volumes of living cells are cultured in order to get a specific
product is called [Page: 204]
(a.) PCR (b.) Agitator
(c.) Bioreactor (d.) Assimilator
c
(c) The vessel/device in which raw materials are biologically converted into specific
products by microbes, plants and animal cells or their enzymes are considered as
bioreactors.

#QID# 20159

(190.) Simple stirred tank bioreactor is given below. [Page: 204]

A B C D
(a.)
Foam breaker Sterile air Acid / Base for pH control Motor
A B C D
(b.)
Motor Flat bladed impler Sterile air Acid / Base for pH control
A B C D
(c.)
Motor Steam sterilization Foam breaker Flad blade
A B C D
(d.)
Foam breaker Motor Foam breaker Acid / Base for pH control
c
(c) Bioreactors provide the optimal growth conditions such as temperature, pH,
substrate, vitamins, oxygen and salts for obtaining the desired product. The stirred tank
bioreactor is well suited for large scale production of microorganisms under aseptic
conditions for a number of days. Thus, it is true for most commonly used bioreactors.

#QID# 20160

(191.) Consider the following statements. Statement I: Bioreactors provide all the optimal
conditions for achieving the desired product by providing optimal growth conditions
like temperature, pH, substrate, salt, vitamin and oxygen. Statement II: One of the
most commonly used bioreactor is of stirring type. [Page: 204]
 (a.) Statement I is true but II is false
(b.) Statement II is true but I is false
(c.) Both statements I and II are true
(d.) Both statements I and II are false.
c
(c) A stirred tank bioreactor is usually cylindrical, possessing a stirrer which facilitates
even mixing of the reactor contents and oxygen availability throughout the bioreactor.

#QID# 20161

(192.) Stirred tank bioreactors have been designed for [NEET–2019, Page: 204]
(a.) Purification of product
(b.) Addition of preservatives to the product
(c.) Availability of oxygen throughout the process
(d.) Ensuring anaerobic conditions in the culture vessel
b
(b) The correct label are
A – Motor
B – Flat bladed impler
C – Sterile air
D – Acid/Base for pH control
Refer to ans. 32

#QID# 20162

(193.) Stirred tank bioreactors are advantageous over shake flasks as they [Page: 204]
(a.) provide better aeration and mixing properties
(b.) provide high temperature and pH
(c.) do not allow the entry of CO2
(d.) are easy to operate
c
(c) Bioreactor are better than shake flasks as each bioreactor has a cylindrical stirred
tank to facilitate the mixing of contents. The stirrer provides facility of mixing the
contents as well as the availability of oxygen throughout the process.

#QID# 20163

(194.) Which of the following is the correct feature of this type of bioreactor given below.
[Page: 204]
 (a.) Sterile or germ free air bubbles are sparged in this type of bioreactors.
(b.) They provide high temperature and pH.
(c.) The availability of oxygen throughout the process is low
(d.) They are easy to operate.
a
(a) The given bioreactor is sparged stirred tank bioreactor in which sterile or germ free
air bubbles are sparged in the reactor.

#QID# 20164

(195.) After completion of the biosynthetic stage in the bioreactor, the product undergoes
separation and purification process before release for marketing. It is collectively
called [Page: 204]
(a.) Transformation
(b.) Electrophoresis
(c.) Downstream processing
(d.) Upstream processing
c
(c) The process of separation and purification of recombinant protein before it is ready
for marketing as a finished product is called downstream processing.

#QID# 20165

(196.) Which of the following is not a component of downstream processing? [Page: 204]
(a.) Separation (b.) Purification
(c.) Preservation (d.) Expression
d
(d) Expression is not a component of downstream processing. Refer to ans. 36.

#QID# 20166

(197.) Match the following columns.

Column-I Column-II

(A) Primers (1) PCR

(B) Separation and purification of products (2) C2H2OH
(C) Precipitation of DNA (3) Uptake of foreign DNA by bacterium
(D) Transformation (4) Downstream processing

[Pages: 201–204]
 Codes
A B C D
(a.) 1 4 2 3
(b.) 2 1 4 3
(c.) 4 1 3 2
(d.) 3 1 4 2
a
(a) A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3

#QID# 20167

(198.) Assertion: Enzyme cellulase is used for isolating genetic material from plant cells but
not for animal cells.
Reason: Plant cell wall is made up of cellulose. [Page: 201]
(a.) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(b.) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of
Assertion.
(c.) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(d.) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
b
(b) Cellulase is used for digesting the cellulosic cell wall of plant cells. Animal cells
do not contain cell wall so cellulase is not required.

#QID# 20168

(199.) Assertion: Gel electrophoresis and elution are two important processes.
Reason: After staining with ethidium bromide, separated DNA fragments have to be
exposed to UV light. [Page: 202]
(a.) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(b.) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of
Assertion.
(c.) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(d.) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
b
(b) Gel electrophoresis and elution are important process in regard to DNA
fragmentation. Gel electrophoresis involves separation of the DNA fragments on the
basis of charge as well as molecular weight. These separated fragments are then
extracted from the gel and on to another membrane. Finally, the fragments are
visualized after staining with EtBr through exposure to UV rays.

#QID# 20169

(200.) Assertion: In polymerase chain reaction, after the denaturation step the mixture is
cooled down to a lower temperature.
Reason: This gives a halt to the reaction mixture. [Page: 202]
(a.) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(b.) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of
Assertion.
(c.) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(d.) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
c
 (c) To permit specific annealing of the primers in the polymerase chain reaction after
the denaturation step, the mixture needs to cool down to a lower temperature.

#QID# 20170

(201.) Assertion: DNA polymerase is used in PCR technique.

Reason: DNA polymerase is used in PCR, i.e., Taq polymerase extracted from
Thermus aquaticus. [Page: 203]
(a.) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(b.) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of
Assertion.
(c.) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(d.) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
b
(b) The DNA polymerase used in Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) is Taq
polymerase extracted from Thermus aquatics. It is a thermostable enzyme that can
withstand high temperature used in the denaturation and separation of DNA strands.
Hence, it can be used for a number of cycles in amplification.

#QID# 20171

(202.) Assertion: There is a need for large scale production of Recombinant gene product.
Reason: Small volume cultures cannot yield appreciable quantities of products.
[Page: 204]
(a.) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(b.) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of
Assertion.
(c.) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(d.) Assertion is false, but Reason is true
a
(a) The recombinant DNA multiplies in the host and is expressed as a protein, under
optimal conditions. This is now a recombinant protein. Small volumes of cell cultures
will not yield a large amount of recombinant protein. Therefore, large-scale production
is necessary to generate products that benefit humans. For this purpose, vessels called
bioreactors are used.