28 APRIL 2024

No.: 3269894

A
Test Booklet Code

This Booklet contains 28 pages.

Do not open this test Booklet until you are asked to do so.

Important Instructions :
1. The test is of 3 hour 20 minutes duration and the Test Booklet contains 200 multiple-choice questions (four options with a single correct
answer) from Physics, Chemistry and Biology (Botany and Zoology). 50 questions in each subject are divided into two Sections (A and B)
as per details given below:
(a) Section A shall consist of 35 (Thirty Five) Questions in each subject (Question Nos - 1 to 35, 51 to 85, 101 to 135 and 151 to 185). All
questions are compulsory.
(b) Section B shall consist of 15 (Fifteen) questions in each subject (Question Nos - 36 to 50, 86 to 100, 136 to 150 and 186 to 200. The
Answer Sheet is inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out the Answer sheet). In Section B, a
candidate needs to attempt any 10 (Ten) questions out of 15 (Fifteen) in each subject.
Candidates are advised to read all 15 questions in each subject of Section B before they start attempting the question paper. In the event of
a candidate attempting more than ten questions, the first ten questions answered by the candidate shall be evaluated.
2. Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one mark will be
deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.
3. Use Blue/ Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on this page/ marking responses on Answer Sheet.
4. Rough work is to be done in the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.
5. Syllabus of this test is: Complete NEET Syllabus (as per communications from NTA and NMC)
6. The CODE for this Booklet is A. Make sure that the CODE printed on the original Copy of the
Answer Sheet is the same as that on this Test Booklet. In case of discrepancy, the candidate should
immediately report the matter to the Invigilator for replacement of both the Test Booklet and the Answer Sheet.
7. The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet. Do not write your
Roll No. anywhere else except in the specified space in theTest Booklet/ Answer Sheet.
8. Use of white fluid for correction is NOT permissible on the Answer Sheet.
9. Each candidate must show on-demand his /her Admit Card to the Invigilator.
10. No candidate, without special permission of the centre Superintendent or Invigilator, would leave his/her seat.
11. The candidates should not leave the Examination Hall without handing over their Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty and sign (with
time) the Attendance Sheet twice. Cases, where a candidate has not signed the Attendance Sheet second time, will be deemed not to have
handed over the Answer Sheet and dealt with as an Unfair Means case.
12. Use of Electronic/ Manual Calculator is prohibited.
13. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the examination with regard to their conduct in the Examination Room/Hall.
All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per the Rules and Regulations of this examination.
14. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet shall be detached under any circumstances.
15. The candidates will write the Correct Test Booklet Code as given in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet in the Attendance Sheet.

Name of the Candidate (in Capitals) :________________________________________________________________________

Roll Number : in figures ___________________________________________________________________________________
: in words ___________________________________________________________________________________
Centre of Examination (in Capitals) : ________________________________________________________________________
Candidate’s Signature :_________________________________ Invigilator’s Signature : _____________________________
Facsimile signature stamp of
Centre Superintendent :___________________________________________________________________________________
 FINAL

Physics - Section A 5 The work done by a force (newton) in a

2
F = 2x

displacement from x = 0 (origin) to x = 3 m is:

A particle performs simple harmonic motion at a 1. 54 J
1
2. 27 J
frequency f . The frequency at which its kinetic energy varies 3. 18 J
is: 4. 9 J
1. f
2. 2f Two small paramagnetic samples are placed in an
3. 4f
6
4. f /2 (otherwise uniform) strong external magnetic field B. If the
two samples are placed with a separation that is along the
Consider the circuit shown in the figure, with a current of direction of the external field B, then, the force exerted by the
2 two samples on each other is:
10 A entering at node A. In one situation (I ), current is
1. attractive.
allowed to leave from node B but not from the outgoing wire
2. repulsive.
at C (see figure). In the second situation (I I ), it is allowed to
leave from node C, but not from the outgoing wire at B. 3. zero.
any of the above depending on the external field B and the
4.
sample separation.

7 What is the moment of inertia of a ring about a tangent to

the circle of the ring?
(where M = mass, R = radius)
3
1. 2.
1 2 2
MR MR
2 2

3. 4.
1 2 2 2
MR MR
4 3

8 A vertical spring of length l0 and force constant k is

stretched by l when a mass m is suspected from its lower end.
After pulling the mass down a little, the system is left off to
oscillate. The time period of oscillation is:
The currents i , i (refer to figure), in situation I, have the
1.
1 2 l
2π√
values: g

l
1. 5 A, 5 A 2. 6 A, 4 A 2. 2π√
0

3. 4 A, 6 A 4. 7 A, 3 A m
3.
1
√
2π k

3 The quantities K, c, η represent the thermal conductivity, 4. 2π√

l+l0

the specific heat capacity and the viscosity of a liquid. Which,

of the following, is dimensionless? 9 A current I, flowing through a long straight wire

1. Kcη 2.
Kc
produces a magnetic field of 4 × 10 T at a point P​​, 20 cm
−3

ηc
away. If the wire is replaced by a circular wire of
Kη
3. 4. radius 20 cm, centred at P and carrying the same current I ,
c K
then the magnetic field at P will be:
Which statement is correct regarding the photoelectric 1. 4π × 10 T −3

4
2. × 10 T
4 −3

effect? π

3. 4 × 10 T −3

Maximum kinetic energy depends upon the intensity of 4. 2 × 10 T −3

1.
light.
10 Lenz's law is the consequence of:
Stopping potential is dependent only on the work function
2.
of the metal. 1. law of conservation of charge
The photoelectric effect can be explained by the wave 2. law of conservation of momentum
3.
nature of light. 3. law of conservation of mass
The photoelectric effect can be explained by the particle 4. law of conservation of energy
4.
nature of light.

1
 FINAL

11 A rod of length L is pulled along its length by means of a 15 The current flowing through the left 20 Ω resistor is:
pulling force F , which causes it to accelerate. The cross-
section of the rod is uniform and equals A. The average stress
in the rod equals:

F F
1. 2. 2A
A

3.
F
4.
F
1. 1 A 2. 0.5 A
3A 4A
3. 2.5 A 4. 3 A
12 The amount of work required to expand the soap bubble
16 A particle moves in a circle with a uniform speed of
from a radius of r = 3.5 cm to r = 7.0 cm is:
1 2

(given surface tension of soap solution, T = 0.03 N/m) 3 m/s and its acceleration is 6 m/s2. The time period of its
1. 0.14 mJ motion is (in seconds):
2. 1.4 mJ 1. 4π
3. 0.7 mJ 2. 2π
4. 2.8 mJ 3. π
4.
π

13 Zener breakdown occurs in a p-n junction having p and

17 Given below are two statements:
n both:
1. lightly doped and have wide depletion layer. If the absolute surface temperature of a star
2. heavily doped and have narrow depletion layer. Statement I: doubles, the most probable wavelength in the
radiation spectrum also doubles.
3. lightly doped and have narrow depletion layer.
If the absolute surface temperature of a star
4. heavily doped and have wide depletion layer.
Statement II: doubles, the rate of radiant energy loss from
the star increases to 16 times its initial value.
14 The force between a thin hollow sphere and a point mass
at P inside it, as shown in the figure is: 1. Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
4. Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.

18 A dielectric slab is inserted between the plates of an

isolated charged capacitor. Which of the following remains
unchanged?
(I) The charge on the plates
(II) The potential difference between the plates
1. attractive and constant (III) The energy stored in the capacitor
attractive and depends on the position of the point with
2. 1. I only
respect to the centre, C
3. zero 2. I, II
4. repulsive and constant 3. I, III
4. I, II, III

2
 FINAL

19 Two gases having molar specific heats CP

1
& CP
2
are 23 A nucleus (X) undergoes several decays, one after the
mixed in the molar ratio 1 : 1. The molar specific heat of the other, emitting 3α-particles and 2β-particles. The atomic
mixture will be C , where C = P P number and mass number of X are Z and A. The atomic
C +C C
2
P
+C
P
2
number & mass number of the final daughter nucleus are:
P P
1. 1 2
2. 1 2
1. Z − 6, A − 14
2 C +C
P
1
P
2 2. Z − 4, A − 10
2CP ⋅CP
3. Z − 4, A − 12
3. 4.
1 2
√ CP ⋅ CP
1 2
C
P
+C
P
4. Z − 2, A − 10
1 2

24 Given below are two statements:

20 Two tuning forks are sounded together and beats are
heard at a frequency of 2 Hz. The frequency of one tuning A ladder is more apt to slip when you are high
Assertion (A):
fork is 120 Hz. The frequency of the other can be: up on it than when you just begin to climb.
1. 122 Hz At high up on a ladder, the torque is large and
Reason (R):
2. 121 Hz on climbing up, the torque is small.
3. 119 Hz
4. 116 Hz Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
1.
explanation of (A).
21 An LED is constructed from -
Ga As P - semiconducting Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct
2.
material with an energy gap of 1.9 eV. What is the wavelength explanation of (A).
of the emitted light and what colour does it correspond to? 3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
(take h = 6.63 × 10 J-s and c = 3 × 10 m/s)
−34 8
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.
1. 1046 nm and red colour
2. 654 nm and orange colour 25 A parallel beam of light, incident on two identical co-
3. 1046 nm and blue colour axial lenses each of power 2 D, emerges as a parallel beam of
4. 654 nm and red colour light. The separation between the lenses (d in the figure)
equals:
22 A particle moves unidirectionally on a horizontal plane,
under a constant power-supplying energy source. The
displacement-time (s-t) graph that describes the motion of the
particle is:
(graphs are drawn schematically and are not to scale)

1. 2.
1. 50 cm
2. 100 cm
3. 200 cm
4. 400 cm

3. 4.

3
 FINAL

26 A small block of mass m is released as shown in the 29 Four particles having identical charges are placed at the
figure against the vertical part of the smooth curved surface of four corners of a square of side 2 m. The potential at the
a wedge of mass M , initially at rest. When the block reaches centre of the square is 2√2 V.
the bottom, it travels horizontally with a kinetic energy E , m The potential energy of the system of charges is U . If the 0

while the wedge recoils towards left with a kinetic energy charges are brought closer so that each side of the square is
EM . Then: 1 m, then the new potential energy of the system will be:
U
1. U0 2. 0

3. 2U0 4. 4U0

30 A prism of angle A = 1
∘
has a refractive index μ = 1.5.

A good estimate for the minimum angle of deviation (in

degrees) is close to . Then, N =
N

10

1. 25
2. 20
EM
3. 15
Em
1. m
=
M
2. mEm = M EM 4. 5
Em EM

3. 4. 2 2
A horizontal square loop of area A has n turns of wire. It
31
= m Em = M EM
2 2
m M

is immersed in a uniform, rotating magnetic field B which is

27 Wind blows towards north with a speed of 20 m/s. A
initially perpendicular to the plane of the loop. The field
plane flies in air with a velocity relative to ground of 100 m/s, rotates with an angular speed ω about a diagonal of the loop.
towards east. Then, the velocity of the plane relative to air is: The emf induced across the loop is:

1. 100 m/s towards east and 20 m/s towards north.

2. 100 m/s towards east and 20 m/s towards south.
3. 100 m/s towards west and 20 m/s towards north.

4. 100 m/s towards west and 20 m/s towards south.

1. constant, of magnitude nωBA.
2. increasing with time t, of magnitude nω 2
BAt .
28 Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct option:
3. decreasing with time t, of magnitude .
nBA

List-I List-II
t

4. sinusoidal with time t, of amplitude nωBA.

(a) Isothermal process (i) Pressure constant
(b) Isochoric process (ii) Temperature constant In a certain organ pipe, the consecutive frequencies for
32
(c) Adiabatic process (iii) Volume constant
resonance are in the ratio of 1 : 3 : 5... and the 5 harmonic th

(d) Isobaric process (iv) Heat content is constant

frequency is 405 Hz. The length of the organ pipe is: (velocity
of sound = 345 m/s)
1. (a) → (i), (b) → (iii), (c) → (ii), (d) → (iv)
1. m 2. m
108 81

2. (a) → (ii), (b) → (iii), (c) → (iv), (d) → (i) 115 115

3.
115
m 4.
115
m
3. (a) → (ii), (b) → (iv), (c) → (iii), (d) → (i) 108 81

4. (a) → (iii), (b) → (ii), (c) → (i), (d) → (iv)

4
 FINAL

33 The pulleys and strings are ideal and massless. A force

Physics - Section B
F, applied vertically downward to the plate A (which is
massless), keeps the system in equilibrium. The force F The given graph shows the variation of velocity with
36
equals:
displacement. Which of the following graphs correctly
represents the variation of acceleration with displacement?

1. mg 2. 3mg
mg
3. 2mg 4.
2
1. 2.

34 A light ball is thrown with a horizontal velocity of

50 km/h towards an approaching truck, which is moving at
50 km/h, as shown in the figure. The collision between the
ball and the truck is perfectly elastic. The speed of the ball,
just after it rebounds from the truck, is:
(assume that the ball rebounds off a vertical surface and that
the effect of gravity is negligible)
3. 4.

37 The temperature of a mono-atomic gas is measured by

indirectly measuring the rms speed of its molecules: v . The
r

gas is enclosed in cubical vessel of side-L, and this gas

1. zero expands adiabatically with the side-L expanding. During the
2. 50 km/h process:
3. 100 km/h 1. v L = constant
r
1/3

4. 150 km/h 2. v L = constant

r
2

3. v L = constant
r

35 A charged particle of charge q and mass m is projected v r

4. = constant
L
vertically upward with a speed u. Acceleration due to gravity
(g) acts downwards, while a uniform electric field E acts
along the horizontal. The speed of the projectile's impact on
the horizontal is v, while the horizontal range is R. Then:
1. v = u + 2gR
2 2

qE
2. v = u + 2gR( )
2 2
mg

3. v 2
= u
2
+ gR
qE
4. v 2
= u
2
+ gR(
mg
)

5
 FINAL

38 An infinitely long uniform line charge with a charge of λ 41 An electromagnetic wave, propagating along the x-axis,
per unit length passes through a sphere; the chord AB carries momentum:
subtending a right angle at the centre of the sphere. The 1. along x-axis
outward flux of the electric field, through the surface of the 2. along y-axis
sphere, is:
3. along z-axis
4. both along y, z but not along x-axis

42 In the circuit shown, 5 V represents TRUE (binary 1) and

0 V represents FALSE (binary 0). The diodes are ideal.
A, B, C are the inputs and Y the output. What logic does the
circuit represent?

λR λR
1. ε
2. √2
ε
0 0

λR 2λR
3. 4. ε
√2ε
1. AND (A, B, C) 2. OR (A, B, C)
0 0

39 Given below are two statements: 3. NOT (AND (A, B, C)) 4. NOT (OR (A, B, C))
The viscosity of a gas decreases as the
Assertion (A):
temperature is increased. one identical diodes: each having a
43 D1 , D2 , D3

When temperature increases, the random

threshold voltage of 0.6 V, beyond which the current
Reason (R): molecular motion of the gas molecules
increases exponentially in forward bias. The diodes don't
increases.
conduct in reverse bias. i is the current flowing in at A, when
V = V
AB
− V
A
> 0. The variation of i versus V
B AB
is best
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct given by:
1.
explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct
2.
explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.

40 The AC-voltage applied to the circuit has a peak value of

−1
200 V and an angular frequency, ω = 300 s . The power
factor of this circuit equals:
1. 2.

3 4
1. 2. 3. 4.
5 5

3 4
3. 4
4. 3

6
 FINAL

44 A uniform rod of mass m and length L is rigidly attached 46 Two 1 kg blocks are connected by a light inextensible
to a ring of equal mass (m) and radius equal to L, so that it string and the system is suspended by a spring of stiffness
lies along a radius of the ring (like a spoke). The system is 1000 N/m. Take g = 10 m/s
2

rotated uniformly about a light axle (which is also its axis of

rotation) – connected perpendicular to the plane of the ring
and passing through its centre O. The angular speed of
rotation is ω.

The acceleration of the centre-of-mass of the two blocks just

after the string is cut, is:
The angular momentum of the system, about the axle, has the 1. zero
magnitude: 2. 10 m/s downward
2

4 13 2

1. mL ω
2
2. mL ω
2
3. 5 m/s downward
3 12
4. 5 m/s upward
2

5 5
3. mL ω
2
4. 2
mL ω
6 3

47 In a hydrogen atom, the kinetic energy, potential energy,

45 Two particles having equal charges move along circular
and total energy of an electron are represented by symbols
paths in a uniform magnetic field B: the radii of their paths K, U and E respectively. Which one of the following relations
being R , R . The de-Broglie wavelengths of these particles
1 2
is correct?
are λ , λ respectively. Then,
1 2
1. K = U = 2E
−U
λ1 R 2. K = = −E
1. 2.
1
= λ 1 R1 = λ 2 R2 2
λ R
2 2
3. K =
U

2
= −E
2

3.
λ
1
=
R1
4. 2
λ R1 = λ R2
2 4. K = U = −E
2 1 2
R
λ 2
2

48 The magnetic energy stored in a long current-carrying

solenoid, carrying a current of 2 A is 5 × 10 J. If the −3

winding is 'doubled' on top of the previous one, and the same

current of 2 A is passed through both, in the same sense. The
stored energy is:
1. 2.5 × 10 J −3

2. 10 × 10 J −3

3. 20 × 10 J −3

4. 80 × 10 J −3

7
 FINAL

49 Monochromatic radiation of wavelength λ is incident 53 Which of the following reactions is used to prepare
normally onto the double-slit in a standard Young's double-slit toluene from bromobenzene?
experiment. The 4th bright fringe is formed exactly behind the 1. Wurtz reaction
slit S . The wavelength, λ, equals:
1
2. Fittig reaction
3. Wurtz-Fittig reaction
4. Swartz reaction

54 The vapour pressure of an aqueous solution of sucrose at

373 K is found to be 750 mm Hg.
The molality of the solution at the same temperature will be:
1. 0.26 2. 0.53
3. 0.74 4. 0.039

55 Which amongst the following will be most readily

dehydrated under acidic conditions?
2 2
d d
1. 2.
2D 4D

2 2 1. 2.
3. d
4. 4d

8D D

50 A telescope having a magnification of ×100 has its

eyepiece of focal length 5 cm replaced by another one of focal 3. 4.
length 4 cm. The magnification of the telescope is now:
1. 125
2. 75
3. 80 Correct statement regarding the dichromate ion
56
4. 100
(Cr2O72–) is:

Chemistry - Section A 1. 4 Cr-O bond lengths are equal.

2. 6 Cr-O bond lengths are equal.
3. All Cr-O bond lengths are equal.
51 Consider the following statements and choose the correct
4. None of the Cr-O bond lengths are equal.
option:
A polyatomic molecule may have zero dipole 57 Van't Hoff factor of centimolal solution of K 3 [F e(CN )6 ]

Statement I:
moment. is 3.333. Percent dissociation of K 3 [F e(CN )6 ] will be:
It is necessary for a polyatomic molecule to 1. 33.33 2. 0.78
Statement II: have linear geometry to exhibit zero dipole 3. 78 4. 23.33
moment.
1. Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect. The effect of adding a catalyst on the activation energy
2. Statement II is correct and Statement I is incorrect.
58
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. (Ea) of a reaction is:
4. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect. 1. Activation energy decreases.
2. Activation energy increases.
52 The ratio of F- and HCOO- in a mixture of 0.1 M HF 3. Activation energy remains the same.
4. It depends on the reaction.
(Ka = 6. 6 × 10
−4
) and 0.2 M HCOOH (K a = 2 × 10
−4
) is:

1. 2 : 2.3 2. 1 : 3.3
3. 3.3 : 2 4. 3.3 : 1

8
 FINAL

59 Given the following five species: 65 Determine the enthalpy change for the specified reaction:
NH3 , AlCl3 , BeCl2 , CCl4 , PCl5 2H2O2(l) → 2H2O(l) + O2(g).
The total number of these species that do not have eight (Given the heat of formation of H2O2(l) and H2O(l) are –188
electrons around the central atom in its/their outermost and –286 kJ/mol respectively)
shell, is/are: 1. –196 kJ/mol 2. +196 kJ/mol
1. 1 2. 3 3. +948 kJ/mol 4. –948 kJ/mol
3. 2 4. 4
66 What is a fuel cell?
60 Which of the following is application of Henry's law?
1. Converts heats energy to chemical energy
(a) Painful condition known as bends 2. Converts heats energy to electrical energy
(b) Feeling of weakness at high altitude 3. Converts chemical energy to electrical energy
(c) Soda bottle fizzes on opening 4. Converts kinetic energy to heat energy
Mark the correct option:
1. (a) and (b) 67 For the given sequence of reactions, product Y can be:
2. (a) and (c) H N O3 Cl2

C6 H 6 −−−−→ X −−−→ Y
3. (b) only H2 SO4 F eCl3

4. (a), (b) and (c) 1. 4-Nitrochlorobenzene

2. 1-Nitrochlorobenzene
61 The correct IUPAC name of AlCl3(EtOH)4 is: 3. 3-Nitrochlorobenzene
1. Aluminium (II)Chloride-4-ethanol 4. None of the above
2. Aluminium (III)Chloride-4-ethanol
68 If an alcoholic beverage has a pH of 4.7, what is the
3. Aluminium (IV)Chloride-4-hydroxy ethane
4. Aluminium Chloride-4-ethanol concentration of OH- ions in the solution?
(Given: K
−14 2 −2
= 10 mol L )
Which is not the correct match?
w

62 1. 3 × 10−10

1 Carius method - Halogens 2. 5 × 10−10

2 Leibig's method - C and hydrogen 3. 1 × 10−10

3 Kjeldahl's method - N 2
4. 5 × 10−8

4 Lassaigne's test - O 2

69 In which of the following, the order is not in accordance

63 ΔH
o
and ΔS
o
values for a particular reaction are –60.0 with the property mentioned?
1. Li < Na < K < Rb Atomic radius
kJ and –0.200 kJ K–1 respectively. Under what conditions is
this reaction spontaneous: 2. F > N > O > C Ionisation enthalpy
1. T < 300K 3. Si < P < S < Cl Electronegativity
2. T = 300K 4. F < Cl < Br < I Electronegativity
3. T > 300K
4. All of the above 70 Assume each of the following reactions is carried out in

Which of the following is not an example of an an open container. For which reaction will Δ H be equal to Δ
64 E?
ambidentate ligand? 1. H2(g) + Br2(g) → 2HBr(g)
1. SCN ⊝
2. C(s) + 2H2O(g) →2H2(g) + CO2(g)
2. NO ⊝

2 3. PCl5(g) → PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)

3. CN ⊝
4. 2CO(g) + O2(g)→2CO2(g)
4. N̈H CH CH N̈H
2 2 2 2

9
 FINAL

71 Which of the following groups attached to the benzene 74 Which of the following is a free radical substitution
ring can exhibit a +R effect? reaction?
1. Benzene with Br / AlCl
2 3

2. Acetylene with HBr

3. Methane with Br /hv 2

1. 2. 4. Propene with HBr/(C H COO)

6 5 2

75 Which of the following actinoids have one electron in 6d

orbital?
1. Cf (Atomic number: 98)
2. Np (Atomic number: 93)
3. 4. All of the above 3. Pu (Atomic number: 94)
4. Am (Atomic number: 95)

76 In which of the following cases does chromium undergo

In Williamson's synthesis, ethoxyethane is prepared by: reduction:

72 1. CrO3 → CrOF3
1. passing ethanol over heated alumina 2. Cr3+ → Cr(OH)4¯
2. heating sodium ethoxide with ethyl bromide 3. 2CrO42¯ → Cr2O72¯
treating ethyl alcohol with an excess of H2SO4 at 430-440
3. 4. Cr3+ → CrO42¯
K
4. heating ethanol with dry Ag2O Which of the following has regular tetrahedral geometry?
77
73 Consider the following compounds/species: 1. [Ni(CN)4]–2 2. SF4
3. [BF4]– 4. XeF4

i. ii. 78 A jug contains 2L of milk. The volume of the milk in m3

is:
1. 2 × 10–3
2. 2 × 104
iii. iv. 3. 2 × 102
4. 2 × 105

79 Given is the following equation:

SnO2 + 2H2 → Sn + 2H2 O
v vi
What volume of hydrogen, measured at 1 atm and 273 K, is
required to react with 2.00 g of SnO2?
(Given: Molar mass of SnO2 = 150.71 g/mol
1. 0.00133 L
vii 2. 0.00265 L
3. 0.297 L
4. 0.595 L
The number of compounds/species which obey Huckel's rule
is:
1. 5 2. 4
3. 6 4. 2

10
 FINAL

80 The equilibrium constant (Kc) for the reaction N2(g) + 85 Which of the following reactions is used to prepare
O2(g) → 2NO(g) at temperature T is 4 × 10–4. Freon - 12?
The value of Kc for the reaction, 1. Wurtz reaction
2. Free radical halogenation
is:
1 1
NO(g) →
2
N2 ( g) +
2
O2 ( g)
3. Fitting reaction
1. 2.5 × 102 4. Swartz reaction
2. 4 × 10–4
3. 50.0 Chemistry - Section B
4. 0.02
86 Which statement accurately describes the behavior of
81 The solubility product of a sparingly soluble salt AX2 is
water in an egg when boiled?:
3. 2 × 10
−11
. Its solubility (in mol L–1) is: 1. Precipitated out.
1. 5. 6 × 10 −6
2. Adsorbed by the coagulated protein.
2. 3. 1 × 10 −4 3. Absorbed by the eggshell.
3. 2 × 10 −4 4. Both (1) and (3)
4. 4 × 10 −4

87 Carbylamine test is used to detect the presence of a

82 Given the following compound: primary amino group in an organic compound. Which of the
following compound is formed when this test is performed
with aniline?

1. 2.

The total number of primary hydrogen atoms in this

3. 4.
compound are:
1. 3
2. 15
3. 17 88 Specific conductance of 0.1 M NaCl solution is
4. 18
1.01 × 10
−2
ohm
−1
cm
−1
. Its molar conductance in
The energy of an electron in the first Bohr orbit of H ohm
−1
cm
−1
mol
−1
is
83 1. 1.01 × 10 2

atom is –13.6 eV. The possible energy value (s) of the excited 2. 1.01 × 10 3

state(s) for electrons in Bohr orbits of hydrogen is (are): 3. 1.01 × 10 4

1. –3.4 eV 4. 1.01
2. –4.2 eV
3. –6.8 eV A compound that gives two different alcohols on
4. +6.8 eV
89
reduction with LiAlH is: 4

Consider the given species and their respective 1. CH COOCH

84 3 3

2. CH COOC H
3 2 5
hybridizations: 3. CH COCH3 3
A. NO − sp
3
− 2

4. CH CHO 3
B. NH − sp
4
+ 2

C. NO − sp
2
+

The correct combination(s), out of the above, is/are:

1. A and B only
2. B and C only
3. A and C only
4. A only

11
 FINAL

90 Identify the final product [D] obtained in the following 93 Consider the following statements:
sequence of reactions: Benzal chloride in reaction with water at 373 K gives
(a)
benzoic acid.
In the Gattermann-Koch reaction, benzene is converted to
(b)
benzaldehyde.
In the Etard reaction, chromyl chloride is used as a
(c)
reagent.
The correct statements are:
1. (a) and (b) only
2. (b) and (c) only
3. (a) and (c) only
4. (a), (b), and (c)
1. HC ≡ C
−
Na
+
2.
94
Nitrogen and oxygen are the main components in
3. 4. C4 H10 Assertion: the atmosphere but these do not react to form
oxides of nitrogen.
The reaction between nitrogen and oxygen
How is the volume of solution determined Reason:
91 KMnO4
requires high temperature.
during the titration?
1. By measuring the mass of KMnO crystals used
4 1. (A) is False but (R) is True.
2. By monitoring the color change of the solution 2. Both (A) and (R) are False.
3. By titrating with a standard solution of oxalic acid Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
4. By measuring the pH of the solution 3.
explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct
92 4.
explanation of (A).

95 The standard reduction potentials of

Cu
2+
∣ Cu and Cu 2+
∣ Cu
+
are 0.337 V and 0.153V
respectively. The standard electrode potential of Cu+|Cu half
cell is:
1. 0.184 V
The compound A can be exclusively oxidized into ​B by:
2. 0.827 V
3. 0.521 V
1. NaCN, followed by hydrolysis
4. 0.490 V
2. NaOI, followed by H3O+
3. KMnO4(hot), followed by hydrolysis 96 Which of the following sequence of reagents can perform
4. K2Cr2O7, followed by H3O+ the following conversion:
?
CH3 CH2 CH2 OH ⟶ CH3 CH2 CH2 CH2 NH2

1. SOCl2 , KCN , H2 /P d

2. SOCl2 , AgCN , H2 /P d

3. P Cl5 , AgCN , H2 /P d

4. Red P/HI

12
 FINAL

97 The molecularity of the following reaction is: 102 How do Bt proteins control corn borers?
6F eSO4 + 3H2 SO4 + KCI O3 → KCI + 3F e2 (SO4 )3 + 3H2 O By making the corn plant physically tougher, resisting
1.
1. 6 borer penetration.
2. 3 By producing toxins that are ingested by the borers,
3. 10 2.
disrupting their digestive systems.
4. 7
By attracting natural predators of the corn borer to the
3.
crop.
98 Which of the following complex is optically active?
By enhancing the nutritional value of the corn, which
1. Cis – [Pt(NH3)2Cl2] 4.
indirectly affects borer larvae development.
2. Trans – [Pt(NH3)2Cl2]
3. Cis – [Pt(en)2Cl2] 103 Which of the following statements best describes
4. Trans – [Pt(en)2Cl2]
biodiversity at the genetic, species, and ecosystem levels?
Genetic diversity refers to the variety of genes within a
99 species, species diversity refers to the variety of species
1.
Assertion (A): All halogens are coloured. within a habitat, and ecosystem diversity covers different
Reason (R): Halogens absorb visible light. types of habitats.
Genetic diversity includes different ecosystems, species
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct 2. diversity includes different genes, and ecosystem diversity
1. includes different species.
explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct Genetic diversity only pertains to dominant species, while
2. 3.
explanation of (A). ecosystem diversity pertains to all living forms.
3. (A) is True but (R) is False. Species diversity is about abiotic factors, whereas
4.
ecosystem diversity focuses on biotic factors.
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.

100 The incorrect statement among the following for a 104 Which of the following is true about chloroplasts?
nucleophile is: They contain DNA, divide by binary fission, and have 70S
1.
1. Nucleophile is a Lewis acid ribosomes.
2. Ammonia is a nucleophile They lack DNA but divide by binary fission and have 80S
2.
3. Nucleophiles attack low electron density sites ribosomes.
4. Nucleophiles are not electron seeking They contain DNA, do not divide, and have 80S
3.
ribosomes.
Biology I - Section A 4. They lack DNA, do not divide, and have 70S ribosomes.

Which statement correctly describes the processes of 105 Which of the following statements is true about
101
decomposition? zoospores and gametes in brown algae?
Decomposition does not occur in waterlogged and frozen Both zoospores and gametes in brown algae are motile and
1. 1.
areas. have equal numbers of flagella.
Decomposition requires oxygen, water, and suitable Zoospores are non-motile while gametes are motile, both
2. 2.
temperatures. lacking flagella.
3. Nutrient cycling is hindered by rapid decomposition. Zoospores are motile with two flagella, while gametes are
3.
non-motile.
4. Decomposers are typically large vertebrate animals.
Zoospores and gametes are both motile and similar in the
4.
number of flagella.

13
 FINAL

106 What is the key difference between the reaction center 110 Which of the following statements about
chlorophyll molecule and other pigment molecules in a chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria is true?
photosystem? They utilize sunlight to produce organic compounds from
1.
Reaction center chlorophyll molecules are less abundant carbon dioxide.
1.
than other pigments. 2. They convert nitrogen in the atmosphere into ammonia.
Only reaction center chlorophyll molecules can transfer the They obtain energy through the oxidation of inorganic
2. 3.
excited electron to an electron acceptor. substances to fix carbon dioxide.
Other pigment molecules do not participate in the light They are primarily found in hydrothermal vents and do not
3. 4.
reactions of photosynthesis. require oxygen for survival.
Reaction center chlorophyll molecules are located in the
4. stroma, while other pigments are in the thylakoid 111 What are the distinctive features of collenchyma cells?
membrane.
1. They are elongated cells with thickened lignified cell walls.
How does RNA interference (RNAi) enable tobacco 2. They are dead cells that provide structural support.
107
They are elongated cells with unevenly thickened non-
plants to develop resistance against nematode infection? 3.
lignified cell walls.
By enhancing the expression of nematode-attracting genes
1. They contain chloroplasts and primarily function in
that trap and kill the nematode. 4.
storage.
By silencing specific genes of the nematode through
2.
double stranded RNA. What is the difference between pinnately compound and
By increasing the production of proteins that are toxic to
112
3. palmately compound leaves?
the nematodes.
By promoting faster growth of the plant, outpacing Pinnately compound leaves have leaflets arranged along
4. 1. the central axis, while palmately compound leaves have
nematode damage.
leaflets joined at a single point.
Pinnately compound leaves have leaflets arranged at a
108 Which of the following describes the steps of translation 2. single point, while palmately compound leaves are
correctly? arranged along the central axis.
mRNA binds to tRNA, which brings amino acids to the Pinnately compound leaves are always larger than
1. 3.
ribosome. palmately compound leaves.
tRNA binds to mRNA in ribosomes, and amino acids are Palmately compound leaves are typically found in aquatic
2. 4.
linked together to form proteins. environments, whereas pinnately compound leaves are not.
rRNA catalyzes peptide bond formation between amino
3.
acids. Why is ethidium bromide used to stain DNA in gel
113
mRNA is synthesized from a DNA template, which then
4. electrophoresis?
undergoes translation to form a protein.
1. It increases the DNA’s mobility through the gel.
Which of the following is a comparison between 2. It condenses the DNA to allow it to enter the gel.
109
It fluoresces under UV light, allowing visualization of
Pteridophytes and Gymnosperms? 3.
DNA bands.
1. Both reproduce sexually through seeds.
It cleaves DNA at specific bases, allowing it to be
Pteridophytes have a well-developed vascular system, 4.
2. visualized.
whereas gymnosperms do not.
Pteridophytes reproduce through spores, while How many molecules of NADH and FADH2 are
3.
gymnosperms reproduce through seeds.
114
produced in one turn of the Krebs cycle?
4. Both are non-flowering plants that reproduce asexually.
1. 3 NADH and 1 FADH2
2. 4 NADH and 2 FADH2
3. 2 NADH and 1 FADH2
4. 1 NADH and 1 FADH2

14
 FINAL

115 Place the following steps in the sexual cycle of fungi in 120 What is streptokinase used for?
the correct chronological order: 1. It is used as an antibiotic to kill bacteria.
1. Plasmogamy, Karyogamy, Meiosis 2. It is used to curdle milk in the dairy industry.
2. Karyogamy, Meiosis, Plasmogamy
It is used as a clot buster for removing clots from the blood
3. Meiosis, Plasmogamy, Karyogamy 3.
vessels.
4. Plasmogamy, Meiosis, Karyogamy
4. It is used in the production of biogas.
116 Which of the following correctly outlines the steps of
121 Which statement accurately describes the difference
the Z-scheme in photosynthesis?
Light absorption, electron excitation, electron transport, between artificial and natural systems of classification?
1. Artificial systems utilize genetic similarities, whereas
ATP synthesis. 1.
Carbon fixation, electron excitation, ATP synthesis, natural systems use morphological characteristics.
2. Artificial systems classify organisms based on a few
NADPH formation.
Electron excitation, light absorption, ATP synthesis, 2. characteristics, while natural systems consider a large
3. number of characteristics.
oxygen evolution.
ATP synthesis, light absorption, carbon fixation, electron Artificial systems classify organisms based on evolutionary
4. 3. relationships, while natural systems focus on ecological
transport.
roles.
Which of the following is a difference between Artificial systems are based on observable characteristics,
117 4.
while natural systems are more theoretical.
Mycoplasma and other bacteria?
Mycoplasma has a rigid cell wall, while other bacteria do
1.
not.
122 What is a polysome?
Mycoplasma can survive without oxygen, while other 1. A complex of DNA and proteins found in the nucleus.
2. A complex of RNA and ribosomes actively engaged in
bacteria cannot. 2.
Mycoplasma lacks a cell wall, while other bacteria have a protein synthesis.
3. 3. A storage form of polysaccharides in cells.
peptidoglycan cell wall.
4. Mycoplasma is larger in size compared to other bacteria. 4. A membrane structure involved in lipid synthesis.

118 What does polyembryony refer to? 123 Which of the following is required in a cloning vector?
Formation of a single embryo from two different pollen Origin of replication, a selectable marker, and a resistance
1. 1.
grains, e.g., apple gene
Development of multiple embryos from a single fertilized Origin of replication, a selectable marker, and a foreign
2. 2.
egg, e.g., citrus DNA insert
3. Formation of an embryo without fertilization, e.g., wheat A gene for replication, a selectable marker, and an
3.
Fusion of two embryos to form a single viable seed, e.g., antibiotic resistance gene
4. Origin of replication, a high copy number, and an antibiotic
maize 4.
resistance gene
119 Which statement correctly describes features of a
dorsiventral (dicot) leaf? 124 What does the principle of segregation in genetics state?
They have a uniform distribution of stomata on both Alleles separate so that each gamete carries only one allele
1. 1.
surfaces. for each gene.
They possess a single layer of palisade mesophyll cells on Genes for different traits can segregate independently
2. 2.
both the upper and lower sides. during the formation of gametes.
They exhibit differentiated upper and lower surfaces with Each allele in a pair segregates into a different sex
3. 3.
stomata predominantly on the lower surface. chromosome.
They are typically found in monocots and feature parallel Phenotypes segregate during gamete formation, leading to
4. 4.
venation. genetic variation.

15
 FINAL

125 What is the role of Glomus in mycorrhizal 131 Which component is directly related to ecosystem
relationships? productivity?
1. Glomus invades plant roots to cause disease. 1. Rate of plant respiration
Glomus helps plants absorb nutrients, especially Amount of available light energy converted to chemical
2. 2.
phosphorus, more efficiently. energy by photosynthesis
Glomus competes with plants for nutrients and reduces 3. Total biomass present in the ecosystem
3.
their growth. 4. Number of consumers in the ecosystem
4. Glomus fixes nitrogen in the soil around plant roots.
132 What are adventitious roots and what is their primary
126 What did the Hershey-Chase experiment conclusively
function?
show? Roots that grow from the stem and are used for
1.
1. DNA is the genetic material in bacteria. photosynthesis.
2. Protein is the genetic material. 2. Roots that grow from the leaves and help in propagation.
3. RNA is the genetic material in viruses. Roots that grow from parts of the plant other than the
3.
DNA and proteins are equally important as genetic radicle and help in support.
4.
material. Roots that grow directly from the seed and absorb
4.
nutrients.
127 What are the typical floral features of the Poaceae
133 Why is an orchid growing as an epiphyte on a mango
family?
1. Flowers are typically large with brightly colored petals. tree not considered parasitism?
Flowers are small, wind-pollinated with reduced or absent Because the orchid harms the mango tree by extracting
2. 1.
petals. nutrients.
3. Flowers are often bisexual with a superior ovary. Because the orchid provides essential nutrients to the
2.
Flowers display radial symmetry with a large number of mango tree.
4. Because the orchid does not extract nutrients from the
stamens. 3.
mango tree, merely using it as a physical support.
128 What would be the effect on the lac operon of a 4. Because the mango tree derives nutrients from the orchid.
mutation in the lacZ gene?
134 At what stage are pollen grains typically shed from the
1. It would prevent the operon from being turned off.
2. It would result in the inability to metabolize lactose. anther in most angiosperms?
1. At two-celled stage
It would enhance the binding of the repressor to the
3. 2. At three-celled stage
operator.
3. Just after mitosis
4. It would prevent the repressor from binding to the operator. 4. When the pollen tube forms

129 What is the primary function of restriction enzymes in

135 What defines an epigynous flower?
biotechnology? The ovary is positioned above the other floral parts and an
1. They cut DNA at random sites. 1.
example is the rose.
2. They join fragments of DNA together. The ovary is positioned below the other floral parts and an
2.
They cut DNA at specific sequences to create sticky or example is the cucumber.
3.
blunt ends. The ovary is positioned above the other floral parts and an
3.
4. They amplify DNA fragments for cloning. example is the peach.
The ovary is positioned below the other floral parts and an
Identify the parts of a typical monocot seed: 4.
130 example is the mustard.
1. Seed coat, endosperm, radicle
2. Cotyledon, testa, radicle
3. Coleoptile, coleorhiza, endosperm
4. Tegmen, coleoptile, coleorhiza

16
 FINAL

Biology I - Section B 139 Consider the given two statements:

Assertion Pleiotropy occurs when one gene influences
136 Match the following cells with their appropriate ploidy (A): multiple phenotypic traits.
level: The gene product is involved in multiple
Reason
Column A Column B biochemical pathways or affects several body
(R):
systems.
1. Pollen mother A. Haploid (n)
cell
2. Endosperm B. Diploid (2n) Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
1.
3. Egg cell C. Triploid (3n) explanation of (A).
4. Synergids Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct
2.
Options: explanation of (A).
1. 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-A 3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
2. 1-B, 2-C, 3-A, 4-A 4. (A) is False but (R) is True.
3. 1-B, 2-A, 3-C, 4-B
4. 1-A, 2-C, 3-A, 4-A Consider the given two statements:
140
Consider the given two statements: The strength of linkage between two genes is
137
Assertion (A): directly proportional to the distance between
Plant development is considered 'open' because them on the chromosome.
Assertion
plants retain the ability to form new organs
(A): Genes that are farther apart are less likely to
throughout their life. Reason (R):
be separated by recombination.
Reason
Plants exhibit phenotypic plasticity.
(R):
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
1.
explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
1. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A). 2.
explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct
2. 3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
explanation of (A).
4. (A) is False, (R) is False.
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. (A) is False but (R) is True. Consider the given two statements:
141
Consider the given two statements: Assertion Kranz anatomy is crucial for the efficiency of
138
(A): C4 plants.
Assertion
Gibberellins are used for apple shaping. Reason Kranz anatomy allows for a higher concentration
(A):
(R): of carbon dioxide at the site of the Calvin cycle.
Reason Gibberellins stimulate the elongation of apple
(R): cells, enhancing their symmetry and size.
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
1.
explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
1. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A). 2.
explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct
2. 3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
explanation of (A).
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.

17
 FINAL

142 Match the following taxonomic categories of wheat 146 Match the following plant growth regulators with their
(Triticum aestivum) with their correct descriptions. functions as given in NCERT:
Column A Column B Column A Column B
1. Kingdom A. Poales 1. Auxins A. Stimulate cell division and
2. Order B. Plantae growth of lateral buds
3. Family C. Triticum 2. Cytokinins B. Promote stem elongation
4. Genus D. Poaceae and fruit growth
5. Species E. aestivum 3. Gibberellins C. Promote cell enlargement
Options: and stem elongation
1. 1-B, 2-D, 3-A, 4-C, 5-E Options:
2. 1-D, 2-B, 3-A, 4-E, 5-C 1. 1-B, 2-C, 3-A
3. 1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C, 5-E 2. 1-C, 2-A, 3-B
4. 1-A, 2-D, 3-C, 4-B, 5-E 3. 1-A, 2-B, 3-C
4. 1-B, 2-A, 3-C
143 Consider the given two statements:
147 Consider the given two statements:
Assertion An inverted pyramid of biomass in aquatic
(A): ecosystems is not a paradox. Assertion Naturally fermented alcohols have a maximum
Reason Pyramid of biomass is always inverted in all (A): of 13% alcohol concentration.
(R): ecosystems. Reason At higher concentrations, alcohol becomes fatal
(R): for consumption by humans.
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A). 1.
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A). 2.
3. (A) is True but (R) is False. explanation of (A).
4. (A) is False but (R) is True. 3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.
144 Match the following secondary metabolites with their
148 Consider the given two statements:
examples as given in the table of NCERT:
Column A Column B Assertion ATP is considered the energy currency of the
1. Alkaloids A. Tannins (A): cell.
2. Terpenoids B. Rubber Reason (R): ATP stores energy in its phosphate bonds.
3. Polyphenols C. Caffeine
Options: Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
1. 1-A, 2-B, 3-C 1.
explanation of (A).
2. 1-C, 2-A, 3-B Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct
3. 1-B, 2-C, 3-A 2.
explanation of (A).
4. 1-C, 2-B, 3-A
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
Consider the given two statements: 4. (A) is False but (R) is True.
145
Ex situ conservation is better for conserving
Assertion (A):
organisms facing high threats of extinction.
Ex situ conservation allows for controlled
Reason (R): breeding and management away from natural
predators and competitors.

Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
1.
explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct
2.
explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.

18
 FINAL

149 Consider the given two statements: 153 Why is the father responsible for determining the sex of
Assertion the child?
Both strands of DNA are not transcribed.
(A): Because the father's sperm determines the zygote's sex
1.
Transcribing both strands would create chromosome composition.
Reason complementary RNA molecules that would bind Because the father's genetic material activates sex-
2.
(R): to each other and interfere with normal cell determining genes.
processes. 3. Because the mother always provides an X chromosome.
4. Because the father's phenotype influences the child's sex.
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
1.
explanation of (A). Where does fertilization typically occur in the human
154
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct
2. female reproductive tract?
explanation of (A).
1. Fundus of Uterus
3. (A) is True but (R) is False. 2. Cervix
4. (A) is False but (R) is True. 3. Ampulla of Fallopian tube
4. Vagina
150 Match the following scientists with their contributions
155 What does metamerism mean in the context of the
to the study of photosynthesis:
Column A Column B animal kingdom?
1. Priestley A. Proposed that water is split in 1. Presence of a segmented body plan
the process of photosynthesis. 2. Ability to regenerate lost body parts
2. Engelmann B. Demonstrated that oxygen is 3. Development from metamorphic larvae to adults
produced from plants
4. Display of multiple types of symmetry during the lifecycle
exposed to light.
3. Van Niel C. Used a prism to show that
different wavelengths of light 156 Which of the following describes a morula?
affect oxygen production 1. A single-celled zygote
differently. 2. A blastocyst ready to implant
4. Ingenhousz D. Discovered that plants release 3. A solid ball of cells formed from a zygote
oxygen. 4. The stage immediately after fertilization
Options:
1. 1-D, 2-B, 3-C, 4-A 157 What is the main difference between Ramapithecus and
2. 1-B, 2-D, 3-A, 4-C Dryopithecus?
3. 1-D, 2-C, 3-A, 4-B Ramapithecus is considered more closely related to modern
4. 1-C, 2-A, 3-B, 4-D 1.
humans than Dryopithecus.
Dryopithecus is an ancestor of gorillas, while
Biology II - Section A 2.
Ramapithecus is an ancestor of orangutans.
Ramapithecus lived in Africa, while Dryopithecus lived in
3.
151 What led to the extinction of the passenger pigeon? Asia.
1. Natural predators overwhelmed their populations. Dryopithecus is more closely related to modern humans
4.
2. Disease wiped out the entire species. than Ramapithecus.
3. Extensive hunting and habitat destruction by humans.
4. They could not adapt to climate change. 158 Which statement about the limbic system is correct?
The limbic system is primarily involved in controlling
152 What is the ultrastructure of a centriole? 1.
voluntary movements.
A cylinder composed of nine triplets of microtubules with It is primarily responsible for the regulation of vision and
1. 2.
no central microtubules. hearing.
2. A hollow tube formed by nine pairs of microtubules. The limbic system is involved in emotion, memory, and
3.
3. A structure consisting of nine doublets of microtubules. arousal.
A ring composed of thirteen protofilaments without It coordinates high cognitive functions like reasoning and
4. 4.
tubulin. language.

19
 FINAL

159 What are the main differences between Chondrichthyes 164 Which of the following statements correctly describes
and Osteichthyes? the skin of a frog?
Chondrichthyes have a bony skeleton, while Osteichthyes The skin of frogs is dry and scaly, providing protection
1. 1.
have a cartilaginous skeleton. against predators.
Chondrichthyes are primarily freshwater fish, while Frogs have a moist skin covered with mucous glands that
2.
Osteichthyes are mainly marine. 2. helps in respiration and protection against bacterial
Chondrichthyes have an operculum covering the gills, infection.
3.
while Osteichthyes do not. The skin of frogs is adapted to absorb water directly,
3.
Chondrichthyes have a cartilaginous skeleton, while eliminating the need for drinking.
4.
Osteichthyes have a bony skeleton. Frogs possess a thick, keratinized skin that aids in
4.
terrestrial survival during dry conditions.
160 What are the sequential steps in the formation and
breakage of a cross-bridge in muscle contraction? 165 What does metastasis mean in the context of cancer?
Myosin head hydrolyzes ATP, attaches to actin, performs a 1. Rapid cell division and tumor formation.
1.
power stroke, and releases ADP. The process by which cancer cells spread from the original
2.
Myosin head binds to ATP, detaches from actin, hydrolyzes site to other parts of the body.
2.
ATP, and reattaches to actin. 3. Mutation of normal cells into cancerous cells.
Myosin head releases ADP, binds to ATP, detaches from 4. Shrinkage and disappearance of tumors.
3.
actin, and hydrolyzes ATP.
Myosin head attaches to actin, performs a power stroke, 166 Which of the following is an example of life history
4.
binds ATP, and then detaches from actin.
variation in organisms?
How does Atrial Natriuretic Factor (ANF) oppose the I: Turtles lay hundreds of eggs in sandy beaches.
161 II: Elephants living up to 70 years and having few offspring.
Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone System (RAAS)?
Bacteria dividing every 20 minutes under optimal
1. ANF increases blood pressure and blood volume. III:
conditions.
ANF causes vasodilation leading to decrease in blood 1. I and II only
2.
pressure. 2. II and III only
ANF increases the reabsorption of sodium in the distal 3. I and III only
3.
convoluted tubule. 4. I, II and III
4. ANF promotes the secretion of renin from the kidneys.
167 What does the 'founder effect' describe?
162 Which of the following is not a mode of transmission of
1. The impact of new mutations in a small population.
HIV? The effect of a dominant individual founding a new
1. Blood transfusions 2.
population.
2. Sharing needles The loss of genetic variation when a new colony is formed
3. Casual contact 3. by a very small number of individuals from a larger
4. Sexual contact population.
Which statement is correct regarding oogenesis in 4. The influence of a new environment on a small population.
163
humans?
1. Oogenesis begins before birth in females.
2. A secondary oocyte forms after fertilization.
3. Primary oocytes are arrested in prophase II until puberty.
4. Oogenesis occurs continuously after puberty.

20
 FINAL

168 What is the difference between active and passive 174 Which statement is true regarding the types of ribs in
immunity? humans?
Active immunity involves antibodies produced by another 1. All ribs are connected directly to the sternum.
1. organism, while passive immunity involves self-produced True ribs connect directly to the sternum via their own
antibodies. 2.
costal cartilages, while false ribs share cartilages.
Active immunity is immediate, whereas passive immunity All ribs are termed false ribs because they do not attach to
2. 3.
requires a period of time to develop. the sternum.
Active immunity results from the introduction of antigens Floating ribs are attached to the vertebral column only and
into the body, leading to antibody production, while 4.
3. do not have any cartilage.
passive immunity involves the direct transfer of antibodies
from one individual to another. How does a copper-releasing IUD act as a
175
Active immunity lasts for a short period, while passive
4. contraceptive?
immunity lasts for a lifetime.
1. By preventing the implantation of the embryo in the uterus
What are some of the ill effects of nicotine and 2. By inhibiting ovulation
169
3. By increasing the thickness of cervical mucus
smoking?
4. By suppressing sperm motility and their fertilising capacity
1. Increased risk of osteoporosis and arthritis.
2. Decreased blood pressure and reduced anxiety. What is an advantage of recombinant insulin over
3. Increased risk of cardiovascular diseases and lung cancer.
176
insulin obtained from animal sources?
Improved pulmonary function and decreased risk of
4. Recombinant insulin is cheaper to produce and more
respiratory infections. 1.
ethical.
It is identical to human insulin, reducing allergic reactions
170 What is an Expressed Sequence Tag (EST)? 2.
and increasing efficacy.
A short sub-sequence of a cDNA sequence that may be 3. It can be orally ingested instead of injected.
1.
used to identify gene transcripts
4. It has a longer shelf-life.
2. A tag used to identify expression levels of genes.
3. A DNA sequence that causes termination of transcription. Which of the following layers are found in the
177
4. A sequence tag used to identify proteins.
respiratory diffusion membrane?
Capillary endothelium, alveolar epithelium, and basement
171 What is the difference between GIFT and ZIFT? 1.
membrane
GIFT involves transferring gametes into the fallopian tube, Alveolar epithelium, alveolar macrophages, and capillary
1. 2.
ZIFT involves transferring zygotes into the fallopian tube. endothelium
GIFT involves transferring zygotes into the uterus, ZIFT Mucous layer, alveolar epithelium, and capillary
2. 3.
involves transferring gametes into the uterus. endothelium
GIFT and ZIFT, both involve transferring embryos into the Basement membrane, mucous layer, and alveolar
3. 4.
uterus at different stages. macrophages
There is no difference; GIFT and ZIFT are the same
4.
procedures. 178 Which statement accurately describes the types of
muscle tissue and their differentiating features?
172 What is the primary composition of seminal plasma? Skeletal muscle is involuntary and striated, cardiac muscle
1. Spermatozoa and enzymes 1. is voluntary and striated, and smooth muscle is involuntary
2. Fructose, enzymes, and prostaglandins and non-striated.
3. Only spermatozoa and fructose Skeletal muscle is voluntary and striated, cardiac muscle is
4. Proteins and spermatozoa 2. involuntary and striated, and smooth muscle is involuntary
and non-striated.
173 Which of the following is a key feature of mollusks? All muscle types are involuntary, but only skeletal and
1. Presence of a chitinous exoskeleton 3.
cardiac muscles are striated.
2. Development of a mantle All muscle types are striated, but only skeletal and smooth
3. Radial symmetry and a sessile lifestyle 4.
muscles are voluntary.
4. Lack of a true coelom

21
 FINAL

179 Which of the following is a correct statement about the 185 What was significant about Darwin's finches?
structure of a multipolar neuron? 1. They proved that finches could fly.
1. Neurons contain a single axon and several dendrites. 2. They showed that different species could interbreed.
2. Neurons do not have a nucleus in the cell body. They demonstrated that species could evolve from a
3.
3. The axon transmits electrical signals towards the cell body. common ancestor.
4. Dendrites do not play a role in signal reception. 4. They were all the same species.

180 In Darwinian terms, what does 'fitness' refer to?

Biology II - Section B
1. The physical strength and size of an organism.
An organism's ability to survive and reproduce in its 186 Consider the given two statements:
2.
environment.
Assertion The thoracic chamber, being airtight, is critical
3. The number of mutations an organism accumulates. (A): for breathing.
4. An organism's speed and agility. Movement of rib cage can bring about
Reason (R):
inhalation and exhalation.
181 Which statement is true about sickle cell anemia?
It is caused by a mutation that results in a valine to Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
1. 1.
glutamic acid substitution in hemoglobin. explanation of (A).
2. It is inherited as an autosomal recessive condition. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct
2.
Individuals with one sickle cell allele are typically severely explanation of (A).
3. 3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
affected.
Sickle cell anemia results from a deletion mutation in the 4. (A) is False but (R) is True.
4.
hemoglobin gene.
187 If a mother is a carrier for an X-linked recessive disease
182 Which statement correctly relates to body symmetry and the father is unaffected, what is the probability of their
with examples in the animal kingdom? child being affected?
Radial symmetry is found in annelids, allowing them to 1. 25%, if the child is male; 25%, if the child is female
1. 2. 50%, if the child is male; 0%, if the child is female
move in any direction.
3. 50%, if the child is male; 25%, if the child is female
2. Bilateral symmetry is present in cnidarians like jellyfish.
4. 25%, if the child is male; 0%, if the child is female
Bilateral symmetry is characteristic of vertebrates like
3.
humans, allowing for directional movement. Consider the given two statements:
188
Asymmetry is commonly seen in vertebrates, providing
4. Assertion
varied evolutionary advantages. The human heart is myogenic.
(A):
Which statement is correct regarding sexually Heartbeat is initiated by a group of specialized
183 Reason
cardiac muscle cells known as the sinoatrial
transmitted infections? (R):
node.
1. They can only be transmitted through sexual contact.
2. They are always symptomatic.
3. They can be bacterial, viral, or protozoan. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
1.
4. They are treatable with a single dose of antibiotics. explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct
2.
184 What characterizes the secondary structure of proteins? explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
1. It is the sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide chain.
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.
It includes α-helices and β-pleated sheets formed by
2.
hydrogen bonds.
It represents the overall three-dimensional structure of a
3.
single polypeptide.
It involves interactions between different polypeptide
4.
chains or subunits.

22
 FINAL

189 Consider the given two statements: 192 Which of the following statements accurately describes
Assertion Massive swelling in the limbs is a common the regulation of cardiac activity by the autonomic nervous
(A): symptom of filariasis. system?
Reason It is caused by the immune reaction to the The sympathetic nervous system decreases heart rate and
1.
(R): filarial worms clogging the lymphatic system. force of contraction.
The parasympathetic nervous system increases heart rate
2.
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct and decreases force of contraction.
1.
explanation of (A). The sympathetic nervous system increases heart rate and
3.
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct force of contraction.
2.
explanation of (A). The parasympathetic nervous system increases both heart
4.
3. (A) is True but (R) is False. rate and force of contraction.
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.
193 Consider the given two statements:

190 Consider the given two statements: Assertion Phospholipids are important for cell membrane
(A): structure.
Steroid hormones act by entering the cell and
Assertion Phospholipids provide energy for cellular
directly influencing the expression of target Reason (R):
(A): processes.
genes.
Reason Steroid hormones bind to the surface receptors
(R): and activate second messenger systems. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
1.
explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct
1. 2.
explanation of (A). explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct 3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
2.
explanation of (A). 4. (A) is False but (R) is True.
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
194 Which statement about transgenic animals used in
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.
testing vaccine safety is correct?
191 Consider the given two statements: Transgenic animals are primarily used because they
1.
reproduce more quickly.
The thick segment of the ascending limb of the
Assertion They are genetically modified to have immune systems
loop of Henle is important in the concentration 2.
(A): that mimic human responses.
of urine.
Reason This segment is highly permeable to water, Transgenic animals are less expensive to maintain
3.
(R): allowing for maximum water reabsorption. compared to non-transgenic animals.
They are used because they do not require ethical approval
4.
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct for experiments.
1.
explanation of (A).
195 Consider the given two statements:
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct
2.
explanation of (A). Assertion Frogs undergo summer sleep and winter
3. (A) is True but (R) is False. (A): sleep.
4. (A) is False but (R) is True. Reason (R): Frogs are endotherms.

Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
1.
explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct
2.
explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.

23
 FINAL

196 Match the following diseases with their causes: 199 Match the following major plasma proteins with their
Column A Column B functions:
1. Acromegaly A. Deficiency of Column A Column B
vasopressin (ADH) 1. Albumin A. Blood clotting
2. Cushing's disease B. Excess secretion of 2. Globulin B. Colloid osmotic pressure
growth hormone 3. Fibrinogen C. Immune responses
3. Diabetes mellitus C. Insulin deficiency or Options:
resistance 1. 1-B, 2-A, 3-C
4. Diabetes D. Excess cortisol 2. 1-A, 2-B, 3-C
insipidus production 3. 1-C, 2-A, 3-B
Options: 4. 1-B, 2-C, 3-A
1. 1-C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-B
2. 1-D, 2-B, 3-A, 4-C 200 Match the following common infectious diseases with
3. 1-B, 2-D, 3-C, 4-A their causative agents:
4. 1-A, 2-C, 3-B, 4-D Column A Column B
1. Tuberculosis A. Plasmodium
197 Consider the given two statements:
2. Malaria B. HIV
Assertion Mitochondria are not considered as a part of the 3. AIDS C. Salmonella
(A): endomembrane system. 4. Typhoid D. Mycobacterium
Reason Mitochondria is bound only by a single Options:
(R): membrane. 1. 1-B, 2-C, 3-D, 4-A
2. 1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct 3. 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D
1. 4. 1-D, 2-A, 3-B, 4-C
explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct
2.
explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.

198 Consider the given two statements:

Assertion Estrogen is important in the preovulatory phase
(A): of the menstrual cycle.
Estrogen helps endometrium regeneration
Reason
through proliferation and is responsible for LH
(R):
surge.

Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
1.
explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct
2.
explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.

24
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK