1.

Locate position of centre of mass of the system located along X axis for figure
shown
b)

, 0

a) c)

, 0

d)

0,

2.

According to work energy theorem, total work done by net force acting on the body is equal to

a) Change in potential energy of the body

b) Change in kinetic energy of the body

c) Change in mechanical energy of the body
d) Change in internal energy of the body

3.

Given diagram represents the potential energy curve of particle in a field with position (where symbols have usual
meaning). Particle will be in equilibrium at position

a)

b)

At A and C

c)

At A, B and C

d)
 At A, B, C and D
4.

A body of mass m = 2 kg is projected with speed u = 20 m/s at an angle 60° with the horizontal from the surface of
earth.
Torque of its weight about the point of projection at t = 2 s is (take g = 10 m/s2)

a)

200 Nm

b)

200 √3 Nm

c)

400 √3 Nm

d) 400

Nm

5.

A body at rest explodes into two pieces of unequal mass. The centre of mass will

a)

Move towards heavier particle

b)

Towards lighter particle

c)

Not move

d)

Move in any direction

6.

Magnitude of angular momentum of a uniform circular wheel changes from A0 units to 4A0 units in 4 seconds. The
magnitude of the average torque may be

a) 5A0
 b)

units

c)

units

d)

Both (2) and (3)

7.

A man of mass 50 kg stands at the rim of a turntable of radius 2 m, and moment of inertia 4000 kg m 2 mounted on a
vertical frictionless shaft at its centre. The whole system is initially at rest. The man now walks along the outer edge
of turntable with a velocity of 1 m/s clockwise relative to ground. The angular velocity of turntable is a)

rad/s, anticlockwise

b)

rad/s, clockwise

c)

rad/s, clockwise

d)

rad/s, anticlockwise
8.

Two bodies of masses 10 kg and 2 kg are moving with velocities 2^𝑖 −7^𝑗 +3^𝑘 m/s and −10^𝑖 +35^𝑗 −3^𝑘 m/s
respectively. The velocity of their centre of mass is

a) 2^𝑖 m/s

b) 2^𝑘 m/s

c) (2^𝑗 +2^𝑘) m/s

d) (2^𝑖 +2^𝑗 +2^𝑘) m/s

9.

There are two spheres, one hollow and other solid, of same mass. If their moment of inertia about their diameter are
equal then ratio of their radii respectivey
 c)

d)

10.

A : Power developed in uniform circular motion is always zero.

R : Kinetic energy in uniform circular motion is variable.

a)

Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the

assertion b)

Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the
assertion c)

Assertion is true statement but Reason is false

d)

Both Assertion and Reason are false statements

11.

The graph of potential energy versus displacement of a spring oscillating about equilibrium position is

a)

A straight line

b)

A parabola

c)

An ellipse

d)

Sinusoidal

12.
The kinetic energy of a body is ‘k’. If half of its mass is removed and velocity is doubled, then its new kinetic energy will
be

a) k

b) 4k

c) 2k

d) 3k

13.

A force (2^𝑖 +4𝑗^ +𝛼𝑘^) N act on a body whose velocity is (^𝑖 +𝑗^ +2𝑘^) m/s. If the power delivered by force is 6 W, then

a) α = 1

b) α =

c) α =

d) α =

14.

Two persons of masses 60 kg and 80 kg respectively, are at the opposite ends of a boat. The length of the boat is 4.0 m
and weighs 100 kg. Both persons move towards each other and sit in the middle of the boat. The centre of mass of the
system shifts by (neglect water friction)

a)

0.25 m

b) 0.5

c)

0.75 m

d) zero

15.

The coefficient of restitution ‘e’ for a perfectly inelastic collision is

a)
 Zero

b)

c) –1

d)

16.

Two equal masses are moving along the same straight line with velocities +4 m/s and –7 m/s respectively collide
perfect inelastically. Speed of composite mass after collision will be a)

5.5 m/s

b)

1.5 m/s

c) 6

m/s

d)

Can’t be calculated

17. A force →𝐹 = (3^𝑖 +4𝑗^ +5𝑘^)N acts on an object and displaces it through 𝑑 = 5𝑘^ m . The total work done by the
force →
in this process is

a) 25

b) 60

c) 15

d) 20

18.

The radius of gyration of hollow sphere of radius R about its diameter is

 𝑅

19.

A ball is dropped from height 5 m. If it is rebound upto a height of 1.25 m after 1st collision then the coefficient of
restitution between the ball and the ground is

a)

b)

c)

d)

20.

The moment of inertia for the given system having four identical hollow sphere each of mass M and radius R about the
axis AA′ is

b)

𝑀𝑅2

c)

𝑀𝑅2

a)

d)

𝑀𝑅2
21.

A light rod of length l has two masses m1 and m2 attached to its two ends. The moment of inertia of the system about
an axis perpendicular to the rod and passing through the centre of mass is

a)

𝑙2

𝑙2

(m1 + m2)l2

d)

√𝑚1𝑚2 𝑙2

22.

A dancer on ice spins faster when she folds her arms. This is due to

a)

Increase in energy and increase in angular momentum

b)

Decrease in friction at the feet

c)

Constant angular momentum and increase in kinetic energy

d)

Increase in kinetic energy and decrease in angular momentum

23.

A : Work done by frictional force is always negative.

R : Friction force always decreases kinetic energy of the body.

a)

Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the

assertion b)
 Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the

assertion c)

Assertion is true statement but Reason is false

d)

Both Assertion and Reason are false statements

24.

A : If work done on the body is positive then its kinetic energy increases.

R : Work done by net force is equal to change in kinetic energy of body.

a)

Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the

assertion b)

Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the

assertion c)

Assertion is true statement but Reason is false

d)

Both Assertion and Reason are false statements

25.

A torque 𝜏 = 3𝑡2 +4𝑡 acts on a rotating solid sphere, then what is the change in the angular momentum of the sphere in
the time interval t = 0 to t = 4 s?

a)

96 kg-m2 s–1

b)

64 kg-m2 s–1
c)

32 kg-m2 s–1

d)

28 kg-m2 s–1

26.
If the linear density of a rod of length L varies as λ = kx where k is a constant and x is the distance of any point from
one end placed at origin. The distance of centre of mass from x = 0 is a)
2𝐿
3

b)

d)
3𝐿
4

27.

A disc of radius R is rolling purely on a flat horizontal surface, with a constant angular velocity. The angle between the
velocity and acceleration vectors of point P is

a)

b) 45°

c)

135°

d) tan−1 12

28.

The centre of mass of the system of three particles having masses and locations as shown in the figure, has coordinates
(in m)

b)

(2.4, 2.4)

c)

(1.2, 1.2)

d)
 a)

(2.4, 1.2)

29.

The curved portion of the track shown, is smooth and horizontal surface is rough (μ = 0.2). The block is released from P.
At what distance from A will it stop?

a)

b) 2

c) 3

d) 4

30.

A mass, m = 2 kg, is held such that springs are in relaxed condition initially, as shown. If the mass is suddenly released,
maximum elongation in each spring will be (K = 500 N/m, g = 10 m/s2)

a)

2 cm

b)

3 cm
 c)

4 cm

d)

8 cm

31.

A block of mass 5 kg is moving on x-axis with velocity of 8^𝑖 m/s . On reaching the origin, a force, 𝐹 = 3𝑥2^𝑖 N is

applied. The K.E. of block when it reaches x = 4 m is a) 64 J

b) 196

c) 224

d) 36

32.

A body is rolling down an inclined plane without slipping. If translational and rotational kinetic energy of body are
equal, the body is

a)

Solid sphere

b)

Hollow sphere

c)

Solid cylinder

d)

Hollow cylinder

33.
→
A force 𝐹 = 4^𝑖 −3^𝑗 +2^𝑘 N acting on the particle which moves from point P (1, 1, 0) m to Q (3, 2, 1) m. The work

done by the force on the particle will be

a)
 6J
b) 13 J

c) 10

d) 7

34.

A block of mass m is released from rest at point A. The compression of spring when the speed of block is maximum, is

a)

cos

35.

The potential energy of a particle at position x is given by U = (x2 – 4x + 2) J where x is in meter. The equilibrium
position of the particle will be

a) x = 2

b) x =

0
 c) x = 1

d) x = 3

36.

A block of mass 1 kg placed on a rough horizontal surface (μ = 0.5) is pulled by a constant horizontal force of 8 N. The

net work done on the block after covering a distance of 10 m is (g = 10 ms–2) a) 20 J

b) 80

c) 50

d) 30

37.

A chain is placed on a frictionless table with one fourth of its length hanging over the edge. If length of the chain is 4
m and its mass is 8 kg, then the work needed to slowly pull it back to the table is a) 30 J

b) 20

c) 10

d) 5.0

38.

A man and a plank of same mass are moving with a velocity v along positive x-axis. If the man jumps along negative
xaxis with a velocity v with respect to ground, then the speed of plank becomes

a)

v
 b) –v

c) 2v

d)

3v

39.

Total torque about pivot A provided by the forces shown in figure for L = 3.0 m, is

a)

b)

75 N m

c)

120 N m

d) 175 N

40.

A rod is hinged at point P, vertically standing upward. Due to slight jerk rod starts to come down. The angular velocity
of rod after turning angle θ is (Hinge is smooth)
 cos 2𝜃

sin 2𝜃

sin 2𝜃

41.

A ring is allowed to roll down on an incline of 1 in 10 without slipping. The acceleration of the centre of mass is

a)

9.8 m/s2

b)

4.9 m/s2

c)

0.98 m/s2

d)

0.49 m/s2
42.

The linear mass density of a non-uniform rod of length 1 m is given by λ = p(1 + qx2) where p and q are constant and 0 ≤
x ≤ 1. The centre of mass of the rod will be at
 a)

43.
→
A particle of mass m is moving with velocity 𝑣 along a line y = x + 4 then angular momentum of particle about an axis
perpendicular to the line and passing through origin O is a)

2𝑚𝑣(−^𝑗)
b)

2√2𝑚𝑣(−^𝑘)

c)

√2𝑚𝑣(^𝑗)

22 𝑚𝑣(^𝑖)

44.

Height h of inclined plane required to complete a vertical circular track of radius r by a ball of mass m as shown in the
figure will be

b)

𝑟
c)

ℎ< 𝑟

d)
 a)

𝑟
45.

A bullet of mass m hits a target of mass M hanging by a string and get embedded in it. If the block rises to a height h as
a result of this collision the velocity of bullet before collision is
a)
1− 𝑚
𝑣 = √2𝑔ℎ 𝑀

b)
1+ 𝑀𝑚
𝑣 = √2𝑔ℎ

c)
𝑣 = √2𝑔ℎ 1+ 𝑀𝑚

d) 𝑣 =

√2𝑔ℎ

46.
A cubical vessel of height 2 m is full of water. The amount of work done in pumping water out of vessel is (g = 10 m/s2
and density of water 1000 kg/m3)

a)

16 × 104 J

b)

8 × 104 J

c)

4 × 104 J

d)

2 × 104 J
47.
A steel ball of mass 5 g is thrown downward with velocity 10 m s–1 from height 9.5 m. It penetrates into the sand by

50 cm and stop. The change in mechanical energy of ball will be [g = 10 ms–2] a) 1 J

b) 0.75

c) 1.75

d) 1.5

48.

A car is driven along a straight level road by an engine delivering constant power. Then velocity of car is directly
proportional to

a)

b) t2

c) √𝑡

d)

A bomb of mass 9 kg at rest explodes into two pieces of masses 3 kg and 6 kg. The velocity of 3 kg mass is 16 m/s. The
kinetic energy of 6 kg mass is

a) 96

b) 192

c) 384

d) 768

J
50.

A force F = 20 N acts on a body of mass 5 kg at rest, then power of force at time 2 s will be

a)

40 W

b) 80

c)

160 W

d) 320

51.

If for the reaction, A(l) → 2B(g) + C(s) ΔU =

3.1 kcal and ΔS = 30 cal K–1 at 300 K.

then ΔG is (R = 2 cal mol–1 K–1)

a) – 13.3 kcal
b) 4.7 kcal
c) – 4.7 kcal
d) – 5.2 kcal

52.

Which of the following is incorrect regarding isothermal free expansion of an ideal

gas? a) q = 0

b) w =

c)

ΔU = 0

d) ΔS =

53.

Which among the following is an intensive property?

 a)

Mass

b)

Volume

c)

Entropy
d) Pressure

54.

Which of the following is incorrect for a cyclic process?

a)

ΔH = 0

b)

ΔU = 0

c)

ΔS = 0

d) W =

55.

Under what conditions, a reaction is spontaneous at all

temperatures? a)

ΔH > 0, ΔS > 0

b)

ΔH < 0, ΔS < 0

c)

ΔH > 0, ΔS < 0

d)

ΔH < 0, ΔS > 0

56.
2 moles of a gas is expanded isothermally and reversibly from 10 lit. to 50 lit at 300 K temperature. Work done during
the process is (Given log105 = 0.7)

a) – 8.04

kJ

b) + 12.5

kJ

c) – 4.01

kJ

d)

+ 6.2 kJ

57.

For which of the following reactions ΔH = ΔU?

a)

N2 g +3H2 g → 2NH3 g

b)

H2 g +I2 g → 2HI g

c)

2NO g +O2 g → 2NO2 g

d)

2CO g +O2 g → 2CO2 g

58.

If enthalpy of atomization of methane is 1665 kJ, what is the bond energy of C–

H? a) 832.5 kJ

b) 416.25

kJ

c)

3330 kJ
 d) 6660

kJ

59.

A : A process is spontaneous if ΔG is negative.

R : ΔG is the net energy available to do useful work.

a)

Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the

assertion b)

Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the

assertion c)

Assertion is true statement but Reason is false

d)

Both Assertion and Reason are false statements

60.
The temperature of the system decreases in an

a)

Adiabatic compression

b)

Isothermal compression

c)

Isothermal expansion

d)

Adiabatic expansion

61.

Which of the following is zero for an isochoric process?

a)

ΔP

b)

ΔV
 c)

ΔT

d)

ΔE

62.

If ΔrG° for any reaction is –2.303 then the value of equilibrium constant K.

a)

102 .303 / RT

b)

101 / RT

c)
10RT / 2 . 303

d) 10RT

63.

If enthalpy of neutralisation of a strong acid with strong base is –57.1 kJ/eq, then the enthalpy of dissociation of H2O
into ions is

a)

+57.1 kJ/mol
b)

–57.1 kJ/mol

c)

+13.7 kcal/mol

d)

Both (1) & (3)

64.

A system does 5 J of work and releases 20 J of heat to the surrounding. The change in internal energy of the system

is a) 25 J
 b) 15

c) –25

d) –15

65.

If Kw = 10–12 at 90°C, then the pH of pure water and its nature at 90°C will be

a) pH = 7, neutral

b) pH = 6, acidic
c) pH = 6, neutral
d) pH = 8, neutral

66.

pH of 0.01 M HCl solution is

a)

b)

c)

d)

67.
Keq = 0 . 2

A+B C+D
If rate constant of forward reaction is x then rate constant of backward reaction will

be a) 0.2x

b) 5x

c) 0.5x
 d) 10x

68.

The equilibrium, 3A2(g) + B2(g) ⇌ 5C(g) + 3D(g) is obtain by mixing equal moles of A2 and B2 in an evaluated vessel.
When equilibrium is attained then

a)

[A2] < [B2]

b) [C] <

[D]

c) [C] =

[D]

d)

[A2] > [B2]

69.

If solubility of a salt A2B3(s) is s then Ksp of salt will be a)

108 s4

b)

108 s5

c)

27 s4

d)

27 s3

70.
Conjugate acid of HSO–4 is

a) SO24

b)

SO23 –
 c)

H2SO4

d)

H2SO3

71.

For which of the following equilibrium, change in volume has no effect on equilibrium?

a)

PCl5(g) ⇌ PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)

b)

CaCO3(s) ⇌ CaO(s) + CO2(g)

c)

H2(g) + I2(g) ⇌ 2 HI(g)

d)

C(s) + CO2(g) ⇌ 2 CO(g)

72.

When a catalyst is added to equilibrium then

a)

Catalyst affects the activation energy of both the forward and backward reaction equally

b)

Catalyst changes equilibrium constant

c)

Catalyst changes energy of reactant molecules

d)

Catalyst changes energy of product molecules

73.

Equilibrium constant of a reaction depends on

a)
 Concentration of reactants
b)

Concentrations of products

c)

Volume of container

d)

Temperature

74.

If for the reactions

A ⇌ B, Kc = 10,

B ⇌ C, Kc = 5 and

C ⇌ D, Kc = 2 then Kc for the reaction A ⇌ D is a) 10

b) 20

c) 50

d) 100

75.

If equilibrium pressure in the reaction A(s) = B(g) + C(g) is 10 atm then Kp will be

a)

100 atm2

b)

25 atm2

c)

0.01 atm2

d)

1000 atm2
76.
pH of mixture of 500 ml 0.1 M CH3COOH and 250 ml 0.1 M NaOH solution is (given pKa of acetic acid is 4.74) a)

5.74

b) 5.04
c) 4.74
d) 11.74

77.

Among the following, select the salt of highest solubility

Given [Ksp(NiS) > Ksp(MnS) > Ksp(ZnS) > Ksp(CdS)

a) NiS
b) ZnS
c)

MnS

d) CdS

78. pH of aqueous solution of 0.01 M of Ca(OH)2 at 298

K is

(Given : log (0.02) = –1.7)

a) 1.7
b) 2.7
c) 12.3
d) 11.3

79.

N2O4 is 50% dissociated into NO2 at equilibrium. The vapour density of the gaseous mixture at equilibrium is

a) 46

b) 34.5

c) 23

d) 30.66

80.

Ksp of Fe(OH)3 is 6 × 10–38 at 25°C. Its molar solubility at pH = 10 is equal to a)

6 × 10–10 M
b)

6 × 10–26 M

c)

6 × 10–8 M
 d)

18 × 10–8 M
81.

The solubility of Ag2CrO4 is minimum in

a) Pure

water

b)

0.1 M NaCl

c)

0.2 M AgNO3

d) 0.1 M

K2CrO4

82.

The solubility of CdS in 0.2 M Na2S solution would be (Ksp of CdS is 8.0 × 10–27) a)

2 × 10–27 mol L–1

b)

4 × 10–26 mol L–1

c)

4 × 10–27 mol L–1

d)

4 × 10–14 mol L–1

83.

pH of a salt of strong acid and weak base is given as

a)

pH = 7+ 12pKa +logc

b)
 pH = 7− 12 pKb +logc

c)

pH = 7+pKb −logc

d)

pH = 7+ 12pKa −pKb

84.

Entropy change (in J/K) for the vaporization of 9 g water at 373 K and 1 atm is (Given : enthalpy of vaporisation of
water is 40.66 kJ/mol)

a) 54.5

b) 27.25

c)

109.2

d) 36.33

85.

Correct relation between heat capacities of 2 moles of a substance is

a)

Cp – Cv = 2R

b)

Cp – Cv = R

c)

Cp – Cv = R2

d)

Cp + Cv = 2R

86.

Which one of the following statements is true for an irreversible process?

a)

ΔSsystem + ΔSsurr = 0
 b) ΔSsystem + ΔSsurr = +ve
c) ΔSsystem + ΔSsurr = –ve
d) All of these

87.

The enthalpy of fusion of water is 1.435 kcal/mol. The molar entropy change for the melting of ice at 0ºC is

a)

5.260 cal/(mol K)

b)

0.526 cal/(mol K)

c)

10.52 cal/(mol K)

d)

21.04 cal/(mol K)

88.

The heat liberated on complete combustion of 1 mol of CH4 gas to CO2 (g) and H2O(l) is 890 kJ. Calculate the heat

evolved by 11.2 litre of CH4 at STP on complete combustion a) 445 kJ

b)

44.5 kJ

c)

1780 kJ

d) 890

kJ

89.

The difference between heat of reaction at constant pressure and at constant volume for the reaction C 6H12(l) +
9O2(g)
→ 6CO2(g) + 6H2O(l), at 27°C is

a) –14.96

kJ
 b) –7.48

kJ

c) +7.43

kJ

d) –10.23

kJ

90.

A gas expands in a well insulated container against a constant external pressure of 2.5 atm and the volume changes
from 2.5L to 4.5L. The change in internal energy will be [1 L atm = 101.3 J] a) Zero
b) –506.5 J
c) 506.5 J
d)

–1139.6 J

91.

A given mass of gas expands from the state A to the state B by three paths 1, 2 and 3 as shown in the figure. If w 1, w2
and w3 respectively be the work done by the gas along three paths then

The compound which is not a Lewis acid is

a)

CCl4

b) BF3
 c)

AlCl3

d) BeCl2

93.

AB2(g) dissociates as AB2(g) ⇌ AB(g) + B(g).

Initial pressure of AB2 is 500 mm Hg. The total pressure at equilibrium is 600 mm Hg. Assuming the volume of system

to remain constant the value of KP in mm Hg for the reaction is a) 50

b) 25

c)

100

d)

400

94.

For the reaction, P + 3Q ⇌ 2R + S

Initial moles of P is thrice to that of Q. If at equilibrium moles of Q and R are equal, then the percent of Q reacted is

a)

10%

b)

20%

c)

40%

d)

60%

95.

Which of the following equilibrium reactions follows KP = KCRT? a)

PCl5(g) ⇌ PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)

b)
 H2(g) + I2(g) ⇌ 2HI(g)

c)

N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g)

d)

2SO2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2SO3(g)

96.

Among the following which pair of solution can form buffer solution?

a) CH3COOH and H2SO4

b) CH3COOH and HCl
c) CH3COOH and HNO3
d) CH3COOH and Ca(OH)2

97.

Which of the following salt doesn’t undergo hydrolysis?

a)

CH3CO2Na
 b)

HCO2K

c)

NH4NO3

d)

KNO3

98.

Which one of the following equilibrium moves in forward direction when pressure is applied?

(A) H2(g) + I2(g) ⇌ 2HI(g)

(B) PCl5(g) ⇌ PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)

(C) N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g)

(D) 2NO2 (g) ⇌ N2O4 (g)

a) A, C
b) C, D
c) B, C
d) A, D

99.

For the given reaction which of the following is a correct relation?

2H(g) → H2(g)

a)

ΔH > O and ΔS > O

b)

ΔH < O and ΔS > O

c)

ΔH > O and ΔS < O

d)

ΔH < O and ΔS < O

100.
The degree of dissociation of 0.1 M CH3COOH in 0.1 M HCl will be (Ka(CH3COOH) = 10–5) a)

10–3

b)

10–5

c)

10–4

d) 10–

101.

Brown algae differ from green algae as the former have

a)

Chlorophyll a

b) Pyrenoids

c)

Cellulosic cell wall

d)

Hydrocolloid covering outside their cell wall

102.

In which of the following groups, motile gametes are absent?

a)

Green algae

b)

Mosses

c)

Brown algae

d) Red

algae
103.

Read the following statements and choose the correct option.

Assertion : Natural system of classification classify organisms on the basis of their natural affinities.

Reason : Fossils play important role in natural system of classification to elucidate evolutionary relationship among
organisms.

a)

Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the

assertion. b)

Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

c)

Assertion is true statement but Reason is false.

d)

Both Assertion and Reason are false statements.

104.

Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. artificial system of classification.

a)

It gaves equal weightage to vegetative and sexual characteristics

b)

It is based on a single or a few morphological characters

c)

It is advanced system of classification

d)

It separated the closely related species as they were based on few characteristics

105.

Which of the given statements is not correct about numerical taxonomy?

a)

Hundreds of characters are compared at the same time

b)
 Equal importance is given to every character

c)

Easy to perform with the help of computers

d)

Use of number and codes for reproductive characters only

106.

Spirogyra differs from Fucus as the former lacks

a)

Chlorophyll a

b) Flagellated male gametes

c) Non-flagellated male gametes
d) Thalloid gametophyte

107.

Read the following statements and choose the correct option.

(A) The members of Chlorophyceae are usually grass green in colour due to dominance of pigments chlorophyll a and
b.
(B) In red algae, complex post-fertilisation developments occur.

a)

Only statement (A) is correct

b)

Only statement (B) is correct

c)

Both statements (A) and (B) are correct

d)

Both statements (A) and (B) are incorrect

108.

Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. bryophytes.

a)

They produce spores

b)

They lack true roots

c)

They lack vascular tissue

d)

Their sporophyte is free-living

109.

Select the correct statement w.r.t. protonema

a)

It is the embryonic stage of liverworts

b)

It is non-photosynthetic and dependent stage in pteridophytes

c)

It is a green, branched and filamentous stage of mosses

d)
 It is gamete forming structure in liverworts

110.

Vegetative propagation in Funaria occurs through

a)

Fission

b)

Fragmentation of protonema

c)

Zoospores

d)

Flagellated spores

111.

A moss provides peat which can be used as fuel. This moss is

a) Polytrichum
b) Sphagnum
c) Funaria
d) Riccia

112.

Pteridophytes

a)

Lack vascular tissues

b)

Have plant body differentiated in root, stem and leaves

c)

Have dominant gametophytic phase in their life cycle

d)

Do not require water for their fertilisation

113.

In pteridophytes the sporophylls are born on

a)
 Gametophytes

b) Sporophytes

c) Prothallus

d) Rhizoids

114.

The spread of living pteridophytes is limited and restricted to narrow geographical regions
because

a)

Gametophytes are dependent on sporophytes

b)

Sporophytes require cool, damp place to produce gametes

c)

Gametophytes require cool, damp and shady places to grow.

d)

They do not need water for fertilisation

115.

Find the incorrect match.

a)

Psilotum – Psilopsida

b)

Selaginella – Sphenopsida

c)

Equisetum – Sphenopsida

d)

Adiantum – Pteropsida

116.

Egg apparatus in the embryo sac of angiosperm is

a) 3-celled

b) 2-celled
 c) 7-celled

d) 8-celled

117.

Double fertilisation and triple fusion events are unique to

a) Algae

b)
 Angiosperms
c)

Gymnosperms

d) Pteridophytes

118.

Formation of triploid endosperm nucleus is a characteristic feature of

a)

Sunflower

b) Cedrus

c)

Funaria

d) Eudorina

119.

The plant which lacks archegonia is

a) Salvinia

b) Cycas

c)

Cedrus

d) Wolffia

120.

Spring wood formed in dicot stem during secondary growth

a)

Is lighter in colour

b)

Has higher density

c)

Possesses narrow vessels

d)
Does not contribute to the annual rings
121.

The common characteristic for heartwood and sapwood is that

a)

They have the deposition of organic compounds like tannins, resins, gums, etc.

b)

They do not conduct water

c)

They are dark in colour

d) These are the regions of secondary

xylem

122.

Select the most probable reason for which lenticels are called ‘breathing pores’.

a)

It is a small portion of periderm.

b)

It is produced due to the activity of phellogen.

c)

Lenticels are lens-shaped openings and serve for exchange of gases between internal tissues of stem and
outer atmosphere.

d)

These are thin-walled cells.

123.

How many of the following do/does not show secondary growth?

(a) Monocot stem

(b) Dicot root

(c) Gymnosperm root

(d) Gymnosperm stem

(e) Dicot stem

a)
 One

b)

Two

c)
Three
d) Four 124.

Bulliform cells are

a) Green coloured photosynthetic cells

b) Modified adaxial epidermal cells
c) Helpful to maximise water loss
d) Small endodermal cells125.

Ground tissue of leaves is called

a) Conjunctive tissue
b) Stelar tissue
c) Mesophyll tissue
d) Conducting tissue

126.

The stele of a dicot stem includes all, except

a) Vascular

bundles

b) Pericycle

c) Pith

d) Endodermis

127.

Choose the odd one for monocot stem.

a)

Hypodermis

b) Pith

c)

Xylem
 d) Ground

tissue

128.

Endodermis is called starch sheath in

a) Dicot

stem

b) Monocot

root

c) Dicot

root

d) Monocot

stem

129.

Read the given statements and select the correct option.

A : Vascular bundles are scattered and are closed in wheat stem.

B : Xylem fibre is the only dead element of xylem.

a) Only A is incorrect
b) Only B is incorrect
c) Both A and B are incorrect
d) Both A and B are correct

130.

Vascular bundles in dicotyledons are considered as open because

a)

Vessels are with perforations

b)

Cambium is present

c)

Xylem is surrounded by phloem

d)

A bundle sheath is absent over each bundle

131.

Root hair and trichome both are

a)

Always unicellular

b)

Branched

c)

Epidermal outgrowths
d)

Responsible for preventing water loss

132.

Choose the correct option to fill the blank.

‘In grasses, the guard cells are ____ shaped’.

a)

Round

b) Bean

c)

Kidney

d) Dumb-bell

133.

In root endodermis, casparian strips are formed due to deposition of

a)

Suberin

b) Chitin

c)

Lignin

d) Cutin

134.

Phloem parenchyma is usually absent in

 a)

Monocot plants

b) Dicot

plants

c) All seed

plants

d)

All vascular plants

135.

Lateral roots arise from

a)

Epidermis

b) Pericycle

c)

Hypodermis

d) Pith

136.

The element of xylem tissue that has cytoplasm even at maturity

is a) Tracheid

b) Vessel

c)

Xylem parenchyma

d) Xylem

fibre

137.

Parenchyma and collenchyma cells are similar in all of the following features,

except a) Being living

b)

Being thin walled

 c)

May have chloroplast

d)

Being simple permanent tissue

138.

All of the following vascular tissues can be seen in maize stem, except

a)

Protophloem
b)

Metaxylem

c)

Secondary xylem

d)

Protoxylem

139.

________ meristems are found in grasses where they help to regenerate the parts removed by the grazing
herbivores.

Choose the correct option to fill in the blank.

a) Lateral

b) Apical

c)

Secondary

d)

Intercalary

140.

Sclereids are found in all except

a) Fruit pulp of guava

b)

Pith of young dicot stem

 c) Fruit wall of nuts
d) Seed coat of legumes

141.

Vessels are main water conducting elements of members of

a)

Angiosperms

b)

Gymnosperms

c)

Pteridophytes

d)

Algae

142.

Protoxylem differs from metaxylem as the former

a) Is first formed primary xylem

b) Is involved in conduction of water
c) Has vessel with broader lumen
d) Is found at periphery in stem

143.

Meiosis occurs in zygote of

a)

Marchantia

b) Salvinia

c) Cycas

d) Spirogyra

144.

Which of these algae exhibit the haplo-diplontic life cycle?

a) Fucus,

Ulothrix

b)
 Ectocarpus, Polysiphonia

c) Volvox,

Laminaria

d)

Spirogyra, Laminaria

145.

Leaves of conifers do not have/show

a) Thick

cuticle

b) Sunken

stomata

c)

Reduced surface
area d) High water loss
146.

Gymnosperms lack

a) Seeds

b) Ovary

c)

Megasporangia

d) Female

gametophyte 147.

The giant red wood tree is

a)

Sequoia, a gymnosperm

b)

Ficus, an angiosperm

c)

Wolfia, an angiosperm
 d)

Selaginella, a pteridophyte

148.

In most of the gymnosperms, pollination occurs by

a) Air

currents

b) Water

c) Insects

d) Birds

149.

Diplontic life cycle is found in

a)

All seed-bearing plants

b)

All vascular cryptogams

c)

All amphibians of plant kingdom

d)

All homosporous plants

150.

Select the odd one w.r.t. features of gymnosperms.

a)

They have naked seeds

b)

They have tap roots

c)

They are homosporous

d)
 They include shrubs and medium sized tree

151.

Which of the following is not a function of hypothalamus?

a)

It has thermoregulating centre

b)

It has hunger and thirst centre

c)

It secretes neurohormones

d)

It controls respiration, cardiovascular reflexes and gastric secretions

152.

Major regions that make up the brain stem include

a)

Pons varolii, Cerebellum, Medulla oblongata

 b)

Pons varolli, Corpora quadrigemina, Medulla oblongata

c)

Cerebrum, Cerebellum, Medulla oblongata

d)

Corpora quadrigemina, Cerebrum, Pons varolii

153.

Read the following statements related to the neural system in humans.

Statement-I : The electrical potential difference across the plasma membrane of a resting neuron is called the resting
potential.

Statement-II : A nerve impulse is transmitted from one neuron to another through junctions called synapses.

Select the correct option.

a) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect

b) Statement II is correct but statement I is incorrect
c) Both the statements I and II are correct
d) Both the statements I and II are incorrect

154.

Limbic system is concerned with all of the following, except

a)

Regulation of sexual behaviour

b)

Expression of emotional reactions

c)

Motivation

d)

Regulation of breathing

155.

Neurons in which part of brain, establish and maintain the set point of body temperature in

humans? a)

Medulla oblongata
 b)

Pons varolii

c)

Hypothalamus

d)

Corpora quadrigemina

156.

Unipolar neurons with an axon and no dendrites are present in

a)

Embryos

b)

Dorsal root ganglia of spinal cord

c)

Brain

d) Retina

157.

Read the following statements and choose the correct option

Statement A : Dendrites conduct nerve impulses towards the cell body or cyton

Statement B : From cyton, the axon conducts the nerve impulse towards the nerve endings

a)

Statement A is correct but statement B is incorrect

b)

Statement B is correct but statement A is incorrect

c)

Both statements are correct

d)

Both statements are incorrect

158.
Arrival of an impulse at axon terminals stimulates the movement of synaptic vesicles towards A membrane in a/an

B synapse.

Select the option filling both blanks correctly.

a)

A– Pre-synaptic, B– Electrical

b)

A– Pre-synaptic, B– Chemical

c)

A– Post-synaptic, B– Electrical

d)
A– Post-synaptic, B– Chemical

159.

A synapse is formed by the

a)

Presynaptic membrane and synaptic cleft only

b)

Synaptic cleft and post synaptic membrane only

c)

Synaptic vesicle and dendrite

d)

Membranes of a presynaptic neuron and a postsynaptic neuron, which may or may not be separated by synaptic
cleft

160.

CNS comprises of

a) Brain and spinal cord

b) Brain and cranial nerves
c) Afferent neurons and spinal nerves
d) Spinal cord and cranial nerves

161.
Type of joint in humans that does not help in locomotion and other movements, is

a)

Hinge joint

b)

Gliding joint

c)

Cartilaginous joint

d)

Fibrous joint

162.

Characteristics of white muscle fibres will include presence of all, except

a)

Few mitochondria

b)

Little myoglobin

c)

Less sarcoplasmic reticulum

d)

Method for ATP generation is primarily anaerobic oxidation during strenous exercise

163.

Match column I and II. Choose the correct option.

Column I Column II

Autoimmune disorder affecting neuromuscular junction leading to paralysis of skeletal

a. Gout (i)
muscles.

b. Osteoporosis (ii) Progressive degeneration of skeletal muscles mostly due to genetic disorders

Muscular Age related disorder characterised by decreased bone mass and increased chances of
c. (iii) dystrophy fractures.
d. Myasthenia gravis (iv) Inflammation of joints due to accumulation of uric acid crystals a) a(i), b(ii),

c(iii), d(iv)

b)

a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)

c) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)

d)

a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)

164.

Which of the following is odd one w.r.t. human cranium?

a)

Nasal

b)

Ethmoid

c)

Sphenoid

d) Parietal

165.

A single, U-shaped bone present at the base of the buccal cavity is

a) Hyoid

b) Mandible
c) Sphenoid
d) Occipital

166.

In a resting muscle, the central part of thick filament in a sarcomere is not overlapped by thin filament. This central
part is called

a)

H – zone

b) Z –

line
 c) I–

band

d) A –

band

167.

The regulatory proteins helpful in muscle contraction are

a)

Actin and tropomyosin

b)

Tropomyosin and myosin

c)

Actin and troponin

d)

Tropomyosin and troponin

168.

Select the correct match.

a)

Pectoral girdle – Articulation of lower limbs

b)

Pelvic girdle – Articulation of upper limbs

c)

Scapula – Acromion process

d)

Acetabulum – Formed by fusion of only ischium and pubis

169.

The type of joint present between acetabulum and femur is also present between

a) Carpal and metacarpal of thumb

b) Humerus and pectoral girdle
c) Atlas and axis
d) Carpals
170.

Read the following statements carefully w.r.t. skeletal muscle and choose the correct answer.

A : Each fascicle consist of numerous muscle fibres

B : All fascicles of a muscle are held together by fascia a)

Both statements are correct

b)

Both statements are incorrect

c)

Only statement A is correct

d)

Only statement B is correct

171.

Repeated activation of muscle can lead to accumulation of lactic acid to cause muscle fatigue. This lactic acid is
produced due to

a)

Aerobic breakdown of glycogen

b)

Creatine phosphate

c)

Anaerobic breakdown of glycogen

d)

Increase in ATP

172.

Knee joint and elbow joint are examples of

a)

Pivot joint

b)
 Gliding joint
c)

Saddle joint

d) Hinge

joint

173.

Ciliary movement occurs in all of the following, except

a)

Movement of foreign particles trapped in mucus in trachea

b)

Movement of ova through female reproductive tract

c)

Movement of CSF through brain & spinal cord

d)

Movement of sperm through vagina of females

174.

Choose the incorrect statement.

a)

The longest bone in man is tibia

b)

The anterior joint formed by two coxal bones is the pubic symphysis

c)

The joint of the pectoral girdle with humerus allows free movements in many directions

d)

The bones that make up the palm are metacarpals

175.

The axial skeleton aligned along the main axis of the human body has how many

bones? a) 120

b) 80
 c) 40

d)
33

176.

In human body, which one of the following is anatomically correct?

a)

The facial region is made up of 14 skeletal elements

b)

A single S-shaped hyoid bone is present at the roof of the buccal cavity

c)

Two occipital condyles are present in the first vertebra

d)

Ribs are connected to the sternum with the help of white fibrocartilage

177.

Neural system differs from endocrine system in providing/maintaining all of the following, except

a)

Point-to-point coordination

b)

Rapid coordination

c)

Homeostasis

d)

Quick but short-lived coordination

178.

Visceral neural system is a part of

a)

Somatic neural system

b)

Central neural system

 c)

Peripheral neural system

d)

Sympathetic neural system only

179.

The sodium-potassium pump spends one ATP to

a)

Transport 3Na+ and 2K+ out of the neuron

b)

Transport 2Na+ and 3K+ out of the neuron

c)

Transport 3Na+ out and 2K+ into the neuron

d)

Transport 3Na+ in and 2K+ out of the neuron

180.

At rest, myosin binding site on actin filaments are masked by

a) Calcium

ions

b) Troponin

c)

Magnesium ions

d)

ATP

181.

How many axons and dendrites are usually present in the multipolar neurons?

a)

One axon and one dendrite

 b)

One axon and two or more dendrites

c)

Two axons and one dendrite

d)

Two dendrites and three axons

182.

In a neuron, the vesicles containing neurotransmitters are located in the

a)

Nucleus

b)
Synaptic cleft
c) Synaptic
knob

d) Cell

body

183.

Receptor sites for neurotransmitters are present on

a)

Pre-synaptic membranes

b) Tips of

axons

c)

Membranes of synaptic vesicles

d)

Post-synaptic membranes

184.

Neurotransmitters are stored in

 a) Schwann cells
b) Nissl’s granules
c) Nucleus
d) Synaptic vesicles

185.

During the resting state of a nerve fibre, the axonal membrane is

a) More permeable to K+ than Na+

b) More permeable to Na+ than K+
c) Equally permeable to Na+ and K+
d) More permeable to Cl– and Na+

186.

Organism which exhibits the nerve cell but not brain, is

a) Hydra

b) Spongilla

c) Periplaneta

d)
Aedes

187.

Which of the following statements is correct for node of Ranvier of nerve?

a)

Neurilemma is discontinuous

b)

Myelin sheath is discontinuous

c)

Both Neurilemma and myelin sheath are discontinuous

d)

Covered by myelin sheath

188.

The part of brain which is involved in intersensory association, memory and communication is

a) Pons
 b)

Sensory area of cerebrum

c)

Cerebellum

d)

Association area of cerebrum

189.

Identify A, B, C and D in the following given structure of myosin monomer.

Choose the option which represents A, B, C and D correctly.

A B C D
(1) Head Cross arm ATP binding sites Tail
(2) Actin binding sites Short arm ATP binding sites Cross arm
(3) Head Short arm Actin binding site Cross arm
(4) ATP binding sites Globular head Short arm Tail

a)
(1)
b) (2)

c) (3)

d) (4)

190.

Vertebral column in adult humans is formed by serially arranged vertebrae each having a central hollow
portion termed through which the spinal cord passes. ‘A’ and ‘B’ respectively are a) 22, glenoid cavity
b) 26, spinous process
c) 26, neural canal
d) 22, spinous process

191.

Read the following statements carefully and select the incorrect option w.r.t. visceral muscle fibres.

a)
 They are located in the wall of the alimentary canal.

b)

They do not show any striations.

c)

They are uninucleated and exhibit slow contractions.

d)

They are voluntary as their functions can be directly controlled by our will.

192.

ATPase activity is associated with protein named

a)

Actin

b) Troponin

c)

Myosin

d)

Tropomyosin

193.

The type of muscle fibres present in our

a)

Biceps are uninucleated and voluntary

b)

Heart are non-striated and involuntary

c)

Thigh are multinucleated and fusiform in shaped

d)

Stomach are unbranched and involuntary

194.

Which of the following does not occur during muscle contraction?

 a)

Release of calcium into sarcoplasm

b)

Unmasking of myosin binding sites on actin

c)

Binding of ATP on actin head

d)

Shortening of sarcomere

195.

Bone associated with middle ear of man is

a)

Malleus

b)

Mandible

c)

Maxilla

d) Metacarpal

196.

Which of the following bones does not participate in formation of rib cage?

a)

Collar bone

b) Ribs

c)

Sternum

d)

Thoracic vertebrae

197.

Structures that help in maintenance of body balance and posture are

 a)

Organ of Corti, vestibular apparatus

b) Crista,

macula

c)

Otolith, tectorial membrane

d)

Reissner’s membrane, crista ampullaris

198.

At the posterior pole of eye, blind spot is present

a)

Lateral to the macula lutea

b)

Medial to the macula lutea

c)

Lateral to the fovea

d)

Medial to the optic nerves

199.

In knee jerk reflex, the efferent neurons terminate at

a) Motor end-

plate

b)

Grey matter of spinal cord

c)

White matter of spinal

cord d) Receptor

200.

The outermost cranial meninx in humans is

a) Dura mater
b) Pia mater

c) Arachnoid
d) Corpus callosum