Test-18 Main PYP Question
Test-18 Main PYP Question
TEST - 18
MAIN
JEE-MAIN PAPER
25TH JUNE-2022 (Evening)
DURATION ::180
DURATION Minutes
90 Minutes M.MARKS : 300
Topics Covered
Physics: Full Syllabus
Chemistry: Full Syllabus
Mathematics: Full Syllabus
General Instructions:
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the test booklet.
2. The test is of 3 hours duration.
3. The test booklet consists of 75 questions. The maximum marks are 300.
4. There are three Sections in the question paper, Section I, II & III consisting of Section-I (Physics), Section-II
(Chemistry), Section-III (Mathematics) and having 25 questions in each part in which first 20 questions are of
Objective Type and Last 5 questions are integers type and all 25 questions are compulsory.
5. There is only one correct response for each question.
6. Each correct answer will give 4 marks while 1 Mark will be deducted for a wrong MCQ response.
7. No student is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, any
electronic device, etc. inside the examination room/hall.
8. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall.
However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
9. Do not fold or make any stray mark on the Answer Sheet (OMR).
OMR Instructions:
1. Use blue/black dark ballpoint pens.
2. Darken the bubbles completely. Don't put a tick mark or a cross mark where it is specified that you fill the bubbles
completely. Half-filled or over-filled bubbles will not be read by the software.
3. Never use pencils to mark your answers.
4. Never use whiteners to rectify filling errors as they may disrupt the scanning and evaluation process.
5. Writing on the OMR Sheet is permitted on the specified area only and even small marks other than the specified area
may create problems during the evaluation.
6. Multiple markings will be treated as invalid responses.
7. Do not fold or make any stray mark on the Answer Sheet (OMR).
[1]
SECTION-I (PHYSICS)
Single Correct Type Questions (1-20): 5. A copper block of mass 5.0kg is heated to a
1. Given below are two statements. One is labelled as temperature of 500 C and is placed on a large ice
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. block. What is the maximum amount of ice that can
Assertion A: Two identical balls A and B thrown melt?
with same velocity ' u ' at two different angles with
[Specific heat of copper: 0.39 Jg −1 C−1 and latent
horizontal attained the same range R . If A and B
reached the maximum height h1 and h2 heat of fusion of water: 335Jg −1 ]
(1) 1.5 kg (2) 5.8 kg
respectively, then R = 4 h1h2
(3) 2.9 kg (4) 3.8 kg
Reason R: Product of said heights.
u 2sin 2 u 2cos2 Cp
h1h2 =
2 g 2 g 6. The ratio of specific heats in terms of
Cv
Choose the correct answer: degree of freedom (f) is given by:
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
f 2
explanation of A . (1) 1 + (2) 1 +
(2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the 3 f
correct explanation of A . f 1
(3) 1 + (4) 1 +
(3) A is true but R is false. 2 f
(4) A is false but R is true.
7. For a particle in uniform circular motion, the
2. Two buses P and Q start from a point at the same
acceleration a at any point P ( R, ) on the
time and move in a straight line and their positions
are represented by XP(t)=t+t2 and XQ(t) = ft − t2. circular path of radius R is (when is measured
At what time, both the buses have same velocity? from the positive x -axis and v is uniform speed) :
α− f α+ f v2 v2
(1) (2) (1) − sinθi + cosθˆj
1+ β 2 ( β − 1) R R
α+ f f −α v2 v2
(3) (4) (2) − cosθi + sinθˆj
2 (1 + β ) 2 (1 + β ) R R
v2 v2
(3) − cosθi − sinθˆj
3. There is a disc with a flat small bottom. A beaker R R
placed on it at a distance R from its center is v2 v2 ˆ
revolving about an axis passing through the center (4) − i+ j
R R
and perpendicular to its plane with an angular
velocity ω . The coefficient of static friction 8. Two metallic plates form a parallel plate capacitor.
between the bottom of the beaker and the surface of The distance between the plates is ' d '. A metal
the disc is . The beaker will revolve with the disc d
sheet of thickness and of area equal to area of
if: 2
μg μg each plate is introduced between the plates. What
(1) R 2
(2) R
2ω ω2 will be ratio of the new capacitance to the original
μg μg capacitance of the capacitor?
(3) R (4) R (1) 2 :1 (2) 1: 2
2ω2 ω2
(3) 1: 4 (4) 4 :1
4. A solid metallic cube having total surface area
9. Two cells of same emf but different internal
24m 2 is uniformly heated. If its temperature is
resistance r1 and r2 are connected in series with a
increased by 10 C , calculate the increase in
resistance R . The value of resistance R , for which
volume of the cube. the potential difference across second cell is zero,
(Given = 5.0 10−4 C−1 ). is:
(1) 2.4 106 cm3 (2) 1.2 105 cm3 (1) r2 − r1 (2) r1 − r2
(3) 6.0 104 cm3 (4) 4.8 105 cm3 (3) r1 (4) r2
[2]
10. A long solenoid carrying a current produces a 16. Which of the following figure represents the
magnetic field B along its axis. If the current is R
doubled and the number of turns per cm is halved, variation of ln with ln A (if R = radius of
the new value of magnetic field will be equal to R0
(1) B (2) 2B a nucleus and A = its mass number)
B Figure
(3) 4B (4)
2
(1)
11. A sinusoidal voltage V ( t ) = 210sin3000t volt is
applied to a series LCR circuit in which
L = 10mH , C = 25μF and R = 100Ω . The phase
(2)
difference ( ) between the applied voltage and
resultant current will be:
(1) tan −1 ( 0.17 ) (2) tan −1 ( 9.46 )
(3)
(3) tan −1 ( 0.30 ) (4) tan −1 (13.33)
[3]
Integer Type Questions (21-25): 23. Two satellites S1 and S2 are revolving in circular
orbits around a planet with radius R1 = 3200km
21. A block of mass 200g is kept stationary on a smooth
and R2 = 800km respectively. The ratio of speed
inclined plane by applying a minimum horizontal
of satellite S1 to the speed of satellite S2 in their
force F = xN as shown in figure. Find x. 1
respective orbits would be where x =
x
24. 27 identical drops are charged at 22V each. They
combine to form a bigger drop. The potential of the
bigger drop will be.......V.
[4]
SECTION-II (CHEMISTRY)
Single Correct Type Question (26-45) 32. Among the following, the aromatic compounds
26. The minimum energy that must be possessed by are;
photons in order to produce the photoelectric
effect with platinum metal is: (A) (B)
[Given: The threshold frequency of platinum is
1.3 1015 s −1 and h = 6.6 10−34 J s .]
(C) (D)
(1) 3.21 10−14 J (2) 6.24 10−16 J
(3) 8.58 10−19 J (4) 9.76 10−20 J Choose the correct answer from the following
options.
27. At 25 C and 1 atm pressure, the enthalpy of (1) Only (A) and (B) (2) Only (B) and (C)
combustion of benzene (l) and acetylene (g) are (3) (B), (C) and (D) (4) (A), (B) and (C)
(4) −732 kJ mol−1 In the light of the above statements choose the
correct answer from the options given below:
28. Solute A associates in water. When 0.7g of solute (1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
A is dissolved in 42.0g of water it depresses the explanation of A .
freezing point by 0.2°C. The percentage (2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the
association of solute A in water, is correct explanation of A .
[Given: Molar mass of A = 93g mol–1. Molal (3) A is true but R is false.
depression constant of water is 1.86 K kg mol−1 .] (4) A is false but R is true.
(1) 50% (2) 60%
(3) 70% (4) 80% 34. The correct order of reduction potentials of the
following pairs is
29. The Ksp for bismuth sulphide (Bi 2S3 ) is A. Cl2 / Cl − B. I2 / I−
1.08 10−73 . The solubility of Bi 2S3 in molL−1 at C. Ag + / Ag D. Na + / Na
298 K is
E. Li + / Li
(1) 1.0 10−15 (2) 2.7 10−12 Choose the correct answer from the options given
(3) 3.2 10−10 (4) 4.2 10 −8 below
(1) A C B D > E
30. Which pair of oxides is acidic in nature? (2) A B C D E
(1) B2O3; CaO (3) A C B E D
(2) B2O3; SiO2 (4) A B C E D
(3) N2O; BaO
(4) CaO; SiO2 35. The number of bridged oxygen atoms present in
compound B formed from the following reactions
31. The correct order of electron gain enthalpies of
is
Cl, F, Te and Po is
Pb ( NO3 )2 ⎯⎯⎯→ A + PbO + O2
673 K
(1) F Cl Te Po
(2) Po Te F Cl Dimerise
A ⎯⎯⎯⎯→ B
(3) Te Po Cl F
(1) 0 (2) 1
(4) Cl F Te Po
(3) 2 (4) 3
[5]
36. The metal ion (in gaseous state) with lowest spin- 41. In the given reaction
only magnetic moment value is:
(1) V 2 + (2) Ni 2 +
(i) 2Mg,THF
(3) Cr 2 + (4) Fe 2 + 2A ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→
(ii) Methylbenzoate
(iii) H 2O/H +
38. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as (3) cyclohexyl bromide
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. (4) methyl bromide
Assertion A: A mixture contains benzoic acid and
naphthalene. The pure benzoic acid can be
42. Which of the following condition or reaction
separated out by the use of benzene.
sequence will NOT given acetophenone as the
Reason R: Benzoic acid is soluble in hot water.
major product?
In the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the options given
below: (1) (a) (b) Na2Cr2O7, H+
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A.
(2) (a) (b) PCC, DCM
(2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the
correct explanation of A .
(3) A is true but R is false. (3)
(4) A is false but R is true
(4)
39. During halogen test, sodium fusion extract is
boiled with concentrated HNO3 to
(1) remove unreacted sodium 43. The major product formed in the following
(2) decompose cyanide or sulphide of sodium reaction, is
(3) extract halogen from organic compound
(4) maintain the pH of extract.
Br
⎯⎯⎯⎯
2 →
Major Product (2)
CH3OH
[6]
44. Which of the following ketone will NOT give 47. At 345 K, the half-life for the decomposition of a
enamine on treatment with secondary amine? sample of a gaseous compound initially at 55.5 kPa
[Where t- Bu is −C ( CH3 )3 ] was 340s. When the pressure was 27.8 kPa, the
half-life was found to be 170s. The order of the
reaction is___________. [integer answer]
(1) (2)
48. A solution of Fe2 ( SO4 )3 is electrolyzed for 'x'
min with a current of 1.5A to deposit 0.3482g of
Fe. The value of x is__________ [nearest integer]
(3) (4)
Given: 1 F = 96500Cmol−1 Atomic mass of
−1
Fe = 56 g mol
45. The type of hybridisation and magnetic property
of [MnCl6]3 are; 49. Amongst FeCl3 3H 2O, K 3 Fe(CN)6 and
(1) sp3d2 diamagnetic
Co ( NH3 ) Cl3 , the spin- only magnetic
(2) d2sp3 diamagnetic 6
(3) d2sp3 paramagnetic moment value of the inner- orbital complex that
(4) dp3d2; paramagnetic absorbs light at shortest wavelength is_______
B.M [nearest integer]
Integer Type Question (46-50):
50. The neutralisation occurs when 10 mL of 0.1 M
46. Amongst BeF2 , BF3 , H 2O, NH3 ,CCl4 and HCl,
acid 'A' is allowed to react with 30 mL of 0.05 M
the number of molecules with non-zero net dipole
base M(OH) 2 . The basicity of the acid 'A'
moment is__________.
is________. [ M is a metal]
[7]
SECTION-III (MATHEMATICS)
Single Correct Type Questions (51 – 70) 56. The area of the region enclosed between the
51. Let A = {x R : x + 1 2} and parabolas y 2 = 2 x − 1 and y 2 = 4 x − 3 is
B = x R : x − 1 2 . Then which one of the 1 1
(1) (2)
following statements is NOT true? 3 6
(1) A − B = ( −1,1)
2 3
(3) (4)
3 4
(2) B − A = R − ( −3,1)
(3) A B = ( −3, −1 57. The coefficient of x101 in the expression
(4) A B = R − 1,3) (5 + x)500 + x(5 + x)499 + x 2 (5 + x)498
+... + x500 , x 0 , is
52. Let a, b R be such that the equation
501
(1) C101 (5)399 (2) 501
C101 (5) 400
ax − 2bx + 15 = 0 has a repeated root α . If α
2
501
and β are the roots of the equation (3) C100 (5) 400 (4) 500
C101 (5)399
[8]
61. If y = y(x) is the solution of the differential x2 y 2
66. The line y = x + 1 meets the ellipse + =1
dy 4 2
equation 2 x2 − 2 xy + 3 y 2 = 0 such that
dx at two points P and Q . If r is the radius of the
e
y (e) = , then y(1) is equal to circle with PQ as diameter then (3r ) 2 is equal to:
3
(1) 20 (2) 12
1 2
(1) (2) (3) 11 (4) 8
3 3
( ) ( ).
3
Let A = 2 −2 and B = −1 2
(3) (4) 3
2 67. Then the
1 −1 −1 2
(1)
(
5 1− 3 ) (2)
1− 5 (3) 64 (4) 67
4 8
b3
( ) ( )
69. The value of for which
3 1− 5 3 1− 5 b
(3) (4) 1 49
12 dx = log e , is equal to.
( )( )
2 4
3 x −1 x − 4
2 2 40
64. A biased
die is marked with numbers (1) 2 (2) 4
2, 4,8,16,32,32 on its faces and the probability of (3) 6 (4) 8
1
getting a face with mark n is . If the die is 70. If the sum of the co-efficients of all the positive
n
even powers of x in the binomial expansion of
thrown thrice, then the probability, that the sum of 10
3 3
the numbers obtained is 48, is: 2x + is 510 − β 39 , then β is equal to.......
7 7 x
(1) 11
(2) (1) 83 (2) 96
2 212
(3) 109 (4) 126
3 13
(3) 10
(4)
2 212 Integer Type Questions (71 – 75)
71. If the mean deviation about the mean of the
15π 5 ( n + 1)
cos 4 − 1 numbers 1, 2,3,, n , where n is odd, is
65. The value of tan −1 is equal to: ,
n
π
sin 4 then n is equal to...........
π π
(1) − (2) − 72. Let b = iˆ + ˆj + kˆ, R . If a is a vector such
4 8
5π 4π that a b = 13iˆ − ˆj − 4kˆ and a b + 21 = 0 , then
(3) − (4) −
12 9
( b − a ) ( kˆ − ˆj ) + (b + a ) (iˆ − kˆ ) is equal to
[9]
73. The total number of three-digit numbers, with one 75. Let 1 be the line in xy-plane with x and y
digit repeated exactly two times, is............. 1 1
intercepts and respectively, and 2 be
8 4 2
( )
1
74. Let f ( x ) = ( x − 1) x 2 − 2 x − 3 + x − 3, x R . If the line in zx-plane with x and z intercepts − and
8
m and M are respectively the number of points 1
− respectively. If d is the shortest distance
of local minimum and local maximum of f in the 6 3
, then d −2 is equal
interval ( 0, 4 ) , then m + M is equal to...........
between the line 1 and 2
to............
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[10]